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1.

You arrive at the scene where a patient has a possible fracture of the left hip. You note that she is
lying on her back and her left leg is turned inward. You would document this position as:
a.
supine with lateral rotation of the left lower extremity.
b.
lateral recumbent with dorsal rotation of the left leg.
c.
supine with medial rotation of the left lower extremity.
d.
supine with left rotation of the right leg.

2.

Which of the following lists presents the order in which an OEC Technician should assess a
patient in a field setting?
a.
Primary assessment, reassessment, secondary assessment
b.
Scene size-up, secondary assessment, primary assessment
c.
Scene size-up, primary assessment, secondary assessment
d.
Scene size-up, history, secondary assessment, primary assessment

3.

Which of the following findings is an objective finding made during a patient assessment?
a.
Patient's complaint of nausea
b.
Blood pressure of 114/68 mmHg
c.
Patient's rating of pain as 10 out of 10
d.
Patient's complaint of headache for the past 12 hours

4.

After you apply and use an AED on patient lying on his back. His pulse returns and he is
breathing adequately. What position is he in?
a.
Right lateral recumbency
b.
Supine
c.
Left lateral recumbency
d.
Prone position

5.

You have been dispatched to an 89-year-old female with an unspecified complaint. When
assessing this patient, which one of the following will the OEC Technician do as quickly as
possible to develop a better understanding of the emergency?
a.
Obtain the patient's vital signs and current medications.
b.
Gather a medical history, including information on allergies.
c.
Contact medical direction for advice.
d.
Determine if the complaint is medical (NOI) or trauma related (MOI).

6.

A nauseated patient's report of abdominal pain should be documented:


a.
as a treatment finding.
b.
as a subjective finding.
c.
as an objective finding.
d.
This information need not be documented.

7.

Which one of the following anatomical statements is true?


a.
The hand is proximal to the elbow.
b.
The shoulder is distal to the hand.
c.
The hip is distal to the knee.
d.
The knee is proximal to the ankle.

8.

Which of the following statements would indicate that an OEC Technician has appropriately
initiated the first phase of a patient assessment?
a.
"I have placed an oral airway in the patient."
b.
"The scene appears to be free of hazards."
c.
"Blood pressure is 124/80 mmHg."
d.
"Can you tell me why you called for help?"

9.

A patient tells you that he has been feeling "very weak" for the past three days. In regards to the
SOAP charting format, this information would be included under what heading?
a.
S
b.
O
c.
A
d.
P

10.

Which one of the following descriptions best describes the normal anatomical position?
a.
Supine with the arms at the sides and the palms facing downward
b.
Standing with the arms down at the sides and the palms facing forward
c.
Prone with the arms upward and the palms facing upward
d.
Upright and facing away from you, with the arms raised and the legs straight

11.

You arrive at the scene of a fall, where a 42-year-old woman fell backward off a stepladder while
cleaning windows. She is lying on the ground complaining of pain to her ankle. She tells you, "If I
had just been more careful and moved the ladder instead of reaching, this never would have
happened!" Based on this information, which of the following can you conclude?
a.
She has an open airway, is breathing, and has circulating blood to her brain.
b.
Her pulse rate is within normal limits.
c.
She does not require rapid transport.
d.
She does not have any other injuries.

12.

You have placed a 67-year-old female patient on high-concentration oxygen via nonrebreather
face mask. Following the acronym CHEATED where is it appropriate to document the information
concerning the oxygen administration?
a.
A
b.
H
c.
T
d.
C

13.

A new patroller tells you that he injured a tendon above his patella three years ago. You recognize
that this injury involves a structure that:
a.
connects muscles to the patella.
b.
connects the cartilage in the knee.
c.
holds and secures the bones of the knee.
d.
attaches a ligament to the knee.

14.

You have been dispatched for an elderly male complaining of shortness of breath. When should
you start the process of forming a general impression about this patient?
a.
While you and your partner are approaching him
b.
After completing a primary assessment
c.
As soon as you obtain his chief complaint
d.
After you have taken his vital signs

15.

When asked, an alert and oriented 44-year-old man with a history of high blood pressure reports
that he called for help because "my chest is hurting." He is diaphoretic and nauseated, has a pulse
of 88 and a BP of 156/92, and says that his pain "feels just like my heart attack two years ago."
Based on this information, how would you document his chief complaint on the patient care report?
a.
"My chest is hurting."
b.
Possible heart attack
c.
Myocardial infarction
d.
Chest pain with hypertension

16.

Involuntary or smooth muscles are found in which of the following structures?


a.
Muscles of the arms and legs
b.
Blood vessels and intestines
c.
The central nervous system
d.
The heart and blood vessels

17.

You have been called for an adult patient who suffered a seizure. He is sitting on the floor, and he
looks at you as you enter the room. When questioned, he responds to his name, but cannot
remember the date or where he is. This patient's mental status is best described as:
a.
alert but confused.
b.
lethargic and agitated.
c.
having an altered response to verbal stimuli.
d.
visually disoriented.

18.

An intoxicated patient will not leave the oxygen mask on. You are aware that the acronym
FACTUAL-OEC outlines the characteristics of good report writing. Based on these guidelines how
would this best be documented on the prehospital care report (PCR)?
a.
The patient is intoxicated and will not cooperate with oxygen therapy.
b.
The patient continually removes the oxygen mask despite continued reapplication.
c.
The patient will not cooperate with care provided by the ski patrol.
d.
The patient appears to be in a drunk-like state and will not cooperate with care provided by the ski
patrol.

19.

A female patient suffers from a muscular disease and cannot walk. Based on the fact she cannot
ambulate, you should recognize that which of the following muscle types is affected?
a.
Skeletal muscle
b.
Involuntary muscle
c.
Cardiac muscle
d.
Smooth muscle

20.

A 36-year-old patient who has overdosed on an unknown drug, is breathing and will not open his
eyes, even when his name is loudly called. Which one of the following should the OEC
Technician do first?
a.
Check the patient's vital signs.
b.
Perform a shoulder pinch.
c.
Assess the patient for a radial pulse.
d.
Identify what drug the patient took.

21.

A patient states that he has had a headache located in his forehead for three days. Utilizing the
SOAP format you would document this piece of information as a(n):
a.
subjective finding.
b.
pertinent negative.
c.
objective finding.
d.
provoking factor.

22.

Which of the following groups of bones could be involved in a patient with a "broken leg"?
a.
Acetabulum, calcaneous, carpals
b.
Femur, tibia, fibula
c.
Orbit, maxillae, mandible
d.
Radius, ulna, humerus

23.

Which of the following patients should be classified as unresponsive?


a.
A 39-year-old female who is confused
b.
A 52-year-old who cannot answer your questions
c.
A 70-year-old female who has suffered a stroke
d.
A 46-year-old male who does not respond to a shoulder pinch

24.

When writing a prehospital care report, you accidentally document a laceration as being on the left
side of a patient's face when it was actually on the right side of the face. In addition to putting your
initials and current date/time next to your correction, you would change your documentation in
which of the following ways?
a.
Color over the word "left" with black ink and write the word "right" next to it.
b.
Write the word "error" through the word "left" and then write the word "right" next to it.
c.
Use correction fluid to cover the word "left" and write the word "right" next to it.
d.
Draw a single line through the word "left" and write the word "right" next to it.

25.

The lower jaw is also called the:


a.
mandible.
b.
zygoma.
c.
maxilla.
d.
mastoid.

26.

You are assessing a four-year-old patient whose panicked mother states that she cannot wake
him. The child is breathing but his eyes are closed. To best determine the child's mental status,
you should first:
a.
apply pressure to the child's nail beds.
b.
say loudly, "Open your eyes!"
c.
ask the mother how long the child has been asleep.
d.
consider the child to be unresponsive.

27.

Two days after a call, you realize that you forgot to document that you checked a patient's pupils
before the patient refused further treatment and signed a refusal form. Which of the following
actions is your best course of action?
a.
Complete a new refusal form and include the additional information.
b.
Add an addendum to the report that contains the correct information, the current date, and your
signature.
c.
Report the error to your patrol director and have him/her take care of it.
d.
Don't worry about it because it did not seem to matter to the patient.

28.

The bones of the upper extremities include the:


a.
humerus and radius.
b.
humerus and calcaneous.
c.
phalanges and tibia.
d.
radius, ulna, and tarsals.

29.

You are by the side of a patient who is unresponsive and has a history of heart failure. When
assessing the airway, which one of the following observations best indicates a patent airway?
a.
You can hear normal respirations and see the chest rise and fall.
b.
She has a pulse of 80 per minute.
c.
Her mouth is open and you can hear gurgling sounds.
d.
You can see that her tongue has not fallen back where it would block the airway.

30.

For which of the following patients must you provide care even if the patient refuses it?
a.
A 23-year-old female with an obvious injury who lives with her parents and her one-year-old
daughter
b.
An alert and oriented 57 year old who is having chest pain and is diaphoretic
c.
A six year old with a bleeding head laceration, whose parent will not allow care
d.
A 29-year-old female who fell and cannot tell you what day it is

31.

In which of the following respiratory structures would a blockage cause total cessation of air flow
into and out of the lungs?
a.
The right bronchus
b.
The nasopharynx
c.
The trachea
d.
The esophagus

32.

You are assisting at an Outdoor Emergency Care course. One of the students asks you how the
head tilt-chin lift airway maneuver works to open the airway. Your best response is:
a.
"It opens the airway by lifting the tongue from the back of the throat."
b.
"It creates an open airway by separating the lips, thereby allowing air to enter."
c.
"It stimulates the patient to begin taking deeper breaths, thereby moving air into the lungs."
d.
"It opens the airway by relaxing and expanding the size of the throat."

33.

You are alone responding to an alert and oriented male with chest discomfort who refuses
treatment. He is angry with his family for calling for help and will not sign the refusal form despite
several requests. In addition to documenting that the patient understands and accepts the risks of
refusing care, you would:
a.
contact the police to place the patient into protective custody.
b.
have a family member sign as a witness to the man's refusal.
c.
carefully restrain the man and transport him to the aid room.
d.
call for an ALS ambulance and have the paramedics treat the patient.

34.

Which of the following functions is a function of the respiratory system?


a.
Transporting oxygen throughout the body
b.
Providing nutrients to cells
c.
Releasing oxygen from the body
d.
Providing the body oxygen

35.

How should an OEC Technician best determine the adequacy of a patient's breathing during a
primary assessment?
a.
Determine the patient's mental status.
b.
Compare the patient's respiration and pulse rates.
c.
Assess the patient's ability to speak.
d.
Look for the rise and fall of the patient's chest.

36.

When getting a refusal from a patient who does not want treatment, it is critical that you do which of
the following things?
a.
Ensure that the patient understands the risks of refusing care.
b.
Make sure the patient has someone who can provide transportation to the hospital.
c.
Have the patient sign and date the refusal form.
d.
Have the patient promise to get care if the symptoms get worse.

37.

The structure containing the vocal cords is the:


a.
pharynx.
b.
larynx.
c.
trachea.
d.
sternum.

38.

A secondary assessment consists of which of the following three steps?


a.
Medical history, physical exam, and vital signs
b.
ABCDs, on-going exam, and vital signs
c.
Medical history, trauma exam, and vital signs
d.
On-going exam, detailed physical exam, and vital signs

39.

Which of the following statements about prehospital care reports is accurate?


a.
They may become part of the patient's permanent medical record.
b.
They are forms published by the NSAA or the ski area's insurance company.
c.
National standards allow up to three days after the accident for the forms to be fully completed.
d.
You should only document the care provided to the patient but not scene information, because the
latter can be confusing.

40.

The leaf-shaped flap that helps prevent food from entering the lower respiratory system is called:
a.
the epiglottis.
b.
the trachea.
c.
the pharynx.
d.
a bronchiole.

41.

An OEC Technician's assessment of a trauma patient's circulation status during a primary


assessment should include:
a.
carotid pulse, capillary refill, blood pressure, and skin color.
b.
radial pulse, examination for the presence of external bleeding, and LOR.
c.
skin color, pulse rate, blood pressure, and skin temperature.
d.
pulse rate, blood pressure, capillary refill, and skin condition.

42.

The goal of effective communication is to:


a.
give as much information as possible in less than three minutes.
b.
deliver information in a manner that is understood by the recipient.
c.
speak clearly and more slowly than normal so that you are easier to understand.
d.
use medical terminology as much as possible.

43.

Which one of the following lists represents a correct sequence for the passage of air into the lungs?
a.
Nose, bronchi, larynx, trachea, pharynx
b.
Larynx, esophagus, trachea, bronchi, alveoli
c.
Epiglottis, trachea, cricoid, bronchi, alveoli
d.
Mouth, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli

44.

While taking vital signs, you cannot locate a radial pulse in a possible broken arm of a 42-yearold male who is alert and breathing adequately. Which one of the following should you do?
a.
Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
b.
Attach the automated external defibrillator (AED).
c.
Start positive pressure ventilation.
d.
Assess the carotid artery for a pulse.

45.

Written medical communications are generally used for all of the following except:
a.
for quality-improvement activities.
b.
to transmit information to the provider who is taking over care of a patient.
c.
when giving press releases about mountain accidents.
d.
for describing ways to improve the safety of outdoor activities.

46.

When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, which one of the following occurs?
a.
Inhalation
b.
Release
c.
Inspiration
d.
Exhalation

47.

You are assessing an eight-month-old whose mother states has been vomiting for two days and
not eating or drinking. When assessing the pulse, which site should you check?
a.
The temporal artery
b.
The radial artery
c.
The femoral artery
d.
The brachial artery

48.

Communication is defined as the process by which:


a.
a message is transmitted from a sender to a receiver.
b.
information is documented on a patient accident report.
c.
verbal and nonverbal actions deliver information to another person.
d.
a message is encoded from the sender to the receiver.

49.

Which one of the following events causes an individual to take a breath?


a.
The intercostal muscles relax.
b.
The chest cavity decreases in size.
c.
The diaphragm contracts.
d.
Pressure in the chest increases.

50.

The finding that a patient's skin is warm, pink, and dry during a primary assessment suggests:
a.
possible shock.
b.
possible fever.
c.
poor oxygenation.
d.
normal circulation.

51.

The three forms of communication are:


a.
speaking, hand gestures, and facial expressions.
b.
written, verbal, and listening.
c.
oral, nonverbal, and written.
d.
written, listening, and hand gestures.

52.

The primary function of the heart is:


a.
transferring oxygen to the cells.
b.
pumping blood throughout the body.
c.
oxygenating blood in the lungs.
d.
maintaining the volume of blood.

53.

Which of the following statements indicates that an OEC Technician correctly understands
capillary refill?
a.
"Capillary refill is a reliable sign of perfusion in adults, but not as reliable in infants and children."
b.
"Flushed skin in an adult is a normal finding when assessing capillary refill."
c.
"A capillary refill of four or more seconds in a patient of any age indicates that the patient is well
oxygenated."
d.
"For a capillary refill test to be normal for a child, it must be assessed at room temperature and be
less than two seconds."

54.

Medical responders need to be proficient in which two types of medical communication?


a.
Medical terminology and radio transmissions
b.
Verbal communication and medical terminology
c.
Written documentation and radio transmissions
d.
Written documentation and oral communication

55.

Which chamber of the heart is responsible for pumping blood to the lungs?
a.
The left atrium
b.
The left ventricle
c.
The right ventricle
d.
The right atrium

56.

You are interviewing a prospective candidate for the position of OEC Technician with your service.
During the interview, you ask the applicant to describe the purpose of the primary assessment.
Which of the following best describes that purpose?
a.
To establish a chief complaint and gather a medical history
b.
To determine if the patient's vital signs are stable
c.
To identify and treat life-threatening conditions
d.
To perform an exam focused on the patient's chief complaint

57.

You are the lead responder at a serious accident. After the accident you can provide patient care
information to all of the following except:
a.
a reporter who is writing a news story.
b.
the EMT to whom you transfer patient care.
c.
your patrol director, who is reviewing the PCR with you.
d.
your medical director, who is providing you stress debriefing.

58.

The left atrium:


a.
receives blood from the veins of the body.
b.
receives blood from the pulmonary veins.
c.
pumps blood to the lungs.
d.
pumps blood to the body.

59.

Forming a general impression is started during which phase of patient assessment?


a.
Reassessment
b.
Secondary assessment
c.
Primary assessment
d.
Communication and documentation

60.

After your initial evaluation of the patient you would communicate by radio with patrol base.
Following the acronym SAILER, what information would you include?
a.
Surname, age, address, chief complaint
b.
Sex, age, chief complaint, splints needed
c.
Age, next of kin, treatment initiated, request for EMS (if needed)
d.
Surname, location of accident, age, insurance company

61.

Which of the following structures brings oxygen-depleted blood to the right atrium?
a.
The right ventricle
b.
The pulmonary artery
c.
The vena cavae
d.
The aorta

62.

A 44-year-old male was on a ladder cutting limbs from a tree when he fell. He is found to be
unresponsive with normal respirations. His breathing is adequate at a rate of 12 per minute and
his carotid pulse is strong at 88 per minute. Following the primary assessment and initial
management, which one of the following actions will the OEC Technician complete while
performing the secondary assessment?
a.
Get a medical history from a family member.
b.
Start positive pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask.
c.
Place an oral airway and put a cervical collar on the patient.
d.
Perform a jaw-thrust maneuver to open the airway.

63.

The three types of written medical communication OEC Technicians may encounter are:
a.
field care notes, patient care reports, and incident report forms.
b.
patient care notes, accident reports, and rescue reports.
c.
accident reports, witness reports, and field notes.
d.
incident reports, rescue reports, and patient care notes.

64.

Following chemotherapy, a patient has a low white count. For which of the following is he at risk?
a.
Infection
b.
Bleeding
c.
High blood pressure
d.
Seizures

65.

Which of the following signs should an OEC Technician detect during a secondary assessment of a
critically injured patient?
a.
Decreased level of responsiveness
b.
Weak carotid pulse and clammy skin
c.
Inadequate respiratory effort
d.
Bruising and tenderness to the abdomen

66.

In the CHEATED acronym, the letter T stands for:


a.
time.
b.
technique.
c.
testament.
d.
treatment.

67.

The fluid that carries blood cells and nutrients is:


a.
platelet fluid.
b.
hemoglobin.
c.
plasma.
d.
lymph.

68.

You are performing a secondary assessment on the unrestrained adult passenger of a motor
vehicle that rolled several times at a high rate of speed. The patient is responsive to painful stimuli
and in a state of hypoperfusion. When assessing the head, which one of the following is
appropriate?
a.
Cleaning a scalp laceration
b.
Checking the pupils with a pen light
c.
Performing a blind finger sweep to clear the airway
d.
Applying pressure to a depressed area of the skull

69.

You are completing your patient care report and are using the acronym CHEATED to guide you. In
this acronym, the letter A indicates:
a.
age.
b.
address.
c.
assessment.
d.
actions taken.

70.

The pressure exerted on the inside walls of arteries when the left ventricle contracts is called:
a.
systolic pressure.
b.
arterial pressure.
c.
diastolic pressure.
d.
residual pressure.

71.

A complete set of vitals is taken at the:


a.
beginning and end of the secondary assessment.
b.
beginning of the secondary assessment.
c.
end of the secondary assessment.
d.
end of the primary assessment.

72.

The characteristics of good report writing can easily be remembered by using mnemonic
FACTUAL-OEC. Some of these acronym letters stand for:
a.
facts, terms, unbiased, and legible.
b.
focused, age, concurrent, and unusual events.
c.
clinical picture, timeline, and assessment.
d.
actions taken, clinical picture, and timeline.

73.

The nervous system is subdivided into which two main parts?


a.
The brain and spinal cord
b.
The involuntary and voluntary muscular systems
c.
The brain and extremity nerves
d.
The central and peripheral nerves

74.

DCAP-BTLS is mnemonic to assist you in remembering:


a.
a trauma patient's vital signs.
b.
what to assess for while inspecting and palpating a patient.
c.
medications, allergies, and the patient's medical history.
d.
the order in which to assess a patient during a physical exam.

75.

The acronym FACTUAL-OEC helps OEC Technicians remember that good report writing should
include which of the following groups of characteristics?
a.
Factual information, local patrol terminology, unbiased information
b.
Complete details, your determination of cause of accident, written legibly
c.
Abnormal findings written in red, complete and accurate details, accepted medical terms
d.
Accurate information, complete details, written in black or blue ink

76.

The terms occipital, frontal, and parietal refer to what part of the body?
a.
The chest
b.
The cranium
c.
The pelvis
d.
The spine

77.

The D in DCAP-BTLS stands for:


a.
dislocation.
b.
damage.
c.
deformity.
d.
dyspnea.

78.

In the acronym FACTUAL-OEC, the letters OEC stand for:


a.
organized, effective, and complete.
b.
objective, effective, and care given.
c.
organized, error free, and checked.
d.
outdoor emergency care.

79.

A patient has suffered damage to his brainstem. As a result of this injury which of the following
signs might you expect to see?
a.
Sweating
b.
Abnormal respirations
c.
Pinpoint pupils
d.
Muscle spasms

80.

While you are performing a secondary assessment, your trauma patient complains of the sudden
onset of difficulty breathing. Which of the following is your most appropriate response?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Make a mental note and continue with the assessment.


Stop the assessment and provide appropriate care.
Reassess the patient, beginning with the head.
Reevaluate the mechanism of injury.

81.

When patients refuse care, the most important thing to document is:
a.
their condition when you last saw them.
b.
whether they were accompanied by anyone when you left them.
c.
the names of witnesses to what you said to them.
d.
that the patients understood and accepted the risks of refusal.

82.

What body system provides support and structure to the body?


a.
The endocrine system
b.
The nervous system
c.
The skeletal system
d.
The exocrine system

83.

An OEC Technician should obtain the medical history of an alert and oriented trauma patient
during the:
a.
primary assessment.
b.
scene size-up.
c.
secondary assessment.
d.
reassessment.

84.

An individual who is required to report cases of child abuse to the appropriate state agency is
called a(n):
a.
mandated reporter.
b.
child guardian.
c.
required abuse reporter.
d.
emergency protector.

85.

Which of the following lists identifies the regions of the spinal column from superior to inferior?
a.
Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, and coccyx
b.
Coccyx, lumbar, thoracic, cervical, and sacral
c.
Thoracic, lumbar, cervical, coccyx, and sacral
d.
Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx

86.

Which of the following responses is an appropriate response for the letter P in the OPQRST
mnemonic for a patient with abdominal pain?
a.
"It hurts worse when I take a deep breath."
b.
"My pulse feels as though it is racing."
c.
"I have a past history of asthma."
d.
"The pain started about two hours ago."

87.

Among the injuries or crimes that must be reported to an appropriate state agency are:
a.
abuse, gunshot wounds, and alcohol abuse.
b.
stab wounds, accidents involving snow guns, and communicable diseases.
c.
animal bites, physical assaults, and child abuse.
d.
incidents involving alcohol, domestic violence, and stab wounds.

88.

In a healthy heart, the electrical impulse that initiates contraction of the cardiac muscle originates
in the:
a.
right atrium.
b.
left atrium.
c.
ventricles.
d.
interventricular septum.

89.

During assessment of a responsive medical patient, you gather a medical history using the
memory aid SAMPLE. To obtain information related to M, which one of the following questions
should you ask?
a.
"Do you have any past medical problems?"
b.
"Are you allergic to any medications?"
c.
"Are you currently taking any medications?"
d.
"Can you point to where it hurts the most?"

90.

Which of the following pairs are the best examples of the two main types of communication at
which OEC Technicians must be proficient?
a.
Radio communication and telephone communication
b.
Written communication and nonverbal communication
c.
Face-to-face communication and radio communication
d.
Radio communication and written communication

91.

As a patient gives her medical history to you, which of the following would you relate to the
endocrine system?
a.
Removal of the gallbladder
b.
Failure of the kidneys
c.
Removal of the thyroid
d.
Heart failure

92.

An OEC Technician identifies the medications a patient takes during which portion of a patient
assessment?
a.
The primary assessment
b.
The OPQRST exam
c.
The chief complaint
d.
The history

93.

In the acronym SAILER, the letter S stands for:


a.
symptoms.
b.
sex.
c.
subjective.
d.
splint.

94.

The thyroid glands, adrenal glands, pituitary glands, and gonads are part of the:
a.
nervous system.
b.
endocrine system.
c.
hormonal system.
d.
respiratory system.

95.

Which of the following actions should you take during a secondary assessment of a 45-year-old
female with a severe headache?
a.
Assess from head to toe, obtain a SAMPLE history, and obtain vital signs
b.
Reassess vital signs, open the airway, and obtain OPQRST information
c.
Continue emergency care, obtain the chief complaint, and gather a SAMPLE history
d.
Assess the head, reevaluate vital signs, and continue emergency care

96.

You are caring for a patient that you realize will require ALS transport to the hospital. In the
acronym SAILER, the letter that will assist you to remember to transmit this information during
your radio call is:
a.
S.
b.
I.
c.
E.
d.
R.

97.

A patient has suffered a burn to the skin. Based on the functions of the skin, to which of the
following conditions is the patient most susceptible?
a.
Infection
b.
Fluid overload
c.
Heart problems
d.
Endocrine disorders

98.

Which one of the following statements best describes the purpose of obtaining a single Glasgow
Coma Scale score (GCS) in a patient with a head injury?
a.
The score gives information about the type of injury to the brain.
b.
The score provides an objective measure of the patient's overall neurologic condition.
c.
The score is important in guiding an OEC Technician's treatment of the patient.
d.
The score helps determine whether a patient's mental status is improving or deteriorating.

99.

Which of the followingis a function of the skeletal system?


a.
Producing blood cells
b.
Securing the abdominal organs in place
c.
Providing structure to blood vessels
d.
Forming the vital organs of the body

100.

The Glasgow Coma Scale score for verbal reaction that is assigned to a patient who answers
questions inappropriately is:
a.
2.
b.
3.
c.
4.
d.
5.

101.

A patient experiencing thoracic spine pain has pain in his:


a.
neck.
b.
lower back.
c.
upper back.
d.
tailbone.

102.

A Glasgow Coma Scale score less than ____ is associated with a high risk for major neurological
injury.
a.
12
b.
10
c.
8
d.
13

103.

You are called to the lodge for a patient who has fallen. The report indicates the patient has a
hematoma in the occipital area of her head. Based on this description, you should expect to find
the injury in which area of the head?
a.
The top
b.
The side
c.
The back
d.
The front

104.

A chief complaint is defined as the:


a.
findings from a primary survey.
b.
primary reason the person is seeking medical care.
c.
findings from a secondary survey.
d.
findings from a SAMPLE interview.

105.

A patellar fracture affects which part of the body?


a.
The tibia
b.
The hip
c.
The elbow
d.
The knee

106.

The key to a successful assessment is:


a.
a systematic and universal approach.
b.
toe to head physical exam.
c.
a rapid trauma exam.
d.
interviewing bystanders.

107.

Which of the following statements regarding the integumentary system is true?


a.
The skin protects the body against bacteria and other pathogens.
b.
The skin contains four layers: the epidermal, dermal, subcutaneous, and nerve layers.
c.
The epidermis is the thickest and most important layer of the skin.
d.
The dermal layer is the outermost layer of the skin and contains sensory nerves.

108.

Patient assessment is:


a.
a specialized skill for EMTs
b.
an advanced emergency management skill.
c.
a fundamental and essential skill.
d.
a skill that provides answers only when conducted in a specific order.

109.

Under normal circumstances, carbon dioxide is excreted from the body by what structure?
a.
The kidney
b.
The urinary tract
c.
The lungs
d.
The hepatic vein

110.

Which of the following things does not indicate a possible safety issue during a scene size-up?
a.
Downed wires
b.
Ice or mud
c.
Wild animals
d.
ABCDs

111.

Which one of the following stimuli is the primary stimulus to breathe in normal human beings?
The level of CO2 in the body
a.
b.
The amount of oxygen the body requires
c.
The level of oxygen in the body
d.
The amount of nitrogen in the air

112.

An easy way for an OEC Technician to remember what to look for in assessing a trauma patient is
the:
a.
acronym SAMPLE.
b.
mnemonic APVU.
c.
mnemonic DCAP-BTLS.
d.
mnemonic OPQRST.

113.

The study of human and animal structures at the gross and microscopic levels is known as:
a.
physiology.
b.
homeostasis.
c.
biology.
d.
anatomy.

114.

As you assess a patient using the DCAP-BTLS mnemonic, the letter that denotes edema of the
ankle is:
a.
C.
b.
S.
c.
P.
d.
T.

115.

Which of the following systems is not a body system?


a.
The endocrine system
b.
The thoracic system
c.
The skeletal system
d.
The respiratory system

116.

Your patient is 5 years old and has fallen, resulting in a scraped knee. What letter indicates this in
the DCAP-BTLS mnemonic?
a.
D
b.
L
c.
A
d.
S

117.

The diaphragm separates the thoracic cavity from the:


a.
pelvic cavity.
b.
spinal cavity.
c.
abdominal cavity.
d.
heart.

118.

Which of the following findings is a sign, not a symptom?


a.
An open leg fracture
b.
An upset stomach
c.
A sharp headache
d.
Chest pain

119.

The term used to describe the action of taking an extremity away from the midline of the body is:
a.
abduction.
b.
flexion.
c.
adduction.
d.
extension.

120.

Which of the following findings is a symptom?


a.
A deep laceration
b.
Hives resulting from an allergic reaction
c.
Difficulty breathing
d.
Ringing in the ears

121.

The wrist is:


a.
proximal to the elbow.
b.
external to the elbow.
c.
distal to the elbow.
d.
medial to the elbow.

122.

Signs and symptoms can be identified using the:


a.
SAMPLE acronym.
b.
DCAP-BTLS mnemonic.
c.
OPQRST mnemonic.
d.
AVPU mnemonic.

123.

The pelvic cavity contains which of the following organs?


a.
The bladder and the kidneys
b.
The kidneys and the spleen
c.
The pancreas and the bladder
d.
The rectum and the reproductive organs

124.

What letter in a SAMPLE interview indicates that a patient has a history of seizures?
a.
S
b.
A
c.
M
d.
P

125.

A man lying in the prone position is:


a.
sitting with his legs slightly bent.
b.
lying face down on his stomach.
c.
lying face up on his back.
d.
lying on his back with his legs elevated higher than his head.

126.

What letter in a SAMPLE interview indicates that a patient had pancakes for breakfast two hours
ago?
a.
M
b.
P
c.
L
d.
E

127.

The basic unit of all living things is:


a.
the cell.
b.
an organ.
c.
a hormone.
d.
plasma.

128.

As you assess a patient for a medical emergency, the patient states the pain is in their chest up
to the shoulder and down the right arm. To what letter of OPQRST would this apply?
a.
O
b.
P
c.
Q
d.
R

129.

The study of mechanical, physical, and biochemical functions of humans is known as:
a.
endocrinology.
b.
biology.
c.
anatomy.
d.
physiology.

130.

What letter of the OPQRST mnemonic reflects a medical emergency patient's report that difficulty
in breathing is worst while attempting to walk?
a.
O
b.
P
c.
Q
d.
R

131.

A function of the lymphatic system is to:


a.
break down food.
b.
return interstitial fluid to the blood.
c.
control organ systems via hormones.
d.
move blood containing nutrients.

132.

What letter of the OPQRST mnemonic reflects a medical emergency patient's report that difficulty
in breathing became worse about two hours ago?
a.
Q
b.
R
c.
S
d.
T

133.

In humans, the body systems interact with each other to maintain a stable internal environment.
An example of this is the nervous system, which works with the cardiovascular system to
maintain a steady blood pressure. The ability of an organism to adjust its physiologic processes
to maintain a relatively stable internal environment is known as:
a.
homeostasis.
b.
electrophysiology.
c.
metabolism.
d.
dependency.

134.

Which of the following tasks is part of a secondary assessment?


a.
Opening the airway
b.
Checking for life-threatening bleeding
c.
Inserting an OPA
d.
Taking a blood pressure reading

135.

The spleen is part of which body system?


a.
The cardiovascular system
b.
The endocrine system
c.
The gastrointestinal system
d.
The lymphatic system

136.

A secondary assessment should take about how long?


a.
30 seconds
b.
1 minute
c.
25 minutes
d.
68 minutes

137.

Of the following responses, the best answer to the question, "What is a tissue?" is:
a.
"a collection of cells acting together to perform a specific function in the body."
b.
"the basic unit of all living things."
c.
"a structure that removes extra fluid from cells."
d.
"the site where minerals are stored and blood cells are made."

138.

A primary assessment should take about how long?


a.
3060 seconds
b.
2 minutes
c.
3 minutes
d.
4 minutes

139.

After examining his patient, your partner tells you that he believes the patient has hyperflexed the
knee. What has happened if a patient has hyperflexed a knee?
a.
The patient has straightened the knee beyond its normal range of movement.
b.
The patient has bent the knee backward beyond its normal range of movement.
c.
The patient has pushed the kneecap too far to the right or left.
d.
The patient has straightened the knee into a normal position.

140.

You arrive at an accident scene and find a patient lying on the ground with her right arm straight
out to the side (at a 90-degree angle to her body). You ask her if she is able to pull the arm
toward her body, but she cannot. You would document this as an inability to __________ her right
arm.
a.
adduct
b.
abduct
c.
hyperflex
d.
hyperextend

141.

You are assisting in the care of an elderly patient complaining of shortness of breath. You place
the patient on 15L of oxygen via a nonrebreather mask and place him in a high Fowler's position.
This means that you will place this patient on his:
a.
left side, with his left arm over his head.
back, with his upper body elevated at 90o from the waist.
b.
c.
back, with his head down and his legs elevated higher than the head.
back, with his upper body elevated at 45o from the waist.
d.