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TEST - 2

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1 India does not produce large amounts of gold. Which of these can be the possible
reason(s)?
1. Some gold mines in India are very deep which makes commercial extraction
expensive.
2. India's gold reserves are highly scarce.
3. Technological barriers exist and extraction is risky.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 only
User Answer : D
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :
Explanation:India currently produces hardly 0.4% of its gold consumption despite
having 9% of global gold reserves under the country's land mass. So, statement 2 is
incorrect.

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Though private entrepreneurs have come forward for reconnaissance, hardly less
than 1% of them have come up to mining stage. This is mainly for want of latest
technology, high risk capital etc. The government is also formulating a new mining
policy to boost exploration of gold and diamond deposits and cut down the country's
over-dependence on imports. So, statement 3 is correct.
Kolar in Karnataka has deposits of gold in India. These mines are among the deepest
in the world which makes mining of this ore a very expensive process. So, statement
1 is correct.

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Learning:Geological Survey of India has identified gold deposits in over 100 places
across the country, most of them being in the southern state of Karnataka.
India plays a dominant role in processing and consumption of gold and diamonds.
But mining of gold and diamond in India is amongst the lowest in the world. Gold is
purchased from countries like Switzerland, South Africa, Australia, UAE, etc
The Indian government has asked GSI to explore additional reserves of gold and
diamonds in Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, West Bengal, Rajasthan,
Bihar and Chhattisgarh.
The government is also formulating a new mining policy to boost exploration of

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TEST - 2

gold and diamond deposits.The new mining policy is expected to open up the
mining sector for foreign investment
Q Source:Chapter 3: page 29: 8th NCERT Resource & Development

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2 India Epidemic Intelligence Service (EIS) is a joint venture between


A. India and USA
B. India and World Health Organization (WHO)
C. All Public Health Research Institutions in India
D. Ministry of Family and Health Welfare (MoHFW) and AIIMS
User Answer :
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :

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Explanation & Learning: The India Epidemic Intelligence Service (EIS) Program
was inaugurated in New Delhi in 2012, highlighting the collaboration between the
Government of India Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the U.S. Centers
for Disease Control and Prevention.

India EIS is a joint venture between India and USA, aimed at preparing public
health professionals for leadership positions at district, state and national levels.

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Q
Source:www.ncdc.gov.in/writereaddata/linkimages/EIS_Advt_Revised2015805785
6386.pdf
http://archive.indianexpress.com/news/in-the-works-an-epidemic-intelligence-servic
e/1144850/http://newdelhi.usembassy.gov/pr091114.html

IN

3 In 1893, the split in Arya Samaj happened on the issue of


A. Converting people from other faiths to Hinduism
B. Vedic sanctity of widow remarriage and its social status
C. Medium of promotion of Arya Samaj's ideas
D. None of the above
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :
Explanation:The Samaj split into two in Punjab after 1893 on the question of eating
meat. The group that refrained from meat was called the Mahatma group and the one
favoring consumption of meat as the "Cultured Party".

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Learning:Arya Samaj is a religious reform movement founded by Swami


Dayananda in 1875. He promoted the Vedas. Dayananda emphasised the ideals of
brahmacharya (chastity) for priests.
Dayanand died in 1883. Arya Samaj grew after his death mainly in Punjab.

Q Source:CAPF 2015: Q24 SET A

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4 Kayakalp' from the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) relates to
A. Health sector awards
B. Public Hospital modernization guidelines
C. Revamping rural Primary Health centres (PHCs)
D. None of the above
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :

Explanation & Learning:Kayakalp has been launched to promote cleanliness,


hygiene and infection control practices in public health facilities.

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Under this initiative, public healthcare facilities shall be appraised and such public
healthcare facilities that show exemplary performance meeting standards of
protocols of cleanliness, hygiene and infection control will receive awards and
commendation. Under this initiative, the number of awards are as under:

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Best two District Hospitals in each state (Best District hospital in small
states)
Best two Community Health Centres/Sub District Hospitals (CHC/ SDH)
(limited to one in smaller states).
One Primary Health Centre (PHC) in every district

Q Source:http://nrhm.gov.in/images/pdf/in-focus/Kayakalp_Guidelines.pdf

5 Which of the following can be done using earth observation satellites?


1. Crop production forecast
2. Snow and glacier studies
3. Ocean primary productivity
4. Landslide hazard zonation
5. Site selection for hydro-power
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

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A. 1, 3 and 5 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
User Answer : D
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :

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Explanation:Remote sensing satellites take imagery of the earth. Green area is


generally considered as either forests or plantations. So, it is possible to forecast
crop production. Statement 1 is correct.
If the image is white, it may be interpreted as ice. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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If patches of green are seen amidst huge bodies of water, that signals presence of
phytoplankton (primary productivity of Ocean). So, statement 3 is also correct.

Using imagery information, it is possible to remotely assess an area for landslides or


finding our if its suitable for generating hydropower. So, statements 4 and 5 are also
correct.

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Learning:The article given below from ISRO explains the other applications very
well. The image below is a partial summary from the website.
Q Source:This is also from where UPSC made its Prelims 2015 question on earth
observation satellites http://www.isro.gov.in/applications/earth-observation

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6 Consider the following statements.


1. It is the largest coastal lagoon in India
2. It is the largest wintering ground for migratory birds on the Indian sub-continent.
3. It was designated the first Indian wetland of international importance under the
Ramsar Convention.
4. The lake has numerous islands.
The above statements refer to?
A. Renuka Lake
B. Chilka Lake
C. Kolleru Lake
D. Sambhar Lake
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :

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Explanation & Learning:In 1981, Chilika Lake was designated the first Indian
wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention due to its rich
biodiversity as shown by the facts that:

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Over a million migratory waterfowl and shorebirds winter here.


Over 400 vertebrate species have been recorded.
As an estuarine lagoon, it supports a unique assemblage of marine, brackish
and freshwater species.
Several rare and endangered species are found in the region.
The lake supports fisheries that are the lifeline of the community.
The lake is of great value in preserving genetic diversity.
Q Source:Improvisation: CAPF 2015: Q56 SET A

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7 Consider the following conditions.


1. Moderate rainfall
2. Moderate temperature
3. Presence of sunshine
4. Well-drained fertile soils
The above conditions are required for the growth of which crop?
A. Rice and maize
B. Wheat and maize
C. Wheat and Cotton
D. Jute and Cotton
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :

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Explanation:For rice, high rainfall, temperature and clayey soil is required which
can hold water. So, option (a) is incorrect.
For Cotton, light rainfall is needed. For Jute high rainfall and temperature is needed.
So, options (c) and (d) are incorrect.
Learning:Wheat requires moderate temperature and rainfall during growing season
and bright sunshine at the time of harvest. It thrives best in well drained loamy soil.
Wheat is grown extensively in USA, Canada, Argentina, Russia, Ukraine, Australia
and India. In India it is grown in winter.
Maize requires moderate temperature, rainfall and lots of sunshine. It needs well-

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TEST - 2

drained fertile soils. Maize is grown in North America, Brazil, China, Russia,
Canada, India, and Mexico.
Q Source:Chapter 4: page 45: 8th NCERT Resource & Development

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8 What are sounding rockets used for?


A. probing the upper atmospheric regions and for space research
B. deterring the enemy forces during an attack
C. giving additional thrust to space rockets
D. pushing stratospheric rockets to supersonic speeds
User Answer : A
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :

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Explanation & Learning:Sounding rockets are one or two stage solid propellant
rockets used for probing the upper atmospheric regions and for space research

They also serve as easily affordable platforms to test or prove prototypes of new
components or subsystems intended for use in launch vehicles and satellites.

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The launch of the first sounding rocket from Thumba near Thiruvananthapuram, in
1963, marked the beginning of the Indian Space Programme. Sounding rockets
made it possible to probe the atmosphere in situ using rocket-borne instrumentation.
Q Source: http://www.isro.gov.in/launchers/sounding-rockets
http://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-others/abdul-kalam-missile-man-to-presi
dent-he-drove-people-to-think/ (5th Para)

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9 The 'Call to Action Summit 2015'relates to


A. India's abiding commitment to help in prosperity and security of Africa
B. Ending preventable maternal and child deaths
C. Fighting terrorism and piracy in Indian Ocean
D. Improving global weather and disaster forecasts and ensure disaster risk
reductions
User Answer : A
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning:CALL TO ACTION SUMMIT 2015 was organized for
ending preventable child and maternal deaths. It was co-hosted by The MoHFW,

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TEST - 2

Government of India along with Ministry of Health Government of Ethiopia,


USAID, UNICEF, The Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation, and Tata Trusts.
It was a prelude to the United Nations Summit for the adoption of post-2015
development agenda that will be held as a high-level plenary meeting of the UN
General Assembly in September 2015.

Q Source:http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=126370

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10 If we draw the population pyramid of a country, which of the following information can
NOT be obtained from it?
A. Dependency ratio
B. Whether the population is growing, stable or decreasing
C. Gender distribution within population
D. Total population size
User Answer :
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :

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Explanation:The population pyramid mentions percentage wise distribution within


major age groups. Dependency ratio is an age-population ratio of those typically not
in the labor force (less than 15, and more than 65) and those typically in the labor
force (15-65). So, option (a) is correct.
The shape of population pyramid indicates birth rate and death rate. So, we can find
whether population is growing/stable or reducing. So, option (b) is also correct.

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Population pyramid explicitly provides the percentages of males and females in all
age groups. Thus, (c) is also correct.
Option (d) is incorrect, as we cannot infer size of population. We can only find out
its characteristics.
Learning:Population pyramid is a graphical illustration that shows the distribution
of various age groups in a population (typically that of a country or region of the
world), which forms the shape of a pyramid when the population is growing. It is
also used in ecology to determine the overall age distribution of a population; an
indication of the reproductive capabilities and likelihood of the continuation of a
species.
Q Source:Chapter 6: page 72: 8th NCERT Resource & Development

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TS

11 Which of these areas are NOT industrial regions?


1. Manila
2. Santiago
3. Nairobi
4. Manchuria
5. Maywood
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 4 and 5 only
D. 5 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :

TEST - 2

Explanation & Learning:Industrial region or industrial area refers to a region with


extremely dense industry. It is usually heavily urbanized. Maywood is a village in
Illinois, USA. So, statement 5 is incorrect.

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Industrial regions emerge when a number of industries locate close to each other and
share the benefits of their closeness. Major industrial regions of the world are
eastern North America, western and central Europe, Eastern Europe and eastern
Asia. Major industrial regions tend to be located in the temperate areas, near sea
ports and especially near coal fields.
Q Source:Chapter 5: page 53: 8th NCERT Resource & Development

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12 The 'Indigo or Blue rebellion'1859 was caused due to


A. Harsh agri-economic conditions under which Indigo cultivators were put by
the British planters
B. Collapse of international prices of Indigo which resulted in large scale farmer
suicides
C. Indigo cultivators not receiving any loan and support from British planters
D. Acquisition of cultivable Indigo land by British industrial projects
User Answer : A
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning:Indigo planting started in Bengal as early as 1777. It was
first planted by one British Louis Bonard. When the British Power expanded, the

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Indigo planting was emphasized because of a high demand of the Blue Dye in
Europe.

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The peasants were compelled to plant Indigo rather than the food Crops.
The peasants were provided loans called 'dadon'for indigo planting which was
at a very high interest rate.
Indigo farmers received very low returns for their crops.
The land under Indigo degraded the land for cultivation of any further crop.
The contract conditions under which Indigo planters kept the cultivators were
harsh.
The loan made the people indebted and resulted in a rebellion.
Q Source:Chapter 3: Page 32-36: Our pasts-III (Part I)

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13 Which of the following laws have a bearing on pharmaceutical sector in India?


1. The Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951
2. Trade Marks Act, 1999
3. The Indian Patent Act, 2005
4. Civil Defence Act
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :

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Explanation:Both Industries and Factories Act regulate the pharmaceutical


industrial production, employment and standards. So, statement 1 is correct.
Patents Act directly deals with innovations and inventions in medicines and patent
rights. So, statement 3 is also correct.
Trade Marks act deal with registration of trade mark for services in addition to
goods, and settlement of disputes related to the same. It applies to the
pharmaceutical sector too. Thus, statement 2 is also correct.
Civil Defence Act deals with security matters and is not directly related to the
Pharma sector. Statement 4 is wrong.

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Q Source:Improvisation:
http://www.mohfw.nic.in/index1.php?lang=1&level=1&sublinkid=2525&lid=1809

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14 Consider the following statements about Information Technology (IT) policy in India.
1. The latest National IT policy was launched in 2008.
2. The first state government to announce an IT Policy was Karnataka in 1992.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :
Explanation:The latest national IT policy was launched in 2012. So, statement 1 is
incorrect.

One of the reasons why Bengaluru today is an IT hub is that Karnataka government
was the first to announce an IT policy in 1992. So, statement 2 is correct.

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Learning:Main objectives of the National IT policy 2012 are:


To increase revenues of IT and ITES Industry from 100 Billion USD at
present to 300 Billion USD by 2020 and expand exports from 69 Billion USD
at present to 200 Billion USD by 2020.
To provide fiscal benefits to SMEs and Startups for adoption of IT in value
creation
To create a pool of 10 million additional skilled manpower in ICT.
To make at least one individual in every household e-literate.
To provide for mandatory delivery of and affordable access to all public
services in electronic mode
To enable access of content and ICT applications by differently-abled people
to foster inclusive development.
To strengthen the Regulatory and Security Framework for ensuring a Secure
and legally compliant Cyberspace ecosystem.
To adopt Open standards and promote open source and open technologies

Q Source:Improvisation: Chapter 5: page 62: 8th NCERT Resource &


Development

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TEST - 2

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15 To improve productivity without the use of fertilizers, organic farming relies on


1. Plant growth regulators
2. Nanomaterials
3. Genetically modified organisms
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 only
D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :

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Explanation:Organic farming excludes or strictly limits the use of various methods


(including synthetic petrochemical fertilizers and pesticides; plant growth regulators
such as hormones; antibiotic use in livestock; genetically modified organisms;
human sewage sludge; and nanomaterials) for reasons including sustainability,
openness, independence, health, and safety.

So, all statements are incorrect.

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Learning:Organic farming is a form of agriculture that relies on techniques such as


crop rotation, green manure, compost, and biological pest control.
Since 1990 the market for organic food and other products has grown rapidly,
reaching $63 billion worldwide in 2012.

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Q Source:Improvisation: Chapter 4: page 42: 8th NCERT Resource &


Development

16 The ecosystem of Chilka lake has undergone major changes and is under threat due to
1. Offloading of high amounts of industrial effluents
2. Decrease in salinity and fishery resources
3. Shifting of the mouth of lake connecting to the sea
4. Siltation due to littoral drift and sediments from the inland river systems
5. Proliferation of fresh water invasive species
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
D. 1, 4 and 5 only

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TEST - 2

User Answer :
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :

Explanation:Chilka lake has been under Montreux record since 1993 and is an
important Ramsar site. Offloading high amounts of industrial effluents cannot be
permitted in the lake. So, statement 1 has to be incorrect.

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So, all statements are incorrect.


Rest are correct.

Learning:Over the years, the ecosystem of the lake encountered several problems
and threats such as:

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Siltation due to littoral drift and sediments from the inland river systems
Shrinkage of water surface area
Choking of the inlet channel as well as shifting of the mouth connecting to
the sea
Decrease in salinity and fishery resources
Proliferation of fresh water invasive species and
An overall loss of biodiversity with decline in productivity adversely
affecting the livelihood of the community that depended on it
Fights between fishermen and non-fishermen communities about fishing
rights in the lake and consequent court cases
The rapid expansion of commercial aquaculture of prawn has contributed
significantly to the decline of the lakes fisheries and bird population

IN

Q Source:Improvisation: CAPF 2015: Q56 SET A

17 The demand for a Constituent Assembly was first made


A. by the Indian national Congress in 1934
B. at Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress
C. after the Non-cooperation movement was withdrawn
D. after the Simon Commission reached India
User Answer : A
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :
Explanation:MN Roy had put forth the idea of a Constituent assembly of India in
1934. Later the INC demanded it. So, option (a) is correct.

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TEST - 2

You can eliminate Karachi Session, non-cooperation movement and Simon


Commission, as they all happened before the demand for a CA was made by INC.
Learning:During the Second World War, this assertion for an independent
Constituent Assembly formed only of Indians gained momentum and this was
convened in December 1946.

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Between December 1946 and November 1949, the Constituent Assembly drafted a
constitution for independent India.
Q Source:Chapter 1: page 5: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life

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18 Which of the following has/have a bearing on Manual Scavenging in India?


1. Articles 17 and 23 of the Constitution
2. Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
3. Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
4. Eleventh Schedule
5. Twelfth Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 4 and 5 only
B. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
User Answer : B
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :

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Explanation:Article 17 provides for the abolition of untouchablity. Manual


scavenging is a major reason behind untouchability. Article 23 provides for
Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour. Manual scavenging is
considered as forced labour. So, statement 1 is correct.
Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955; Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993;
Schedule Castes and the Schedule Tribes Prevention of Atrocities Act, 1989; and
Schedule Castes and the Schedule Tribes Prevention of Atrocities Rules, 1995,
consider practices such as manual scavenging to be a violation of human rights and
have provisions to deal with the same. So, statement 2 and 3 is also correct.
Statements 4 and 5 are also correct as
ELEVENTH SCHEDULE [ARTICLE 243G],

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TEST - 2

Entry 23. Health and sanitation, including hospitals, primary health


centres and dispensaries.
Entry 27. Welfare of the weaker sections, and in particular, of the
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
TWELFTH SCHEDULE [Article 243W]
Entry 6. Public health, sanitation conservancy and solid waste
management.

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Learning:Manual scavenging refers to the practice of removing human and animal


waste/excreta using brooms, tin plates and baskets from dry latrines and carrying it
on the head to disposal grounds some distance away. There are 13 lakh persons from
Dalit communities who continue to be employed in this job in this country and who
work in the 96 lakh private and community dry latrines managed by municipalities.
They are exposed to subhuman conditions of work and face serious health hazards.
They are constantly exposed to infections that affect their eyes, skin, respiratory and
gastro-intestinal systems. They get very low wages for the work they perform.
Read Provisions here:
http://nhrc.nic.in/documents/LibDoc/Manual_Scavenging_A.pdf

Q Source:Improvisation: Chapter 8: page 101: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life

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19 As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of
Forest Rights) Act, 2006, which of these are the legal rights of tribals?
1. Conservation of forests and bio-diversity
2. Granting leases to non-tribals for accessing core forests
3. Repeal environmentally sensitive projects by local bodies
4. Right to historical homestead, cultivable and grazing land
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. All of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning:India's forests are governed by two main laws, the Indian
Forest Act, 1927 and the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. The former empowers
the government to declare any area to be a reserved forest, protected forest or village

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TEST - 2

forest. The latter allows any area to be constituted as a "protected area", namely a
national park, wildlife sanctuary, tiger reserve or community conservation area.
Since times immemorial, the tribal communities of India have had an integral and
close knit relationship with the forests and have been dependent on the forests for
livelihoods and existence.

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Under these laws, the rights of people living in or depending on the area to be
declared as a forest or protected area are to be "settled" by a "forest settlement
officer.

Major provisions are:

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However, rights were rarely recognized by the authorities and in the absence of real
ownership of the land, the already marginalized local dwellers suffered. To address
this, FRA 2006 was enacted.

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Title rights - i.e. ownership - to land that is being farmed by tribals or forest
dwellers, subject to a maximum of 4 hectares; ownership is only for land that
is actually being cultivated by the concerned family as on that date, meaning
that no new lands are granted
Use rights - to minor forest produce (also including ownership), to grazing
areas, to pastoralist routes, etc.
Relief and development rights - to rehabilitation in case of illegal eviction
or forced displacement; and to basic amenities, subject to restrictions for
forest protection
Forest management rights - to protect forests and wildlife

IN

Q Source:Chapter 8: page 102: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life

20 Consider a case where a nation 'X' has no natural resources. It pays shipping charges for
each tonne of natural resources imported from abroad to manufacture steel. If shipping
charges per tonne are equal for all natural resources, nation 'X' will pay highest shipping
charges for?
A. Coal
B. Iron ore
C. Limestone
D. Potash
User Answer : A
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :

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TEST - 2

Explanation:The question is simple. It basically asks, which material is used the


most (percentage wise) in the manufacturing of steel. It is coal. To manufacture one
tonne of steel, we need 8 tonnes of coal, 4 tonnes of iron ore and 1 tonne of
limestone. So, answer is (a).

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Learning:Steelmaking is the process for producing steel from iron ore and scrap. In
steelmaking, impurities such as nitrogen, silicon, phosphorus, sulfur and excess
carbon are removed from the raw iron, and alloying elements such as manganese,
nickel, chromium and vanadium are added to produce different grades of steel.
Limiting dissolved gases such as nitrogen and oxygen, and entrained impurities
(termed "inclusions") in the steel is also important to ensure the quality of the
products cast from the liquid steel.

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Q Source:Chapter 5: page 55: 8th NCERT Resource & Development

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21 Consider the following statements.


1. Migrants from other countries in India are more than Intra-State migrants in India.
2. Annual immigration in India is more than the number of Indian Diaspora abroad.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer : D
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :

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Explanation:This data is from Census 2001. Census 2011 data is not fully
populated yet. The trends will remain the same. You need not remember the exact
figures.
http://censusindia.gov.in/Census_And_You/migrations.aspx
Q Source:Improvisation: Chapter 6: 8th NCERT Resource & Development

22 In the event of a spill, Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is safer than Diesel and Petrol
because
1. CNG is less likely to ignite on hot surfaces
2. CNG has a lower calorific value than diesel and petrol
3. CNG is lighter than air and disperses quickly when released

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Select the correct answer using the codes below.


A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 only
User Answer : B
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :

TEST - 2

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Explanation:CNG is less likely to ignite on hot surfaces, since it has a high autoignition temperature (540 C), and a narrow range (515 percent) of flammability.
So, option (a) is correct.
CNG has a higher calorific value than diesel and petrol. Thus, option (b) is wrong.

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CNG mixes well with air and disperses quickly clearing the area of fire. So, option
(c) is correct.

Learning:Compressed natural gas (CNG) (methane stored at high pressure) can be


used in place of gasoline (petrol), Diesel fuel and propane/LPG. CNG combustion
produces fewer undesirable gases than the fuels mentioned above

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CNG is made by compressing natural gas (which is mainly composed of methane,


CH4), to less than 1 percent of the volume it occupies at standard atmospheric
pressure

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The cost and placement of fuel storage tanks is the major barrier to wider/quicker
adoption of CNG as a fuel. It is also why municipal government, public
transportation vehicles were the most visible early adopters of it, as they can more
quickly amortize the money invested in the new (and usually cheaper) fuel.
CNG does not contain any lead, thereby eliminating fouling of spark plug.
Q Source:Improvisation: Page 32: Chapter 3: 8th NCERT Resource &
Development

23 Which of the following were the causes behind the launch of 'Non-cooperation
movement'?
1. Punjab wrongs'of 1919
2. Khilafat wrong
3. Resentment with Rowlatt Act

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TEST - 2

Select the correct answer using the codes below.


A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :

IA

Explanation & Learning:In 1919 Gandhiji gave a call for a satyagraha against the
Rowlatt Act that the British had just passed. The Act curbed fundamental rights such
as the freedom of expression and strengthened police powers.

SI
G

TS

In April 1919 there were a number of demonstrations and hartals in the


country and the government used brutal measures to suppress them. The
Jallianwala Bagh atrocities, inflicted by General Dyer in Amritsar on
Baisakhi day were a part of this repression.
The Khilafat issue was another such cause. In 1920 the British imposed a
harsh treaty on the Turkish Sultan or Khalifa. People were furious about this
as they had been about the Jallianwala massacre. Also, Indian Muslims were
keen that the Khalifa be allowed to retain control over Muslim sacred places
in the erstwhile Ottoman Empire.
The leaders of the Khilafat agitation, Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali,
wished to initiate a full-fledged Non-Cooperation Movement. Gandhiji
supported their call and urged the Congress to campaign against 'Punjab
wrongs'(Jallianwala massacre), the Khilafat wrong and demand swaraj.

Q Source:Chapter 5: Page 149: Our pasts-III (Part II)

IN

24 The 'Council of States' is chaired by the


A. President of India
B. Vice-President of India
C. Prime Minister of India
D. Governors
User Answer : B
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :
Explanation:Council of States is popularly known as Rajya Sabha. It should not be
confused with the Inter-state Council or any other such coordination mechanisms

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18

TEST - 2

between the Centre and State.


So, option (b) is correct. The point that is to be noted is: The chairman of the
Council of States is not elected solely by the Rajya Sabha. In the case of Lok Sabha,
the speaker is solely elected by the Lok Sabha.

The Inter-state council is chaired by the PM.

IA

Learning:The Parliament of India (Sansad) is the supreme law-making institution.


It has two Houses, the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha.
Rajya Sabha (Council of States), with a total strength of 245 members, is chaired by
the Vice-President of India.

TS

Lok Sabha (House of the People), with a total membership of 545, is presided over
by the Speaker.
Q Source:Chapter 3: page 34: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life

SI
G

25 Who among the following is associated with 'Atmiya sabha'?


A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
B. Raja Rammohan Roy
C. Mahadev Govind Ranade
D. Swami Vivekananda
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :

IN

Explanation & Learning:In 1814 Rammohun came and settled in Calcutta and in
1815 founded the Atmiya Sabha - an association for the dissemination of the
religious truth and the promotion of free discussions of theological subjects. Here
recital and expounding of Hindu scriptures were done. So, option (b) is correct.
Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Ranade are associated with Poona Sarvajanik Sabha.
Swami Vivekanada was associated with Ramakrishna Mission.
Q Source:Improvisation: CAPF 2015: Set A Q15 on Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

26 Ploughing parallel to the contours of a hill slope to form a natural barrier for water to
flow down the slope'is also known as

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TEST - 2

A. Contour barriers
B. Mulching
C. Contour ploughing
D. Terrace farming
User Answer : D
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :

IA

Explanation:Contour barriers are stones, grass, soil which are used to build barriers
along contours. Trenches are made in front of the barriers to collect water. So,
option (a) is incorrect.
Mulching is when the bare ground between plants is covered with a layer of organic
matter like straw. It helps to retain soil moisture. So, option (b) is also incorrect.

TS

Terrace farming is done on the steep slopes so that flat surfaces are available to
grow crops. They can reduce surface run-off and soil erosion. So, option (d) is also
incorrect.

SI
G

Learning:Contour ploughing or contour farming or Contour bunding is the farming


practice of plowing and/or planting across a slope following its elevation contour
lines. These contour lines create a water break which reduces the formation of rills
and gullies during times of heavy water run-off; which is a major cause of soil
erosion.
The water break also allows more time for the water to settle into the soil. In contour
ploughing, the ruts made by the plow run perpendicular rather than parallel to
slopes, generally resulting in furrows that curve around the land and are level.

IN

Q Source:Chapter 2: 8th NCERT Resource & Development

27 Which of the following is NOT correct regarding the Scheduled Castes and the
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
A. Based on its provisions, tribals can demand re-possession of alienated lands.
B. Communities committing atrocities against tribals can be evicted from tribal
areas.
C. It does not extend to the State of Jammu & Kashmir.
D. It provides for Special Courts for the trial of atrocities against SCs/STs.
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :

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TEST - 2

Explanation:The Act penalises anyone who wrongfully occupies or cultivates any


land owned by, or allotted to a member of a SC or a ST or gets the land allotted to
him transferred. So, if they are dispossessed, land can be reclaimed back. Option (a)
is correct.

IA

The Act does not apply to J&K. So, option (c) is correct.

At another level, the Act recognizes that crimes against Dalit and tribal women are
of a specific kind and provides for special courts. So, option (d) is correct.

Learning:Adivasi activists refer to the 1989 Act to defend their right to occupy land
that was traditionally theirs. this Act merely confirms what has already been
promised to tribal people in the Constitution

SI
G

TS

28 The drug diclofenac was blamed for the widespread death of Indian vultures. Consider
the following about it.
1. It is now banned in India for veterinary purposes.
2. It was administered to vultures as painkillers.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer : A
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :

IN

Explanation:The Centre banned it in 2006. Nepal and Pakistan also banned the
drug in 2006. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
Diclofenac was administered to livestock as painkillers/anti-inflammatory drugs etc,
not to vultures. When vulture fed on the carcasses of dead livestock, diclofenac
entered their bodies and killed them. So, statement 2 is wrong.
Learning:A replacement drug has been developed for diclofenac and proposed after
tests on vultures in captivity: meloxicam. Meloxicam affects cattle the same way as
diclofenac, but is harmless for vultures
Q Source:Improvisation: Chapter 2: page 18: 8th NCERT Resource &
Development

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TEST - 2

IA

29 Consider the following statements about a flower.


1. It is found in the region of Himalayas.
2. Its population is declining due to human interference.
3. It is the state flower of Uttarakhand.
4. It is also used medicinal purposes, especially to cure urogenital disorders.
Which of the following do the above refer to?
A. Doshi Laurel
B. Brahma Kamal
C. Cathcart's Magnolia
D. Himalayan Trillium
User Answer :
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :

TS

Explanation:While flowers mentioned in the options are found in the Himalayan


region, they are not used for medicinal purposes as such. Brahma kamal is used,
which is also the state flower for Uttarakhand. So, option (b) is correct.

Learning:It is native to the Himalayas and Uttarakhand, India, northern Burma and
southwest China. In the Himalayas, it is found at an altitude of around 4500 m. The
flowers are hermaphrodite (have both male and female organs) and are pollinated by
insects.

SI
G

The flowers can be seen till mid-October, after which the plant perishes, becoming
visible again in April. Local names of this flower are Brahma Kamal, Kon and
Kapfu.

IN

It is long held belief that anybody who sees this rare flower blooming will have all
his or her wishes fulfilled. It is not easy to watch it bloom because it blooms in the
late evening and stays only for a couple of hours.
Q Source:Improvisation: Chapter 2: page 18: 8th NCERT Resource &
Development

30 Consider the following about Poona Sarvajanik Sabha.


1. It was established by Ganesh Vasudeo.
2. It acted as a mediating body between the government and people of India.
3. It advocated the principle of Swadeshi and Swaraj.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only

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22

TEST - 2

C. 2 and 3 only
D. 2 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :

Explanation:It was established by MG Ranade in 1870. Ganesh Vasudeo was a


prominent leader of the Sabha. So, statement 1 is wrong.

IA

Statement 3 is wrong as it did not advocate such radical reforms. Its main aim was to
mediate between the government and people.

TS

Learning:It was a sociopolitical organisation in British India which started with the
aim of working as a mediating body between the government and people of India. It
started as an elected body of 95 members elected by 6000 persons in 1870.
The organisation was a precursor to the Indian National Congress which started with
its first session from Maharashtra itself.

SI
G

The Pune Sarvajanik Sabha provided many of the prominent leaders of national
stature to the Indian freedom struggle including Bal Gangadhar Tilak. It was formed
in 1870 by S. H. Chiplunkar, Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi, Mahadev Govind Ranade, et
al.
Q Source:Chapter 5: Page 142: Our pasts-III (Part II)

IN

31 In India, who is constitutionally empowered to act as the final interpreter of the


Constitution?
A. President of India
B. Union Council of Ministers
C. Parliament
D. Supreme Court
User Answer : D
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning:President of India has the duty to preserve, protect and
defend the constitution. But, he is no authority to interpret the constitution. So,
option (a) is wrong.
The CoM must function as per the constitutional interpretations of the Judiciary

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23

TEST - 2

(Supreme Court and High Courts). So, option (b) is wrong.

Parliament may disagree with the SC on the interpretation of the constitution. It is


also empowered to amend the constitution in case of such disagreement. However,
the SC gives the final word on the validity of such an amendment and can even
strike it down. This tussle between the judiciary and Parliament over constitutional
interpretation is best seen in the recent NJAC case.

IA

Q Source:Chapter 4: page 55: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life

TS

32 The 'Subsidiary Alliance' was a system of


A. Economic partnership between the Indian states and the British
B. Political and military agreement between the Indian states and the British
C. Agreements between European traders regarding the economic division of
Indian states
D. Treaties that restricted the inheritance rights of rulers in Indian states
User Answer : D
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :

SI
G

Explanation & Learning:According to the terms of this alliance, Indian rulers were
not allowed to have their independent armed forces. They were to be protected by
the Company, but had to pay for the 'subsidiary forces'that the Company was
supposed to maintain for the purpose of this protection. If the Indian rulers failed to
make the payment, then part of their territory was taken away as penalty.

IN

For example, when Richard Wellesley was Governor-General (1798-1805), the


Nawab of Awadh was forced to give over half of his territory to the Company in
1801, as he failed to pay for the 'subsidiary forces

33 The Office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trade Marks (CGPDTM) is
under
A. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion
B. Department of Science and Technology
C. Department of Commerce
D. Department of Scientific and Industrial research
User Answer :
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :

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24

TEST - 2

Explanation:The Office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trade


Marks (CGPDTM) is located at Mumbai, under DIPP, under Ministry of Commerce.
Department of Commerce is another department of Ministry of Commerce. Thus,
option (a) is correct.

IA

Learning:Patent is a set of exclusive rights granted by a sovereign state to an


inventor or assignee for a limited period of time in exchange for detailed public
disclosure of an invention. An invention is a solution to a specific technological
problem and is a product or a process. Patents are a form of intellectual property.
The Controller General supervises the working of the Patents Act, 1970, as
amended, the Designs Act, 2000 and the Trade Marks Act, 1999 and also renders
advice to the Government on matters relating to these subjects.

TS

In order to protect the Geographical Indications of goods a Geographical Indications


Registry has been established in Chennai to administer the Geographical Indications
of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 under the CGPDTM.

Q Source:Improvisation: Chapter 1: page 1 (right box): 8th NCERT Resource &


Development

IN

SI
G

34 In India, tea is grown in which of the following regions?


1. Dooars and Terai
2. Kangra
3. Travancore
4. Oongla
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 only
D. 3 and 4 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning:http://indiatea.org/tea_growing_regions.php
Note that Assam is the single largest tea producer in India.
Tea requires cool climate and well distributed high rainfall throughout the year for
the growth of its tender leaves. It needs well-drained loamy soils and gentle slopes.

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25

TEST - 2

Kenya, India, China, Sri Lanka produce the best quality tea in the world.

TS

IA

35 Federalism is a key feature of the Indian constitution. Which of the following statements
concerning this is INCORRECT?
A. Both Central and state governments have been established by the
constitution.
B. Both governments derive their power from the constitution.
C. Since the State governments are autonomous political units, the Central
government cannot enforce any order on them.
D. Indian citizens are governed by laws and rules made by both Central and state
governments at the same time.
User Answer : D
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning:Constitutional existence of several tiers of government is
the first pre-requisite of a federal polity. So, option (a) is correct.

Under federalism, the states are not merely agents of the federal government but
draw their authority from the Constitution as well. So, option (b) is also correct.

SI
G

The Constitution contains lists that detail the issues that each tier of government can
make laws on. All persons in India are governed by laws and policies made by each
of these levels of government. So, option (d) is also correct.

IN

While each state in India enjoys autonomy in exercising powers on certain issues,
subjects of national concern require that all of these states follow the
laws/rules/directions/orders of the central government. This maintains unity and
integrity of the administration and the nation as a whole. So, option (c) is incorrect.
Q Source:Chapter 1: page 12: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life

36 Which of the following is NOT a pillar of the Parliamentary democracy in India?


A. Universal adult suffrage
B. Political representatives are accountable to the people
C. All eligible citizens are allowed to contest elections without discrimination.
D. Separation of powers
User Answer : A
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :

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26

TEST - 2

Explanation & Learning:Options (a), (b), (c) should be clear, since without
universal participation and accountability, there cannot be any Parliamentary
government.

Indian parliamentary democracy does not rely on separation of powers. It is instead


based on cooperation, fusion and coordination between the legislature and
executive. Separation of powers is a feature of the Presidential form of democracy,
as in USA.

IA

Q Source:Chapter 1: page 13: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life

TS

37 The Satnami movement in Central India was related to


A. Fighting for social justice for marginalized castes and communities
B. Organized rebellion against the British government to recapture crop lands
C. A revivalist movement calling for return to ancient Hinduism
D. Stopping the practice of Sati and widow persecution in rural India
User Answer :
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :

SI
G

Explanation & Learning:Ghasidas established Satnami community in


Chhattisgarh, India based on "Satnam" (meaning "Truth") and equality.
Ghasi Das instigated a socio-religious order that discarded and helped in
demolishing the hierarchical caste system from the society. This new order initiated
by Ghasi Das through Satnamis principles treated all people as equal.

IN

Satnami principles state that 'there is only one God', which is described as formless
and infinite. Ghasi Das was of the view that the measures to eradicate social
injustice and disparity would stay insufficient and unfinished without the proper
transformation of the individuals.
Q Source:Chapter 3: Page 116: Our pasts-III (Part II)

38 Consider the following statements about a species.


1. They are generally found in warm and tropical waters, primarily in the Pacific and
Indian Oceans.
2. They are listed as endangered species in IUCN Red Data Book.
3. Recently Odisha Government has imposed a temporary ban on fishing to protect
them.

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27

TEST - 2

The above statements refer to which species?


A. Eastern River Cooter
B. Long-comb Saw fish
C. Hawksbill Turtle
D. None of the above
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :

IA

Explanation:Eastern River Cooter is not even found in India. So, option (a) is
incorrect.

Long-comb saw fish is endangered in India. But, the recent ban was not imposed
due to it. So, option (b) is also incorrect.

TS

The hawksbill sea turtle is a critically endangered sea turtle. So, it cannot be the
answer. Option (c) is also wrong.

Learning:

The correct answer is Olive Ridley Sea Turtle.

IN

SI
G

Odisha Government has imposed seven-month ban till May, 2016 on fishing
along the Puri coast in order to protect the endangered Olive Ridley sea
turtles.
Every year endangered Olive Ridley turtles arrive during winters for mass
nesting in Rushikulya river mouth and Gahirmatha marine sanctuary along
Odisha coast.
The coast is considered as the only place apart from Costa Rica to witness
mass nesting by Olive Ridleys. Every year, between 5 lakh to 10 lakh turtles
come to the state for mass nesting.
Coastal fishing by the farmers would have affected their population.

Q
Source:http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-in-school/odisha-bans-fishing-toprotect-olive-ridley-turtles/article7830583.ece

39 Consider the following matches of situations and the fundamental rights that they
violate.
1. A 9 year old girl child is working in a firecracker factory - Right to equality
2. If a politician in one state decides to not allow labourers from other states to work in

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28

TEST - 2

IA

his state - Right to freedom of movement


3. If the government censors a newspaper unreasonably - Right to equality before law
Select the correct matches from the above.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. None of the above
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning:Statement 1 violates the Right against exploitation, as it
involves child labour, whether of a girl or a boy.

TS

Statement 2 violates the right to equal opportunity to public employment.


Understand that the movement of the labourers was not restricted, only their
employment was restricted.

Statement 3 violates the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression. Press


censorship goes against it.

SI
G

Refer to the blue box in the Q source to understand all these fundamental rights.
You will be facing more questions from them in the upcoming tests.
Q Source:Chapter 1: page 14: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life

IN

40 Consider the following minerals.


1. Lead
2. Antimony
3. Tungsten
4. Tin
Which of the following regions is the leading producer of the above?
A. Eastern Europe
B. South America
C. East and South-east Asia
D. Northern Africa
User Answer :
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :
Explanation:China, Malaysia and Indonesia are among the world's leading tin

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29

TEST - 2

producers. China also leads in production of lead, antimony and tungsten. So, option
(c) is correct.
Brazil and Bolivia are among the world's largest producers of tin, but not of others.
So, option (b) is wrong.

While these minerals are found in Eastern Europe, it is not a leading producer of the
above.

IA

Learning:Europe is the leading producer of iron-ore in the world. Minerals deposits


of copper, lead, zinc, manganese and nickel are found in eastern Europe and
European Russia.

TS

Apart from Gold, diamond and platinum, other minerals found in Africa are copper,
iron ore, chromium, uranium, cobalt and bauxite. Oil is found in Nigeria, Libya and
Angola.

SI
G

41 The Montreux Record is related to which of the following international conventions?


A. Convention on the Prevention of Marine Pollution
B. Ramsar Convention on Wetlands
C. Convention to Combat Desertification
D. Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals
User Answer :
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :

IN

Explanation & Learning:The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the


List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character
have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological
developments, pollution or other human interference.
It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.
The Convention on Wetlands (Ramsar, Iran, 1971) - called the "Ramsar
Convention" -- is an intergovernmental treaty that embodies the commitments
of its member countries to maintain the ecological character of their Wetlands
of International Importance and to plan for the "wise use", or sustainable use,
of all of the wetlands in their territories.
Unlike the other global environmental conventions, Ramsar is not affiliated
with the United Nations system of Multilateral Environmental Agreements,
but it works very closely with the other MEAs and is a full partner among the

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30

TEST - 2

"biodiversity-related cluster" of treaties and agreements.


Q Source:Improvisation: CSP 2014: Set A Q2 on Montreux Record.

IA

42 Jamdani weave of the early twentieth century is


A. A pattern made on heavy shawls used for display in royal courts
B. A weaving pattern done on cotton clothes that enhanced its durability and
appeal
C. A fine muslin on which decorative motifs are woven
D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :

TS

Explanation & Learning:Jamdani is a fine muslin on which decorative motifs are


woven on the loom, typically in grey and white.
Often a mixture of cotton and gold thread was used, as in the cloth in this picture.

The most important centres of jamdani weaving were Dacca in Bengal and Lucknow
in the United Provinces.

SI
G

The historic production of jamdani was patronized by imperial warrants of the


Mughal emperors. Under British colonialism, the Bengali jamdani and muslin
industries rapidly declined due to colonial import policies favoring industrially
manufactured textiles. In more recent years, the production of jamdani has witnessed
a revival in Bangladesh.

IN

The traditional art of weaving jamdani has been declared by UNESCO as a


Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.
Q Source:Chapter 1: Page 81: Our pasts-III (Part II)

43 Consider the following statements.


1. A private member in Rajya Sabha cannot initiate legislation on a subject of national
importance.
2. A private member of Rajya Sabha can get alterations passed to legislation
introduced in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only

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31

TEST - 2

B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 only
D. None
User Answer : B
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :

IA

Explanation:A private member is an MP who is not a minister. He enjoys similar


rights to that of a minister in Parliament, except that he cannot introduce money bills
and some financial bills. So, statement 1 is wrong as a private member can initiate
legislation, even on a subject of national importance.
Statement 2 follows from the above. If a private member can introduce legislation,
he can also get alternations passed to them.

TS

Learning:The Rajya Sabha functions primarily as the representative of the states of


India in the Parliament. The Rajya Sabha can also initiate legislation and a bill is
required to pass through the Rajya Sabha in order to become a law. It, therefore, has
an important role of reviewing and altering (if alterations are needed) the laws
initiated by the Lok Sabha.

SI
G

Q Source:Chapter 3: page 37: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life

IN

44 The Parliament, while in session, begins with the


A. Zero hour
B. Question hour
C. Agenda of the day
D. Half-an-hour discussion
User Answer : B
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning:The Parliament begins with a question hour. The question
hour is an important mechanism through which MPs can elicit information about the
working of the government. This is a very important way through which the
Parliament controls the executive.
By asking questions the government is alerted to its shortcomings, and also comes to
know the opinion of the people through their representatives in the Parliament, i.e.
the MPs. Asking questions of the government is a crucial task for every MP.

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TEST - 2

Q Source:Chapter 3: page 37: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life

IA

45 The Sakharov Prize is an annual award given by the European Parliament for
A. Innovation and initiatives in fighting poverty
B. Defence of human rights and freedom of thought
C. Initiatives and negotiations in global disarmament
D. Promotion of Peace in war-torn areas
User Answer : B
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :

Explanation & Learning:The award was established in 1988 and named after
Soviet scientist (physicist) and dissident Andrei Sakharov.

TS

The first prize was jointly awarded to South African Nelson Mandela and Russian
human rights campaigner Anatoly Marchenko.

It is awarded annually on or around December 10, the day on which the United
Nations General Assembly (UNGA) ratified the Universal Declaration of Human
Rights in 1948, also celebrated as Human Rights Day.

SI
G

Q
Source:http://www.theguardian.com/world/2015/oct/29/raif-badawi-sakharov-huma
n-rights-prize-saudi-blogger

IN

46 Which of the following factors could NOT have contributed to the Battle of Plassey?
A. Opposition of the local people to the activities of the East India Company.
B. British practice of building settlements and large forts in Bengal.
C. Refusal of Bengal Nawabs to grant the British concession and tributes in
trade.
D. Political interference of the British in Bengal.
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :
Explanation:The Battle of Plassey was essentially due the conflicts between the
Bengal Nawab and the East India Company. There is no evidence to show that
locals were opposed the East India company and it triggered the war. So, option (a)
is incorrect.

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TEST - 2

Option (b) was opposed by the Bengal Nawabs several times and the Nawabs had
even invaded British fortifications in Bengal.
Option (c) led the British to install a puppet Nawab in a coup. It failed, and an
infuriated Sirajuddaullah marched to the company's Calcutta fort. Thus, option (d)
was also a cause behind the war.

Learning & Q Source:Chapter 2: Page 12: Our pasts-III (Part I)

SI
G

TS

IA

47 Article 39A of the Constitution places a duty upon the State to provide a lawyer to any
citizen who is
1. Unable to engage a lawyer due to economic conditions
2. Illiterate
3. Unable to engage a lawyer due to disability
4. Harmed by the actions of the 'State'
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
User Answer : B
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :
Explanation:As far as statement 4 is concerned, a court may order the government
to pay the litigation expenditure to the affected. The state does not has a duty to
provide a lawyer to them as such. So, statement 4 is wrong.

IN

A person may be wealthy, but illiterate. He is economically capable to hire a lawyer.


The state does not have a 'duty' to provide a lawyer to them. So, statement 2 is also
wrong.
Learning:According to Article 22 of the Constitution, every person has a
Fundamental Right to be defended by a lawyer. To achieve the objectives of Article
39A, government has established the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA)
has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free
Legal Services to the weaker sections of the society and to organize Lok Adalats for
amicable settlement of disputes.
Q Source:Chapter 6: page 68: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life

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TEST - 2

IA

48 D.K. Basu Guidelines given by the Supreme Court relate to


A. Preventing frivolous appeals and petitions in the courts
B. Reservation in public sector employment
C. Procedure for arrest, detention and interrogation of any person by 'State'
agencies
D. Disclosure of the financial assets and liabilities of political representatives
User Answer :
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning:This is straight from your NCERT.

TS

The Supreme Court of India has laid down specific requirements and procedures
that the police and other agencies have to follow for the arrest, detention and
interrogation of any person. These are known as the D.K. Basu Guidelines and some
of these include:

SI
G

The police officials who carry out the arrest or interrogation should wear
clear, accurate and visible identification and name tags with their
designations;
A memo of arrest should be prepared at the time of arrest and should include
the time and date of arrest. It should also be attested by at least one witness
who could include a family member of the person arrested. The arrest memo
should be counter-signed by the person arrested.
The person arrested, detained or being interrogated has a right to inform a
relative, friend or wellwisher.
When a friend or relative lives outside the district, the time, place of arrest
and venue of custody must be notified by police within 8 to 12 hours after
arrest.

IN

Q Source:Chapter 6: page 71: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life

49 Which of the following pollutants are released by Diesel-run vehicles?


1. Sulphur compounds
2. Nitrogen Oxides
3. Particulate matter
4. Carbon monoxide
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only

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35

TEST - 2

C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
User Answer : D
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :

IA

Explanation & Learning:High temperatures and pressures of the combustion


process in Disele engines result in significant production of gaseous nitrogen oxides
(NOx). Modern on-road diesel engines typically use selective non-catalytic
reduction (SNCR) systems to meet emissions laws, as other methods such as exhaust
gas recirculation (EGR) cannot adequately reduce NOx to meet the newer standards
applicable in many jurisdictions.

TS

Moreover, the fine particles (fine particulate matter) in diesel exhaust (e.g., soot,
sometimes visible as opaque dark-colored smoke) has traditionally been of greater
concern, as it presents different health concerns and is rarely produced in significant
quantities by spark-ignition engines.

Other compounds that are released from the Diesel exhaust are: Mercury
compounds, sulphur compounds, cyanide compounds, antimony, selenium, cobalt,
dioxin etc.

SI
G

Q Source:http://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/who-can-touch-diesel--51662

IN

50 Consider the following statements about a tribal group.


1. They live mainly in Odisha,
2. Their native language is Kui, a Dravidian language.
3. They generally settle in higher altitudes due to their economic demands.
To which tribal group do the above refer to?
A. Kols
B. Gaddis
C. Badagas
D. Khonds
User Answer :
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :
Explanation:Kols are found in Madhya Pradesh. So, option (a) is wrong.
Gaddis are found in Himachal Pradesh. So, option (b) is also wrong.

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TEST - 2

Badagas are found in Nilgiri, TN. So, option (c) is also wrong.

Learning:One sub-group of Kondhas is the Dongria Kondhas. Some Dongaria


Khonds live in Niyamgiri Hill located in Kalahandi district of Orissa. Niyamgiri is
the sacred mountain of this community. Recently SC had banned Vedanta mining
project based on the community's resolutions against the project, under Article
29-30 of the constitution.

IA

Dongaria Khonds have a subsistence economy based on foraging, hunting &


gathering but they now primarily depend on a subsistence agriculture i.e. shifting
cultivation or slash and burn cultivation or Podu.
The Dongria family is often nuclear, although extended families are found.

TS

We will keep asking questions on important tribes of India.

Q Source:Improvisation: Chapter 7: page 86: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life

IN

SI
G

51 Consider the following about Kabir, a fifteenth century poet.


1. As per him, every person had the ability to reach the highest level of spiritual
salvation.
2. Salvation can be accessed by searching for the deep knowledge within ourselves
through own experience.
3. While he believed all humans to be innately equal, as per him labour of all human
beings was not equal.
4. He was against defining individuals on the basis of their religious identities.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning : Kabir was a fifteenth century poet and weaver who also
belonged to the Bhakti tradition. Kabir's poetry spoke about his love for the
Supreme Being free of ritual and priests.
It also expresses his sharp and pointed criticism of those he saw as powerful. Kabir
attacked those who attempted to define individuals on the basis of their religious and

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37

TEST - 2

caste identities.

In his view every person had the ability to reach the highest level of spiritual
salvation and deep knowledge within themselves through their own experience. His
poetry brings out the powerful idea of the equality of all human beings and their
labour. He writes about valuing the work of the ordinary potter, the weaver and the
woman carrying the water pot - labour that in his poetry becomes the basis of
understanding the entire universe.

IA

His direct, courageous challenge inspired many and even today Kabir's poetry is
sung and appreciated by Dalits, marginalised groups and those critical of social
hierarchies in U.P., Rajasthan, Punjab, Madhya Pradesh, Bengal, Bihar and Gujarat.

TS

Q Source: Chapter 8: page 98: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life

SI
G

52 The probability of finding non-metallic minerals in greater in which of the following


rocks?
A. Pumice
B. Sedimentary
C. Igneous
D. Anorthosite
User Answer :
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :
Explanation: Pumice is a fine grained, extremely vesicular volcanic rock. So,
option (a) is wrong.

IN

Learning: Generally, metallic minerals are found in igneous and metamorphic rock
formations that form large plateaus. Iron-ore in north Sweden, copper and nickel
deposits in Ontario, Canada, iron, nickel, chromites and platinum in South Africa
are examples of minerals found in igneous and metamorphic rocks.
Sedimentary rock formations of plains and young fold mountains contain nonmetallic minerals like limestone. Limestone deposits of Caucasus region of France,
manganese deposits of Georgia and Ukraine and phosphate beds of Algeria are some
examples. Mineral fuels such as coal and petroleum are also found in the
sedimentary strata.
Q Source: Chapter 3: page 26: 8th NCERT Resource & Development

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TEST - 2

IA

53 Which of the following is NOT correct as per the Indian practice of Secularism?
A. State maintains a principled distance from religion.
B. State does not interfere in any religious activity.
C. All religious communities can co-exist peacefully without negative
discrimination.
D. Individual has freedom to interpret religious teachings differently and choose
her/his religion.
User Answer : A
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :

TS

Explanation & Learning: The Indian Constitution allows individuals the freedom
to live by their religious beliefs and practices as they interpret these. Secularism
refers to this separation of religion from the State. So option (a) is correct.
But, the separation is not strict. State does interfere in religious activity on grounds
of public interest, morality, justice etc. For e.g. the Indian government has a
nominee on several religious shrine management boards. So, option (b) is incorrect.

Freedom of individuals to exit from their religion, embrace another religion or have
the freedom to interpret religious teachings differently must also be protected. This
lies at the core of Indian secularism. So, option (d) is correct.

SI
G

Q Source: Chapter 2: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life

IN

54 The practice of 'intercropping' aims at achieving which of the following objectives?


1. Increasing the yield of the land
2. Protection of the crops
3. Encouraging biodiversity at the field
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above
User Answer : A
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning: Intercropping is a multiple cropping practice involving
growing two or more crops in proximity. It is particularly important not to have
crops competing with each other for physical space, nutrients, water, or sunlight.

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TEST - 2

Examples of intercropping strategies are planting a deep-rooted crop with a shallowrooted crop, or planting a tall crop with a shorter crop that requires partial shade

IA

Intercropping of compatible plants also encourages biodiversity, by providing a


habitat for a variety of insects and soil organisms that would not be present in a
single-crop environment. This in turn can help limit outbreaks of crop pests by
increasing predator biodiversity. Additionally, reducing the homogeneity of the crop
increases the barriers against biological dispersal of pest organisms through the
crop.

TS

Protection of crops can also be achieved by: Lodging-prone plants, those that are
prone to tip over in wind or heavy rain, may be given structural support by their
companion crop. Delicate or light-sensitive plants may be given shade or protection,
or otherwise wasted space can be utilized. An example is the tropical multi-tier
system where coconut occupies the upper tier, banana the middle tier, and pineapple,
ginger, or leguminous fodder, medicinal or aromatic plants occupy the lowest tier.
Therefore, all statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Q Source: Improvisation: Chapter 2: 8th NCERT Resource & Development

IN

SI
G

55 Sarva Shiksha Abhiyaan does NOT provide for


A. opening new schools in habitations without schooling facilities
B. grants for developing teaching-learning materials
C. computer education to bridge the digital divide
D. screening test for new admissions in public schools
User Answer : D
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning: The SSA prohibits a screening test for new admissions.
Anyone within the eligible age group can take admissions. So, option (d) is wrong.
SSA essentially implements 86th amendment to the Constitution of India
making free and compulsory Education to the Children of 6-14 years age
group, a Fundamental Right.
SSA is being implemented in partnership with State Governments to cover
the entire country and address the needs of 192 million children in 1.1 million
habitations.
The programme seeks to open new schools in those habitations which do not
have schooling facilities and strengthen existing school infrastructure through

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40

TEST - 2

IA

provision of additional class rooms, toilets, drinking water, maintenance grant


and school improvement grants.
Existing schools with inadequate teacher strength are provided with
additional teachers, while the capacity of existing teachers is being
strengthened by extensive training, grants for developing teaching-learning
materials and strengthening of the academic support structure at a cluster,
block and district level.
SSA seeks to provide quality elementary education including life skills. SSA
has a special focus on girl's education and children with special needs. SSA
also seeks to provide computer education to bridge the digital divide.
Q Source: Improvisation: Chapter 9: page 110: 8th NCERT Social and Political
Life

SI
G

TS

56 Which of the following are vaccine-preventable diseases?


1. Yellow Fever
2. Dengue
3. Diarrhoea
4. Cholera
5. Japanese Encephalitis
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
B. 2, 3 and 5 only
C. 1, 4 and 5 only
D. 3 and 4 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :

IN

Explanation & Learning: There are no approved vaccines for the dengue virus.
Prevention thus depends on control of and protection from the bites of the mosquito
that transmits it. So, statement 2 is wrong.
Mission Indradhanush vaccinates in selected districts for Japanese Encephalitis. So,
statement 5 is correct.
Rotavirus is the most common cause of severe diarrhoea among infants and young
children. An indigenous Rotavac has been developed in India to counter Diarrhoea.
So, statement 3 is also correct.
Yellow fever and Cholera come under 25 vaccine-preventable disease list of WHO.

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41

TEST - 2

So, statements 1 and 4 are correct. MoHFW has also recently issued advisory
against Yellow fever: hence, the question and such options.
Q Source: Improvisation: Chapter 9: page 111 (Polio drop box): 8th NCERT Social
and Political Life

TS

IA

57 Which of the following about Methyl Isocyanite (MIC) is INCORRECT?


A. It is used in the production of rubbers and adhesives.
B. It is a colourless and flammable liquid.
C. It can also be used to produce pesticides.
D. It has not been discovered outside earth.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :

Learning: Methyl isocyanate (MIC) is an extremely toxic organic compound. It is


extremely hazardous to human health. It was the principal toxicant involved in the
Bhopal disaster.

Methyl isocyanate is an intermediate chemical in the production of carbamate


pesticides

SI
G

In 2015 (July), scientists reported that upon the first touchdown of the Philae lander
on a comet's surface, measurements by the COSAC and Ptolemy instruments
revealed sixteen organic compounds, four of which were seen for the first time on a
comet, which included methyl isocyanate.

IN

Q Source: Improvisation: Chapter 10: page 124: 8th NCERT Social and Political
Life

58 Consider the following about BrahMos missile.


1. It is an ultrasonic cruise missile.
2. It is capable of being launched from land and submarines both.
3. It is designed to engage inter-continental targets.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 only
User Answer : C

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42

TEST - 2

Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :
Explanation: BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile, not ultrasonic. Ultrasonic
refers to sound waves with frequencies higher than the upper audible limit of human
hearing. Supersonic means faster than the speed of sound. So, statement 1 is wrong.

It can be launched from ships, land as well as submarines. So, statement 2 is correct.

IA

Its range is only nearly 300 Km. So, it is not designed to engage inter-continental
targets.
Learning:

SI
G

TS

It has been developed by BrahMos Aerospace, a joint venture of India and


Russia.
Missile's name has been derived from the names of two rivers, India's
Brahmaputra River and Russia's Moskva River.
It is capable of being launched from land, sea, sub-sea and air against sea and
land targets.
It is capable of carrying a warhead of 300 kilogram It has top supersonic
speed of Mach 2.8.
It is a two-stage missile, the first one being solid and the second one ramjet
liquid propellant

Q Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/brahmos-testfired-from-new-warship/articl
e7830168.ece

IN

59 Who have a fundamental right to set up their own educational institutions in order to
preserve and develop their own culture?
A. Linguistic minorities
B. Religious minorities
C. All minorities as defined by the Central and State governments
D. Only tribals belonging to the fifth and sixth schedule areas
User Answer : B
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning: The expression minority under Article 29-30 (Cultural
and Education rights) covers all minorities, linguistic and religious.

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TEST - 2

The constitution does not define the word minority. It is left for the Central and state
governments to decide this. For e.g. recently Jain community was recognized as a
minority.
They will have rights to set up their own educational institutions, where they can
regulate any admission of outside communities.

IA

Tribals also fall under minority. But, the option (c) is more wide and appropriate
than option (d).
Q Source: Chapter 1: page 14: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life

SI
G

TS

60 Which of the following does NOT correctly differentiate between the terms 'State' and
'Government'?
A. Government can change with elections, State does not.
B. State is one part of the government.
C. Government represents the body of persons who implements the will of the
state.
D. None of the above correctly differentiates between state and government.
User Answer : B
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning: When we use the word State, it is different from the term
'government'.
A 'Government' is responsible for administering and enforcing laws. The
government can change with elections. For e.g. NDA/UPA government.

IN

The State on the other hand refers to a political institution that represents a
sovereign people who occupy a definite territory. We can, thus, speak of the Indian
State, the Nepali State etc.
The Indian State has a democratic form of government. The government (or the
executive) is one part of the State. The State refers to more than just the government
and cannot be used interchangeably with it.
Q Source: Chapter 1: page 13: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life

61 Rashtriya Ekta Diwas (National Integration Day) is celebrated by the government as an

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44

TEST - 2

annual commemoration of
A. Deendayal Upadhyaya
B. Syama Prasad Mookerjee
C. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
D. Sardar Vallbhbhai Patel
User Answer : D
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :

IA

Explanation & Learning: This is a straight question. In 2014, incumbent


Government had declared 31st October as National Unity Day to mark the birth
anniversary of country's first Home Minister Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

TS

In India's independence struggle, he played a major role in organizing peasants'


movements on Gandhian principles in Bardoli and Kheda in Gujarat and during the
Quit India movement. His biggest contribution to India was his role in the
integration of the over 500 princely states with India during 1947-49.

He is also remembered as the Patron Saint of India's civil servants for establishing
modern All-India services.

SI
G

Q Source:
http://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-news-india/unity-is-our-biggest-strength
-peace-is-first-condition-for-development-pm-modi/

IN

62 Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat' scheme proposed by the government intends to


A. Promote the culture of one state by another state
B. Showcase the indigenous Indian culture and literature to global forums
C. Promote national unity and integration by organizing mega events in India
and abroad
D. Build memorials of national leaders throughout India who stood for national
unity and integrity
User Answer :
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning: It was announced recently by the PM. He gave the
example of former President late A P J Abdul Kalam who had once said that he
could better understand the diversity of the country in his first train journey between
Rameshwaram and Delhi.

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TEST - 2

He had said that the experience gave him more insight into the culture and diversity
than any book on the subject.

TS

IA

The "Ek Bharat, Shresth Bharat" scheme draws inspiration from the life of
India's freedom fighter Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. The prime minister recalled
Sardar Patel's initiatives as mayor of Ahmedabad during the 1920s, including
a campaign for cleanliness and a proposal for 50 percent reservation for
women.
The 'Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat' initiative will be launched soon under
which every state will choose another state each year and then promote its
language and culture.
The government has formed a committee to work out the modalities of the
scheme in consultation with the states.
According to the scheme, two states will undertake a unique partnership for
one year which would be marked by cultural and student exchanges.
Students of a particular state would travel to another state to learn each
other's culture.

Q Source:
http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/PM-Modi-announces-Ek-Bharat-Shresth-B
harat-initiative/articleshow/49606369.cms

IN

SI
G

63 The Moscow Declaration recently signed in 2015 by BRICS relates to


A. Fighting piracy in Indian and Pacific Ocean
B. Tackling challenges of terrorism in Central and South Asia
C. Addressing common regional and global socio-economic challenges by
utilising science, technology and innovation
D. Improving the North-South Transport Corridor to improve access to energy
resources amidst BRICS nations
User Answer :
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :
Explanation: Terrorism is generally the subject-matter of SCO negotiations and
meetings. Option (b) is wrong.
Fighting piracy is generally dealt by the IOR-ARC, ASEAN and other such littoral
bodies. Option (a) is wrong.
The International North-South Transport Corridor is the ship, rail, and road route for
moving freight between India, Russia, Iran, Europe and Central Asia. It has been in

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46

TEST - 2

construction for long. Option (d) is thus wrong.


Learning: The joint declaration seeks to enhance co-investment of resources to
support multilateral Research and Development (R&D) Projects in mutually agreed
areas by BRICS nations. BRICS nations mutually have agreed on the collaboration
for:

TS

IA

Co-operation for large research infrastructures, including mega-science


projects along with coordination of the existing large-scale national
programme of member countries.
Implementation and development of a BRICS Framework Programme for
funding joint multilateral research projects, innovation and technology
commercialisation.
Establishment of BRICS Research and Innovation Networking Platform. The
meeting also endorsed a BRICS Action Plan 2015-18 on BRICS Science,
Technology and Innovation cooperation.

Q Source:
http://www.financialexpress.com/article/companies/brics-nations-sign-moscow-decl
aration-for-supporting-multilateral-science-projects/159087/

IN

SI
G

64 Which of the following are NOT represented on the Central Board of RBI?
A. Governor of RBI
B. Union Finance Ministry representatives
C. Directors nominated by Central government
D. Chairmen of Board of Governors of major Public Sector Banks (PSBs)
User Answer : D
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning: Recently the government nominated Economic Affairs
Secretary Shaktikanta Das to the Central Board of Directors of the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI).
RBI's affairs are governed by the Central Board of Directors (CBD) which also
responsible for its general superintendence and direction. Composition:
There are 21-members in CBD of RBI.
It comprises of Governor, 4 Deputy Governors, 2 Finance Ministry
representatives.
10 Directors are nominated by Union Government in order to represent

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47

TEST - 2

important elements from India's economy.


4 directors are from local boards of RBI which are headquartered at Mumbai,
Kolkata, Chennai and New Delhi.

Q Source:
http://www.business-standard.com/article/news-ians/economic-affairs-secretary-no
minated-to-rbi-central-board-115103001509_1.html

TS

IA

65 Consider the following about a species.


1. It has been declared as the state animal of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
2. It was earlier found in Himalayas and lower Assam also, but not found there
presently.
3. It is being killed illegally especially where it co-occurs with Nilgai.
To which species do the above refer to?
A. Flying Squirrel
B. Chiru
C. Swamp deer
D. Black buck
User Answer : B
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :

SI
G

Explanation: Flying squirrel and Chiru (Tibetan antelope) are not any state animals.
So, options (a) and (b) can't be the answer.
Swamp deer is the state animal of UP and MP. Moreover, it could not be found in
Himalays, as common sense tells us. So, option (c) can't also be the answer.

IN

Learning: The blackbuck is native to the Indian subcontinent and has been listed as
Near Threatened on the IUCN Red List since 2003, as its range has decreased
sharply during the 20th century. The blackbuck is the only living species of the
genus Antilope.
In the 19th century, blackbucks ranged in open plains from the base of the
Himalayas to the area of Cape Comorin, and from the Punjab to Lower Assam. They
were abundant in the North-Western Provinces, Rajputana, parts of the Deccan, and
on the plains near the coast of Orissa and Lower Bengal. Herds occasionally
comprised several thousand animals of both sexes and all ages.
Today, the blackbuck population is confined to areas in Maharashtra, Odisha,
Punjab, Rajasthan, Haryana, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka,

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48

TEST - 2

with a few small pockets in central India.


Q Source: Improvisation: Chapter 2: pages 20 (images): 8th NCERT Resource &
Development

TS

IA

66 E-Sahyog pilot project was recently launched by the government for


A. Enhancing cooperation between South Asian nations on matters of law and
order
B. Increasing transparency in grievance redressal in departments of Union
government
C. Facilitating taxpayers to reduce their need to physically appear before tax
authorities
D. Improve the coordination between Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and
Banking Correspondents (BCs) to promote financial inclusion
User Answer :
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :

Explanation & Learning: It has been launched in line with Union Government
flagship Digital India initiative.

IN

SI
G

E-Sahyog project Aims to reduce compliance cost, especially for small


taxpayers and provide an online mechanism to resolve mismatches in
Income-tax returns.
As part of the digital initiative, IT Department will provide an end to end eservice using SMS, e-mails to inform the tax assesses of the mismatch.
Henceforth, by using this service taxpayers will simply need to visit the efiling portal and log in with their user-ID and password.
It will help them to view mismatch related information and submit online
response on the issue without physically appearing before tax authorities.

Q Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=130000

67 Two or more ecosystems may be found in which of the following protected areas?
1. National parks
2. Biosphere reserves
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2

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TEST - 2

D. None
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :

Explanation & Learning: National Park is a natural area designated to protect the
ecological integrity of one or more ecosystems for present and future generations.

IA

Biosphere reserves are series of protected areas linked through a global network,
intended to demonstrate the relationship between conservation and development.
Both span huge areas, and cover more than one ecosystem. So, both statements 1
and 2 are correct.

TS

Q Source: Improvisation: Chapter 2: page 21: 8th NCERT Resource &


Development

IN

SI
G

68 Consider the following statements about a First Information Report (FIR).


1. It is compulsory to register a FIR when a victim gives information about a
cognisable offence.
2. FIR cannot be registered without oral testimony of the complainant.
3. The complainant has a constitutional right to get a free copy of the FIR from the
police.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. None of the above
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :
Explanation: Only when the complaint pertains to a non-cognizable offence,
registering a FIR is not mandatory. So, statement 1 is correct.
FIR can be given orally or in written. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
The complainant has only a legal right to get a free copy of the FIR from the police.
So, statement 3 is also incorrect.
Learning: Crime can be classified as cognizable or Non-Cognizable.

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TEST - 2

In a non-cognizable offence, the Police cannot arrest a person without orders of the
court, i.e. without a Court warrant and can investigate into the case only on the
express directions of the court to that effect.

Therefore, the Police Station officer records the complaint as a non-cognizable


offense, commonly referred as a N.C., and advises the complaint or victim to
approach the court for further directions.

IA

In a cognizable offense the police can take cognizance of the offense on its own i.e.
it need not wait for the court orders as the law envisages that in such offences
permission of the court to the police to investigate the crime is implicit. Such cases
are mainly, murder, attempt to murder, rape and in heinous offences.

TS

Q Source: Chapter 6: page 72: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life

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69 Which of the following can be the possible reason(s) behind catchment of the Ganga
becoming gradually arid?
1. Many natural springs which directly contribute to the Ganga river system are drying.
2. Exotic oak trees planted in the region soak up large amounts of groundwater
Select the correct answer using the codes below
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :

IN

Explanation: 37 per cent of natural springs, which directly contribute to the Ganga
river system, are drying. Perennial streams have now become rain-fed streams,
while rain-fed streams have dried up in several places. Rate of drying is about 6-7
kilometres per year. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Oak trees are native of the Himalayan region, not exotic. Exotic means
introduced from outside. Though they soak nearly 60% of groundwater, they have
always been there in the Ganges catchment area. So, statement 2 cannot be a
possible reason.
Learning: The article explains very well the entire geological processes associated
with the Ganges catchment. This is also the Question source.

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TEST - 2

Q Source:
http://www.downtoearth.org.in/interviews/-37-of-natural-springs-which-directly-con
tribute-to-the-ganga-are-drying--51513

IA

70 Which of the following statements about Warren Hastings is INCORRECT?


A. He was the first Governor-General of India.
B. He was involved in the Battle of Buxar.
C. One of the severe Bengal Famines happened during his tenure in Bengal.
D. He introduced reforms in the separation of executive and Judiciary in British
India.
User Answer : B
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :

TS

Explanation & Learning: He was the first Governor of the Presidency of Fort
William (Bengal), the head of the Supreme Council of Bengal, and thereby the first
de facto Governor-General of India from 1773 to 1785.

IN

SI
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Hastings shared Clive's view that the three major British Presidencies
(settlements), Madras, Bombay and Calcutta, should all be brought under a
single rule rather than being governed separately as they currently were
While Governor, Hastings launched a major crackdown on bandits operating
in Bengal which was largely successful.
In 1781, Hastings founded Madrasa 'Aliya; in 2007, it was transformed into
Aliah University by the Government of India, at Calcutta. In 1784, Hastings
supported the foundation of the Bengal Asiatic Society, now the Asiatic
Society of Bengal, by the oriental scholar Sir William Jones; it became a
storehouse for information and data on the subcontinent and has existed in
various institutional guises up to the present day.

Q Source: Improvisation: Chapter 1: Page 3: Our pasts-III (Part I)

71 Right to Livelihood as part of the Right to Life was established in


A. A.D.M. Jabalpur Vs S. Shukla 1976
B. Maneka Gandhi versus Union of India 1978
C. Olga Tellis vs Bombay Municipal Corporation 1985
D. Indira Sawhney Vs Union of India 1992
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :

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TEST - 2

Explanation: In A.D.M. Jabalpur Vs S. Shukla 1976, the Supreme Court declared


the right to move court under Articles 14, 21 and 22 would remain suspended during
the Emergency. So, option (a) is wrong.

The Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India 1978 case caused a huge uproar over the
definition of freedom of speech.The court ruled that the procedure must be fair and
the law must not violate other fundamental rights. So, option (b) is wrong.

IA

In Indira Sawhney Vs Union of India 1992, the Supreme Court upheld the
implementation of recommendations made by the Mandal Commission. It also
defined the "creamy layer" criteria and reiterated that the quota could not exceed 50
per cent. So, option (d) is also wrong.

TS

Learning: In Olga Tellis vs Bombay Municipal Corporation 1985, the SC observed,


"the sweep of the Right to Life, conferred by Article 21 is wide and far reaching.
'Life' means something more than mere animal existence. It does not mean merely
that life cannot be extinguished or taken away as, for example, by the imposition
and execution of the death sentence, except according to procedure established by
law. That is but one aspect of the Right to Life. An equally important facet of that
right is the right to livelihood because no person can live without the means of
living, that is, the means of livelihood."

SI
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Q Source: Chapter 5: page 62: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life

IN

72 After the Battle of Buxar (1764), the East India Company appointed Residents in Indian
states. They were
A. Representative natives of the Princely states who were also a part of the
British Legislative council
B. Heads of Contingent army units placed under Subsidiary alliance in the
states.
C. Political and commercial agents of the company in the states.
D. Ex-Governors of British Presidencies who controlled the states
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning: They were political or commercial agents and their job
was to serve and further the interests of the Company. Through the Residents, the
Company officials began interfering in the internal affairs of Indian states. They
tried to decide who was to be the successor to the throne, and who was to be
appointed in administrative posts. Sometimes the Company forced the states into a

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TEST - 2

"subsidiary alliance".
Q Source: Chapter 2: Page 15: Our pasts-III (Part I)

IA

73 With regard to Internet, the practice of 'Zero Rating' refers to?


A. Zero restriction on accessing content on the internet irrespective of its source
and nature
B. Internet Service Providers (ISPs) offering free data for specific applications
C. Providing different speeds on different internet lanes
D. None of the above
User Answer : B
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :

TS

Explanation: Except some objectionable content, internet content is already


restriction free in most nations. So, option (a) is incorrect.

Option (c) is essentially a concept that goes against net neutrality. Zero rating is a
different concept (as explained below). So, option (c) is also wrong.

SI
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Learning: Zero Rating is a practice by which Internet operators offer free data for
specific applications. Advocates of Zero Rating services have argued that this
enables those offline to try online services, thereby bridging the digital divide.
During his recent visit to India, Facebook CEO Mark Zuckerberg said that
Facebook's Free Basics and Zero Rating do not violate Net neutrality, instead they
are aimed at enhancing access to the Internet in the developing world, including
India.

IN

He also tried to distinguish zero-rating services from other instances when


companies charge different rates for services or when a telecom operator tries to
give an advantage to its own services. According to him, it was for the latter that Net
neutrality regulations are required.
Q Source:
http://indianexpress.com/article/technology/tech-news-technology/facebooks-change
s-seem-to-align-it-closer-to-net-neutrality-rajeev-chandrasekhar-after-meetingzuckerberg/

74 Consider the following statements.

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TEST - 2

IA

1. The policy of 'paramountcy'primarily aimed at subordinating all European


companies trading in India.
2. Carnatic wars were a series of military conflicts between the French and British East
India Company.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer : B
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :

TS

Explanation & Learning: Policy of paramountcy was designed to make all Indian
states accept the suzerainty of the British. So, statement 1 is incorrect.
The Company claimed that its authority was paramount or supreme; hence its power
was greater than that of Indian states. In order to protect its interests it was justified
in annexing or threatening to annex any Indian kingdom.

SI
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The Carnatic wars were fought to decide the rivalry between the English and the
French and were directly connected with their rivalry in Europe. So, statement 2 is
correct.
The War of the Austrian Succession broke out in Europe in 1740. In this war Britain
and France joined opposite camps. As a result the English and the French
Companies also became engulfed in the war. Thus the First Carnatic War was
started.

IN

Q Source: Chapter 2: Page 18: Our pasts-III (Part I)

75 In Mahalwari system, how was the revenue settlement made?


A. Ryots paid Zamindars who paid to the British.
B. The British collected revenues from individual villages through District
Collectors.
C. Village headman collected revenue from a village and gave it to the British.
D. Zamindars collected rents from a group of villages and paid it to the British.
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :

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TEST - 2

Explanation & Learning: Holt Mackenzie felt that the village was an important
social institution in north Indian society and needed to be preserved. Under his
directions, collectors went from village to village, inspecting the land, measuring the
fields, and recording the customs and rights of different groups.

The estimated revenue of each plot within a village was added up to calculate the
revenue that each village (mahal) had to pay.

IA

This demand was to be revised periodically, not permanently fixed. The charge of
collecting the revenue and paying it to the Company was given to the village
headman, rather than the zamindar. This system came to be known as the mahalwari
settlement.

TS

Q Source: Chapter 3: Page 29: Our pasts-III (Part I)

SI
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76 Which of the following are NOT examples of 'sunrise industries'?


1. Automobile sector
2. Textile industry
3. Hospitality industry
4. Fitness, wellness and health industry
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 3 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :

IN

Explanation: Automobile and textile industries are well established one. So, they
cannot be sunrise industries. Statements 1 and 2 are thus the answer.
Learning: 'Sunrise industries' is a colloquial term for a sector or business that is in
its infancy, but is growing at a rapid pace. A sunrise industry is typically
characterized by high growth rates, numerous start-ups and an abundance of venture
capital funding.
A sunrise industry is often characterized by a high degree of innovation, and its
rapid emergence may threaten to push into obsolescence a competing industry sector
that is already in decline. Examples of sunrise industries include alternative energy
in the period from 2003 to 2007, and social media and cloud computing in 2011 and

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TEST - 2

2012.

Over a period of years or decades, as an industry grows and matures, it may pass
from the sunrise phase to maturity and, finally, the sunset stage. The compact-disc
industry is a typical example of such a transition. It was a sunrise industry in the
1990s as compact discs replaced vinyl records and cassette tapes, but the rapid
adoption of digital media in the 21st century could mean that the compact-disc
industry's days are numbered.

IA

Q Source: Chapter 3: Page 29: Our pasts-III (Part I)

TS

77 Patan Patola, an ancient tradition, relates to the


A. Free hand drawing and colour of the subjects mentioned in the Epics
B. Technique of stitching leather which was also found at Harappan sites
C. Art of double ikat weaving in western Indian state of Gujarat
D. Folk embroidery done using bamboos in the North-east
User Answer :
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :
Explanation: Option (a) refers to Srikalahasti style of Kalamkari. Hence, its wrong.

SI
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Option (b) refers to the 'awl or ari' used in folk embroidery in ancient India. Thus,
wrong.
Learning: Patan is a situated 127 Km North of Ahmedabad in the Indian State of
Gujarat. Inheriting a rich cultural heritage, Patan became famous due to its Patolas
(double ikat) or normally a sacred silk cloth which took to different forms over time.

IN

Another feature that distinguishes hand dyed Patolas from other textiles is that the
silk fabric will wear out or tear but will not fade in its colour or design.
Since its creation and advent more than 700 years back, Patan Patolas today take
form in the shape of handmade saris draped by women and also hand woven in to
stole, scarf, or a handkerchief.
Before World War II, Indonesia was major buyer of patolas. Historically, the art of
Double Ikat patola weaving dates back to centuries.
Q Source: Chapter 1: Page 80: Our pasts-III (Part II)

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TEST - 2

IA

78 The 'Small Grants Program (SGP)' established in 1992, the year of Earth Summit,
provides grants to
A. Environmental Research organizations
B. Sovereign Governments
C. Local community and NGOs
D. All of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :

TS

Explanation & Learning: SGP provides grants of up to $50,000 (and technical


support) directly to local communities including indigenous people, communitybased organizations and other non-governmental groups for projects in Biodiversity,
Climate Change Mitigation and Adaptation, Land Degradation and Sustainable
Forest Management, International Waters and Chemicals.
It is a part of the Global Environment Facility (GEF).

Q Source: Improvisation: CSP 2014: Set A Q6 on Global Environment Facility.

IN

SI
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79 Which of the following does NOT coincide with Mahatma Gandhi's view of education?
A. Education must begin with literacy.
B. Basic education in which vocational training or work experience is of utmost
importance.
C. Education should be scientifically and rationally oriented.
D. Western education system is not a comprehensive system of education.
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning: For Gandhiji, literacy was neither the beginning nor the
end of education. For him, education was of the mind and soul. It ought not be
restricted to knowing how to read and write, and receiving a degree. So, option (a)
will be the answer; and (d) is a correct statement in the context.
He further says, "I would therefore begin the child's education by teaching it a useful
handicraft and enabling it to produce from the moment it begins its training
80 Which of the following is NOT correct about bio-ethanol?
A. It can be made by fermenting some plant by-products.

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TEST - 2

B. It can be blended with petrol to make a transport fuel.


C. The end-products of combustion of bio ethanol are heat, vapour and Carbon
Dioxide.
D. It cannot be prepared from fruits.
User Answer : D
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :

IA

Explanation & Learning: Bioethanol - or simply 'ethanol' is a renewable energy


source made by fermenting the sugar and starch components of plant by-products mainly sugarcane and crops like grain, using yeast. It is also made from corn,
potatoes, milk, rice, beetroot and recently grapes, banana and dates depending on the
countries agricultural strength.

TS

Bioethanol has many uses: It is blended with petrol to make a truly sustainable
transport fuel, it's used in cosmetic and other manufacturing processes, and it creates
the clean burning flame even for house uses.

Bioethanol fuel is completely composed of biological products. The combustion of


bio ethanol results in a clean emission: Heat, Steam and Carbon Dioxide.

SI
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Carbon dioxide is absorbed by plants. It is then processed via photosynthesis to help


the plant grow. This infinite cycle of creation and combustion of energy makes bio
ethanol a carbon neutral fuel source.
Q Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/punjab-to-set-up-bioethanol-refi
nery/article7820930.ece

IN

81 Which of the following are NOT the methods for land conservation?
1. Land reclamation
2. Relying more on irrigation rather than rainfed water
3. Checks on overgrazing
4. Regulated use of chemical fertilizers
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : c

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TEST - 2

Answer Justification :
Explanation: Land reclamation is the process of creating new land from ocean,
riverbeds, or lake beds. The process of reconverting disturbed land to its former or
other productive uses. So, statement 1 is a method of land conservation.

IA

Relying more on irrigation (rather than rainfed water) can cause siltation, water
logging, and reduced levels of groundwater. So, it is not a method of land
conservation.

Overgrazing can cause land degradation and desertification. So, statement 3 is about
land conservation.
Excessive use of chemical fertilizers can also cause land degradation.

TS

Learning: Negative effects of Fertilizers: They are made of nutrients, such as


nitrogen and phosphorus. When it rains, these nutrients are carried by stormwater
into the nearest stream, river, or other water body. Too many nutrients in water can
cause algae to grow, which uses up the oxygen in the water. Low levels of oxygen in
water can hurt aquatic wildlife and even lead to fish kills.

SI
G

Q Source: Chapter 2: page 13: 8th NCERT Resource & Development

IN

82 Consider the following about Kalighat paintings.


1. It originated in Bengal.
2. It was restricted to the depiction of mythological characters.
3. It was a blend of oriental and occidental paintings.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :
Explanation: From the depiction of Hindu gods, goddesses, and other mythological
characters, the Kalighat paintings developed to reflect a variety of themes. The
artists also chose to portray secular themes and personalities and in the process
played a role in the Independence movement. They painted heroic characters like
Tipu Sultan and Rani Lakshmibai. So, statement 2 is wrong.

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TEST - 2

Learning: The paintings over a period of time developed as a distinct school of


Indian painting. An important achievement of the Kalighat artistes was that they
made simple paintings and drawings, which could easily be reproduced by
lithography.

Such prints were then hand coloured. This trend continued up to the early part of the
twentieth century and these paintings ended up in museums and private collections.

IA

The charm of the Kalighat paintings lies in the fact that they captured the essence of
daily life and they influence modern artistes like the late Jamini Roy even to this
day.
Q Source: Chapter 4: Page 132: Our pasts-III (Part II)

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TS

83 Which of the following species are vulnerable as per IUCN classification?


A. Blue Kingfisher, Indian blue robin, Indian peafowl
B. Some species of Python, Indian rhinoceros, Indian flying frog
C. Indian blue robin, Indian eyed turtle, some species of Python
D. Indian peafowl, Indian rhinoceros, Indian eyed turtle
User Answer :
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :
Explanation: Blue Kingfisher, Indian blue robin, India peafowl are species of 'Least
concern' as per IUCN classification. SO, (a), (c) and (d) are wrong.
Indian rhinoceros, Indian eyed turtle, some species of Python and Indian flying frog
are vulnerable as per IUCN classification. Only option (b) has the right combination.

IN

Learning: Indian Rhinoceros - It is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List, as


populations are fragmented and restricted to less than 20,000 km2.Moreover, the
extent and quality of the rhino's most important habitat, alluvial grassland and
riverine forest, is considered to decline due to human and livestock encroachment.
The Indian rhinoceros once ranged throughout the entire stretch of the IndoGangetic Plain, but excessive hunting and agricultural development reduced their
range drastically to 11 sites in northern India and southern Nepal.
Q Source: Improvisation: Chapter 2: pages 18-20 (images): 8th NCERT Resource
& Development

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TEST - 2

IA

84 Consider the following about the 'Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and forest
Degradation (REDD)' Program.
1. It is an initiative of the United Nations.
2. It intends to cover both developed and developing countries.
3. REDD+ provides for carbon offset mechanisms.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 3 only
User Answer : B
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :

TS

Explanation: It does not intend to cover developed nations. The Programme


supports national REDD+ readiness efforts in partner countries spanning Africa,
Asia-Pacific and Latin America. So, statement 2 is incorrect.

REDD+ provides for evaluation of the financial value for the carbon stored in the
trees. This allows polluters to purchase carbon offsets. So, statement 3 is correct.

SI
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Learning: The Programme was launched in 2008 and builds on the convening role
and technical expertise of the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United
Nations (FAO), the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the
United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). The UN-REDD Programme
supports nationally-led REDD+ processes and promotes the informed and
meaningful involvement of all stakeholders, including Indigenous Peoples and other
forest-dependent communities, in national and international REDD+
implementation.

IN

REDD+ is currently one of the most crucial and contested topics of the UN
Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) negotiations.
Q Source: Improvisation: CSP 2015: Set B Q99 on Forest Carbon Partnership
facility (which has been formed under REDD+)

85 Which of the following were NOT the recommendations of the Cabinet Mission 1946?
A. Division of India in two nations based on referendum
B. Recognition of Indian Right to cede from the Commonwealth
C. Union Government and its legislature were to have limited powers, with
greater autonomy to states

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TEST - 2

D. Constituent Assembly to be formed of the representatives of the Provincial


Assemblies and the Princely states
User Answer :
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :

IA

Explanation: The Cabinet Mission 1946 recommended an undivided India and


turned down the Muslim league's demand for a separate Pakistan. So, option (a) is
incorrect.
Other important recommendations are listed below.
Learning: The cabinet mission plan of 1946 proposed that there shall be a Union of
India which was to be empowered to deal with the defense, foreign affairs and
communications.

SI
G

TS

It provided that all the members of the Interim cabinet would be Indians and
there would be minimum interference by the Viceroy.
All subjects other than the Union Subjects and all the residuary powers would
be vested in the provinces.
The Princely states would retain all subjects and all residuary powers
The representation of the Provincial legislatures was to be break up into 3
sections. Section A: Madras, UP, Central provinces, Bombay, Bihar & Orissa
Section B: Punjab, Sindh, NWFP, Baluchistan Section C: Assam and Bengal.
Q Source: Chapter 5: Page 157: Our pasts-III (Part II)

IN

86 The Non-alignment movement was formed in the backdrop of


1. Cold war rivalry between US and USSR
2. Decolonization of African nations
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer : A
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning: The 1950s and 1960s saw the emergence of the Cold
War, that is, power rivalries and ideological conflicts between the USA and the
USSR, with both countries creating military alliances.

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TEST - 2

This was also the period when colonial empires were collapsing and many countries
were attaining independence.

IA

Q Source: Chapter 6: Page 170: Our pasts-III (Part II)

Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, who was also the foreign minister of newly
independent India, developed free India's foreign policy in this context. Nonalignment formed the bedrock of this foreign policy. With Yogoslavia, Ghana,
Egypt and Indonesia, he formed the non-alignment movement.

SI
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TS

87 Tropical vegetation can be found in which of the following national parks?


1. Nandadevi National park
2. Khangchendzonga National Park
3. Balphakram National Park
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 2 only
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :
Explanation: Both Khangchendzonga and Nandadevi National park do not have
tropical vegetation. They have temperate and arctic vegetation. So, statements 1 and
2 are incorrect.

IN

Balphakram National Park consists of tropical vegetation which is an ideal habitat


for various species of animals like elephants, deer and so on. So, statement 3 is
correct.
Learning: Balphakram National Park is a national park ranging from under 200 to
over 800 meters above sea level, near the Garo Hills in Meghalaya, India. The
highest peaksIt is often referred to as the "abode of perpetual winds" as well as the
"land of spirits."
It is also the home of the barking deer and the golden cat. Commonly seen animals
include Wild water buffalo, Red panda, Elephant and eight species of cats including
Tiger and Marbled cat.
It is also very famous for pitcher plant and many medicinal plants called 'Dik.ke'.

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TEST - 2

IA

88 Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli was made during the reign of


A. Ashoka
B. Samudragupta
C. Chandragupta I
D. Kanishka
User Answer : A
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :

Q Source: Improvisation: CSP 2015: Set B Q77 on type of vegetation in National


parks.

TS

Explanation: Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli was created during Ashoka's reign


(272-231 BC); hence, option (a).
Learning: Dhauli is located in the ancient territory of Kalinga, now the state of
Orissa, which the emperor Ashoka Maurya (reigned 272-231 BC) conquered with
appalling loss of life in about 260 BC.

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Thereafter Ashoka repented of the violence which he had done, and converted to
Buddhism. He expressed his remorse, and his intention to govern the kingdom
according to the principles of his new faith, in a series of rock-cut edicts that he
caused to be inscribed on over 100 monuments throughout his vast kingdom.
Q Source: Improvisation: CSP 2015: Set B Q79 on ancient Indian monument's
chronology.

IN

89 Mekong is a trans-boundary river in


A. South-East Asia
B. South Asia
C. East Africa
D. Central Asia
User Answer : A
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning: The Mekong is a trans-boundary river in Southeast Asia.
From the Tibetan Plateau the river runs through China's Yunnan province,
Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, Cambodia and Vietnam.

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TEST - 2

IA

The extreme seasonal variations in flow and the presence of rapids and
waterfalls in the Mekong make navigation difficult. Even so, the river is a
major trade route between western China and Southeast Asia.
The Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC) was established on November 10,
2000 at Vientiane at the First MGC Ministerial Meeting. It comprises six
member countries, namely India, Thailand, Myanmar, Cambodia, Laos and
Vietnam. They emphasized four areas of cooperation, which are tourism,
culture, education, and transportation linkage in order to be solid foundation
for future trade and investment cooperation in the region.
Q Source: CSP 2015: Q on Mekong-Ganga Cooperation

TS

90 Meghalaya's double-decker and single-decker root bridges made from the tree 'Ficus
elastica' are unique in the world and are a sight to behold. The tree 'Ficus elastica' is a
A. Rubber plant that can also be used for indoor ornamental purposes
B. Bamboo plant that has high elasticity and durability
C. Variegated money plant that has high strength and agility
D. Plant with high fiber content with dense root hairs at its surface
User Answer :
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :

SI
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Explanation & Learning: The bridges are tangles of massive thick roots, which
have been intermingled to form a bridge that can hold several people at a time.
Khasi people have been trained to grow these bridges across the raised banks of
streams to form a solid bridge, made from roots. The living bridges are made from
the roots of the Ficus elastica tree, which produces a series of secondary roots that
are perched atop huge boulders along the streams or the riverbanks to form bridges.

IN

The rubber plant (Ficus elastica) is a popular ornamental plant from the Ficus genus.
In it's natural habitat it grows over 30 metres tall, however, the varieties grown
indoors are a much more manageable height. It is native to northeast India, Nepal,
Bhutan, Burma, China, Malaysia, and Indonesia.
Q Source: Improvisation: CSP 2015: Set B Q94 on Living root bridges

91 In India, greatest land area is devoted to?


A. Pastures
B. Crop land
C. Forests

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66

TEST - 2

D. Dwellings
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :

Explanation: India devotes more than 50% of its area as crop land. Only 4-5% is
for pastures, ad=nd nearly 23% for forests (official forest cover). So, option (b) is
correct.

IA

Learning: The use of land is determined by physical factors such as topography,


soil, climate, minerals and availability of water. Human factors such as population
and technology are also important determinants of land use pattern.

TS

So, given the majority of population engaged in agriculture; high food demand etc
more than 50% area is devoted to agricultural practices.
Q Source: Chapter 2: page 10: 8th NCERT Resource & Development

IN

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92 Consider the following about 'Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas (IBAs)' identified
by 'Birdlife International'.
1. It covers only those areas that are formally (government) protected.
2. All IBAs come under global biodiversity 'hotspots'.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :
Explanation: 33% of IBAs lack any form of formal protection and a further 45%
are only partially protected. Achieving adequate protection for these sites is among
the most urgent of global conservation priorities. So, statement 1 is incorrect.
BirdLife has documented over 12,000 Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas. These
are not restricted to 'hotspots' only. Statement 2 also is incorrect.
Learning: BirdLife international is a global partnership of conservation
organisations that strives to conserve birds, their habitats and global biodiversity,
working with people towards sustainability in the use of natural resources. Together

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67

TEST - 2

the BirdLife Partnership forms the leading authority on the status of birds, their
habitats and the issues and problems affecting bird life.
Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas are:

IA

Places of international significance for the conservation of birds and other


biodiversity
Recognised world-wide as practical tools for conservation
Distinct areas amenable to practical conservation action
Identified using robust, standardised criteria
Sites that together form part of a wider integrated approach to the
conservation and sustainable use of the natural environment

TS

Q Source: Improvisation: CSP 2015: Set B Q1 on Birdlife international.

SI
G

93 Consider the following about Prarthana Samaj.


1. It was established in 1867 in Bombay.
2. Its primary objective was to promote Indian spirituality to the West.
3. Its leaders condemned rituals and superstitions of orthodox Hinduism.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. All of the above
User Answer : A
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :

IN

Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect as the religious meetings of the Samaj drew


upon Hindu, Buddhist and Christian texts.
Statement 2 is also incorrect, as securing social justice was the primary aim of the
Samaj, not the promotion of spirituality to the West.
Learning: Prarthana Samaj was founded by Aatma Ram Pandurang in 1867 with an
aim to make people believe in one God and worship only one God. The main
reformers were the intellectuals who advocate reforms of the social system of the
Hindus.
It sought to remove caste restrictions, abolish child marriage, encourage the
education of women, and end the ban on widow remarriage.

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TEST - 2

Q Source: Chapter 3: Page 120: Our pasts-III (Part II)

IA

94 Seed Village Concept' envisages


1. Replacing existing local seed varieties with new high yielding varieties.
2. Self sufficiency and self reliance of the village in terms of seed production
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :

TS

Explanation & Learning: A seed village is one wherein trained group of fanners
are involved in production 'of seeds of various crops and cater to the needs of
themselves, fellow fanners of the village and fanners of neighboring villages in
appropriate time and at affordable cost is called "a seed village".

Concept revolves around

SI
G

Organizing seed production in cluster (or) compact area


Replacing existing local varieties with new high yielding varieties.
Increasing the seed production
To meet the local demand, timely supply and reasonable cost
Self sufficiency and self reliance of the village
Increasing the seed replacement rate

IN

Features

Seed is available at the door steps of farms at an appropriate time


Seed availability at affordable cost even lesser than market price
Increased confidence among the farmers about the quality because of known
source of production
Producer and consumer are mutually benefited
Facilitates fast spread of new cultivars of different kinds

Q Source: Improvisation: CSP 2015: Set B Q22 on Seed village concept.


95 Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA) provides financial

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69

IA

support to
1. Generate electricity by new sources
2. Conserving energy through energy efficiency
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :

TEST - 2

TS

Explanation & Learning: IREDA is a Public Limited Government Company


established as a Non-Banking Financial Institution in 1987 under the administrative
control of MNRE to promote, develop and extend financial assistance for renewable
energy and energy efficiency /conservation projects with the motto: "ENERGY FOR
EVER".
Its objectives are:

IN

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To give financial support to specific projects and schemes for generating


electricity and / or energy through new and renewable sources and conserving
energy through energy efficiency.
To increase IREDA's share in the renewable energy sector by way of
innovative financing.
To strive to be competitive institution through customer satisfaction.
To maintain its position as a leading organization to provide efficient and
effective financing in renewable energy and energy efficiency / conservation
projects.
Improvement in the efficiency of services provided to customers through
continual improvement of systems, processes and resources.

Q Source: Improvisation: CSP 2015: Set B Q25 on Seed village concept.

96 Which of the following acts gave legislative councils the power to discuss the budget?
A. Government of India Act 1909
B. Government of India Act 1919
C. Government of India Act 1935
D. Act of 1892
User Answer : A

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TEST - 2

Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning: The Act of 1892 provided for the following:

TS

IA

It increased the number of additional (non-official) members in the Central


and provincial legislative councils, but maintained the official majority in
them.
It increased the functions of legislative councils and gave them the power of
discussing the budget and addressing questions to the executive.
It provided for the nomination of some non-official members of the
1. Central Legislative Council by the viceroy on the recommendation of
the provincial legislative councils and the Bengal Chamber of
Commerce, and
2. that of the Provincial legislative councils by the Governors on the
recommendation of the district boards, municipalities, universities,
trade associations, zamindars and chambers.

Q Source: Improvisation: Chapter 3: page 31: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life

IN

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97 The Global Environment facility serves as a financial mechanism for which of the
following conventions?
1. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
2. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
3. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
4. Convention on the Protection and Use of Transboundary Watercourses
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning: The Global Environment Facility (GEF) unites 183
countries in partnership with international institutions, civil society organizations
(CSOs), and the private sector to address global environmental issues while
supporting national sustainable development initiatives.
GEF is the largest public funder of projects to improve the global environment. It is

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71

TEST - 2

an independently operating financial organization.


UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) and Minamata Convention on
Mercury are the other conventions to which it serves as a financial mechanism.

The GEF, although not linked formally to the Montreal Protocol on Substances that
Deplete the Ozone Layer (MP), supports implementation of the Protocol in countries
with economies in transition.

IA

Q Source: Improvisation: CSP 2014: Set A Q6 on Global Environment Facility.

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TS

98 Which of the following are the objectives of monetary policy?


1. Zero inflation in the economy
2. Stable economic growth
3. High Rupee foreign exchange ratio
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
User Answer : B
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :

Explanation: Monetary policy does not aim at zero or ultra-low inflation, but
stability of prices with a moderate rate of inflation. This is because some amount of
inflation is necessary for growth. So, statement 1 is correct.

IN

High rupee exchange ratio is not the objective of monetary policy; instead it is
stability of rupee in the foreing exchange markets. The actual value of rupee
exchange ratio is not desirably fixed in a managed or floating exchange rate as in
India. So, statement 3 is incorrect.
Learning: Monetary policy refers to the credit control measures adopted by the
central bank of a country.
Other objectives are ensuring full employment, and a Balance of Payments.
This is ensured through instruments like Bank rate, CRR, SLR, Open Market
operations etc.

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TEST - 2

Q Source: Improvisation: CSP 2015: Set B Q11 on instruments of monetary policy.

IA

99 Which of the following most affect the rate of humus formation in the soil?
A. Flora, fauna and microorganisms
B. Characteristics of parent rock
C. Slope of soil
D. Minerals in the soil
User Answer :
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :

Explanation & Learning:: Soil organic matter is made up of organic compounds


and includes plant, animal and microbial material, both living and dead.

TS

Other objectives are ensuring full employment, and a Balance of Payments.

A small part of the organic matter consists of the living cells such as bacteria, molds,
and actinomycetes that work to break down the dead organic matter. Were it not for
the action of these micro-organisms, the entire carbon dioxide part of the
atmosphere would be sequestered as organic matter in the soil.

SI
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Q Source: Chapter 2: page 13: 8th NCERT Resource & Development

IN

100 Gujarat is the largest producer of salt in India because


1. It has rock-salt deposits.
2. Its continental shelf is the longest among all the states resulting in shallow seas.
3. Coastal regions have high temperatures conducive for evaporation.
4. It has long coastline.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :
Explanation: Shallow Sea is not a requirement for producing large scale quantities
of salt. So, statement 2 is wrong.

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73

TEST - 2

Dry and hot areas promote better evaporation of sea water and greater production of
salt. So, statement 3 is correct.
The longer the coastline is, the higher is the potential for salt production. Statement
4 is also correct.

IA

Learning: There are three main sources of salt in India: (i) sea water, along the
coasts of the Peninsula, (ii) brine springs, wells and salt lakes of the arid tracts of
Rajasthan, and (iii) rock-salt deposits of Gujarat and Himachal Pradesh.

TS

About 75 per cent of the total salt produced in India is manufactured in


marine salt works by the solar evaporation of sea water.
Dry and sunny climate is essential for salt production and the western arid
region of Gujarat along with 1,600 km long coastline provides a conducive
environment, making Gujarat the largest producer of salt in the country. The
state contributes nearly 70% of the total salt produced in the country.
Unseasonal rainfall and an extended winter could cut down the production of
salt.

IN

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Q Source: Improvisation: CDS 2015: Set A Q34 on Gujarat as a salt producer.

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