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1. Which of the following is responsible for the production of sperm?

a. Epididymis
c. testes
b. Leydigs cell
d. vas deferens
2. There are many functions of estrogen, one of which is
a. Elevates basal body temperature during ovulation
b. Inhibits uterine contractility
c. Responsible for the development of mammary gland
d. Promotes female secondary sex characteristics
3. All of the following are physiologic effects of progesterone, except:
a. responsible for spinnbarkeit
b. Slightly elevated basal body temperature
c. Responsible for mammary gland development
d. Inhibition of uterine contractility during pregnancy
4. It is collectively termed as the female external reproductive organ:
a. Vulva
b. Mons pubis and clitoris
c. Labia majora and minora
d. Fourchette, vestibule and perineum
5. The layer of the non pregnant uterus that sloughs off during the menstrual cycle is?
a. Myometrium
c. Endometrium
b. Perimetrium
d. Decidua
6. In males, the primary reason for the scrotal sac to be descended outside the body is?
a. Secrete fluid that keeps sperm alive
b. Act as a cooling mechanism of the testes to maintain spermatogenesis
c. Promote satisfaction during intercourse
d. None of the above
7. Skenes gland in female is equivalent to what structure in male?
a. Cowpers gland
c. Testes
b. Bartholins gland
d. Prostate
8. The endometrium begins to thicken at what phase of the menstrual cycle?
a. Menstrual phase
c. Secretory phase
b. Proliferative phase
d. Ischemic phase
9. The pituitary hormone responsible for ovulation is:
a. Gnrh
b. Fsh
c. hcg
d. Lh
10. This phase of the ovarian cycle is from day 1 to day 14 of the menstrual cycle
a. Follicular phase
b. Luteal phase
c. both follicular and luteal
d. none of the above
11. Which of the following are physiologic changes during the excitement phase of the male sexual
response cycle?
a. Develops recurring contractions of the muscles of the penis and deep perineum.
b. A high level of sexual tension is maintained, nearing orgasm
c. Vital signs are at peak
d. Vitals signs returning to normal
12. The ability of the sperm to dissolve zona pellucida and corona radiata and penetrate the ovum is
a. Fertilization
c. Nidation
b. Capacitation
d. Apposition
13. On ultrasound, a gravid woman is 9 weeks pregnant. She is now carrying which type of conceptus?
a. Zygote
c. Embryo
b. Fetus
d. Infant
14. The nurse recognizes that the placenta is formed from the:
a. Decidua capsulares









b. Decidua basilis and deciduas vera

c. Chorionic villi and decidua basalis
d. Chorionic villi and deciduas vera
Pregnancy tests detect the presence of which hormone in the maternal blood or urine?
a. Hpl
c. Relaxin
b. Hcg
d. Progesterone
Paula Pascual is as pregnant for the first time and asks the nurse,how can a baby be delivered
without you tearing your body apart? The nurses correct response is:
a. The hormones progesterone and relaxin help soften and increase the mobility of your joints and
b. You will tear some, but this is normal, and nature has a way of putting you back together.
c. Increased blood supply and elastic muscles help you not to tear.
d. All hormones of pregnancy prevent tearing at birth.
During which week of gestation is the product of gestation prone to teratogenic insults to the
cardiovascular system?
a. 2nd to 8th week
c. 12-14th week
b. 10-12th week
d. 16th week
The most dangerous stage of fetal growth and development is?
a. Pre embryonic stage
b. Embryonic stage
c. Zygote stage
d. Either of the above
You should advise a pregnant woman to stop smoking during pregnancy because babies of mothers
who smoke tend to:
a. Have low antibodies
b. Have congenital anomalies
c. Have cardiac defects
d. Be smaller and lighter
The nurse should explain to a primigravida client that the fetal heart beat will first be heard with:
a. Fetoscope around 8 weeks
b. Stethoscope at 8 weeks
c. Electronic Doppler as early as 8 weeks
d. None of the above
What is the most common urinary symptom experienced by the woman during the first trimester?
a. Dysuria
b. Frequency
d. Burning
A woman in early pregnancy is concerned because she is nauseated every morning. Which of the
following would be the best measure to help relieve this?
a. eating few crackers before getting out of bed
b. Delay tooth brushing until noon.
c. Delay breakfast until midmorning.
d. Take two aspirin on arising.
A 21-year old client, 6 weeks pregnant, is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. This excessive
vomiting during pregnancy will often result in which of the following conditions?
a. Bowel perforation
b. Electrolyte imbalance
c. Miscarriage
d. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
A woman who is 4 months pregnant has pyrosis. Which of the following suggestions would you give
a. Do not drink milk
b. Eat small meals and maintain on upright position after eating
c. Try and include complex carbohydrates in meals.
d. Calorie increase vitamin intake by adding more citrus fruit.

25. A primigravida at 8 weeks gestation tells the nurse that the nurse has been experiencing excessive
saliva production since becoming pregnant. The nurse should instruct the patient to
a. Eat starchy foods such as potatoes.
b. Use mouthwash.
c. Suck on popsicles or ice cream.
d. Eat only three large meals.
26. If constipation is a problem for a woman during pregnancy, which of the following would be best to
a. Mineral oil.
b. Increased roughage in the diet.
c. Stopping prenatal vitamins temporarily.
d. Eating more meat products.
27. Early in pregnancy, frequent urination results mainly from which of the following?
a. Pressure on the bladder from the uterus.
b. Increased concentration of urine.
c. Addition of fetal urine to maternal urine.
d. Decreased glomerular selectivity
28. A primigravida at 35 weeks gestation tells the nurse that she gets an occasional cramp in her legs.
The nurse should assess the patients initial intake of:
a. Zinc
c. Calcium
b. Iron
d. Niacin
29. Which of the following food will you advise to relieve her leg cramps?
a. Mongo, cheese, dilis
b. Pechay, squash, malunggay
c. Nuts, legumes, eggs
d. Rice bread, rootcrops
30. During an initial assessment, another woman who thinks she is pregnant because she urinates
frequently and experience fatigue
a. Negative sign
c. Positive sign
b. Presumptive sign
d. Probable sign
31. Irregular scar lines may be observed on the abdomen of a pregnant woman as a result of stretching
of the skin. This refers to:
a. Linea nigra
c. Striae gravidarum
b. Chloasma
d. Melasma.
32. The nurse is answering questions during a womans prenatal visit at week 24. What information would
be most significant?
a. At this time, the fetus is most sensitive to teratogens
b. Vomiting is common
c. Survival is possible if the fetus is born
d. Fetus is beginning to store iron to the liver
33. A probable sign of pregnancy characterized by painless, irregular, abdominal, false labor contractions
is called:
a. Goodels sign
b. Hegars sign
c. Braxton hicks contraction
d. Ballottement
34. You care for a woman in a prenatal clinic who thinks she might be pregnant. Which of the following
assessments is a probable sign of pregnancy?
a. Chloasma
b. Nausea and vomiting.
c. A positive pregnancy test.
d. Amenorrhea

35. A danger sign of pregnancy that needs to be reported during antenatal period to prevent fetal
compromise is
a. Constipation
b. Leaking amniotic fluid
c. Nasal stuffiness
d. Breast tenderness
36. Chloasma are irregular brown patches usually found on the nose and cheeks related to?
a. Increased estrogen
b. Increased progesterone
c. Increased Hcg
d. Increased MSH
37. Which of the following tasks is the most important task of the first trimester of pregnancy?
a. Accepting the pregnancy.
b. Accepting a coming child.
c. Preparing for birth
d. Responsible parenthood
38. A universal feeling expressed by most women upon learning they are pregnant is:
a. Acceptance
c. Jealousy
b. Depression
d. Ambivalence
39. A woman you care for in a prenatal clinic tells you that her pregnancy was unplanned and unwanted.
At what point in pregnancy does the average woman change her mind about an unwanted
a. Around the third month
b. When quickening occurs.
c. After lightening happens.
d. After the seventh month.
40. Which of the following terms refer to the total number of viable pregnancy?
a. Gravidity
c. obstetric history
b. Parity
d. viability
41. A pregnant client comes to her prenatal visit. She reports a pregnancy history of two babies born near
the due date, a twin born prematurely, and a miscarriage in the first trimester. Using the GTPAL
notation, how would her pregnancy history be recorded
a. Gravida 4 Para 2 1 1 4
b. Gravida 4 Para 2 2 1 4
c. Gravida 5 Para 2 1 1 4
d. Gravida 5 Para 2 2 1 4
42. A woman who once delivered a fetus that reached the age of viability but was delivered as a stillborn
is called?
a. Primigravida
c. Nullipara
b. Primipara
d. Nulligravida
43. Mau, 15 weeks AOG, is experiencing vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping pain with no passage
of meaty material, on IE, her cervix is 7 cm dilated. What type of abortion is this?
a. Incomplete
c. Inevitable
b. Complete
d. Threatened
44. A mother asks you why her newborn baby was called stillborn. How would you define stillbirth?
a. An infant born after 20-24 weeks without signs of life
b. An infant less than 20 weeks but dies inside the uterus

c. An infant at birth breathing spontaneously but expires after 1 week

d. A conceptus expelled from the uterus at less than 20 weeks
45. The nurse will classify the newborn as post term if he was born after?
a. 42 weeks
c. 37 weeks
b. 43 weeks
d. 36 weeks
46. Mrs. Castro, 3 months AOG visited the rural health with an obstetrical history that reveals her first
pregnancy resulted to an abortion. Determine the ob score.
a. 2-0-0-1-0
c. 2-2-1-0-1
b. 2-0-0-0-0
d. 2-2-0-0-0
47. Mrs. Baldoza is again pregnant at 3 months AOG. During interview, she said that she gave birth to
her first child at 39 weeks AOG, her second baby was aborted at 17 weeks; her 3rd baby was a
stillborn delivered at 35 weeks AOG. What is the GTPAL score?
a. 4-1-2-3-4
c. 4-1-1-1-1
b. 4-1-1-1-0
d. 4-0-1-1-1
48. A prenatal visit was made by Mrs. Chokie whose ob history revealed a baby boy delivered by the 40th
week AOG. Her second pregnancy was a miscarriage, her third pregnancy was a twin delivered at 35
weeks AOG and she is pregnant at third month. What is her ob score?
a. 4-1-1-1-1
c. 4-1-2-2-1
b. 4-1-1-1-3
d. 4-1-3-1-1
49. A pregnant clients last normal menstrual period was on June 25, 2010. Using Naegeles rule, the
nurse calculates that her estimated date of birth will be which of the following?
a. April 31, 2011
c. March 31, 2011
b. April 18, 2011
d. April 1, 2011
50. According to Mrs. Malou Wang, her LMP is January 1, 2009. Using the Mittendorfs rule, what is her
a. October 11, 2010
b. October 11, 2011
c. November 11, 2011
d. November 11, 2010
51. What calorie intake is recommended during pregnancy?
a. 2200
c. 2700
b. 2500
d. Whatever
52. A pregnant client is used to be vegetarian before her pregnancy. You would emphasize to her to
include meats to prevent deficiency in which vitamin?
a. Iron
c. Vitamin B12
b. Folic acid
d. Vitamin A
53. The B vitamins are important to pregnancy nutrition. Which of the following foods is the best source of
vitamin B12?
a. Carrots
c. Bread.
b. Cottage cheese d. Lemons.
54. When teaching a pregnant woman about nutrition, the nurse would urge her to ingest foods
containing which vitamin to prevent the risk of neural tube defects?
a. Folic acid
c. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin A
d. Vitamin k
55. A client receives health teaching regarding iron-supplementation to prevent anemic during pregnancy.
Which of the following statements, if made by the client would indicate successful learning?
a. The iron is needed for the red blood cells
b. Meal that does not provide iron should be avoided
c. Iron supplementation will give me diarrhea
d. My body has all the iron it need and I dont need to take supplements

56. Which food below is not a good source of iron?

a. Milk
c. Grains
b. Legumes
d. Beef
57. A woman at her 28th week of pregnancy complains of lightheadedness when lying in the examination
table, what would be the primary nursing action:
a. Assess BP
b. Encourage to take a deep breath
c. Lower the head of the examination table
d. Turn the woman to her left side
58. A client who is pregnant asks the nurse whether she can continue to have sexual relations. The
nurses response is based on the knowledge that coitus during pregnancy would be contraindicated in
the presence of:
a. Vaginal spotting
b. Preterm labor
c. Premature rupture of membrane
d. All of the above
59. Kegels exercises are included in the schedule of activities for the pregnant mother. The purpose of
the exercise is to:
a. Minimize leg cramps
b. Prevent contractures
c. Strengthens pubococcygeal muscles
d. Strengthens muscles in the lower back
60. The nurse teaches the pregnant client how to perform tailor sitting exercises as a way to accomplish
which of the following?
a. Relieves low back pain
b. Maintains good posture
c. Increase pelvic muscle tone
d. Lose pregnancy weight quickly

1. When completing an assessment of a healthy adolescent client, which of the following
would be most appropriate
a. Obtain a detailed account of the adolescents prenatal and early developmental
b. Discuss sexual preference and behaviors with the parents present for legal reasons
c. Discuss the clients smoking with parents present in the room
d. Assess the adolescent in private; gather additional information from the parents
2. During the assessment of a small infant admitted with a diagnosis of meningitis, the
infant becomes less responsive to stimuli and exhibits bradycardia, slight hypertension,
irregular respirations and a temperature of 39.5 C. The infants fontanel also seems
tense. What will the nurse do first?
a. Ask the nurse to verify the findings
b. Notify the physician of the findings
c. Raise the head of the head
d. Administer antipyretics
3. Which of the following would be best to help prepare a preschool aged child for an
a. Having an older child explain that shots do not hurt
b. Helping the child to imagine she is in a different place
c. Giving the child a play syringe and a bandage to give a doll injections
d. Giving the child a pounding board to encourage expressions of anger
4. A 4 year old child asks the nurse if it will hurt to have the tonsils and adenoids taken
out. Which is the best response of the nurse?
a. It wont hurt because you are going to put you to sleep
b. It wont hurt because you are such a big boy
c. It will hurt because of the incisions made in the throat
d. It will hurt, but we have medicine to help you feel better
5. When preparing to give a neonate the first feeding by nipple, for which of the following
reasons would the nurse anticipate using a 5 ml feeding of sterile water first?
a. Ascertain the patency of the neonates esophagus
b. Determine if the neonate can retain the feeding
c. Ensure that the neonate has the energy to take oral feedings
d. Ensure that the mother will be able to feed the neonate
6. An 18 year old senior tells the nurse, everyone does it, so its all right, to justify rule
breaking behavior. The nurse realizes this is an example of which level or stage of moral
reasoning development as described by Kohlberg?
a. Preconventional
c. Postconventional
b. Conventional
d. Autonomous
7. Parents ask for advice about handling their 2 year olds negativism. Which of the
following would be the best recommendation.
a. Ignore this behavior because it is a stage the child is going through
b. Set realistic limits for the child, then be sure to stick to them
c. Encourage the grandmother to visit frequently to relieve them
d. Punish the child for misbehaving or violating set, strict limits.
8. Which of the following suggestions would be most appropriate in helping parents to
prepare their children for starting school?
a. Have an older sibling tell the child about school
b. Orient the child to the schools physical environment
c. Offer to stay with the child for the first few days of school
d. Discuss school with the child if he or she asks about it

9. A parent group is discussing different types of punishment. The parents ask the nurse to
discuss corporal punishment. The nurse tells the group that corporal punishment:
a. Does not physically harm the child
b. Can result in children becoming accustomed to spanking
c. Reinforces the idea that violence is not acceptable
d. Can be beneficial in teaching children what they do
10. When discussing the appropriate iron rich food selections with the mother of an 11
month old infant with iron deficiency anemia, which of the following choices verbalized
by the mother indicates successful teaching?
a. Eggs, fortified cereals, meats and green vegetables
b. Fruits, cereals, milk, and yellow vegetables
c. Eggs, fruits, milk and mixed vegetables
d. Juices, fruits, fortified cereals and milk
11. A mother brings her 2 year old child to the clinic because of her concerns about the
childs nutritional status. For the last week, he has refused to eat anything except
crackers and peanut butter. Which of the following measures would be most appropriate
for the nurse to suggest.
a. Giving the child a small reward if he eats extra food given to him
b. Consulting a physician because this behavior could lead to nutritional deficiency
c. Not worrying about this behavior food fads last only a short time and common in
d. Insisting the child eat small portions of the familys meal to maintain adequate
12. The adolescent client who is very body conscious asks the nurse that he would like to
lose weight and asks the nursess opinion on how to accomplish his goal. Which of the
following suggestions would be most appropriate?
a. Exercising more often
b. Severely limiting caloric intake
c. Participating in an adolescent weight reduction program
d. Cutting down on sweets and other snacks
13. Which of the following activities would the nurse include in the teaching plan for a
mother to help channel her 4 year old childs energy?
a. Participation in parallel play
b. Play involving a game such as Simon says
c. Bicycle riding
d. Stringing of large beads
14. Which of the following behaviors absent in an 18 th month old child would cause the nurse
to be concerned?
a. Copying a circle
b. Playing with pull toys
c. Playing tag with other children
d. Building a tower of 8 blocks
15. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would the nurse identify as the priority for a 4
month infant with heart failure and congenital heart disease?
a. Activity Intolerance
b. Risk for Infection
c. Impaired Mobility
d. Ineffective Health Maintenance
16. Mark 9 years old conceives death as:
a. A person
b. Temporary
c. A form of sleep
d. Cessation of corporal life

17. The nurse is instructing a mother about the nutritional needs of her full-term
breastfeeding infant at age 2 months. Which of the following responses show that the
mother understands the infants dietary needs?
a. We wont start any new foods now.
b. Well start any new foods now.
c. Well introduce cereal into the diet now.
d. We should add new fruits to the diet one at a time.
18. Which of the following characterize the rate of growth during this period?
a. Most rapid period of growth
b. A decline in growth rate
c. Growth spurt
d. Slow and uniform growth rate
19. You typically gag children to inspect the back of their throat. When is it important not to
elicit a gag reflex?
a. When children are under 5 years of age
b. When a child has symptoms of epiglottitis
c. When a boy has a possible inguinal hernia
d. When a girl has a geographic tongue
20. Which of the following statements by the parents of a child with school phobia would
indicate the need for further teaching?
a. Well keep him at home until the phobia subsides
b. Well work with his teachers and counselors at school
c. Well try to encourage him to talk about his problems
d. Well discuss possible solutions with him and a counselor
21. In choosing toys for an infant, what criteria should be considered a priority?
a. Educational Purposes
b. Development Function
c. Safety
d. Recreation use
22. A recently hospitalized 2 years old client scream and shouts he wants a bottle. His
parents are puzzled and state he has drunk from a cup for the past year. The nurse
explains that:
a. Irritability is exhibited in all age groups.
b. Temper tantrums often represent the childs need for parental attention
c. Various forms of punishment are necessary when such behavior occur
d. Regression to an earlier behavior often helps the child cope with stress and anxiety
23. In choosing an appropriate toy for a 9 year old asthmatic child the nurse would choose:
a. A board game
b. Sponge Bob the movie
c. A coloring book
d. A set of building blocks
24. The mother discusses with the nurse that her toddlers asks every night for a bedtime
story. The mother asks
why the child does this. The nurse would explain that this
a. Ritualism
b. Object permanence
c. Dependency
d. Conservation
25. When caring for a child and family with a different cultural background, the nurse will
conceive which of the following as an appropriate goal?
a. Strive to keep the background from interfering with health needs
b. Discourage continuation of cultural practices in the hospital

c. Gently attempt to change the familys belief

d. Adapting the familys cultural beliefs to the health needs as necessary
26. A Moro reflex is the single best assessment of neurologic ability in a newborn. What is
the best way to test this reflex?
a. Observe the infant while she is on her abdomen to see whether she can turn her
b. Lift the infants head while she is in supine position and allow it to fall back 1 inch.
c. Shake the infants crib until the infant responds by flailing her arms.
d. Make a sharp noise, such as clapping your hands, to wake the infant.
27. Bryans mother is concerned about him developing baby-bottle syndrome. What would
be her best action to prevent this?
a. Use plastic rather than glass bottles
b. Boil formula to reduce the curd
c. Dont put Bryan to bed with a bottle
d. Check the expiration date on formula
28. You teach Robin imaging to help reduce pain from blood drawing. Why does a technique
such as imagery work well for children?
a. Childrens pain is not as acute as in adults.
b. Intravenous pain relief is not effective in children.
c. Childrens imaginations are at their peak.
d. Childrens muscles are less tense than adults muscles.
29. Another concern in the care of toddlers is toilet-training. Which of the following is the
most important factor for a successful toilet-training?
a. Age of the child
b. Developmental readiness of the child
c. Toilet-training at scheduled time
d. Mothers flexibility for growth and development
30. His mother expresses concern about her sons, Rico 1 year old, slow development. Upon
assessment, the nurse observes that Ricos motor development is normal for his age.
Which of the following is inappropriate for his stage?
a. Sits down from standing position without help
b. Walks alone
c. Walks with support
d. Stands for a moment without support
31. Rico currently weighs 9 kg. His mother asks if this is normal for him because his
previous birth weight was 3 kg. Which of the following is an appropriate response?
a. Yes, because at 1 year old, he usually weighs three times his birth weight.
b. His weight is below normal. You should give him food supplements.
c. He should have doubles his birth weight by now.
d. You need not worry. His weight is advance for his age.
32. Ms.S. asks how much her 3-day-old baby weighs. When the nurse tells her 5 lb 11 oz
(2580g), she starts to cry because the baby is losing weight. The baby weighed 6 lb 6 oz
(2863) at birth. What is the expected weight loss pattern in newborn?
a. None
c. 5%- 10%
b. 5%
d. 10%-15%
33. A nine-year-old girl with rheumatic fever is asking to play. Which diversional activity is
the nurse likely to offer?
a. Walking to the gift store.
b. Coloring books and crayons.
c. A 300 piece puzzle.
d. A dancing contest.


34. As a schooler what psychological task should be developed by him at his age?
a. Intimacy vs. isolation
b. Initiative vs. guilt
c. Industry vs. inferiority
d. Identity vs. role diffusion
35. The mother of one of the children was told to have her daughter confined. One of the
effects of hospitalization for children is separation. At what stage are children most
likely to experience separation anxiety?
a. Pre-school age
c. Toddler
b. Adolescence
d. Newborn
36. The primary nursing intervention that can be used to help a 1 month old infant tolerate
Using consistent caregivers
Providing sensorimotor stimulation
Following home schedule as closely as possible
Keeping the infant warm and dry
37. After teaching a group of parents of preschoolers attending a well-child clinic about oral
hygiene and teeth brushing, the nurse determines that the teaching has been successful
when the parents state that the children can begin to brush their teeth with minimum
help at which of the following ages?
a. 3 years
c. 7 years
b. 5 years
d. 9 years
38. An infants blood pressure is reported to be very high. What is the most appropriate
nursing action to take?
a. Take it again in 20 minutes.
b. Call the house officer.
c. Measure the cuff width to the infants arm.
d. Prepare to give an antihypertensive.
39. An 18-month-old presents with nasal flaring, intercostals and substernal retractions, and
a respiratory rate of 50. What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis?
a. Knowledge deficit.
b. Ineffective breathing pattern.
c. Ineffective
d. High risk for altered body temperature
40. In counseling parents about controlling fever in their child, a nurse should advise them
to do all of the following EXCEPT
a. Give fluids every two hours
b. Keep the environmental temperature at 32C (80F) or more
c. Dress the child in light clothing
d. Take the childs temperature every two hours when the fever is above 37C (100F)