27.09.2013 RM QB

Chapter 1
Multiple Choice Questions

1. Mrs. Smith is writing her daily observations of a student and writes, without interpretation, that the
student is not completing the class work and is constantly speaking out of turn. Which of the following
objectives does she appear to be using?
a. prediction
b. description
c. explanation
d. exploration
2. Which of the following is a form of research typically conducted by teachers, counselors, and other
professionals to answer questions they have and to specifically help them solve local problems?
a. action research
b. basic research
c. predictive research
d. orientational research
3. How much confidence should you place in a single research study?
a. you should completely trust a single research study.
b. you should trust research findings after different researchers have found the same findings
c. neither a nor b
d. both a and b
4. The development of a solid foundation of reliable knowledge typically is built from which type of
research?
a. basic research
b. action research
c. evaluation research
d. orientational research
5. Which form of reasoning is the process of drawing a specific conclusion from a set of premises?
a. rationalism
b. deductive reasoning
c. inductive reasoning
d. probabilistic
6. The idea that when selecting between two different theories with equal explanatory value, one should
select the theory that is the most simple, concise, and succinct is known as ____________.
a. criterion of falsifiability
b. critical theory
c. guide of simplicity
d. rule of parsimony
7. Research that is done to examine the findings of someone else using the "same variables but different
people" is which of the following?
a. exploration
b. hypothesis
c. replication
d. empiricism
8. ________________ is the idea that knowledge comes from experience.
a. rationalism
b. deductive reasoning
c. logic
d. empiricism
9. According to your text, what are the five key objectives of science?
a. prediction, summary, conclusion, explanation, description
b. influence, prediction, questions, exploration, answers
c. exploration, description, explanation, prediction, influence
d. questions, answers, prediction, explanation, summary
10. A researcher designs an experiment to test how variables interact to influence how well children learn
spelling words. In this case, the main purpose of the study was:
a. Explanation
b. Description
c. Influence
d. Prediction
11. There is a set of churches in the U.S. where part of the service involves snake handling. The researcher
wants to find out why the people attending these churches do this and how they feel and think about it. In
this case, the primary purpose of the study is:
a. Exploration
b. Description
c. Influence
d. Prediction
12. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good theory or explanation?
a. It is parsimonious
b. It is testable
c. It is general enough to apply to more than one place, situation, or person
d. All of the above are characteristics of good theories
13. Which of the following is not a basic assumption of science?
a. Science cannot provide answers to all questions
b. It is possible to distinguish between more and less plausible claims
c. Researchers should follow certain agreed upon norms and practices
d. Science is best at solving value conflicts, such as whether abortion is immoral
14. What general type of research is focused on collecting information to help a researcher advance an
ideological or political position?
a. Evaluation research
b. Basic research
c. Action research
d. Orientational research
15. Which scientific method follows these steps: 1) observation/data, 2) patterns, 3) theory?
a. Inductive
b. Deductive
c. Imductive
d. Top down
16. Rene Descartes is associated with which of the following approached to knowledge generation?
a. Empiricism
b. Rationalism
c. Expert opinion
d. None of the above
17. Which scientific method is a top-down or confirmatory approach?
a. Deductive method
b. Inductive method
c. Hypothesis method
d. Pattern method
18. Which scientific method is a bottom-up or generative approach to research?

a. Deductive method
b. Inductive method
d. Pattern method
19. Which scientific method focuses on testing hypotheses developed from theories?
a. Deductive method
b. Inductive method
d. Pattern method
20. Which scientific method often focuses on generating new hypotheses and theories?
a. Deductive method
b. Inductive method
d. Pattern method
21. Which of the following statements is true of a theory?
a. it most simply means explanation
b. it answers the how and why questions
c. it can be a well developed explanatory system
d. all of the above are correct
Answers:
1. b
2. a
3. b
4. a
5. b
6. d
7. c
8. d
9. c
10. a
11. a
12. d
13. d
14. d
15. a
16. b
17. a
18. b
Chapter 2
1. Which research paradigm is based on the pragmatic view of reality?
a. quantitative research
b. qualitative research
c. mixed research
d. none of the above
2. Which research paradigm is least concerned about generalizing its findings?
a. quantitative research
b. qualitative research
c. mixed research
3. Which of the following best describes quantitative research?
a. the collection of nonnumerical data
b. an attempt to confirm the researchers hypotheses
c. research that is exploratory
d. research that attempts to generate a new theory
4. A condition or characteristic that can take on different values or categories is called ___.
a. a constant
b. a variable
c. a cause-and-effect relationship
d. a descriptive relationship
19. a
20. b
21. d
5. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called a(n):

a. categorical variable
b. dependent variable
c. independent variable
d. intervening variable
6. All of the following are common characteristics of experimental research except:
a. it relies primarily on the collection of numerical data
b. it can produce important knowledge about cause and effect
c. it uses the deductive scientific method
d. it rarely is conducted in a controlled setting or environment
7. Qualitative research is often exploratory and has all of the following characteristics except:
a. it is typically used when a great deal is already known about the topic of interest
b. it relies on the collection of nonnumerical data such as words and pictures
c. it is used to generate hypotheses and develop theory about phenomena in the world
d. it uses the inductive scientific method
8. Which type of research provides the strongest evidence about the existence of cause-and-effect
relationships?
a. nonexperimental Research
b. experimental Research
9. What is the key defining characteristic of experimental research?
a. extraneous variables are never present
b. a positive correlation usually exists
c. a negative correlation usually exists
d. manipulation of the independent variable
10. In _____, random assignment to groups is never possible and the researcher cannot manipulate the
independent variable.
a. basic research
b. quantitative research
c. experimental research
d. causal-comparative and correlational research
11. What is the defining characteristic of experimental research?
a. resistance to manipulation
b. manipulation of the independent variable
c. the use of open-ended questions
d. focuses only on local problems
12. A positive correlation is present when _______.
a. two variables move in opposite directions.
b. two variables move in the same direction.
c. one variable goes up and one goes down
d. several variables never change.
13. Research in which the researcher uses the qualitative paradigm for one phase and the quantitative
paradigm for another phase is known as ______.
a. action research
b. basic research
c. quantitative research
d. mixed method research
e. mixed model research
14. Research in which the researcher uses both qualitative and quantitative research within a stage or across
two of the stages in the research process is known as ______.
a. action research
b. basic research
c. quantitative research
d. mixed method research
e. mixed model research
15. Research that is done to understand an event from the past is known as _____?
a. experimental research
b. historical research
c. replication
d. archival research
16. ______ research occurs when the researcher manipulates the independent variable.
a. causal-comparative research
b. experimental research
c. ethnography
d. correlational research
17. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?
a. age, temperature, income, height
b. grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance
c. gender, religion, ethnic group
d. both a and b
18. What is the opposite of a variable?
a. a constant
b. an extraneous variable
c. a dependent variable
d. a data set
19. Which of the following is the type of nonexperimental research in which the primary independent
variable of interest is categorical?
a. causal-comparative research
b. experimental research
c. qualitative research
d. mixed research
20. Which of the following can best be described as a categorical variable?
a. age
b. annual income
c. grade point average
d. religion
21. In research, something that does not "vary" is called a ___________.
a. variable
b. method
c. constant
d. control group
22. When interpreting a correlation coefficient expressing the relationship between two variables, it is very
important to avoid _______.
a. checking the strength of relationship
b. jumping to the conclusion of causality
c. checking the direction of the relationship
d. expressing a relationship with a correlation coefficient
23. A researcher studies achievement by children in poorly funded elementary schools. She develops a
model that posits parent involvement as an important variable. She believes that parent involvement has an
impact on children by increasing their motivation to do school work. Thus, in her model, greater parent
involvement leads to higher student motivation, which in turn creates higher student achievement. Student
motivation is what kind of variable in this study?
a. Manipulated variable
b. Extraneous variable
c. Confounding variable
d. Mediating or intervening variable
24. The strongest evidence for causality comes from which of the following research methods?
a. Experimental
b. Causal-comparative
c. Correlational
d. Ethnography
25. Which correlation is the strongest?
a. +.10
b. -.95
c. +.90
d. -1.00
26. The correlation between intelligence test scores and grades is:
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Perfect
d. They are not correlated
1.
2.
3.
4.
Answers:
c
b
b
b
27.
28.
5.
6.
7.
8.
c
d
a
b
9. d
10. d
11. b
12. b
13. d
14. e
15. b
16. b
17. d
18. a
19. a
20. d
21. c
22. b
23. d
24. a
29. Chapter 3
30. Multiple Choice Questions
31.
32. 1. A good qualitative problem statement:

33. a. Defines the independent and dependent variables
34. b. Conveys a sense of emerging design
35. c. Specifies a research hypothesis to be tested
36. d. Specifies the relationship between variables that the researcher expects to find
37.
38. 2. The tool function of theory is to:

39. a. Summarize existing knowledge
40. b. Summarize existing hypotheses
41. c. Suggest new relationships and make new predictions
42. d. Suggest new theories
43.
44. 3. The statement of purpose in a research study should:

45. a. Identify the design of the study
46. b. Identify the intent or objective of the study
47. c. Specify the type of people to be used in the study
25. d
26. a
48. d. Describe the study

49.
50. 4. Why is the statement What are the effects of extracurricular activities on cognitive development
of school age children not a good statement of a quantitative research question?
51. a. Because there is no connection between extracurricular activities and cognitive
52. development
53. b. Because there are not enough school age children engaged in extracurricular activities
54. to conduct the study
55. c. Because the study would be too difficult to do given all the different extracurricular
56. activities
57. d. Because the statement was not specific enough to provide an understanding of the
58. variables being investigated
59.
60. 5. A qualitative research question:
61. a. Asks a question about some process, or phenomenon to be explored
62. b. Is generally an open-ended question
63. c. both a and b are correct
64. d. None of the above
65.
66. 6. According to the text, which of the following orders is the recommended in the flowchart of the
development of a research idea?
67. a. Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research question, hypothesis
68. b. Research topic, research purpose, research problem, research question, hypothesis
69. c. Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research question, hypothesis
70. d. Research topic, hypothesis, research problem, research question, research purpose
71.
72. 7. It is essential that you evaluate the quality of internet resources because information obtained via
the internet ranges from very poor to very good.
73. a. True
74. b. False
75.
76. 8. One step that is not included in planning a research study is:
77. a. Identifying a researchable problem
78. b. A review of current research
79. c. Statement of the research question
80. d. Conducting a meta-analysis of the research
81. e. Developing a research plan
82.
83. 9. Sources of researchable problems can include:
84. a. Researchers own experiences as educators
85. b. Practical issues that require solutions
86. c. Theory and past research
87. d. All of the above
88.
89. 10. A key characteristic of past research that guides researchers in new research questions is that:
90. a. Extensive research conclusively and definitively answers research questions
91. b. Studies typically generate more research questions than they answer
92.
93. 11. Which of the following is a function of theory?
94. a. Integrating and summarizing current knowledge
95. b. Making predictions
96. c. Explaining phenomena

97. d. All of the above are important functions of theory
98.
99. 12. A review of the literature prior to formulating research questions allows the researcher to do
which of the following?
100.
a. To become familiar with prior research on the phenomenon of interest
101.
b. To identify potential methodological problems in the research area
102.
c. To develop a list of pertinent problems relative to the phenomenon of interest
103.
d. All of the above
104.
105.
13. Sometimes a comprehensive review of the literature prior to data collection
is not recommended by grounded theorists.
106.
a. True
107.
b. False
108.
109.
14. What kind of ideas cant be empirically researched?
110.
a. Effectiveness of different methods of instruction
111.
b. Description of educational practices
112.
c. Issues of values and morality such as the correctness of having prayer in schools
113.
d. Factors helpful in predicting future drug use
114.
115.
15. Which of the following is not a database containing information to be used during the
literature review?
116.
a. ERIC
117.
b. PsychINFO
118.
c. SocioFILE
119.
d. all of the above are potentially useful data bases
120.
121.
16. Computer database searches can be done:
122.
a. With a computer with CD-ROM drive
123.
b. At the library
124.
c. Online
125.
d. All of the above
126.
127.
17. The feasibility of a research study should be considered in light of:
128.
a. Cost and time required to conduct the study
129.
b. Skills required of the researcher
130.
c. Potential ethical concerns
131.
d. All of the above
132.
133.
18. A formal statement of the research question or purpose of research study generally
______.
134.
a. Is made prior to the literature review
135.
b. Is made after the literature review
136.
c. Will help guide the research process
137.
d. All of the above
138.
e. b and c
139.
140.
19. Is the following qualitative research purpose statement well stated or poorly
stated? The focus of the present study was to explore distressing and nurturing encounters of
patients with caregivers and to ascertain the meanings that are engendered by such encounters. The
study was conducted on one of the surgical units and the obstetrical/gynecological unit of a 374-bed
community hospital.
141.
a. It is a well stated
142.
b. It is poorly stated
143.
144.
145.
20. Which of the following quantitative research questions is superior?
146.
a. What is the effect of participation in various extracurricular activities on academic
performance?
147.
b. What effect does playing high school football have on students overall grade point
average during the football season?
148.
149.
21. A statement of the quantitative research question should:
150.
a. Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question(s) the researcher will
151.
address
152.
b. Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods, measures, and
153.
materials
154.
c. Specify the variables of interest
155.
d. All of the above
156.
157.
22. The research participants are described in detail in which section of the research plan?
158.
a. Introduction
159.
b. Method
160.
c. Data analysis
161.
d. Discussion
162.
163.
23. Research hypotheses are ______.
164.
a. Formulated prior to a review of the literature
165.
b. Statements of predicted relationships between variables
166.
c. Stated such that they can be confirmed or refuted
167.
d. b and c
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
24. Hypotheses in qualitative research studies usually _____.

a. Are very specific and stated prior to beginning the study
b. Are often generated as the data are collected, interpreted, and analyzed
c. Are never used
d. Are always stated after the research study has been completed
174.
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
25. A research plan _____.

a. Should be detailed
b. Should be given to others for review and comments
c. Sets out the rationale for a research study
d. All of the above
180.
181.
182.
183.
184.
185.
186.
26. The Method section of the research plan typically specifies

a. The research participants
b. The results of prior studies that address the phenomena of interest
c. The apparatus, instruments, and materials for the research study
d. The planned research procedures
e. a, c and d
187.
188.
189.
27. The Introduction section of the research plan

a. Gives an overview of prior relevant studies
190.
b.
191.
c.
includes
192.
193.
d.
Contains a statement of the purpose of the study

Concludes with a statement of the research questions and, for quantitative research, it
the research hypothesis
All of the above
194.
195.
196.
197.
198.
199.
200.
201.
202.
28. According to your text, which of the following is not a source of research ideas?
a. Everyday life
b. Practical issues
c. Past research
d. Theory
e. All of the above ARE sources of research ideas
203.
204.
1.
2.
3.
4.
b
c
b
d
Answers:
5. c
6. a
7. a
8. d
210.
211.
212.
213.
214.
215.
216.
217.
218.
219.
220.
221.
222.
223.
224.
225.
226.
227.
228.
229.
230.
231.
9. d
10. b
11. d
12. d
13. a
17. d
21. d
25. d
14. c
18. e
22. b
26. e
15. d
19. a
23. d
27. d
16. d
20. b
24. b
28. e
205.
206.
207.
Chapter 4
208.
209.
1. Ethics is the set of principles and guidelines that help us to uphold the things we value.
a. True
b. False
2. Which of the following is necessary in obtaining informed consent?
a. A description of the statistical analyses that will be carried out
b. A description of the purpose of the research
c. A description of the reliability and validity of test instruments
d. A list of publications that the researcher has had in the last ten years
3. Which of the following need(s) to be obtained when doing research with children?
a. Informed consent from the parent or guardian
b. Assent from the child if he or she is capable
c. Informed consent from the child
d. Both a and b
4. Which of the following is true about the use of deception in research?
a. It should never be used
b. It can be used anytime
c. If there is deception in a study, the participants may need to be debriefed
d. The use of deception must be outweighed by other benefits of the study
e. Both c and d are true
232.
233.
field?
234.
235.
236.
5. Which of the following generally cannot be done in qualitative studies conducted in the
a. Getting informed consent
b. Keeping participants from physical harm
c. Maintaining consent forms
237.
d. Having full anonymity rather than just confidentiality
238.
239.
6. What is the primary approach that is used by the IRB to assess the ethical acceptability of a
research study?
240.
a. Utilitarianism
241.
b. Deontology
242.
c. Ethical skepticism
243.
d. Comparativeism
244.
245.
7. Which of the following approaches says that ethical issues should be judged on the basis of
some universal code?
a. Deontological
b. Ethical skepticism
c. Utilitarianism
246.
247.
8 Which of the following is not an ethical guideline for conducting research with humans?
a. Getting informed consent of the participant
b. Telling participants they must continue until the study has been completed
c. Keeping participants identity anonymous
248.
d. Telling participants they are free to withdraw at any time
249.
250.
9. Which of the three ethics approaches says research ethics should be a matter of the
individual's conscience?
a. Deontological approach
c. Utilitarianism
251.
d. Ontological skepticism
252.
253.
10. ________ means that the participant's identity, although known to the researcher, is not
revealed to anyone outside of the researcher and his or her staff.
a. Anonymity
b. Confidentiality
254.
255.
11. Which of the following is not true?
a. Misrepresenting and creating fraudulent data is dishonest
b. Misrepresenting data is very easy to detect
c. Misrepresenting data can be difficult to detect
256.
d. Breaking confidentiality is not a problem
257.
258.
12. Ideally, the research participant's identity is not known to the researcher. This is called:
a. Anonymity
b. Confidentiality
c. Deception
d. Desensitizing
259.
260.
13. Which of the following approaches taken by people to resolve ethical issues is the
primary approach used by the federal government and most professional organizations?
a. Deontological approach
c. Utilitarianism
261.
262.
14. What is it called when the participants are not revealed to any one but researcher and
staff?
a. Confidentiality
b. Anonymity
c. Ethics
d. Discretion
263.
264.
15. Research participants must give what before they can participate in a study?
a. Guidelines
b. A commitment
c. Informed consent
d. Private information
265.
266.
16. There are three basic approaches that people tend to adopt when considering ethical issues
in research. Which one of the following is not one of the approaches?
a. Ethical skepticism
b. Deontology
c. Ontology
d. Utilitarianism
267.
17. Identify the term that refers to a poststudy interview in which all aspects of the study are
revealed, reasons for the use of deception are given, and the participants questions are answered?
a. Desensitizing
b. Debriefing
c. Dehoaxing
d. Deploying
268.
269.
18. A set of principles to guide and assist researchers in deciding which goals are most
important and in reconciling conflicting values when conducting research is called ____.
a. Research ethics
b. Deontological approach
c. Utilitarianism
270.
271.
19. IRB is an acronym for which of the following?
a. Internal Review Board
b. Institutional Rating Board
c. Institutional Review Board
d. Internal Request Board
272.
273.
20. When it is necessary to engage in a good amount of deception to conduct a scientifically
valid study, what procedure(s) should a researcher consider following?
a. Debriefing
b. Dehoaxing
c. Desensitizing
d. All of the above should be considered
274.
275.
21. The act of publishing the same data and results in more than one journal or publication
refers to which of the following professional issues:
276.
a. Partial publication
277.
b. Duplicate publication
278.
c. Deception
279.
d. Full publication
280.
281.
22. Concerning "authorship" in educational research, intellectual ownership is predominantly
a function of:
282.
a. Effort expended
283.
b. Creative contribution
284.
c. Professional position
285.
d. Level of higher education
286.
287.
23. Which term refers to publishing several articles from the data collected in one large
study?
288.
a. Duplicate publication
b. Partial publication
c. Triplicate publication
d. None of these
289.
290.
24. Which of the following is a right of each participant according to the AERA?
a. Deception
291.
b. Utilitarianism
292.
c. Freedom to withdraw
d. Participants have no rights
293.
294.
Answers:
1. a
4. e
7. a
10. b
13. c
16. c
19. c
22. b
5. d
8. b
11. b
14. a
17. b
20. d
23. b
2. b
6. a
9. b
12. a
15. c
18. a
21. b
24. c
3. d
295.
296.
297.
Chapter 5
298.
299.
300.
1. Which of the following is not an assumption underlying testing and measurement?
301.
a. Various approaches to measuring aspects of the same thing can be useful
302.
b. Error is rarely present in the measurement process
303.
c. Present-day behavior predicts future behavior
304.
d. Testing and assessment benefit society
305.
306.
2. Systematic error is associated with:
307.
a. Reliability
308.
b. Validity
309.
310.
3. Which of the following is a type of criterionrelated validity evidence?
311.
a. Concurrent evidence
312.
b. Predictive evidence
313.
c. Internal consistency
314.
d. Both a and b are correct answers
315.
316.
4. If a test measures a single construct then:
317.
a. The items should correlate with the total score
318.
b. The items should not correlate with the total score
319.
c. The test should not correlate with other measures of the same construct
320.
d. There must be a reliable alternative form.
321.
322.
5. Professor X develops a test of emotional intelligence. Which of the following represent
convergent and discriminant evidence?
323.
a. The test correlates highly with another test of emotional intelligence and is
324.
uncorrelated with self-efficacy
325.
b. The test correlates with highly with another test of emotional intelligence and is
326.
highly correlated with self-efficacy
327.
c. The test does not correlate with another test of emotional intelligence, but does
328.
correlate with self-efficacy
329.
d. The test does not correlate with other tests of emotional intelligence nor with self330.
efficacy
331.
332.
6. An ordinal scale is used to rank order people, objects, or characteristics.
a. True
b. False
333.
334.
7. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement?
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Interval
d. Ratio
335.
336.
8. ______ tests focus on information acquired through the informal learning that goes on in
life.
a. Personality
b. Achievement
c. Aptitude
d. Intelligence
337.
338.
9. Lets say that a test accurately indicates participants scores on a future criterion (e.g., the
PSAT is used to indicate high-school GPA scores). This test would clearly have which of the
following?
339.
a. Face validity
340.
b. Concurrent validity
341.
c. Predictive validity
342.
d. Content validity
343.
344.
10. If a baseball coach calculates batting averages, what scale would be used?
345.
a. Interval scale
346.
b. Ratio scale
347.
c. Nominal scale
348.
d. Ordinal scale
349.
350.
11. According to the text, most of the outcome/dependent variable characteristics and
attributes measured in educational research probably exist at the ______________ level of
measurement.
351.
a. Nominal
352.
b. Ordinal
353.
c. Interval
354.
d. Ratio
355.
356.
12. Which of the following is most clearly an example of a psychological trait?
357.
a. Anxiety enduring for months or years
358.
b. Anxiety over just seeing a spider
359.
c. Shyness when meeting a stranger for the first time
360.
d. Depression caused by the loss of a ball game
361.
362.
13. All of the following are examples of Intelligence Tests except _________:
363.
a. Wechsler Scales
364.
b. Stanford-Binet
365.
c. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory(MMPI)
366.
d. Slosson
367.
368.
14. Reliability is most simply known as which of the following?
369.
a. Consistency or stability
370.
b. Appropriateness of interpretations on the basis of test scores
371.
c. Ways in which people are the same
372.
d. A rank order of participants on some characteristic
373.
374.
15. An ordinal scale is:
a. The simplest form of measurement
b. A rank-order scale of measurement
c. A scale with equal intervals between adjacent numbers
d. A scale with an absolute zero point
375.
e. A categorical scale
376.
377.
16. Which of the following is not a type of reliability?
a. Test-retest
b. Split-half
c. Content
378.
d. Internal consistency
17. Which of the following statements accurately describes test-retest reliability?
379.
a. Measure of consistency of test scores over time
380.
b. Measure of consistency of scores obtained from two equivalent halves of the same test
381.
c. Measure of consistency with which a test measures a single construct or concept
382.
d. Measure of degree of agreement between two or more scorers, judges, or raters
383.
384.
18. Which of the following types of reliability refers to the consistency of test scores over
time?
a. Equivalent forms reliability
b. Split-half reliability
c. Test-retest reliability
d. Inter-scorer reliability
19. Identify the following term that most closely refers to a judgement of the extent to which scores
from a test can be used to infer, or predict, the examinees' performance in some activity:
a. Content reliability
b. Face validity
c. Criterion-related validity
d. Inference validity
385.
386.
20. Which of the following is the correct order of Stevens four levels of measurement?
a. Ordinal, nominal, ratio, interval
b. Nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio
c. Interval, nominal, ordinal, ratio
d. Ratio, interval, nominal, ordinal
21. Which is the process of gathering evidence supporting inferences based test scores?
a. Validation
b. Validity
c. Reliability
387.
d. Prediction
388.
389.
22. When evaluating tests and assessments, reliability refers to asking ourselves which of
the following questions?
390.
a. Does it measure what it is supposed to measure?
391.
b. Are there ways to avoid subjective judgments when measuring something?
392.
c. Does it give consistent results?
393.
d. Does it measure multiple constructs?
394.
395.
23. Validity of a test designed to measure a construct such as self-esteem is best described by
which of the following?
396.
a. Scores from the test correlate highly with most intelligence tests
397.
b. Scores from the test correlate highly with most tests of different constructs
398.
c. Scores from the test are not correlated with anything
399.
d. Scores from the test have a relatively strong and positive correlation with other tests of the
400.
same construct (i.e., with other measures of self-esteem) but much lower correlations
401.
with tests of different constructs
402.
403.
24. Which type of reliability refers to the consistency of a group of individuals' scores on
two equivalent forms of a test designed to measure the same characteristic?
404.
a. Split-half
405.
b. Test-retest
406.
c. Split-forms
407.
d. Equivalent forms
408.
409.
25. Achievement tests are designed to measure the degree of learning that has taken place
after a person has been exposed to a specific learning experience.
410.
a. True
411.
b. False
412.
413.
26. _________ refers to how well the particular sample of behaviors used to measure a
characteristic reflects the entire domain of behaviors that constitutes that characteristic.
a. Construct validity evidence
b. Criterion-related validity evidence
c. Content validity evidence
d. Face validity evidence
414.
415.
Answers:
1. b
5. a
9. c
13. c
17. a
21. a
25. a
2. b
6. a
10. b
14. a
18. c
22. c
26. c
3. d
7. a
11. b
15. b
19. c
23. d
4. a
8. c
12. a
16. c
20. b
24. d
27.
28.
29. Chapter 6
31.
32. 1. According to your text, how many points should a rating scale have?
33. a. Five
34. b. Four
35. c. Ten
36. d. Somewhere from 4 to 11 points
37.
38. 2. What is the problem(s) with this set of response categories to the question What is your current
age?
39. 1-5
40. 5-10
41. 10-20
42. 20-30
43. 30-40
44. a. The categories are not mutually exclusive
45. b. The categories are not exhaustive

46. c. Both a and b are problems
47. d. There is no problem with the above set of response categories
48.
49. 3. You should mix methods in a way that provides complementary strengths and nonoverlapping
weaknesses. This is known as the fundamental principle of mixed research.
50. a. True
51. b. False
52.
53. 4. According to the text, questionnaires can address events and characteristics taking place when?
54. a. In the past (retrospective questions)
55. b. In the present (current time questions)
56. c. In the future (prospective questions)
58.
59. 5. Which of the following are principles of questionnaire construction?
60. a. Consider using multiple methods when measuring abstract constructs
61. b. Use multiple items to measure abstract constructs
62. c. Avoid double-barreled questions
64. e. Only b and c
65.
66. 6. Which of these is not a method of data collection.
a. Questionnaires
b. Interviews
c. Experiments
67. d. Observations
68.
69. 7. Secondary/existing data may include which of the following?
a. Official documents
b. Personal documents
70. c. Archived research data
72.
73. 8. An item that directs participants to different follow-up questions depending on their response is
called a ____________.
74. a. Response set
75. b. Probe
76. c. Semantic differential
77. d. Contingency question
78.
79. 9. Which of the following terms best describes data that were originally collected at an earlier time
by a different person for a different purpose?
80. a. Primary data
81. b. Secondary data
82. c. Experimental data
83. d. Field notes
84.
85. 10. Researchers use both open-ended and closed-ended questions to collect data. Which of the
following statements is true?
86. a. Open-ended questions directly provide quantitative data based on the researchers predetermined
response categories
87. b. Closed-ended questions provide quantitative data in the participants own words
88. c. Open-ended questions provide qualitative data in the participants own words
89. d. Closed-ended questions directly provide qualitative data in the participants own words
90.
91. 11. Open-ended questions provide primarily ______ data.
92. a. Confirmatory data

93. b. Qualitative data
94. c. Predictive data
95. d. None of the above
96.
97. 12. Which of the following is true concerning observation?
98. a. It takes less time than self-report approaches
99. b. It costs less money than self-report approaches
100.
c. It is often not possible to determine exactly why the people behave as they do
101.
d. All of the above
102.
103.
13. Qualitative observation is usually done for exploratory purposes; it is also called
___________ observation.
104.
a. Structured
105.
b. Naturalistic
106.
c. Complete
107.
d. Probed
108.
109.
14. As discussed in chapter 6, when constructing a questionnaire it is important to do each of
the following except ______.
110.
a. Use "leading" or "loaded" questions
111.
b. Use natural language
112.
c. Understand your research participants
113.
d. Pilot your test questionnaire
114.
115.
15. Another name for a Likert Scale is a(n):
116.
a. Interview protocol
117.
b. Event sampling
118.
c. Summated rating scale
119.
d. Ranking
120.
121.
16. Which of the following is not one of the six major methods of data collection that are
used by educational researchers?
122.
a. Observation
123.
b. Interviews
124.
c. Questionnaires
125.
d. Checklists
126.
127.
17. The type of interview in which the specific topics are decided in advance but the sequence
and wording can be modified during the interview is called:
128.
a. The interview guide approach
129.
b. The informal conversational interview
130.
c. A closed quantitative interview
131.
d. The standardized open-ended interview
132.
133.
18. Which one of the following in not a major method of data collection:
134.
a. Questionnaires
135.
b. Interviews
136.
c. Secondary data
137.
d. Focus groups
138.
e. All of the above are methods of data collection
139.
140.
19. A question during an interview such as Why do you feel that way? is known as a:
141.
a. Probe
142.
b. Filter question
143.
c. Response
144.
d. Pilot
145.
146.
20. A census taker often collects data through which of the following?
147.
a. Standardized tests
148.
b. Interviews
149.
c. Secondary data
150.
d. Observations
151.
152.
21. The researcher has secretly placed him or herself (as a member) in the group that is being
studied. This researcher may be which of the following?
153.
a. A complete participant
154.
b. An observer-as-participant
155.
c. A participant-as-observer
156.
157.
158.
22. Which of the following is not a major method of data collection?
a. Questionnaires
b. Focus groups
c. Correlational method
d. Secondary data
159.
160.
23. Which type of interview allows the questions to emerge from the immediate context or
course of things?
a. Interview guide approach
b. Informal conversational interview
c. Closed quantitative interview
d. Standardized open-ended interview
161.
162.
24. When conducting an interview, asking "Anything else?, What do you mean?, Why do you
feel that way?," etc, are all forms of:
163.
a. Contingency questions
164.
b. Probes
165.
c. Protocols
166.
d. Response categories
167.
168.
25. When constructing a questionnaire, there are 15 principles to which you should adhere.
Which of the following is not one of those principles?
169.
a. Do not use "leading" or "loaded" questions
170.
b. Avoid double-barreled questions
171.
c. Avoid double negatives
172.
d. Avoid using multiple items to measure a single construct
173.
174.
Answers:
1. d
5. d
9. b
13. b
17. a
21. a
25. d
2. c
6. c
10. c
14. a
18. e
22. c
3. a
7. d
11. b
15. c
19. a
23. b
4. d
8. d
12. c
16. d
20. b
24. b
175.
176.
177.
Chapter 7
178.
179.
180.
1. When each member of a population has an equally likely chance of being selected, this is
called:
181.
a. A nonrandom sampling method
182.
b. A quota sample
183.
c. A snowball sample
184.
d. An Equal probability selection method
185.
186.
2. Which of the following techniques yields a simple random sample?
187.
a. Choosing volunteers from an introductory psychology class to participate
188.
b. Listing the individuals by ethnic group and choosing a proportion from within
189.
each ethnic group at random.
190.
c. Numbering all the elements of a sampling frame and then using a random number
191.
table to pick cases from the table.
192.
d. Randomly selecting schools, and then sampling everyone within the school.
193.
194.
3. Which of the following is not true about stratified random sampling?
195.
a. It involves a random selection process from identified subgroups
196.
b. Proportions of groups in the sample must always match their population proportions
197.
c. Disproportional stratified random sampling is especially helpful for getting large enough
198.
subgroup samples when subgroup comparisons are to be done
199.
d. Proportional stratified random sampling yields a representative sample
200.
201.
4. Which of the following statements are true?
202.
a. The larger the sample size, the greater the sampling error
203.
b. The more categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis, the larger
204.
the sample needed
205.
c. The fewer categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis, the larger
206.
the sample needed
207.
d. As sample size decreases, so does the size of the confidence interval
208.
209.
5. Which of the following formulae is used to determine how many people to include in the
original sampling?
210.
a. Desired sample size/Desired sample size + 1
211.
b. Proportion likely to respond/desired sample size
212.
c. Proportion likely to respond/population size
213.
d. Desired sample size/Proportion likely to respond
214.
215.
6. Which of the following sampling techniques is an equal probability selection method (i.e.,
EPSEM) in which every individual in the population has an equal chance of being selected?
216.
a. Simple random sampling
217.
b. Systematic sampling
218.
c. Proportional stratified sampling
219.
d. Cluster sampling using the PPS technique
220.
e. All of the above are EPSEM
221.
222.
7. Which of the following is not a form of nonrandom sampling?
223.
a. Snowball sampling
224.
b. Convenience sampling
225.
c. Quota sampling
226.
d. Purposive sampling
227.
e. They are all forms of nonrandom sampling
228.
229.
8. Which of the following will give a more accurate representation of the population from
which a sample has been taken?
230.
a. A large sample based on the convenience sampling technique
231.
b. A small sample based on simple random sampling
232.
c. A large sample based on simple random sampling
233.
d. A small cluster sample
234.
235.
9. Sampling in qualitative research is similar to which type of sampling in quantitative
research?
236.
237.
b. Systematic sampling
238.
c. Quota sampling
239.
240.
241.
10. Which of the following would generally require the largest sample size?
242.
a. Cluster sampling
243.
b. Simple random sampling
244.
c. Systematic sampling
245.
d. Proportional stratified sampling
246.
247.
11. How often does the Census Bureau take a complete population count?
248.
a. Every year
249.
b. Every five years
250.
c. Every ten years
251.
d. Twice a year
252.
253.
12. People who are available, volunteer, or can be easily recruited are used in the sampling
method called ______.
254.
255.
b. Cluster sampling
256.
c. Systematic sampling
257.
d. Convenience sampling
258.
259.
13. Which of the following types of sampling involves the researcher determining the
appropriate sample sizes for the groups identified as important, and then taking convenience samples
from those groups?
260.
a. Proportional stratified sampling
261.
b. Quota sampling
262.
c. One-stage cluster sampling
263.
d. Two-stage cluster sampling
264.
265.
14. A type of sampling used in qualitative research that involves selecting cases that
disconfirm the researcher's expectations and generalizations is referred to as _______________.
266.
a. Extreme case sampling
267.
b. Typical-case sampling
268.
c. Critical-case sampling
269.
d. Negative-case sampling
270.
271.
15. Using Figure 6.6 (pg. 178), how many participants will you need for a research study with
a population of 120,000?
272.
a. 242
273.
b. 331
c. 377
274.
d. 384
275.
276.
16. In which of the following nonrandom sampling techniques does the researcher ask the
research participants to identify other potential research participants?
a. Snowball
277.
b. Convenience
c. Purposive
278.
d. Quota
279.
280.
17. Which of the following is the most efficient random sampling technique discussed in your
chapter?
281.
b. Proportional stratified sampling
c. Cluster random sampling
d. Systematic sampling
282.
283.
18. If we took the 500 people attending a school in New York City, divided them by gender,
and then took a random sample of the males and a random sampling of the females, the variable on
which we would divide the population is called the _____.
a. Independent variable
b. Dependent variable
c. Stratification variable
d. Sampling variable
284.
285.
19. A number calculated with complete population data and quantifies a characteristic of the
population is called which of the following?
a. A datum
b. A statistic
c. A parameter
d. A population
286.
20. The type of sampling in which each member of the population selected for the sample is returned
to the population before the next member is selected is called _________.
a. Sampling without replacement
b. Sampling with replacement
c. Simple random sampling
287.
d. Systematic sampling
288.
289.
290.
291.
292.
293.
294.
21. Which of the following is not a type of nonrandom sampling?

a. Cluster sampling
b. Convenience sampling
c. Quota sampling
e. They are all type of nonrandom sampling
295.
296.
22. Which of the following would usually require the smallest sample size because of its
efficiency?
297.
a. One stage cluster sampling
298.
b. Simple random sampling
299.
c. Two stage cluster sampling
300.
d. Quota sampling
301.
302.
23. A technique used when selecting clusters of different sizes is called _____.
303.
a. Cluster sampling
304.
b. One-stage sampling
305.
c. Two-stage sampling
306.
d. Probability proportional to size or PPS
307.
308.
24. The process of drawing a sample from a population is known as _________.
309.
a. Sampling
310.
b. Census
311.
c. Survey research
312.
313.
314.
25. It is recommended to use the whole population rather than a sample when the population
size is of what size?
315.
a. 500 or less
316.
b. 100 or less
317.
c. 1000 or less
318.
d. you should always use a sample
319.
320.
26. Which of the following is not an example of a nonrandom sampling technique?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
d
c
b
b
d
321.
a. Purposive
322.
b. Quota
323.
c. Convenience
324.
d. Cluster
325.
326.
27. Which of the following sampling methods is the best way to select a group of people for a
study if you are interested in making statements about the larger population?
327.
a. Convenience sampling
328.
b. Quota sampling
329.
c. Purposive sampling
330.
d. Random sampling
331.
332.
28. ___________ is a set of elements taken from a larger population according to certain
rules.
333.
a. Sample
334.
b. Population
335.
c. Statistic
336.
d. Element
337.
338.
29. Determining the sample interval (represented by k), randomly selecting a number
between 1 and k, and including each kth element in your sample are the steps for which form of
sampling?
339.
a. Simple Random Sampling
340.
b. Stratified Random Sampling
341.
c. Systematic Sampling
342.
d. Cluster sampling
343.
344.
30. The nonrandom sampling type that involves selecting a convenience sample from a
population with a specific set of characteristics for your research study is called _____.
345.
a. Convenience sampling
346.
b. Quota sampling
347.
c. Purposive sampling
348.
d. Snowball sampling
349.
350.
Answers:
6. e
11. c
16. a
21. a
26. d
7. e
12. d
17. b
22. b
27. d
8. c
13. b
18. c
23. d
28. a
9. d
14. d
19. c
24. a
29. c
10. a
15. d
20. b
25. b
30. c
31.
32.
33. Chapter 8
35.
36. 1. When a extraneous variable systematically varies with the independent variable and influences the
dependent variable, it is called:
37. a. Another dependent variable
38. b. A confounding variable
39. c. A moderating variable
40. d. An unreliable variable
41.
42. 2. Which of the following statements is true?
43. a. A statistical relationship is sufficient evidence to infer causality
44. b. Temporal order of the cause and effect is not important in inferring causality
45. c. A statistical relation of X and Y is insufficient evidence for inferring causality
46. d. Temporal order of cause and effect variables and statistical relation are all that are
47.
needed to infer causality
48.
49. 3. A school district examines a program that uses mentors to help very poor readers improve their
reading performance. The children in the program are at the 4th percentile at pretest. At posttest they
are around the 20thpercentile. While it is possible that the program made the difference, another
reason for the change in scores could be:
50. a. History
51. b. Regression artifact
52. c. Multiple-treatment interference
53. d. Differential selection
54.
55. 4. A group of researchers do a study where children from particular classrooms are assigned to
treatment or control conditions. After the study, the researcher finds out that the students in the
control group are higher achievers than those in the experimental group. He found no treatment
effect. The failure to find an effect may be due to:
56. a.
A treatment effect
57. b.
A testing effect
58. c.
A differential selection effect
59. d. A maturation effect
60.
61. 5. A researcher examines a program looking at the effects of mentoring on poor readers' reading
achievement. He looks at two different schools. One serves as the control and the other the
experimental group. Both schools had reading achievement that was around the 50th percentile.
During the time that the mentoring program is in place in the experimental group, a statewide
reading initiative is started in randomly selected schools. The experimental, but not the control
school is involved in the initiative. At the end of the year, the experimental group does better than the
control. From the information presented above, a likely threat to the internal validity of the study is:
62. a. Selection by mortality interaction
63. b. Mortality
64. c. Selection-history effect
65. d. Selection-maturation effect
66.
67. 6. Which type of validity refers to the degree to which you can infer that the relationship between
two variables is causal?
68. a. Internal validity
69. b. Population validity
70. c. Ecological validity
71. d. Statistical conclusion validity
72.
73. 7. Which type of validity refers to the ability to infer that the independent and dependent variables
are related ant that the measured strength of the relationship is accurate?
74. a. Internal validity
75. b. Population validity
76. c. Ecological validity
77. d. Statistical conclusion validity
78.
79. 8. An extraneous variable that systematically varies with the independent variable and also influences
the dependent variable is known as a _______________.
80. a Confounding variable
b. Third variable
c. Second variable
d. Both a and b are correct
81.
82. 9. The use of multiple observers to allow cross-checking of observations to make sure that the
investigators agree with what took place is known as _______.
83. a. Interpretive validity
84. b. Researcher bias
85. c. Multiple operationalism

86. d. Investigator triangulation
87.
88. 10. _____________ is the lowest inference descriptor of all because it uses the participants own
words.
89. a. Participant feedback
90. b. A verbatim
91. c. Data triangulation
92. d. Investigator triangulation
93.
94. 11. ___________ refers to physical or mental changes that may occur within individuals over time,
such as aging, learning, boredom, hunger, and fatigue.
95. a. Instrumentation
96. b. History
97. c. Maturation
98. d. Testing
99.
100.
12. What type of validity refers to the extent to which the results of a study can be
generalized across time?
101.
a. Ecological validity
102.
b. External validity
103.
c. Internal validity
104.
d. Temporal validity
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
13. Which of the following best describes interpretive validity?

a. Factual accuracy of an account as reported by the researcher
b. Accurately portraying the meanings given by the participants to what is being studied
c. Degree to which a theoretical explanation fits the data
d. Ability to generalize the study results across settings
111.
112.
14. Which of the following terms is a strategy where the researcher actively engages in
critical self-reflection about his or her potential biases and predispositions.
113.
a. Experimenter effect
114.
b. Reactivity
115.
c. Investigator triangulation
116.
d. Reflexivity
117.
118.
15. Which of the following is not considered one of the criteria for inferring causality?
119.
a. Evidence that the independent and dependent variables are related
120.
b. Evidence that the relationship between the variables being investigated is not due to a
121.
confounding extraneous variable
122.
c. Evidence that changes in variable A occur before changes in variable B
123.
d. The temporal ordering of the variables being investigated does not matter because a
124.
relationship is all that is really needed
125.
126.
16. The use of multiple data sources to help understand a phenomenon is one strategy that is
used to promote qualitative research validity. Which of the following terms describes this strategy?
127.
a. Data matching
128.
b. Pattern matching
129.
c. Data triangulation
130.
d. Data feedback
131.
132.
17. What may happen when different comparison groups experience a different history event?
133.
a. History effect
134.
b. Selection-history effect
135.
c. Selection effect
136.
d. Group effect
137.
138.
18. What is another term that refers to a confounding extraneous variable?
139.
a. Last variable
140.
b. First variable
141.
c. Third variable
142.
d. Fourth variable
143.
144.
19. Which of the following refers to any systematic change that occurs over time in the way
in which the dependent variable is assessed?
145.
a. Instrumentation
146.
b. Maturation
147.
c. Testing
148.
d. Selection
149.
150.
20. Which of the following terms describes the ability to generalize from the sample of
individuals on which a study was conducted to the larger target population of individuals and across
different subpopulations within the larger target population?
151.
a. External validity
152.
b. Population validity
153.
c. Ecological validity
154.
d. Temporal validity
155.
156.
21. Which of the following is not a strategy used to promote qualitative research validity?
157.
a. Peer review
158.
b. Theory triangulation
159.
c. Extended fieldwork
160.
d. Random assignment
161.
162.
22. The use of several measures of a construct is called:
163.
a. Multiple operationalism
164.
b. Multiple construct measurement
165.
c. Operationalism
166.
d. Methods triangulation
167.
168.
23. A physical or mental change that occurs in participants over time that affects their
performance on the dependent variable is called ________.
169.
a. Instrumentation
170.
b. Maturation
171.
c. Regression
172.
d. None of above
173.
174.
24. Attrition generally occurs in research where ____.
175.
a. You do demographic research
176.
b. The study fails
177.
c. Some participants do not complete the study
178.
d. The study is very brief
179.
180.
25. Differential attrition occurs when the people dropping out from one group are different
from the others in their group or from the people in the comparison group.
181.
a. True
182.
b. False
183.
184.
26. Internal validity refers to which of the following?
185.
a. The ability to infer that a casual relationship exists between 2 variables
b. The extent to which study results can be generalized to and across populations of persons,
186.
settings, and times
187.
c. The use of effective measurement instruments in the study
188.
d. The ability to generalize the study results to individuals not included in the study
189.
190.
27. Which strategy used to promote qualitative research validity uses multiple research
methods to
191.
study a phenomenon?
a. Data triangulation
b. Methods triangulation
c. Theory triangulation
d. Member checking
192.
193.
28. Which type of validity refers to the factual accuracy of an account as reported by the
researcher?
194.
a. Ecological validity
195.
b. Temporal validity
196.
c. Descriptive validity
197.
198.
199.
29. Which of the following in not one of the key threats to internal validity?
200.
a. Maturation
201.
b. Instrumentation
202.
c. Temporal change
203.
d. History
204.
205.
30. This type of validity refers to the ability to generalize the results of a study across
settings.
206.
a. Temporal validity
207.
b. Internal validity
208.
c. Ecological validity
209.
d. External validity
210.
211.
212.
213.
31. Which is not a direct threat to the internal validity of a research design?
214.
a. History
215.
b. Testing
216.
c. Sampling error
217.
d. Differential selection
218.
219.
32. Alteration in performance due to being aware that one is participating in a study is known
as ______.
220.
a. Operationalism
221.
b. Reactivity
222.
c. Temporal validity
223.
d. Mortality
224.
225.
33. The idea that the more times a research finding is shown with different sets of people, the
more confidence we can place in the finding and in generalizing beyond the original participants is
known as ___________.
a. Naturalistic generalization
b. Methods generalization
c. Data triangulation
d. Replication logic
226.
227.
Answers:
1. b
4. c
7. d
10. b
13. b
16. c
19. a
2. c
5. c
8. d
11. c
14. d
17. b
20. b
3. b
6. a
9. d
12. d
15. d
18. c
21. d
22. a
23. b
24. c
25. a
26. a
27. b
28. c
29. c
30. c
31. c
32. b
33. d
228.
229.
231.
230.
Chapter 9
232.
233.
1. Analysis of covariance is:
234.
a. A statistical technique that can be used to help equate groups on specific variables
235.
b. A statistical technique that can be used to control sequencing effects
236.
c. A statistical technique that substitutes for random assignment to groups
237.
d. Adjusts scores on the independent variable to control for extraneous variables
238.
239.
2. To determine whether noise affects the ability to solve math problems, a researcher has one
group solve math problems in a quiet room and another group solve math problems in a noisy room.
The group solving problems in the noisy room completes 15 problems in one hour and the group
solving problems in the quiet room completes 22 problems in one hour. In this experiment, the
independent variable is ____________ and the dependent variable is _____________.
240.
a. The number of problems solves; the difficulty of the problems
241.
b. The number of problems solved; the noise level in the room
242.
c. The noise level in the room; the number of problems solved
243.
d. The noise level in the room; the difficulty of the problems
244.
245.
3. The posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups is likely to control for which of
the following threats to internal validity:
246.
a. History
247.
b. Differential selection
248.
c. Additive and interactive effects
249.
d. Differential attrition
250.
251.
4. When all participants receive all treatment conditions, the study is susceptible to:
252.
a. Order effects
253.
b. Carryover effects
254.
c. Analysis of covariance
255.
d. a and b
256.
257.
5. A researcher is interested in the effects of a preschool program on later school
performance. Because she is concerned that socio-economic-status (SES) is a potential extraneous
variable in her study, she picks children to study who are only from low SES homes. The control
technique she used in this study was:
258.
a. Matching
259.
b. Random assignment
260.
c. Holding the extraneous variable constant
261.
d. Statistically controlling the extraneous variable
262.
263.
6. Which of the following terms best describes an interaction effect?
264.
a. The effect of one independent variable (on a DV) depends on the level of another
independent
265.
variable
266.
b. Eliminating any differential influence of extraneous variables
267.
c. Sequencing effect that occurs from the order in which the treatment conditions are
268.
administered
269.
d. The effect of one independent variable on the dependent variable
270.
271.
7. Which of the following terms refers to a statistical method that can be used to statistically
equate groups on a pretest or some other variable?
272.
a. Experimental control
273.
b. Differential influence
274.
c. Matching
275.
d. Analysis of covariance
276.
277.
8. Which of the following is not a way to manipulate an independent variable?
a. Presence technique
b. Amount technique
c. Type technique
278.
d. Random technique
279.
280.
9. Which of the following designs permits a comparison of pretest scores to determine the
initial equivalence of groups on the pretest before the treatment variable is introduced into the
research setting.
281.
a. One-group pretest-posttest design
282.
b. Pretest-posttest control group design
283.
c. Posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups
284.
d. Both b and c
285.
286.
10. Counterbalancing is _________.
287.
a.
Usually based on random selection of participants
288.
b.
Only used when one pretest variable needs to be controlled
289.
c.
Chosen to control for such things as order and carryover effects*
290.
d.
All of the above
291.
292.
11. The group that receives the experimental treatment condition is the _____.
293.
a. Experimental group
294.
b. Control group
295.
c. Participant group
296.
d. Independent group
297.
298.
12. Which of the following control techniques available to the researcher controls for both
known and unknown variables?
299.
a. Building the extraneous variable into the design
300.
b. Matching
301.
c. Random assignment
302.
d. Analysis of covariance
303.
304.
13. The group that does not receive the experimental treatment condition is the ________.
305.
a. Experimental group
306.
b. Control group
307.
c. Treatment group
308.
d. Independent group
309.
310.
14. There are a number of ways in which confounding extraneous variables can be controlled.
Which control technique is considered to be the best?
311.
a. Random assignment
312.
b. Matching
313.
c. Counterbalancing
314.
315.
316.
15. Which of the following could be used for randomly assigning participants to groups in an
experimental study?
317.
a. Split-half (e.g., first half versus second half of a school directory)
318.
b. Even versus odd numbers
319.
c. Use a list of random numbers or a computer randomization program
320.
d. Let the researcher decide which group will be the best
321.
322.
16. Which term is not a related to counterbalancing?
323.
a. Carryover effect
324.
b. Order effect
325.
c. Sequencing effects
326.
d. Matching
327.
328.
17. A cell is a combination of two or more ____ in a factorial design.
329.
a. Research designs
330.
b. Research measurements
331.
c. Dependent variables
332.
d. Independent variables
333.
334.
18. Which of the following designs does an excellent job of controlling for rival hypotheses
that threaten the internal validity of an experiment?
335.
a. Posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups
336.
b. Posttest-only control-group design
337.
c. Pretest-posttest control-group design
338.
d. Both b and c are excellent designs
339.
340.
19. Manipulating the independent variable by varying the type on the independent variable
that is presented to the different comparison groups is known as _____.
a. Amount technique
b. Absence technique
c. Type technique
d. Presence technique
341.
342.
20. Which of the following terms is a sequencing effect that occurs from the order in which
the treatment conditions are administered?
a. Carry-over effect
b. Order effect
c. Sequencing effects
343.
344.
21. When manipulating the independent variable in an educational experiment, which of the
following describes this method?
345.
a. An independent variable is manipulated using the presence or absence technique
346.
b. The researchers varies the amount of the independent variable that is administered
347.
c. The researcher varies the type of the independent variable
348.
d. All of the above are possible
349.
350.
22. Which method of controlling confounding extraneous variables takes precedence over all
other methods?
351.
a. Matching individual participants
352.
b. Holding extraneous variables
353.
c. Building the extraneous variable into the research design
354.
d. Counterbalancing
355.
e. Randomly assign research participants to the groups
356.
357.
23. In an experimental research study, the primary goal is to isolate and identify the effect
produced by the ____.
358.
a. Dependent variable
359.
b. Extraneous variable
360.
c. Independent variable
361.
d. Confounding variable
362.
363.
24. This type of design is one where all participants participate in all experimental treatment
conditions.
1.
2.
3.
4.
364.
a. Factorial design
365.
b. Repeated measures design
366.
c. Replicated design
367.
d. Pretest-posttest control-group design
368.
369.
25. A factorial design is one in which ____.
370.
a. Only one independent variable is studied to determine its effect on the dependent variable
371.
b. Only two independent variables are simultaneously studied to determine their independent
372.
and interactive effects on the dependent variable
373.
c. Two or more independent variables are simultaneously studied to determine their
independent
374.
and interactive effects on the dependent variable
375.
d. Two dependent variables are studied to determine their interactive effects
376.
377.
26. The design in which one group of research participants is administered a treatment and is
then compared, on the dependent variable, with another group of research participants who did not
receive the experimental treatment is ____.
378.
a. One-group posttest-only design
379.
b. One-group pretest-posttest design
380.
c. Posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups
381.
d. time series design
382.
383.
27. _____ refers to the influence of a single independent variable.
384.
a. Interaction effect
385.
b. Reactive effect
386.
c. Main effect
387.
d. Proactive effect
388.
389.
28. A sequencing effect that occurs when performance in one treatment condition is
influenced by participation in a prior treatment condition is known as ____.
390.
a. Counterbalancing effect
b. Carryover effect
c. Treatment effect
d. Order effect
391.
392.
29. Which of the following is possible in a factorial design with two independent variables?
393.
a. There is only one main effect present
b. There are two main effects present
394.
c. There are two main effects and an interaction effect present
395.
d. All of the above are possible
396.
397.
30. Which of the following is a factorial design where different participants are randomly
assigned to the levels of one independent variable but participants take all levels on another
independent variable?
398.
a. One-group pretest-posttest
399.
b. Pretest-posttest control-group design
400.
c. Factorial design
401.
d. Factorial design based on a mixed model
402.
403.
Answers:
a
5. c
9. b
13. b
17. d
21. d
25. c
29. d
c
6. a
10. c
14. a
18. d
22. e
26. c
30. d
a
7. d
11. a
15. c
19. c
23. c
27. c
d
8. d
12. c
16. d
20. b
24. b
28. b
31.
32.
33. Chapter 10

35.
36. 1. A researcher does a study examining the effects of a preschool program. He uses a nonequivalent
comparison group design. He finds that the cognitive growth of his experimental group is greater
than that of his control. Unfortunately, he later finds that in general children who live in the area
where he drew his experimental group tend to grow faster cognitively than children who were from
the area where he drew his control group. When he discovered this problem, he discovered what
threat to the internal validity of his study?
37. a. Selection-maturation effect
38. b. History effect
39. c. Selection-instrumentation effect
40. d. Testing effect
41.
42. 2. For a treatment to be deemed effective when used in the context of an A-B-A single case design,
what has to occur?
43. a. Behavior should change as the treatment is implemented
44. b. Behavior should return to baseline levels when the treatment is removed
45. c. When the treatment is removed, behavior should stay at the level that was created by the
46.
treatment rather than revert back to the baseline
47. d. Both a and b
48.
49. 3. In a changing-criterion design, changes in criterion are best done:
50. a. As soon as the prior criterion is met
51. b. When the previous criterion is met and the behavior has stabilized
52. c. Regardless of the previous criteria
53. d. After a fixed number of trials
54.
55. 4. The non-equivalent comparison group design is a quasi-experimental design in which, for reasons
of practicality, we cannot insure that the control and experimental groups are equivalent to each other
when the experiment begins. The major interpretational difficulty imposed by this design is:
56. a. Measuring whether the two groups are different from each other on the posttest
57. b. Deciding how much each group has gained
58. c. Determining when enough data points are collected
59. d. Being sure that any differences between groups at the end of the experiment are
60. due to the independent variables influence and not due to preexisting group
61. differences
62.
63. 5. A treatment effect is demonstrated in the regression discontinuity design by:
64. a. A discontinuity in the regression line
65. b. A significant difference in the pretest and posttest scores
66. c. Analysis of covariance
67. d. The demonstration of an interaction
68.
69.
70. 6. Which of the following is a primary threat to the interrupted time-series design?
a. History effect
b. Selection-history
71. c. Selection-maturation
7. A design consisting of an experimental and a control group but participants are not randomly
assigned to the groups is which of the following?
a. Interrupted time-series design
b. Nonequivalent comparison-group design
c. Single case design
73. d. A-B-A-B design
74.
75. 8. A form of the nonequivalent comparison-group design is recommended when ____.

76. a. It is not possible to control for a basic history effect
77. b. It is not possible to randomly assign participants to groups
78. c. It is not possible to identify two groups
80.
81. 9. A threat to internal validity in the nonequivalent comparison-group design is the _____ effect.
82. a. Selection-maturation effect
83. b. Selection-history effect
84. c. Selection-regression
85. d. All of the above are threats
86.
87. 10. A threat to internal validity in the nonequivalent comparison-group design is the _____ effect.
88. a. Maturation effect
89. b. Selection-history effect
90. c. Failure to revert to baseline
92.
93. 11. How many variables should be changed at a time when conducting a single-case design?
94. A. 4
95. B. 3
96. C. 2
97. D. 1
98.
99. 12. In quasi-experimental research designs, causal interpretations can be made _______.
100.
a. Only when rival explanations have been shown to be plausible
101.
b. Only when rival explanations have been shown to be implausible
102.
c. Only when the participants have been randomly selected
103.
d. Only when there is a single participant in the experiment
104.
105.
13. In single-case research, baseline refers to ________.
106.
a. The beginning point of the treatment condition
107.
b. The end point of the treatment condition
108.
c. The rate of response established prior to the experimental intervention
109.
d. The time during which a treatment condition is administered
110.
111.
14. Which type of design can be used when the goal is to create a step-by-step increase (or
decrease) in the amount, accuracy, or frequency of some behavior over a period of time?
112.
a. Nonequivalent comparison-group design
113.
b. A-B-A-B
114.
c. Changing-criterion design
115.
d. A-B design
116.
117.
15. Which of the following occurs in a comparison group design when one of the two groups
of participants grows or naturally develops faster than the other group?
118.
a. Main effect
119.
b. Sequencing effect
120.
c. Order effect
121.
d. Selection-maturation effect
122.
123.
16. An observation of a dependent variable response prior to any attempt to change this
response is known as the ___________.
124.
a. Flat line
125.
b. Baseline
126.
c. Variance
127.
d. Reverse
128.
129.
17. The most frequently used quasi-experimental design is the _________ design.
130.
a. Nonequivalent comparison-group
131.
b. Interrupted time-series
132.
c. Changing-criterion
133.
d. Regression discontinuity
134.
135.
18. A baseline _____________.
136.
a. Is used as the standard against which change induced by the treatment is assessed
137.
b. Is the occurrence of a response in its freely occurring or natural state
138.
c. Is first obtained prior to the administration of a treatment
139.
d. All of the above are true
140.
141.
19. A single-case experimental design in which the response to a treatment is compared to
baseline occurring before and after the treatment is called what?
142.
a. A-B-A design
143.
b. Single-case design
144.
c. Multiple-baseline
145.
d. Changing-criterion
146.
147.
20. In a single-case design, you hope that the behavior of the participants prior to the
administration of a treatment condition is ________.
148.
a.
Not highly variable
149.
b.
Highly variable
150.
c.
Moving at a steep rate of change
151.
d.
None of the above
152.
153.
21. The ________________ design rules out history by demonstrating that the dependent
variable response reverts back to the baseline when the treatment is withdrawn.
154.
a. Changing-criterion design
155.
b. A-B
156.
c. A-B-A design
157.
d. Interrupted time-series design
158.
159.
22. Which design would use analysis of covariance during data analysis?
160.
a. Nonequivalent comparison-group design
161.
b. Interrupted time-series design
162.
c. Changing criterion design
163.
d. A-B-A-B design
164.
165.
23. The interrupted time-series design can also be viewed as a(n):
166.
a. A-B design
167.
b. A-B-A design
168.
c. A-B-A-B design
169.
d. Control-group design
170.
171.
24. Why is it important to change one variable at a time in single case designs?
a. Changing one variable allows isolation of the cause of the change
b. Changing more than one variable at a time confounds those independent variables
c. Both a and b are true
172.
173.
25. What is the difference between A-B-A design and A-B-A-B design?
174.
a. Both designs end on the treatment condition
175.
b. Neither design ends on a treatment condition
c. Baseline conditions are only established in the A-B-A-B design
d. A-B-A-B allows the reintroduction of the treatment condition during the last phase
176.
177.
26. Which of the following is not a phase in the A-B-A design?
178.
a. Baseline measurement
179.
b. Introduction of treatment
180.
c. Introduction of a second treatment
181.
d. Removal of treatment
182.
183.
27. Researchers can attempt to eliminate the threat of bias from the selection-maturation
effect in the nonequivalent comparison-group design by matching experimental and control
participants on important variables.
184.
a. True
185.
b. False
186.
187.
28. Group comparison designs are always superior to single-case designs.
188.
a. True
189.
b. False
190.
191.
Answers:
1. a
5. a
9. d
13. c
17. a
21. c
25. d
2. d
6. a
10. b
14. c
18. d
22. a
26. c
3. b
7. b
11. d
15. d
19. a
23. a
27. a
4. d
8. b
12. b
16. b
20. a
24. c
28. b
192.
193.
194.
Chapter 11
195.
196.
197.
1. The number of police officers and the number of crimes are positively related. This
relationship is:
198.
a. A causal relationship
199.
b. A direct relationship
200.
c. A probabilistic causal relation
201.
d. A spurious relationship
202.
203.
2. A research studies the relation between early reading and later school achievement. She
decides that a potentially extraneous variable in the relationship is IQ. In developing her groups for
her study, she pairs each child who was an early reader with a child of the same IQ level who was not
an early reader. The control technique she used was:
204.
a.
Holding the extraneous variable constant
205.
b.
Statistical control
206.
c. Matching
207.
d. Random assignment
208.
209.
3. Partial correlation analysis involves:
210.
a. Examining the relationship between two or more variables controlling for additional
211.
variables statistically
212.
b. Including only one group in a correlational analysis
213.
c. Matching participants on potential confounding variables
214.
d. Limiting the sample to individuals at a constant level of an extraneous variable
215.
216.
4. The directors of a graduate program in educational research wish to see what types of jobs
their graduates take after they finish their program. They randomly sample students from the
program and have them fill out questionnaires with items asking about the types of jobs they have
had. They also are asked to describe the roles they play in their current positions. This project is best
described as having what kind of objective:
217.
a.
Descriptive
218.
b.
Predictive
219.
c.
Explanatory
220.
221.
5. When research is done to test hypotheses and theories about how and why phenomena
operate as they do, then the primary purpose of such research is:
222.
a. Descriptive
223.
b. Predictive
224.
c. Explanatory
225.
226.
6. The variable the researcher matches to eliminate it as an alternative explanation is called
a(n) _________ variable.
227.
a. Matching
228.
b. Independent
229.
c. Dependent
230.
d. Partial
231.
232.
7. Which of the following is not a longitudinal design?
233.
a. Panel
234.
b. Cross-sectional
235.
c. Trend
236.
d. Both a and c are longitudinal designs
237.
238.
8. The positive correlation between teachers salaries and the price of liquor is _________.
239.
a. Spurious
240.
b. Due to a third-variable
241.
c. Nonspurious
242.
d. Both a and b
243.
244.
9. Which of the following is considered a special case of the general linear model?
245.
a. A variable
246.
b. Partial correlation
247.
c. Analysis of covariance
248.
d. Both b and c
249.
250.
10. When a researcher starts with the dependent variable and moves backwards, it is called
________.
251.
a. Predictive research
252.
b. Retrospective research
253.
c. Exploratory research
254.
d. Descriptive research
255.
256.
11. The method of working multiple hypotheses refers to a technique for identifying rival
explanations.
257.
a. True
258.
b. False
259.
260.
12. GLM refers to which of the following?
261.
a. General Logit Model
262.
b. General Limited Model
263.
c. General Lab Model
264.
d. General Linear Model
265.
266.
13. The post hoc fallacy is ____.
267.
a.
Making the argument that because A preceded B, A must have caused B
268.
b.
Making the argument that because A preceded B, A and B must be correlated
269.
c.
Making the argument that because A preceded B, they cannot be correlated
270.
d.
None of the above
271.
272.
14. Which one of the following is not a step in nonexperimental research?
273.
a.
Determine research problem and hypotheses
274.
b.
Analyze data
275.
c.
Interpret results
276.
d.
All are steps
277.
278.
15. If a research finding is statistically significant, then ____.
279.
a. The observed result is probably not due to chance
280.
b. The observed result cannot possibly be due to chance
281.
c. The observed result is probably a chance result
282.
d. The null hypothesis of no relationship is probably true
283.
284.
16. Which of the following is/are necessary condition(s) for causation?
285.
a. The relationship condition
286.
b. The temporal antecedence condition
287.
c. The lack of alternative explanation condition
288.
d. All of the above
289.
290.
17. Which of the following independent variables cannot be manipulated in a research study?
291.
a. Gender
292.
b. Ethnicity
293.
c. Intelligence and other traits
294.
d. None of ht above can be manipulated in a research study
295.
296.
18. __________ is a form of explanatory research in which the researcher develops a
theoretical model and empirically tests the model to determine how well the model fits the data.
297.
a. Causal modeling
298.
b. Predictive research
299.
c. Descriptive research
300.
d. Exploratory research
301.
302.
19. Nonexperimental research in which the primary independent variable of interest is
categorical is sometimes called_____________.
303.
a. Causal-comparative research
304.
b. Correlational research
305.
306.
20. Which approach is the strongest for establishing that a relationship is causal?
307.
a. Causal-comparative
308.
b. Correlational
309.
c. Experimental
310.
d. Historical
311.
312.
21. Which approach is the strongest for establishing that a relationship is causal?
313.
a. Causal-comparative
314.
b. Correlational
315.
c. One CANNOT say without additional information (i.e., it could be either depending
316.
on how well the researcher established the three necessary conditions for cause
317.
and effect)
318.
319.
22. _______ is the most commonly used technique for controlling for extraneous variables in
nonexperimental research.
320.
a. Matching
321.
b. Holding extraneous variables constant
322.
c. Statistical control
323.
d. Static control
324.
325.
23. It is best to use the method of working multiple hypotheses when _____.
a. You are finished with your research
b. You are planning your research study
c. You are hoping to publish your already obtained research results
24. Matching can be done when your independent variable is categorical or quantitative.
a. True
b. False
326.
327.
25. If a correlation coefficient is .96, we would probably be able to say that the relationship is
____.
328.
a. Weak
329.
b. Strong
330.
c. Statistically significant
331.
d. b is true and c is probably true
332.
333.
26. What happens in a completely spurious relationship once the researcher controls for a
confounding third-variable?
334.
a The relationship between the original variables will get stronger
335.
b. The relationship between the original variables will remain unchanged
336.
c. The correlation coefficient will get closer to 1.0
337.
d. The relationship between the original variables will get weaker or, if the original
relationship
338.
is fully spurious, it will disappear (i.e., the original relationship will become zero as
339.
measured by a correlation coefficient)
340.
341.
27. Which of the three necessary conditions for cause and effect is almost always problematic
in nonexperimental research?
342.
a. Condition 1: Variable A and Variable B must be related (the relationship condition).
343.
b. Condition 2: Proper time order must be established (the temporal antecedence condition).
344.
c. Condition 3: The relationship between variable A and Variable B must not be due to some
345.
confounding extraneous variable"
346.
d. Nonexperimental research is always weak on all three of the conditions
347.
348.
28. Which of the following is NOT a form of longitudinal research?
349.
a. Trend study
350.
b. Panel study
351.
c. Cross-sectional study
352.
353.
29. Observing a relationship between two variables is NOT sufficient grounds for concluding
that the relationship is a causal relationship.
354.
a. True
355.
b. False
356.
357.
30. This type of longitudinal research studies the same individuals over an extended period of
time.
358.
a. Trend study
359.
b. Panel study
360.
c. Both a and b
361.
d. Neither a nor b
362.
363.
31. This type of research tests hypotheses and theories in order to explain how and why a
phenomenon operates as it does.
364.
a. Descriptive research
365.
b. Predictive research
366.
c. Explanatory research
367.
368.
369.
32. The Pearson product moment correlation measures the degree of _________ relationship
present between two variables.
370.
a. Curvilinear
371.
b. Nonlinear
372.
c. Linear and quadratic
373.
d. Linear
374.
375.
376.
Answers:
1. d
5. c
9. d
13. a
17. d
21. c
25. d
29. a
2. c
6. a
10. b
14. d
18. a
22. c
26. d
30. b
3. a
7. d
11. a
15. a
19. a
23. b
27. c
31. c
4. a
8. d
12. d
16. d
20. c
24. a
28. c
32. d
33.
34.
35. Chapter 12
37.
38. 1. Which of the following is characteristic of qualitative research?
39. a. Generalization to the population
40. b. Random sampling
41. c. Unique case orientation
42. d. Standardized tests and measures
43.
44. 2. Phenomenology has its disciplinary origins in:
45. a. Philosophy
46. b. Anthropology
47. c. Sociology
48. d. Many disciplines
49.
50. 3. The primary data analysis approach in ethnography is:
51. a. Open, axial, and selective coding
52. b. Holistic description and search for cultural themes
53. c. Cross-case analysis
54. d. Identifying essences of a phenomenon
55.
56. 4. The term used to describe suspending preconceptions and learned feelings about a phenomenon is
called:
57. a. Axial coding
58. b. Design flexibility
59. c. Bracketing
60. d. Ethnography
61.
62. 5. A researcher studies how students who flunk out of high school experienced high
63. school. She found that it was common for such students to report that they felt like they had little
control of their destiny. Her report that this lack of control was an invariant part of the students
experiences suggests that lack of control is _______ of the flunking out experience.
64. a. A narrative
65. b. A grounded theory
66. c. An essence
67. d. A probabilistic cause
68.
69. 6. The specific cultural conventions or statements that people who share a culture hold to be true or
false are called ______.
70. a. Shared attitudes
71. b. Shared beliefs

72. c. Shared values
73. d. Norms
74.
75. 7. The written and unwritten rules that specify appropriate group behavior are called _____.
79. d. Norms
80.
81. 8. Which of the following is not an advantage of studying multiple cases?
82. a. Multiple cases can be compared for similarities and differences
83. b. Multiple cases can more effectively test a theory than a single case
84. c. Generalizations about population are usually better when based on multiple cases.
85. d. Cost is lower and depth of analysis is easier when you study multiple cases in a
86. single research study
87.
88. 9. _____ are the standards of a culture about what is good or bad or desirable or undesirable.
92. d. Norms
93.
94. 10. _________ is the study of human consciousness and individuals experience of some
phenomenon.
95. a.
Phenomenology
96. b.
Ethnography
97. c.
Grounded theory
98. d.
Case study research
99.
100.
11. Which of the following is a characteristic of qualitative research?
101.
a. Design flexibility
b. Inductive analysis
c. Context sensitivity
d. All of the above
102.
103.
12. ________ is a general methodology for developing theory that is based on data
systematically gathered and analyzed.
104.
a. Theory confirmation
105.
b. Grounded theory
106.
c. Theory deduction
107.
d. All of the above
108.
109.
13. The final stage in grounded theory data analysis is called ___________.
110.
a. Axial coding
111.
b. Theoretical saturation
112.
c. Constant comparative method
113.
d. Selective coding
114.
115.
14. Which major characteristic of qualitative research refers to studying real world situations
as they unfold naturally?
116.
a. Holistic perspective
117.
b. Naturalistic inquiry
118.
c. Dynamic systems
119.
d. Inductive analysis
120.
121.
15. In which qualitative research approach is the primary goal to gain access to individuals
inner worlds of experience?
122.
a. Phenomenology
123.
b. Ethnography
124.
c. Grounded theory
125.
d. Case study
126.
127.
16. The type of qualitative research that describes the culture of a group of people is called
____.
128.
a. Phenomenology
129.
b. Grounded theory
130.
c. Ethnography
131.
d. Case study
132.
133.
17. The grounded theorist is finished analyzing data when theoretical saturation occurs.
134.
a. True
135.
b. False
136.
137.
18. In which of the following case study designs does the researcher focus her primary
interest on understanding something more general than the particular case?
138.
a. Intrinsic case study
139.
b. Instrumental case study
140.
c. Collective case study
141.
d. It could be b or c
142.
143.
19. Which of the following phrases best describes "ethnocentrism"?
144.
a. Special words or terms used by the people in a group
145.
b. An external, social scientific view of reality
146.
c. The study of the cultural past of a group of people
147.
d. Judging people from a different culture according to the standards of your own culture
148.
149.
20. Which of the following is usually not a characteristic of qualitative research?
150.
a. Design flexibility
151.
b. Dynamic systems
152.
c. Naturalistic inquiry
153.
d. Deductive design
154.
155.
21. Which of the following involves the studying of multiple cases in one research study?
156.
a. Intrinsic case study
157.
b. Single case study
158.
c. Instrumental case study
159.
d. Collective case study
160.
161.
22. Which of the following does not apply to qualitative research?
162.
a. Data are often words and pictures
163.
b. Uses the inductive scientific method
164.
c. Ends with a statistical report
165.
d. Involves direct and personal contact with participants
166.
167.
23. The difference between ethnographic research and other types of qualitative research is
that ethnographers specifically use the concept of culture to help understand the results.
168.
a. True
169.
b. False
170.
171.
24. What term refers to the insider's perspective?
172.
A. Ethnocentrism
173.
B. Emic perspective
174.
C. Etic perspective
175.
D. Holism
176.
177.
25. In data analysis of the grounded theory approach, the step which focuses on the main
idea, developing the story line, and finalizing the theory is called ________.
178.
a. Open coding
179.
b. Axial coding
180.
c. Selective coding
181.
d. Theoretical saturation
182.
183.
26. Which of the following is not one of the 4 major approaches to qualitative research.
184.
a. Ethnography
185.
b. Phenomenology
186.
c. Case study
187.
d. Grounded theory
188.
e. Nonexperimental
189.
190.
27. In "phenomenology," a well written report will be highly descriptive of the participants
experiences and will often elicit in the reader a feeling that they feel as though they are experiencing
the phenomenon themselves. This experience is called _____.
191.
a. A phenomenal experience
192.
b. A vicarious experience
193.
c. A significant experience
194.
d. A dream
195.
196.
28. You want to study a Native American group in New Mexico for a six month period to
learn all you can about them so you can write a book about that particular tribe. You want the book to
be accurate and authentic as well as informative and inspiring. What type of research will you likely
be conducting when you get to New Mexico?
197.
a. Ethnography
198.
b. Phenomenology
199.
c. Grounded theory
200.
d. Collective case study
201.
202.
29. The emic perspective refers to an external, social scientific view of reality.
203.
a. True
204.
b. False
205.
206.
30. _________ is used to describe cultural scenes or the cultural characteristics of a group of
people.
207.
a.
Phenomenology
208.
b.
Ethnography
209.
c.
Grounded theory
210.
d.
Instrumental case study
211.
212.
31. Terms such as geeks, book worms, preps, are known as _____ terms.
213.
a. Emic
214.
b. Etic
215.
216.
32. When a researcher identifies so completely with the group being studied that he or she
can no longer remain objective you have what is called _________.
217.
a. Culture shock
218.
b. Going native
219.
c. Regression
220.
d. Cultural relativism
221.
222.
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
c
a
b
c
5.
6.
7.
8.
c
b
d
d
9. c
10. a
11. d
12. b
13. d
14. b
15. a
16. c
17. a
18. d
19. d
20. d
21. d
22. c
23. a
24. b
25. c
26. e
27. b
28. a
29. b
30. b
31. a
32. b
223.
224.
225.
Chapter 13
226.
227.
228.
1. A researcher was interested in studying why the new math of the 1960s failed. She
interviews several teachers who used the new math during the 1960s. These teachers are considered:
229.
a. Primary sources
230.
b. Secondary Sources
231.
c. External critics
232.
d. Internal critics
233.
234.
2. The process of dealing with concerns over the authenticity of a source is referred to as:
235.
a. Sourcing
236.
b. Internal criticism
237.
c. Secondary criticism
238.
d. External criticism
239.
240.
3. A researcher studying the history of medical education finds a manuscript that purports to
be from the 14th century. Before he uses the source, he goes to three other experts who help him
identify whether the manuscript is authentic or not. His authentification of the object is referred to as:
241.
a. Positive criticism
242.
243.
c. Secondary criticism
244.
d. External criticism
245.
246.
4. A historical researcher studying the implementation of the new math during the 1960s
uses as a source a text written on the subject by a critic who was a mathematics teacher during that
time period. As she examines the document, she discovers that the data that the individual based his
or her conclusions on was falsified. Hence, the conclusions drawn were erroneous. Her analysis of
the document to check its accuracy is referred to as:
247.
a. Positive criticism
248.
249.
c. External criticism
250.
d. Secondary criticism
251.
252.
5. A researcher is interested in studying approaches to teaching writing in schools during the
1800s. She discovers a grammar book, but there is no author or copyright date in the book. She
examines the typeface in the book as well as the writing style. After investigating further, she finds a
reference to the book from a teachers diary from the 1800s. The diary also mentions an authors
name. After further searching around she is able to identify the author of the book. The investigator
was engaged in what process?
253.
a. Sourcing
254.
b. Positive criticism
255.
c. Presentism
256.
d. Axial coding
257.
258.
6. Historical research is conducted for which of the following reasons?
259.
a. To identify the relationship that the past has to the present
260.
b. To evaluate and record accomplishments of individuals or entities
261.
c. To enhance understanding of the culture in which we live
262.
d. To uncover the unknown
263.
e. All of the above
264.
265.
7. Historical research is interpretative.
266.
a. True
267.
b. False
268.
269.
8. The following is a step in the process of historical research?
270.
a. Preparing a report or narrative exposition
271.
b. Identifying a research topic and formulation of the research problem or question
272.
c. Data synthesis
273.
d. Data collection and/or literature review
274.
e. All of the above
275.
276.
9. Oral histories can be based on ______.
277.
a. Interviews with people
278.
b. Stories and tales
279.
c. Songs
280.
d. All of the above
281.
282.
10. In historical research, a primary source _________.
283.
a. Consists of first hand accounts by witnesses to events
284.
b. Can consist of sources that include original maps, diaries, transcripts of the minutes of a
285.
meeting, and photographs
286.
c. Both a and b
287.
288.
11. In historical research secondary sources are _________.
289.
a. Generally considered more useful that primary sources
290.
b. Generally considered less useful than primary sources
291.
292.
12. In evaluating historical research sources, external criticism ________.
293.
a. Can involve the use of carbon dating and handwriting experts
294.
b. Helps determine the validity, trustworthiness or authenticity of a source
295.
c. Can involve use of historical linguists knowledgeable with the writing style of the period
296.
d. All of the above
297.
298.
13. Contextualization refers to the process of identifying when and where an event took
place.
299.
a. True
300.
b. False
301.
302.
14. The process of determining the reliability or accuracy of the information contained in the
sources collected is known as ______.
303.
a. External criticism
304.
305.
c. Vagueness
306.
d. Presentism
307.
308.
15. Presentism in historical sources ________.
309.
a. Is the presence of the author in a historical source
310.
b. Is a first-hand accounts of events
311.
c. Is the assumption that the present-day connotations of terms also existed in the past
312.
d. Is the assumption that the past influences the present
313.
314.
16. Comparing document to each other to determine whether they provide the same
information or reach the same conclusion is known as ________.
315.
a. Contextualization
316.
b. Sourcing
317.
c. Corroboration
318.
319.
320.
321.
322.
323.
324.
325.
326.
327.
328.
329.
330.
331.
332.
333.
334.
335.
336.
337.
338.
339.
340.
341.
342.
343.
344.
345.
1.
2.
3.
4.
a
d
d
b
d. Negative criticism
17. The identification of when and where an event took place is known as _____.
a. Contextualization
b. Sourcing
c. Corroboration
d. Negative criticism
18. Three heuristics suggested by Wineburg (1991) for evaluating documents are:
a. Corroboration, sourcing, and contextualization
b. Sourcing, internal criticism, and external criticism
c. Corroboration, internal criticism and external criticism
d. Contextualization, corroboration and presentism
19. In historical research, data synthesis usually does not include ______.
a. Defining and interpreting key words, phrases and terms
b. Chronologically ordering events
c. Differentiating between how people should behave and how they did behave
d. Inferring causation based on simple correlation
e. Maintaining a distinction between intent and consequences
20. When writing their narratives, many historical researchers prefer to use _____.
a. The Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association (1994)
b. The Chicago Manual of Style
c. The Historical Manual of Style
d. The Historians Manual of Style
Answers:
5. a
6. e
7. a
8. e
9. d
10. c
11. b
12. d
13. a
14. b
15. c
16. c
17. a
18. a
19. d
20. b
21.
22.
23. Chapter 14
25.
26. 1. According to the typology used in your text, research in which quantitative and qualitative
techniques are mixed in a single study is specifically called:
27. a. Mixed research
28. b. Mixed method research
29. c. Mixed model research
30. d. Multimethod research
31.
32. 2. According to the typology used in your text, research in which quantitative and qualitative
approaches are mixed within or across the stages of the research process is specifically called:
37.
38. 3. According to the typology used in your text, research in which a quantitative phase and a
qualitative phase are included in the overall research study is specifically called:
43.
44. 4. The use of a qualitative research objective, collection of qualitative data, and performance of
quantitative analysis is an example of:
45. a. Mixed method research
46. b. Within-stage mixed model research
47. c. Across-stage mixed model research
48. d. Monomethod research
49.
50. 5. The use of a quantitative research objective, collection of quantitative data, and the use of
quantitative data analysis is known as:
51. a. Mixed method research
52. b. Within-stage mixed model research
53. c. Across-stage mixed model research
54. d. Monomethod research
55.
56. 6. Mixed researchers typically use the pragmatist philosophy.
57. a. True
58. b. False
59.
60. 7. The pragmatist philosophy is most closely associated with which of the following positions?
61. a. The incompatibility thesis
62. b. The compatibility thesis
63.
64. 8. Which of the following is a weakness of quantitative research?
65. a. Provides precise, numerical data
66. b. The researchers categories that are used might not reflect local constituencies
67. understandings
68. c. Testing hypotheses that are constructed before the data are collected
69. d. Can study a large number of people
70.
71. 9. Which of the following is a weakness of qualitative research?
72. a. The results are more easily influenced by the researchers personal idiosyncrasies
73. b. Data are based on the participants own categories of meaning
74. c. Can determine idiographic causation
75. d. Useful for describing complex phenomena
76.
77. 10. Which of the following is a weakness of mixed research?
78. a. Words, pictures, and narrative can be used to add meaning to numbers
79. b. Researchers can generate and test a grounded theory
80. c. Numbers can be used to add precision to words, pictures, and narrative
81. d. It is more time consuming and expensive
82.
83. 11. If you develop and use a questionnaire that includes closed-ended and open-ended items then you
have done which type of research?
84. a. Within-stage mixed model research
85. b. Across-stage mixed model research
86.
87. 12. Here is a mixed design using notation: QUAL-->quan What type of mixed research is this?
88. a. Mixed model
89. b. Mixed method
90.
91. 13. Here is a mixed design using notation: QUAL + QUAN. What does this mean?
92. a. Qualitative has the dominant status and it is followed by a quantitative phase
93. b. Quantitative has the dominant status and it is followed by a qualitative phase
94. c. Qualitative and quantitative are given equal status but the qualitative phase occurs
95. before the quantitative phase
96. d. Qualitative and quantitative are given equal status and they are done concurrently
97.
98. 14. What would this mixed method design be called: Qual-->QUAN
99. a. Dominant-status sequential design
100.
b. Equal-status sequential design
101.
c. Dominant-status concurrent design
102.
d. Equal-status concurrent design
103.
104.
15. What would this mixed method design be called: QUAL-->QUAN
105.
a. Dominant-status sequential design
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
16. What would this mixed method design be called: Qual + QUAN
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
17. What would this mixed method design be called: QUAL + QUAN
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
18. Which of the following cannot be a purpose or rationale for a mixed research design?
123.
a. Triangulation
124.
b. Complementarity
125.
c. Development
126.
d. Initiation
127.
e. Expansion
128.
f. All of the above can be purposes
129.
130.
19. Which of the following mixed research rationales seeks elaboration, enhancement,
illustration, clarification of the results from one method with the results from the other method?
131.
a. Triangulation
132.
b. Complementarity
133.
c. Development
134.
d. All of the above
135.
136.
20. What two questions must be answered in order to select one of the specific mixed method
designs provided in the textbook?
137.
a. Is the qualitative or quantitative paradigm going to be given priority, or will they be
138.
given equal status in your study?
139.
b. Should the qualitative and quantitative components be carried out concurrently or
140.
sequentially
141.
c. Should the study be theory driven or data driven?
142.
d. a and c
143.
e. a and b
144.
145.
21. A researcher wants to understand why people are willing to handle snakes as a part of
their church activities in several rural churches in Tennessee, Alabama, and Georgia. He makes
qualitative observations at several churches but also hands out fairly lengthy instruments that
quantitatively measure several constructs (IQ, religiousity, self-esteem, and a political attitudes). He
keeps the qualitative and quantitative data separate during analysis. He does some mixing during the
discussion of his report about the qualitative and quantitative insights are related. Which design is
this?
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
1. a
2. c
3. b

Answers:
4. c
5. d
6. a
7. b
8. b
9. a
10. d
11. a
12. b
13. d
14. a
15. b
16. c
17. d
18. f
19. b
20. e
21. d
152.
153.
154.
Chapter 15
155.
156.
1. What is the median of the following set of scores?
18, 6, 12, 10, 14 ?
a. 10
b. 14
c. 18
d. 12
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
2. Approximately what percentage of scores fall within one standard deviation of the mean in
a normal distribution?
165.
a. 34%
166.
b. 95%
167.
c. 99%
168.
d. 68%
169.
170.
3. The denominator (bottom) of the z-score formula is
171.
a.
The standard deviation
172.
b. The difference between a score and the mean
173.
c.
The range
174.
d. The mean
175.
176.
4. Let's suppose we are predicting score on a training posttest from number of years
177.
of education and the score on an aptitude test given before training. Here is the regression
178.
equation Y = 25 + .5X1 +10X2,
179.
where X1 = years of education and X2 = aptitude test score.
180.
What is the
181.
predicted score for someone with 10 years of education and a aptitude test score of 5?
182.
a. 25
183.
b. 50
184.
c. 35
185.
d. 80
186.
187.
5. The standard deviation is:
188.
a. The square root of the variance
189.
b. A measure of variability
190.
c. An approximate indicator of how numbers vary from the mean
191.
d. All of the above
192.
193.
6. Hypothesis testing and estimation are both types of descriptive statistics.
194.
a. True
195.
b. False
196.
197.
7. A set of data organized in a participants(rows)-by-variables(columns) format is known as a
data set.
198.
a. True
199.
b. False
200.
201.
8. A graph that uses vertical bars to represent data is called a ____.
202.
a. Line graph
203.
b. Bar graph
204.
c. Scatterplot
205.
d. Vertical graph
206.
207.
9. The goal of ___________ is to focus on summarizing and explaining a specific set of data.
208.
a. Inferential statistics
209.
b. Descriptive statistics
210.
c. None of the above
211.
d. All of the above
212.
213.
10. The most frequently occurring number in a set of values is called the ____.
214.
a. Mean
215.
b. Median
216.
c. Mode
217.
d. Range
218.
219.
11. As a general rule, the _______ is the best measure of central tendency because it is more
precise.
220.
a. Mean
221.
b. Median
222.
c. Mode
223.
d. Range
224.
225.
12. Focusing on describing or explaining data versus going beyond immediate data and
making inferences is the difference between _______.
226.
a. Central tendency and common tendency
227.
b. Mutually exclusive and mutually exhaustive properties
228.
c. Descriptive and inferential
229.
d. Positive skew and negative skew
230.
231.
13. Why are variance and standard deviation the most popular measures of variability?
232.
a. They are the most stable and are foundations for more advanced statistical analysis
233.
b. They are the most simple to calculate with large data sets
234.
c. They provide nominally scaled data
235.
236.
237.
14. ____________ is the set of procedures used to explain or predict the values of a
dependent variable based on the values of one or more independent variables.
238.
a. Regression analysis
239.
b. Regression coefficient
240.
c. Regression equation
241.
d. Regression line
242.
243.
15. The ______ is the value you calculate when you want the arithmetic average.
244.
a. Mean
245.
b. Median
246.
c. Mode
247.
d. All of the above
248.
249.
16. ___________ are used when you want to visually examine the relationship between two
quantitative variables.
250.
a. Bar graphs
251.
b. Pie graphs
252.
c. Line graphs
253.
d. Scatterplots
254.
255.
17. The _______ is often the preferred measure of central tendency if the data are severely
skewed.
256.
a. Mean
257.
b. Median
258.
c. Mode
259.
d. Range
260.
261.
18. Which of the following is the formula for range?
262.
a. H + L
263.
b. L x H
264.
c. L - H
265.
d. H L
266.
267.
19. Which is a raw score that has been transformed into standard deviation units?
268.
a. z score
269.
b. SDU score
270.
c. t score
271.
d. e score
272.
273.
20. Which of the following is NOT a measure of variability?
274.
a. Median
275.
b. Variance
276.
c. Standard deviation
277.
d. Range
278.
279.
21. Which of the following is NOT a common measure of central tendency?
280.
a. Mode
281.
b. Range
282.
c. Median
283.
d. Mean
284.
285.
22. What is the median of this set of numbers: 4, 6, 7, 9, 2000000?
286.
a. 7.5
287.
b. 6
288.
c. 7
289.
d. 4
290.
291.
23. What is the mean of this set of numbers: 4, 6, 7, 9, 2000000?
292.
a. 7.5
293.
b. 400,005.2
294.
c. 7
295.
d. 4
296.
297.
24. Which of the following is interpreted as the percentage of scores in a reference group
that falls below a particular raw score?
298.
a. Standard scores
299.
b. Percentile rank
300.
c. Reference group
301.
302.
303.
25. The median is ______.
304.
a. The middle point
305.
b. The highest number
306.
c. The average
307.
d. Affected by extreme scores
308.
309.
26. Which measure of central tendency takes into account the magnitude of scores?
310.
a. Mean
311.
b. Median
312.
c. Mode
313.
d. Range
314.
315.
27. If a test was generally very easy, except for a few students who had very low scores, then
the distribution of scores would be _____.
316.
a. Positively skewed
317.
b. Negatively skewed
318.
c. Not skewed at all
319.
d. Normal
320.
321.
28. How many dependent variables are used in multiple regression?
322.
a. One
323.
b. One or more
324.
c. Two or more
325.
d. Two
326.
327.
29. Which of the following represents the fiftieth percentile, or the middle point in a set of
numbers arranged in order of magnitude?
328.
a. Mode
329.
b. Median
330.
c. Mean
331.
d. Variance
332.
333.
30. If a distribution is skewed to the left, then it is __________.
334.
a. Negatively skewed
335.
b. Positively skewed
336.
c. Symmetrically skewed
337.
d. Symmetrical
338.
339.
340.
31. In a grouped frequency distribution, the intervals should be what?
341.
a. Mutually exclusive
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
d
d
a
d
d
342.
b. Exhaustive
343.
c. Both A and B
344.
d. Neither A nor B
345.
346.
32. When a set of numbers is heterogeneous, you can place more trust in the measure of
central tendency as representing the typical person or unit.
347.
a. True
348.
b. False
349.
350.
33. Non-overlapping categories or intervals are known as ______.
351.
a.
Inclusive
352.
b.
Exhaustive
353.
c.
Mutually exclusive
354.
d.
Mutually exclusive and exhaustive
355.
356.
34. To interpret the relationship between two categorical variables, a contingency table
should be constructed with either column or row percentages, and ----.
357.
a. If the percentages are calculated down the columns, then comparisons should be made
across
358.
the rows
359.
b. If the percentages are calculated across the rows, comparisons should be made down the
360.
columns
361.
c. Both a and b are correct
362.
d. Neither a nor b is correct
363.
364.
Answers:
6. b
11. a
16. d
21. b
26. a
31. c
7. a
12. c
17. b
22. c
27. b
32. b
8. b
13. a
18. d
23. b
28. a
33. c
9. b
14. a
19. a
24. b
29. b
34. c
10. c
15. a
20. a
25. a
30. a
35.
36. Chapter 16
38.
39. 1. Which of the following symbols represents a population parameter?
40. a. SD
41. b.
42. c. r
43. d. 0
44.
45. 2. If you drew all possible samples from some population, calculated the mean for each of the
samples, and constructed a line graph (showing the shape of the distribution) based on all of those
means, what would you have?
46. a. A population distribution
47. b. A sample distribution
48. c. A sampling distribution
49. d. A parameter distribution
50.
51. 3. What does it mean when you calculate a 95% confidence interval?
52. a. The process you used will capture the true parameter 95% of the time in the long run
53. b. You can be 95% confident that your interval will include the population parameter
54. c. You can be 5% confident that your interval will not include the population parameter
55. d. All of the above statements are true

56.
57. 4. What would happen (other things equal) to a confidence interval if you calculated a 99 percent
confidence interval rather than a 95 percent confidence interval?
58. a. It will be narrower
59. b. It will not change
60. c. The sample size will increase
61. d. It will become wider
62.
63. 5. Which of the following statements sounds like a null hypothesis?
64. a. The coin is not fair
65. b. There is a correlation in the population
66. c. There is no difference between male and female incomes in the population
67. d. The defendant is guilty
68.
69. 6. The analysis of variance is a statistical test that is used to compare how many group means?
70. a. Three or more
71. b. Two or more
72.
73. 7. What is the standard deviation of a sampling distribution called?
74. a. Sampling error
75. b. Sample error
76. c. Standard error
77. d. Simple error
78.
79. 8. Hypothesis testing and estimation are the two key branches of the field of inferential statistics?
80. a. True
81. b. False
82.
83. 9. A ______ is a subset of a _________.
84. a. Sample, population
85. b. Population, sample
86. c. Statistic, parameter
87. d. Parameter, statistic
88.
89. 10. A _______ is a numerical characteristic of a sample and a ______ is a numerical characteristic of
a population.
90. a. Sample, population
91. b. Population, sample
92. c. Statistic, parameter
93. d. Parameter, statistic
94.
95. 11. A sampling distribution might be based on which of the following?
96. a. Sample means
97. b. Sample correlations
98. c. Sample proportions
100.
101.
12. As a general rule, researchers tend to use ____ percent confidence intervals.
102.
a. 99%
103.
b. 95%
104.
c. 50%
105.
106.
107.
13. Which of the following is the researcher usually interested in supporting when he or she
is engaging in hypothesis testing?
108.
a. The alternative hypothesis
109.
b. The null hypothesis
110.
c. Both the alternative and null hypothesis
111.
d. Neither the alternative or null hypothesis
112.
113.
14. When p<.05 is reported in a journal article that you read for an observed relationship, it
means that the author has rejected the null hypothesis (assuming that the author is using a
significance or alpha level of .05).
114.
a. True
115.
b. False
116.
117.
15. When p>05 is reported in a journal article that you read for an observed relationship, it
means that the author has rejected the null hypothesis (assuming that the author is using a
significance or alpha level of .05).
118.
a. True
119.
b. False
120.
121.
16. _________ are the values that mark the boundaries of the confidence interval.
122.
a.
Confidence intervals
123.
b.
Confidence limits
124.
c.
Levels of confidence
125.
d. Margin of error
126.
127.
17. _____ results if you fail to reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is actually
false.
128.
a.
Type I error
129.
b.
Type II error
130.
c.
Type III error
131.
d.
Type IV error
132.
133.
18. A good way to get a small standard error is to use a ________.
134.
a. Repeated sampling
135.
b. Small sample
136.
c. Large sample
137.
d. Large population
138.
139.
19. The car will probably cost about 16,000 dollars; this number sounds more like a(n):
140.
a. Point estimate
141.
b. Interval estimate
142.
143.
20. Identify which of the following steps would not be included in hypothesis testing.
144.
a. State the null and alternative hypotheses
145.
b. Set the significance level before the research study
146.
c. Eliminate all outliers
147.
d. Obtain the probability value using a computer program such as SPSS
148.
e. Compare the probability value to the significance level and make the statistical decision
149.
150.
21. A ________ is a range of numbers inferred from the sample that has a certain probability
of including the population parameter over the long run.
151.
a. Hypothesis
152.
b. Lower limit
153.
c. Confidence interval
154.
d. Probability limit
155.
156.
22. ________ is the standard deviation of a sampling distribution.
157.
a. Standard error
158.
b. Sample standard deviation
159.
c. Replication error
160.
d. Meta error
161.
162.
23. An effect size indicator is a statistical measure of the strength of a relationship.
163.
a. True
164.
b. False
165.
166.
24. Which of the following can be viewed as an effect size indicator?
167.
a. r-squared
168.
b. r
169.
c. Eta-squared
170.
d. Omega-squared
171.
e. All of the above
172.
173.
25. When the researcher rejects a true null hypothesis, a ____ error occurs.
174.
a. Type I
175.
b. Type A
176.
c. Type II
177.
d. Type B
178.
179.
26. A post hoc test is ___.
180.
a. A test to compare two or more means in one overall test
181.
b. A test to determine regression to the mean
182.
c. A follow-up test to the analysis of variance when there are three or more groups
183.
d. A follow-up test to the independent t-test
184.
185.
27. The use of the laws of probability to make inferences and draw statistical conclusions
about populations based on sample data is referred to as ___________.
186.
a. Descriptive statistics
187.
b. Inferential statistics
188.
c. Sample statistics
189.
d. Population statistics
190.
191.
28. A statistical test used to compare 2 or more group means is known as _____.
192.
a. One-way analysis of variance
193.
b. Post hoc test
194.
c. t-test for correlation coefficients
195.
d. Simple regression
196.
197.
29. A statistical test used to determine whether a correlation coefficient is statistically
significant is called the ___________.
198.
a. One-way analysis of variance
199.
b. t-test for independent samples
200.
c. Chi-square test for contingency tables
201.
d. t-test for correlation coefficients
202.
203.
30. The cutoff the researcher uses to decide whether to reject the null hypothesis is called the:
204.
a. Significance level
205.
b. Alpha level
206.
c. Probability value
207.
d. Both a and b are correct
208.
209.
31. Which ____ percent confidence interval will be the widest (i.e., the least precise) for a
particular data set that includes exactly 500 cases?
210.
a. 99%
211.
b. 95%
212.
c. 90%
213.
214.
215.
32. As sample size goes up, what tends to happen to 95% confidence intervals?
216.
a. They become more precise
217.
b. They become more narrow
218.
c. They become wider
219.
d. Both a and b
220.
221.
33. __________ is the failure to reject a false null hypothesis.
222.
a.
Type I error
223.
b.
Type II error
224.
c.
Type A error
225.
d.
Type B error
226.
227.
34. Which of the following statements is/are true according to the logic of hypothesis testing?
228.
a. When the null hypothesis is true, it should be rejected
229.
b. When the null hypothesis is true, it should not be rejected
230.
c. When the null hypothesis is false, it should be rejected
231.
d. When the null hypothesis is false, it should not be rejected
232.
e. Both b and c are true
233.
234.
35. What is the key question in the field of statistical estimation?
235.
a. Based on my random sample, what is my estimate of the population parameter?
236.
b. Based on my random sample, what is my estimate of normal distribution?
237.
c. Is the value of my sample statistic unlikely enough for me to reject the null hypothesis?
238.
d. There is no key question in statistical estimation
239.
240.
36. Assuming innocence until proven guilty, a Type I error occurs when an innocent person
is found guilty.
241.
a. True
242.
b. False
243.
244.
37. This is the difference between a sample statistic and the corresponding population
parameter.
245.
a. Standard error
246.
b. Sampling error
247.
c. Difference error
248.
249.
250.
38. The equals sign (=) is included in which hypothesis when conducting hypothesis
testing?
251.
a. Null
252.
b. Alternative
253.
c. It can appear in both the null and the alternative hypothesis
254.
255.
39. A Type I error is also known as a ______.
256.
a. False positive
257.
b. False negative
258.
c. Double negative
259.
d. Positive negative
260.
261.
40. A Type II error is also known as a ______.
262.
a. False positive
263.
b. False negative
264.
c. Double negative
265.
d. Positive negative
266.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
b
c
d
d
c
b
267.
41. If a finding is statistically significant one must also interpret the data, calculate an effect
size indicator, and make an assessment of practical significance.
268.
a. True
269.
b. False
270.
271.
42. The p-value used in statistical significance testing should be used to assess how strong a
relationship is. For example, if relationship A has a p=.04 and relationship B has a p=.03 then you
can conclude that relationship B is stronger than relationship A.
272.
a. True
273.
b. False
274.
275.
Answers:
7. c
13. a
19. a
25. a
31. a
37. b
8. a
14. a
20. c
26. c
32. d
38. a
9. a
15. b
21. c
27. b
33. b
39. a
10. c
16. b
22. a
28. a
34. e
40. b
11. d
17. b
23. a
29. d
35. a
41. a
12. b
18. c
24. e
30. d
36. a
42. b
276.
277.
278.
Chapter 17
279.
280.
281.
1. A researcher does a study of students' phenomenological feelings about problem solving.
One of her categories of codes involves positive affect. Two subcategories of that category of
positive affect are smiles when solves the problem, and shouts hooray when finished. The relation
between these subcategories and the overall category of positive affect is:
282.
a.
Spatial
283.
b.
Sequence
284.
c.
Strict inclusion
285.
d.
Function
286.
287.
2. In looking at the relationships between coding categories, the relation, "X is a place in Y; X
is part of Y" in Spradley's taxonomy of semantic relations is labeled:
288.
a. Spatial
289.
b. Rationale
290.
c. Means-end
291.
d. Strict inclusion
292.
293.
3. In looking at the relationships between coding categories, the relation X is a kind of Y in
Spradley's taxonomy of semantic relations is labeled:
294.
a. Spatial
295.
b. Rationale
296.
c. Means-end
297.
d. Strict inclusion
298.
299.
4. A researcher is doing a study of peer groups in middle school. She interviews 5 girls and 5
boys. She is doing a grounded theory study; hence, she decides to generate her codes as she scans
through her transcriptions of her data. These codes are labeled:
300.
a.
A priori codes
301.
b.
Post hoc codes
302.
c.
Inductive codes
303.
d.
Master list codes
304.
305.
5. Sarah is a qualitative researcher studying how children and parents interact in Head Start
Centers. As she examines her data (videotapes and transcripts), she jots down notes concerning the
interactions, generating hypotheses, suggesting relationships among categories of information she is
examining and so on. This process of jotting notes as she examines the data is called:
306.
a.
Memoing
307.
b.
Transcription
308.
c.
Facesheet coding
309.
d.
Drawing diagrams
310.
311.
6. Qualitative data analysis is still a relatively new and rapidly developing branch of research
methodology.
312.
a. True
313.
b. False
314.
315.
7. The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words, or category
names is known as _______.
316.
a.
Concurring
317.
b.
Coding
318.
c.
Coloring
319.
d.
Segmenting
320.
321.
8. What is the cyclical process of collecting and analyzing data during a single research study
called?
322.
a. Interim analysis
323.
b. Inter analysis
324.
c. Inter-item analysis
325.
d. Constant analysis
326.
327.
9. What is the recording of reflective notes about what you are learning from your data during
data analysis called?
328.
a. Coding
329.
b. Segmenting
330.
c. Memoing
331.
d. Reflecting
332.
333.
10. Which of the following is one of Spradleys types of relationships?
334.
a. Strict inclusion
335.
b. Sequence
336.
c. Cause-effect
337.
d. All of the above
338.
339.
11. Which of the following is not one of Spradleys types of relationships?
340.
a. Strict inclusion
341.
b. Sequence
342.
c. Cause-effect
343.
d. Correlational
344.
345.
12. Codes that apply to a complete document or case are called ________.
346.
a. Cover codes
347.
b. False sheet codes
348.
c. Factual codes
349.
d. Facesheet codes
350.
351.
13. A classification system generally used in the social sciences that breaks something down
into different types or levels is called a ________.
352.
a. Diagram
353.
b. Flow chart
354.
c. Hierarchical category system
355.
d. Category
356.
357.
14. When you have high consistency among different coders about the appropriate codes for a
set of data, you have ____.
358.
a. High intercoder reliability
359.
b. High intracoder reliability
360.
361.
15. Codes developed before examining the current data being coded are called ______.
362.
a. Co-occuring codes
363.
b. Inductive codes
364.
c. A priori codes
365.
d. Facesheet codes
366.
367.
16. The process of quantifying data is referred to as _________.
368.
a. Typology
369.
b. Diagramming
370.
c. Enumeration
371.
d. Coding
372.
373.
17. Which of the following refers to the cyclical process of collecting and analyzing data
during a single research study?
374.
a. Memoing
375.
b. Segmenting
376.
c. Coding
377.
d. Interim analysis
378.
379.
18. An advantage of using computer programs for qualitative data is that they _______.
380.
a. Can reduce time required to analyze data (i.e., after the data are transcribed)
381.
b. Help in storing and organizing data
382.
c. Make many procedures available that are rarely done by hand due to time constraints
383.
d. All of the above
384.
385.
19. _________ are codes that are developed during the process of coding.
386.
a.
Inductive codes
387.
b.
A priori codes
388.
c.
Co-occurring codes
389.
d.
Facesheet codes
390.
391.
20. Boolean operators are words that are used to create logical combinations.
392.
a. True
393.
b. False
394.
395.
21. __________ are the basic building blocks of qualitative data.
396.
a. Categories
397.
b. Units
398.
c. Individuals
399.
400.
401.
22. When a segment of textual data has overlapping codes, this is called a(n) __________.
402.
a. Inductive code
403.
b. Co-occurring codes
404.
c. Priori code
405.
d. Facesheet code
406.
407.
23. This is the process of transforming qualitative research data from written interviews or
field notes into typed text.
408.
a. Segmenting
409.
b. Coding
410.
c. Transcription
411.
d. Memoing
412.
413.
24. Network diagrams show only direct links between variables or events over time.
414.
a. True
415.
b. False
416.
417.
25. A challenge of qualitative data analysis is that it often includes data that are unwieldy and
complex; it is a major challenge to make sense of the large pool of data.
418.
a. True
419.
b. False
420.
421.
Answers:
1. c
6. a
11. d
16. c
21. a
2. a
7. b
12. d
17. d
22. b
3. d
8. a
13. c
18. d
23. c
4. c
9. c
14. a
19. a
24. b
5. a
10. d
15. c
20. a
25. a
26.
27.
28. Chapter 18
30.
31. 1. When a citation includes more than ____ authors, only the surname of the first author is cited
followed by et al.
32. a. 3
33. b. 4
34. c. 5
35. d. 6
36.
37. 2. When referencing other works you have cited within the text of the report you should
38. a. State the first and last name of the author
39. b. Use the author, date citation method
40. c. Use an asterisk and a footnote
41. d. Insert the complete citation in parenthesis
42.
43. 3. Which of the following abbreviations can be used in a research report?
44. a. IQ
45. b. sec. for second

46. c. yr. for year
47. d. mo. for month
48.
49. 4. Editorial style specifies that ______ should be used infrequently or sparingly.
50. a. Italics
51. b. Abbreviations
52. c. Headings
53. d. Both a and b
54.
55. 5. The factor that should determine whether you decide to prepare a research report of you study for
a conference or for publication is
56. a. Whether the study is free from flaws
57. b. Whether the study is important enough to justify presentation or publication
58. c. Whether others would be interested in the work
60.
61. 6. Which of the following is not true about the use of language in research reports?
62. a. You should choose accurate and clear words that are free from bias.
63. b. You should avoid labeling people whenever possible
64. c. You should avoid using the term subjects whenever possible
65. d. All of the above are true according to the APA Guidelines
66.
67. 7. Regarding disabilities, writers should avoid equating people with their disabilities such as in
mentally retarded people.
68. a. True
69. b. False
70.
71. 8. You should avoid the use of sexist language in research reports.
72. a. True
73. b. False
74.
75. 9. Which is more appropriate when referring to someone with a disability?
76. a. A stroke victim
77. b. A person who has had a stroke
78.
79. 10. You should try to use italics frequently when writing a report.
80. a. True
81. b. False
82.
83. 11. You should try to use abbreviations sparingly.
84. a. True
85. b. False
86.
87. 12. Use words for numbers that begin a sentence and for numbers that are below ten.
88. a. True
89. b. False
90.
91. 13. You should double space all material in the manuscript.
92. a. True
93. b. False
94.
95. 14. Which of the following is not one of the seven major parts to the research report?
96. a. Results
97. b. Abstract
98. c. Method
99. d. Footnotes
100.
101.
15. The Introduction section should not be labeled.
102.
a. True
103.
b. False
104.
105.
16. The abstract should be about how many words?
106.
a. 50
107.
b. 75
108.
c. 120
109.
d. 300
110.
111.
17. The Method section should start on a separate page in a manuscript.
112.
a. True
113.
b. False
114.
115.
18. It is in this section that you fully interpret and evaluate your results.
116.
a. Introduction
117.
b. Method
118.
c. Results
119.
d. Discussion
120.
121.
19. Where do you provide a step-by-step account of what the researcher and participants did
during the research study?
122.
a. Introduction
123.
b. Abstract
124.
c. Procedure
125.
d. Design
126.
127.
20. References should be single spaced.
128.
a. True
129.
b. False
130.
131.
21. Qualitative research reports do not need a Method section.
132.
a. True
133.
b. False
134.
135.
22. When writing the qualitative results section, an overriding concern should be to provide
sufficient and convincing evidence to back up your assertions.
136.
a. True
137.
b. False
138.
139.
23. When writing the qualitative results section, you will need to find an appropriate balance
between description and interpretation.
140.
a. True
141.
b. False
142.
143.
24. Diagrams, matrices, tables, and figures should never be used in qualitative research
reports.
144.
a. True
145.
b. False
146.
147.
25. Your textbook authors argued that in qualitative research it is important to fit the research
findings back into the relevant research literature even if the study is exploratory.
148.
a. True
149.
b. False
150.
151.
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
d
b
a
d
d
6. d
7. a
8. a
9. b
10. b
11. a
12. a
13. a
14. d
15. a
16. c
17. b
18. d
19. c
20. b
21. b
22. a
23. a
24. b
25. a
152.

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Chapter 1

Multiple Choice Questions

18. Which scientific method is a bottom-up or generative approach to research?

5. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called a(n):

32. 1. A good qualitative problem statement:

38. 2. The tool function of theory is to:

44. 3. The statement of purpose in a research study should:

48. d. Describe the study

96. c. Explaining phenomena

24. Hypotheses in qualitative research studies usually _____.

25. A research plan _____.

26. The Method section of the research plan typically specifies

27. The Introduction section of the research plan

Contains a statement of the purpose of the study

d. Having full anonymity rather than just confidentiality

45. b. The categories are not exhaustive

92. a. Confirmatory data

21. Which of the following is not a type of nonrandom sampling?

85. c. Multiple operationalism

13. Which of the following best describes interpretive validity?

34. Multiple Choice Questions

75. 8. A form of the nonequivalent comparison-group design is recommended when ____.

71. b. Shared beliefs

a. Dominant-status sequential design

55. d. All of the above statements are true

45. b. sec. for second

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