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DIAMS

1.

With reference to the atmospheric pressure, the


intra-pleural pressure at the base of the lungs at
the start of expiration (in mm Hg) is about
a. 2.5
b. 6.0
c. 0
d. +2.5
2. With reference to the atmospheric pressure, the
intra-pulmonary pressure at the base of the lungs
at the start of expiration (in mm Hg) is about
a) 2.5
b) 6.0
c) 0
d) +2.5
3. In normal respiration, from peak of inspiration to
peak of expiration, the intra-pulmonary pressure
varies between ( in mm Hg)
a) 0 to -1
b) +1 to -1
c) + 1 to 0
d) -1 to +1
4. In deep inspiration, the intra-pulmonary pressure is
likely to be ( in mm Hg)
a) 25
b) +30
c) - 2
d) - 6
5. PBCO2 is (in mm Hg)
a. 0.04
b. 0.3
c. 32
d. 40
6. Which of the following is true?
a. a) PAO2 = 100 mm Hg ; PACO2 = 40
mm Hg
b. b) PAO2 = 100 mm Hg ; PACO2 = 46 mm
Hg
c. c) PAO2 = 40 mm Hg ; PACO2 = 40 mm
Hg
d. d) PAO2 = 40 mm Hg ; PACO2 = 46 mm
Hg
7. The dissolved oxygen in plasma ( in
ml/100ml/mmHg PaO2) is
a. 0.003
b. 0.4
c. 1.34
d. 0.04
8. 1 gram of Hb, when fully saturated carries how
much amount of oxygen (in ml)
a) 3.34
b) 1.34
c) 34
d) 0.3
9. P50 in ( mm Hg) is
a) 3.45
b) 1.34
c) 26
d) 40
10. Haldane effect is
Binding of O2 to Hb favors exhalation
a)
of CO2
Binding of CO2 to Hb favors release of O2
b)
HCO3-Leaving RBC in exchange for Clc)
Effect of zinc on carbonic anhydrase
d)
activity

Physio / Derma
11. Carbon-dioxide is mostly carried as
a) carbamino compound
b) carboxy hemoglobin
c) dissolved gas in the plasma
d) bicarbonate in plasma
12. The normal ratio of physiological to anatomical
dead space is
a) 1 : 2
b) 2 : 1
c) 1 : 1
d) 1 : 0.5
13. Diffusion defect hypoxia is a type of --------hypoxia
A. histotoxic
B. anaemic
C. hypoxic
D. stagnant
14. The VA/Q ratio at the base of the lungs is
A. 3
B. 0.8
C. 0.6
D. 1.2
15. Specific compliance is
a. C/FRC
b. C/IRV
c. IRV/C
d. C/TLC
16. One of the following is true (in the upright
position)
a. Ventilation is maximum at the top
b. Perfusion is minimum at the base
c. Ventilation /perfusion ratio is
minimum at the base
d. Intrapleural pressure is maximum at the
top
17. Pacemaker for automatic rhythmic respiration
is
a) nucleus parabrachialis lateralis
b) Pre-Botzinger nucleus
c) Pneumotaxic centre
d) Apneustic centre
18. Transection of the brainstem below the medulla
a. results in apneustic breathing
b. stops respiration
c. does not affect automatic respiration
d. causes irregular respiration
19. Work of breathing is mostly due to
a. surface tension elasticity
b. tissue elasticity
c. viscous resistance
d. airway resistance
20. Lung diffusion capacity is measured by
a. carbon-dioxide
b. carbon-monoxide
c. Nitrous oxide
d. Oxygen
21. The central chemo-receptors respond to
a. Carbon-dioxide
b. oxygen
c. hydrogen
d. all
22. The carotid and aortic bodies respond to
a) Carbon-dioxide
b) oxygen
c) hydrogen

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DIAMS
d) all
23. Which of the following is true?
a) increase in P50 value signifies increase in
affinity of oxygen to Hb
b) the OHDC of fetal Hb lies to the right of the
OHDC of adult Hb
c) increase in 2,3-DPG shifts the OHDC to left
d) OMDC lies to the left of OHDC
24. Site of generation of action potential in a spinal
motor neuron is
a) soma
b) initial segment
c) axon hillock
d) dendrite
25. Nissl granules are peculiar to
a) smooth muscle
b) heart
c) liver
d) neuron
26. Cutaneous sensory neurons in extra-uterine life are
a) multipolar
b) unipolar
c) pseudounipolar
d) bipolar
27. All are true of local potential except
a) do not follow all or none law
b) can be depolarizing or hyperpolarizing
c) propagate with loss of height
d) show refractory period
28. All or none law is seen in
a. Spike potential
b. Motor end plate potential
c. EPSP
d. IPSP
29. Depolarisation phase of the action potential in a
nerve is due to
a) Na influx
b) Cl influx
c) Decrease in K efflux
d) K efflux
30. Repolarisation phase of the action potential in a
nerve is due to
a) Na influx
b) Cl influx
c) Decrease in K efflux
d) K efflux
31. Absolute refractory period in nerve action potential
is
a) from RMP to peak of action potential
b) from firing level to 1/3rd of
repolarisation
c) from 1/3rd of repolorisation to beginning of
after-depolarisation
d) from beginning of after-depolarisation to
end of after-hyperpolarisation
32. Relative refractory period in nerve action potential
is
a) from RMP to peak of action potential
b) from firing level to 1/3rd of repolarisation
c) from 1/3rd of repolorisation to
beginning of after-depolarisation
d) from beginning of after-depolarisation to
end of after-hyperpolarisation
33. During after-hyperpolarisation, excitability of nerve
a) more than that in RMP

Physio / Derma

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b) more than that in after-depolarisation


c) less than that in RMP
d) same as in RMP
Slow, gradual depolarization fails to stimulate
an excitable cell; this is known as
a) accommodation
b) adaptation
c) sensitization
d) habituation
Cause of after-hyperpolarisation
a) Na+ channels closed; K+ channels
closed
b) Na+ channels closed; K+ channels
open
c) Na+ channels open; K+ channels open
d) Na+ channels open; K+ channels closed
Nerve fibre with highest conduction velocity
a) A beta
b) A delta
c) B
d) C
Motor innervation to muscle spindle is by which
type of nerve fibre
a) A alpha
b) A beta
c) A gamma
d) C
Proprioception is carried by
a) B
b) C
c) A delta
d) A alpha
Fast pain is carried by
a) A alpha
b) A delta
c) B
d) C
Slow pain is carried by which type of nerve fibre
a) Ia
b) II
c) III
d) IV
Which type of nerve fibre is most susceptible to
conduction block by pressure?
a) A beta
b) A gamma
c) B
d) C
Which type of nerve fibre is most susceptible to
conduction block by hypoxia?
a) A beta
b) A gamma
c) B
d) C
Ion responsible for neurotransmitter release at
the presynaptic terminal at the skeletal neuromuscular junction:
a) sodium
b) chloride
c) potassium
d) calcium
One acetylcholine vesicle at the skeletal neuromuscular junction contains approximately how
many acetylcholine molecules?
1000

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DIAMS

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10000
100000
100
Motor end plate is modified -------------a) sarcolemma
b) sarcoplasmic reticulum
c) presynaptic membrane
d) mitochondria
Dihydropyridine receptor on the T-tubule is
a) ligand -gated calcium channel
b) voltage-gated calcium channel
c) voltage-gated sodium channel
d) ligand-gated sodium channel
The lighter portion of the dark A band is called
a) M line
b) Pseudo H zone
c) H band
d) I band
When a muscle contracts
a) A band remains constant
b) I band decreases
c) H band decreases
d) all of the above
Spatial summation is
a) Increasing the strength in the same motor
units
b) Increasing the frequency in the same
motor units
c) Increasing the frequency , and recruiting
more motor units
d) Increasing the strength, and
recruiting more motor units
All are true of type II muscles except
a) they are also called white muscles
b) they are of short-twitch durations
c) they are meant for long, slow posturemaintaining contractions
d) extraocular muscles are an example
Resting or optimal length is the initial length of the
muscle at which
a) active tension developed is minimum
b) passive tension developed is maximum
c) active tension developed is maximum
d) total tension developed is maximum
Latch bridges are characteristic of
a. Smooth muscle
b. Skeletal
c. Cardiac muscle
d. Skeletal and cardiac muscle
Gap junctions are seen in all except
a) cardiac muscle
b) retina
c) visceral smooth muscle
d) multi unit smooth muscle
The calcium-binding protein in smooth muscle is
a) calmodulin
b) troponin-I
c) troponin-T
d) troponin-C
Phase 0 of the action potential in SA node is due
to
a) K influx
b) K efflux
c) calcium influx
d) sodium influx

Physio / Derma
56. The plateau phase of the action potential of
ventricular muscle corresponds to phase
a) 0
b) 1
c) 4
d) 2
57. All the following are associated with paradoxical
sleep except
a. Rapid eye movements
b. PGO spikes
c. Marked increase in body muscle
tone
d. Low-voltage, rapid activity in EEG
58. Renshaw cell inhibition is best described as
a. Feed forward
b. Negative feedback
c. Presynaptic
d. Postsynaptic
59. Slow EPSP is caused by
a. Decrease in K+ conductance
b. Increase in K+ conductance
c. Increase in Cl- conductance
d. Both a and c
60. Thalamus is a major relay station for all except
a. taste
b. hearing
c. vision
d. smell
61. Parallel fibres come from which cerebellar cell
a. Golgi
b. Granule
c. Basket
d. Purkinje
62. All are true of synapses except
a. Most synapses are chemical
b. In electrical synapses, transmission is by
gap junctions
c. Grading and adjustment of neural
activity is possible
d. Axo-axonic synapses are
commonest
63. Basic postural reflex is
a. Crossed Extensor reflex
b. Golgi-tendon reflex
c. Flexor reflex
d. Stretch reflex
64. The term desynchronisation indicates
a. replacement of rhythmic EEG wave with
alpha waves
b. s waves
c. replacement of rhythmic EEG
pattern with low voltage, fast
waves
d. appearance of delta wave
65. Which of the following hypothalamic nuclei is
responsible for controlling the normal circadian
rhythm
a. Suprachiasmatic nuclei
b. Ventromedial nucleus
c. Arcuate nucleus
d. Paraventricular nucleus
66. In tritanopia, which pigment is missing
a. Blue
b. Red
c. Green

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DIAMS
d. All
67. First synapse for pain sensation is in
A. Dorsal root ganglion
B. Spinal cord
C. Medulla
D. Thalamus
68. Pressure is sensed by
A. Pacinian corpuscles
B. Meissners corpuscles
C. Naked nerve endings
D. Ruffini endings
69. Intensity of the stimulus is related to the sensation
produced by
A. Weber-Fechner law
B. Stevens power law
C. Both A and B
D. Bell-Megendie law
70. In the lateral spinothalamic tract fibres which are
most laterally placed are those of
A. Sacral
B. Lumbar
C. Cervical
D. Thoracic
71. Receptor for inverse stretch reflex is
A. Nuclear bag fibres
B. Nuclear chain fibres
C. Golgi tendon organs
D. Both A and B
72. Which one stimulates alpha motor neuron in the
spinal cord?
A. Vestibular nuclei
B. Reticular formation facilitatory area
C. Reticular formation inhibitory area
D. Basal ganglia
73. Thalamic nucleus involved with Papez circuit
A. Intralaminar
B. Midline
C. Anterior
D. Pulvinar
74. One of the following is excitatory interneuron in the
cerebellum
A. Golgi cell
B. Basket cell
C. Purkinje cell
D. Granule cell
75. Amplitude of alpha wave of EEG
A. 200mV
B. 200 microvolt
C. 50 microvolt
D. 10 microvolt
76. Afferents from Golgi tendon organ are carried by
a. Ia
b. Ib
c. Ia and II
d. II
77. Afferents from nuclear bag fibres are carried by
a. Ia
b. II
c. Both Ia and II
d. Ib
78. The chief motor nucleus of the thalamus is
a. ventroposterior medial
b. ventroposterior lateral
c. ventrolateral
d. reticular

Physio / Derma
79. K complexes appear in
a. stage 1 of NREM
b. stage 2 of NREM
c. REM sleep
d. Stage 4 of NREM
80. Conduction speed is least for
a) AV node
b) Purkinje fibres
c) Bundle of His
d) Atrial fibres
81. Conduction speed is maximum for
a)
AV node
b)
Purkinje fibres
c)
Bundle of His
d)
d)Atrial fibres
82. In the ventricle, the first portion to depolarize is
a)
endocardial portion of left
interventricular septum
b)
epicardial portion of left interventricular
septum
c)
endocardial portion of right
interventricular septum
d)
epicardial portion of right
interventricular septum
83. Last to repolarise
a)
apex, epicardium
b)
apex endocardium
c)
base endocardium
d)
base epicardium
84. First to repolarise
a)
apex, epicardium
b)
apex endocardium
c)
base endocardium
d)
base epicardium
85. Wilsons terminal is used in how many of the
leads in the conventional 12-lead system?
a)
3
b)
9
c)
6
d)
12
86. The minimum resistance to be used in Wilsons
terminal is
a)
5 kilo-ohms
b)
5 ohms
c)
1 kilo-ohm
d)
3000 ohms
87. In augmented limb leads, the augmentation in
the amplitude as compared to the
unaugmented limb leads is -------- times :
a)
2
b)
1
c)
2
d)
3
88. All the waves are normally negative in which of
the following leads?
a)
lead I
b)
lead II
c)
avR
d)
V6
89. Which of the following electrical activities of the
heart does not contribute to the ECG waves?
a)
ventricular depolarization
b)
atrial depolarization
c)
ventricular repolarisation
d)
atrial repolarisation

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DIAMS
90. The duration of the ST interval is approximately ( in
second)
a)
0.1
b)
0.2
c)
0.3
d)
0.4
91. The end of ventricular depolarization corresponds
to
a)
U point
b)
M point
c)
Y point
d)
J point
92. The normal range of the mean QRS axis is
a)
30 degrees to + 110 degrees
b)
30 degrees to - 110 degrees
c)
+ 30 degrees to + 110 degrees
d)
+ 30 degrees to - 110 degrees
93. If lead I is predominantly positive and lead III is
predominantly negative, the axis is likely to be
a)
+ 60 degrees
b)
+ 90 degress
c)
30 degrees
d)
+ 120 degrees
94. Dicrotic notch is synchronous with which heart
sound?
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
d)
4th
95. Isovolumic ventricular contraction produces which
wave of the JVP?
a)
a
b)
v
c)
x
d)
c
96. When a person is at rest, regarding the innervation
of the heart, which of the following is true?
a)
Sympathetic tone > parasympathetic tone
b)
Parasympathetic tone > sympathetic
tone
c)
Parasympathetic tone = sympathetic tone
d)
There is only sympathetic tone and no
parasympathetic tone
97. Preload to the heart is given by
a)
ejection fraction
b)
stroke volume
c)
end diastolic volume
d)
end systolic volume
98. The maximum vascular resistance lies at the
a)
arterioles
b)
venules
c)
capillaries
d)
aorta
99. Which of the following does not have innervation?
a)
shunt vessels
b)
arterioles
c)
veins
d)
capillaries
100.
Velocity of blood flow is maximum in
a)
Capillaries
b)
aorta
c)
small veins
d)
small arteries
101.
Vasomotor centre is located in
a)
medulla

Physio / Derma
pons
spinal cord
d)
midbrain
102.
Cushings reflex includes
a)
hypertension and tachycardia
b)
hypotension and tachycardia
c)
hypotension and tachycardia
d)
hypertension and bradycardia
103.
Baroreceptors are situated in
a)
carotid sinus and carotid body
b)
carotid sinus and aortic arch
c)
aortic body and aortic arch
d)
aortic body and carotid body
104.
All the following about the
juxtamedullary nephrons is true except
a) long loop of Henle
b) their peritubular capillaries are long and
are called vasa recta
c) their blood supply is low as compared to
cortical nephrons
d) they constitute 85% of the total
nephrons
105.
All the following about the filtration
barrier are true except
a) the basement membrane is negatively
charged due to the presence of sialoproteins
b) the negativity of basement membrane
affects the permeability of only those
charged particles which are between 4
nm and 8 nm
c) although albumin has a size of about 7
nm, it does not appear much in the
urine because it is negatively charged
d) the size of the filtration slits formed
by the foot processes of the
podocytes is about 70 to 90 nm
106.
GFR can be estimated by the clearance
of which of the following?
a) PAH
b) Creatinine
c) Glucose
d) PAH and creatinine
107.
Which part of the nephron does not
reabsorb sodium?
a) TAL
b) ATS
c) DTS
d) CD
108.
DCT has which transport mechanism for
sodium?
a) Na+-K+-2Clb) Na+-K+
c) Na+-H+
d) SGLT
109.
The part of the tubule responsible for
tubuloglomerular feedback is
a) Macula densa
b) PCT
c) CD
d) ATS
110.
TmG of glucose in the male is (in
mg/min)
a) 125
b) 20
b)
c)

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DIAMS
c) 375
d) 300
111.
The most important segment of the
nephron for counter-current multiplication is
a) ATS
b) CD
c) PCT
d) TAL
112.
Limiting pH of the urine is
a) 7.4
b) 4.5
c) 1 to 2
d) 8
113.
Maximum secretion of H+ occurs in
a) PCT
b) CD
c) DTS
d) DCT
114.
ADH acts on aquaporin
a) 1
b) 3
c) 4
d) 2
115.
Osmolality means
a) Number of osmoles/litre of solution
b) Number of moles/litre of solution
c) Number of osmoles/kg of solvent
d) Number of moles/kg of solvent
116.
Most of the plasma osmolality is due to
a) sodium and its accompanying anions
b) albumin
c) glucose
d) urea
117.
Plasma oncotic pressure is due to
a) Glucose and urea
b) Sodium
c) Proteins
d) b and c
118.
The coupling ratio of Na+ - K+ ATPase is
a) 3 Na+ out of the cell; 2 K+ into the
cell
b) 2 Na+ out of the cell; 3K+ into the cell
c) 3 Na+ into the cell; 2 K+ out of the cell
d) 2 Na+ into the cell; 3 K+ out of the cell
119.
SGLT is an example of
a) primary active transport and antiport
b) primary active transport and symport
c) secondary active transport and antiport
d) secondary active transport and
symport
120.
Resting membrane potential is mostly due
to
a) Na+-K+ ATPase
b) K+ efflux
c) Na+ influx
d) K+ influx
Skin
1. The cells which process antigens found in the skin
are
a. Fibroblasts
b. Mast cells
c. Langerhan cells
d. Macrophages
2. The transformation of basal cells to cells of Stratum
corneum takes about

Physio / Derma

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a. 6 days
b. 12-14 days
c. 17-21 days
d. 28 days
Melanocytes are present in
a. Stratum corneum
b. Basal layer
c. Granular layer
d. Spinous layer
The major type of collagen found in skin is
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
Apocrine glands are present in large number in
the following sites except
a. Scalp
b. Axilla
c. External auditory canal
d. Areola
Itching sensation is transmitted through
a. A fibres
b. B1 fibres
c. B2 fibres
d. C fibres
What percentage of hair is present in the scalp
shows active growth
a. 25%
b. 60%
c. 80%
d. 95%
The most common site for staphylococcal
carries state is
a. Axilla
b. Nose
c. Genitalia
d. Extremities
The fungus which fluoresces on exposure to
Woods lamp is
a. Trichophyton
b. Microsporon
c. Candida
d. Aspergillus
Koebners phenomenon is seen in all the
following except
a. Psoriasis
b. Ichenplanus
c. Verruca
d. Icthoysis
Nikolskys sign is positive in
a. Pemphigus vulgaris
b. Bullous pemphigoid
c. Zoster
d. All of the above
Darriers sign is positive in
a. Urticaria pigmentosa
b. Phytodermatoses
c. Psoriasis
d. Pemphigus
Ausptiz sign is seen in
a. Neuro dermatitis
b. Psoriasis
c. Sarcoidosis
d. All of the above

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DIAMS
14. Grouped vesicles are found in all of the following
except
a. Dermatitis Herpertiformis
b. Herpes zoster
c. Herpes simplex
d. Pemphigoid
15. Parakeratosis is seen in
a. Scabies
b. Icthyosis
c. Psoriasis
d. Leprosy
16. Acantholysis is characteristic of
a. Lichen planus
b. Herpes zoster
c. Pemphigus
d. Pemphigoid
17. Munros Micro abscesses are found in all of the
following except
a. Psoriasis
b. Nummular eczema
c. Reiters disease
d. Iichen planus
18. Bullous impetigo is caused by
a. Streptococcus
b. Staph. aureus
c. Staph. epidermidis
d. Coryneybacterium
19. Following are true of staphylococcal scalded skin
syndrome except
a. Tender skin
b. Nikolskys sign positive
c. Sub epidermal bullae
d. Red skin
20. Erythrogenic toxin is responsible for the disease
process in
a. Erysipelas
b. Scarlet fever
c. Ecthyma
d. Scalded skin syndrome
21. Chancroid is caused by
a. T. pertenue
b. T. pallidum
c. T. pallium
d. H. ducreyi
22. School of fish appearance of bacteria in west
smear is seen in
a. Chancroid
b. Granuloma inguinale
c. Primary syphilis
d. Gonorrhea
23. Safety pin appearance of intracellular bacteria are
seen in
a. Chancroid
b. Granuloma inguinale
c. Plague
d. LGV
24. Fries intra dermal test is used for the diagnosis of
a. GV
b. LGV
c. Chancroid
d. All of the above
25. Drug of choice in LGV is
a. Septran
b. Tetracycline
c. Sulfonamide

Physio / Derma
d. Streptomycin
26. Generalized skin rashes and lymphadenopathy
is seen in
a. Endemic syphilis
b. Primary syphilis
c. Secondary syphilis
d. All of the above
27. The most frequent side for syphilitic gumma is
a. Palate
b. Tonsils
c. Vagina
d. Lower leg
28. Primary syphilis lesion of Congenital syphilis
occurs in
a. Umbilicus
b. Spleen
c. Heart
d. Liver
29. The serologic test of choice for follow up of
patients on treatment for syphilis is
a. VDRL
b. RPR
c. TPI
d. TPHA
30. Drug of choice in Bazins desease is
a. Steroids
b. INH+RMP
c. Ethambutol
d. Clofazimine
31. The most common mode of spread of Leprosy is
by
a. Droplet infection
b. Prolonged contact
c. Oral contact
d. None of the above
32. The multiplication name for M. leprae is
a. 1 hr
b. 13 hrs
c. 13 days
d. 130 days
33. The earliest sensation be lost in leprosy is
a. Temperature
b. Light touch
c. Pressure
d. Vibration
34. Following are true of lesions of Borderline
leprosy except
a. Multiple macules
b. Thickened nerves
c. Loss of hair
d. Small macules
35. Lucios Phenomenon occurs in
a. LL
b. BB
c. TT
d. BT
36. Following internal organs are affected in leprosy
except
a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Testis
d. Brain
37. Drug of choice in dapsone resistant leprosy is
a. Colfazimine
b. Acedapsone

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DIAMS
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c. Ethionamid
d. None of the above
Drug of choice in Erythema nodosum leprosum is
a. Thalidomide
b. Steroids
c. Dapsone
d. Clofazimine
Following are used in the treatment of malaria
except
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Steroid cream
d. Talcum powder
Sunburns are predominantly due to
a. UV-A
b. UV-B
c. UV-C
d. Infrared
Following are true of polymorphous light eruptions
except
a. Induced by sunlight
b. Vesiculations
c. Paper like scars
d. Corticosteroids protective
Chloroquine is used in the treatment of
a. Solar urticaria
b. Solar elastosis
c. Sunburns
d. All of the above
The most common site of seborrheic dermatitis is
a. Scalp
b. Axilla
c. Sub mammary folds
d. Umbilicus
The cutaneous lesions seen in ulcerative colitis
most often is
a. Erythrasma
b. Erythema nodosum
c. Larva migrans
d. Erythema marginatum
Herald patch is seen in
a. Pityriasis rosea
b. Pityriasis rubra
c. Psoriasis
d. Eczema
Kerion-a severe form of Tinea capitis is caused by
a. M. audounii
b. T. tonsurans
c. M. Canis
d. T.violaceum
Favus a peculiar type of tinea is caused by
a. T. schoenlenii
b. M. canis
c. T. verrucosum
d. M. gypseum
Following cause Ecothrix type of tinea capitis
except
a. T. violaceum
b. T. verrucosum
c. M. canis
d. M. audounii
Drug of chice in kerion is
a. Griseofulvin
b. Steroids
c. Antibiotics

Physio / Derma
d. All of the above
50. Griseofulvin is contraindicated in
a. Porphyria
b. Pregnancy
c. Hepatic failure
d. All of the above
51. The duration of treatment for onychomycosis
with griseofulvin is
a. 2 wks
b. 2 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
52. Drug of choice in oral candidiasis is
a. Griseofulvin
b. Nystatin
c. Clotrimazole
d. Miconazole
53. Drug of choice in systemic candidiasis is
a. Griseofulvin
b. Steroids
c. Amphotericin
d. Tetracycline
54. Selsun shampoos is highly effective in
a. Tinea imbricata
b. Tinea capitis
c. Tinea versi color
d. Tinea rubra
55. Recurrent vesicles in an adult at the site of small
pox vaccination scar is likely to be due to
a. Herpes simplex
b. Herpes zoster
c. Vaccinia
d. Cowpox
56. Multi nucleated giant cells are seen in tzanck
zmear in
a. Herpes zoster
b. Herpes simplex
c. Varicella
d. All of the above
57. Post herpetic neuralgia is best relieved by
a. X-ray therapy
b. Amitryptitline
c. Vitamin E
d. Steroids
58. Umbilicated vesicles are characteristic of
a. Small pox
b. Cow pox
c. Molluscum contagiosum
d. Chicken pox
59. The montenergo skin test is used in the
diagnosis of
a. Cutaneous leishmaniasis
b. Disseminated leishmaniasis
c. Toxoplasmosis
d. Tinea Corporis
60. Swimmers itch is caused by
a. Mycobacterium marinum
b. Schistosoma
c. Trichophyton
d. Scabies
Physio Answer

Helplines: 9891436206 / 9891334352

1.
2.

B
C

DIAMS
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
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35.
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37.
38.
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51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.

D
A
B
A
A
B
C
A
D
C
C
C
A
C
B
B
A
B
C
D
D
B
D
C
B
A
A
D
B
C
C
A
B
A
C
D
B
D
B
C
D
B
A
B
C
D
D
C
C
B
*
A
C
D
C
B
A
D
B
D
D
C
A
A
*

Physio / Derma
68. D
69. C
70. A
71. C
72. A
73. C
74. D
75. C
76. B
77. A
78. C
79. B
80. A
81. B
82. A
83. C
84. A
85. B
86. A
87. B
88. C
89. D
90. C
91. D
92. A
93. C
94. B
95. D
96. B
97. C
98. A
99. D
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.

B
A
D
B
D
D
B
C
B
A
C
D
B
A
D
C
A
C
A
D
B

SKIN ANSWER .
1. C
2. D
3. B
4. A
5. A
6. D
7. C
8. B

Helplines: 9891436206 / 9891334352

DIAMS
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
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48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.

Physio / Derma

B
D
A
A
B
D
C
C
D
B
C
B
D
A
B,C
B
B
C
D
D
A
A
A
C
A
C
A
D
A
A
A
B
C
A
A
B
A
B
A
A
D
D
C
C
C
C
A
D
B
C
A
B

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