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Test Your Self General Science

Online Question Paper..


1.Which of the following metals forms an amalgam with other metals?
a) Tin

b) Mercury

c) Lead

d) Zinc

2.The gas usually filled in the electric bulb is


a) Nitrogen

b) Hydrogen

c) Corbon Dioxide

d) Oxygen

3.Washing soda is the common name for.


a) Sodium carbonate

b) Calcium bicarbonate

c) Sodium bicarbonate

d) Calcium carbonate

c) Sodium bicarbonate

d) Calcium carbonate

4.baking soda is the common name for.


a) Sodium carbonate

b) Calcium bicarbonate

5.Quartz crystals normally used in quartz clocks et is chemically


a) silicon dioxide

b) germanium oxide

c) a mixture of germanium oxide and silicon dioxide

d) sodium silicate

6.Which of the gas is not known as green house gas?


a) Methane

b) Nitrous oxide

c) Carbon dioxide

d) Hydrogen

7.Bromine is a
a) black solid

b) red liquid

c) colourless gas

d) highly inflammable gas

8.The hardest substance available on earth is


a) Gold

b) Iron

c) Diamond

d) Platinum

9.The variety of coal in which the deposit contains recognisable traces of the original plant material is
a) bitumen

b) anthracite

c) lignite

d) peat

10.Tetraethyl lead is used as


a) pain killer

b) fire extinguisher

c) mosquito repellent

d) petrol additive

11.Which of the following is used as a lubricant?


a) Graphite

b) Silica

c) Iron Oxide

d) Diamond

12.The inert gas which is substituted for nitrogen in the air used by deep sea divers for breathing, is
a) Argon

b) Xenon

c) Helium

d) Krypton

13.The property of a substance to absorb moisture from the air on exposure is called
a) osmosis

b) deliquescence

c) efflorescence

d) desiccation

14.The average salinity of sea water is


a) 3%

b) 3.5%

c) 2.5%

d) 2%

15.When an iron nail gets rusted, iron oxide is formed


a) without any change in the weight of the nail
of the nail

b) with decrease in the weight of the nail

d) without any change in colour or weight of the nail

c) with increase in the weight

16.Among the various allotropes of carbon,


a) coke is the hardest, graphite is the softest
graphite is the softest

b) diamond is the hardest, coke is the softest

c) diamond is the hardest,

d) diamond is the hardest, lamp black is the softest

17.The group of metals Fe, Co, Ni may best called as


a) transition metals

b) main group metals

c) alkali metals

d) rare metals

18.Heavy water is
a) deuterium oxide

b) PH7

c) rain water

d) tritium oxide

19.The chemical (ethyl mercaptan) added to the otherwise odourless LPG cooking gas for imparting a detectable
smell to the gas is a compound of
a) bromine

b) fluorine

c) chlorine

d) sulphur

20.The element common to all acids is


a) hydrogen

b) carbon

c) sulphur

d) oxygen

21.Non stick cooking utensils are coated with


a) Teflon

b) PVC

c) black paint

d) polystyrene

22.Carbon, diamond and graphite are together called


a) allotropes

b) isomers

c) isomorphs

d) isotopes

23.Permanent hardness of water may be removed by the addition of


a) sodium carbonate

b) alum

c) potassium permanganate

d) lime

24.Soda water contains


a) carbonic acid

b) sulphuric acid

c) carbon dioxide

d) nitrous acid

25.The most important ore of aluminium is


a) galena

b) calamine

c) calcite

d) bauxite

26.Most soluble in water is


a) camphor

b) sulphur

c) common salt

d) sugar

27.Which of the following was to be discovered first in the chromospheres of the sun?
a) Krypton

b) Xenon

c) Neon

d) Helium

28.Which of the following is in liquid form at room temperature?


a) Lithium

b) Sodium

c) Francium

d) Cerium

29.Sodium metal is kept under


a) petrol

b) alcohol

c) water

d) kerosene

30.Which of the following are the ingredients of gun metal?


a) Iron, Zinc, Titanium

b) Iron, tin

c) Iron, Brass, Tin

31.From which mineral is radium obtained?

d) Copper, Tin

a) Rutile

b) Haematite

c) Limestone

d) Pitchblende

32.What is laughing gas?


a) Nitrous Oxide

b) Carbon monoxide

c) Sulphur dioxide

d) Hydrogen peroxide

33.The filament of an electric bulb is made of


a) tungsten

b) nichrome

c) graphite

d) iron

34.In fireworks, the green flame is produced because of


a) sodium

b) barium

c) mercury

d) potassium

35.Marsh gas is
a) nitrogen

b) ethane

c) methane

d) hydrogen

36.LPG consists of mainly


a) methane, ethane and hexane

b) ethane, hexane and nonane

c) methane, hexane and nonane

d) methane,

butane and propane

37.Air is a/an
a) compound

b) element

c) electrolyte

d) mixture

38.Production of chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) gas which is proposed to be banned in India, is used in which of the
following domestic products?
a) Television

b) Refrigerator

c) Tube light

d) Cooking gas

39.Balloons are filled with


a) nitrogen

b) helium

c) oxygen

d) argon

40.Which of the following does not contain a coinage metal?


a) Silver and Gold

b) Zinc and Gold

c) Copper and Silver

d) Copper and Gold

41.Which of the following is a non metal that remains liquid at room temperature
a) Phosphorous

b) Bromine

c) Chlorine.

d) Helium

42.The Paithan (Jayakwadi) Hydro-electric project, completed with the help of Japan, is on the river
a) Ganga

b) Cauvery

c) Narmada

d) Godavari

43.The percentage of irrigated land in India is about


a) 45

b) 65

c) 35

d) 25

44.The southernmost point of peninsular India, that is, Kanyakumari, is


a) north of Tropic of Cancer

b) south of the Equator

c) south of the Capricorn

d) north of the Equator

45.The pass located at the southern end of the Nilgiri Hills in south India is called
a) the Palghat gap

b) the Bhorghat pass

c) the Thalgat pass

d) the Bolan pass

46.Which of the following factors are responsible for the rapid growth of sugar production in south India as
compared to north India?
I.

Higher per acre field of sugarcane

II.

Higher sucrose content of sugarcane

III.

Lower labour cost

IV.

Longer crushing p
a) I and II

b) I, II and III

c) I, III and IV

d) I, II and IV

T47.he principal copper deposits of India lie in which of the following places?
a) Hazaribag and Singbhum of Bihar

b) Khetri and Daribo areas of Rajasthan

c) Anantapur in Andhra Pradesh

d)

Siwaliks in Uttar Pradesh and in Karnataka

48.Which of the following are true regarding Jhum cultivation in India?


I. It is largely practiced in Assam
II. It is referred to as 'slash and burn' technique
III. In it, the fertility is exhausted in a few years
a) I, II and III

b) II and III

c) I and II

d) I and III

49.The Yarlung Zangbo river, in India, is known as


a) Ganga

b) Indus

c) Brahmaputra

d) Mahanadi

50.The Salal Project is on the river


a) Chenab

b) Jhelum

c) Ravi

d) Sutlej

Online Question Paper..


01.Which of the following is a non metal that remains liquid at room temperature
a) Phosphorous

b) Bromine

c) Chlorine.

d) Helium

02. The Paithan (Jayakwadi) Hydro-electric project, completed with the help of Japan, is on the river
a) Ganga

b) Cauvery

c) Narmada

d) Godavari

03. The percentage of irrigated land in India is about


a) 45

b) 65

c) 35

d) 25

04. The southernmost point of peninsular India, that is, Kanyakumari, is


a) north of Tropic of Cancer

b) south of the Equator

c) south of the Capricorn

d) north of the Equator

05. The pass located at the southern end of the Nilgiri Hills in south India is called
a) the Palghat gap

b) the Bhorghat pass

c) the Thalgat pass

d) the Bolan pass

06. Which of the following factors are responsible for the rapid growth of sugar production in south India as
compared to north India?
I. Higher per acre field of sugarcane
II. Higher sucrose content of sugarcane
III.Lower labour cost
a) I and II

b) I, II and III

c) I, III and IV

d) I, II and IV

07. The principal copper deposits of India lie in which of the following places?
a) Hazaribag and Singbhum of Bihar
Siwaliks in Uttar Pradesh and in Karnataka

b) Khetri and Daribo areas of Rajasthan

c) Anantapur in Andhra Pradesh

d)

08. Which of the following are true regarding Jhum cultivation in India?
I. It is largely practiced in Assam
II. It is referred to as 'slash and burn' technique
III. In it, the fertility is exhausted in a few years
a) I, II and III

b) II and III

c) I and II

d) I and III

09. The Yarlung Zangbo river, in India, is known as


a) Ganga

b) Indus

c) Brahmaputra

d) Mahanadi

10. The Salal Project is on the river


a) Chenab

b) Jhelum

c) Ravi

d) Sutlej

11. The state having a largest area of forest cover in India is


a) Arunachal Pradesh

b) Haryana

c) Madhya Pradesh

d) Assam

12. The year ____ is called a Great Divide in the demographic history of Indi
a) 1901

b) 1921

c) 1941

d) 1951

13. The only private sector refinery set up by Reliance Petroleum Lt is located at
a) Guwahati

b) Jamnagar

c) Mumbai

d) Chennai

14. The only state in India that produces saffron is


a) Assam

b) Himachal Pradesh

c) Jammu and Kashmir

d) Meghalaya

15. Three important rivers of the Indian subcontinent have their sources near the Mansarover Lake in the Great
Himalayas. These rivers are
a) Indus, Jhelum and Sutlej

b) Brahmaputra, Sutlej and Yamuna

c) Brahmaputra, Indus and Sutlej

d) Jhelum,

Sutlej and Yamuna

16. The zonal soil type of peninsular India belongs to


a) red soils

b) yellow soils

c) black soils

d) older alluvium

17. The most plausible explanation for the location of the Thar desert in western India is :a) the obstruction caused by the Aravalis to the rain-bearing wind that proceeds to the Ganga Valley
moisture by heat

b) the evaporation of

c) the absence of mountains to the north of Rajasthan to cause orographic rainfall in it

d) that the moisture

carried by the South-west monsoon is driven away by the dry upper air current

18. The northern boundary of the peninsular plateau of Indian runs parallel to the Ganga and the Yamuna from
Rajmahal hills to a point near
a) Allahabad

b) Delhi

c) Gwalior

d) Jaipur

19. Which of the following food grain crops occupies the largest part of the cropped area in India?
a) Barley and maize

b) Jowar and bajra

c) Rice

d) Wheat

20. The number of major languages, recognized in the Indian Union as official language, are
a) 15

b) 22

c) 12

d) 9

21. The oldest rocks in India are reported from

a) Dharwar region, Karnataka

b) Aravalli range, Rajasthan

c) Vindhyan range, Madhya Pradesh

d) Siwalik range,

Punjab

22. Which of the following groups of rivers originate from the Himachal mountains?
a) Beas, Ravi and Chenab

b) Ravi, Chenab and Jhelum

c) Sutlej, Beas and Ravi

d) Sutlej, Ravi and Jhelum

23. Which of the following groups of states has the largest deposits of iron ore?
a) Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka

b) Bihar and Orissa

c) Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra

d) West Bengal and

Assam

24. Which of the following union territories of India has the highest density of population per sq km?
a) Pondicherry

b) Lakshadweep

c) Delhi

d) Chandigarh

25. which atomic power station in India is built completely indigenously?


a) Kalpakkam

b) Narora

c) Rawat Bhata

d) Tarapore

26. The south-west monsoon contributes ____ of the total rain in Indi
a) 86%

b) 50%

c) 22%

d) 100%

27. The Shimla Convention is an agreement that sets


a) Shimla as a tourist spot

b) Shimla as the capital of Himachal Pradesh

c) boundary between India and Tibet

d)

None of the above

28. Which of the following events took place in the Cenozoic era?
a) Formation of the rockies, India collides with Asia and the formation of the Himalayas and the Alps
Appalachians and central European mountains

c) Splitting of India from Antarctic

b) Formation of the

d) Breaking up of Pangaea

29. The oldest oil field in India is the ____ field, in ____
a) Anleshwar, Gujarat

b) Bombay High, Maharashtra

c) Nawagam, Gujarat

d) Digboi, Assam

30. Unlike other parts of the Indian Coast, fishing industry has not developed along the Saurashtra coast because
a) there are few indentions suitable for fishing
c) the sea water is relatively more saline

b) of overwhelming dependence on agriculture and animal husbandary

d) of industrial development leading to widespread pollution of coastal area

31. The mountain building in Himalayas began


a) about 45 million years ago
and (b)

b) when the continental plates of India and Eurasia converged on each other

c) both (a)

d) None of the above

32. The outer Himalayas lie between


a) the lease Himalayas and the Indo Gangetic plain
Himalayas and the lesser Himalayas

b) the foot hills and the Indo Gangetic plain

c) the greater

d) Indo-Gangetic plains and the peninsula

33. Which of the following geographical features have played a great unifying role in strengthening the forces of
homogeneity of the Indian people?
I.The expanses of water surrounding the peninsula
II.The Himalayan Mountains
III.The vastne
a) I

b) II

c) I and II

d) I, II, III and IV

34. Which of the following drainage systems fall into Bay of Bengal?
a) Ganga, Brahmaputra and Godavari

b) Mahanadi, Krishna and Cauvery

c) Luni, Narnada and Tapti

d) Both (a)

and (b)

35. The oldest oil refinery in India is at


a) Digboi, Assam

b) Haldia, near Kolkata

c) Koyali, near Baroda

d) Noonmati, Assam

36. The oldest mountains in India are


a) Aravalis

b) Vindhyas

c) Satpuras

d) Nilgiri hills

37. Which of the following groups of rivers have their source of origin in Tibet?
a) Brahmaputra, Ganges and Sutlej

b) Ganges, Sutlej and Yamuna

c) Brahmaputra, Indus and Sutlej

d) Chenab,

Ravi and Sutlej

38. Which of the following measures are effective for soil conservation in India?
I.Avoiding crop rotation
II.Afforestation
III.Encouraging the use of chemical fertilizers
IV.Limiting shifting cultivation
a) I and II

b) II and IV

c) III and IV

d) I, II and III

39. Which of the following crops needs maximum water per hectare?
a) Barley

b) Maize

c) Sugarcane

d) Wheat

40. The watershed between India and Myanmar is formed by


a) the Naga hills

b) the Garo hills

c) Khasi hills

d) the Jaintia hills

41. The originating in the Himalayan mountain complex consists of how many distinct drainage systems of the Indian
Subcontinent?
a) Two

b) Three

c) Four

d) Five

42. The percentage of India's total population employed in agriculture is nearly


a) 40%

b) 50%

c) 60%

d) 70%

43. Which of the following important rivers of India does not originate from the Western Ghats?
a) Cauvery

b) Godavari

c) Krishna

d) Mahanadi

44. Which of the following areas or regions is most prone to earthquakes?


a) Ganga-Brahmaputra valley

b) Deccan plateau

c) Plains of northern India

d) Western ghats

45. The proportion of forest to the total national geographical area of India as envisaged by National Forest Policy is
a) 30.3%

b) 33.3%

c) 38.3%

d) 42.3%

46. Which of the following dams has generations of power more than irrigation as its main purpose?
a) Gandhi Sagar

b) Hirakud

c) Periyar

d) Tungabhadra

47. Which of the following crops is regarded as a plantation crop?


a) Coconut

b) Cotton

c) Sugarcane

d) Rice

48. Which of the following countries leads in the production of aluminium and its products in the world?
a) Australia

b) France

c) India

d) USA

49. The natural region which holds the Indian subcontinent is


a) equatorial climate change region

b) hot deset

c) monsoon

d) mediterranean

50. The most ideal region for the cultivation of cotton in India is
a) the Brahmaputra valley

b) the Indo-Gangetic valley

c) the Deccan plateau

d) the Rann of Kutch

51. Which of the following are true with respect to the Indian Peninsular Plateau?
I.The southern plateau block is formed mainly of granite and gneiss
II.The Deccan lava plateau is an elevated tableland consisting of horizontally arranged lav
a) I, II and III

b) I and II

c) I, II, III and IV

d) I, III and IV

52. Which of the following types of soil are mostly confined to river basins and coastal plains of India?
a) Alluvial soils

b) Black soils

c) Laterite soils

d) Red soils

53. The two states of India, most richly endowed with iron ore, are
a) Bihar and Orissa

b) Madhya Pradesh and Orissa

c) Bihar and West Bengal

d) Madhya Pradesh and West

Bengal

54. The most fertile region of India is


a) the Himalayas

b) the central Highlands

c) the Indo-Gangetic plain

d) peninsular plateau

55. Which of the following groups accounts for over 90 per cent of India's annual coal production?
a) Bihar, Orissa and West Bengal

b) Bihar, Orissa and Madhya Pradesh

c) Orissa, Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

d) West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

56. The significant shifts in Indian agriculture during green revolution include :
a) non-food grains reported some spectacular progress and shift in the cropping pattern
regions productions decreased and in the northern states increased

c) both (a) and (b)

b) major food grains, in the eastern


d) None of the above

57. The number of major ports in India is


a) 5

b) 8

c) 13

d) 15

58. Which of the following is a peninsular river of India?


a) Gandak

b) Kosi

c) Krishna

d) Sutlej

59. Which of the following is the most important raw material for generation of power in India?
a) Coal

b) Mineral Oil

c) Natural Gas

d) Uranium

60. When it is noon IST at Allahabad in India, the time at Greenwich, London, will be
a) midnight ,GMT

b) 1730 hours

c) 0630 hours

d) None of the above

61. Which country has the largest coast line?


a) USA

b) Australia

c) Canada

d) India

62. The river Godavari is often referred to as Vridha Ganga because

a) it is the older river of India

b) of its large size and extent among the peninsular rivers

number of pilgrimage centres situated on its banks

c) there are a fairly large

d) its length is nearly the same as that of the river Ganges

63. The scarcity or crop failure of which of the following can cause a serious edible oil crisis in India?
a) coconut

b) Groundnut

c) Linseed

d) Mustard

64. The pennines (Europe), Appalachians (America) and the Aravallis (India) are examples of
a) old mountains

b) young mountains

c) fold mountains

d) block mountains

65. Which of the following factors are responsible for present crisis in the jute industry in India?
I.The decline in overseas market
II.Inadequately supply of raw jute
III.Stiff competition from synthetic packing materials
Select the
a) I and II

b) I, II and III

c) I and III

d) II and III

Test Your Self

1.Choose the most suitable alternate accordance with the correct use of tense
a) she just had her lunch

b) she just has had her lunch

c) she has just had her lunch

d) None of the above

2.Choose the most suitable alternate accordance with the correct use of tense
a) since my father has joined this post,he did not take bribe.
since my father has join this post,he has not taken bribe.

b) since my father joined this post,he did not take bribe.

c)

d) None of the above

3.Choose the most suitable alternate accordance with the correct use of tense
a) I have received your letter this morning
morning

b) I had received your letter this morning

c) I received your letter this

d) None of the above

4.Choose the most suitable alternate accordance with the correct use of tense
a) India has won freedom in 1947

b) India had won freedom in 1947

c) India won freedom in 1947

above

5.All felt that he --------a cheat.


a) may be

b) can be

c) might be

d) None of the above

6.You ---------- him that gambling would ruin him.


a) should warn

b) should have warned

c) must warn

d) None of the above

7.The Sun ---------- in the east


a) rise

b) rose

c) rises

d) None of the above

8.she ------- work hard if she wants to top the merit list
a) must have

b) must

c) must not

d) None of the above

9.You ---------- stood by your brother,when he was in difficulties.


a) ought to

b) ought to have

c) should have

d) None of the above

10.Since the keys are with my brother, I ------ your money.

d) None of the

a) will not lend

b) can not lend

c) may not lend

d) None of the above

11.He ----- catch the first train tonight.


a) is to

b) was to have

c) is to have

d) None of the above

12.My friend ------ visit me every Sunday.


a) used to

b) is used to

c) was used to

d) None of the above

13.She --------- here last night as her friend was better then.
a) need not have stayed

b) need not stay

c) should not have stayed

d) None of the above

14.He dares ---------- his rivals.


a) abuse

b) to abuse

c) abusing

d) None of the above

15.The criminals should ----------- at the earliest.


a) punish

b) pusnished

c) be punished

d) None of the above

16.His parents ------- when he did not arrive at the function.


a) dissappoint

b) are dissappointed

c) were disappointed

d) None of the above

17.The train --------- when you reach the station as you are late.
a) left

b) leave

c) will have left

d) None of the above

18.I ----------- to see my mom when I reached home.


a) was amazed

b) amaze

c) amazed

d) None of the above

19.The principal --------- to see the results of the students tommorrow


a) surprice

b) will be surprised

c) will surprise

d) None of the above

20.Although he worked hard,he --------a) not passed

b) did not pass

c) don't pass

d) None of the above

21.Since my father --------for Mumbai,he has not written to me.


a) leave

b) left

c) leaving

d) None of the above

22.Unless you ----------hard,you will not pass.


a) work

b) worked

c) working

d) None of the above

23.As soon as the teacher--------the classroom,the boys will stand up


a) enter

b) enters

c) entering

d) None of the above

24.Many students -------- by the time the match begins.


a) arrive

b) had arrived

c) arrives

d) None of the above

25.She intended -------- in for teaching profession.


a) to have gone

b) to go

c) for going

d) None of the above

26.For modern man there are a no. of deseases ---------a) to suffer from

b) for suffering

c) to suffer

d) None of the above

27.You had better --------- in her house over night.


a) not stayed

b) not stay

c) not to stay

d) None of the above

28.You must know --------- in society.


a) to conduct yourself

b) how to conduct your self

c) to conduct

d) None of the above

29.It gives me immense pleasure --------- you of her engagement.


a) to inform

b) in informing

c) to informing

d) None of the above

30.She comes ----- me daily in the evening.


a) for seeing

b) seeing

c) to see

d) None of the above

31.His mother always forbids him ----- with Nisha.


a) from speaking

b) to speak

c) not to speak

d) None of the above

32.The carpet needs -------- before we use it.


a) to clean

b) cleaning

c) to be cleaned

d) None of the above

33.The police officer denied ------- callous to the under trial


a) to be

b) being

c) to have been

d) None of the above

34.I have ever looked forward ---------- the president of rotary club.
a) to be

b) to being

c) to have been

d) None of the above

35.We expected -------- to the celebration.


a) to invite

b) to have been invited

c) to be invited

d) None of the above

36.She has given up --------- on her friends advice.


a) smoke

b) smoking

c) to have smoked

d) None of the above

37.Remember this is not a safe road ------a) to travel

b) to travel by

c) travelling

d) None of the above

38.The traders suddenly --------- the prices of crude oil last year
a) rose

b) raised

c) rise

d) None of the above

39.He ------ suddenly and knocked him down.


a) arose

b) raised

c) rose

d) None of the above

40.Difficulty after difficulty -------- in his way to success


a) arose

b) rose

c) roused

d) None of the above

41.When the villagers were attacked,they were ------------- to violent acts.


a) raised

b) roused

c) rose

d) None of the above

42.The noise in the bed room ------- me up.


a) awoke

b) awake

c) woke

d) None of the above

43.One is --------- in duty to held the ageing parents.


a) bound

b) bounded

c) binding

d) None of the above

44.After she had -------- dancing,she went to bed.


a) practiced

b) practised

c) practise

d) None of the above

45.The teacher -------- us t attend to his lectures.


a) adviced

b) advice

c) advised

d) None of the above

46.The wheet canot be ---------- fine


a) grind

b) ground

c) grounded

d) None of the above

47.She ------- the clothes and hung them.


a) wring

b) wrang

c) wrung

d) None of the above

48.The police --------- into action on receiving a call yesterday.


a) swang

b) swung

c) swing

d) None of the above

49.No one is allowed to --------- the trees in the forest.


a) fall

b) fell

c) fallen

d) None of the above

Online Question Paper..


1.MS DOS was developed in
a) 1991

b) 1984

c) 1971

d) 1961

2.Maximum length of DOS command including parameters


a) 26 characters

b) 87 characters

c) 127 characters

d) none of the above

3.CHKDSK command is used to


a) analyze the hard disk errors

b) diagonse the hard dis errors

c) report the status of files on disk

d) all of the

above

4.Which of the following batch file is run while booting in MS DOS


a) autoexec.bat

b) autobatch.bat

c) autoexecutive.bat

d) auto.bat

5.copy and xcopy are same in the sense of the following answer:a) Both are internal commands of DOS
group of files

b) Both are external commands of DOS

c) Both can be used to copy file or a

d) Both a and b

6.Which command in DOS is used to clear the screen and display the operating system prompt on the first line of the
screen/display?
a) cd

b) md

c) clrsc

d) cls

7.Internal commands in DOS are


a) cls,rd, label

b) dir,ren,sys

c) time, type, dir

d) del, diskcopy, label

8.Which of the following command is used to copy files in DOS


a) copy

b) diskcopy

c) type

d) all of the above

9.Copy the hidden system files to a disk the following command is used in DOS
a) copy

b) ren

c) sys

d) diskcopy

10.diskcopy command in DOS is used accomplish the following task


a) copy a file

b) copy contents of one floppy to another

c) copy contents of CD ROM to another

d) all of the above

11.DOS command used to copy a file named ldce.doc from drive c: to drive a:
a) copy ldce.doc to a:

b) copy c:\ldce.doc a:

c) copy c: a:

d) copy ldce a: c:

12.Some External DOS commands are


a) copy, edit, sys, format

b) edit, sys, chkdsk

c) chkdks, prompt, date

d) sys, ver, vol

13.Which combination of keys is to be pressed to quit a file without saving in DOS


a) ctrl+a

b) ctrl+b

c) ctrl+c

d) ctrl+d

14.del command in DOS is used to


a) delete files

b) delete directory

c) delete labels

d) delete contents of a file

15.chkdsk can be used to find out


a) disk's bad portion

b) occupied space

c) free space

d) all of the above

16.dir command is used to


a) display the list of files in a directory

b) display contents of files in a directory

c) display type of files in a sub directory

d) all of the above

17.The deleted file in DOS can be recovered if you use the following command
a) donotdelete

b) nodelete

c) undelete

d) ondelete

18.While working with DOS, which key can be used to repeat the previous command?
a) F3

b) F1

c) F7

d) F9

19.FAT stands for


a) File Accomodation Table

b) File Allocation Table

c) File Activity Table

d) File Advantage Table

20.xcopy command in DOS can copy


a) individual files or a group of files

b) directories including their subdirectories

c) to desk of a different capacity

d)

all of the above

21.format command in DOS is used to


a) prepare a blank disk

b) create new blank disk from a used one

c) both of the above

d) none of the above

22.Which command in DOS is used to change the name of the file


a) ren

b) rename

c) both of the above

d) none of the above

23.restore command in DOS is used to


a) restore files from disks made using backup command of DOS
recycle bin

d) restore files which are deleted recently

b) restore files which are deleted

c) restore files from

24.The vol command in DOS is used to


a) see the valuse of list

b) see the veriety of language

c) see the disk volume label

d) see the volume of largest

25.Which command in DOS is used to look at the sub directory structure


a) tree

b) list

c) subdir

d) subtree

26.which command in DOS is used to display the subdirectory structure and pause the screen after each screenful of
info
a) tree

b) deltree/f

c) dir | more

d) tree | more

27.Which command in DOS is used to provide access to the files in other directories
a) tree

b) path

c) dir

d) attrib

28.Which command in DOS is used to see the contents of a file


a) type

b) copy

c) ed

d) none of the above

29.which command can be used to create tracks and sectors on a disk


a) fdisk

b) format

c) chkdsk

d) attrib

30.which command is used to create partitios using DOS/.


a) fdisk

b) format

c) chkdsk

d) attrib

31.Which file in DOS contain internal commands that are loaded during the booting process
a) io.sys

b) msdos.sys

c) command.com

d) config.sys

32.Which switch along with the command dir in DOS is used to view files in all directories
a) /p

b) /w

c) /s

d) /l

33.While working with DOS, which command is used to combine files ldce1 plus ldce2 to a new file ldce3
a) copy ldce1 ldce2 to ldce3

b) copy ldce1+ldce2 ldce3

c) copy ldce1+ldce2+ldce3

d) copy ldce2 ldce1 +ldce3

34.Which command in DOS allows you to move one file from one location to another location
a) rename

b) copy

c) move

d) cp

35.____ runs on computer hardware and serves as a platform for other software to run on
a) operating system

b) application software

c) system software

d) all

36.Each time you turn on a DOS based computer, it will check for the following files
a) command.com, io.sys

b) command.com, date.com, dir.com

c) command.com, io.sys, msdos.sys

37.Which of the following file extension that suggests a backup copy


a) bak

b) bas

c) com

d) txt

38.Which of the command in DOS creates a directory


a) mkdir

b) md

c) mk

d) both a and b

39.Which command in DOS displays only file and directory names without size and date info
a) dir/w

b) dir/a

c) dir/b

d) dir/s

d) chkdks.exe

40.Which DOS command is used to delete a directory that is empty?


a) del *.*

b) rd

c) erase

d) md

41.Which of the following operating systems does not implement multitasking truly?
a) Windows 95

b) Windows 98

c) Windoes XP

d) MS DOS

42.The primary purpose of operating system is


a) to make the most efficient use of the computer hardware
programmers employed

b) to allow people to use the computer

c) to keep systems

d) to make computers easier to use

43.____ transforms one interface to another


a) program

b) software

c) data

d) none

44.What is the system built directly on the hardware


a) operating system

b) software

c) program

d) none

45.Multi tasking is
a) easier to develop than single task

b) execute each job faster

c) execute more jobs at the same time period

d)

used only in large computers

46.The first program that runs on a computer when the computers boot up
a) system software

b) operating system

c) system operations

d) none

47.An interface in a computer that consists program counters, registers, interrupts and terminals
a) hardware

b) software

c) data

d) none

48.Swapping actually
a) works best with most computers
turn to use the memory

b) allows many programs to use memory simultaneously

c) allows each program in

d) does not work with overlaying

49.Which is the valid filename in DOS


a) ldce*.txt

b) ldce?.txt

c) ldce_$.txt

d) none

50.Which is a valid extension that a user is allowed to create on DOS


a) .exe

b) .com

c) .sys

d) .bat

Question Bank for General Computer Architecture Topics

Online Question Paper..


1.ALU stands for
a) Arithmetic Logic Unit

b) Array Logic Unit

c) Application Logic Unit

d) None of the above

2.VGA stands for


a) Video Graphics Array

b) Visual Graphics Array

c) Volatile Graphics Array

3.The capacity of a 3.5 inch floppy disk is


a) 1.40 MB

b) 1.44 GB

4.EBCDIC stands for

c) 1.40 GB

d) 1.44 MB

d) Vedio Graphics Adapter

a) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code


Bit Case Decimal Interchange Code

b) Extended Bit Code Decimal Interchange Code

c) Extended

d) Extended Binary Case Decimal Interchange Code

5.ASCII stands for


a) American Stable Code for International Interchange
American Standard Code for Information Interchange

b) American Standard Case for Institutional Interchange

c)

d) American Standard Code For Interchange Information

6.EEPROM stands for


a) Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
Electronic Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory

b) Easily Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory

c)

d) Electronic Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory

7.The output quality of a Dot Matrix printers is measured by


a) Dots per inch

b) Dots per square inch

c) Dots printed on line

d) All of the above

8.In analog computer


a) Input is first converted into digital form
form

b) Input is never converted into digital form

c) Out put is displayed in digital

d) None of the above

9.In the latest computers, the instructions are executed in


a) Parelelly

b) Sequentially

c) Both sequentially and parelelly

d) All of the above

10.A computer program that converts the entire program into machine language is called as
a) Interpretor

b) Simulator

c) Compiler

d) Editor

11.A computer program that translates the program instructions one at a time into machine language is known as
a) Interpreter

b) CPU

c) Compiler

d) Simulator

12.The ALU of a computer responds to the commands coming from


a) Primary Memory

b) Control Section

c) External Memory

d) Cache Memory

13.Instructions and memory address are represented by


a) Character Code

b) Binary Code

c) Binary Word

d) Parity Bit

14.The CPU (Central Processing Unit) consists of


a) Input, output, and processing
Logic Unit and Primary Storage

b) Control Unit, Primary Storage, and secondary storage

c) Control Unit, Arithmetic

d) Control Unit, Processing and Primary Storage

15.The ALU of a computer normally contains a number of high speed storage elements called
a) semiconductor memory

b) registers

c) hard disks

d) magnetic disk

16.Which of the following is used only for data entry and storage and never for processing
a) mouse

b) micro computer

c) dedicated data entry system

d) dumb terminal

17.What is the responsibility of a logical unit in CPU


a) to produce the result

b) to compare numbers

c) to control flow of information

d) to do mathematical works

18.The secondary storage devices can only store data but they can not perform
a) arithmetic operations

b) logic operations

c) fetch operations

d) either of the above

19.Which of the following memories allow simultaneous read and write operations
a) ROM

b) RAM

c) EPROM

d) None

20.Which of the following memories has the shortest access time


a) Cache Memory

b) Magnetic Bubble Memory

c) Magnetic Core Memory

d) RAM

21.A 32 bit microprocessor has the word length equal to


a) 2 byte

b) 32 byte

c) 4 byte

d) None

22.A set of information that defines the status of resources allocated to a process is
a) Process Control

b) ALU

c) Register Unit

d) Process Description

23.The device operates under the control of another device


a) Stem

b) Slave

c) Simulator

d) Emulator

24.The storage capacity of a disk system depends on the bits per inch of track and the tracks per inch of
a) cylinder

b) hum

c) cluster

d) surface

25.Which number system is commonly used as a shortcut notation for groups of four binary digits?
a) Binary

b) Decimal

c) Octal

d) Hexadecimal

26.Interface electronic circuit is used to interconnect i/o devices to a computer's CPU or


a) ALU

b) Memory

c) Buffer

d) Register

27.Properly arranged data is called


a) FIeld

b) Words

c) Information

d) File

28.A physical connection between the microprocessor memory and other parts of the microcomputer is known as
a) Path

b) Address Bus

c) Route

d) All of the above

29.The brain of any computer system is


a) ALU

b) Memory

c) CPU

d) Control Unit

30.Each model of a computer has a unique


a) Assembly of computer

b) Machine Language

c) High Level Language

d) All of the above

31.One of the main feature that distinguishes microprocessors from micro-computers is


a) Words are usually larger in microprocessors
contain I/O devices

b) Words are shorter in microprocessors

c) Microprocessor does not

d) Exactly the same as the machine cycle time

32.The arranging of data in a logical sequence is known as


a) Sorting

b) Classifying

c) Reproducing

d) Summarizing

33.Central Processing Units is a combination of


a) Control and Storage

b) Control and output unit

c) Arithmetic logic and input unit

unit

34.The brain of any computer is


a) Control Unit

b) Arithmetic Logic Unit

c) Central Processing Unit

d) Storage Unit

d) Arithmetic logic and control

35.Pick the one that is used for logical operations or comparisons such as less than or equal to or greater than
a) Arithmetic and Logic Unit

b) Control Unit

c) Both of the above

d) None of the above

36.Analog computer works on the supply of


a) Continuous electrical pulses

b) Electrical pulses but not continuous

c) Magnetic Strength

d) None of the above

37.A computer that processes both analog and digital is known as


a) Analog Computer

b) Digital Computer

c) Hybrid Computer

d) Mainframe Computer

38.Which of the following are the two main components of the CPU
a) Control Unit and Registers

b) Registers and Main memory

c) Control Unit and ALU

d) ALU and bus

39.The two basic types of record access methods are


a) Sequential and Random

b) Sequential and indexed

c) Direct and immediate

d) Online and Real TIme

40.Different components on the mother board of a PC unit are linked together by sets of parallel electrical conducting
lines. What are these lines called?
a) Conducters

b) Buses

c) Connectors

d) consecutives

41.Which of the following types of memories need a refresh


a) SRAM

b) DRAM

c) ROM

d) All of the above

42.Access time is
a) seek time + latency time

b) seek time

c) seek time - latency time

d) latency time

43.Seek time is
a) time to position the head over the proper track
head over proper cylinder

b) time to position the head over proper sector

c) time to position the

d) none of the above

44.Latency Time is
a) time to spin the needed data under head

b) Time to spin the needed under track

c) Time to spin data under sector

d) None

45.Which of the following is not a computer language


a) High level language

b) Low level language

c) Medium level language

d) None of the above

46.Machine language is
a) machine dependent

b) difficult to program

c) error prone

d) all of the above

47.A compiler is a translating program which


a) translates instruction of a high level language into machine language
language program

c) it is not invlolved in program execution

b) translates entire source program into machine

d) all of the above

48.What statement is valid in case of an Interpretor


a) It translates one insturction at a time
necessary

b) Object code is saved for future use

d) All of the above

49.A name or number that is used to identify a storage location device

c) Repeated interpretation is not

a) A byte

b) A Record

c) An Address

d) All of the above

50.The basic difference between memory and storage is, While the memory is ____________ and storage is_________
a) Temporary, permanent

b) Permanent, temporary

c) Slow, fast

d) All of the above

Digital Electronics

1. One hex digit is sometimes referred to as a(n):


a) byte

b) nibble

c) grouping

d) instruction

2. Which of the following is the most widely used alphanumeric code for computer
input and output?
a) Gray

b) ASCII

c) parity

d) EBCDIC

3. A binary number's value changes most drastically when the ________ is changed.
a) MSB

b) frequency

c) LSB

d) duty cycle

4. When using even parity, where is the parity bit placed?


a) Before the MSB
parity bit

b) After the LSB

c) In the parity word

d) After the odd

5. What is the difference between binary coding and binary-coded decimal?


a) BCD is pure binary
decimal format

b) Binary coding has a decimal format

c) BCD has no

d) Binary coding is pure binary

6. Digital electronics is based on the ________ numbering system.


a) decimal

b) octal

c) binary

d) hexadecimal

7.An informational signal that makes use of binary digits is considered to be:
a) solid state

b) digital

c) analog

d) non-oscillating

8. The binary-coded decimal (BCD) system can be used to represent each of the 10
decimal digits as a(n):
a) 4-bit binary code

b) 8-bit binary code

c) 16-bit binary code

d) ASCII code

9. The American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII) uses how many
individual pulses for any given character?
a) 1

b) 2

c) 7

d) 8

10. A device used to display one or more digital signals so that they can be compared to
expected timing diagrams for the signals is a:
a) DMM

b) spectrum analyzer

c) logic anlyzer

d) frequecy counter

11. Which of the following logical operations is represented by the + sign in Boolean
algebra?
a) inversion

b) AND

c) OR

d) complementation

12. TTL operates from a


a) 9 V supply

b) 3 volt supply

c) 12 volt supply

d) 5 volt supply

13. The switching speed of CMOS is now


a) competitive with TTL
twice that of TTL

b) three times that of TTL

c) slower than TTL

d)

14. Logically, the output of a NOR gate would have the same Boolean expression as a
a) NAND gate immediately followed by an inverter

b) OR gate immediately

followed by an inverter
c) AND gate immediately followed by an inverter
gate immediately followed by an inverter

d) NOR

15. The terms "low speed" and "high speed," applied to logic circuits, refer to the
a) rise time

b) fall time

c) propagation delay time

d) clock speed

16. What is the name of a digital circuit that produces several repetitive digital
waveforms?
a) an inverter

b) an OR gate

c) a johnson shift counter

d) an AND gate

17. What is another name for a one-shot?


a) Monostable

b) Multivibrator

c) Bistable

d) Astable

18. A correct output is achieved from a master-slave J-K flip-flop only if its inputs are
stable while the:
a) clock is LOW

b) slave is transferring

19. What is the hold condition of a flip-flop?

c) flip-flop is reset

d) clock is HIGH

a) botn S and R inputs activated


d) Only R is active

b) no active S or R input

c) Only S is active

20. Which of the following is not generally associated with flip-flops?


a) Hold time

b) Propagation delay time

c) Interval time

d) Set up time

21. Edge-triggered flip-flops must have:


a) very fast response times

b) at least two inputs to handle rising and falling edges

c) positive edge-detection circuits

d) negative edge-detection circuits

22. What is one disadvantage of an S-R flip-flop?


a) It has no enable input
It has only a single output

b) It has an invalid state

c) It has no clock input

d)

23. If an input is activated by a signal transition, it is ______


a) edge-triggered

b) toggle triggered

c) clock triggered

d) noise triggered

24.Latches constructed with NOR and NAND gates tend to remain in the latched
condition due to which configuration feature?
a) cross coupling
operation

b) gate impedance

c) low input voltages

d) asynchronous

25. The output of a gated S-R flip-flop changes only if the:


a) flip-flop is set
b) control input data has changed
input data has no change

c) flip-flop is reset

d)

26. Pulse stretching, time-delay, and pulse generation are all easily accomplished with
which type of multivibrator circuit?
a) astable

b) mono stable

c) multistable

d) bistable

27. An astable multivibrator requires:


a) balanced time constants

b) a pair of matched transistors

c) no input signal

d) dual J-K flip-flops

28. A crystal demonstrates the ________ effect when a mechanical force across the
crystal causes a small voltage to be generated.
a) photoelectric

b) co-pitts

c) piezoelectric

d) flywheel

29. What is the difference between an astable multivibrator and a monostable


multivibrator?
a) The astable is free running
monostable is free running

b) The astable needs to be clocked

c) The

d) none of the above

30. The output of the astable circuit ________


a) constantly switches between two states
c) is HIGH until a trigger is received

b) is LOW until a trigger is received

d) floats until triggered

31. A monostable 555 timer has the following number of stable states:
a) 0

b) 1

c) 2

d) 3

32. What is a shift register that will accept a parallel input, or a bidirectional serial load
and internal shift features, called?
a) tristate

b) endaround

c) universal

d) conversion

33. To operate correctly, starting a ring shift counter requires:


a) clearing all flip-flops

b) presetting one flip-flop and clearing all others

clearing one flip-flop and presetting all others

c)

d) presetting all the flip-flops

34. A modulus-12 ring counter requires a minimum of ---flip-flops


a) 10

b) 12

c) 6

d) 2

35. Stepper motors have become popular in digital automation systems because
a) of their low cost

b) they are driven by sequential digital signals

c) they can

be used to provide repetitive mechanical movement


d) they are driven by sequential
digital signals and can be used to provide repetitive mechanical movem

36. A sequence of equally spaced timing pulses may be easily generated by which type of
counter circuit?
a) ring shift

b) clock

c) johnson

d) binary

37. How many clock pulses will be required to completely load serially a 5-bit shift
register?
a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 5

38. How is a strobe signal used when serially loading a shift register?

a) to turn the register on and off

b) to control the number of clocks

determine which output Qs are used

c) to

d) to determine the FFs that will be used

39. What is the difference between a ring shift counter and a Johnson shift counter?
a) there is no difference
The Johnson is faster

b) A ring is faster

c) The feedback is reversed

d)

40. What is a recirculating register?


a) serial out connected to serial in
register that can be used over again

b) all Q outpus connected together

c) a

d) all of the above

41. Ring shift and Johnson counters are:


a) synchronous counters
b) asynchronous counters
d) synchronous and true binary counters

c) true binary counters

42. What is a transceiver circuit?


a) a buffer that transfers data from input to output
from output to input
above

b) a buffer that transfers data

c) buffer that can operate in both directions

d) all of the

43. Which type of device may be used to interface a parallel data format with external
equipment's serial format?
a) key matrix

b) UART

c) memory chip

d) series in,parallel out

44. What is the function of a buffer circuit?


a) to provide an output that is inverted from that on the input
output that is equal to its input

c) to clean up the input

b) to provide an

d) to clean up the output

45. Another way to connect devices to a shared data bus is to use a ________.
a) circulating gate

b) transceiver

c) bidirectional encoder

d) strobed latch

46. Computers operate on data internally in a ________ format.


a) tristate

b) universal

c) parallel

d) serial

47. How much storage capacity does each stage in a shift register represent?
a) one bit

b) two bits

c) nibble

d) byte

48. When two counters are cascaded, the overall MOD number is equal to the
________ of their individual MOD numbers.
a) product

b) sum

c) log

d) reciprocal

49. A BCD counter is a ________.


a) binary counter
counter

b) full-modulus counter

c) decade counter

d) divide-by-10

50. How many different states does a 3-bit asynchronous counter have?
a) 2

b) 4

c) 8

d) 16

Test Your Self

1. Telephone systems may be classified as:


a) duplex and symmetrical.

b) duplex and asymmetrical.

c) simplex and assymmetrical

d) simplex and symmetrical

2. A network that provides a constant bandwidth for the complete duration of a message transfer is a:
a) circuit switched network

b) cell switched network

c) packet switched network

d) None

3. A router:
a) determines on which outgoing link a packet is to be forwarded.
forwards a packet to all outgoing links

b) forwards a packet to the next free outgoing link.

c)

d) forwards a packet to all outgoing links, except the link upon which the packet

originated.

4. The Internet is an example of a:


a) packet switched network

b) cell switched network

c) circuit switched network

d) None

5. Baseband transmission may be defined as the transmission of a signal over a link:


a) which is relatively short.

b) by means of wires.

c) at a different band of frequencies

d) without any change in

frequency.

6.A telephone customarily includes a 4-wire to 2-wire hybrid. The purpose of a hybrid is:
a) to combine the signals associated with the microphone and speaker.
line.

b) to interconnect the 4 wires of a telephone to a

c) to merge/separate signals associated with the microphone and speaker.

d) None

7.Which of the following definitions correctly describes the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)?
a) DHCP enables a NIC to determine the IP address for a given MAC address.
addresses are assigned centrally by a server to each host
address

b) DHCP is a technique whereby IP

c) DHCP enables a NIC to determine the MAC address for a given IP

d) DHCP is a routing protocol run by routers within a network

8. The Domain Name System (DNS) is primarily used to:


a) remove the need for a user to indicate a host they wish to communicate with by means of an IP addres
symbolic name of a host, given its IP address
the MAC address of a host, given its IP address.

c) determine the IP address of a host, given its MAC address

b) determine the
d) determine

9.Which data communication method is used to transmit the data over a serial communication link?
a) simplex

b) half duplex

c) full duplex

d) none of the above

10. What is the minimum number of wires needed to send data over a serial communication link layer?
a) 1

b) 2

c) 4

d) 6

11. Which of the following types of channels moves data relatively slowly?
a) wide band channel

b) voice band channel

c) narrow band channel

d) broadband channle

12. Most data communications involving telegraph lines use:


a) simplex lines

b) wide band channel

c) narrow band channel

d) dialed service

13. A communications device that combines transmissions from several I/O devices into one line is a
a) concentrator

b) modifier

c) full-duplex line

d) multiplexer

14. In a synchronous modem, the digital-to-analog converter transmits signal to the


a) equilizer

b) modulator

c) demodulator

d) terminal

15. Which of the following communications lines is best suited to interactive processing applications?
a) narrow band channel

b) simplex lines

c) full duplex lines

d) mixed band channel

16. Why IP Protocol is considered as unreliable


a) A packet may be lost

b) Packets may arrive out of order

c) Duplicate packets may be generated

d) all of the

above

17. What is the minimum header size of an IP Packet?


a) 16 bytes

b) 10 bytes

c) 20 bytes

d) 32bytes

18. Which of following provides reliable communication


a) TCP

b) IP

c) UDP

d) all of the above

19. What is address size of IPV6?


a) 32 bit

b) 64 bit

c) 128 it

d) 256 bit

20.What is a Firewall in computer network?


a) The physical boundary of Network
unauthorized access

b) An operating system of computer network

c) A system designed to prevent

d) A web browing Software

21. What does Protocol defines?


a) Protocol defines what data is communicated
when data is communicated

b) Protocol defines how data is communicated

c) Protocol defines

d) all of the above

22 .What is the uses of subnetting?


a) It divides one large network into several smaller ones
speed of network

b) it divides network into network classes

d) none of the above

23. Repeater operates in which layer of the OSI model ?


a) Physical layer

b) Data link layer

c) Network layer

d) Transport layer

c) it speeds up the

24. IPV4 address is


a) 8 bit

b) 16 bit

c) 32 bit

d) 64bit

25. What is the meaning of Bandwidth in Network?


a) Transmission capacity of a communication channels
Network

b) Connected computers in the network

c) Class of IP use in

d) none of the above

26. What is the use of Bridge in Network ?


a) to connect LANs

b) to separate LANs

c) to control Network Speed

d) all of the above

27. Router operates in which layer of OSI Reference Model?


a) Layer 1

b) Layer 3

c) Layer 4

d) Layer 7

28. Each IP packet must contain


a) Only source address

b) Only Destination address

c) source and Destination address

d) Source or Destination

address

29. Bridge works in which layer of the OSI model


a) Application layer

b) Transport layer

c) Network layer

d) Datalink layer

30. which provides a connetion-oriented reliable service of sending messages


a) TCP

b) IP

c) UDP

d) all of the above

31. Which layers of OSI model are host-to-host layers?


a) Transport,Session,Presentaion,Application
Datalink,Network,Transport,Session

b) Network,Transport,Session,Presentation

d) Physical,Datalink,Network,Transport

32. which of the following IP address class is Mulitcast


a) Class A

b) Class B

c) Class C

d) Class D

33. The last address of IP address represents


a) Unicast address

b) Network address

c) Broadcast address

d) none of the above

34. How many bits are there in the Ethernet address


a) 64 bits

b) 48 bits

c) 32 bits

d) 16 bits

35. How many layers are in the TCP/IP model


a) 4 layers

b) 5 layers

c) 6 layers

d) 7 layers

36. Which of the following layer of OSI model also called end-to -end layer?
a) Presentation layer

b) Network layer

c) Session layer

d) Transport layer

37. what is the benefit of the Networking?


a) File sharing

b) Easier access to resources

c) Easier Backups

38. Which of the following is not in the Networking Devices


a) Gateways

b) Linux

c) Routers

d) Firewalls

d) all of the above

c)

39. What is the size of MAC Address ?


a) 16-bits

b) 32-bits

c) 48-bits

d) 64-bits

40. Which of the following can be software?


a) Routers

b) Firewalls

c) Gateways

d) Modems

41. What is the use of Ping command?


a) To test a device on the network is reachable

b) to test a hard disk fault

c) to test a bug in a application

d) to test

a printer quality

42. MAC Address is the example of


a) Transport Layer

b) Data link layer

c) application layer

d) physical layer

43. Routing table of a router keeps track of


a) MAC address assignments

b) port assignments to network devices

c) Distribute IP address to network devices

d) Routes to use for forwarding data to its destination

44. Layer-2 switch is also called


a) Multiport Hub

b) Multiport Switch

c) Multiport Bridge

d) Miultiport NIC

45. The meanig of Straight-through Cable isa) Four painrs connect to the same pin on each end
Four wire pairs not twisted with each other

b) The cable which Directly connects computer to computer

c)

d) The cable which is not twisted

46. What is the maximum header size of an IP packet


a) 32 bytes

b) 64 bytes

c) 30 bytes

d) 60 bytes

47. What is the size of Host bits in Class B of IP address?


a) 4

b) 8

c) 16

d) 32

48. Which of the following is/are Protocols of Application?


a) FTP

b) DNS

c) Telnet

d) All of above

49. Which of the following protocol is/are defined in Transport layer


a) FTP

b) TCP

c) UDP

d) B&C

50. ADSL is the abbreviation of


a) Asymmetric Dual Subscriber line

b) Asymmetric Digital system Line

c) Asymmetric Dual system Line

d)

Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line

Test Your Self

1. Two main measures for the efficiency of an algorithm are


a) Processor and memory

b) Complexity and capacity

c) Time and space

d) Data and space

2.The time factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by


a) Counting micro seconds
Counting the kilobytes of algorithm

b) Counting the number of Key operations

c) Counting the number of statements

d)

3. The space factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by


a) Counting the maximum memory needed by the algorithm
c) Counting the average memory needed by the algorithm

b) Counting the minimum memory needed by the algorithm


d) Counting the maximum disk space needed by the algorithm

4.Which of the following case does not exist in complexity theory


a) Best case

b) Worst case

c) Average case

d) Null case

5. The worst case occur in linear search algorithm when


a) Item is some where in the middle of the array

b) Item is not in the array at all

c) Item is the last element in the array

d) Item is the last element in the array or is not there at all

6. The Average case occur in linear search algorithm when


a) Whin item is somewhere in the middle of the array
element in the array

b) When item is not in the array at all

c) When items is the last

d) When item is the last element in the array or is not there at all

7. The complexity of the average case of an algorithm is


a) Much more complicated to analyze than that of worst case

b) Much more simpler to analyze than that of worst case

c) Sometimes more complicated and some other times simpler than that of worst case

d) None or above

8. The complexity of linear search algorithm is


a) O(n)

b) O(log n)

c) O(n2)

d) O(n log n)

9. The complexity of Binary search algorithm is


a) O(n)

b) O(log n)

c) O(n2)

d) O(n log n)

10. The complexity of Bubble sort algorithm is


a) O(n)

b) O(log n)

c) O(n2)

d) O(n log n)

11. The complexity of merge sort algorithm is


a) O(n)

b) O(log n)

c) O(n2)

d) O(n log n)

12. The indirect change of the values of a variable in one module by another module is called
a) internal change

b) inter-module change

c) side effect

d) side-module update

13. Which of the following data structure is not linear data structure?
a) Arrays

b) Linked lists

c) Both above

d) None of above

14. Which of the following data structure is linear data structure?


a) Trees

b) Graphs

c) Arrays

d) None of above

15. The operation of processing each element in the list is known as


a) Sorting

b) Merging

c) Inserting

d) Traversal

16. Finding the location of the element with a given value is:
a) Traversal

b) Search

c) Sort

17. Arrays are best data structures

d) None of the above

a) for relatively permanent collections of data


changing

c) for both of above situation

b) for the size of the structure and the data in the structure are constantly

d) for none of above situation

18. Linked lists are best suited


a) for relatively permanent collections of data
changing

c) for both of above situation

b) for the size of the structure and the data in the structure are constantly

d) for none of above situation

19. Each array declaration need not give, implicitly or explicitly, the information about
a) the name of array

b) the data type of array

c) the first data from the set to be stored

d) the index set of the array

20. The elements of an array are stored successively in memory cells because
a) by this way computer can keep track only the address of the first element and the addresses of other
of computer memory does not allow arrays to store other than serially

c) both of above

b) the architecture

d) none of above

21. The memory address of the first element of an array is called


a) floor address

b) foundation address

c) first address

d) base address

22. Whichof the following data structures are indexed structure?


a) linear arrays

b) linked lists

c) both of above

d) none of above

23. Which of the following is not the required condition for binary search algorithm?
a) The list must be sorted

b) there should be the direct access to the middle element in any sublist

mechanism to delete and/or insert elements in list

c) There must be

d) none of above

24.Which of the following is not a limitation of binary search algorithm?


a) must use a sorted array

b) requirement of sorted array is expensive when a lot of insertion and deletions are needed

c) there must be a mechanism to access middle element directly

d) binary search algorithm is not efficient when the data

elements are more than 1000.

25. Two dimensional arrays are also called


a) tables arrays

b) matrix arrays

c) both of above

d) None of above

26. A variable P is called pointer if


a) P contains the address of an element in DATA
memory addresses

b) P points to the address of first element in DATA

c) P can store only

d) P contain the DATA and the address of DATA

27. Which of the following data structure can't store the non-homogeneous data elements?
a) Arrays

b) Records

c) Pointers

d) None

28. Which of the following data structure store the homogeneous data elements?
a) Arrays

b) Records

c) Pointers

d) None

29. Each data item in a record may be a group item composed of sub-items; those items which are indecomposable
are called
a) Elementary items

b) atoms

c) scalars

d) all of above

30. Binary search algorithm can not be applied to


a) Sorted linked list

b) sorted binary trees

c) sorted linear array

d) pointer array

31. When new data are to be inserted into a data structure, but there is no available space; this situation is usually called
a) underflow

b) overflow

c) housefull

d) saturated

32. The situation when in a linked list START=NULL is


a) underflow

b) overflow

c) housefull

d) saturated

33. Which of the following is two way list?


a) grounded header list

b) circular header list

c) linked list with header and trailer nodes

d) None of above

34. Which of the following name does not relate to stacks?


a) FIFO lists

b) LIFO list

c) Piles

d) Push-down lists

35. The term "push" and "pop" is related to the


a) Arrays

b) lists

c) stacks

d) all of above

36. A data structure where elements can be added or removed at either end but not in the middle
a) Linked lists

b) Stacks

c) Queues

d) Deque

37. When inorder traversing a tree resulted E A C K F H D B G; the preorder traversal would return
a) FAEKCDBHG

b) FAEKCDHGB

c) EAFKHDCBG

d) FEAKDCHBG

38. Which data structure allows deleting data elements from front and inserting at rear?
a) Stacks

b) Queues

c) Deques

d) Binary search tree

39. Identify the data structure which allows deletions at both ends of the list but insertion at only one end.
a) Input-restricted deque

b) Output-restricted deque

c) Priority queues

d) None of above

40. Which of the following data structure is non-linear type?


a) Strings

b) Lists

c) Stacks

d) None of above

41. Which of the following data structure is linear type?


a) Strings

b) Lists

c) Queues

d) all of above

42. To represent hierarchical relationship between elements, which data structure is suitable?
a) Deque

b) Priority

c) Tree

d) all of above

43. A binary tree whose every node has either zero or two children is called
a) Complete binary tree

b) Binary Search tree

c) Extended binary tree

d) None of above

44. Which of the following sorting algorithm is of divide-and-conquer type?


a) Bubble sort

b) Insertinon sort

c) Quick sort

d) all of above

45. An algorithm that calls itself directly or indirectly is known as


a) Sub algorithm

b) Recursion

c) Polish notation

d) Traversal alogorithm

46. In a binary tree, certain null entries are replaced by special pointers which point to nodes higher in the tree for efficiency. These
special pointers are called
a) Leaf

b) branch

c) path

d) thread

47. The in order traversal of tree will yield a sorted listing of elements of tree in
a) Binary trees

b) Binary search trees

c) Heaps

d) None of above

48. A connected graph T without any cycles is called


a) a tree graph

b) free tree

c) a tree

d) all of above

49. In a graph if e=(u, v) means


a) u is adjacent to v but v is not adjacent to u

b) e begins at u and ends at v

both b and c

50. If every node u in G is adjacent to every other node v in G, A graph is said to be


a) isolated

b) complete

c) finite

d) strongly connected

c) u is processor and v is successor

d)