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Hindi

ALLEN

TM

PAPER CODE

CAREER INSTITUTE
Path to Success KOTA (RAJASTHAN)

FORM NUMBER

0 1 CM 3 1 4 2 5 3
1 4

CLASSROOM
CONTACT
PROGRAMME
(ACADEMIC SESSION 2014-2015)
ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE
(ALL PHASE)

TARGET : AIPMT 2015


ALLEN RE-AIPMT TEST
DATE : 27 - 06 - 2015
Test Type : MAJOR
Test Pattern : AIPMT
TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS
INSTRUCTIONS (funs Z' k )
1.

2.
3.

A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.
If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination and
shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

izR;sd fo|kFkhZ dk jftLVs'ku ua- ds vuqlkj LFkku fu;r gS rFkk os vius fu;r LFkku ij gh cSBsaA ;fn dksbZ fo|kFkhZ fdlh nwljs fo|kFkhZ ds LFkku ij
cSBk ik;k x;k rks nksuksa fo|kfFkZ;ksa dks ijh{kk d{k ls ckgj dj fn;k tk,xk vkjS nksuksa dks dksbZ vU; tqekZuk Hkh Lohdk;Z gksxkA

Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.
ijh{kk dh vof/k 3 ?k.Vs gS rFkk iz'u i= esa 180 iz'u gSaA vf/kdre vad 720 gSaA
Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

fo|kFkhZ ijh{kk d{k esa yksx Vscy] dsYdwyVs j ;k fdlh vU; lkexzh dk mi;ksx ugha dj ldrk gAS

4.

Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

5.

Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

6.

Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.
izR;sd lgh mkj ds 4 vad gSaA iz R;s d xyr mkj ij 1 va d dkV fy;k tk,xkA mkj dks vuqeku ls Hkjuk gkfudkjd gks ldrk gAS
A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball
Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
ijh{kkFkhZ dks gy fd;s x;s iz'u dk mkj OMR mkj iqfLrdk esa lgh LFkku ij ds o y uhys @ dkys ckW y ikW b UV is u ds }kjk mfpr xksys dks xgjk

7.

8.

ijh{kk ds le; fo|kFkhZ dks ifjoh{kd }kjk fn;s x;s funsZ'kksa dh ikyuk djuk vko';d gSA

iz'u i= gy djus ls igys fo|kFkhZ vk'oLr gks tk, fd blesa lHkh ist layXu gSa vFkok ughaA

djds nsuk gSA

Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.

is f Uly dk iz ;ks x loZ Fkk oftZ r gSA

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days along with Your Form
No. & Complete Test Details.
uks V% ;fn bl iz 'u i= es a dksb Z Correction gks rks i;k vkids Form No. ,oa iw .kZ Test Details ds lkFk 2 fnu ds vUnj
dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in ij mail djsaA
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so / bl ijh{kk iq fLrdk dks tc rd uk [kks y s a tc rd dgk u tk,s A
Corporate Office
ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE
SANKALP, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-5156100, 2436001

info@allen.ac.in

www.allen.ac.in

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2015

Phase/ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/27-06-2015


HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
1.

A 6C12 nucleus is to be divided into 3 alpha


particles. The amount of energy required to

1.

achieve this

2.

(mass of an alpha particle = 4.00388 u) is

(,YQk d.k dk O;eku= 4.00388 u)

(1) 3. 405 MeV

(1) 3. 405 MeV

(2) 10.837 MeV

(2) 10.837 MeV

(3) 8.133 MeV

(3) 8.133 MeV

(4) 12.573 MeV

(4) 12.573 MeV

Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decay

2.

constants 6l and 3l respectively. If initially they

gS rks X1 ds ukfHkd dh la[;k dk X2 ds lkFk fdrus le;


i'pkr

1
after a time
e

1
(1)
6l

(3)

3
6l

nks jsfM;ks lf; inkFkZ X1 o X2 ds {k; fu;rkad e'k%


6l o 3l gS ;fn izkjeHk esa buds ukfHkdksa dh la[;k leku

have the same number of nuclei, then the ratio of


the number of nuclei of X1 to that of X2 will be

3.

,d 6C12 ukfHkd 3 ,YQk d.kksa esa foHkDr gksrk gSA bldks


izkIr djus ds fy;s vko';d tkZ dh ek=k gksxh

1
e

gks tk;sxkA

1
(2)
3l

(1)

1
6l

(2)

1
3l

6
9l

(3)

3
6l

(4)

6
9l

(4)

Square copper plates of equal thickness and


having, area 1cm 2 and 1m2, are connected in
series as shown in the figure :-

3.

1cm2 rFkk 1m2 {ks=Qy dh leku eksVkbZ dh oxkZdkj

rkacs dh IysVas fp= esa n'kk;s vuqlkj Js.khe esa tqM+h gaS :-

U
U

(A) The resistance of the both the plates are


equal

(A) nksuksa IysVksa dk izfrjks/k cjkcj gAS


(B) nksuksa IysVksa ij foHkoikr leku gAS
(C) nksuksa IysVksa esa /kkjk leku gAS

(B) The potential drop across both the plates are


equal

(D) nksuksa IysVksa esa izfr bdkbZ le; O;f;r dqy "ek leku gAS

(C) The current in both the plates are equal

fuEu esa ls dkuS ls dFku lgh gaS :-

(D) The total heat dissipated in both the plates per


unit time are equal

(1) dsoy C

Which of the following option are correct :-

(2) dsoy A & C

(1) Only C

(2) Only A & C

(3) dsoy A,B,C

(3) Only A,B,C

(4) All

(4) lHkh

Kota/01CM314253

H-1/39

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/27-06-2015


4.

How will the reading of ammeter change if the


key K is closed :R

4.

dqUth K dks cUn djus ds ckn vehVj dk ikB~;kad fdl


izdkj ifjorr gksxk :-

2R

2R

2R

K
2R

A
+

(1) Increase
5.

(2) Decrease

(3) Remains same (4) Information insufficient


The figure shows a family of parallel
equipotential surfaces and four paths along which
an electron is made to move from one surface to
another as shown.
(I) what is the direction of the electric field?
(II) Rank the paths according to magnitude of
work done, greatest first.

5.

(1) c<+sxk
(3) leku jgsxk

(2) ?kVsxk
(4) lwpuk vi;kZIr gS

fp= esa lekUrj lefoHko i`"Bksa rFkk pkj iFkks dks n'kkZ;k
x;k gS ftlesa ,d bysDVkWu ,d lrg ls nwljh lrg dh
vksj fp=kuqlkj xfr dj jgk gAS
(I) fo|qr {ks= dh fn'kk D;k gksxh
(II) fd;s x;s dk;Z ds ifjek.k ds vuqlkj iFkksa dks O;ofLFkr
dhft,] cM+k lcls igysA
1

2
3

4
80 V

6.

70 V 60 V

70 V 60 V

50 V 40 V

(1) Right ward; 4 > 3 > 2 > 1

(1) nka;h vksj; 4 > 3 > 2 > 1

(2) Left ward; 1 > 2 > 3 > 4

(2) cka;h vksj; 1 > 2 > 3 > 4

(3) Right ward; 3 = 4 > 2 = 1

(3) nka;h vksj; 3 = 4 > 2 = 1

(4) Leftward; 1 > 2 > 3 = 4


A small square loop of wire of side l is placed
inside a large square loop of wire of side L (>> l).
The loops are coplanar and their centres coincide.
The mutual inductance of the system is :

(4) cka;h vksj; 1 > 2 > 3 = 4

H-2/39

80 V

50 V 40 V

6.

l Hkqtk ds rkj ds ,d NksVs&oxkZdkj ywi dks L (>> l) Hkqtk


ds rkj ds cM+s oxkd
Z kj ywi ds vUnj j[kk tkrk gAS ywi
leryh; gS rFkk buds dsU laikrh gSA fudk; dk vU;ksU;
izjs dRo gksxk :

2 2 0 L
(1)
pl

2 2 0 L2
(2)
pl

(1)

2 2 0 L
pl

(2)

2 2 0 L2
pl

2 2 0 l
(3)
pL

2 2 0 l 2
(4)
pL

(3)

2 2 0 l
pL

(4)

2 2 0 l 2
pL

Kota/01CM314253

Phase/ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/27-06-2015


7.

Consider the inferences given below in respect


of the following current loop of wire kept in a

7.

magnetic field B .

pqEcdh; {ks= B esa j[ksa rkj ds /kkjkokgh ywi ds lEcUk


esa fuEu fu"d"kksZ ij fopkj dhft;s
A

30

30

A. rkj ds Hkkx AC ij cy

3
ILB directed into the page.
2

B. rkj ds Hkkx AB ij cy

3
ILB directed into the page.
2

Which of the above is /are not true ?


(1) A and B

(1) A o B

(2) B only

(2) dsoy B

(3) A and C only

(3) dsoy A o C

(4) B and C

(4) B o C

(2) 1.67

(3) 1.50

(4) 1.40

An astronomical telescope has an eye piece of


focal length 5 cm. If magnification produced is
14 in normal adjustment, then calculate the length
of the telescope.
(1) 75cm

(2) 9cm

(3) 50cm

(4) 55cm

Kota/01CM314253

dkxt ds ry ds

3
ILB , dkxt
2

ds ry ds

vUnj dh vksj gksxkA


C. ywi ABCA ij dqy cy 'kwU; gksxk
mijksDr esa ls vlR; gS ?

C. The total force on the loop ABCA is zero.

(1) 1.60

3
ILB ,
2

vUnj dh vksj gksxkA

B. The force on the elementAB of the wire is

A vessel is half filled with a liquid of refractive


index . The other half of the vessel is filled with
an immiscible liquid of refractive index 1.5. The
apparent depth of vessel is 50% of the actual
depth. The value of is

A. The force on the elementAC of the wire is

9.

I
C

8.

8.

9.

,d ik= viorZukad okys nzo ls vk/kk Hkjk gqvk gAS ,d


vU; vfeJ.kh; nzo ftldk viorZukad 1.5 g]S ik= ds
vk/ks Hkkx esa Hkjk x;k gAS ik= dh vkHkklh xgjkbZ mldh
okLrfod xgjkbZ dk 50% gS rks dk eku gS
(1) 1.60

(2) 1.67

(3) 1.50

(4) 1.40

,d [kxksyh; nwjn'khZ ds vfHkus = ySal dh Qksdl nwjh


5 lseh gSA lkekU; O;oLFkk ds fy;s nwjn'khZ dk vko/kZu
14 gksrk gSA bl fLFkfr esa nwjn'khZ dh yEckbZ dh x.kuk
dhft;sA
(1) 75cm

(2) 9cm

(3) 50cm

(4) 55cm

H-3/39

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/27-06-2015


10.

Figure shows three circular arcs, each of radius


R and total charge as indicated. The net elecric
potential at the centre of curvature is:

10.

+Q

rhu o`Rrkdkj pki] izR;sd dh f=T;k R ,oa mu ij


dqy vkos'k fp= esa n'kkZ;s x;s gAS ork dsUnz ij ifj.kkeh
foHko gS
+Q

45

2Q

45

30

2Q

30

R
+3Q

11.

+3Q

Q
(1) 2pe R
0

Q
(2) 4 pe R
0

Q
(1) 2pe R
0

Q
(2) 4 pe R
0

2Q
(3) pe R
0

Q
(4) pe R
0

2Q
(3) pe R
0

Q
(4) pe R
0

The equation of line on which magnetic field


is zero due to system of two perpendicular
infinitely long current carrying straight wires,is

pqEcdh; {ks= 'kwU; g]S gksxkA

(0,0)

3I
I

(2) x = 2y

(0,0)

(4) 3x = y

A horizontal cylinder has two sections of


unequal cross-sections in which two pistons
A and B can move freely. The pistons are
joined by a string. Some gas is trapped
between the pistons. If this gas is heated, the
pistons will

12.

,d {kSfrt csyu ds nks Hkkxksa ds vuqizLFk dkV vleku


gS ftuesa nks fiLVu A rFkk B eqDr :i ls xfr dj ldrs
gaSA fiLVuksa dks jLlh }kjk tksM+k x;k gAS fiLVuksa ds e/;
xl
S Hkjh gAS ;fn xl
S dks xeZ djrs gaS rks fiLVu

A
A

(3) x = 3y

(4) 3x = y
12.

(1) x = y

3I

(2) x = 2y

bl ljy js[kk dh lehdj.k ftl ij nks vuUr yEcs


yEcor~ lh/ks /kkjkokgh rkjksa ds fudk; ds dkj.k

(1) x = y

(3) x = 3y

11.

(1) cka;h vksj xfr djsaxAs


(1) move to the left
(2) move to the right
(3) remain stationary
(4) move either to the left or to the right
depending on the initial pressure of the gas
H-4/39

(2) nka;h vksj xfr djsaxAs


(3) fLFkj jgsaxAs
(4) cka;h vksj vFkok nka;h vksj xfr djsaxs] ;g xl
S ds

izkjfEHkd nkc ij fuHkZj djrk gSA

Kota/01CM314253

Phase/ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/27-06-2015


13.

In which of the following cases the contact force


between A & B is maximum
(mA = mB = 1kg, g = 10 ms2) ?
(1)

50 N

fuEu esa ls dkSulh fLFkfr esa A ,oa B ds e/; lEidZ


cy vf/kdre gS (mA = mB = 1kg, g = 10 ms2)
(1)

13.

50 N

m=0

m=0
30N

30N

(2)

(2)

(3)

a = 35 ms2

a = 35 ms2

(4)

14.

(4)
B

(3)

a = 25 ms

a = 25 ms

For the circuit shown in figure the ratio of


energy stored in capacitor (1) to that of in
capacitor (2) is

14.

fp= esa iznf'kZr ifjiFk ds fy;s la/kkfj= (1) esa lafpr


tkZ dk la/kkfj= (2) esa lafpr tkZ ds lkFk vuqikr
gksxkA
C2

C2

R1

R1

R2

R2

R1C1
(1) R C
2 2

15.

C1

C1

R1C2
(2) R C
2 1

R12 C1
R1C12
(3) 2
(4)
R 2 C2
R 2 C22
A body dropped from the top of a tower covers a distance 7h in the last second of its journey where h is the distance covered in the first
second. How much time does it take to reach
the ground?
(1) 3 s
(2) 4 s
(3) 5 s

Kota/01CM314253

(4) 6 s

15.

R1C1
(1) R C
2 2

R1C2
(2) R C
2 1

R12 C1
(3) 2
R 2 C2

R1C12
(4)
R 2 C22

,d oLrq fdlh ehukj ds 'kh"kZ ls NksM+h tkrh gS rFkk ;g


vafre ld
S .M esa 7h nwjh r; dj ysrh gSA ;gk h, izFke
ld
S .M esa r; dh nwjh gAS bls /kjkry rd igqpus esa
fdruk le; yxsxk\
(1) 3 s

(2) 4 s

(3) 5 s

(4) 6 s
H-5/39

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/27-06-2015


16.

17.

18.

19.

In the circuit shown equivalent resistance


between A and B is
R

(1) R
(2) 2R/5
(3) R/3
(4) 2R
A force F acting on a body depends on its
displacement x as F xn. The power delivered
by F will be independent of x if n is

16.

17.

(2)

1
3

(1)

1
3

(2)

1
3

(3)

1
2

(4)

1
2

(3)

1
2

(4)

1
2

18.

M nzO;eku rFkk R f=T;k okys ,d Bksl xksys dk tM+Ro

vk?kw.kZ ugha gks ldrk gS &

(1)

2
MR2
3

(2)

1
MR2
2

(1)

2
MR2
3

(2)

1
MR2
2

(3)

2
MR 2
5

(4)

2
MR2
7

(3)

2
MR 2
5

(4)

2
MR2
7

A ray of light is incident on an equilateral glass


prism placed on a horizontal table. For
minimum deviation which of the following is
true ?

19.

{kfS rt est ij j[ks ,d leckgq dkp dh fizTe ij


izdk'k dh fdj.k vkifrr gksrh gAS U;wure fopyu ds
fy;s dkuS lk dFku lR; gS ?
(1) PQ {kfS rt gS

(2) QR {kfS rt gS

(3) RS {kfS rt gS

(4) Either PQ or RS is horizontal

(4) ;k rks PQ ;k RS {kSfrt gS

A light ray passes from air into another


medium at point P. How long does it take
the light ray to travel from P to Q?

(2) 9 10 s
(3) 9 10 s
8

(4) 9 106 s

20.

,d izdk'k fdj.k fcUnq P ij gok ls nwljs ek/;e esa


izo's k djrh gAS P ls Q rd tkus esa izdk'k fdj.k dks
fdruk le; yxsxk \
(1) 9 10 10 s

53

air

Q
P

(3) RS is horizontal

(1) 9 1010 s

,d oLrq ij yx jgk cy F, foLFkkiu x ij F xn ds


vuqlkj fuHkZj djrk gAS F ds }kjk iznk 'kfDr x ij fuHkZj
ugha djsxh] ;fn n dk eku g&S

1
3

A solid sphere of mass M and radius R cannot


have moment of inertia

(2) 2R/5
(4) 2R

(1)

(2) QR is horizontal

H-6/39

(1) R
(3) R/3

(1) PQ is horizontal

20.

iznf'kZr ifjiFk esa fcUnq A rFkk B ds e/; rqY;kadh


izfrjks/k gksxk

medium
12m

5m

(2) 9 107 s
(3) 9 108 s
(4) 9 10 6s

53

air

medium
12m

5m

Kota/01CM314253

Phase/ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/27-06-2015


21.

22.

Kinetic energy of a particle executing simple


harmonic motion in straight line is pv2 and
potential energy is qx2, where v is speed at
distance x from the mean position. It time
period is given by the expression

21.

(1) 2p

q
p

(2) 2p

p
q

(1) 2p

q
p

(2) 2p

p
q

(3) 2p

q
p+q

(4) 2p

p
p+q

(3) 2p

q
p+q

(4) 2p

p
p+q

Energy levels A, B and C of a certain atom


correspond to increasing values of energy i.e.
EA < EB < EC . If l1, l2 and l3 are wave lengths
of radiations corresponding to transitions C
to B, B to A and C to A respectively, which
of the following relations is correct

22.

,d ijek.kq fo'ks"k ds tkZ Lrj A, B vkjS C tkZ


ds c<+rs gq, ekuksa esa gS (EA < EB < EC ) ;fn C ls
B, B ls A vkjS C ls A ijek.kq ds tkZ ifjoruZ gks
rks lEc mRlftZr fofdj.kksa ds ekuqlkj rjaxnS ;Z ekuksa
l1, l2 vkjS l3 esa lEcU/k gksxk

(1) l3 = l1 + l2

(1) l3 = l1 + l2

(2) l1 + l2 + l3 = 0

(2) l1 + l2 + l3 = 0

(3) l23 = l21 + l22

(3) l23 = l21 + l22


l1l2

l1l 2

(4) l3 = l + l
1
2

(4) l3 = l + l
1
2
23.

lh/kh js[kk esa ljy vkorZ xfr dj jgs d.k dh xfrt


tkZ pv2 rFkk fLFkfrt tkZ qx2 g]S tgka v d.k dh
pky rFkk x ek; fLFkfr ls foLFkkiu gAS bl ljy vkorZ
xfr dk vkord
Z ky D;k gksxk\

S1 , S2 are two coherent sources of sound


located along x - axis separated by 4 l
where l is wavelength of sound emitted by
them. Number of maxima located on the
elliptical boundary around it will be
S1

23.

S1 , S2 nks dyk lEc /ofu L=ksr gSa] tks x-v{k ds


vuqfn'k 4 l nwjh ij fLFkr gaSA tgk l mRlftrZ /ofu

dh rjaxnS/;Z gAS buds pkjksa vksaj ,d nh?kZo`rkdkj


ifjlhek ij fLFkr mfPp"Bksa dh la[;k gksxh %&
S1

S2

S2
4l

4l

24.

(1) 16
2) 12
(3) 8
(4) 4
In the circuit shown in figure the maximum
output voltage V0 is

D2

D1

10 V
T/2

2 kW

(2) 5 V

(3) 10 V

(4)

Kota/01CM314253

5
2

D2

D1

10 V
T/2

2 kW

V0

2 kW

2 kW

(1) 0 V

(4) 4

2 kW

2 kW

(3) 8

fp= esa iznf'kZr ifjiFk esa vf/kdre fuxZr oksYVrk V0 gksxhA

V0

24.

(2) 12

Vi

Vi

(1) 16

(1) 0 V

(2) 5 V

(3) 10 V

(4)

5
2

V
H-7/39

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/27-06-2015


25.

Input waveforms A and B as shown in Fig-I


are applied to the combination of gates as
shown in Fig-II. Which of the waveforms
shown in Fig. (i) to (iv) correctly represents
the output waveform ?

25.

fp= I esa iznf'kZr nks fuos'kh rjaxksa A rFkk B fp= II esa


iznf'krZ rdZ }kjksa ds la;kstu ij vkjksfir dh xbZ gAS
fp= (i) ls (iv) rd esa iznf'kZr rjax :i esa fuxZr rjax
:i dk lgh fu:i.k gksxk\

B
Fig-I

Fig-I
A

Y
B

(1) Fig.(i)
(3) Fig.(iii)
26.

Fig-(i)

Fig-(i)

Fig-(ii)

Fig-(ii)

Fig-(iii)

Fig-(iii)

Fig-(iv)

(1) fp= (i)


(3) fp= (iii)

(2) Fig.(ii)
(4) Fig. (iv)

q1, q2, q3 and q4 are point charges located at points


as shown in the figure and S is a spherical
ur ur ur
Gaussian surface of radius R. If E1 , E 2 ,E 3 and
ur
E 4 are electric fields due to q 1 , q2 , q3 & q 4
respectively, then which of the following is true
according to the Gauss's law:-

26.

q1
q2

ds vuqlkj fuEu esa ls dkuS lk lgh gS :S


q1
q2

q3

(2) fp= (ii)


(4) fp= (iv)

R f=T;k dk xkl
S h; i`"B gAS ;fn q1, q2, q3 o q4 ds dkj.k
ur ur ur
ur
fo|qr {ks= e'k% E1 ,E 2 ,E 3 o E 4 gS rc xkWl fu;e

R
q4

r
r
r (q + q 2 + q 3 )
+ E 2 + E 3 ).dA = 1
e0
S
r r
r
r
r (q1 + q 2 + q 3 )
(2) (E1 + E 2 + E3 + E 4 ).dA =
e0
S
r (q1 + q 2 + q 3 + q 4 )
r r
r
(3) (E1 + E 2 + E 3 ).dA =
e0
S
(4) None of the above

H-8/39

(E

Fig-(iv)

q1, q2, q3 o q4 fcUnq vkos'k fp=kuqlkj fLFkr gSaA S ,d

(1)

Fig-II

Fig-II

(1)

(E

(2)

(E
S

R
q3

q4

r (q + q 2 + q 3 )
r
r
+ E 2 + E 3 ).dA = 1
e0
r (q + q 2 + q 3 )
r
r r
+ E 2 + E3 + E 4 ).dA = 1
e0

r (q1 + q 2 + q 3 + q 4 )
r r
r
(E
+
E
+
E
).dA
=
1
2
3
(3)
e
S

(4) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

Kota/01CM314253

Phase/ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/27-06-2015


27.

The potential energy between two atoms in a


molecule is given by U(x) =

27.

a
b
- 6 ; where a and
12
x
x

nh tkrh gaS U(x) =

b are positive constants and x is the distance between


the atoms. The atoms is in stable equilibrium when
(1) x = 6

11a
5b

(3) x = 0
28.

(2) x = 6

a
2b

(1) x = 6

(4) x = 6

2a
b

(3) x = 0

A force F = (5i + 3j) newton is applied over a

28.

30.

(2) +13 J

(3) +7 J

(4) +11 J

A field line is shown in figure. This field can not


represent

11a
5b

29.

(b) fo|qr LFkSfrd {ks=

(c) Induced electric field

(c) izfs jr fo|qr {ks=

(d) Gravitational field

(d) xq:Roh; {ks=

(4) (c), (d)

A rigid spherical body is spinning around an axis


without any external torque. Due to change in
temperature, the volume of the spherical body
increases by 1%. Its angular speed :

30.

(1) (a), (b)

(2) (b), (c)

(3) (b), (d)

(4) (c), (d)

,d n`<+ xksyh; fi.M+ fdlh ck cy&vk?kw.kZ ds fcuk fdlh


v{k ds pkjksa vksj p.k xfr ds ?kw.kZu dj jgk gAS rki ifjorZu
ds dkj.k xksyh; fi.M ds vk;ru esa 1% dh o`f gks tkrh
gAS bldh dks.kh; pky&

(1) decreases by 1%

(1) 1% de gks tk;sxhA

(2) increases by 1%

(2) 1% c<+ tk;sxhA

(3) decreases by 0.67%

(3) 0.67% ?kV tk;sxhA

(4) increases by 0.67%

(4) 0.67% c<+ tk;sxhA

Kota/01CM314253

2a
b

g]S ij foLFkkfir gksrk gAS d.k ij fd, x, dk;Z dk eku


gksxk %&
(1) 7 twy
(2) +13 twy
(3) +7 twy
(4) +11 twy
fp= esa ,d {ks= js[kk iznf'kZr gAS ;g {ks= ugha n'kkZ ldrk gS

(b) Electrostatic field

(3) (b), (d)

(4) x = 6

(a) pqEcdh; LFkfS rd {ks=

(2) (b), (c)

a
2b

,d d.k ij F = (5i + 3j) U;wVu cy yxkus ij bldk ewy

(a) Magnetostatic field

(1) (a), (b)

(2) x = 6

ehVj
fcUnq ls ,d nwljs fcUnq ij ftldh fLFkfr r = (2i - 1j)

particle is :(1) 7 J

a
b
- 6 ; tcfd a vkjS b /kukRed
12
x
x

vpj gS vkSj x ijek.kqvksa ds chp dh nwjh gAS ijek.kq LFkk;h


lkE; esa gksxk] tc

particle which displaces it from its origin to the


r
metres. The work done on the
point r = (2i - 1j)

29.

,d v.kq ds nks ijek.kqvksa dh fLFkfrt tkZ bl lw = }kjk

H-9/39

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/27-06-2015


31.

32.

The root mean square value of an alternating


source of emf e = e1 sin wt + e2 cos wt is :
(1)

e1e 2

(2)

e12 + e 22
2

(3)

e12 - e 22
2

(4)

e +e

(3)

(2)

3 T0
T0
3

(4)

32.

T0
2

(1)

e1e 2

(2)

e12 + e 22
2

(3)

e12 - e 22
2

(4)

e12 + e 22

,d vkn'kZ xSl ds ,d eksy ds fy;s ;g ik;k tkrk gS fd


P2V = fu;r gSA izkjfEHkd rki o vk;ru T0 rFkk V0 gAS
;fn xl
S 3V0 vk;ru rd izlkfjr gksrh g]S rc vfUre rki
gksxk :-

(3)
33.

(2) 2/5

(3) 3/4
(4) 2/3
Three particles A, B and C of equal mass move
with equal speeds v along the medians of an
equilateral triangle as shown in figure. They
collide at the centroid G of the triangle. After
collision A comes to rest, B retraces its path with
speed v. The velocity of C is :-

e = e1 sin wt + e2 cos wt o|
S qr okgd cy ds izR;korhZ
L=ksr dk oxZ&ek/;&ewy eku g&S

(1)

2 T0

Two liquids are at 293 K & 313 K. When same


mass of both of them is mixed, the temperature
of the mixture is 305 K. What is the ratio of their
specific heats ?
(1) 1/3

34.

2
2

One made of an ideal gas is found to obey the law


P2V = constant. The initial temperature & volume
are T0 & V0. If the gas expands to a volume 3V0,
then the final temperature becomes :(1)

33.

2
1

31.

34.

(2)

3 T0
T0
3

nks nzo 293 K rFkk 313 K ij gAS tc nksuksa ds leku nzO;eku


dks fefJr fd;k tkrk gAS rc feJ.k dk rki 305 K g]S
rks budh fof'k"V m"ek dk vuqikr gksxk ?
(1) 1/3

(2) 2/5

(3) 3/4

(4) 2/3

rhu leku O;eku ds d.k A, B o C fp=kuqlkj ,d leckgq


f=Hkqt dh ekf/;dkvksa ds vuqfn'k v osx ls pyrs gS rFkk
f=Hkqt ds dsUd ij Vdjkrs gAS VDdj ds ckn iqu% A fLFkj
gks tkrk gAS B iqu% viuk iFk v osx ls GB fn'kk esa r;
djus yxrk gS rks C dk osx gS :A

(1) vr , direction GA
r
(3) 2v , direction GB
35.

T0
2

(4)

2 T0

r
(2) 2v , direction GA
(4) vr , direction BG

In an oscillation of L.C. circuit, the maximum


charge on the capacitor is Q. The charge on the
capacitor, when the energy is stored equally
between the electric and magnetic field is :-

r
(1) v , o fn'kk GA
r
(3) 2v , o fn'kk GB

35.

r
(2) 2v , o fn'kk GA
(4) vr , o fn'kk BG

L.C. ifjiFk ds nksyu esa la/kkfj= ij vf/kdre vkos'k Q

gksrk gAS tc fo|qr o pqEcdh; {k=S ds e/; leku tkZ


lafpr gksrh g]S rc la/kkfj= ij vkos'k gksxk :-

Q
(1)
2

Q
(2)
2

(1)

Q
2

(2)

Q
2

Q
(3)
3

Q
(4)
3

(3)

Q
3

(4)

Q
3

H-10/39

Kota/01CM314253

Phase/ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/27-06-2015


36.

37.

During blood transfusion the needle is inserted in


a vein where the gauge pressure is 2000 Pa. At
what height must the blood container be placed
so that blood may just enter the vein? Density of
blood = 1.06 103kg/m3
(1) 0.20 m
(2) 0.80 m
(3) 1.4 m
(4) 5.6 m

36.

An electromognetic wave travels in vacuum along


r
z direction : E = (E1i + E 2 j) cos (kz wt). Choose

37.

jDr LFkkukarfjr djus ds fy, jDr okfguh esa lwbZ izos'k djkbZ
tkrh gS tgka ij nkckarj 2000 Pa gAS jDr ik= dks fdruk
apk j[kk tk, fd jDr okfguh esa izos'k dj tk,A

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

fodYi pqfu,%
(1) lEc pqEcdh; {ks= dks fy[k ldrs gS :

r
1
B =
(E1i E 2 j) cos (kz wt).

r
1
B =
(E1i E 2 j) cos (kz wt).

(2) The associated magnetic field is given as

(2) lEc pqEcdh; {ks= dks fy[k ldrs g:S

r
1
B =
(E1 i + E 2 j) cos (kz wt).

r
1
B =
(E1 i + E 2 j) cos (kz wt).

(3) The given electromagnetic field is circularly


polarised.
(4) The given electromagnetic wave is not plane
polarised.
The energy of a hydrogen-like atom (or ion) in
its ground state is 122.4 eV. It may be :
(1) hydrogen atom
39.

(3) fn;k x;k o|


S qrpqEcdh; {ks= o`kh;% /kzqfor gAS
(4) nh xbZ o|
S qrpqEcdh; rjax lery /kzqfor ugha gAS
38.

(2) He+

(3) Li
(4) Be
The position vector of a particle is given as
r 2
r =(t 4t + 6) i + (t2) j . The time after which the
2+

39.

40.

(3) 1.5 second

(4) Not possible

In the given figure, a block always be in


equilibrium. If the wall moved towards right with
acceleration a, if m is the coefficient of friction,
then minimum value of a is :(1) m.g
m Block
(2)

g
m

m
(3) mg
(4) mmg

Kota/01CM314253

Wall

(4) Be3+
r

,d d.k dk fLFkfr lfn'k r = ( t 2 - 4t + 6 ) i + ( t 2 ) j gAS


fdrus le; i'pkr~ os x lfn'k rFkk Roj.k lfn'k
,d&nwljs ds yEcor~ gksaxs%&

velocity vector and acceleration vector becomes


perpendicular to each other is equal to :(2) 2 second

gkbMkstu tl
S s ijek.kq (;k vk;u) ftldh ewy voLFkk dh
tkZ 122.4 eV gAS ;g gks ldrk g&S
(1) gkbMkstu ijek.kq
(2) He+
(3) Li2+

3+

(1) 1 second

dksbZ o|
S rq pqEcdh; rjax E = (E1i + E 2 j) cos (kz wt)
fuokZr esa z fn'kk ds vuqfn'k xfreku gAS fuEu esa ls lgh

the correct options from the following:


(1) The associated magnetic field is given as

38.

0.20 m
0.80 m
1.4 m
5.6 m

40.

(1) 1 lsd.M

(2) 2 lsd.M

(3) 1.5 lsd.M

(4) lEHko ugha gS

fn;s x, fp= esa] CykWd ges'kk lkE;koLFkk esa jgrk gAS ;fn
nhokj o Roj.k ls nka;h xfreku gksA ;fn ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad m
gks rc a dk U;qure eku gksxk&
(1) m.g
(2)

m Block

g
m

m
(3) mg
(4) mmg

Wall

H-11/39

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/27-06-2015


41.

A ring is rolling on a rough horizontal surface


without slipping with a linear speed 'v'. Ratio of
speeds of points B and A is :

41.

,d oy; [kqjnjh {kSfrt lrg ij fcuk fQlys js[kh; pky

'v' ls yksVuh xfr dj jgh gS rks fcUnq B rFkk A ij pkyksa


dk vuqikr :

B
v

(1) 1 : 1
42.

43.

44.

45.

(2) 1 : 2

(3)

2 :1

(1) 1 : 1

(4) 1: 2

What is poured in a tank through a cylindrical tube


of area of cross-section A and ejecting water at
a constant speed 4 m/s. The tank contains a hole
of area A/2 at bottom. Level of water in the tank
will not go up beyond : (take g = 10 m/s2)

42.

(2) 1 : 2

(3)

2 :1

A vuqizLFk dkV okyh csyukdkj uyh dh lgk;rk ls ,d


VaSd esa 4 m/s ds fu;r osx ls ikuh Hkjk tkrk gAS VSad ds
isans esa A/2 {ks=Qy dk ,d fNnz fLFkr gS rks VSad esa ikuh
dk vf/kdre Lrj ftl ds mGij ikuh ugh tk,xk :
(g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 5.6 m

(2) 4.8 m

(1) 5.6 m

(2) 4.8 m

(3) 3.2 m

(4) 1.8 m

(3) 3.2 m

(4) 1.8 m

Transverse wave propagates in a medium with a


velocity of 1450 m/sec. The distance between the
nearest points at which the oscillations of the
particles carried in the opposite phase p is
0.1 m. What is the frequency of wave :-

43.

vuqizLFk rjax ,d ek/;e esa 1450 m/sec ds osx ls xfreku


gAS mu fudVre fcUnqvksa ds e/; nwjh ftu ij d.kksa ds nky
S u
foijhr dyk p esa gksrs gaS] 0.1 m gAS rjax dh vko`fk D;k
gS

(1) 290 Hz

(2) 7250 Hz

(1) 290 Hz

(2) 7250 Hz

(3) 14500 Hz

(4) 145 Hz

(3) 14500 Hz

(4) 145 Hz

M1L2T3q are the dimensions of [T for time, q


for temperature]:-

44.

M1L2T3q fdldh foek gS ?[le; ds fy;s T, rki ds


fy;s q]:-

(1) coefficient of thermal conductivity

(1) rkih; pkydrk xq.kkad

(2) coefficient of viscosity

(2) ';kurk xq.kkad

(3) modulus of rigidity

(3) n`<+rk xq.kkad

(4) thermal resistance


The time period of small oscillation of mass m:(1) 2p

(2) 2p

m
6K

(4) 2 p

H-12/39

m
K

(4) rkih; izfrjks/k


vYi nksyuksa ds fy, nzO;eku m dk vkord
Z ky gS :-

11m
6K

6m
(3) 2p
11k

45.

(1) 2p
K

light
rod

light
rod

(2) 2p

m
6K

11m
6K

6m
(3) 2p
11k
(4) 2 p

(4) 1: 2

m
K

light
rod

light
rod

K
m

Kota/01CM314253

Phase/ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/27-06-2015


46.

47.

Which is correct match :(1) Eka silicon - Be


(2) Eka Aluminium - Ge
(3) Eka Manganese - Tc
(4) Eka sodium - B
IUPAC name of given compound is

46.

dkSulk lgh feyku g\


S
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

47.

Eka
Eka
Eka
Eka

silicon - Be
Aluminium - Ge
Magnese - Tc
sodium - B
fn;s x;s ;kSfxd dk IUPAC uke gS

COOH

COOH

OH

48.

49.

50.

OH

(1) 3-hydroxy cyclohex-5-ene carboxylic acid


(2) 5-hydroxy cyclohex-2-ene carboxylic acid
(3) 2-hydroxy cyclohex-1-ene carboxylic acid
(4) 1-hydroxy cyclohex-3-ene carboxylic acid
A mixture of magnesium chloride and
magnesium sulphate is known to contain
0.6 moles of chloride ions and 0.2 moles of
sulphate ions. The number of moles of
magnesium ions present is :(1) 0.4
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.8
(4) 1.0
Which of the following order is correct?
(1) F > N > C > Si > Ga non-metallic character
(2) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 oxidising property.
(3) C < Si > P > N electron affinity
(4) All of these
How many stereomers are possible for
following molecule ?

52.

53.

4
27

Kota/01CM314253

(2)

49.

50.

cyclohex-5-ene
cyclohex-2-ene
cyclohex-1-ene
cyclohex-3-ene

(1) 0.4

(2) 0.5

(3) 0.8

(4) 1.0

27
4

(3)

1
27

(4) 24

acid
acid
acid
acid

fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkuS lk e lgh gS


(1) F > N > C > Si > Ga v/kkfRod y{k.k
(2) F > Cl > Br > I vkWDlhdkjd xq.k
(3) C < Si > P > N bysDVkWu ca/kqrk
(4) mijksDr lHkh
fn;s x;s v.kq ds fdrus f=foe leko;oh lEHko g\
S

(1) 4
51.

carboxylic
carboxylic
carboxylic
carboxylic

eXS uhf'k;e DyksjkbM rFkk eXS uhf'k;e lYQsV ds ,d feJ.k


esa 0.6 eksy DyksjkbM vk;u rFkk 0.2 eksy lYQsV vk;u
gAS mifLFkr eXS uhf'k;e vk;uksa ds ekssyksa dh la [;k gS :-

Br

Br

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 12
(4) 16
What possibly can be the ratio of the de-Broglie
wavelengths for two electrons having zero
initial energy and accelerated through 50 volts
and 200 volts
(1) 3 : 10 (2) 10 : 3 (3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 : 1
Maximum first ionization energy would be
shown by the configuration (1) [Ne] 3s2 3p5
(2) [Ne] 3s2 3p2
(3) [Ne] 3s2 3p3
(4) [Ne] 3s2 3p4
2 moles of N2 is mixed with 6 moles of H2 in
a closed vessel of one litre capacity. If 50% of
N2 is converted into NH3 at equilibrium, for the
reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) value of Kc
is
(1)

48.

3-hydroxy
5-hydroxy
2-hydroxy
1-hydroxy

Cl

Cl

51.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

(2) 8

(3) 12

(4) 16

nks bysDVkWu ftudh izkjafHkd tkZ 'kwU; g]S dks ;fn e'k%
50 oksYV rFkk 200 oksYV ls Rofjr fd;k tk, rks mudh

Mh&czksXyh rjaxnS ;Z dk vuqikr gksxk %&


(1) 3 : 10 (2) 10 : 3 (3) 1 : 2
52.

(4) 2 : 1

fdl foU;kl ds }kjk izFke vk;uu tkZ dk vf/kde eku


iznf'kZr fd;k tkrk gS

(1) [Ne] 3s2 3p5


(3) [Ne] 3s2 3p3

53.

(2) [Ne] 3s2 3p2


(4) [Ne] 3s2 3p4
,d yhVj {kerk okys ,d can ik= esa N2 ds 2 eksy] H2
ds 6 eksy ds lkFk fefJr gksrs gaAS lkE; ij ;fn 50% N2,
NH3 esa ifjofrZr gks tkrh gS rc vfHkf;k
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
ds fy;s Kc dk eku gksxk:(1)

4
27

(2)

27
4

(3)

1
27

(4) 24

H-13/39

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/27-06-2015


54.

(1) a
(3) g

Me
(2) b
(4) d

(1) a
(3) g
55.

Me

(2) b
(4) d

fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkuS lk vkWDlkbM dh {kkjh; izo`fr dk ?kVrk

gradually decreasing basic nature of the oxides?

gqvk lgh e g\
S

(1) Al2 O3 > MgO > Cl2 O7 > SO3

(1) Al2 O3 > MgO > Cl2 O7 > SO3

(2) MgO > Al2O3 > SO3 > Cl2O7

(2) MgO > Al2O3 > SO3 > Cl2O7

(3) Cl 2O7 > SO3 > Al2O3 > MgO

(3) Cl 2O7 > SO3 > Al2O3 > MgO

(4) SO3 > Cl2O7 > MgO > Al2O3


Arrange the following in correct order of
stability

(4) SO3 > Cl2O7 > MgO > Al2O3

(I)

(II)

OCH 3

56.

Cl

(I)
(III)

(IV)

Cl

(III)

(IV)

(2) (I) > (IV) > (III) > (II)


(3) (II) > (I) > (IV) > (III)
(4) (III) > (IV) > (I) > (II)
57.

CuSO 4 .5H2 O esa fdl iz d kj ds fofHkUu cU/k rFkk

vUrjkd"kZ.k mifLFkr gaAS


(I) pp- dp ca/k
(II) pp pp ca /k
(III) milgla;kstd ca/k
(IV) fLFkj o|
S qr vkd"kZ.k
(V) gkbMkstu ca/k
(1) I, II, III, IV rFkk V
(2) II, III, IV rFkk V
(3) II rFkk IV
(4) I, III, IV rFkk V

(II) pp pp bond
(III) Coordinate bond
(IV) Electrostatic forces of attraction
(V) Hydrogen bond
(1) I, II, III, IV and V
(2) II, III, IV, and V
(3) II and IV
(4) I, III, IV, and V

2
M weak Mono acid base
5
2
(Kb = 1 1012) is titrated with
M HCl in H2O
15
at 25C the concentration of H+ at equivalence
point is :- (Kw = 1014 )
(1) 3.7 1013 M
(2) 3.7 107 M
2
(3) 3.2 10 M
(4) 2.7 102 M

(II)

(1) (III) > (I) > (IV) > (II)

(I) pp- dp bond

H-14/39

OCH 3

(1) (III) > (I) > (IV) > (II)


(2) (I) > (IV) > (III) > (II)
(3) (II) > (I) > (IV) > (III)
(4) (III) > (IV) > (I) > (II)
What are the different kinds of bonds and

2.5 mL of

fuEu dks LFkkf;Ro ds lgh e esa O;ofLFkr dhft,


CH3

interactions present in CuSO4.5H2 O ?

58.

Me

Which of the following is the correct order of

CH3

57.

b
d

Me

56.

dgk ls foizksVksuhdj.k lokZf/kd rhozrk ls gksxk :-

55.

54.

Deprotonation will be fastest from :-

58.

2
M nq c Z y ,d vEyh; {kkj
5
2
(Kb = 1 1012) dk vuqekiu ty esa
M HCl ds
15
lkFk djus ij rqY;kad fcUnq ij H+ dh lkUnzrk gS
(Kw = 1014 )
(1) 3.7 1013 M
(2) 3.7 107 M
2
(3) 3.2 10 M
(4) 2.7 102 M

25C ij 2.5 mL,

Kota/01CM314253

Phase/ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/27-06-2015


59.

(2) NO, NO , NO
+

60.

61.

59.

Species have same bond order are


(1) CO, NO, N2

(1) CO, NO, N2


(2) NO, NO+, NO

(3) C6 H6, ClO2 , HCOO

(3) C6 H6, ClO2 , HCOO

(4) BO3 3 , ClO3 , CO3 2


Phenol gives sym-tribromophenol when treated
with bromine in aq. solution but only o and
p bromophenols in CCl4 solution because
(1) in aq. solution the bromine is ionised
(2) in aqueous solution, phenol exists in
equilibrium with phenoxide ion which has
more activating effect
(3) in CCl4 the electrophilicity of Br2 increases
(4) in CCl4 the other positions of benzene rings
are blocked by the solvent
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) C2, O22 and Li2 are diamagnetic

(4) BO3 3 , ClO3 , CO3 2


60.

61.

(2) He2 molecule does not exist


(3) In O 2 molecule last electron enter in p
antibonding molecular orbital
(4) In F2 molecule, the energy of s2pz is more
than p 2px and p2py
62.

H 3CC
O

CaOCl2

H 2O X + Y

CaOCl2

H 2O X + Y

H 3CC
O

Cl2
X
Z (vfXu'kked ds :i esa mi;ksx gksrk g)S
hn

drydistillation
Product.
Y
Product is :-

'kq"d vklou
mRiknA
Y

(2)

mRikn gS

O
C

Kota/01CM314253

(1)

O
CCH3

(4) CH 3CCH3
O
Which one is electron defficient compound :(1) (BeCl2 )2
(2) AlF 3
(3) 1 & 2 both
(4) None of these
How many tetrahedral and triangular units are
present in borax ?
(1) 3 tetrahedral and 1 triangular
(2) 2 tetrahedral and 2 triangular
(3) 2 tetrahedral and 9 triangular
(4) 9 tetrahedral and 2 triangular
(3)

64.

62.

fQukWy dh f;k czksehu ds tyh; foy;u ls djkus ij


fle&Vkbczkes ksfQukWy curk gS tcfd CCl4 foy;u esa dsoy
o-o p- czkseksfQukWy curk g]S D;ksafd
(1) tyh; foy;u esa czke
s hu vk;fur gks tkrk gAS
(2) tyh; foy;u esa fQukWy o fQukW DlkbM vk;u
lkE;koLFkk esa ik;s tkrs gaS] fQukWDlkbM vk;u vf/kd
f;k'khy gAS
(3) CCl4 esa Br2 dh bysDVkuW Lusgh izof` r vf/kd gks tkrh gAS
(4) CCl4 esa csathu oy; ds vU; LFkku foyk;d }kjk
ckfkr gks tkrs gaSA
fuEu esa ls dkuS lk dFku xyr g\
S
2
(1) C2, O2 rFkk Li2 izf rpqEcdh; gSA
(2) He2 v.kq vfLrRo ugha j[krk gAS
(3) O2 v.kq esa vfUre bysDVkWu p izfrca/kh vkf.od d{kd
esa izos'k djrk gAS
(4) F2 v.kq esa s2pz dh tkZ p2px rFkk p2py ls vf/kd
gksrh gAS

Cl2
X
Z (used as fire extinguisher)
hn

(1)

63.

Li'kht tks leku ca/k e j[krh gaS

(3)
63.

64.

(2)
O
CCH3

O
C

(4) CH 3CCH3
O

dkSulk ,d bysDVkWu U;wu ;kSfxd gS

(1) (BeCl2 )2
(3) 1 o 2 nksuksa

(2) AlF 3
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

cksjsDl esa fdruh la[;k esa prq"Qydh; rFkk f=dks.kh; bdkbZ


mifLFkr gksrh gS
(1) 3 prq"Qydh; rFkk 1 f=dks.kh;
(2) 2 prq"Qydh; rFkk 2 f=dks.kh;
(3) 2 prq"Qydh; rFkk 9 f=dks.kh;
(4) 9 prq"Qydh; rFkk 2 f=dks.kh;
H-15/39

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/27-06-2015


65.

Which of the following will give electrophilic


substitution fastest?

65.

fuEu esa ls dkuS bysDVkWu Lusgh izfrLFkkiu ds izfr lokZfkd


f;k'khy gksxk\

CH3

CH3

(1)

CH3

CH3

(2)

(2)

(1)
Cl

Cl

CH3

CH3

(3)

CH3

CH3

(4)

(3)

(4)

NO2

OH

NO2

OH

66.

Identify the incorrect statement among the


following.
(1) Ozone reacts with SO2 to give SO3
(2) Fullerene, diamond and graphite all have
dangling bond
(3) Cl2 react with excess of NH3 to give N2 and
NH4Cl.
(4) Br 2 reacts with hot and conc. NaOH
solution to give NaBr, NaBrO3 and H2 O.

66.

fuEufyf[kr esa ls xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A


(1) vkstksu SO2 ds lkFk f;k djds SO3 nsrh gAS
(2) Qqyjhu] ghjk rFkk xzsQkbV lHkh dangling cak j[krs
gSaA
(3) Cl2 veksfu;k vkf/kD; ds lkFk f;k djds N2 rFkk
NH4Cl nsrk gAS
(4) Br2 xeZ rFkk lkUnz NaOH foy;u ds lkFk f;k dj
NaBr, NaBrO3 rFkk H2 O nsrk gAS

67.

Re d P + Br2
B
CH 3 CH 2 COOH
A
(ii)H +

67.

Re d P + Br2
B
CH 3 CH 2 COOH
A
(ii)H +

68.

(i) Aq. KOH

B is :(1) Malonic acid


(2) Alanine
(3) Lactic acid
(4) Glycine
Which of the following is best hydride donor
in Cannizaro's reaction :-

(1)

68.

(2) Alanine
(4) Glycine

dsfutkjksa vfHkf;k esa dkSu lokZf/kd mi;qDr gkbMkbM nkrk


gS % &
CHO

CHO
(1)

(2)

(2)

OMe

NO2

OMe

NO2

CHO

CHO

CHO

CHO

(3)

(3)

(4)
CH3

(1) Z = 1 +

Pb
RT

nRT n 2 a
(3) Z =
V - nb V2

(4)
CH3

Cl

At very high pressure


compressibility factor

H-16/39

B gS :(1) Malonic acid


(3) Lactic acid

CHO

CHO

69.

(i) Aq. KOH

correct

(2) Z = 1 -

for

na
VRT

(4) All of the above

69.

Cl

mPp nkc ij fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku laihM~;rk xq.kkad ds


fy, lgh gS
(1) Z = 1 +
(3) Z =

Pb
RT

nRT n 2 a
V - nb V2

(2) Z = 1 -

na
VRT

(4) mijksDr lHkh

Kota/01CM314253

Phase/ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/27-06-2015


70.

Cl2 gas is obtained by various reactions but


except any one
(1) KMnO4 + conc. HCl

(4) KCl + F2
71.

72.

73.

P2O5
D

(4) KCl + F2

Reduction

71.

72.

4
(2) D t = D 0 , Dsp = 1.3D 0
9
(3) CFSE dk e %
prq"Qydh; < v"VQydh; < oxkZdkj leryh;
(4) mijksDr lHkh

fuEufyf[kr ladqyksa ds ;qXe esa] ladqy ftlesa

II ds fy, D 0 > I ds fy, D 0


I
II
2+
(a) [Cr(H2 O)6 ] rFkk [Cr(H2O)6]3+
(b) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ rFkk [Fe(CN)6]3
(c) [Fe(CN)6]3 rFkk [Ru(CN)6]3
(d) [NiF 6]4 rFkk [NiF6 ]2
(1) a,b,c
(2) b,c,d (3) a,b,c,d (4) c,d
P2O5

O
73.

Br 2
KOH

74.

Reduction

CH3CNH2

B and C are :(1) Structural isomers (2) Homologues


(3) Identical
(4) Stereoisomers
Match List - I with List-II and select the correct
code
List-I
List-II
(a) Van Arkel Method
(1) Purification
of titanium
(b) Solvay Process
(2) Manufacture
of Na2 CO 3
(c) Cupellation
(3) Purification
of copper
(d) Poling
(4) Refining
of silver
Codes :
a
b
c
d
(1) 1
2
4
3
(2) 2
1
3
4
(3) 4
2
1
3
(4) 3
1
2
4

xyr dFku dk p;u dhft;sA


(1) [Ni(en)3]2+ , [NiCl6]4 dh rqyuk esa de LFkk;h gSA

CH3CNH2

Kota/01CM314253

(3) MnO2 + conc. HCl

4
(2) D t = D 0 , Dsp = 1.3D 0
9
(3) order of CFSE :
tetrahedral < octahedral < square planar
(4) All of these
For which of the following pairs of complexs,
identify the complex which D0 for II > D0 for I
I
II
2+
(a) [Cr(H2 O)6] and [Cr(H2 O)6 ]3+
(b) [Fe(H2 O)6]3+ and [Fe(CN)6 ]3
(c) [Fe(CN)6]3 and [Ru(CN)6 ]3
(d) [NiF 6]4 and [NiF6]2
(1) a,b,c
(2) b,c,d (3) a,b,c,d (4) c,d

Br 2
KOH

74.

(2) KCl + K2Cr2O7 + conc. H2SO4

Select the incorrect statement


(1) [Ni(en)3]2+ is less stable than [NiCl 6]4

Cl2 xSl fHkUu vfHkf;k }kjk izkIr gksrh gSA fdl ,d NksM+dj
(1) KMnO4 + conc. HCl

(2) KCl + K2Cr2O7 + conc. H2SO4


(3) MnO2 + conc. HCl

70.

B rFkk C gaS
(1) lajpukRed leko;oh (2) letkr
(3) leku
(4) f=foe leko;oh
lw p h-I dk lw p h-II dk feyku djsaA
lw p h-I
lw p h-II
(a) okWu vkWdZsy fof/k
(1) VkbVsfu;e
(b) lksYos ize

(2)

(c) [kiZj.k

(3)

(d) ikWfyax

(4)

dks M %

dk 'kqfdj.k

Na 2 CO 3

dk fuekZ.k
dkWij dk
'kqfdj.k
flYoj dk
'kqfdj.k

(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 4

(4) 3

H-17/39

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/27-06-2015


75.

76.

Select the incorrect statement


(1) When NH3 mixed with mercurous chloride in
basic medium than black ppt is obtained
(2) Zn+2 does not produce precipitate with exces
of NaOH
(3) All halide ions (except F) are identified by
AgNO3(aq) solution
(4) on heating pair of (NH4)2Cr2O7 and NH4NO3
produced same gas
Which of the following is incorrect :CHO
|
HNO
(1) CH(OH)

4
|
CH2OH
3

75.

76.

lgh dFku dk p;u djsaA


(1) tc veksfu;k dks eD;wjl DyksjkbM ds lkFk {kkjh;
ek;e esa fefJr fd;k tkrk gS rks dkyk vo{ksi izkIr
gksrk gAS
(2) Zn+2 NaOH vkf/kD; ds lkFk vo{ksi ugha nsrk gAS
(3) lHkh gSykbM vk;u (F dks NksM+ dj) dk ijh{k.k
AgNO3 (aq) foy;u ds }kjk fd;k tkrk gAS
(4) xeZ djus ij (NH4)Cr2O7 rFkk NH4NO3 dk ;qXe
leku xl
S nsrk gAS
fuEu esa ls dkuS lk lgh ugha gS :CHO
|
HNO
(1) CH(OH)

4
|
CH2OH

COOH
|
CH(OH)4
|
COOH

CH2OH
COOH
|
|
C=O
C=O
Br |H O
(2) |

|
(CHOH)3
(CHOH)3
|
|
CH2OH
CH2OH

CH2OH
COOH
|
|
C=O
C=O
Br |H O
(2) |

|
(CHOH)3
(CHOH)3
|
|
CH2OH
CH2OH

CH=O
|
alkaline
D-glucose + D-Fructose
(3) (CHOH)
4 medium
|
+ D-Mannose
CH2OH

CH=O
|
alkaline
D-glucose + D-Fructose
(3) (CHOH)
4 medium
|
+ D-Mannose
CH2OH

(D-Glucose)

CHO

(4)
77.

78.

COOH
|
CH(OH)4
|
COOH

(CHOH)4

(D-Glucose)

Br2/H2O

CH2OH

COOH

CHO

(CHOH)4

(CHOH)4

(4)

CH2OH

Number of moles of KMnO4 that is needed to


react with one mole of FeC 2 O 4 in acidic
medium is :-

2
3
4
5
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
5
5
5
3
For a solid with the following structure, the
co-ordination number of the point B is :-

(1) 3

H-18/39

(2) 4

77.

CH2OH

2
5

CH2OH

(2)

3
5

(4) 6

(CHOH)4

(3)

4
5

(4)

5
3

,d Bksl ds fy, fuEufyf[kr lajpuk nh gqbZ gaS A blesa fcUnq


B dh leUo; la[;k gksxh :-

(3) 5

COOH

vEyh; ek/;e esa ,d eksy FeC2O4 ls f;k djus ds fy,


vko';d KMnO4 ds eksyksa dh la[;k gS :(1)

78.

Br2/H2O

(1) 3

(2) 4

(3) 5

(4) 6

Kota/01CM314253

Phase/ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/27-06-2015


79.

80.

81.

If two liquids A and B form maximum boiling


azeotrope at some specific composition then
(1) AB interactions are stronger than those
between AA or BB
(2) Vapour pressure of solution increases
because more number of molecules of
liquids A and B can escape from the
solution
(3) Vapour pressure of solution decreases
because less number of molecules of only
one of the liquids escape from the solution
(4) AB interactions are weaker than those
between AA or BB
Which of the following is/are true
(a) For the same solution, elevation in boiling
point = depression in freezing point.
(b) Vant' Hoff factor for a dilute solution of
BaCl 2 is 3
(c) Elevation in boiling point is due to increase
in vapour pressure.
(d) Depression in freezing point is due to
decrease in vapour pressure.
Correct Code is (1) a, c, d
(2) b, c, d
(3) b, d
(4) a, b, c

1
For the reaction N 2 O5( g ) N 2 O4 ( g ) + O2( g )
2

79.

vU;ksU; vkd"kZ.k ls izcy gksrs gAS


(2) foy;u dk ok"i nkc c<+rk g]S D;ksfa d o A o B ds vfkd

v.kq foy;u ls ckgj fudyrs gAaS


(3) foy;u dk ok"i nkc ?kVrk gS D;ksafd flQZ ,d gh O;

ds de v.kq foy;u ls ckgj fudyrs gAS


(4) AB vU;ksU; vkd"kZ .k] AA ;k BB ds e/;
80.

83.

vU;ksU; vkd"kZ.k dh rqyuk esa nqcZy gksrs gaSA


fuEu esa ls dkuS lk dFku lgh gS &
(a) leku foy;u ds fy, DoFkukad esa mUu;u fgekad esa
voueu
(b) BaCl2 ds ruq foy;u ds fy, okUV gkWQ xq.kkad 3 gA
S
(c) DoFkukad esa mUu;u ok"i nkc esa o`f ds dkj.k gksrk gAS
(d) fgekad esa voueu ok"i nkc esa deh ds dkj.k gksrk gAS

lgh dksM gS

81.

(1) a, c, d

(2) b, c, d

(3) b, d

(4) a, b, c

1
2

vfHkf;k N2O5( g) N2O4( g) + O2( g ) ds fy, izkjfEHkd

initial pressure is 114 mm and after 20 seconds


the pressure of reaction mixture becomes
133 mm. Then the rate of reaction will be

nkc 133 mm gks tkrk gS rks vfHkf;k dk osx gksxk

(1) 1.9 atm s1

(1) 1.9 atm s1

nkc 114 mm gS rFkk 20 sec i'pkr~ vfHkf;k feJ.k dk

(2) 8.75 103 atm s1

(3) 2.5 103 atm s 1 (4) 6.65 atm s1


82.

;fn nks o A rFkk B ,d fof'k"V laxBu ij mPp DoFkukadh


fLFkj DokFkh feJ.k cukrs gS rc :(1) AB vU;ksU; vkd"kZ .k] AA ;k BB ds e/;

DHf for CO2 (g), CO(g) and H2O(g) is 393.5,


110.5 and 241.8 KJ mol 1 respectively.
DH(in KJ) for the reaction.
CO2(g) + H2(g) CO(g) + H2 O(g) is :(1) + 524.1
(2) + 41.2
(3) 262.5
(4) 41.2
For which reaction change of entropy will be
positive :(1) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)

(2) HCl(g) + NH3(g) NH4Cl(s)

(3) NH4 NO3(s) N2 O(g) + 2H2 O(g)

(4) MgO(s) + H2(g) Mg(s) + H2 O(l)

Kota/01CM314253

(2) 8.75 103 atm s1

(3) 2.5 103 atm s 1 (4) 6.65 atm s1


82.

CO2(g), CO(g) rFkk H2O(g) ds fy, DHfe'k%


393.5, 110.5 rFkk 241.8 KJ mol1 gaSA
vfHkf;k CO2(g) + H2(g) CO(g) + H2O(g)
ds fy, DH(KJ esa) gAS
(1) + 524.1
(2) + 41.2
(3) 262.5
(4) 41.2

83.

fdlh vfHkf;k ds fy;s ,UV kW i h ifjorZ u /kukRed


gksxk :(1) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)

(2) HCl(g) + NH3(g) NH4Cl(s)

(3) NH4 NO3(s) N2 O(g) + 2H2 O(g)

(4) MgO(s) + H2(g) Mg(s) + H2 O(l)

H-19/39

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/27-06-2015


84.

84.

Veronal is an example of :-

osjksusy fuEu dk mnkgj.k g&S

(1) Antaacid

(2) Tranquilizer

(1) izfrvEy

(2) iz'kkard

(3) Antiboitic

(4) Analgesic

(3) izfrtfS od

(4) nnZ fuokjd

CCl4/AlCl3

85.

CCl4/AlCl3

85.

(excess)

Major product is

eq[; mRikn gS

Ph

(1) Ph

Ph
Ph

Ph

(3) Ph3 CH
86.

(2) Ph

88.

89.

90.

Ph

Ph

Which of the following is most basic?


(2) C6H5

(3) C 6 H5 CH2 NH 2

(4) NH3

86.

Ph
Ph

87.

(2) Ph

Cl
Ph

(4) PhCl (4 moles)

fuEu esa ls dkSu lokZf/kd {kkjh; g\


S
NH2

..
C NH2

A 100.0 mL dilute solution of Ag + is


electrolyzed for 15.0 minutes with a current of
1.25 mA and the silver is removed completely.
What will be the initial concentration of Ag+.
(1) 2.32 101
(2) 2.32 104
(3) 2.32 103
(4) 1.16 104
In electrophoresis the colloidal particles of
starch
(1) moves towards anode
(2) moves towards cathode
(3) (1) and (2) both
(4) None of these
0.5 g of an organic compound containing
nitrogen on Kjeldahl analysis required 29 mL
of 0.2 N H2SO4 for complete neutralisation of
NH 3 . The percentage of nitrogen in the
compound is
(1) 34.3
(2) 16.2
(3) 21.6
(4) 14.8
The dissociation constant of CH 3 COOH is
1.69 105. Then the degree of dissociation of
0.01 M CH3COOH in presence of 0.01 M HCl
is
(1) 0.41
(2) 0.13
2
(3) 0.169 10
(4) 0.013

Ph

(3) Ph3 CH

(1) H2N C NH

H-20/39

(1) Ph

Cl

(4) PhCl (4 moles)

NH2

87.

(excess)

..

(1) H2N C NH

(2) C6H5 C NH2

(3) C 6 H5 CH2 NH 2

(4) NH3

1.25 mA /kkjk 15 feuV rd izokfgr djus ij Ag+ ds


100.0 mL foy;u esa ls leLr flYoj fu{ksfir gks tkrk

g]S rks Ag+ dh izkjfEHkd lkanzrk D;k gksxh\

88.

89.

(1) 2.32 101

(2) 2.32 104

(3) 2.32 103

(4) 1.16 104

fo|qr d.k lapj.k esa LVkpZ ds dksykWbMh d.k


(1) ,uksM dh vksj xfr djrs gAS
(2) dSFkksM dh vksj xfr djrs gaS
(3) (1) rFkk (2) nksuksa
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
ukbVkstu ;qDr dkcZfud ;kSfxd ds 0.5 g dk fo'ys"k.k
tsYMkWy fof/k ls djus ij mRiUu veksfu;k dks iw.kZ mnklhu
djus ds fy, 29 mL 0.2 N H2SO4 dh vko';drk
gksrh gAS ;kSfxd esa ukbVkstu dh izfr'krrk gS
(1) 34.3

90.

(2) 16.2

(3) 21.6
(4) 14.8
CH3COOH ds fy, fo;kstu fLFkjkad 1.69 105 gS

rks 0.01 M HCl dh mifLFkfr esa] 0.01 M CH3COOH


ds fo;kstu dh ek=k gS
(1) 0.41

(2) 0.13

(3) 0.169 10 2

(4) 0.013

Kota/01CM314253

Phase/ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/27-06-2015


91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

Transverse section of a plant material show the


following anatomical characters.
(a) Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous.
(b) Vascular bundles are conjoint, closed and
scattered in the ground tissue.
(c) Phloem parenchyma is absent.
On the basis of above observation the material
concludes as :(1) Monocot stem
(2) Dicot stem
(3) Monocot root
(4) Dicot root
Excessive arenchyma tissue in the plants is mainly
an adaptation for
(1) Xerophytic plant
(2) Hydrophytic plant
(3) Epiphytic plant
(4) Mesophytic plant
Chimeric DNA is :(1) Recombinant DNA
(2) Inactive DNA
(3) DNA with two ori sites
(4) DNA with no ori site
In PBR322 which of the following selectable marker
gene is/are present :(1) TetR
(2) AmpR
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) b-glactoside permease
Read the following statements carefully and select
the correct option :(A) Source of the restriction enzyme Hind III is
Haemophilus influenzae.
(B) In biolistic method of gene transfer,
microparticles made up of gold or tungsten are
coated with foreign DNA
(C) Micro-injection method for injecting
recombinant DNA is used for animal cell
(D) Primers are chemically synthesized
oligonucleotides that are complementary to
the regions of DNA in PCR
How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) Four
(2) Three (3) Two
(4) One
Chloroplast, chromoplast and leucoplast are
variable forms of plastids. Such classification of
plastids is based on :(A) Type of DNA
(B) Type of RNA
(C) Type of pigments (D) Stored nutrients
Options :(1) A, B, C
(2) B, C, D
(3) A, C
(4) Only C

Kota/01CM314253

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

ikni Hkkx ds vuqLFk dkV esa fuEu 'kkjhfjdh; y{k.k nf'kZr


gksrs gAS
(a) gkbiksMfeZl LFkwydks.kkskd dh cuh gqbZ
(b) laogu iwy la;qDr] can rFkk Hkj.k kd esa fc[kjs
gq,
(c) yks,e e`nqkd vuq ifLFkr
mijksDr y{k.kksa ds vk/kkj ij fn;k x;k ikni dk Hkkx
gaS :(1) ,dchti=h ruk
(2) f}chti=h ruk
(3) ,dchti=h tM+
(4) f}chti=h tM+
vR;f/kd arenchyma dk Su ls ikni dk vuq d w y u
gAS
(1) e:LFkyh; ikni
(2) tyh; ikni
(3) vf/kikni
(4) leikni
dkbesjhd Mh ,u , gS :(1) fjdkWEchus aV Mh ,u ,
(2) fu"h; Mh ,u ,
(3) Mh ,u , ftlesa nks ori sites gks
(4) Mh ,u , ftlesa ori site vuqifLFkr gks
PBR322 esa dkSu lk LysDVscy ekdZj thu mifLFkr gksrk
gS :(1) VsVk lkbfDyuR gene
(2) ,EihflyhuR gene
(3) nksuksa (1) rFkk (2)
(4) b-XySDVkslkbM ijfe;st
fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks /;kuiwoZd i<+s rFkk lgh fodYi
dks pqus :(A) fjLVhDlu ,Utkbe Hind III dk ksr fgeksQhyl
,uyq,Utk gAS
(B) thu VkalQj esa ck;ksfyfLVd rjhds esa DNA VkalQj
ds fy, iz;qDr lw{ed.k xksYM vkjS VaxLVu dk cus
gksrs gaAS
(C) iqu;ksZth DNA dks izos'k djkus ds fy, ekbksbatsDlu
rjhdk tUrq dksf'kdk ds fy, iz;qDr gksrk gAS
(D) izkbej ,d la'ysf"kr jklk;fud vkSfyxksU;wfDyvksVkbM
gSa tks PCR esa DNA {ks=ksa ds iwjd gksrs gaSA
mijksDr esa fdrus dFku lR; gS ?
(1) pkj
(2) rhu
(3) nks
(4) ,d
DyksjksIykLV] kseksIykLV ,oa Y;wdksIykLV yodksa ds fofHkUu
:i gSaA yodksa dk ,slk oxhZdj.k vk/kkfjr gaS :(A) DNA ds izdkj ij
(B) RNA ds izdkj ij
(C) o.kZdksa ds izdkj ij
(D) lafpr [kk| inkFkZ ij
fodYi :(1) A, B, C

(2) B, C, D

(3) A, C

(4) dsoy C

H-21/39

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/27-06-2015


97.

Majority of the chloroplasts of green plants are


found in :(1) Petals of the flower
(2) Mesophyll cells of the leaves
(3) Guard cells of stomata
(4) Bulliform cells of leaves
98. Which of the following cellular structures are not
surrounded by any membrane ?
(1) Mitochondria, Chloroplast, Nucleus
(2) Lysosome, Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi body
(3) Ribosome, Basal body, Centriole
(4) Ribosome, Lysosome, Peroxisome
99. Arrangement of axonemal microtubules as 9 + 2
array is found in :(1) Microbody
(2) Centriole
(3) Ribosome
(4) Cilia
100. Glyoxylate cycle takes place in :(1) Peroxisome, Lysosomes, Glyoxysomes
(2) Peroxisomes, Mitochondria, chloroplast
(3) Sphaerosomes
(4) Glyoxysomes
101. Find out the correct match from the following table:-

(i)

gjs ik/S kksa ds vf/kdrj gfjryod ik;s tkrs gSa :(1) iq"i ds nyiqat esa
(2) ifk;ksa dh i.kZe/;ksrd dksf'kdkvksa esa
(3) ja/kz ds }kj dksf'kdkvksa esa
(4) ifk;ksa dh vko/kZRod dksf'kdkvksa esa
98. fuEufyf[kr dksf'kddh; lajpukvksa esa ls dkSu ls fdlh Hkh
f>Yyh ls f?kjs ugha jgrs ?
(1) lw=df.kdk] gfjryod] dsUnzd
(2) y;udk;] varnzZO;h tkfydk] xWkYthdk;
(3) jkbckslkse] vk/kkjdk;] rkjddsUnz
(4) jkbckslkse] y;udk;] ijvkWDlhlkse
99. v{klw= dh lw{eufydkvksa dh O;oLFkk, 9 + 2 iz.kkyh ikbZ
tkrh gaS :(1) ekbksckMh
(2) rkjddsUnz
(3) jkbckslkse
(4) i{ekHk
100. XykbvkWDlhysV p lEiUu gksrk gaS :(1) ijvkWDlhlkse] ykblkslkse] XykbvkWDlhlkse
(2) ijvkWDlhlkse] lw=df.kdk] gfjryod
(3) LQhjkslkse
(4) XykbvkWDlhlkse
101. uhps nh xbZ rkfydk esa ls lgh lqefs yr fodYiksa dks igpkfu;s:97.

dkWy e - I

dkWye - II

dkWye - III

80s jkbckslkse

rsy o olk dk
Hk.Mkj.k

Column - I

Column - II

Column - III

Elaioplasts

80s
Ribosomes

Store oil and


fats

(i)

Actual site of
attachment of
spindle fibres

(ii) dkbusVksdksj fMLduqek] izksVhu rdqZrarqvksa ds

(ii) Kinetochores Discoid,


Proteinaceous

Structure
(iii) Axoneme

Possesses
Microfilament
only

Form internal
structure of
cilia and
flagella

(iv) Nuclear pore Nucleoplasmin Bidirectional


movement of
complex
protein is
RNA and
present
proteins

(1) i, ii, iii, iv


(2) ii, iii, iv
(3) i, ii, iii
(4) ii, iv
102. The chromosome in which centromere is situated
close to its end forming one extremely short and
one very long arm :(1) Acrocentric

(2) Submetacentric

(3) Telocentric

(4) Metacentric

H-22/39

rsy yod

;qDr lajpuk

layXu gksus ds
okLrfod LFky

(iii) v{klw=

dsoy lw{erarqvksa i{ekHk o


dk cuk gqvk
d'kkfHkdk dh
vkarfjd lajpuk
dk fuekZ.k

(iv) U;wfDyvj

U;wfDy;ksIykfTeu vkj- ,u- ,- o


izksVhu f}fnf'kd
izksVhu mifLFkr
xfr djrs gaS
gksrk gS

iksj
dkWeIysDl

(1) i, ii, iii, iv


(3) i, ii, iii

(2) ii, iii, iv


(4) ii, iv

102. xq.klw= ftlesa xq.klw=fcanq fcYdqy fdukjs ij feyrk gS ftlls


,d Hkqtk vR;ar NksVh o ,d Hkqtk cgqr cM+h gksrh gaS :(1) ,sks&lsfUVd (vxzfcanq)
(2) lc&esVklsfUVd (mie/;dsUnzh)
(3) Vhyks&lsfUVd (vardsUnzh)
(4) esVk&lsfUVd (e/;dsUnzh)

Kota/01CM314253

Phase/ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/27-06-2015


103. Select the correct statement about biodiversity.
(1) The desert area at Rajasthan and Gujarat have
a very high level of desert animal-species as
well as numerous rare animals
(2) Large scale planting at BT cotton has no
adverse effect on biodiversity
(3) Western ghats have a very high degree of
species richness and endemism
(4) Conservation of biodiversity is just a food
conserving process by developed country
104. Keystone species deserve protection because they
(1) are capable in surviving in harsh
environmental condition
(2) indicate presence of certain minerals in the
soil
(3) have become rare due to overexploitation
(4) play an important role in surviving other
species
105. In your opinion, which is the most effective way
to conserve the plant diversity of an area ?
(1) By tissue culture method
(2) By creating biosphere reserve
(3) By creating botanical garden
(4) By developing seed bank
106. The organism inhabiting a common environment
belongs to the same
(1) Species
(2) Genus
(3) Population
(4) Community
107. Usually in an ecosystem, the populations of :(1) Primary producers are larger than primary
consumers
(2) Secondary consumers are largest
(3) Primary producer are less than primary
consumers
(4) Primary consumers are least dependent on
primary producers
108. Maximum stratification is found in :(1) Tundra
(2) Tropical rain forest
(3) Deciduous forest
(4) Desert
109. Vegetation dominated by broad leaved evergreen
shrubs in mediterranean area is called as :(1) Chapparel
(2) Savannah
(3) Lianas
(4) Tundra

Kota/01CM314253

103. to
S fofo/krk ds lanHkZ esa lgh mkj pquas
(1) jktLFkku rFkk xqtjkr ds e:LFkyksa esa cgqr T;knk la[;k

esa jsfxLrkuh tarq ik;s tkrs gaS rFkk cgqr la[;k esa nqyZHk
tarq Hkh feyrs gaS
(2) cgqr T;knk BT dkWVu Hkwfe esa yxkuk okrkoj.k rFkk
toS fofo/krk ij dksbZ nq'izHkko ugha fn[krk
(3) if'peh ?kkV ij tkrh; le`f cgqr vf/kd ,oa mPp
LFkkfudrk ikbZ tkrh gaAS
(4) fodflr ns'kksa ds }kjk to
S fofo/krk laj{k.k dsoy Hkkstu
laj{k.k dh ,d izf;k gaAS
104. daqft f'kyk tkfr;ksa dks laj{k.k dh t:jr gS D;ksafd os
(1) izfrdwy okrkoj.k esa thou ;kiu esa l{ke gaS
(2) Hkw f e es a dq N [kfut ds mifLFkfr ds la d s r ns r s
gS a
(3) T;knk f'kdkj dh otg ls la [;k esa deh gks x;h
gS A
(4) nw l jh tkfr;ks a dh thou ;kiu es a enn djrs
gS
105. vkids fopkj ls fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk mik; fdlh LFkku
dh ikni fofo/krk dks cpkus dk loksZke rjhdk gS ?
(1) mkd lao/kZu fof/k
(2) ck;ksLQs;j fjtoZ
(3) ouLifrd m|ku
(4) cht cSad dk fodkl
106. tho tks ,d gh okrkoj.k esa jgrs gSa] dgykrs gaS
(1) tkfr

(2) oa'k

(3) tula[;k

(4) leq nk;

107. fdlh ikfjra= esa :(1) izkFkfed mRiknd dh la[;k izkFkfed miHkksDrk ls T;knk

gksrh gS
(2) f}rh;d miHkksDrk lcls T;knk gksrs gS
(3) izkFkfed mRiknd dh la[;k izkFkfed miHkksDrk ls de
gksrh gAS
(4) izkFkfed miHkksDrk izkFkfed mRiknd ij de fuHkZj gksrs
gS
108. lokZf/kd Lrjhdj.k ik;k tkrk gaS :(1) Vq.Mk esa
(2) m".kdVhca/kh; o"kkZ ou esa
(3) ir>M+ ou esa
(4) jsfxLrku esa
109. Hkwe/; {ks= esa tks ouLifr vf/kdrk esa ik;h tkrh gS dgykrh
gS :(1) psisjy
(2) lokuk
(3) dk"B yrk,a
(4) Vq.Mk
H-23/39

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/27-06-2015


110. Secondary plant succession can occur after/on :(1) Newly exposed sea floor
(2) Forest fire
(3) Bare rock
(4) Sand dunes
111. The great barrier reef along the east coast of
Australia can be categorized as :(1) Population
(2) Community
(3) Ecosystem
(4) Biome
112. An ecological pyramid of biomass is the
representation of the ecosytem's :(1) Energy flow through each trophic level
(2) Population in each food web
(3) Tissue organisation at each trophic level
(4) All of these
113. Select the correct matching set among the
following given table :I (Microbes)

II (use/product)

(A)

Saccharomyces
cerevisiae

Clot buster

(B)

Trichoderma
polysporum

Cyclosporin-A

(C)

Monascus
purpureus

Statins

(D)

Streptococcus

Ethanol

(1) A, B & C
(2) A, C & D
(3) A, B & D
(4) B & C
114. Penicillin antibiotic is most effective against the
bacteria which belongs to :(1) BGA
(2) E.coli
(3) Actinomycetes
(4) Halophiles
115. Read the following statements (A-D):(A) DNA is a acidic substance
(B) The two chains of DNA have antiparallel
polarity
(C) 5-Methyl uracil is another chemical name of
thymine
(D) The two chains of B-DNA are coiled in a right
handed fashion
How many of the above statements are correct
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

H-24/39

110. f}rh;d ikni vuqe.k ik;k tkrk gS :(1) u;s cus leq ry ij
(2) taxy dh vkx ds ckn
(3) [kkyh pV~Vku ij
(4) jsr ds Vhys ij
111. vkWLVfs y;k ds iwohZ rV ij ewxs dh pV~Vku dgyk;sxh :(1) tula[;k

(2) leq nk;

(3) ifjfLFkfrdh

(4) ck;kse

112. fdlh tSoHkkj dk ifjfLFkfrdh fijkfeM n'kkZrk gS :(1) gj ,d iks"k.k Lrj ij tkZ dk LFkkukarj.k
(2) R;sd [kk| tky esa tula[;k dks
(3) R;sd iks"k.k Lrj ij mkd la?kVu dks
(4) mijksDr lHkh
113. fuEufyf[kr Vscy esa lgh feyku okys ;qXeksa dks pqusa :I (lw{ethoh)

II (mi;ksx@mRikn)

(A)

lSdjksekblht
lSjhfclh

FkDdk LQksVd

(B)

VkbdksM ekZ
ikSyhLiksje

lkbDyksLiksfju-A

(C)

eksuksLdl
ijI;wjhvl

LVfS Vu

(D)

LVsIVksdksdl

bFksukWy

(1) A, B o C
(3) A, B o D

(2) A, C o D
(4) B o C

114. isfulhyhu ,afVck;ksfVd fdl thok.kq ds fo: lokZf/kd


izHkko'kkyh gaS :(1) uhys gjs 'kSoky
(2) bZ-dksykbZ
(3) ,DVhuksekblhVht
(4) gy
S ksQkby
115. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks i<h;s (A-D):(A) DNA ,d vEyh; inkFkZ gAS
(B) DNA dh nks Ja[kykvks esa izfrlekukUrj /kwzork gksrh

gS

(C) 5-feFkkby ;qjklhy] Fkkbehu dk gh nwljk jklk;fud

uke gAS

(D) B-DNA dh nksuks Ja[kyk,s nf{k.kkorhZ #i esa daqMyhr

gksrh gAS
mijksDr dFkuks esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gAS
(1) 4

(2) 3

(3) 2

(4) 1

Kota/01CM314253

Phase/ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/27-06-2015


116. Which of the following statement is incorrect :(1) During DNA-replication, deoxyribonucleotide
triphosphate serve dual purposes
(2) DNA-dependent-DNA polymerase catalyse the
polymerisation only in one direction i.e. 5'-3'
(3) A failure, in cell division after DNA replication
results into polyploidy
(4) In DNA of E.Coli only 4.6 10 6 bp are
present
117. Read the following five statements (A-E) and
answer as asked next to them :(A) In pea plant tendril develops from axillary
buds.
(B) In Bougainvillea axillary buds are modified
into thorns.
(C) Stipules are lateral outgrowth of leaf base.
(D) The mode of arrangement of only sepal in a
floral bud is called aestivation.
(E) In a recemose inflorescence the main axis
does not terminates in a flower.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) Four

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

118. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct


answer using the codes given below the lists :List-I
(Family)

List-II
(Character)

116. fuEu esa dkSuls dFku lgh ugh gS:(1) DNA-izd`R;u ds nkjS ku MhvkWDlh jkbcksU;wfDy;ksVkbM

VkbQkWLQsV nksgjk dk;Z djrs gS


(2) DNA-fuHkZj-DNA iksyhejst] cgqyhdj.k dsoy ,dy
fn'kk 5'-3' esa dj ldrk gS
(3) DNA izfrfr ds i'pkr~ dksf'kdk foHkktu ugha gksus
ij cgqxqf.krk mRiUu gks tkrh gS
(4) E.Coli ds DNA esa 4.6 106bp {kkj ;qXe mifLFkr
gksrs gAS
117. uhps fn;s x;s ikap dFkuks (A-E) dks if<+,s vkSj tl
S k muds
vkxs iwNk x;k g]S mkj nhft;sA
(A) eVj ds ikS ks esa rku d{kLFk dfydk ls mRiUu gksrk
gSA
(B) cksxsufofy;k esa d{kLFk dfydk daVd esa :ikUrfjr
gks tkrh gAS
(C) vuqi.kZ i.kkZkkj dh ik'oZ vfro`f gAS
(D) iq"i dfydk esa dsoy ckg~; ny dh O;oLFkk dks iq"iny
foU;kl dgrs gAS
(E) vlhek{kh iq"ie esa eq[; v{k iq"i esa lekIr ugha
gksrh gAS
mijksDr dFkuks esa ls fdrus lgh g\
S
(1) pkj
(2) ,d
(3) nks
(4) rhu
118. lwph-I rFkk lwph-II dks lqefs yr dhft;s rFkk lwfp;kas ds
uhps fn;s x;s dwVksa dk mi;ksx djrs gq, lgh mkj dk p;u
dhft;s:-

lwph-I (dqy)

lwph-II (y{k.k)

A Brassicaceae

Epipetalous
stamens

z hdslh
A csl

nyyXu iqadslj

B Asteraceae

ii

Spike of
spikelets
inflorescence

s h
B ,sLVl

ii

Likbfddk dk
Likbd iq"ie

C Poaceae

iii

Tetradynamous
stamens

C iks,lh

iii prqnh?khZ iqadslj

D Solanaceae

iv

Syngenesious
stamens

s h
D lksyus l

iv ;qDrdks'kh iqadslj

(1) A-i, B-ii

C-iii D-iv

(1) A-i, B-ii

C-iii D-iv

(2) A-ii, B-i

C-iv D-iii

(2) A-ii, B-i

C-iv D-iii

(3) A-iii, B-iv C-ii D-i

(3) A-iii, B-iv C-ii D-i

(4) A-iv, B-iii C-i

(4) A-iv, B-iii C-i

Kota/01CM314253

D-ii

D-ii

H-25/39

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/27-06-2015


119. Match of the following Column-I and
Column-II and choose correct option :Column-I

119. fuEufyf[kr LrEHk-I rFkk LrEHk-II dk feyku dhft;s rFkk


lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft;s A:-

Column-II

Column-I

Column-II

Pinnately
compound leaf

Venus-fly
trap

A fiPNkdkj la;qDr i.kZ

ohul ykbZ Vsi

Palmately
compound leaf

ii

Banyan

B gLrkdkj la;qDr i.kZ

ii

cjxn

C Simple leaf

iii

Neem

C ljy i.kZ

iii

uhe

D Modified leaves

iv

Silk cotton

D :ikUrfjr i.kZ

iv

flYd dkWVu

(1) iv

iii

ii

(1) iv

iii

ii

(2) ii

iii

iv

(2) ii

iii

iv

(3) iii

ii

iv

(3) iii

ii

iv

(4) iii

iv

ii

(4) iii

iv

ii

120. In cymose inflorescence the main axis :-

120. llhek{kh iq"ie esa eq[; v{k :-

(1) has unlimited growth

(1) vlhfer o`f gksrh gAS

(2) bear a solitary flower

(2) ,dy iq"i j[krh gAS

(3) has unlimited growth but lateral branches end


in flower

(3) vlhfer o`f gksrh gAS ijUrq ik'oZ 'kk[kk;sa ds fljs ij

(4) terminate in a flower


121. Which of the following is / are not correctly
match?

iq"i yxrs gaAS


(4) iq" i esa lekIr gksrh gAS
121. fuEu esa ls dkSulk lqefs yr ugha gS ?

Genus

Family

(i)

Common
Name
Man

Homo

Hominidae

(ii)

(ii)

Housefly

Musa

Muscidae

(iii)

(iii)

Mango

Mangifera

Anacardiaceae

(iv)

Wheat

Poaceae

(iv)

Triticum

(i)

(1) i & ii

(2) only i

(3) only ii

(4) iii & iv

122. ICZN stands for ?


(1) International
Nomenclature

Code

of

Zoological

lkekU; uke
ekuo
?kjsyw eD[kh
vke
xsgw

oa'k
gkseks
E;wlk
est
a hQsjk
fVfVde

dqy
gkseksfuMh
E;wlhMh
,ukdkjfM,lh
iks ,lh

(1) i o ii

(2) dsoy i

(3) dsoy ii

(4) iii o iv

122. ICZN dk rkRi;Z gS ?


(1) International
Nomenclature

Code

of

Zoological

(2) Intergovernmental Committee for Zoological


Naming

(2) Intergovernmental Committee for Zoological


Naming

(3) International Council of Zoological


Nomenclature

(3) International Council of Zoological


Nomenclature

(4) Indian Code of Zoological Names

(4) Indian Code of Zoological Names

H-26/39

Kota/01CM314253

Phase/ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/27-06-2015


123. Which of the following is an obligate saprotroph?
(1) Staphylococcus
(2) Pseudomonas
(3) Nitrobacter
(4) Clostridium botulinum
124. The two kingdom classification was proposed by:(1) Carolus Linnaeus
(2) Haeckel
(3) R.H. Whittaker
(4) Copeland
125. How many of the following terms are not related
with Mango ?
Mangifera, Anacardiaceae, Poales, Dicotyledonae,
Angiospermae, Monocotyledonae
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
126. How many plants belongs to pteridophyta:Selaginella, Isoetes, Cycas, Funaria, Azolla,
Pteridium
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) All
127. Alternaria solani belongs to :(1) Ascomycetes
(2) Basidiomycetes
(3) Deuteromycetes
(4) Oomycetes
128. In this given diagram match the following :

123. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk ,d vfodYih e`rksithoh gAS


(1) LVsQk;yksdksdl
(2) L;wMkseksukl
(3) ukbVkscDs Vj
(4) DyksLVhfM;e ckWV;wfyue
124. nks txr oxhZdj.k fuEu esa ls fdlus Lrqr fd;k Fkk ?
(1) dsjksyl fyfu;l
(2) gd
S y
s
(3) vkj-,p- fOgVsdj
(4) dksiys.M
125. fuEu esa ls fdrus 'kCn vke ds oxhZdj.k ls lacf/kr ugha

gS\
esa t hQs j k] ,ukdkfMZ , lh ] iks ,Yl] MkbdkW V kbfyMuh ]
,aft;ksLiehZ] eksuksdksVkbfyMuh
(1) ,d
(2) nks
(3) rhu
(4) pkj
126. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdrus ik/S ks VsfjMksQkbVk ls lEcfU/kr g:S flySftusy k, vkblksbVl, lkbdl, ;wu sf j;k, ,tks yk ,
VsfjfM;e
(1) 3
(3) 5

(2) 4
(4) lHkh
lEcfU/kr gaS :-

vyVjusfj;k lksysukbZ
(1) ,ldksekblhVhl ls
(2) csflfM;ksekblhVhl
(3) M~;wfVjksekblhVhl lsa
(4) ekblhVht ls
128. uhps fn;s x;s fp= esa fuEu dk feyku dhft;s :

127.

B
+

NADP + 2H

H+
A

NADPH + H

ATP

A
B
C
D
(1) PSI
PSII
ETS
F1
(2) PSII
ETS
PSI
F0
(3) PSI
ETS
PSI
F1
(4) PSII
PSI
ETS
F0
129. Which of the following is not required for ATP
synthesis through chemiosmotic hypothesis ?
(1) Permeable membrane
(2) Proton pump
(3) H+ impermeable membrane
(4) ATPase/ATP synthase

Kota/01CM314253

NADPH + H

Lumen
Thylakoid
membrane

D
ADP + ip

NADP + 2H

H+

Lumen
Thylakoid
membrane

D
ADP + ip

A
PSI
PSII
PSI
PSII

ATP

B
PSII
ETS
ETS
PSI

C
D
(1)
ETS
F1
(2)
PSI
F0
(3)
PSI
F1
(4)
ETS
F0
129. jlksijklj.kh; ifjdYiuk }kjk ATP la'ys"k.k ds fy, fuEu
esa ls fdldh vko';drk ugha gksrh gS ?
(1) ikjxE; f>Yyh
(2) izkVs kWu iEi
(3) H+ vikjxE; f>Yyh
(4) ATPase/ATP synthase

H-27/39

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/27-06-2015


130. How many ATP molecules are produced after
complete oxidation of one molecule of fructose
in plants :(1) 2 ATP
(2) 2 ATP + 2 NADH2
(3) 36 ATP
(4) 36 ATP + 2NADH2
131. Enzymes catalyse the biochemical reaction by
(1) Increasing the activation energy
(2) Decreasing the activation energy
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) First increase then decrease activaion energy
132. In root nodules of legumes, Leg-haemoglobin is
important because :
(1) It transfers oxygen to root nodules
(2) It acts as oxygen scavanger
(3) It provides energy for N2 fixation
(4) It acts as a catalyst and helps in nodule
differentiation
133. Function of abscisic acid is :(1) Apical dominance (2) Growth inhibition
(3) Cell division
(4) Seed germination
134. Identity the pair that does not match :(1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 2 : 2 : 2 : 2 : 4
- Dihybrid genotypic ratio
(2) Inheritance of ABO blood group - Multiple
allele
(3) One gene supress the effect of another pair
- Epistasis
(4) Incomplete dominance - Flower colour in
garden pea
135. Genes which are located on same chromosome
exhibit independent assortment like results when
(1) Crossing over is totally absent between them
(2) > 50% recombination freqency between them
(3) 50% recombination frequency between genes
(4) < 50% recombination frequency between genes
136. When red flowered plants of snapdragon are
crossed with pink flowered plants the progenies
are obtained in which ratio ?
(1) 1 red : 2 pink : 1 white
(2) 1 red : 1 white
(3) 1 red : 1 pink
(4) All pink
137. In a population of 8000 persons, the frequency of
dominant allele is 0.6. How many people in this
population are showing dominant phenotype ?
(1) 1680
(2) 3640
(3) 6720
(4) 10000

H-28/39

130. Fructose ds ,d v.kq ds iw.kZ vkDlhdj.k ls ikniksa esa fdrus


ATP ds v.kq curs gS :
(1) 2 ATP

(2) 2 ATP + 2 NADH2

(3) 36 ATP

(4) 36 ATP + 2NADH2

131. og thojlk;u vfHkf;k ftlesa enzymes dk;Z djrs g]S mlesa


(1) lf;.k mGtkZ c<+k nsrs gS
(2) lf;.k mGtkZ de dj nsrs gS
(3) (1) o (2) nksuksa
(4) igys lf;.k mGtkZ c<+krs gS rFkk ckn esa de djrs gS
132. Legumes ds tM+ xzfUFkdk esa Leg-haemoglobin t:jh
ga]S D;ksafd :
(1) ;g tM+ esa O2 dk LFkkukUrj.k djrk gS
(2) ;g vkWDlhtu viektZd dh Hkkfr dk;Z djrk gS
(3) ;g N2 fLFkjhdj.k ds fy, mGtkZ iznku djrk gS
(4) ;g mRizsjd dh rjg dk;Z djrk gS rFkk xzfUFkdk foHksnu

esa lgk;d gS
133. ,cflfld vEy dk dk;Z gS :(1) 'kh"kZ izHkkfork
(2) o`f laneu
(3) dksf'kdk foHkktu
(4) cht vadqj.k
134. xyr tksM+kas dks igpkus &
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 2 : 2 : 2 : 2 : 4
- f}ladj dk thuizk:i vuqikr

(2) ABO jDr lewg & cgq;qXefodYih (Multiple allele)


(3) ,d thu nwljs thu ds izHkko dks nck nsrh gAS
- izcyrk (Epistasis)
(4) viw.kZ izHkkfork & m|ku eVj esa Qwy dk jax
135. ,d gh xq.klw= ij mifLFkr thu LorU= viO;wgu ds leku

ifj.kke iznf'kZr djrh gS tc %&


(1) muds e/; kWflax vkWoj vuqifLFkr gksa
(2) 50% ls T;knk iqu%;kstZu vko`fr gksa
(3) thu ds e/; 50% iqu%;kstZu vko`fr gksa
(4) 50% ls de iqu%;kstZu vko`fr gksa
136. tc LuSiMSxu ds yky iq"i oys ik/S kksa dks xqykch iq"i okys
ik/S kksa ls kl djk;k tkrk g]S rks larfr;ka fdl vuqikr eas
izkIr gksrh ga\
S
(1) 1 yky : 2 xqykch : 1 lQsn
(2) 1 yky : 1 lQsn
(3) 1 yky : 1 xqykch
(4) lHkh xqykch
137. 8000 yksxksa dh ,d vkcknh esa izHkkoh ;q XefodYih dh
vko`fk 0.6 gAS bl vkcknh esa fdrus yksx izHkkoh y{k.k
iznf'kZr dj jgs gSa ?
(1) 1680
(3) 6720

(2) 3640
(4) 10000

Kota/01CM314253

Phase/ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/27-06-2015


2

138.

138.
1

141.

142.

II
1

140.

II

139.

III

III

Find out the genotype of I (1), (II) 2 and (5) :(1) AA, aa, aa respectively
(2) Aa, Aa, Aa respectively
(3) Aa, aa, AA respectively
(4) aa, AA, Aa respectively
Filiform apparatus is located at the
(1) Tip of microsporangium
(2) Tip of filament
(3) Tip of megasporangium
(4) Tip of megasporophyll
Read the following four statements (A-D)
(A) Inner wall of pollen grain is pecto-cellulosic
in nature.
(B) In pollen grain generative cell is bigger and
contains abundant food reserve
(C) In angiosperms always pollen grain are shed
at 2-celled stage
(D) Usually sporogenous cell directly behaves as
the megaspore mother cell
How many of the above statements are wrong?
(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
One advantage of cleisotgamy is
(1) It lead to greater genetic diversity
(2) Seed dispersal is more efficient and widespread
(3) Seed setting is not dependent on pollinators
(4) Each visit of a pollinator result in transfer of
hundred of pollen grains
Read the following five statements (A-E) and
answer as asked next to them :(A) Pollination by water is more common
amongst abiotic pollinations
(B) Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants
(C) In water hyacinth and waterlily, the flowers
emerge above the level of water and are
pollinated by water
(D) In wind pollinated plants numerous flowers
are packed into an inflorescene
(E) Self incompatibility is an out breeding device
which prevents inbreeding
How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

I dk (1), (II) dk 2 vkjS (5) dk thuksVkbi Kkr djsa :(1) AA, aa, aa e'k%
(2) Aa, Aa, Aa e'k%
(3) Aa, aa, AA e'k%
(4) aa, AA, Aa e'k%

Kota/01CM314253

139. rUrqe; leqPp; fLFkr gksrk gAS


(1) y?kqchtk.kq/kkuh ds 'kh"kZ ij
(2) iqrUrq ds 'kh"kZ ij
(3) xq:chtk.kq/kkuh ds 'kh"kZ ij
(4) xq:chtk.kqi.kZ ds 'kh"kZ ij
140. fuEufyf[kr pkj dFkuks dks (A-D) dks if<+;s
(A) ijkxd.k dh vkUrfjd fHkfk isDVkslsY;wyksfld izfk

dh gksrh gAS

(B) ijkxd.k es tuu dksf'kdk cMh gksrh gAS rFkk blesa

[kk| inkFkZ lxzfgr gksrs gAS


(C) vko`kchth;ks esa ijkxd.k ges'kk 2 dksf'kdh; voLFkk
esa eqDr gksrs gAS
(D) lkekU;r;k chtk.kqtu dksf'kdk izR;{k xq:chtk.kqekr`
dksf'kdk dh rjg O;ogkj djrh gAS
mijksDr dFkuks es fdrus dFku xyr gAS
(1) pkj
(2) ,d
(3) nks
(4) rhu
141. vuqUehY; ijkx.k dk ,d ykHk gS
(1) ;g vkuqokaf 'kd fofo/krk dks c<krk gAS
(2) chtks dk izdh.kZu vR;f/kd n{krk ls rFkk nwj&nwj rd gksrkgAS
(3) cht dk fuekZ.k ijkx.k dkjd ij fuHkZj ugh gksrk gAS
(4) izR;sd vkxeu ij ijkx.k dkjd }kjk ld
S Mkas ijkxd.kksa
dk LFkkukUrj.k
142. uhps fn;s x;s ikap dFkuks (A-E) dks if<;s vkSj tl
S k muds
vkxs iwNk x;k gSA mlds vuqlkj mkj nhft;s :(A) vtfS od ijkx.kksa esa ty }kjk ijkx.k lokZf/kd lkekU; gAS
(B) iq"ih; ikS/kks esa ty }kjk ijkx.k dkQh nqyZHk gAS
(C) okVj k;aflFk (ty dqEHkh) ,oa okVj fyfy ds iq"i
ikuh dh lrg ij gksrs gS rFkk buess ijkx.k ty }kjk
gksrk gSA
(D) ok;q ijkfxr ikS/kks esa ,d iq"ie esa vla[; iq"i xqPN
gksrs gAS
(E) Lo vlkeatL; ,d cfg iztuu ;qfDr gS tks fd vUr%
iztuu dks jksdrh gAS
mijksDr dFkuks esa ls fdrus lgh gS ?
(1) pkj
(2) ,d
(3) nks
(4) rhu
H-29/39

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/27-06-2015


143. Pusa komal is disease resistance variety of ?
(1) Cauliflower
(2) Brassica
(3) Cow Pea
(4) Chilli
144. Nepenthes is a
(1) Primary producer
(2) Consumer
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Top consumer
145. Read the following (A-D) statements :(A) Erythrocyte, leucocytes and platelets are
collectively called formed elements.
(B) Leucocytes or WBCs are the most abundant
of all the cells in blood.
(C) A healthy adult man has on an average,
5 millions to 5.5 millions of RBCs mm3 of
blood.
(D) RBCs are formed in the red bone marrow in
the adults.
How many of the following statements are incorrect
(1) Four
(2) Three (3) Two
(4) One
146. Identify the correct match from the column I, II
and III.
Column-I

Column-II

143. iwlk dksey jksx izfrjks/kh fdLe gAS


(1) QwyxksHkh dk
(2) ljlksa dk
(3) dkih dk
(4) fepZ dk
144. ?kVij.kh gS
(1) izkFkfed mRiknd
(2) miHkksDrk
(3) (1) o (2) nksuksa
(4) mPp miHkksDrk
145. fuEufyf[kr (A-D) dFkuksa dks if<+;s :(A) yky :f/kj df.kdk] 'osrk.kq rFkk iV~fVdk.kq (IysVysVl
~ )

dks la;qDr :i ls laxfBr inkFkZ dgrs gaAS


(B) Y;qdkslkbV (WBCs) vU; lHkh dksf'kdkvksa ls la[;k
esa vf/kd gksrh gAS
(C) ,d LoLFk euq"; esa RBCs yxHkx 5 ls 5.5 fefy;u
fr?ku feeh- gksrh gAS
(D) o;Ld voLFkk esa yky :f/kj df.kdk,a yky vfLFk
eTtk esa curh gAS
mijks esa ls fdrus xyr gS :(1) pkj
(2) rhu
(3) nks
(4) ,d
146. fuEu fn;s x;s dkWye I, II vkjS III dks lgh feyku djds
fodYi dk p;u dhft,A

Column-III

(1)

(a) RBC

(i)

Coagulation

(2)

(b) Platelets

(ii) Transport of
respiratory gas

(3)
(4)

(a) yky :f/kjk.kq (i)

(2)

(b) IysVysV~l

(ii) 'olu xSlks ds

(c) Neutrophil (iii) Resist infection

(3)

(c) U;wVkfs Qy

(iii) lae.k ls cpko

(d) Eosinophil (iv) Phagocytosis

(4)

(d) bvksfluksfQy (iv) Hk{k.k

(1) 1-d-iii 2-b-iv 3-a-ii


4-c-i
(2) 1-d-iii 2-c-iv 3-b-i
4-a-ii
(3) 2-c-iii 1-d-i
3-b-ii
4-a-iv
(4) 2-b-i
1-c-iii 3-d-iv 4-a-ii
147. Which one of the following options gives the
correct categorisation of six bones according to
their position (A, B, C) they give out.
A
Fore Limb

B
Cranium

C
Facial

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

1-d-iii
1-d-iii
2-c-iii
2-b-i

2-b-iv
2-c-iv
1-d-i
1-c-iii

3-a-ii
3-b-i
3-b-ii
3-d-iv

ifjogu

4-c-i
4-a-ii
4-a-iv
4-a-ii

147. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl fodYi esa N% vfLFk;ksa dks muds


vius&vius LFkku (A, B, C) ds vuqlkj lgh&lgh Js.kh

esa j[kk x;k gAS


A

vxz ikn
(1) vYuk] aVy

(1) Ulna, Frontal

Mandible, Nasal, Ethmoid


Carpal

(2) Ulna, Carpal

Frontal

Nasal, Ethmoid,
Mandible

(2) vYuk] dkiZy

(3) Ulna, Carpal

Frontal,
Ethmoid

Mandible,
Nasal

(3) vYuk] dkiZy

(4) Ulna

Carpal,
Frontal

Nasal, Ethmoid,
Mandible

(4) vYuk

H-30/39

Ldanu

(1)

dikyh;
esaMhcy]
dkiZy
aVy
aVy]
,Fkeks;M
dkiZy]
aVy

vkuuh
ul
S y] ,Fkeks;M
ul
S y] ,Fkeks;M]
esaM hcy
esaMhcy] usly
usly] ,Fkeks;M]
esaM hcy
Kota/01CM314253

Phase/ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/27-06-2015


148. If for some reason our goblet cells are nonfunctional, this will adversely affect :(1) Smooth movement of food down the intestine
(2) Production of somatostatin
(3) Secretion of Pepsin
(4) Secretion of Intrinsic factor
149. Select the correct option for the combination of
given cells and their secretions
(1) Oxyntic cells
A secretion with pH
between 2.0 to 3.0
(2) Alpha cells of islets Secretion that decreases
of Langerhans
blood sugar level
(3) Kupffer cells
A digestive enzyme that
hydrolyses nucleic acids
(4) Sebaceous glands
A secretion that
evaporates for cooling.
150. Consider the following four statements (AD) and
select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
(A) The male sex accessory ducts include rete testis,
vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens.
(B) Leydig cells synthesise and secrete testicular
hormones called androgen.
(C) The male reproductive system is located in the
pelvic region.
(D) Each testis has about 250 compartments called
testicular lobules.
Option :(1) A, B, C, D
(2) B, C, D only
(3) A, B, C only
(4) A and B only
151. Which of the following statement wrong about
seminiferous tubules ?
(1) They are structural and functional unit of testis
(2) Total number of 750-1000 in each testis
(3) Secrete testesterone hormone
(4) formation of sperms
152. Read the following examples :(a) Wings of Butterfly and birds
(b) Eyes of octopus and mammals
(c) Potato and sweet potato
(d) Thorn of Bougainvillea and Tendrils of cucurbits
(e) Fore limbs of whale, bats, cheetah and human
(f) Vertebrate Heart
How many of the above examples are of
Homologous structures in animals
(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

Kota/01CM314253

148. ;fn fdlh dkj.ko'k gekjh xkWCysV (dy'k) dksf'kdk dk;Zfoghu


tks tk,sa rks mlls fdl ij gkfudkjd izHkko iMsx+ k :(1) varfM+;ksa esa ls Hkkstu dh lgt xfr ij
(2) lkseSVksLVSfVu ds mRiknu ij
(3) isIlhu ds L=ko.k ij
(4) bUVhUlhd dkjd dk L=ko.k
149. fuEu esa ls fdl ;qXe esa dksf'kdkvksa ds izdkj rFkk muds

L=ko.k dks lgh ;qf Xer fd;k x;k gS


2.0 ls 3.0 pH dk L=ko.k
L=ko.k tks :f/kj ls
dh vYQk dksf'kdk,sa
Xywd kst de djrk gS
(3) dqIQj dksf'kdk,sa
,d ikpd ,Utkbe tks
U;wfDyd vEy dks
gkbMksykbt djrk gS
(4) flcsf'k;l xzafFk;k
,d L=ko.k tks ok"ihr
gksdj BaMd iznku djrk gS
150. fuEufyf[kr pkj dFkuksa (AD) ij fopkj dhft;s rFkk lgh
dFkuksa okyk ,d fodYi pqfu;sA
(A) uj yfSa xd lgk;d ufydkvksa esa o`"k.k tkyd] oklk
bQjsfU'k;k] vf/ko`"k.k rFkk okl MsQjsUl lfEefyr gAS
(B) ysfMx dksf'kdk,a o`"k.kh; gkeksZu la'ysf"kr o L=kfor
djrs g]S tks ,.Mkstu dgykrh gAS
(C) uj tuu ra= isfYol {k=
S esa fLFkr gksrk gAS
(D) izR;sd o`".k es 250 dks"B gksrs gaS] tks o`".kh; fi.M
dgykrs gAS
fodYi :(1) A, B, C, D
(2) dsoy B, C, D
(3) dsoy A, B, C
(4) dsoy A rFkk B
151. mijksDr esa ls dkSulk dFku 'kqtuu ufydkvksa ds ckjs esa
xyr gS :(1) ;s o`"k.k dh lajpukRed o f;kRed bdkbZ gS
(2) ,d o`"k.k esa dqy 750-1000 gksrh gS
(3) VsLVksLVsjkWu gkeksZu L=kfor djrh gS
(4) 'kqk.kqvksa dk fuekZ.k djuk
152. fuEu mnkgj.kksa dks if<;s :(a) i{kh ,oa frrfy;ksa ds ia[k
(b) vkWDVksil rFkk Lru/kkfj;ksa dh vk[ks
(c) 'kdjdanh rFkk vkyw
(d) cksxufcfy;k ds dkaVs rFkk D;qdjfcVk ds irku
(e) Ogsy ] pexknM+ksa ] phrk vkSj ekuo ds vxzikn
(f) d'ks:dh; n;
mijksDr esa ls fdrus mnkgj.k tUrqvksa esa letkr vaxksa ds
gAS
(1) pkj
(2) rhu
(3) nks
(4) ,d
(1) vkWDlsafVd dksf'kdk,sa
(2) yaSxj gal
S ds }hi

H-31/39

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/27-06-2015


153. Read the following statements (A-D):(A) Huge clusters of galaxies comprise the
universe
(B) Galaxies contain stars and clouds of gas and
dust
(C) Considering the size of universe, earth is
indeed a speck.
(D) The gases condensed under gravitation and
formed the galaxies of the present day universe.
How many of the above statements are correct
(1) Four
(2) Three (3) Two
(4) One
154. The correct route of conduction of heart impulse is :-

153. (A-D) dFkuksa dks if<+;s :(A) czkaM eas vkdk'k xaxkvksa ds fo'kky lew g lesfdr

gS
(B) vkdk'k xaxkvksa esa flrkjksa vkSj xl
S ksa ds ckny ,oa kwy
lekfgr jgrs gaSA
(C) ckaM ds vkdkj dks /;ku esa j[krs gq, i`Foh dsoy
,d fcanq ;k df.kdk ek= gAS
(D) xl
S as xq:Rokd"kZ.k ds dkj.k la?kuhHkwr gqbZ vkSj orZeku
czkaM dh vkdk'k xaxkvksa dk xBu gqvk A
mijksDr fn;s x;s dFkuksa esa fdrus lgh gAS
(1) pkj
(2) rhu
(3) nks
(4) ,d
154. n; Lianu ds vkosx lapj.k dk lgh iFk dkSu lk gS :-

(1) AV node

Bundle of His

SA node

Purkinje fibre

(2) SA node

Bundle of His

AV node

Heart muscle

(1) vkfyan fuy; ioZ

(3) SA node

AV node

Bundle of His

Bundle branch

Purkinje fibre

(4) AV node

SA node

Bundle of His

Purkinje fibre

(3) f'kjk vkfyan ioZ

fgt dk c.My

(2) f'kjk vkfyan ioZ

fgt ds c.My

f'kjk vkfyan ioZ

vkfyan fuy; ioZ

iqjfdats ds rUrq

n; is'kh

(4) vkfyan fuy; ioZ

vkfyan fuy; ioZ

f'kjk vkfyan ioZ

fgt ds c.My

fgt ds c.My

c.My 'kk[kk

iqjfdats ds rUrq

155. Which one of the following is incorrect for


'atherosclerosis'
(1) Constriction of arterial lumen reduces the
blood flow
(2) Loss of dilation ability of the arterial wall and
its rupture
(3) Cholesterol deposition at the inner wall of the
artery
(4) Proliferation of the vascular muscles
156. Match the following :-

iqjfdats ds rUrq
155. fuEu esa ls ,fFkjksdkafB; ds fy, lgh ugha gS :(1) /keuh; Y;weus dk ladqpu jDr ds cgko dks de dj

nsrk gS

(2) /keuh; fHkkh dh Mk;ys'ku {kerk dk [kksuk rFkk bldk

QV tkuk

(3) /keuh dh vkarfjd fHkkh ij dksysLVky dk teko


(4) laoguh; isf'k;ksa dh o`f
156. lgh feyku djsa :-

Fresh water fish

a Sardines

LoPN ty eNyh a lkjMkbal

ii

Marine water fish

b Hisardale

ii

leqnzh ty eNyh b fgljM y


S

iii Interspecific hybrid

c Common carp

iii varjtkrh; ladj

c dkWeu dWkiZ

iv Cross breed

d Mule

iv ladj.k

d E;wy

(1) i - a, ii - c, iii - b, iv - d
(2) i - c, ii - a, iii - d, iv - b
(3) i - b, ii - d, iii - c, iv - a
(4) i - d, ii - b, iii - a, iv - c

H-32/39

(1) i - a, ii - c, iii - b, iv - d
(2) i - c, ii - a, iii - d, iv - b
(3) i - b, ii - d, iii - c, iv - a
(4) i - d, ii - b, iii - a, iv - c

Kota/01CM314253

Phase/ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/27-06-2015


157. Read following statements carefully.

157. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks /;kuiwoZd v/;;u djsa

(A) NaCl is returned to interstitium by the


ascending portion of vasa recta.

(A) oklkjsDVk ds vkjksgh Hkkx ls NaCl iqu% bUVjLVhfl;e

(B) Counter-current mechanism helps to maintain a


concentraction gradient in cortical zone of kidney.

(B) izfr/kkjk izokg o`Dd ds oYdqV Hkkx esa lkUnzrk fu;eu

(C) An increase blood flow to atria of heart can


cause release of ANF which causes
vasoconstriction.

(C) n; ds vkfyUnks esa jDr izokg c<+us ls ANF kfor

esa izosf'kr gksrk gAS

esa lgk;rk djrk gAS

gksrk g]S tks jDr okfgdk ladqpu djrk gAS

(D) ekuo o`Dd izkjfEHkd fuL;an dh rqyuk esa pkj xquk

(D) Human kidney can form urine nearly four


times concentrated than the initial filtrate
formed.

vf/kd lkUnz ew= dk fuekZ.k dj ldrk gAS

mijksDr esa ls fdrus dFku lR; gS

Which of the above statement are correct :(1) A and B

(2) A, B and C

(1) A rFkk B

(2) A, B rFkk C

(3) A and D

(4) B, C and D

(3) A rFkk D

(4) B, C rFkk D

158. Find out correct match from the following table:-

Column I
(i)

(ii)

PCT

DCT

(iii) Collecting
duct

Column II

158. fuEu lkj.kh esa ls lgh feyku dk pquko djsa :-

Column III

Simple
squamous
epithelium

70-80% of
electrolytes
and H 2O
reabsorption.

Cuboidal brush
border
epithelium

Secretion of
glucose

Extend from
Small amount
cortex to medulla of urea is
absorbed in
medulla from
this region

LrEHk I
(i)

PCT

(ii) DCT

(iii)

laxzkgd
ufydk

LrEHk II

LrEHk III

ljy 'kYdh
midyk

70-80% yo.kksa

cz'k ckMZj
?kukdkj
midyk

Xywdkst dk
L=ko.k

dkVsZDl ls
esMqyk rd
foLrkfjr

bl Hkkx }kjk
dqN ek=k esa
;wfj;k dk eSMqyk
esa vo'kks"k.k

(1) (i) and (ii) only

(1) dsoy (i) rFkk (ii)

(2) (iii) only

(2) dsoy (iii)

(3) (ii) and (iii) only

(3) dsoy (ii) rFkk (iii)

(4) (ii) only

(4) dsoy (ii)

159. The hormone which maintain corpus luteum


throughout pregnancy is secreted by :(1) Anterior pitutary, placenta and inner cell mass
(2) Posterior pitutary, placenta, Ovary
(3) Trophoblast, chorion and placenta
(4) Trophoblast, placenta and extra embryonic
mesoderm

Kota/01CM314253

rFkk ty dk
vo'kks"k.k

159. laiw.kZ xHkkZvoLFkk ds le; dkWjil Y;wfV;e dks LFkkbZ cuk,


j[kus okyk gkeksZu fdlds }kjk L=kfor gksrk gSa :(1) vxz ih;w "k xzafFk] vijk] var% dksf'kdk lewg
(2) i'p ih;w "k xzafFk] vijk] vaMk'k;
(3) VksQksCykLV] dksfj;ksu] vijk
(4) VksQksCykLV] vijk] vfrfjDr Hkzw.kh; ehlksMeZ

H-33/39

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/27-06-2015


160. Select the option which include all correct ones
only :-

160. ml fodYi dk p;u djs ftlesa lHkh dFkuksa dks lfEefyr


fd;k gaS :-

(a) The glandular tissue of each breast is divided


into 15-20 lobes/lobules

(a) izR;sd Lru dk xzafFky mkd 15-20 fiaM@fiaMdksa esa

(b) hCG is secreted by pitutary gland.


(c) mammary glands differentiate during
pregnancy and secrete milk after child birth.
(d) clitoris lies at the upper junction of two labia
majora
(1) only a

(2) a, b and c

(3) a and c

(4) a,b,c and d

161. In the given figure identify the part of ear which


is responsible for hearing and contains organ of
corti.
b

foHkkftr gksrk gaS


(b) hCG ih;w"k xzafFk }kjk L=kfor gksrk gaS
(c) xHkZ voLFkk ds le; Lru xzafFk foHksfnr gksrh gS rFkk
f'k'kq ds tUe ds i'pkr nqX/k L=kfor djrh gaS
(d) DykbVksfjl] ysfc;k estksjk ds mijh la;kstu LFky ij
mifLFkr gksrk gaS
(1) dsoy a
(2) a, b rFkk c
(3) a rFkk c
(4) a,b,c RkFkk d
161. fn, x, fp= esa d.kZ ds ml Hkkx dks igpkus tks Jo.k ds
fy, mrjnk;h gS rFkk ftlds dkWjVkb ds vax ik;s tkrs
gaAS
b

d
e

f
h

(1) c, d and e

(2) only g

(1) c, d rFkk e

(2) dsoy g

(3) only f

(4) all of the above

(3) dsoy f

(4) mijksDr lHkh

162. Which of the following statement is false :(1) The exaggerated response of the immune
system to certain antigens present in the
environment is called allergy
(2) The use of drugs like anti-histamine, adrenalin
and steroids increase the symptoms of allergy.
(3) Some how, modern-day life style has resulted
in lowering of immunity and more sensitivity
to allergens.
(4) Rheumatoid arthritis which affects many people
in our society is an auto-immune disease.
163. In the given list how many diseases are not auto
immune disorders :Hay fever, Myasthenia gravis, Hashimoto disease,
Eczema, Pernicious anemia

162. fuEufyf[kr esa dkuS lk dFku vlR; gSa :(1) okrkoj.k esa mifLFkr dqN ,aVhtu ds foifjr izfrj{kk

ra= }kjk fn xbZ vR;f/kd izfrf;k ,ythZ dgykrh


gaAS
(2) ,aVhfgLVkfeu] ,Mjsukfyu rFkk LVhjkW;M nokvksa dks
mi;ksx ,ythZ ds y{k.kksa dks vkjS c<+krk gAS
(3) fdlh rjg vk/kqfud thou 'ky
S h ds dkj.k izfrj{kk ra=
detksj gks x;k gS rFkk ,yjtu ds izfr laons u'khyrk
c<+ xbZ gaAS
(4) gekjs lekt ds vf/kdka'k yksxksa esa ik;k tkus okyk
:ekVkW;M vkfFkZjkbfVl] Lo izfrjf{kr jksx gaAS
163. uhps fn xbZ lwfp esa fdrus jksx Lo izf rjf{kr jksx ugha
gaS :gs Toj] ekbl;hfu;k xzs fol] gk'khekVks jksx ] ,Dthek]
ijfufl;l ,uhfe;k

(1) 4

(2) 3

(1) 4

(2) 3

(3) 2

(4) 5

(3) 2

(4) 5

H-34/39

Kota/01CM314253

Phase/ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/27-06-2015

s
s
s

s s

s s

s s

fn, x, fp= esa A,B,C,D dks igpkus :

isjkVksi

var% Ja[kyk
MkblYQkbM
ca/k

Paratope Inter chain


disulphide
bond

(3) Hkkjh

isjkVksi

varjk Ja[kyk
MkblYQkbM
ca/k

Epitope

(4) Hkkjh

bihVksi

var% Ja[kyk
MkblYQkbM
ca/k

Heavy Light
chain chain

gYdh
Ja[kyk Ja[kyk

Intra chain
disulphide
bond

The flow of electric current on the inner surface


of neuron will be :(1) From left to right
(2) From Right to left
(3) There will be no current flow
(4) Direction is not certain

165.

(4)

gYdh
Ja[kyk Ja[kyk

Heavy Light
chain chain

(3)

gYdh
Ja[kyk Ja[kyk

Paratope Intra chain


disulphide
bond

Heavy Light
chain chain

(2) Hkkjh

(2)

(1)

gYdh Hkkjh
Ja[kyk Ja[kyk

var% Ja[kyk
MkblYQkbM
ca/k

Heavy Paratope Intra chain


chain
disulphide
bond

isjkVksi

Light
chain

(1)

Kota/01CM314253

Identify A,B,C,D in the given figure :

165.

ss
ss

s s

ss

ss
ss

ss

C
s

164.

164.

raf=dk dksf'kdk ds vkarfjd Lrj ij fo|qr /kkjk dk izokg


gksxk :(1) cka, ls nkbZa vksj
(2) nkbZ ls ckbZ vksj
(3) dksbZ izokg ugha
(4) fn'kk fuf'pr ugha
H-35/39

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/27-06-2015


166. How many statements are incorrect among
following :(a) Progesterone injections are used in MTP
during 1st trimester

166. fuEufyf[kr esa fdrus dFku vlR; gSa :(a) izR;sd frekgh esa MTP ds fy, izkt
s Ls Vkus Vhds dk iz;ksx
(b)

(b) Estrogen thickens cervical mucous plug.

fd;k tkrk gS
bLV k stu ljfoDl E;wd l Iyx dks xk<+ k dj ns rk
gS
lkIrkfgd xHkZ fujks/kd xksyh Lru dSalj ds lEHkkouk
dks c<+krh gaS
baiykaVl ,sLik midj.k g]S ftlesa izkstsLVksu ;qDr ikp
flysaMj gksrs gaS
la;qDr xHkZ fujks/kd xksfy;ksa esa bLVkstu ik;k tkrk
gaS

(c) Weekly contraceptive pill increases risk of


breast cancer.

(c)

(d) Implants is a device of 5 cylinders contains


progesterone.

(d)

(e) Combined oral contraceptive pills contains


estrogen.

(e)

(1) 1

(2) 2

(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

(3) 3

(4) 4

167. How many among following structures can be


seen in a ovary after attaining puberty.

167. ;ko
S u voLFkk izkIr djus ds i'pkr vaMk'k; esa fuEufyf[kr

Primordial germ cell, primary oocyte, oogonia,


secondary oocyte, primary follicle, graffian
follicles, corpus luteum, germinal epithelium,
primordial follicles, corpus albicans.

esa ls fdruh lajpuk, ns[kh tk ldrh gaSA


izkbeksfM;y tuu dksf'kdk] izkFkfed lkbV] xksfu;k]
f}rh;d lkbV] izkFkfed iqfVdk] xzkfQ;u iqfVdk] dkWiZl
U;wfV;e] tufud midyk] izkbeksfM;y iqfVdka ,] dkWiZl
,YchdUl

(1) 5

(2) 6

(1) 5

(2) 6

(3) 4

(4) 7

(3) 4

(4) 7

168. Select the correct statement for given figure :-

168. fn;s x, fp= ds fy, lgh dFku dks igpkus :-

(1) b it operates in stable envoirnment

(1) b ;s LFkkbZ okrkoj.k esa dk;Z djrk gaS

(2) a mean value is changed

(2) a vkSlr eku cnyrk gaS

(3) c mean value shifts in one direction

(3) c vkSlr eku ,d fn'kk esa foLFkkfir gksrk gaS

(4) b mean value shifts in one direction

(4) b vkSlr eku ,d fn'kk esa foLFkkfir gksrk gS

H-36/39

Kota/01CM314253

Phase/ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/27-06-2015


169. Identify the symmetry shown below as well as the
related explanation and select the right option :-

Symmetry

(2) Radial

The body can be divided into


identical left and right halves in
only one plane

(3) Bilateral

The body can be divided into


identical left and right halves in
only one plane

(4) Radial

Any plane passing through the


central axis of the body divides
the organism into two identical
halves

170. The members of which phylum are triploblastic,


radially symmetrical and coelomate :(1) Coelenterata
(2) Ctenophora
(3) Echinodermata
(4) Chordata
171. Find out the correct match from the following table:-

(i) Sponges

lfEefr

Explanation

(1) Asymmetry Any plane that passes through


the centre does not divide them
into equal halves.

Column I

169. fn, x, fp= fd lfEer igpkus rFkk fn, fooj.k ds lkFk


feyku dj lgh fodYi pqus :-

Column II

(1) vlfEefr

dsUnz ls xqtjus okyk dksbZ Hkh v{k bUgsa


nks leku Hkkx esa foHkkftr ugha
djrk

(2) vjh;

dsoy vnk }kjk 'kjhj dks leku nk,a


rFkk ck,a Hkkx esa foHkkfrt dj ldrk
gSA

(3) f}ik'kZo

dsoy vnk }kjk 'kjhj dks leku nk,a


rFkk ck,a Hkkx esa foHkkfrt dj ldrk
gSA

(4) vjh;

dsUnz ls xqtjus okyk dkbZ Hkh vnk


'kjhj dks nks leku Hkkxksa esa foHkkftr
djrk gaSA

170. fdl la?k ds lnL; f=Lrjh; vjh; lfEefr rFkk xqgh; gksrs
gaS :(1) lhysUVVs k
(2) VhuksQksjk
(3) ,dkbeksMjesVk
(4) dkWMZsVk
171. fuEu lkj.kh esa lgh feyku igpkus :-

dkWye I

Column III

Asymmetrical Porifera

fooj.k

(i)

dkWye II

Liat

vlfEefr

iksjhQsjk
VhuksQksjk

(ii) Comb jelly

Fresh water

Ctenophora

(ii) dkac ty
S h

vyo.kh; ty

(iii) Flatworms

Diploblastic

Platyhelminthes

(iii) piVs fe

f}Lrjh;

(1) i only
(3) iii only

Kota/01CM314253

(2) i and ii
(4) ii and iii

dkWye III

(1) dsoy i
(3) dsoy iii

IysfVgYS ehaFk
(2) i rFkk ii
(4) ii rFkk iii

H-37/39

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/27-06-2015


172. In male Cockroach genital chamber lie at the hind
end of abdomen with which of the following its
not bounded :(1) 9th tergum dorsally
(2) 10th tergum dorsally
(3) 9th sternum ventrally
(4) 10th sternum ventrally
173. Which of the following is incorrect :(1) TLC = TV + IRV + ERV + RV
(2) TLC = IC + FRC
(3) TLC = VC + RV
(4) TLC = FRC TV
174. Following factor is/are responsible for formation
of oxyhaemoglobin :(a) PO2 high
(b) PCO2 low
(c) H+ conc high
(d) Temp low
(1) a, b and d
(2) a, b and c
(3) a, c and d
(4) b, c and d
175. Which of the following is not effect of adrenalin:(1) Increase alertness
(2) Pupillary constriction
(3) Increase sweating
(4) Increase heart beat
176. Normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle, pigmentation
and menstrul cycle is maintained by :(1) Pineal gland
(2) Thyroid gland
(3) Thymus gland
(4) Adrenal gland
177. The collagenous connective tissue layer which
holds various muscle bundle is known as :(1) Fascicles
(2) Vesicles
(3) Fascia
(4) Endomysium
178. Inbreeding depression can be overcome by
following :(1) Inbreeding
(2) Interspecific hybridization
(3) Out crossing
(4) Both (1) and (3)
179. The hormone which attains its maximum level
just before ovulation and mainly helps in
ovulation is :(1) Estrogen
(2) FSH
(3) LH
(4) Progesterone
180. Most vulnerable age group for the incidence of
sexually transmitted disease is :(1) 8 - 12 years
(2) 15 - 24 years
(3) 25 - 28 years
(4) 25 - 40 years

H-38/39

172. uj dkWdjksp esa tuu dks"B mnj ds i'p Hkkx esa mifLFkr
gksrk gaS tks fd fuEu }kjk f?kjk ugha gksrk gSa :(1) i`"Bh; 9oha VxZe
(2) i`"Bh; 10oha VxZe
(3) v/kjh; 9oha lVZe
(4) v/kjh; 10oha lVZe
173. fuEu esa ls dkSu lk xyr gaS :(1) TLC = TV + IRV + ERV + RV
(2) TLC = IC + FRC
(3) TLC = VC + RV
(4) TLC = FRC TV
174. vkWDlhgheksXyksfcu ds fuekZ.k ds fy, fuEu dkjd mrjnk;h
gaS :(a) PO2 vf/kd
(b) PCO2 fuEu
(c) H+ conc vf/kd
(d) rkieku de
(1) a, b rFkk d
(2) a, b rFkk c
(3) a, c rFkk d
(4) b, c rFkk d
175. fuEu esa dkSulk ,M husfyu dk izHkko ugha gaS :(1) lf;rk c<+uk
(2) iqryh ladqpu
(3) ilhuk vf/kd
(4) n; xfr c<+uk
176. lksus&tkxus dk p dh lkekU;y;] o.kZdrk rFkk ekfld
p fu/kkZfjr gksrh gSa :(1) ihfu;y xzafFk
(2) FkkbjkWbM xzafFk
(3) Fkkbel xzafFk
(4) vf/ko`Dd xzafFk
177. dksystu;qDr la;ksth rd fd lrg tks fofHkUu is'kh caMy
dks cka/kdj j[krk g]S dgykrk gS :(1) QSfldYl
(2) osfldYl
(3) Qsfl;k
(4) ,aMksekbfl;e
178. var%iztuu volkn dks fuEu }kjk nwj fd;k tk ldrk
gaS :(1) var%iztuu
(2) varjtkrh; ladj.k
(3) ck ladj.k
(4) (1) ,oa (3) nksuksa
179. gkeksZu tks vaMksRlZx ds Bhd igys vf/kdre Lrj ij gksrk

g S vk Sj tks eq [ ;r% va M ks R lxZ es a lgk;rk djrk gS]


og gaS :(1) bLVkstu
(2) FSH
(3) LH
(4) izkstsfLVjkWu
180. fdl vk;q oxZ esa ;kuS lapfjr jksx (STD) dh laHkkouk lcls
vf/kd gksrh gaS :(1) 8 - 12 o"kZ
(2) 15 - 24 o"kZ
(3) 25 - 28 o"kZ
(4) 25 - 40 o"kZ
Kota/01CM314253

Phase/ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/27-06-2015


SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / jQ dk;Z ds fy;s txg

Kota/01CM314253

H-39/39