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JEE-MAIN

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Maths and

chemistry having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4

(four) marks for each correct response.

Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction for correct response of each

question. 1/4 (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each

question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an

item in the answer sheet.

There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in

each question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be

deducted accordingly as per instruction

.i

ps

te

2.

The minimum kinetic energy of electron, hydrogen ion, and helium ion

required for ionization of a hydrogen atom at rest by colliding with it

are E1 , E2 and E3 respectively, then

1) E1 E2 E3

2) E1 E2 E3

3) E1 E2 E3

4) E1 E3 E2

Calculate the charge on the capacitor long time after the assembling of

the circuit:

4V

ud

ys

1.

PHYSICS

.s

t

ww

w

3.

4.

1) 5 C

2) 10 C

3) 15 C

4) zero

A string fixed at both the ends is vibrating in the lowest mode of

vibration for which a point at quarter of its length from one end is a

point of maximum amplitude. The frequency of vibration in this mode

is 100 Hz. What will be the frequency emitted when it vibrates in the

next mode such that the point is again a point of maximum

amplitude?

1) 400 Hz

2) 200 Hz

3) 600 Hz

4) 300 Hz

A projectile of mass 2 kg has velocities 3 m/s and 4 m/s at two points

during its flight in the uniform gravitational field of the earth. If these

two velocities are perpendicular to each other, then the minimum

kinetic energy of the particle during its flight is

1) 6.32 J

2) 8.40 J

3) 16.32 J

4) 5.76 J

7.

1)

2)

2R

2 1

3)

R

2 1 2

4)

R

2 1 2

ps

A particle of positive

charge per unit mass is released from origin

te

8.

R

1 2

6.

is plotted between:

1) Load on hanger and radius of wire

2) Load on hanger and mean value of slide calliperse reading

3) Radius of the wire and slide calliperse reading

4) Load on hanger and slide calliperse reading during load increasing

A black body is at a temperature of 2880 K. The energy of radiation

emitted by this object with wavelength between 499 nm and 500 nm is

U1 , between 999 nm and 1000 nm is U 2 and between 1499 nm and

1500 nm is U 3 . The wein constant, b 2.88 106 nm K . Then

1) U1 0

2) U 3 0

3) U1 U 2

4) U 2 U1

A plano convex lens touches a plano-concave lens such that their

curved surfaces are in contact. If the lenses are made of different

materials of refractive indices 1 and 2 and R is the radius of curvature

of the curved surfaces of both the lenses then focal length of the

combination is:

.i

5.

ys

3 v0

3 v0

B B0 k for x

and B 0 for x

2 B0

2 B0

would be:

3B0

3 v0

v0 t

2)

2 B0

3B0

3)

v

3 v0

0 t

2 B0 2 3B0

.s

t

3 v0

3

v0 t

2 B0

2 B0

ww

w

9.

1)

ud

4)

vt

3 v0

0

2 B0 2

A simple microscope has a focal length of 5 cm. The magnification at the least

distance of distinct vision is (Least distance of distinct vision D=25cm)

1) 1

2) 5

3) 4

4) 6

10. Statement-I Surface waves and sky waves cannot be used for broadcasting on the

moon.

Statement-II Atmosphere of variable refractive index is required for successful

broadcasting using surface & sky waves

1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is true, Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

Statement-1

2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is true, Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation

for Statement-1

3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is false

4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is true

11. In the arrangement shown in figure, coefficient of friction between the

two blocks is 1/ 2 . The force of friction acting between the two blocks

is:

.i

1) 8 N

2) 10 N

3) 6 N

4) 4 N

12. The circuit shown in the figure contains two diodes each with a

forward resistance of 50 and with infinite backward resistance. If the

battery voltage is 6 V, the current through that 100 resistance (in

amperes) is

ps

ww

w

14.

.s

t

ud

ys

te

13.

1) Zero

2) 0.02

3) 0.03

4) 0.036

Two coils A and B have coefficient of mutual inductance M 2 H . The

magnetic flux passing through coil A changes by 4 Wb in 10 s due to

the change in current in B. Then:

1) Change in current in B in this time interval is 0.5 A

2) The change in current in B in this time interval is 2 A

3) The change in current in B in this time interval is 8 A

4) A change in current of 1A in coil A will produce a change in flux

passing through B by 4 Wb.

The binding energies of nuclei X and Y are E1 and E2 respectively. Two

atoms of X fuse to give one atom of Y and an energy Q is released.

Then

1) Q 2 E2 E1

2) Q E2 2 E1

3) Q 2 E1 E2

4) Q E2 E1

After perfectly inelastic collision between two identical particles moving

with same speed in different directions, the speed of the particle

become half the initial speed. The angle between the velocities of the

two before collision is:

1) 600

2) 450

3) 1200

4) 300

An AC source producing emf V V0 sin t sin 2t is connected in series

with a capacitor and a resistor. The current found in the circuit is

i i1 sin t 1 i2 sin 2t 2 . Then

1) i1 i2

2) i1 i2

3) i1 i2

4) i1 may be less than, equal to or greater than i2

A small electric dipole is placed at origin with its dipole moment

directed along positive x-axis. The direction of electric field at point

2, 2 2, 0 is

15.

16.

17.

18.

2) Along positive y-axis

3) along negative y-axis

4) along negative x-axis

Figure shows the intensity wavelength relations of X-rays coming from two different

Coolidge tubes. The solid curve represent the relation for the tube A in which the

potential difference between the target and the filament is VA and the atomic number of

the target material is Z A . These quantities are VB and Z B for the other tube. Then

.s

t

ud

ys

te

ps

.i

1) VA VB , Z A Z B

2) VA VB , Z A Z B

3) VA VB , Z A Z B

4) VA VB , Z A Z B

19. In YDSE bi-chromatic light of wavelengths 400 nm and 560 nm are

used. The distance between the slits is 0.1 mm and the distance

between the plane of the slits and the screen is 1 m. The minimum

distance between two successive regions of complete darkness is.

1) 4 mm

2) 5.6 mm

3) 14 mm

4) 28 mm

20. A block of mass 1 kg is attached to one end of a spring of force

constant k 20 N / m . The other end of the spring is attached to a fixed

rigid support. This spring block system is made to oscillate on a rough

horizontal surface 0.04 . The initial displacement of the block from

the equilibrium position O (O is the position of the block when the

spring is in natural length) is a 30 cm . How many times the block

crosses the point O before coming to rest? g 10 m / s 2

ww

w

1) 11

2) 7

3) 6

4) 15

21. In the experiment for the determination of the speed of sound in air

using the resonance column method, the length of the air column that

resonates in the fundamental mode, with a tuning fork is 0.1 m. When

this length is changed to 0.35 m, the same tuning fork resonates with

the first overtone. Calculate the end correction.

1) 0.012 m

2) 0.025 m

3) 0.05 m

4) 0.024 m

22. Three closed vessels A, B and C at the same temperature T and

contain gases which obey the Maxwellian distribution of velocities.

Vessel A contains only O2 , B contains only N 2 and C contains a mixture of

equal quantities of O2 and N 2 . If the average speed of the O2 molecules in

vessel A is v1 and that of the N 2 molecules in vessel B is v2 , the average

speed of the O2 molecules in vessel C is

1)

v1 v2

2

2) v1

3) v1v2

1/2

4)

3KT

M

g

sin

2

2) 2 g sin

3) g sin

.i

1)

23. A compass needle is placed in the gap of a parallel plate capacitor. The

capacitor is connected to a battery through a resistance. The compass

needle

1) Does not deflect

2) Deflects for a very short time and then comes back to the original

position

3) Deflects and remains deflected as long as the battery is connected

4) Deflects and gradually comes to the original position in a time which

is large compared to the time constant.

24. The acceleration a of the plank P required to keep the centre C of a

cylinder in a fixed position during the motion is (no slipping takes

place between cylinder and plank). (Wedge is fixed)

4)

2 g sin

ww

w

.s

t

ud

ys

te

ps

1) The resistance of intrinsic semiconductors decreases with increase

of temperature

2) Doping pure Si with trivalent impurities give p-type semiconductors

3) The majority carriers in n-type semiconductors are holes

4) A p-n junction can act as a semiconductor diode.

26. In the given circuit it is observed that the current I is independent of

the value of the resistance R6 . Then, the resistance values must satisfy:

1) R1 R2 R5 R3 R4 R6

2)

1

1

1

1

R5 R6 R1 R2 R3 R4

3) R1 R4 R2 R3

4) R1 R3 R2 R4

27. A spherical steel ball released at the top of a long column of glycerin of

length l, falls through a distance l/2 with accelerated motion and the

remaining distance l/2, with uniform velocity. Let t1 and t2 denote the

times taken to cover the first and second half and w1 and w2 the work

done against gravity in the two halves then

1) t1 t2 , w1 w2

2) t1 t2 , w1 w2

3) t1 t2 , w1 w2

4) t1 t2 , w1 w2

28. The figure shows a charge q placed inside a cavity in an uncharged conductor. Now if

an external electric field is switched on

m YA KL

2) 2

YAK

1/2

mYA

3) 2

KL

ps

1/2

m

1) 2

k

.i

2) Only induced charge on inner surface will redistribute

3) Both induced charge on outer and inner surface will redistribute

4) Force on charge q placed inside the cavity will change.

29. One end of long metallic wire of length L is tied to the ceiling. The

other end is tied to massless spring of spring constant k. A mass m

hangs freely from the free end of the spring. The area of cross-section

and the Youngs modulus of the wire are A and Y respectively. If the

mass is slightly pulled down and released it will oscillate with a time

period T equal to:

1/2

mL

4) 2

YA

2m

4m M

3)

m

M m

MATHEMATICS

4)

4m

2m M

ww

w

31.

2)

.s

t

8m

4m M

1)

ud

ys

te

30. Two men each of mass m stand on the rim of a horizontal circular

disc, diametrically opposite to each other. The disc has a mass M and

is free to rotate about a vertical axis passing through its centre of

mass. Each man start simultaneously along the rim clockwise and

reaches their original starting positions on the disc. The angle turned

through by the disc with respect to the ground (in radian) is:

z z

z1 2 z2 2 z3 2 and arg 3 1 . Then the value of

z2 z1 6

z2 2 z32 2 z2 2 z3 z2 z3 6 .

32.

33.

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 0

Let X ={1,2,3,4,..,98,99,100} and Y be a subset of X such that the sum of no two

elements in Y is divisible by 7, then maximum possible number of elements in Y

is..

1) 44

2) 45

3) 46

4) 43

The number of ways in which 4 married couples can be sit, four on each side of a long

table so that males on one side and females on the other side and no wife is in front of

her husband is,..

1)216

2)9

3)672

4)652

n

34.

If

Pr 1 n Pr n Pr 1

a

b

c

1) 1

2) 2

b2

=

a b c

3)1/2

4)3/2

35.

36.

Mr.A tosses a fair coin. If it shows tail, A is asked to roll a fair die and As score is,

the number that the die shows. If the coin shows head, A is asked to toss five more

fair coins and As score is, total number of heads (including the first coin). If A tells

you that his score is 3, then the probability that A rolls a die, is

1) 23/96

2) 1/6

3) 7/44

4) 8/23

Find the maximum value of log a.log b It is given that coefficient of 2nd,3rd& 4th

1

25

22

terms in the expansion a b are in A P and the value of 3rd term is equal to 84

(a,b>1)

1)1/2

2) 3

3) 2

4)1

2

2

2

If each pair of the equations x ax b 0, x bx c 0 and x cx a 0 has one

common root, then product of all those common roots is

1) abc

2) 2 abc

3) ab bc ca

4) 2 ab bc ca

n

1) 501

2) 601

n 1

r 1

3r 3 r 1 !

n 2 !

968

500

3) 251

4) 451

6

, then the value of n = .

7

1) 4

2) 5

3) 6

4) 7

o

A vertical tower PQ subtends the same angle of 30 at each of two places A and B,

60m apart on the ground. If AB subtends an angle of 120o at P, the foot of the tower,

the height of the tower is

1)20m

2)15m

3)25m

4) 22m

x 1 y 2 z a

(a, a real number) lies in the plane 3 x 4 y 6 z 7 0 .If the

2

3

1

ud

The line

plane is rotated about the line, till the plane passes through origin, then the equation of

the plane in new position is..

1) 2 x 3 y 4 z 0

2) x y z 0

3) x 2 y z 0

4) 2 x y 2 z 0

If p, q are mutually perpendicular unit vectors and if the vectors x p xq y ( pxq ) ,

y p yq z ( pxq ) , p ( pxq ) are coplanar vectors, then y is

1) A M of x & z

2) G M of x & z 3) H M of x & z 4) (x+z)/3

In a triangle ABC, if a = 2, B 600 , C 750 then which of the following is incorrect

about the triangle ABC

42.

43.

ww

w

.s

t

41.

ys

te

40.

If

ps

39.

38.

.i

37.

1) b 6 units

3 3

square units

2

44.

2

3

incorrect

1) Maximum value of p is 36

2) Minimum value of p is 0

x

3)

0

45.

p

p 36 p

4) p d 18

0

If ABC is an acute angled triangle with side lengths a, b, c and its area is k square

units, then the value of a 2b2 4k 2 b2c 2 4k 2 c 2 a 2 4k 2

1) a b c

2

46.

2) 2 a b c

a

3)

b2 c2

a

4)

b2 c2

2

ABC is a triangle whose incentre is at I. Let P and Q be the feet of the perpendiculars,

AP AQ

BI CI

B

C

4) tan tan

2

2

2) cot

3) tan

2

2

From a point P, outside a circle, with centre C, two tangents PA, PB are drawn to the

A

1) cot A

47.

1

1

1

2

2

(CA) ( PA) 16

1)8

48.

2)4

Evaluate lim

x 0

1

sin x

3)6

ln(1 x )

4)10

1 tan 2 y y dy ....

0

1) e

2) e2

3) e1

4) e 2

In a triangle ABC, equation of BC is x - y = 0, orthocenter and centroid of the triangle

are (5, 8) and (3, 14/3) respectively. If the diameter of circumcircle of the triangle

ABC, is 10 then the value of ,is

1)4

2)3

3)5

4) 6

A variable line from (-1,0) intersects the parabola x 2 4 y at two distinct points A and

B Then the locus of the centroid of the triangle OAB (where O is origin) is ..

1) 3x 2 2 x 4 y

2) 3x 2 2 x 4 y

3) 3 y 2 2 y 4 x

4) 3x 2 2 x 2 y

ps

te

51.

cos x x sin x dx = ..

x cos x x

ys

50.

.i

49.

cx

cos x x

3) ln cos x x c

x 7 tan 3 x 1 tan 2 x dx

tan

x tan x

1

2

1

The value of

5

2

e tan

tan 1 sin x

sin x

and

2

1 2sin

2sin

2n

2n

then

r 1

f (sin 4 x)dx =

3)1

4)0

sin

sin

0 and sin sin .

1 and

sin

sin

....

2)4

n (2 r 1)

4) None

=..

sin sin

1) 2

55.

dx

tan 1 cos x

3) 2 tan x 2 sec x c

2)-1

If , 0,

lim

2) 2 tan x 2 c

1)2

54.

=.

1) 2 tan x 2 c

53.

.s

t

2) ln

ww

w

52.

9 tan

cos x x

cx

4) ln x ln cos x x 2 ln cos x c

ud

1) ln

3)3

4) 0

1) f (sin 4 x)dx

0

56.

2) n. f (sin 4 x)dx

0

3) 2n 2 . f (sin 4 x)dx

4) None of these

1

2 and

[2 x]

57.

58.

1) 1

2)0

3) 3

4) 4

Circles are drawn on the chords of the rectangular Hyperbola xy = 4, that are parallel

to the line y = x, as diameter pass through two fixed points, they are .., .

1) (2,2) & (-2,-2)

2) (2,-2) & (-2,2)

3) (1,2) & (-1,-2)

4) (-1,2) & (1,-2)

The mean and variance of n observations x1 , x2 , x3 ,......xn are 5 and 0 respectively. If

n

x

i 1

1) 12

2)16

3)14

4) 15

If from the point P of (4,4) perpendiculars to the straight lines 3x + 4y + 5 = 0 and

y = mx + 7 meet at Q and R respectively such that the area of triangle PQR is

maximum, then the value of m is equal to,..

1) 1

2) -3/4

3) -1

4) 4/3

Statement 1: If the line x + y =3 is a tangent to an ellipse whose foci are at (4,3) and

(6,a), at the point (1,2) then a = 17.

Statement 2 : Tangent and normal drawn to an ellipse at any point P, bisect the angle

subtended by foci S and S1 at that point and hence a focus (S1), the point of tangency

(P), image of other focus(S), with respect to the tangent line are collinear points.

1) Statement 1, statement 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of

statement 1

2) Statement 1, statement 2 are true and statement 2 is not the correct explanation of

statement 1

3) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false

4) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true

ww

w

.s

t

ud

ys

te

60.

ps

.i

59.

CHEMISTRY

61.

substances (B) and (C). (B) is a dehydrating agent. While substance (C) is a diatomic

gas which shows almost inert behaviour. The substances (A) and (B) and (C)

respectively will be

1) P4, P4O10, N2

2) P4, N2O5, N2 3) P4, P2O3, Ar

4) P4, P2O3, H2

62. The IUPAC name of the compound

CH 2CH 3

Cl

C C

H 3C

63.

is

1) E-2-choloro-3-iodopent-2-ene

2) Z-2- choloro-3-iodopent-2-ene

3) E-3-iodo-4-chloropent-3-ene

4) Z-3-iodo-4-choropent-3-ene

A real gas is supposed to abey the gas equation P v b nRT at STP if one mole of a

gas occupies 25dm3 volume at STP, calculate diameter of each gas molecule.

1) 1.27 108 cm

2) 1.27 106 cm

3) 4.56 108 cm

4) 4.56 106 cm

1) Mn 2 Ca 2 Zn 2

2) Zn 2 Ca 2 Mn 2

3) Mn 2 Zn 2 Ca 2

4) Zn 2 Mn 2 Ca 2

65. The absolute configuration of

64.

CO2 H

HO2C

HO

H

OH

is

te

ps

.i

1) S,R

2) S,S

3) R,R

4) R,S

66. A stationary He ion emitted a photon corresponding to the first line H of the

lyman series. That photon liberated a photon electron from a stationary H-atom in

ground state. What is the kinetic energy of that electron?

1) 2.36 1018 Joul

2) 4.36 1018 Joul

3) 4.36 1016 Joul

4) 2.36 1016 Joul

67. If a mixture of NaCl, conc. H 2 SO4 and K 2Cr2O7 is heated in a dry test tube. A red

vapour(P) is formed. This vapour(P) dissolves in aqueous NaOH to form a yellow

solution.Which upon treatment with AgNO3 forms a red solid (Q). P and Q are

respectively .

1) CrO2Cl2 and Ag 2Cr2O7

2) Na2 [CrOCl5 ] and Ag 2CrO4

3) Na2 [CrOCl5 ] and Ag 2Cr2O7

4) CrO2Cl2 and Ag 2CrO4

68. Amongst the following compounds

ys

ud

CHO

OH

CHOH

.s

t

O

(I )

( II )

CHO

CH 2OH

( IV )

( III )

ww

w

2) I,II are tautomers

3) III,IV are positional isomers 4) I,IV are tautomers

69. Rate of diffusion of ozonized oxygen is 0.4 5 times that of pure oxygen

what is percentage of degree of association of oxygen assuming pure O2

in the sample initially

1) 20

2) 40

3) 60

4) none of these

70.

Number of anti bonding electrons in N2 is

1) 4

2) 10

3) 12

4) 14

71. Which of the following compound is most reactive towards catalytic

hydrogenation?

1) H 2C CH 2

2) H 3C CH CH 2

CH 3

H 3C

CH 3

H 3C

C C

C C

H

3) H

4) H C

72. For a first order homogeneous gaseous reaction A 2 B C of the total

pressure after time t was Pt and after long time t was P then k in

terms of Pt , P , and ' t ' is

3

CH 3

P

2.303

log

t

p pt

2 P

2.303

3) k

log

t

3 p pt

1) k

73.

74.

2) k

2 P

2.303

log

t

p pt

4) k

2 P

2.303

log

t

2 p pt

Among the following donors the one that forms most stable adduct with the Lewis

acid B(CH 3 )3 is

1) 4-methyl pyridine

2) 2,6-dimethyl pyridine

3) 4- nitro pyridine

4) 2,6-di-tert-butyl pyridine

In the following carbocation, H/CH3 that is most likely to migrate to the positively

charged carbon is

H

1

+

5

CH 3 2C 3C C CH 3

HO H

CH 3

4) H at C-2

.i

1) CH3 at C-4

2) H at C-4

3) CH3 at C-2

H

75. The P of the resultant solution of 20 mL of

1) P log 2

2) P

ka1

3) P

ka1

P ka1 P ka2

4)

2

The correct order of tri positive ionic radius of Ce, Sm, Tb, Lu is

1) Ce>Sm>Tb>Lu

2) Lu>Tb>Sm>Ce

3) Tb>Lu>Sm>Ce

4) Sm>Tb>Lu>Ce

77. In the reaction

ys

te

76.

ka2

ps

.s

t

ud

NaI

HBr

Alc . KOH

(C )

( B )

( A)

Acetone

CH 3 CH CH 3

Peroxide

Br

, The compound C is

CH 3 CH CH 3

CH 3 CH CH 2 I

ww

w

I

I

1) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 I 2)

3)

4) CH 3 CH CHI

78. 108 g of fairly concentrate solution of AgNO3 is electrolyzed using 0.1 F

of electricity the weight of resulting solution is

1) 94 g

2) 11.6 gm

3) 96.4 gm

4) none of these

0

79. The reaction of ammonium chloride with BCl3 at 140 C followed NaBH 4 gives product

X. Which of the following statements is/are true for X?

(i) X is not isoelectronic with benzene.

(ii) X undergoes addition reactionwith HCl

(iii) X is isostructural with Graphite

(iv) X undergoes polymerization at 900 C .

1)(i) and (ii)

2) (ii) only

3) (ii) and (iii)

4) (i) and (iv)

80. Which one of the following will most readily be dehydrated in basic

condition?

1)

OH

OH

2)

OH

OH

3)

4)

81. When 36.0 gm of a solute having the empirical formula CH 2O is

dissolved in 1.20 kg of water the solution freezes at 0.930 C what is the

molecular formula of the solute K f 1.860 C kg / mol

82.

majorly

O

OCH 3

.i

83.

1) C2 H 4O

2) C2 H 2O2

3) C2 H 4O3

4) C2 H 4O2

The structures of the complexes Cu NH 3 4 (ClO4 )2 and Cu NH 3 4 (ClO4 ) in the solution

respectively are

1)Square planar and tetrahedral

2) Octa hedral and square pyramidal

3)Octahedral and trigonal bipyramidal

4) Tetra hedral and square planar

ps

OCH 3

OCH 3

CH 3

OCH 3

ys

te

1) O

2) O

3) O

4) O

84. The percentage of oxalate ion in a given sample of oxalate salt of which 0.3 g

N

KMnO4 solution for complete

20

ud

ww

w

.s

t

oxidation.

1) 66

2) 19.8

3) 6.6

4) 1.98

85. The ionic conductivity of aqueous alkali metal cations at a given concentration follow

the following order

1) Li Na K Rb

2) Li Na K Rb

3) Li Na K Rb

4) Li Na K Rb

O

86.

CH 2 NH 2

NaOH

A

B

CH 3

1)

2)

O

O

,

3)

4)

87. Graph between log x / m and log p is a straight line at angle 450 with

intercept OA as shown in figure. Then x / m at a pressure of 2 atm is

450

x

log

m

log 2

log p

1) 2

2) 4

3) 8

88. In the froth flotation process, pine oil

1) increases the surface tension of the solution.

2) decreases the surface tension of the solution.

3) does not affect the surface tension of the solution.

4) acts as a depresent.

4) 1

soda lim e

C4 H 6O4

C3 H 6O2

C2 H 6

89.

2)

CH 2

te

CH 3 CH COOH 2

COOH

ps

CH 2

.i

The compound A is

COOH

ww

w

.s

t

ud

ys

1)

3) Both are correct

4) none is correct

90. The acid ionization (hydrolysis) constant of Zn2 is 1109 then calculate pH of

103 M ZnCl2 solution.

1) 6

2) 5

3) 4

4) 5.5

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