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Fundamentos de Redes

Chapter 1
1. Which two equipments are considered intermediary devices? (Choose two)
- Switches
- Routers
2. The network that is bringing together people, processes, data, and infrastructure is called:
- IoE
3. What type of network is typically the slowest?
4. What is a network that provides access to other networks over a wide geographical area?
5. What is a network where many computers play the role of servers and clients at the same time?
- Peer-to-peer
6. The reliable network takes care of three of the following components: (Choose three)
- QoS
- Scalability
- fault tolerance.
7. The Internet is comprised only of public networks.
- False
8. The Extranet reach more users than the Intranet in an organization.
- True
9. What is a computer that runs multiple software programs to access different services on the network?
- Client
10. Typical Internet connections include T1, T3, and E1, E3 circuits.
- Leased lines

Chapter 2
1. Which command will add a privileged-exec mode to a switch?
- Switch(config)# enable secret class
2. Which two programs can be used to connect to a console port on a switch or router? (Choose two)
- HyperTerminal
- PuTTy
3. Which utility is useful to test connectivity between IP devices?
- ping
4. The show running-config command shows the contents of the configuration on:
5. Which is the prompt shown on a switch in privileged mode?
- Switch#
6. The command C:/> ping _____ from a PC command line, will test the local host TCP/IP protocol stack.
7. Which are two out-of-bands methods to gain access to the CLI on a switch? (Choose two)
- aux
- console
8. Which two pieces of information can the show version command display? (Choose two)
- Software features
- Bootstrap version
9. The _____ command will take the switch from privileged-exec mode to user-exec mode.
- disable
10. The command _____ is used to change form privileged-exec mode to global configuration mode.
- configure terminal

Chapter 3
1. Which two message timing mechanisms are used in data communications? (Choose two)
- flow control
- response timeout
2. Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously?
- broadcast
3. Which two components are added to the PDU at the network access layer? (Choose two)
- trailer
- frame header
4. Which logical address is used for delivery of data to a remote network?
- destination IP address
5. Which statement is correct about network protocols?
- They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the destination.
6. What organization developed the OSI reference model that is used in networking?
7. Which standards organization developed the 802.3 (Ethernet) standard?
8. What type of delivery uses data link layer addresses?
- local delivery
9. Which organization develops the 802 family of standards for wired and wireless LANs and MANs?
10. Match the TCP/IP layer to the protocol, service, or application that works within that layer. (Not all
options are used)
- application layer DNS
- transport layer UDP
- Internet layer ICMP
- network access layer WLAN

Chapter 4
1. In fiber optic media, the signals are represented as patterns of _____.
- light
2. Which two statements are true of the deterministic access method? (Choose two)
- Devices take turns transmitting
- the throughput is predictable.
3. Refer to the exhibit. One end of the cable is terminated as displayed, and the other end is terminated in
accordance with the T568A standard. What type of cable would be created in this manner?
- straight-through
4. An administrator measured the transfer of usable data across a 100 Mb/s physical channel over a given
period of time and obtained 60 Mb/s. Which kind of measurement did the administrator obtain?
- goodput
5. What is the correct color order of wire when terminating a cable by the T568B standard? Match the correct
RJ-45 pin order to the wire color. (Not all options are used)
- Pin 1 white/orange
- Pin 2 orange
- Pin 3 white/green
- Pin 4 blue
- Pin 5 white/blue
- Pin 6 green
- Pin 7 white/brown
- Pin 8 brown.
6. When is a wired connection preferred to a wireless connection by an end-user device?
- when the end-user device will run an application that requires a dedicated connection to the network
7. Which two factors influence the method that is used for media access control? (Choose two)
- how nodes share the media
- how the connection between nodes appears to the data link layer
8. Which is a function of the Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer?
- to identify which network layer protocol is being used
9. Which statement describes a characteristic of the frame header fields of the data link layer?
- They vary depending on protocols.
10. Which two engineering organizations define open standards and protocols that apply to the data link layer?
(Choose two)
- International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
- International Organization for Standardization (ISO)

Chapter 5
1. The Ethernet _____ sublayer is responsible for communicating directly with the physical layer.
2. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC3. In this scenario,
what will happen next?
- RT1 will send an ARP reply with its own Fa0/0 MAC address.
3. What type of address is 01-00-5E-0A-00-02?
- an address that reaches a specific group of hosts
4. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?
5. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination MAC address of the Ethernet frame as it leaves the web server
if the final destination is PC1?
- 00-60-2F-3A-07-CC
6. Which term defines the processing capabilities of a switch by rating how much data can be processed per
- forwarding rate
7. Which action is taken by a Layer 2 switch when it receives a Layer 2 broadcast frame?
- It sends the frame to all ports except the port on which it received the frame.
8. On Ethernet networks, the hexadecimal address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF represents the _____ MAC
- broadcast
9. Which two functions or operations are performed by the MAC sublayer? (Choose two)
- It adds a header and trailer to form an OSI Layer 2 PDU
- It is responsible for Media Access Control
10. What is a characteristic of a contention-based access method?
- It is a nondeterministic method.
11. Which interface command must be entered in a Layer 3 switch before an IPv4 address can be assigned to
that interface?
- no switchport
12. Refer to the graphic. H2 has sent a broadcast message to all of the hosts. If host H1 wants to reply to the
broadcast message, which statement is true?
- H1 sends a unicast message to H2, and the switch forwards it directly to H2.
13. A collision fragment, also known as a _____ frame, is a frame of fewer than 64 bytes in length.
- runt

Chapter 6
1. What are two functions that are provided by the network layer? (Choose two)
- providing end devices with a unique network identifier
- directing data packets to destination hosts on other networks
2. Which two files are loaded into RAM by the router when it boots? (Choose two)
- startup configuration
- IOS image
3. A packet arrives at a router interface. The router goes through a series of steps to determine where the
packet should be forwarded. Place the steps of the router forwarding process in the correct order. (Not all
options are used)
- 1 - examine packet header
- 2 - determine destination network
- 3 - examine routing table
- 4 - identify exit interface to destination from route entry
- 5 - move packet to forwarding interface
4. When transporting data from real-time applications, such as streaming audio and video, which field in the
IPv6 header can be used to inform the routers and switches to maintain the same path for the packets in the
same conversation?
- Flow Label
5. Which value, that is contained in an IPv4 header field, is decremented by each router that receives a
- Time-to-Live
6. During troubleshooting procedures, from which location will most Cisco routers load a limited IOS?
7. Which feature on a Cisco router permits the forwarding of traffic for which there is no specific route?
- gateway of last resort
8. How does the network layer use the MTU value?
- The MTU is passed to the network layer by the data link layer.
9. Within a production network, what is the purpose of configuring a switch with a default gateway address?
- The default gateway address is used to forward packets originating from the switch to remote networks.
10. What is the command netstat -r used for?
- to display the host routing table
11. During the boot process, in what memory location will the router bootstrap program look for the IOS image
if a TFTP server is not used?
- flash
12. Which router bootup sequence is correct?
- 1 - perform the POST and load the bootstrap program
2 - locate and load the Cisco IOS software
3 - locate and load the startup configuration file or enter setup mode

Chapter 7
1. What happens if part of an FTP message is not delivered to the destination?
- The part of the FTP message that was lost is re-sent.
2. Refer to the exhibit. What does the value of the window size specify?
- the amount of data that can be sent before an acknowledgment is required
3. Which two applications use UDP as the transport layer protocol? (Choose two)
- DNS queries
4. What is the purpose of using a source port number in a TCP communication?
- to keep track of multiple conversations between devices
5. Refer to the exhibit. What step in a TCP session does this capture represent?
- session termination
6. Which number or set of numbers represents a socket?
7. Which three fields are used in a UDP segment header? (Choose three)
- Source Port
- Checksum
- Length
8. What is an advantage of UDP over TCP?
- UDP communication requires less overhead.
9. Which action is performed by a client when establishing communication with a server via the use of UDP at
the transport layer?
- The client randomly selects a source port number.
10. When a client connects to an HTTP server by the use of a randomly generated source port number, what
destination port number will the HTTP server use when building a response?
- the original source port number that was randomly generated by the client

Chapter 8
1. Which two statements describe broadcast transmissions on a wired network? (Choose two)
- Directed broadcasts are intended for all hosts on a local or remote network.
- Limited broadcasts are only intended for the hosts on a local network.
2. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
- Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
3. A user who is unable to connect to the file server contacts the help desk. The helpdesk technician asks the
user to ping the IP address of the default gateway that is configured on the workstation. What is the purpose
for this ping command?
- To test if the workstation can communicate on the network
4. The shortest compressed format of the IPv6 address 2001:0DB8:0000:1470:0000:0000:0000:0200 is _____.
- 2001:DB8:0:1470::200
5. Which statement is true about an interface that is configured with the IPv6 address command?
- A link-local IPv6 address is automatically configured on the interface
6. The 8-bit binary value for 41 is _____.
- 00101001
7. A network administrator notices that the default gateway device sends an ICMP Redirect message to the
workstation when the workstation tries to connect to a file server on another network. What is the purpose for
this ICMP message?
- To notify the workstation, that another router on the same network, is the better default-gateway to reach
the remote server.
8. Which type of IPv6 address is not routable and used only for communication on a single subnet?
- link-local address
9. A user is unable to access the company server from a computer. On issuing the ipconfig command, the user
finds that the IP address of the computer is displayed as What type of address is this?
- link-local
10. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this
prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?
- 16
11. The last host address on the network is _____.

Chapter 9
1. What is the main reason that a network administrator would use VLSM?
- Efficient use of address space
2. What is an advantage of subnetting a network?
- It contains broadcast traffic within its subnet.
3. What does the IP address represent?
- Broadcast address
4. A network engineer is subnetting the network into smaller subnets. Each new subnet will
contain between a minimum of 20 hosts and a maximum of 30 hosts. Which subnet mask will meet these
5. Consider the following range of addresses: 2001:0DB8:BC15:0600:0000:: to 2001:0DB8:BC15:0FFF:0000:: The
prefix for the range of addresses is _____.
- /52
6. Which two devices do not require an IP address in order to operate on a network? (Choose two)
- Switches
- hubs
7. What two IPv6 prefixes are valid when nibble aligned subnet masks are used? (Choose two)
- /64
- /68
8. Three devices are on three different subnets. Match the network address and the broadcast address with
each subnet where these devices are located. (Not all options are used)
Device 1: IP address on subnet 1
Device 2: IP address192.168.10.17/30 on subnet 2
Device 3: IP address on subnet 3
- Subnet 1 broadcast address:
- Subnet 2 network number:
- Subnet 2 broadcast address:
- Subnet 3 network number:
- Subnet 3 broadcast address:
9. How many host addresses are available on the network?
- 62
10. Refer to the exhibit. A company is deploying an IPv6 addressing scheme for its network. The company
design document indicates that the subnet portion of the IPv6 addresses is used for the new hierarchical
network design, with the site subsection to represent multiple geographical sites of the company, the subsite section to represent multiple campuses at each site, and the subnet section to indicate each network
segment separated by routers. With such a scheme, what is the maximum number of subnets achieved per subsite?
- 16
11. An IPv6 address block with a /48 prefix has a/an _____ bit field for the subnet ID.
- 16

12. The network portion of the address is _____.

- 172.16
13. An administrator wants to create four subnetworks from the network address What is the
network address and subnet mask of the second useable subnet?
- Network address:, subnet mask:
14. Which two types of device are typically assigned with static IP addresses? (Choose two)
- Web servers
- Printers
Chapter 10
1. What is an advantage of SMB over FTP?
- SMB clients can establish a long-term connection to the server.
2. What is true about a peer-to-peer network?
- Each device can function as a server and a client.
3. Which statement is true about FTP?
- The client can download data from or upload data to the server.
4. Which command is used to manually query a DNS server to resolve a specific host name?
- nslookup
5. Which OSI layer is concerned with formatting data such as GIF and JPEG graphic images?
- presentation layer
6. Which domain name would be an example of a top-level domain?
- .com
7. Which statement is true about peer-to-peer applications?
- They require each end device to provide a user interface and run a background service.
8. A user reboots a PC which has been configured to dynamically receive an IPv4 address from a DHCP server.
In which order do the DHCP message transactions between the client and server occur?
9. Which two definitions accurately describe the associated application layer protocol? (Choose two)
- Telnet - provides remote access to servers and networking devices; DNS - resolves Internet names to IP
10. When retrieving email messages, which protocol allows for easy, centralized storage and backup of emails
that would be desirable for a small- to medium-sized business?

Chapter 11
1. Which type of malware will disguise itself as a legitimate program and execute its malicious code once the
program is run?
- Trojan
2. On which two interfaces or ports can security be improved by configuring executive timeouts? (Choose two)
- vty ports; console ports
3. What is an advantage of using a deterministic IP addressing scheme?
- controlling access to devices by IP address
4. Match the type of threat with the cause. (Not all options are used)
- hardware threats - physical damage to servers, routers, switches, cabling plant, and workstations;
- environmental threats - temperature extremes (too hot or too cold) or humidity extremes (too wet or too dry)
- electrical threats - voltage spikes, insufficient supply voltage (brownouts), unconditioned power (noise), and
total power loss
- maintenance threats - poor handling of key electrical components (electrostatic discharge), lack of critical
spare parts, poor cabling, and poor labeling
5. What are the two WEP key lengths? (Choose two)
- 64 bit
- 128 bit
6. Place
- Step 1
- Step 2
- Step 3
- Step 4

the recommended steps for worm attack mitigation in the correct order. (Not all options are used)
- Containment
- Inoculation
- Quarantine
- Treatment

7. Which command will block login attempts on RouterA for a period of 30 seconds if there are 2 failed login
attempts within 10 seconds?
- RouterA(config)# login block-for 30 attempts 2 within 10
8. A technician is unsuccessful in establishing a console session between a PC and a Linksys integrated router.
Both devices have power, and a cable is connected between them. Which two troubleshooting steps could help
to diagnose this problem? (Choose two)
- Ensure the link status LED on the integrated router is lit.
- Ensure the correct cable is used.
9. What information can be gathered about a neighbor device from the show cdp neighbors detail command
that cannot be found with the show cdp neighbors command?
- the IP address of the neighbor
10. While downloading an IOS image from a TFTP server, an administrator sees long strings of exclamation
marks (!) output to the console. What does this mean?
- The transfer is working.