# Booklet No.

:

A
SET

BT - 15

Bio Technology
Duration of Test : 2 Hours

Max. Marks : 120

Hall Ticket No.
Name of the Candidate :
Date of Examination :

Signature of the Candidate

Signature of the Invigilator

INSTRUCTIONS
1.

This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.

2.

Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.

3.

Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.

4.

This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.

5.

Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.

6.

on the OMR sheet carefully.

7.

OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.

8.

Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.

9.

No part of the Booklet should be detached under any circumstances.

10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

BT-15-A

BIO TECHNOLOGY (BT)
1.

2.

The value of p for which the system of equations x + 5y + 3z = 0, 5x + y – pz = 0 and
x + 2y + pz = 0 has non zero solution is
1
(A) p =
(B) p = 0
(C) p = 2
(D) p = 1
2
2 0 1
The eigen values of the matrix are  0 1 0 

 1 0 3

(A)

(C)
3.

4.

5 − 5
,
2
2
1, 5, − 5
1,

5+ 5 5− 5
,
2
2
(D) purely imaginary

(B)

1,

∂u
∂u
x2 y2
If u ( x, y ) = 2
then x + y
is equal to
2
∂x
∂y
x +y
1
u
(A) 4u
(B)
(C) 2u
2
The Fourier series expansion of f ( x) = sin3 x
1
3
sin x − sin3 x
(A)
(B)
4
4
3
1
sin x − sin3 x
(C)
(D)
4
4

(D)

1
u
4

in the interval (0, 2π) is equal to
3
1
sin x + sin3 x
4
4
none

5.

The particular integral of the differential equation (1 + D)2 y = x2 + x is equal to
(A) x2 + 2x + 3
(B) (1 + x)2
(C) x2 – 3x – 4
(D) x2 + x

6.

The solution of one dimensional wave equation
(A)

(c1 e px + c2 e− px )(c3 cos pt + c4 sin pt )

(B)

(c1 x + c2 )(c3 cos pt + c4 sin pt )

2
∂2 y
2 ∂ y
=
c
is of the form
∂t 2
∂x 2

(C) (c1 cos px + c2 sin px)(c3 cos pt + c4 sin pt )
(D) none of these
7.

An electronic assembly consists of two subsystems A and B. From the past experience,
it is known that P(A fails) = 0.20, P(A and B fail) = 0.20 and P(B fails alone) = 0.15.
The probability that P (A fails / B has failed) is
3
2
4
(A)
(B) 0.15
(C)
(D)
7
15
7

Set - A

2

BT

8.

If the distribution function (DF) is F(x) = 1 – e–kx, x > 0, k ≥ 0, the probability
distribution function (PDF) is
(A) ke–kx
(B) e–kx
(C) 0
(D) 1

9.

By intermediate value theorem one of the interval in which one root of the function
f(x) = x2 – x – 2 lies is
(A) (0, 1)
(B) (–1, 0)
(C) (1, 3)
(D) None of these

10.

Taylor series approximation (up to third order) of the solution

dy
= x 2 + y with the
dx

initial condition y(0) = 1 is
(A)
(C)

x 2 + x3
2
x 2 x3
1+ x + +
2 3
1+ x +

x2
2
x3
(D) 1 + x +
3
(B)

1+ x +

11.

What will be the F2 phenotypic ratio in a dihybridization experiment in which one
character exhibits complete dominance whereas the second character exhibits codominance ?
(A) 12 : 3 : 1
(B) 9 : 3 : 4
(C) 3 : 6 : 3 : 1 : 2 : 1
(D) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

12.

A carrier female for taysachs disease marries a man who is also carrier for the same
condition. What will be the probability that their first child is normal female ?
(A) 2/8
(B) 1/8
(C) 4/8
(D) 3/8

13.

In a dihybrid two genes A and B are located at a distance of 16 map units. If the dihybrid
is in repulsion phase, what will be the proportion of Ab gametes ?
(A) 84%
(B) 42%
(C) 21%
(D) 8%

14.

Taysachs disease caused due to mutation in
(A) Homogentisate oxidase
(B) β hexoseaminidase
(C) Tyrosinase
(D) Pyruvate decarboxylase

15.

In the fallowing phenotypes, which one is related to Recessive epistasis ?
(A) 9 : 3 : 4
(B) 13 : 3
(C) 15 : 1
(D) 9 : 6 : 1

16.

A mutation to DNA polymerase that eliminated the 5I to 3I exonuclease activity would
prevent
(A) Ligation of the Okazaki fragments (B) Removal of the RNA primer
(C) Removal of the base mismatches (D) Repair of deaminated bases

Set - A

3

BT

17.

How many high energy bonds are required for the recruitment of 2nd amino acid in
Ribosomes in translation ?
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 6

18.

Which of the following pair is not correctly described ?
(A) 5I splice site : begins with GU, marks 5I end of intron
(B) Branch site : contains A that binds U2 ; branch site of lariat
(C) 3I splice site : begins with AG, marks 3I end of intron
(D) Trimer : consists of U4/U6 and U5, brings 5I splice site to branch site

19.

Which of the following protein families are chromosome remodelling complexes ?
(A) HATs
(B) SWI/SNF
(C) TFIID
(D) XPA

20.

If an mRNA has 207 nts length, what will be the molecular weight of protein synthesized
from that mRNA ?
(A) 8.8 KD
(B) 7.6 KD
(C) 7.5 KD
(D) 8.7 KD

21.

Which of the following toxins inhibits eukaryotic protein synthesis through the
depurination of a single adenine residue in 28 S ribosomal RNA (r RNA)
(A) Diptheria toxin
(B) Ricin
(C) α-Sarcin
(D) Colicin E-3

22.

Most of the gram –ve bacteria shows quorum sensing by the release of
(A) Homoserine lactones
(B) phospho lactones
(C) Phosphoserine lactones
(D) Phosphoinositol lactone

23.

The process in which a molecule is transported into the cell while being chemically
altered is called
(A) Passive transport
(B) Group translocation
(C) Facilitated transport
(D) Active transport

24.

During the transformation in bacteria the exogonate DNA combines with endogonate
DNA to form a triple stranded structure. Which protein is involved in the formation of
double cross-over between exogonate and endogonate strands ?
(A) Rec B
(C) Rec A
(D) Ruv A

25.

Proteins which are responsible for induction of lytic phase from lysogenic phase in
bacteriophases
(A) CI
(B) Cro
(C) Gag
(D) Pol

26.

Agrobacterium tumefaciens is not an effective vector for
(A) Rice
(B) Soya bean
(C) Tomato

Set - A

4

(D) Sorghum
BT

27.

Which of the following bacteria is chemolitho-autotroph ?
(A) Purple and green sulphur bacteria (B) Purple non sulphur bacteria
(C) Green non sulphur bacteria
(D) sulphur oxidizing bacteria

28.

Halobacterium and other extremely halophillic bacteria have significantly modified the
structure of their proteins and membranes by
(A) increasing intracellular Na+ and K+ levels.
(B) increasing intracellular Ca++ levels.
(C) increasing extracellular Cl– ions.
(D) increasing intracellular Cl– ions.

29.

Amino acid with highest positive hydropathy index
(A) Leucine
(B) Isoleucine
(C) Methionine

(D) Tryptophan

Which RNA plays a role in protein targeting ?
(A) tm RNA
(B) P RNA
(C) i RNA

(D) 7SL RNA

30.

31.

Peptide antibiotic which is synthesized without the involvement of Ribosomes
(A) Actinomycin-D
(B) Gramicidin
(C) Streptomycin
(D) Valinomycin

32.

An alpha helix made up of 114 aminoacid residues. What will be the value of its axial
length and also length when polypeptide chain is fully extended?
(A) 171 Å , 410.4 Å
(B) 171 Å, 171 Å
(C) 410.4 Å , 171 Å
(D) 410.4 Å, 410.4 Å

33.

Refsum’s disease arises due to defective
(A) β -Oxidation pathway
(B) α Oxidation pathway
(C) ω Oxidation pathway
(D) TCA cycle

34.

Liddle’s syndrome is associated with
(A) excessive Ca++ absorption
(C) excessive Na+ absorption

35.

(B) excessive K+ absorption
(D) excessive Mg++ absorption

Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter ?
(A) GABA
(B) Glycine
(C) Dopamine

(D) Glutamine

36.

Rb and P53 both are genes that function in regulating the cell cycle transition from
(A) S to G2
(B) G2 to M
(C) M to G1
(D) G1 to S

37.

Enzyme which is called as pace maker of glycolysis
(A) Hexokinase
(B) Phosphohexose isomerise
(C) Phosphofructo kinase
(D) Triose phosphate isomerise

Set - A

5

BT

38.

The difference in the Theoretical and practical time duration of protein folding is called

39.

Which of the following glycolysis intermediate will regulate the binding of O2 to
haemoglobin ?
(A) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
(B) Dihydroxy acetone phosphate
(C) 2, 3 bis phosphoglycerate
(D) Phosphoenol pyruvate

40.

Three restriction enzymes A, B and C have six, eight and four base pairs as their
recognition sites respectively. The ratios of the number of fragments that will generate on
restriction digestion of a genomic DNA of E. coli are approximately
(A) 1 : 64 : 16
(B) 16 : 256 : 6 (C) 16 : 256 : 1 (D) 256 : 16 : 1

41.

The secretory IgM was electrophoresed on SDS PAGE under reduced and denaturing
conditions. The number of polypeptide bands detected on the gel is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

42.

RBC and Platelets destruction occurs in spleen. The process is called
(A) Hemocatheresis
(B) Hemolysis
(C) Hemopoiesis
(D) Hemogenisis

43.

Which of the following is not present on the neutrophil membrane ?
(A) TLR-2
(B) TLR-4
(C) MHC-II
(D) Fc ϒ R

44.

In which stage of the B-cell development Ig gene rearrangement occurs ?
(A) Hematopoietic stem cell to lymphoid progenitor
(B) Lymphoid progenitor to pre B-cell
(C) Pro B-cell to Pre B-cell
(D) Immature B-cell to mature B-cell

45.

α-Defensins are found in
(A) Azurophilic granules of polymorphonuclear leucocytes
(B) Epithelial cells
(C) Lymphocytes
(D) Macrophages

46.

CD 40 ligand is seen only on
(A) Macrophages
(C) Helper T-cells

Set - A

(B) Cytotoxic T-cells
(D) Dendritic cells
6

BT

47.

In celiac disease there is T-cell sensitivity to
(B) Myelin basic proteins
(C) Gluten
(D) Gastric H+ -K+ dependent ATPase

48.

Which cells first recognise grafted foreign tissue and starts the process of rejection ?
(A) Helper T-cells
(B) Macrophages
(C) Cytotoxic T-cells
(D) B-cells

49.

Accumulation of lactic acid causes metabolic acidosis due to deficiency of
(A) Pyruvate kinase
(B) Citrate synthase
(C) Pyruvate decarboxylase
(D) Malate dehydrogenase

50.

The primer used for the amplification had the following composition. Calculate the
annealing temperature, A = 6, T = 4, G = 5, C = 5
(A) 60 °C
(B) 50 °C
(C) 70 °C
(D) 40 °C

51.

On an average each human chromosome contains 0.1 billion base pairs of DNA. The
carrying capacity of a yeast vector is 103 Kbp. How many molecules of YAC required for
inserting the chromosomal DNA ?
(A) 102
(B) 103
(C) 104
(D) 105

52.

Which of the following pair is Neoschizomer ?
(A) Mbo I , Sau 3A
(B) Hind III , Eco RI
(C) Xma I , Pst I
(D) Sma I, Xma I

53.

In electroporation, once critical field is achieved there is a rapid localized rearrangement
of lipids which results a structure called Pre-Pore complex. Which is a right statement for
Pre-Pore complex ?
(A) Pre-Pore complex has 3Å diameter and it is electrically conductive.
(B) Pre-Pore complex has 4Å diameter and it is electrically non conductive.
(C) Pre-Pore complex has 4Å diameter and it is electrically conductive.
(D) Pre-Pore complex has 3Å diameter and it is electrically non conductive.

54.

In a sequencing reaction, instead of d ATP, dd ATP was added, what will be the
consequence ?
(A) Normal DNA synthesis would occur
(B) No DNA synthesis would occur
(C) Synthesis would terminate randomly regardless of the nucleotide incorporated
(D) Synthesis would always stop at the position at which the first A was incorporated

55.

The structural analogue of folic acid which is widely used to control cancer
(A) Methotraxate (B) Nalidixic acid (C) Cisplatin
(D) Etoposide

Set - A

7

BT

56.

Choose the wrong statement from the following statements :
(A) BMR increases with increase of surface area
(B) Infants and growing children show high BMR
(C) In warm climates, the BMR is higher when compared to cold climates
(D) BMR increases in persons who do regular exercise

57.

Diptheria toxin inhibits protein synthesis by
(A) binding with 60S ribosomal sub unit
(B) inhibits peptidyl transferase
(C) inactivates elongation factor eEF2
(D) inhibits binding of aminoacylt-RNA to ribosomal complex

58.

Find out primary bile acids from the following pair :
(A) Cholic acid, chenodeoxycholic acid
(B) Deoxycholic acid, lithocholic acid
(C) Glycocholic acid, glcochenodeoxycholic acid
(D) Taurocholic acid, taurochenodeoxycholic acid

59.

Which of the following enzymes do not require template for the synthesis of DNA and
RNA ?
(A) DNA polymerase 5
(B) RNA pol 1
(C) reverse transcriptase
(D) terminal deoxy nucleotidyl transferase

60.

A restriction fragment obtained with a type II endonuclease was subjected to MaxamGilbert sequencing which results as shown in the autoradiogram below. What will be the
sequence of fragmented DNA ?
G

A+G

C

C+T

(A) 5ICATCGATCGTAATCG 3I
(C) 5I CATCGAGCTTAATCG 3I
Set - A

(B) 3ICATCGATCGTAATCG 5I
(D) 3I CATCGATCGAATTCG 5I
8

BT

61.

Trypsin cleaves the peptidyl bond at the site of
(A) carboxyl side of arginine or lysine
(B) amino side of arginine or lysine
(C) carboxyl side of tryptophan or phenylalanine
(D) amino side of tryptophan or phenylalanine

62.

To immobilise an enzyme in a durable way, Diazolation is frequently used, which of the
following statement is correct for Diazolation ?
(A) Reaction occurs between the amino group of the support and the carboxyl group of
the enzyme
(B) A bifunctional or multi-functional reagent used to create bonding between the
amino group of the support and the amino group of the enzyme
(C) Bonding between the amino group of the support and a tryosyl or histidyl group of
the enzyme
(D) Use of cyanogen bromide, which can be applied to a support containing glycol
groups

63.

Which of the following is not used as crosslinking agent for immobilization of enzymes ?
(A) Hexamethylene di isocyanate
(B) Diazonium salt
(C) N-N` polymethyelene bis iodoacetinamide
(D) Cyanogen bromide

64.

In industrial fermentation process, which phase of the microbes were minimised or
avoided ?
(A) lag phase
(B) log phase
(C) stationary phase
(D) decline phase

65.

An organism grows under given conditions on a given substrate with µ max 0.75 h–1 and
Ks with respect to substrate is 0.01 kg m–3. What will be the growth rate of the organism
under the given conditions when the substrate concentration is 0.25 kg m–3 ?
(A) 0.75 h–1
(B) 0.76 h–1
(C) 0.72 h–1
(D) 0.73 h–1

66.

For industrial production of vitamin B12 which of the following bacteria is used ?
(A) Propionibacterium freudeureichii (B) Clostridium acetobutylicum
(C) Leuconostoc mesenteroides
(D) Sarcina ventriculi

67.

In Entner-Doudroff pathway what are the end products of glucose ?
(B)

(C)

Set - A

9

BT

68.

During the fermentation process of penicillin–G, which of the following is not added to
medium ?
(A) Phenyl acetic acid
(B) Phenyl acetamide
(C) β Phenyl ethylamine
(D) Phenoxy acetic acid

69.

Preferred method of sterilization in large scale fermentation
(B) Filteration
(C) Chemicals
(D) Heat

70.

Match the products in Column A with their corresponding product in Column B :
Column A
Column B
a.
Micromonospora purpurea 1.
Bacitracin
b.
Bacillus subtilis
2.
Polymyxin B
c.
Streptomyces aureofaciens
3.
Gentamycin
d.
Streptomyces spheroids
4.
Rifamycin
5.
Tetracyclin
6.
Novobiocin
(A) a – 3, b – 1, c – 5, d – 6
(B) a – 6, b – 4, c – 1, d – 5
(C) a – 1, b – 3, c – 6, d – 4
(D) a – 6, b – 3, c – 4, d – 1

71.

In plants proline is produced from ornithine under normal condition, however under
stress condition it is made directly from
(A) Aspartate
(B) Glutamate
(C) Glutamine
(D) Lysine

72.

Glyphosate resistant plants developed by the insertion of ________ genes.
(A) aroA gene
(B) Glutamine synthase gene
(C) ALS gene
(D) psbA gene

73.

Which of the following transcription factor is involved in the expression of the cold
responsive genes ?
(A) CBF1
(B) HSF
(C) Bxn
(D) Oct4

74.

Vincristine and Vinblastine are anti cancerous drugs which are obtained from
(A) Crocus sativus
(B) Chrysanthemum species
(C) Catharanthus roseus

75.

Elicitors are the compounds which
(A) Stimulate the production of secondary metabolites
(B) Induce somatic embryogenesis
(C) Enhance the biotransformation
(D) Induce androgenic embryos

Set - A

10

BT

76.

Production of secondary metabolites requires the use of
(A) Protoplasts
(B) Apical Meristem
(C) Axillary buds
(D) Cell suspension

77.

Germplasm preservation through tissue culture is
(A) Insitu conservation
(B) Exsitu conservation
(C) Protected area conservation
(D) Both insitu and exsitu conservation

78.

In organogenesis multiple shoot production is promoted by
(A) 2,4-D
(B) Abscisic acid
(C) Gibberilic acid

79.

Artificial seeds (synthetic seeds) are produced from somatic embryos encapsulated with
(A) Sodium carbonate
(B) Sodium alginate
(C) Calcium alginate
(D) Sodium nitrate

80.

The rol gene present in Ri plasmid responsible for
(A) Shoot induction
(B) Flower bud induction
(C) Root induction
(D) Dedifferentiation

81.

The functions of VirE2 protein in plants are
(A) Nuclear targetting and protection of 51 end of T-DNA
(B) Sensing phenolic Kinase and induction of phosphorylation
(C) Nicking and processing of T-DNA
(D) Coats the T-DNA strand protects it from degradation

82.

Choose the correct statement from the following :
(A) Edible vaccines are antigens generated by bacteria
(B) Edible vaccines are pre made antibiotics that are produced in transgenic plants
(C) Edible vaccines stimulate mucosal immune system to produce secretary IgA at
mucosal surface
(D) Edible vaccines cannot uncoat the calcium ion binding sites on the coat protein of
the virus

83.

All the statements are true regarding RFLP and RAPD except
(A) RAPD is a quick method compared to RFLP
(B) RFLP is more reliable than RAPD
(C) Species specific primers are required for RAPD
(D) Radioactive probes are not required in RAPD

84.

Aquatic fern which is an excellent bio fertilizer also form symbiotic association with
Anabaena ?
(A) Salvinia
(B) Marsilea
(C) Azolla
(D) Pteridium

Set - A

11

BT

85.

An advantage of organic fertilizer over inorganic fertilizer is the addition of
(A) Micronutrients to the soil
(B) Humus to the soil
(C) Macronutrients to the soil
(D) Phosphorus to the soil

86.

Which of the following fungi is used as an insecticide ?
(A) Beauveria bassiana
(B) Lecanicillum Spp
(C) Metarhizium Spp
(D) Aspergillus flavus

87.

Match the following :
Column A
a.
Trichoderma
b.
Plytopthera
c.
Bacillus thurengenesis
(A) a – 3, b – 2, c – 1
(C) a – 2, b – 3, c – 4

Column B
1.
Bioinsecticide
2.
Bacteriocide
3.
Biofungicide
4.
Bioherbicide
(B) a – 3, b – 4, c – 1
(D) a – 4, b – 3, c – 2

88.

Reducing the mobility of a substance in an environment by employing plants through a
process called
(A) Phytostimulation
(B) Phytostabilization
(C) Phytoextraction
(D) Phytochelation

89.

Choose the correct statement regarding the Genobacter metalreducens.
(A) It is rod shaped, Gram+ve, removes uranium.
(B) It is round shaped, Gram+ve, removes iron.
(C) It is round shaped, Gram–ve, removes uranium.
(D) It is rod shaped, Gram–ve, removes uranium.

90.

Which of the following is used as a surfactant for enhancing oil recovery ?
(A) Xanthan gum (B) furfural
(C) Lignins
(D) Polyacrylamide

91.

Once the sequences are obtained from next generation sequencing experiment, what is
the first thing to do ?
(A) Perform a bioinformatics analysis of your data
(C) Further investigate the sequence of interest
(D) Check data using a different method

92.

SWISS PROT is related to
(A) Portable data
(C) Sequence data bank

Set - A

(B) Swiss bank data
(D) Sequence sequence data
12

BT

93.

Clustal W :
(A) Multiple sequence alignment
(B) Protein secondary structure prediction tool
(C) Data retrieving tool
(D) Nucleic acid sequencing tool

94.

PRINTS are software used for
(A) Detection of genes from genome
(B) Detection of T–RNA gene
(C) Prediction of function of new gene
(D) Identification of functional motifs/domains of proteins

95.

An example of homology and similarity tool
(A) PROSPECT (B) EMBOSS
(C)

RASMOL

(D) BLAST

96.

Deposition of c DNA into inert structure is
(A) DNA fingerprinting
(B) DNA polymerase
(C) DNA probes
(D) DNA microarrays

97.

CpG islands and codon bias are used in eukaryotic genomics to
(B) differentiate between eukaryotic and prokaryotic DNA sequence
(C) find regulatory sequences
(D) look for DNA binding domains

98.

The first bioinformatics database was created by
(A) Richard Durbans
(B) Dayhoff
(C) Michael Dunn
(D) Pearson

99.

If you were using proteomics to find out the causes of muscle disorder, which technique
is preferred ?
(A) Creating genomic library
(B) Sequencing the gene responsible for disorder
(C) Determining which environmental factor influences the expression of your gene of
interest annotating the gene sequence
(D) Developing physical map from genomic clones

100.

If the E value is 3 for the search in BLAST. This means
(A) 3 proteins in the database have same sequence as its protein
(B) Chance of similarities arose due to chance is over in 103
(C) There would be 3 matches that are good in database of this size by chance alone
(D) The match in aa– sequence is perfect except for aa– at 3 position

Set - A

13

BT

101.

A BLAST search of DNA sequence identifies as EXON 1 gene, an EXON gene is
(A) A section of eukaryotic gene that is translated into protein
(B) A section of eukaryotic gene that is not translated into protein
(C) A regulatory sequence that turns gene on and off
(D) DNA that has no genetic role but does maintain the physical structure of
chromosome

102.

The complexity of organisms increases all of the characteristics, except
(A) The gene density increases
(B) The number of introns increases
(C) Gene size increases
(D) An increase in number of chromosomes

103.

Excess CO2 suppress cell growth and productivity by
(A) Altering pH of the medium
(B) Inhibiting Respiration
(C) Altering intracellular pH by diffusing across cell membrane
(D) (B) and (C)

104.

For profiling mammalian cells the buffering capacity of the medium is increased by
(A) NaHCO3
(B) K2HPO4
(C) CaCO3
(D) MgSO4

105.

In monolayer cultures cells preferentially adhere to the surfaces with
(A) Positively charged
(B) Negatively charged
(C) Neutrally charged
(D) Double positively charged

106.

In monolayer cultures, Gap junctions allow intra cellular exchange of ions and molecules
with
(A) 1100 D
(B) 900 D
(C) 500 D
(D) 2000 D

107.

Osmolarity of human plasma is about
(A) 290 mosmol/kg
(C) 410 mosmol/kg

(B) 310 mosmol/kg
(D) 180 mosmol/kg

108.

Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding HAT medium ?
(A) HAT medium is a selective medium
(B) Aminopterin in the HAT medium blocks denovo pathway of nucleotide synthesis
(C) Salvage pathway requires aminopterin and thymidine
(D) Hypoxanthine is converted to guanine by HGPRT enzyme

109.

The most recent method for screening large synthetic antibody libraries
(A) ELISA
(B) Phage display (C) Bio display (D) RIA

110.

Choose the recombinant product which is used in treatment of acute myocardial
infraction.
(A) Lepirudin
(B) Interferron B (C) Alteplase
(D) Filgrastim

Set - A

14

BT

111.

Tumour cells can grow in suspension or in a semi solid agar gel because of
(A) loss of contact inhibition
(B) high telomerase activity
(C) reduced levels of Glycolysis
(D) increased levels of blood circulation

112.

BRAC 1 gene involved in the occurrence of breast cancer, It is a
(A) Tumour suppressor gene
(B) Onco gene
(C) DNA repair gene
(D) Structural gene

113.

Two homeodomain transcription factors which are the first proteins identified as
essential for both early embryo development and pluripotency maintenance in embryonic
stem cells
(A) TRA-1-60, TRA-1-81
(B) CD 349, frizzled-9
(C) SSEA-1, SSEA-4
(D) Oct-4, Nanog

114.

Which of the following interleukin is required for the development of basophils from
hematopoietic stem cells
(A) IL-3
(B) IL-12
(C) IL-1
(D) IL-9

115.

COS cell line is
(A) Cohesive end site of phage Lambda
(B) Derivative of permissive CV-1 monkey cell line
(C) Cohesive initial stage of phage Lambda
(D) Derivative of non permissive CV-1 monkey cell line

116.

When heated above the melting point, sucrose forms a brown substance called
(A) Monellin
(B) Caramel
(C) Saccharin
(D) Alitame

117.

Antibiotic that blocks e– transfer from Cyt b to Cyt c in oxidative phosphorylation
(A) Antimycin A
(B) Streptomycin D
(C) Novobiocin
(D) Erythromycin

118.

Human DNA contains 40% GC content, what will be the melting temperature ?
(A) 80.3 °C
(B) 90.3 °C
(C) 85.3 °C
(D) 92.5 °C

119.

The transcription of ribosomal RNA gene cluster by RNA Pol I in the nucleus generates
(A) 55 S Pre r RNA transcript
(B) 28 S Pre r RNA transcript
(C) 18 S Pre r RNA transcript
(D) 45 S Pre r RNA transcript

120.

Transgenic sheep developed by the insertion of
(A) α-1 antitrypsin
(B) Tissue plasminogen activator
(C) Interleukin-2
(D) K-Casein

Set - A

15

BT

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Set - A

16

BT

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40

BIO-TECHNOLOGY (BT)
SET-A
D
41
B
81
B
42
A
82
C
43
C
83
C
44
B
84
C
45
A
85
C
46
C
86
D
47
C
87
A
48
C
88
B
49
C
89
A
50
A
90
C
51
A
91
D
52
D
92
B
53
A
93
B
54
D
94
A
55
A
95
B
56
C
96
C
57
C
97
C
58
A
98
B
59
D
99
C
60
A
100
C
61
A
101
A
62
C
102
B
63
D
103
C
64
A
104
B
65
C
105
A
66
A
106
D
67
C
107
A
68
D
108
B
69
D
109
D
70
A
110
B
71
B
111
A
72
A
112
B
73
A
113
C
74
C
114
D
75
A
115
D
76
D
116
C
77
A
117
A
78
A
118
C
79
B
119
C
80
C
120

D
C
C
C
B
A
B
B
A
A
A
C
A
D
D
D
A
B
C
C
A
D
C
A
B
B
A
C
C
C
A
A
D
A
C
B
A
C
D
A

Booklet No. :

A
SET

CE - 15

Civil Engineering
Duration of Test : 2 Hours

Max. Marks : 120

Hall Ticket No.
Name of the Candidate :
Date of Examination :

Signature of the Candidate

Signature of the Invigilator

INSTRUCTIONS
1.

This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.

2.

Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.

3.

Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.

4.

This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.

5.

Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.

6.

on the OMR sheet carefully.

7.

OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.

8.

Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.

9.

No part of the Booklet should be detached under any circumstances.

10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

CE-15-A

CIVIL ENGINEERING (CE)
1.

2.

3.

A system of n simultaneous equations AX = 0 in n unknowns has nontrivial solution if
(A) | A | ≠ 1
(B) | A | < n
(C) | A | = 0
(D) A–1 exists

 8 −6 2 

One eigen vector of the matrix A = −6 7 −4 is X =
 2 −4 3 
1
 2
1
 
 
 
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 1
1
1
2

The shortest distance of the plane l x + m y + n z = p from the origin is

p

(A)

4.

l 2 + m2 + n 2

If C is the ellipse
(A) π ab

5.

7.

1

(C)

l 2 + m2 + n 2

(D) 0

I

1
x2 y2
+ 2 = 1 then the value of 2  (xdy – ydx) is
2
c
a
b
π ab
(B)
(C) ab2
(D)
2

π a2b

2

The Laplace transform of e2x x2 is
1
1
(A)
(B)
3
( s − 2)
( s + 2)3

(C)

none

(D)

1 1
( −1) + cos2 x
8 16

(C)

2
( s − 2)3

(D)

2
( s + 2)3

z2
at the pole z = –2 is
The residue of the function f ( z ) =
( z − 1)2 ( z + 2)
(A)

8.

p
l+m+n

(B)

1
sin 2 x is
D −4
1 2
1
(B)
− sin x
+ cos2 x
4
8

The value of
(A)

6.

(D)

1
 2
 
2

5
9

(B)

1
2

(C)

4
9

(D) 0

If a random variable X has the PDF f(x) = (1 – p)x–1p, x = 1, 2, … and 0 < p < 1. Then
the mean of X is
(A) p + 1
(B) p2 + p
(C) p
(D) 1

Set - A

2

CE

9.

Monthly-breakdowns of a computer is a random variable having Poisson distribution
with mean 2.0. The probability that the computer will function for a month without a
breakdown is
(A) e0.2
(B) e–0.2
(C) 0.2
(D) 0

10.

The condition for convergence of iteration scheme xn+1 = xn –

f (xn)
f '(xn) is

(A)

f " ( xn ) f ( xn ) ≤ [ f ' ( xn )]2

(B)

f ' ( xn ) < 1

(C)

f ' ( xn ) > 1

(D)

f " ( xn ) f ( xn ) ≥ [ f ' ( xn )]2

11.

A simply supported beam PQ is subjected to a concentrated load at R, the centre of the
span. The area of shear force diagram from P to R will give
(A) deflection at R
(B) shear force at R
(D) difference between bending moment values at P and R

12.

If the shear force at a section of a beam under bending is equal to zero, then the bending
moment at the section is
(A) zero
(B) maximum
(C) minimum
(D) minimum or maximum

13.

Of the four elastic constants, Young’s modulus, Bulk modulus, Rigidity modulus and
Poisson’s ratio, the number of constants required to be determined experimentally to
obtain the rest are
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) four

14.

Two bars of different materials are of the same size and are subjected to same tensile
forces. If the bars have unit elongations in the ratio of 4:5, then the ratio of moduli of
elasticity of the two materials is
(A) 5:4
(B) 4:5
(C) 4:9
(D) 16:25

15.

The major and minor principal stresses at a point are 5 MPa (compressive) and 3 MPa
(tensile) respectively. The maximum shear stress at the point is
(A) zero
(B) 2 MPa
(C) 4 MPa
(D) 8 MPa

16.

A Mohr’s circle reduces a point when the body is subjected to
(A) pure shear
(B) uniaxial stress only
(C) equal and opposite normal stresses on two mutually perpendicular planes, which
are free of shear
(D) equal normal stresses on two mutually perpendicular planes, which are free of
shear

Set - A

3

CE

17.

The ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress of a rectangular beam section
to that of a circular beam section is in the proportion of
(A) 9:8
(B) 8:9
(C) 3:4
(D) 2:3

18.

In a water pipe, if water freezes, the wall of the pipe is subjected to
(A) uniform hoop compression
(B) uniform hoop tension
(C) compression inside and tension outside
(D) compression outside and tension inside

19.

A solid circular shaft of 6m length is built in at its ends and subjected to an externally
applied torque 60 kN m at a distance of 2 m from the left end. The reactive torques at the
left end and the right end are respectively
(A) 20 kN m and 40 kN m
(B) 40 kN m and 20 kN m
(C) 30 kN m and 30 kN m
(D) 15 kN m and 45 kN m

20.

When both ends of a column are fixed, the crippling load is P. If one end of the column is
(A) P/16
(B) P/4
(C) P/2
(D) 4P

21.

If a three hinged parabolic arch carries a uniformly distributed load over the entire span,
then any section of the arch is subjected to
(A) normal thrust only
(B) normal thrust and shear force
(C) normal thrust and bending moment
(D) normal thrust, shear force and bending moment

22.

A simply supported beam with a rectangular cross-section is subjected to a concentrated
load at the centre. If the width and depth of the beam are doubled, then the deflection at
the centre of the beam will be reduced to
(A) 50%
(B) 25%
(C) 12.5%
(D) 6.25%

23.

The force method in structural analysis ensures
(A) compatibility of deformations
(C) equilibrium of forces
(D) safety

24.

The kinematic indeterminacy of a single portal frame fixed at the base is
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) zero

25.

The ratio of the moment-carrying capacities of a beam of a square section of size D and a
beam of circular section of diameter D is
(A) 3π/8
(B) 8/3π
(C) 16/3π
(D) 3π/16

Set - A

4

CE

26.

The maximum bending moment under a particular point load among a train of point
(A) at mid-span
(B) at one-third span
(C) at one-quarter span
(D) so placed that the load point and the point of CG of the train of loads are
equidistant from the mid-span

27.

A propped cantilever beam of span L is loaded with a uniformly distributed load of
intensity w/unit length all through the span, the bending moment at the fixed end is
(A) wL2/8
(B) wL2/2
(C) wL2/12
(D) wL2/24

28.

A fixed beam of 6 m span supports two point loads of 300 kN each at 2 m and 4 m from
one end. The bending moment under each load is
(A) 400 kN m
(B) 300 kN m
(C) 250 kN m
(D) 200 kN m

29.

Strength of concrete increases with
(A) increase in water-cement ratio
(C) decrease in curing time

(B) increase in fineness of cement
(D) decrease in size of aggregate

30.

Factors of safety for steel and concrete in RCC should be based on
(A) yield stress and ultimate stress respectively
(B) ultimate stress and yield stress respectively
(C) yield stress
(D) ultimate stress

31.

In the limit state method, balanced design of a reinforced concrete beam gives
(A) smallest concrete section and maximum area of reinforcement
(B) largest concrete section and maximum area of reinforcement
(C) smallest concrete section and minimum area of reinforcement
(D) largest concrete section and minimum area of reinforcement

32.

Minimum clear cover in mm to the main steel bars in slab, beam, column and footing
respectively, are
(A) 10, 15, 20 and 25
(B) 15, 25, 40 and 75
(C) 15, 25, 30 and 40
(D) 20, 35, 40 and 75

33.

The following two statements are made with reference to a simply supported underreinforced RCC beam :
I.
Failure takes place by crushing of concrete before the steel has yielded.
II. The neutral axis moves up as the load is increased.
Of the statements
(A) I and II are false
(B) I is true but II is false
(C) I and II are true
(D) I is false but II is true

Set - A

5

CE

34.

For a two-way slab, limiting deflection of the slab is
(A) a function of the short span
(B) a function of the long span
(C) independent of the spans
(D) dependent on both the spans

35.

A simply supported rectangular beam is uniformly loaded and is pre-stressed. The tendon
provided for pre-stressing should be
(A) straight, above centroidal axis
(B) straight, below centroidal axis
(C) parabolic, convexity upward
(D) parabolic, convexity downward

36.

The maximum slenderness ratio of a compression member carrying both dead and
(A) 180
(B) 200
(C) 250
(D) 350

37.

Generally the purlins are placed at the panel points so as to avoid
(A) axial force in rafter
(B) shear force in rafter
(C) deflection in rafter
(D) bending moment in rafter

38.

Lacing bars in steel columns should be designed to resist
(A) bending moment due to 2.5% of the column load
(B) shear force due to 2.5% of the column load
(C) 2.5% of the column load
(D) shear force and bending moment due to 2.5% of the column load

39.

In a plate girder, the web is primarily designed to resist
(A) torsional moment
(B) shear force
(C) bending moment
(D) diagonal buckling

40.

The sections when arranged in the decreasing order of their shape factors are
(A) I, circular, diamond, rectangular (B) circular, I, rectangular, diamond
(C) diamond circular, rectangular, I
(D) diamond, I, circular, rectangular

41.

Loess is an aeolain deposit consisting of
(A) fine sand – size particles
(B) clay-size particles
(C) silt- size particles
(D) colloidal particles

42.

The void ratio of a soil sample is 1, the porosity of the sample is
(A) 0.2
(B) 0.3
(C) 0.4
(D) 0.5

43.

The porosity of a certain sample was found to be 80% and its specific gravity is 2.7, the
(A) 0.34
(B) 0.92
(C) 1.0
(D) 1.5

Set - A

6

CE

44.

On analysis of particle size distribution of a soil, it is found that D10 = 0.1 mm, D30 = 0.3 mm
and D60 = 0.8 mm. The uniformity coefficient and curvature coefficient are respectively
(A) 8 and 3
(B) 2.67 and 1.125
(C) 2.67 and 3
(D) 8 and 1.125

45.

In a wet soil mass, air occupies one-fourth of its volume and water occupies one-half of
its volume. The void ratio of the soil is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

46.

The liquid limit (LL), plastic limit (PL) and shrinkage limit (SL), of a cohesive soil
satisfy the relation
(A) LL>PL<SL (B) LL>PL>SL (C) LL<PL<SL (D) LL<PL>SL

47.

A flow net under a sheet pile has Nf = 4, Nd = 8 and KH = 8 × 10–5 m/s and KV = 2 × 10–5
m/s. If the head loss through the soil is 2 m, the quantity of seepage per metre length of
the pile is
(A) 2 × 10–5 m3/s (B) 4 × 10–5 m3/s (C) 8 × 10–5 m3/s (D) 16 × 10–5 m3/s

48.

In a saturated clay with a unit weight of 20 kN/m3, if the water table is at ground surface,
the effective stress at 3 m depth in kN/m2, is
(A) 60
(B) – 66
(C) 30
(D) – 30

49.

A 2 m thick clay will be 90% consolidated in 6 years. The time required to achieve the
same degree of consolidation in a 8 m thick stratum of the same clay is
(A) 12 years
(B) 48 years
(C) 72 years
(D) 96 years

50.

The ratio of compactive effort provide in modified Proctor test to standard Proctor test is
(A) 2
(B) 2.5
(C) 3
(D) 4.5

51.

In a tri-axial compression test
(1) failure occurs along the weakest plane
(2) the stress distribution on the failure plane is more uniform
(3) complete control of drainage is possible
(4) the stresses on the failure plane are directly measured
Of these statements,
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 3, 4 and 1 are correct
(D) 4, 1 and 2 are correct

52.

Indicate the False statement.
In granular soils, the value of Ф’ depends on the following factors :
(A) Degree of saturation
(B) State of compaction
(C) Coarseness of grains
(D) Particle shape and roughness of grain surfaces

Set - A

7

CE

53.

The total active thrust on a vertical wall 3 m height retaining a horizontal sand backfill
(unit weight = 20 kN/m3, angle of internal friction = 30°), when the water table at the
bottom of the wall is
(A) 30 kN/m
(B) 35 kN/m
(C) 45 kN/m
(D) 75 kN/m

54.

The stability of upstream and downstream slopes of an earth dam has to be checked for
(B) sudden drawdown condition
(C) steady seepage and sudden drawdown conditions respectively
(D) sudden drawdown and steady seepage conditions respectively

55.

The gross bearing capacity of a footing is 440 kN/m2. If the footing is 1.5 m wide and is
at a depth of 1m in a clayey soil which has a unit weight of 20 kN/m3, the safe bearing
capacity with a factor of safety of 3 is
(A) 133 kN/m2 (B) 140 kN/m2
(C) 160 kN/m2
(D) 420 kN/m2

56.

The ratio of ultimate bearing capacities of circular footing and a square footing founded
on the surface of a purely cohesionless soil (the side of the square footing being equal to
the diameter of the circular footing) is
(A) 0.75
(B) 1.0
(C) 1.33
(D) 1.75

57.

Ultimate settlement of footings on cohesive soils is best estimated using the data from
(B) consolidation test
(C) cone penetration test
(D) standard penetration test

58.

A 30 cm square bearing plate settles by 1.5 cm in a plate loading test on a cohesive soil
when the intensity of loading is 200 kN/m2. The settlement of prototype shallow footing
(A) 1.5 cm
(B) 3 cm
(C) 5 cm
(D) 16.67 cm

59.

A pile of 50 cm diameter and 10 m long is embedded in a deposit of fully saturated clay.
The unconfined compressive strength of clay is 120 kN/m2. The skin friction capacity
(kN) of the pile for an adhesion factor of 0.6, is
(A) 671 kN
(B) 565 kN
(C) 283 kN
(D) 106 kN

60.

Negative skin friction can be developed from
1.
a cohesive fill placed over a cohesionless soil deposit
2.
a cohesionless fill placed over a compressible cohesive deposit
3.
lowering of ground water table with resulting ground subsidence
Which of the above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Set - A

8

CE

61.

Choose the correct statement :
(A) Viscosity of liquids increases with increase in temperature
(B) Viscosity of liquids decreases with increase in temperature
(C) Viscosity of gases decreases with increase in temperature
(D) Viscosity of liquids and gases does not change with temperature

62.

The velocities at two points in a pipeline are V and 3V. Both the points are at the same
elevation. The fluid density is ρ. The flow can be assumed to be incompressible, inviscid,
steady and irrotational. The difference in pressures between the points is
(A) ρV2
(B) 2ρV2
(C) 4ρV2
(D) 8ρV2

63.

If the Reynolds number of pipe flow is 640, the friction factor of the pipe material is
(A) 0.16
(B) 0.1
(C) 0.016
(D) 0.01

64.

The ratio of head loss per unit length of a pipe flowing full to that of the same pipe
flowing half-full at the same mean velocity is
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.5
(C) 1
(D) 2

65.

In network of pipes
(A) the algebraic sum of head (pressure and datum) drops around each circuit is zero
(B) the algebraic sum of discharges around each circuit is zero
(C) the algebraic sums of head (pressure and datum) drops and discharges around each
circuit are zero
(D) the elevation of hydraulic gradient line is assumed for each junction point

66.

The thickness of laminar boundary layer on a flat plate at a point P is 1 cm and at a point
Q, 1 m downstream of P, is 2 cm. The distance of P from the leading edge of the plate is
(A) 0.33 m
(B) 0.67 m
(C) 1 m
(D) 1.25 m

67.

Uniform flow occurs in an open channel when there is a balance between
(A) gravity and frictional forces
(B) gravity and inertial forces
(C) inertial and frictional forces
(D) inertial and viscous forces

68.

For a critical flow in an open channel
(A) specific energy and specific force are minimum for a given discharge
(B) specific energy is maximum for a given discharge
(C) specific force is maximum for a given discharge
(D) specific energy and specific force are maximum for a given discharge

69.

In a channel the bed slope changes from a mild slope to a steep slope. The resulting
(A) M1, S2
(B) M2, S1
(C) M2, S2
(D) M1, S1

Set - A

9

CE

70.

The flow in a rectangular channel is subcritical. If the width is constricted at a certain
section by a smooth transition, under unchoked flow condition, the water surface
(A) at the downstream section will rise (B) at the downstream section will drop
(C) at the upstream section will rise (D) at the upstream section will drop

71.

The sequent depth ratio of a hydraulic jump in a horizontal rectangular channel is 5. The
Froude number before the jump is
(A) √5
(B) √15
(C) √35
(D) √120

72.

While conducting flow measurement using a rectangular notch, an error of 2% in head
over the notch and an error of –1% in length of notch occurred, then the percentage of
error in discharge would be
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1

73.

The number of π-parameters needed to express the function, F (A,V, t, ν, L) = 0 are
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2

74.

If the flow patterns represented by Ψ1 = x2 + y2 and Ψ2 = 2xy are superposed on one
another, the resulting flow pattern can be represented by a family of
(A) parallel straight lines
(B) circles
(C) parabolas
(D) hyperabolas

75.

Identify the correct statement :
(A) Pumps operating in series boost the discharge and pumps operating in parallel
(B) Pumps operating in series boost the head and pumps operating in parallel boost the
discharge
(C) Pumps operating either in series or in parallel boost the discharge
(D) Pumps operating either in series or in parallel boost the head

76.

A line connecting points having equal time of travel of surface runoff to the catchment
outlet is an
(A) isochrone
(B) isovel
(C) isopleth
(D) isohyet

77.

The method used to check the consistency of raingauge record is
(A) normal ratio
(B) double mass curve
(C) moving average
(D) Thiessen polygon

78.

A 6 h storm had 6 cm of rainfall at uniform rate and the resulting runoff was 3 cm. If the
Ф – index remains at the same value, the runoff due to 12 cm of uniform rainfall in 9
hours in the catchment is
(A) 9 cm
(B) 4.5 cm
(C) 6 cm
(D) 7.5 cm

Set - A

10

CE

79.

Identify an indirect method of stream gauging from the following :
(A) moving-boat method
(B) electromagnetic method
(C) ultrasonic method
(D) slope-area method

80.

For a catchment with an area of 200 km2, the equilibrium discharge of the S – curve
obtained by summation of 2 h unit hydrographs is
(A) 36 m3/s
(B) 100 m3/s
(C) 278 m3/s
(D) 400 m3/s

81.

A 2 h unit hydrograph of a catchment is triangular in shape with a base of 20 hours and a
peak of 100 m3/s. The unit hydrograph refers to a catchment area of
(A) 0.36 km2
(B) 3.6 km2
(C) 36 km2
(D) 360 km2

82.

A culvert is designed for a peak flow of 10 m3/s on the basis of rational formula. If the
storm of same intensity as used in the design but of duration thrice larger occurs, the
resulting peak discharge is
(A) 3.33 m3/s
(B) 5 m3/s
(C) 10 m3/s
(D) 30 m3/s

83.

A linear reservoir is one in which the
(A) storage varies linearly with elevation
(B) storage varies linearly with the outflow rate
(C) storage varies linearly with time
(D) storage varies linearly with the inflow rate

84.

The volume stored in a saturated column of aquifer with a porosity of 0.3, cross-sectional
area of 2 m2 and of 4 m depth is
(A) 1.2 m3
(B) 2.4 m3
(C) 4 m3
(D) 8 m3

85.

If duty is 1200 hectares/cumec and base period is 120 days for an irrigated crop, then
delta is
(A) 0.864 m
(B) 0.432 m
(C) 1 m
(D) 10 m

86.

Lysimeter and Tensiometer are used to measure respectively, one of the following groups
of quantities
(A) evaporation and permeability
(B) capillary potential and evapotranspiration
(C) evapotranspiration and capillary potential
(D) velocity and vapour pressure

87.

Lacey’s waterway for a discharge of 100 m3/s and a silt factor of 1 is
(A) 10.25 m
(B) 47.5 m
(C) 90.75 m
(D) 111 m

Set - A

11

CE

88.

Base width of elementary profile of a gravity dam of 15 m high, built of material of
specific gravity 2.25 and resisting only hydrostatic force is
(A) 6.67 m
(B) 10 m
(C) 13.42 m
(D) 15 m

89.

According to Khosla’ s theory, the exit gradient in the absence of downstream cutoff is
(A) zero
(B) unity
(C) zero or unity (D) infinity

90.

A sprinkler irrigation system is suitable when
(A) the land gradient is steep and the soil is easily erodible
(B) the soil is having low permeability
(C) the water table is low
(D) the crops to be grown have deep roots

91.

Use of coagulants such as alum
(A) results in reduction of pH of the treated water
(B) results in increase of pH of the treated water
(C) results in no change in pH of the treated water
(D) may cause an increase or decrease of pH of the treated water

92.

Hardness in water is caused by
(A) Nitrates
(C) Sodium chloride

(B) Fluorides
(D) Calcium and Magnesium

93.

A water treatment plant treats 6000 m3 of water per day. If it consumes 20 kg chlorine
per day, then the chlorine dosage would be
(A) 3 mg/l
(B) 3.75 mg/l
(C) 4.25 mg/l
(D) 3.33 mg/l

94.

The maximum permissible quantity of lead in water for drinking purpose is
(A) 0.01 ppm
(B) 1 ppm
(C) 0.5 ppm
(D) 0.1 ppm

95.

The device used to measure the odour of water is
(A) Jackson’s turbidimeter
(B) Thermometer
(C) Hydrometer
(D) Osmoscope

96.

Which of the following operational problems relate to the functioning of rapid gravity
filter ?
1.
2.
Mud balls
3.
Which of the above are correct ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only

Set - A

12

CE

97.

Which of the following reasons are responsible for adoption of post-chlorination of
water ?
1.
Chlorine demand is reduced.
2.
Possibility of taste and odour formation is reduced.
3.
Possibility of formation of carcinogenic compounds is reduced.
4.
Chloramines are formed.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only

98.

The most suitable method of analysis of water distribution system for long and narrow
pipe system is
(A) Circle method
(B) Equivalent pipe method
(C) Hardy-Cross method
(D) Electrical analyser method

99.

Sewage treatment units are normally designed for
(A) 5 – 10 years (B) 15 – 20 years (C) 30 – 40 years (D) 40 – 50 years

100.

Most suitable section of sewer for both combined and separate systems is
(A) semi-elliptical
(B) circular
(C) horse-shoe shaped
(D) egg shaped

101.

If the slope of sewer A is 1/400 and that of sewer B is 1/100, the velocity of flow in the
two sewers will have a ratio of (other parameters being same)
(A) 1:2
(B) 2:1
(C) 1:4
(D) 4:1

102.

During sewage treatment, effluent from which one of the following treatment units has
minimum amount of suspended solids ?
(A) Detritus channel
(B) Primary sedimentation tank
(C) Secondary sedimentation tank
(D) Activated sludge process aeration tank

103.

The drop manholes are provided in a sewerage system when there is
(A) change in alignment of sewer line
(B) change in size of sewers
(C) change in the elevation of ground level
(D) change from gravity to pressure system

104.

The unit in which both sedimentation and digestion processes of sludge take place
simultaneously is
(A) Skimming tank
(B) Imhoff tank
(C) Detritus tank
(D) Digestion tank

105.

A sewage sludge has a water content of 99%. The concentration of suspended solids in
the sludge is
(A) 10 mg/l
(B) 100 mg/l
(C) 1000 mg/l
(D) 10,000 mg/l

Set - A

13

CE

106.

Consider the following statements :
1.
Noise pollution can be reduced using double – glass window panes
2.
Glass absorbs noise
3.
The air trapped in the double – glass system acts as an insulator and reduces the
noise
4.
The noise totally reflects back due to two layers of glass
Which of these statements are correct ?
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 4 only

107.

A water supply of 15,000 m3 per day is treated with 0.5 ppm of chlorine. The
requirement of 30% bleaching powder per day is
(A) 2.25 kg
(B) 4.5 kg
(C) 2.5 kg
(D) 25 kg

108.

Greenhouse effect is considered to be due to the increased levels of
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) Chloroflurocarbons

109.

Large calorific value of solid wastes indicates its amenability for
(A) composting (B) incineration (C) pyrolysis
(D) land filling

110.

The secondary pollutant among the air pollutants, NO, SO2, soot and O3, is
(A) NO

(B)

SO2

(C)

soot

(D) O3

111.

Camber in highway pavement is provided to take care of
(A) centrifugal force
(B) drainage
(C) sight distance
(D) off-tracking

112.

Two bitumen samples P and Q have softening points 45° C and 60° C respectively.
Consider the following statements :
I.
Viscosity of P will be lesser than that of Q at the same temperature
II. Penetration value of P will be more than that of Q under standard conditions
The correct option evaluating the above statements is
(A) Both I and II are TRUE
(B) Both I and II are FALSE
(C) I is FALSE and II is TRUE
(D) I is TRUE and II is FALSE

113.

In a flexible pavement
(A) vertical compressive stresses decrease with depth of the layer
(B) vertical compressive stress is maximum at the lowest layer
(C) tensile stresses get developed
(D) maximum stress induced by a given traffic load is dependent on the location of

Set - A

14

CE

114.

Traffic density is the
(A) ability of roadway to accommodate traffic volume in terms of vehicles/hr.
(B) number of vehicles occupying a length of roadway at a given instant expressed as
vehicles/km.
(C) capacity of lane to accommodate the vehicles widthwise (across the road).
(D) maximum attainable speed of vehicle.

115.

At an intersection, the critical lane volume on the major road increases while that on the
minor road remains unchanged. The green time for the signal will
(A) increase for the major road and remain same for the minor road.
(B) increase for the major road and decrease for the minor road.
(C) decrease for both the roads.
(D) remain unchanged for both the roads.

116.

The bearings of lines OP and OQ are 20° 30" and 342° 20" respectively. The included
angle QOP is
(A) 321° 50"
(B) 162° 20"
(C) 69° 30"
(D) 38° 10"

117.

Reciprocal levelling eliminates the
1.
errors due to earth’s curvature
2.
errors due to atmospheric refraction
3.
mistakes in taking levelling staff readings
4.
errors due to line of collimation
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4

(D) 2, 3 and 4

118.

The closing error in a traverse survey can be eliminated by
(A) Bowditch rule
(B) transit rule
(C) working accurately latitudes
(D) either Bowditch rule or transit rule as applicable

119.

The plotting of inaccessible points in a plane-table survey can be done by the method of
(C) Intersection (D) Traversing

120.

A 3% downgrade curve is followed by a 1% upgrade curve and rate of change of grade
adopted is 0.1% per 20 m length. The length of respective vertical curve is
(A) 800 m
(B) 200 m
(C) 100 m
(D) 400 m
___________

Set - A

15

CE

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Set - A

16

CE

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40

CIVIL ENGINEERING (CE)
SET-A
C
41
C
81
D
42
D
82
A
43
A
83
A
44
D
84
D
45
C
85
C
46
B
86
C
47
B
87
C
48
C
88
B
49
D
89
A
50
D
90
D
51
A
91
D
52
A
92
B
53
A
93
A
54
D
94
C
55
C
95
D
56
A
96
A
57
B
97
B
58
C
98
B
59
B
99
A
60
D
100
A
61
B
101
D
62
C
102
A
63
B
103
C
64
C
104
C
65
A
105
D
66
A
106
A
67
A
107
D
68
A
108
B
69
C
109
A
70
B
110
A
71
B
111
B
72
C
112
D
73
C
113
A
74
B
114
D
75
B
115
A
76
A
116
D
77
B
117
C
78
D
118
B
79
D
119
C
80
C
120

D
C
B
B
A
C
B
B
D
A
A
D
D
A
D
A
D
B
B
D
A
C
C
B
D
B
D
B
B
D
B
C
A
B
B
D
B
D
C
A

Booklet No. :

A
SET

CH - 15

Chemical Engineering
Duration of Test : 2 Hours

Max. Marks : 120

Hall Ticket No.
Name of the Candidate :
Date of Examination :

Signature of the Candidate

Signature of the Invigilator

INSTRUCTIONS
1.

This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.

2.

Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.

3.

Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.

4.

This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.

5.

Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.

6.

on the OMR sheet carefully.

7.

OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.

8.

Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.

9.

No part of the Booklet should be detached under any circumstances.

10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

CH-15-A

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING (CH)
1.

2.

The value of k so that the equations x + y + 3 z = 0 , 4 x + 3 y + kz = 0 and 2 x + y + 2 z = 0
have nontrivial solution is
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) 8
(D) –4

If − 5 and

(A) 2
3.

5

(C)

0

(D) 1

−2

(B)

+2

(C)

0

(D) 1

The curl of the vector field A = ( x 2 + xy 2 )i + ( y 2 + x 2 y) j is
(A)

5.

(B)

The percentage of error in the area of an ellipse when an error of +1 percentage is made
in measuring the major and minor axis is
(A)

4.

 −1 2 −2 

5 are eigen values of the matrix  1 2 1  then the third eigen value is
 −1 −1 0 

(B)

i− j

(C)

2i + 3 j

(D)

−i

The particular integral of the differential equation ( D 2 + 4) y = cos2 x is
(A)

x
sin2 x
4

(B)

x
cos 2 x
4

(C)

1
sin2 x
8

(D)

1
s2

(D)

1
sin2 x
4

1
6.

The Laplace transform of the function

π

1
(A)

7.

8.

π

π t is

(B)

s

(C)

2z +1
The residue at the pole 2 of the function z 2 − z − 2
3
3
1
(A) 5
(B) − 2
(C) − 2

(D)

1
s

5
3

If P ( A) = 0.4 , P ( B) = p and P ( A ∪ B) = 0.6 , then the value of p so that A and B are
independent is
1
1
(A) 0.7
(B) 2
(C) 0.4
(D) 3

Set - A

2

CH

9.

The order of convergence of the Newton Raphson method is
(A) 1st
(B) 3rd
(C) 4th
(D) 2nd

10.

If h is the step size and if f ( x) is given in the table then by Simpson 1/3rd method

x5

x0

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

y ( x)dx is equal to

x

x0

x1

x2

x3

x4

x5

y(x)

y0

y1

y2

y3

y4

y5

h
 y0 + 2 ( y1 + y3 ) + 4 ( y2 + y4 ) + y5 
2
h
 y0 + 4 ( y1 + y3 ) + 2 ( y2 + y4 ) + y5 
3
h
 y0 + 2 ( y1 + y2 + y3 + y4 ) + y5 
2
h
 y0 + 2 ( y1 + y3 ) + 4 ( y2 + y4 ) + y5 
3

11.

The pressure difference between inside and outside of a liquid drop is
(A) 16σ /d
(B) 8σ /d
(C) 4σ /d
(D) 2σ /d

12.

Weight of liquid that rises in a capillary tube is supported by
(A) horizontal component of surface tension
(B) the Drag force
(C) vertical component of surface tension
(D) the viscous force

13.

The continuity equation is a mathematical statement of
(A) law of conservation of energy
(B) law of conservation of mass
(C) law of conservation of momentum (D) law of conservation of mass and energy

14.

The ratio of inertial forces to gravitational forces is better known as
(A) Reynolds number
(B) Weber number
(C) Euler number
(D) Froude number

15.

Dynamic similarity is
(A) the similarity of discharge
(B) the similarity of forces
(C) the similarity of stream line patterns (D) the similarity of location

Set - A

3

CH

16.

Buoyant force acting on a floating/submerged body is
(A) equal to the weight of liquid displaced and acts vertically downwards
(B) the net force acting on a body due to the surrounding fluid
(C) the net force necessary to maintain equilibrium of the body
(D) equal to the weight of liquid displaced and acts vertically upwards

17.

The ratio of pressure forces to inertial forces is
(A) Froude number
(B) Weber number
(C) Euler number
(D) Mach number

18.

A body falls freely for distance S from rest. Its velocity v is
(A) K (Sg)0.5

19.

(B)

K (Sg)

(C)

K (Sg)2

(D) K (Sg)1.5

The ratio of point velocity to the maximum velocity in laminar flow through a pipe is
(A) 1 –(r/R)2

(B)

1 – (r/R)

(C)

(r/R)2

(D) (r/R)

20.

In sudden enlargement in a horizontal pipe, the velocity head is converted to

21.

Navier–Stokes equation is useful for
(A) non–viscous flow
(C) turbulent flow

(B) Viscous flow
(D) in viscid flow

A stagnation point is where
(A) the pressure is zero
(C) the total energy is zero

(B) the flow velocity is zero
(D) the flow resistance is the maximum

A foot valve is a
(A) direction control valve
(C) pressure reducing valve

(B) relief valve
(D) back pressure valve

22.

23.

24.

For compressing and moving gases, the pressure difference produced is the maximum for
(A) Fans
(B) Vacuum Pumps
(C) Blowers
(D) Compressors

25.

The equivalent diameter of a 6 cm x 12 cm conduit is,
(A) 2 cm
(B) 8 cm
(C) 72 cm

Set - A

4

(D) 6 cm
CH

26.

For a cylindrical particle, whose L/D is one, the sphericity is
(A) 21/2

(B)

1

(C)

<1

(D) 2

27.

The ratio of the actual mesh dimension of any screen to that in the next smaller screen in
that series is
(A) 1.41
(B) 2
(C) 1.19
(D) 1.73

28.

The specific surface of spherical particles – diameter relation is

29.

(A) proportional to diameter2

(B)

(C)

(D) proportional to equivalent diameter2

inversely proportional

directly proportional

The crushing efficiency of a machine will be about
(A) 20 %
(B) 80 %
(C) 10 %

(D) 2 %

30.

Rittinger’s law relates the work required in crushing to
(A) the number of particles crushed
(B) the new surface created
(C) the hardness of the particles
(D) the surface area of the feed particles

31.

The mechanism of size reduction in Ultra fine grinders is primarily
(A) cutting
(B) attrition
(C) impact
(D) compression

32.

Critical speed of a ball mill depends on (r is ball radius and R is mill radius)
(A) only on mill radius, R
(B) Only on ball radius, r
(C)

33.

Difference in R and r

A filter aid in the slurry will
(A) increase the cake porosity
(C) increase cake compressibility

(D) (R – r)1/2

(B) Decrease cake porosity
(D) Decrease cake compressibility

34.

During constant pressure filtration, the flow rate of the filtrate
(A) is constant
(B) increases
(D) decreases

35.

The dimensions of filter medium resistance are
(A) ML–1

36.

(B)

L–1

(C)

M–1L

If a plot of time vs. filtrate volume is prepared, it will be a
(A) parabola
(B) straight line (C) hyperbola

Set - A

5

(D) M–1L–1

(D) exponential curve
CH

37.

Net positive suction head (NPSH) of a centrifugal pump is defined as
(C) velocity head + pressure head, at suction – vapor pressure of liquid
(D) velocity head + pressure head, at discharge – vapor pressure of liquid

38.

A pump normally preferred for pumping slurries
(A) Centrifugal pump
(B) Gear pump
(C) Screw pump
(D) Lobe pump

39.

Vane pumps
(A) operate at low efficiencies
(B) cannot provide variable displacement
(C) do not depend on centrifugal force for their operation
(D) can have large discharge under high pressures

40.

In a rotary drum filter, the controlling resistance is
(A) the cake resistance
(B) the filter medium resistance
(C) the piping resistance
(D) All the above

41.

Differential settling methods depend on
(A) Difference in densities
(B) Difference in terminal velocities
(C) Difference in particle sizes
(D) Difference in liquid–solid density

42.

Temperature and pressure levels recommended for SO2 + ½ O2 → SO3
(A) Low temperature, low pressure
C) High temperature, high pressure

43.

44.

45.

(B) Low temperature, high pressure
(D) High temperature, low pressure

Which of the following is a crystalline form of carbon ?
(A) Charcoal
(B) Diamond
(C) Lampblack

(D) Soot

Which one among the following is thermoplastic ?
(A) Polyethylene (B) Silicone
(C) Bakelite

(D) polyester

Teflon is a polymeric product of
(A) CF4
(B) CH2 = CHF

(D) C2F4

Set - A

(C)
6

C2F2

CH

46.

Pasteurization of milk involves
(A) Heating to boiling
(B) Cooling followed by moderate heating
(C) Cooling to 0 °C
(D) Moderate heating followed by cooling

47.

Catalyst normally used in the hydrogenation of oils is a finely divided
(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Nickel
(D) Silver

48.

A synthetic detergent constituent, that prevents re–deposition of dirt on the fabric, is
(A) Sodium carboxy methyl cellulose (B) Sodium silicate
(C) Sodium tripolyphosphate
(D) Sodium sulfate

49.

The anodic reaction in the electrolysis of brine solution is
(A) Oxidation of chlorine ions
(B) Reduction of sodium ions
(C) Oxidation of sodium ions
(D) Reduction of chlorine ions

50.

The major constituents of coke oven gas are
(A) CH4, CO2 and H2O
(B)
(C)

51.

52.

CH4, CO and N2

CH4, CO and H2

(D) CO2, CO and H2

Temporary hardness of water can be removed by adding
(A) CaCO3
(B) CaCl2
(C) Ca(OH)2

(D) NaHCO3

Fourier number is associated with
(A) Convection (B) Conduction

(D) none of the above

(C)

53.

A sphere, a cube and a thin circular plate, all made of the same material and having the
same mass, are available at a temperature of 250 °C. When they are exposed to the
ambient air, which object will provide the lowest heat transfer rate ?
(A) circular plate
(B) cube
(C) sphere
(D) all will cool at the same rate

54.

Usually, the thermal conductivity of a non–homogeneous material
(A) decreases with increasing temperature
(B) decreases with increasing apparent bulk density
(C) increases with increasing temperature but decreases with increasing apparent bulk
density
(D) increases both with increasing temperature and increasing apparent bulk density

Set - A

7

CH

55.

The maximum heat loss from a pipe occurs when the radius of insulation equals
(A) the ratio of thermal conductivity to heat transfer coefficient
(B)

the ratio of heat transfer coefficient to thermal conductivity

(C)

(D) the product of thermal conductivity and heat transfer coefficient
56.

57.

The ratio of Buoyant forces to viscous forces is better known as
(A) Prandtl number

(B)

(C)

(D) Grashof number

Stanton number

Rayleigh number

In natural convection, fluid moves under the influence of
(A) surface tension forces
(B)

buoyant forces arising from changes in density

(C)

both A and B

(D) none of the above
58.

When the Prandtl number is greater than unity, the thermal boundary layer
(A) and hydrodynamic boundary layer are identical
(B)

is thicker than the hydrodynamic boundary layer

(C)

is thinner than the hydrodynamic boundary layer

(D) disappears
59.

The distribution of shear stress in a stream of fluid in a circular tube is
(A) parabolic with radius for both laminar and turbulent flows
(B)

linear with radius for both laminar and turbulent flows

(C)

parabolic with radius for turbulent flow

(D) linear with radius for laminar flow
60.

Film wise condensation
(A) is less common than drop wise condensation
(B)

occurs on non–wettable surfaces

(C)

is characterized by high heat transfer coefficients than that for drop wise
condensation

(D) is characterized by a thin liquid film forming over the entire surface
Set - A

8

CH

61.

The average heat transfer coefficient for drop wise condensation is
(A) less than that of film wise condensation
(B)

greater than that of drop wise condensation

(C)

equal to that of film wise condensation

(D) cannot be compared
62.

The total emissive power (E) of a gray body at a surface temperature of T is given by
(A) E = εσT4

63.

(B)

=1

(C)

(D) ∞

>1

(B)

remain same (C)

decrease

(D) none

A certain quantity of liquid is heated for 10 minutes by an electric resistor, which draws
3 amperes current at 200 volts. The liquid is continuously stirred by a paddle wheel,
which was operated by a 200 W rating motor. The amount of energy transferred to the
liquid is
(A) 480 kJ

66.

E = (ε–1)σT4 (D) E = σT4

If some of the tubes in a heat exchanger are sealed, the effective heat transfer area will
(A) increase

65.

E = (1–ε)σT4 (C)

For the same process temperatures, the ratio of LMTD in parallel flow to the LMTD in
counter flow in liquid–liquid heat exchanger is always
(A) <1

64.

(B)

(B)

360 kJ

(C)

800 kJ

(D) 240 kJ

The thermal efficiency of an ideal Rankine cycle is lower than that of a Carnot cycle
operating between the same temperature limits because
(A) energy rejection does not take place at constant temperature
(B)

the turbine is not reversible and adiabatic

(C)

energy addition does not take place at constant temperature

(D) the pump is not reversible and adiabatic
67.

A gas contained in a cylinder is compressed reversibly from the initial state (P1, V1) to
the final state (P2, V2) according to the path, PVn = constant. The work done on the gas
(A) n(P1V1 – P2V2)
(C)

Set - A

P(V1 − V2 )
n

(B)
(D)

9

P2 V 2 − P1V1
1− n
P(V1 − V2 )
1− n

CH

68.

When wet steam is throttled to a low pressure, its temperature
(A) increases
(B) does not change
(C) gets halved
(D) decreases

69.

Identify the correct set of approximations made in the thermodynamic analysis of
internal combustion engines
P.
The combustion process is replaced by an equivalent energy addition process
Q. The working fluid is a mixture of carbon dioxide and water vapor
R. The exhaust process is replaced by an equivalent energy rejection process
S.
The working fluids have constant heat capacities
(A) P, R, S
(B) P, R
(C) R, S
(D) P, Q, R

70.

A 1–ton air conditioning unit, with a seasonal energy efficiency rate of 10 is used for
1000 hr per year. If the cost of electricity is ` 5 per kWh, the annual cost of power
consumption by the air conditioner is
(A) ` 10000
(B) ` 5000
(C) ` 6000
(D) `12000

71.

Activity coefficient is a partial molar property with respect to
(A) GR /RT

72.

(B)

∆ G /RT

(C)

The coordinates of Mollier diagram are
(A) S & H
(B) ln P & H
(C)

GE /RT

(D) G /RT

T&S

(D) T & H

73.

A system, going from P to Q, absorbs 100 kJ of heat and does 30 kJ of work. In the
return direction if the system does 30 kJ of work, what is the heat effect ?
(A) –70 kJ
(B) – 100 kJ
(C) – 40 kJ
(D) –130 kJ

74.

The meaning of second law of thermodynamics is
(A) Work conversion to heat impossible
(B) Heat conversion to work impossible
(C) Work conversion to heat is partial
(D) Heat conversion to work is partial

75.

What is the mass of CO contained in a container of volume 44.8 m3 at STP ?
(A) 28 kg
(B) 56 kg
(C) 14 kg
(D) 44 kg

76.

Binary Diffusion Coefficient for gases vary with
(A) temp

Set - A

(B)

(temp)1.5

(C)
10

(temp)2

(D) (temp)–1
CH

77.

Which of the following will have the dimensions of length/time
(A) Film thickness
(B) Diffusion coefficient
(C) Volumetric mass transfer coefficient
(D) Mass transfer coefficient

78.

Schmidt number is the ratio of
(A) thermal diffusivity to mass diffusivity
(B) momentum diffusivity to thermal diffusivity
(C) momentum diffusivity to mass diffusivity
(D) none of the above
Relative volatility is defined as ( y is mole fraction of more volatile component in vapour
and x that in the liquid)

79.

80.

81.

(A) y / (1–y)

(B)

(C)

(D) y (1–x) / x (1–y)

(1–y) / y (1–x)

Gas Permeability (P) is defined as
(A) P = Volume/ pressure gradient

(B)

(C)

(D) P = Diffusivity / Solubility

P = volume x pressure gradient

(B)

DAB

(C)

84.

(C)

DAB1.5

(D) DAB0.7

According to Chilton–Colburn analogy for mass transfer
(A) NSt NSc2/3 = f/8

83.

P = 1/ Diffusivity

According to surface renewal theory, mass transfer coefficient is proportional to
(A) DAB0.5

82.

y/x

(B)

NSt NSc2/3 = f/2

NSt NSc1/3 = f/2

(D) NSt NSc1/3 = f/8

The temperature at which a gas–vapour mixture gets saturated on cooling at constant
pressure and out of contact with water is
(A) Bubble temperature

(B)

(C)

(D) Saturation Temperature

Wet bulb temperature

Dew temperature

Number of independent variables a binary mixture in vapour –liquid equilibrium will
have at azeotropic composition is
(A) 0

Set - A

(B)

1

(C)
11

3

(D) 2
CH

85.

If the activity coefficient crosses unity as mole fraction of more volatile component in a
binary mixture changes, the indication is that
(A) an azeotrope is formed
(B) the separation is easier
(C) the separation is difficult
(D) the system is ideal

86.

Absorption factor is
(A) Slope of the driving force line/ slope of the operating line
(B) Number of transfer units/ number of theoretical plates
(C) Slope of the equilibrium curve / slope of the operating line
(D) Slope of the operating line / slope of the equilibrium curve

87.

A horizontal q–line in McCabe –Thiele procedure indicates that the feed is a
(A) Saturated liquid
(B) Saturated Vapour
(C) Vapour–liquid mixture
(D) Unsaturated liquid

88.

If the vapour pressure of water retained by a solid is less than the vapour pressure of pure
water, then the water content is known as
(A) Critical Moisture content
(B) Free Moisture content
(C) Bound Moisture
(D) Equilibrium Moisture content

89.

An analytical expression to determine the minimum number of stages required for a
specified separation by fractionation is known as
(A) Rayleigh equation
(B) Kremser equation
(C) McCabe equation
(D) Fenske equation

90.

In flashing, the final pressure is
(A) the bubble pressure
(B) the dew pressure
(C) Between bubble and dew pressures (D) above dew pressure

91.

Liquid A decomposes by an irreversible first order reaction and the half–life of this
reaction is 20 min. The time required for 75 % conversion is
(A) 30 min
(B) 35 min
(C) 40 min
(D) 25 min

92.

In a chemical reaction, it is observed that the rate increases 4-fold, as the concentration is
doubled. What is the order of the reaction ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 1.5
(D) 4

93.

The dimensions of rate constant are (n is the order of the reaction)
(A) time–1 (Concentration)
(B) time–1 (Concentration)n
(C) time (Concentration)1–n
(D) time–1 (Concentration)1–n

Set - A

12

CH

94.

Higher activation energy of a reaction indicates that the reaction is
(A) Temperature sensitive
(B) Temperature insensitive
(C)

95.

More Complete

A reaction, 2A → products exhibit second order kinetics. A plot of t vs XA/(1–XA) will
then have a slope of
(A) KCAO

96.

99.

KCAO2

(C)

1/(KCAO)

(D) CAO

(B)

1

(C)

4

(D) 2

For identical CAO, FAO and XA, and for all positive reaction orders, the ratio of volume
of a CSTR to that of a plug flow reactor is
(A) <1

98.

(B)

For an isothermal gas phase reaction, A → 2B +C, the fractional change in volume of the
system between complete and no conversion is
(A) 3

97.

(D) Higher temperatures are preferable

(B)

>1

(C)

=1

(D) = reaction order

N plug flow reactors in series, each with a volume of V/N will give the same conversion
as a single plug flow reactor of volume V, all else remaining the same. This is valid for
(A) first order reactions

(B)

(C)

(D) Zero order reactions

all reaction orders

second order reactions

Exit age distribution of fluid leaving a vessel is useful to
(A) study the flow pattern in the reactor
(B)

study the reaction mechanism and progress

(C) study the reaction kinetics
(D) determine the flow rates
100.

The action of a catalyst is due to its ability to change the
(A) Activation Energy
(B)

Heat of reaction

(C) Equilibrium constant
(D) Temperature & pressure dependence
101.

For large values of the Thiele modulus (L(k/D)1/2), in case of solid catalyzed first order
reaction, effectiveness factor (ε) is given by
(A) ε = 1

Set - A

(B)

1 / L(k/D)

(C)
13

ε = 1 / L(k/D)1/2

(D)

L(k/D)1/2
CH

102.

Which one of the following is a dynamic characteristic of a measuring instrument ?
(A) Reproducibility
(B) Speed of response
(C) Sensitivity
(D) Range and span

103.

As temperature is increased, refractive index of a liquid
(A) decreases
(B) increases
(C) not affected
(D) varies with square of temperature

104.

An example for a natural second order system is
(A) thermometer
(B) two capacity liquid level system
(C) Thermometer in a thermo well
(D) U-tube Manometer

105.

When a first order system(time constant T) is subjected to a ramp input(At) , the dynamic
error is
(A) (AT)0.5
(B) AT
(C) 0.5 AT
(D) 2 AT

106.

Bolometer is used in the measurement of
(A) Pressure
(B) Level
(C)

107.

Ionization gauge is used to measure
(A) Low pressures
(C) Near atmospheric pressures

Flow

(D) Temperature

(B) High pressures
(D) Ionization current

108.

Phase angle of a second order system to a sinusoidal input is
(A) between 0 and +90
(B) between 0 and –180
(C) between 0 and +180
(D) between –90 and +90

109.

A decrease in proportional band of a controller
(A) decreases decay ratio
(B) improves the stability of a system
(C) increases decay ratio
(D) decreases offset

110.

For a stable system, as per Bode stability criterion, the amplitude ratio at a phase angle of
(–180°)
(A) shall be greater than unity
(B) shall be equal to zero
(C) shall be less than unity
(D) shall be equal to unity

111.

An equal percentage valve is of
(A) increasing sensitivity type
(C) constant sensitivity type

Set - A

(B) decreasing sensitivity type
(D) insensitive type
14

CH

112.

Biochemical digestion of an effluent is basically a process of
(A) Reduction
(B) Hydration
(C) Dehydration (D) Oxidation

113.

A piece of equipment has an initial value of ` 25000, a service life of 8 years and finally
a salvage value of ` 1000. What is the annual depreciation cost as per straight line
method ?
(B) ` 2500
(C) ` 2600
(D) ` 3000
(A) ` 2400

114.

Grading of a complex fertilizer is based on the following :
(A) N : P : K
(B) N : P2O5 : K
(C)

N : P2O5 : K2O

(D) N : P : K2O

115.

Which of the following hydrocarbon series is almost absent in crude petroleum ?
(A) Naphthenes (B) Aromatics
(C) Paraffins
(D) Olefins

116.

The emission of a β–particle causes the resultant nucleus to have
(A) less atomic weight
(B) less atomic number
(C) more atomic weight
(D) more atomic number

117.

The angle subtended by a vertical line to the point directly overhead on the line of sight
of the sun is called
(A) latitude angle
(B) declination angle
(D) Incident angle
(D) Zenith angle

118.

Which method of depreciation computation will provide the lowest book value at all
times
(A) Straight line method
(B) Diminishing balance method
(C) Sinking fund method
(D) Sum of the years digit methods

119.

A dimensionless number used to modify capital cost required to erect a chemical
plant from a past date to a later time, is known as
(A) Cost Index
(B) Scale up factor
(C) Six–tenth factor
(D) Inflation index

120.

A cylindrical vessel needs to be designed to store a highly volatile liquid, under high
pressure. Which closure head do you recommend ?
(A) Hemispherical
(B) Torispherical
(C) Ellipsoidal
(D) Flat end

Set - A

15

CH

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Set - A

16

CH

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING(CH)
SET - A
C
41
B
81
D
42
B
82
B
43
B
83
A
44
A
84
A
45
D
85
D
46
D
86
D
47
C
87
D
48
A
88
D
49
A
89
B
50
B
90
51
C
91
C
C
52
B
92
B
53
C
93
D
54
D
94
B
55
A
95
D
56
D
96
C
57
B
97
A
58
C
98
A
59
B
99
D
60
D
100
B
61
B
101
B
62
A
102
A
63
A
103
D
64
C
104
B
65
A
105
B
66
C
106
A
67
B
107
C
68
D
108
D
69
A
109
B
70
C
110
B
71
C
111
C
72
A
112
A
73
C
113
D
74
D
114
C
75
B
115
A
76
B
116
C
77
D
117
A
78
C
118
D
79
D
119
A
80
A
120

A
C
B
B
A
D
B
C
D
C
C
B
D
A
A
D
B
C
A
A
C
B
A
D
B
D
A
B
C
C
A
D
A
C
D
B
D
B
A
C

Booklet No. :

A
SET

CS - 15
Computer Science & Information Technology
Duration of Test : 2 Hours

Max. Marks : 120

Hall Ticket No.
Name of the Candidate :
Date of Examination :

Signature of the Candidate

Signature of the Invigilator

INSTRUCTIONS
1.

This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.

2.

Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.

3.

Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.

4.

This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.

5.

Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.

6.

on the OMR sheet carefully.

7.

OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.

8.

Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.

9.

No part of the Booklet should be detached under any circumstances.

10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

CS-15-A

1.
2.

3.

COMPUTER SCIENCE & INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY (CS)
The variance of a random variable having exponential distribution with parameter λis
2
λ
(A) λ
(B) λ
(C)
(D) none
The value of the constant k so that the function
kx(1 − x), 0 < x < 1
f ( x) = 
otherwise
is a proper density function, is
 0,
(A) 6
(B) 3
(C) 1/2
(D) 1/6
A signal received at a detector may be Gaussian N(200, 100) at time t. The probability
that the signal is larger than 230 micro volts, given that it is larger than 210 micro volts is

(A)

1 2
⌠ . e– 2 z
⌡.

⌠ . e– 2 z
⌡.

230

⌠.
⌡.

1 2

1 2

(B)
– 1 z2
e 2

⌠. e– 2 z
⌡.

(C)

⌠.
⌡.

210

210

4.

5.

6.

7.

3

(D) None
– 1 z2
e 2

1

If a homogeneous system of n equations in n unknowns AX = 0 has nontrivial solution if
(A) |A| = 0
(B) |A| = n
(C) |A| = 1
(D) |A| ≠ 0

 8 −6 2 
If the eigen values of the matrix A =  −6 7 −4  are 0, 3 and 15, then the eigen
 2 −4 3 
values of the matrix B = 2 A + I are
(A) 8, 7, 3
(B) 1, 7, 31
(C) 0, 3, 15
(D) do not exist
f (x )
The condition for convergence of Newton Raphson iteration scheme x1 = x0 − ′ 0 at
f ( x0 )
x = x0 is
(A)

f ′′ ( x0 ) f ( x0 ) ≤ 0

(C)

f ′′ ( x0 ) f ( x0 ) ≤  f ′ ( x0 ) 

2

(B)

 f ′ ( x0 )  ≤ 1

2

(D) Always converges

By secant method the next approximation root for the function f ( x) = x 2 − x − 2 in the
interval (1, 2) is
(B) x1 = 2
(C) x1 = 0
(D) x1 = 3/2
(A) x1 = 1
4

8.

.
If f(x) is given in the following table then the value of ⌠.f(x)dx by Simpson 1/3 rule is

0

(A) 26
Set - A

x
f(x)
(B) 15

0
1

1
1

2
3
3
7
(C) 18
2

4
13
(D) 17.33
CS

9.

10.

If f(x) = (x – 1)(x – 2) is defined in the interval [1,3] the value of c at which the Lagrange
Mean Value is satisfied at
(A) c = 0
(B) c = 3 / 2
(C) c = 1
(D) c = 2
∂ ( x, y , z )
If x = v + w, y = w + u, z = u + v the value of ∂ (u, v, w) is
(A) 0
(B) 3
(C) 1

(D) 2

11.

The total number of possible records in a database table, if it contains two fields, a
5-letter name, and a 2-digit age, is
(A) 1188137600
(B) 3906252 × 1010
(C) 11881476
(D) 2600

12.

Number of ways a row of n houses can be painted with k colours such that no two
consecutive houses can have same colours
(A) n.(n-1).(n-2) … (n+k-1)
(B) n.(n-1).(n-2) … (n-k+1)
k-1
(C) (n-1)
(D) k.(k-1)n-1

13.

An urn contains 40 balls, namely 10 each of the colours Cyan, Magenta, Yellow and
Black. If 3 balls are picked up (repeat colours allowed) from the urn, how many different
colour combinations we can get ?
(B) 6! / (2.3!)
(C) 10C3
(D) 6C3
(A) 40C3

14.

Find the coefficient of a15 in the expansion of (1 + a7 + a8)10
(A) 90
(B) 560
(C) 1
(D) 0

15.

The recurrence relation corresponding to the sequence ‘5, 9, 17, 33 …’ is
(A) an = an-1 + 4
(B) an = 3an-1 – 6
(C)

an = –an-1 + 14

(D) an = 2an-1 – 1

16.

The graph G is said to be k-edge-connected, if its edge-connectivity λ(G) is
(A) equal to k
(B) not equal to k
(C) greater than or equal to k
(D) less than or equal to k

17.

The maximum number of edges in an undirected simple graph with N vertices is
(A) N2
(B) N!
(C) NP
(D) N(N-1)/2
2

18.

A planar graph has the following property :
(A) It can be drawn such that edges do not cross
(B) There are more edges than the number of vertices
(C) Every vertex is connected by at least one edge
(D) It can not be drawn on a non planar surface

Set - A

3

CS

19.

The following algorithm is not for finding MST
(A) Dijkstra’s
(B) Borůvka’s algorithm
(C) Prim’s
(D) Kruskal’s

20.

If a graph A can be redrawn such that it looks exactly like graph B, then
(A) A is dual of B
(B) A and B are isomorphic
(C) A and B are isographs
(D) A is a line graph of B

21.

Minimum vertex cover problem seeks to find
(A) the minimum set of vertices such that each edge of the graph is incident to at least
one vertex of the set
(B) the minimum set of vertices such each can be given a unique colour
(C) the minimum set of edges that join each vertex of the graph
(D) the minimum set of vertices such that each face of graph is touched by at least one
vertex of the set

22.

A graph that contains no loops is called
(A) a connected graph
(B) an acyclic graph
(C) a simple graph
(D) a bipartite graph

23.

Warshall’s algorithm is used to compute the following of a graph:
(A) Induced subgraph
(C) Chromatic number
(D) Reachability matrix

24.

Which of the following sentences is not a proposition ?
(A) The sky is blue
(B) 5 + 7 = 10
(C) a = 100
(D) 3 is a root of x2 – 9

25.

The meaning of the logical expression
∃a ∃b ( Has(Radha, a) ∧ Book(a)∧ Has(Radha, b) ∧ Book(b) ∧ ¬ (a = b) ) is
(A) Radha has two books named a and b
(D) Radha does not have any books

26.

Consider the definition: “A prime number is an integer greater than 1 and not divisible by
any number other than itself and 1”. The equivalent logical expression is
(A) ∀N (( N>1) ∧ ¬∃m ((m>1) ∧ (m<N) ∧ (mod(N, m) = 0)))  prime(N)
(B) ∃N (( N>1) ∧ ¬∀m ((m>1) ∧ (m<N) ∧ (mod(N, m) = 1)))  prime(N)
(C) ¬∀N (( N>1) ∧ ∃m ((m>1) ∧ (m<N) ∧ (mod(N, m) = 0)))  prime(N)
(D) ∀N (( N>1) ∧ ¬∀m ((m>1) ∧ (m<N) ∧ (mod(N, m) = 0)))  prime(N)

27.

(A → B) ∨ (B → A) is equivalent to
(A) A ↔ B
(C) a tautology

Set - A

(D) (∼A ∧ ∼B) ∨ (A ∧ B)
4

CS

28.

A
B

F
Time 
Identify the logical function that gives rise to the above timing diagram.
(A) F = A' B
(B) F = A' B + A B'
(C) F = A + B'
(D) F = A'B'
29.

1
1
1
The Boolean expression corresponding to the above K-map is
(A) XY + Y'Z
(B) YZ + X'Y
(C) ZX + X'Y
(D) XY + X'Y'
30.

The smallest multiplexer required to emulate all 2-input gates
(A) 16-to-1 multiplexer
(B) 8-to-1 multiplexer
(C) 4-to-1 multiplexer
(D) 2-to-1 multiplexer

31.

In positive edge triggering,
(A) the input changes on the positive edge of the clock
(B) the output changes on the positive edge of the clock
(C) the output changes when the input and the clock are high
(D) the output changes on the raising edge of the input

32.

For the data type ‘double’, the size of ‘mantissa’ is
(A) 53 bits
(B) 52 bits
(C) 47 bits

(D) 48 bits

33.

What is the minimum number of states possible in a sequential circuit with four flip-flops ?
(A) 1
(B) 16
(C) 2
(D) 15

34.

In ‘excess 127’ notation, – 56 is represented as
(A) 173
(B) 71
(C) –184

35.

(D) 72

A 32-bit processor
(A) has only 32-bit machine instructions
(C) can directly perform operations on 32 bit data
(D) must have 32-bit data bus

Set - A

5

CS

36.

The instruction ‘POP BX’ is an example of

37.

In DMA mode, the I/O device controls the following buses:
(A) Data bus only
(C) Data and address busses only
(D) Data, address, and control busses

38.

Pen drive is an example of
(A) volatile memory
(C) ROM

(B) solid state memory
(D) magnetic memory

39.

I/O channel controller is
(A) a piece of software
(B) a combinational circuit
(C) a device to eliminate noise in I/O communication
(D) a special processor

40.

RISC instruction sets have smallest number of the following type of instructions :
(A) register to register
(B) machine control
(C) arithmetic
(D) memory to register

41.

A computer system has a direct-mapped cache of 32 kB in size, with 64-byte cache
blocks. What is the tag size assuming main memory size of 1 MB ?
(A) 6 bits
(B) 9 bits
(C) 5 bits
(D) 14 bits

42.

In a computer system the access time of main memory is 100 ns, and the access time of
cache is 5 ns. If the hit rate is 96%, what is the average access time ?
(A) 8.8 ns
(B) 8.6 ns
(C) 52.5 ns
(D) 9.0 ns

43.

Implementation technology of the main memory used in general purpose computers is
(A) static RAM
(B) dynamic RAM
(C) register memory
(D) virtual memory

44.

The major component of the access time of secondary storage is
(A) seek time
(B) rotational latency
(C) transfer time
(D) idle time

Set - A

6

CS

45.

Consider the C code
int function add(int b, int a) { a = a + b; return a ;}
main() {
int a = 10 ;
int b = 20 ;
int sum1, sum2;
printf(“%d%d\n”, sum1, sum2) ;
}
What is the output ?
(A) 30 30
(B) 30 50
(C) 10 10

(D) 10 30

46.

Consider a stack having the elements 10, 30, 5, 50 with 50 being the top element. What
will be the values in the stack after performing the following operations ?
pop a ; pop b; pop c ; swap(b,c) ; push b ; push c ; push a;
(A) 50, 30, 5, 10
(B) 10, 30, 50, 5
(C) 10, 5, 30, 50
(D) 10, 30, 5, 50

47.

Fastest access is possible with the following storage class in C programming :
(A) auto
(B) register
(C) extern
(D) static

48.

Consider the following pseudo code where parameters are passed using call-by-name
technique :
int a, b, c ;
function g(x)
begin print b ; a = x + 1 ;
b = b + c ; print x ; end ;
main()
begin a = 1; b = 2; c = 3 ; x = 10 ;
g(a+b) ; print x ; print b ; end ;
What is the output if the above code is executed ?
(A) 2 3 10 5
(B) 2 3 3 2
(C) 2 9 10 5

(D) 2 9 9 2

49.

If a recursive function is not terminated properly, it results in
(A) zero return value
(B) stack overflow
(C) heap empty
(D) type mismatch

50.

The specification of an ADT does not include
(A) range of values
(B) list of operations
(C) type of values
(D) implementation

Set - A

7

CS

51.

What is the content of array g, after executing the following code ?
int g[9] = {34, 0, 78, 2, 5, 90, 23, 1, 7}; int size = 9, t ;
for(int k=size/2; k >1 ; k--) {
t = g[k] ; g[k] = g[size-k] ; g[size-k] = t ;
}
(A) {7, 1, 23, 90, 5, 2, 78, 0, 34}
(B) {1, 23, 90, 5, 2, 78, 0, 34, 7}
(C) {34, 1, 23, 90, 5, 2, 78, 0, 7}
(D) {34, 0, 1, 23, 90, 5, 2, 78, 7}

52.

The steps involved in inserting a node pointed to by p1, after a node pointed to by p2 in a

53.

For implementing priority queues, the following data structure gives better performance
(A) Array
(C) Heap
(D) Binary tree

54.

Approximately balanced m-ary tree is called
(A) B-tree
(B) minimum spanning tree
(C) AVL tree
(D) red-black tree

55.

In AVL tree, the height of right sub tree minus the height of left sub tree for every node
is
(A) greater than 1
(B) zero
(C) between -1 and 1
(D) less than one

56.

A binary heap satisfies the following property :
(A) Every node has either two or zero children
(B) All nodes store either 0 or 1
(C) It is a perfect binary tree
(D) The value in every node must always be less than the values in its children

57.

Algorithm analysis
(A) generates the source code from flowchart
(B) estimates the resources needed by an algorithm
(C) gives a procedure for developing efficient algorithms
(D) gives the result of executing the algorithm

58.

Best case complexity of selection sort
(A) O(N)
(B) O(N2)

59.

(C)

O(log2N)

(D) O(log10N)

The number of leaf nodes in a perfect binary tree with N nodes
(B) 2(N+1) – 2(N-1)
(A) log2(N/2)
(C) log2(N+1)
(D) (N+1)/2

Set - A

8

CS

60.

What is the order of complexity if a problem of size N takes an execution time of
1.5N3 – 50N2 + 1.1N – log10N ?
(A) O(N3)

(B)

O(1.1N)

(C)

O(N2)

(D) O(log10N)

61.

Which is the best sort algorithm to use, if our list is already sorted except for the last two
elements ?
(A) Bubble sort (B) Heap sort
(C) Insertion sort (D) Quick sort

62.

f(n) = Ω(g(n)) implies
(A) ∃k > 0 ∃n0 ∀n > n0 f(n) ≤ k.g(n)
(B)

∀k > 0 ∃n0 ∀n > n0 |f(n)| ≤ k.|g(n)|

(C)

∀k > 0 ∃n0 ∀n > n0 |f(n)| ≥ k.|g(n)|

(D) ∃k > 0 ∃n0 ∀n > n0 f(n) ≥ k.g(n)
63.

Consider the problem of choosing the smallest number of coins that add up to 40 using
coin denominations 1, 5, 10, 20, 25. The denomination of the first coin chosen by a
Greedy algorithm
(A) 1
(B) 10
(C) 20
(D) 25

64.

What is the order of complexity of searching for an item among N items stored in a Hash
table of size M, assuming M >>N ?
(A) O(M+N)
(B) O(M)
(C) O(N)
(D) O(1)

65.

The following data structure is most suitable to implement depth-first traversal of a graph
without recursion
(A) Stack
(B) Array
(C) Queue

66.

In dynamic programming,
(A) the problem cannot be divided into sub problems
(B) sub problems are allowed to overlap
(C) recursion must be used
(D) our solutions normally have O(aN) complexity

67.

An NP-complete problem is
(A) always polynomial time
(C) NP and NP-hard

68.

(B) never polynomial time
(D) NP but not NP-hard

The regular expression a(b|ε)c+ denotes
(A) { a ab abc ac abcc abccc … }
(B) { a b ab abc abcc abccc … }
(C) { ac abc acc abcc abccc … }
(D) { abc ac abcabc acac acacac … }

Set - A

9

CS

69.

The languages accepted by FSMs are
(A) regular languages
(C) context-sensitive languages

(B) context-free languages
(D) natural languages

70.

Given a computer program and an input, deciding whether the program finishes or runs
for ever is called
(A) Godel’s problem
(B) Turing problem
(C) Neumann problem
(D) Halting problem

71.

Turing recognizable languages are not closed under
(A) complement
(B) union
(C) kleene star
(D) intersection

72.

While performing a transition, a pushdown automaton can not
(A) push a symbol on to the stack
(B) pop a symbol out of the stack
(C) traverse the stack
(D) leave stack without any change

73.

Backus-Naur form provides the following of a language
(A) grammatical structure
(B) lexical structure
(C) semantics
(D) abstract data structure

74.

The following software generates ready-to-execute code
(A) Assembler
(D) Compiler

75.

Garbage collection is related to
(A) e-waste management
(B) automatic memory management
(C) collection of source code lines containing errors
(D) automatic code management

76.

Proper sequence in the phases of a compiler
(A) Type checking, Lexical analysis, Syntax analysis, Register allocation
(B) Lexical analysis, Type checking, Syntax analysis, Register allocation
(C) Register allocation, Type checking, Lexical analysis, Syntax analysis
(D) Lexical analysis, Syntax analysis, Type checking, Register allocation

77.

Constant folding involves
(B) evaluation at compile time
(C) replacing similar constants by one
(D) computing a constant at execution time

Set - A

10

CS

78.

PCB does not contain the following information :
(A) Memory used by the process
(C) Processor state data
(D) List of processes waiting in the ready queue

79.

A TLB stores
(A) page table entries
(C) frequently executed instructions

(B) PCBs

80.

The following is not a synchronization object :
(A) fork
(B) Mutex
(C) Semaphore
(D) Monitor

81.

The Banker’s algorithm is used for

82.

Thrashing can be prevented by
(A) increasing the clock speed
(B) reducing degree of multi programming
(C) increasing disk storage
(D) reducing the number of pages allocated

83.

A hypervisor is
(A) an operating system
(C) a virtual operating system

(B) a virtual machine monitor
(D) a super computer

84.

Most of the modern operating systems do not support
(A) preemption
(B) micro kernel
(D) virtualization

85.

‘The principle of least privilege’ is a strategy used for
(A) protection
(B) reducing turn around time
(D) controlling thrashing

86.

The following is not a threat to operating system security
(B) Denial of service
(D) Buffer overflow

87.

In an E-R model, an attribute is
(A) attached to only entities
(B) never attached to relationships
(C) attached to either entities or relationships
(D) a parameter with an independent existence

Set - A

11

CS

88.

Consider the two tables :
X
Y
Z
A
F
K
Z
W
C
B
A
A
L
D
A
B
B
C
B
C
A
Which of the following tuples is in the natural join of the above two tables ? Assume
each tuple has schema (W, X, Y, Z).
(A) L A F K
(B) B B B A
(C) L C B A
(D) C C B A

89.

(A) writing SQL queries
(C) Preparing input screens

(B) Creating tables with necessary fields
(D) Generating reports

90.

Consider the database table
Person ID Person Name Age
100
Ramesh
–12

John
25
101
Hema
21
What are the constraints violated by the above table ?
(A) Referential integrity only
(B) Entity and Domain integrities
(C) Referential and Domain integrities (D) Relationship integrity

91.

In a B+ tree of height H, the number of nodes to access, in the best case, to get the
address of the data record is
(A) 1
(B) H
(C) H+1
(D) logH

92.

What is the highest normal form to which the following table confirms ?
student (RollNo, name, subjectID, subjectName, marks)
(A) BCNF
(B) 2nd normal form
rd
(C) 3 normal form
(D) 1st normal form

93.

The advantage of sequential file organization is
(A) it is efficient for all operations
(B) there is no fragmentation
(C) it doesn’t require a directory
(D) it is simple to implement

94.

What is the recommended primary key in the following table ?
Course
RollNo
Name
DCE
10
DME
10
DCE
20
(A) {Name, RollNo}
(B) {RollNo, Course}
(C) {Course, Name}
(D) {Course, RollNo, Name}

Set - A

12

CS

95.

Consider a database with the tables
person(ID, name, account)
company(ID, name)
employed(pID, cID)
Identify the correct SQL statement that gives a bonus of Rs 10000 to all ‘INTEL’
employees
(A) SELECT person UPDATE account = account + 10000
WHERE (person.ID = company.ID) and (company.name = ‘INTEL’)
(B) SELECT person UPDATE account SET to account + 10000
WHERE (person.ID = company.ID) and (company.name = ‘INTEL’)
(C) UPDATE person SET account = account + 10000
WHERE (person.ID = employed.pID) and (company.name = ‘INTEL’)
and (company.ID = employed.cID)
(D) UPDATE person.account SET account = account + 10000
WHERE (person.ID = employed.pID) and (company.ID = employed.cID)
and (company.name = ‘INTEL’)

96.

You have ordered some groceries in the local super market and paid through your card.
The items are expected to be home delivered the next day, but it never happens. What
property of the transaction is violated ?
(A) Durability
(B) Consistency
(C) Isolation
(D) Atomicity

97.

The following is not a method of information gathering:
(B) training
(C) brain storming
(D) prototyping

98.

The potential of a project for success is studied in
(A) Feasibility analysis
(B) Requirements analysis
(C) Testing
(D) Process specification

99.

A data flow diagram outlines
(A) various steps involved in program execution
(B) the output of a program
(C) the flow of control through the data structures
(D) transformation and transmission of data within the multiple stages of a system

100.

Large teams are preferable compared to small teams if
(A) cohesion is important
(B) effective communication is to be achieved
(C) the work involves diverse skills sets
(D) quick decision making is important

Set - A

13

CS

101.

In basis path testing, the number of test cases is equal to
(A) the cyclomatic complexity of the program
(B) the number of function points of the program
(C) the number of loops in the program
(D) the number of subroutines in the program

102.

(A) to correct the bugs discovered by the user
(B) to continuously modify the software to make it usable in a changing environment
(C) to modify software to detect and remove potential bugs
(D) to modify software to improve its performance

103.

Software reliability is measured in terms of
(A) Mean Time To Failure
(B) Mean Time Between Failures
(C) Mean Time To Repair

104.

The design phase is not concerned with
(A) algorithms
(B) software architecture
(C) data structure
(D) specifications

105.

Iterative risk analysis is implemented in
(A) Spiral model
(B) Prototyping model
(C) Water fall model
(D) V model

106.

Number of layers in TCP/IP model
(A) 4
(B) 7

(C)

Layer-3 switching makes use of

(D) Host names

Size of an IP packet
(A) 1024 bits
(B)

(C)

107.

108.
109.

110.

111.

65536 bytes

3

65535 bytes

(D) 6

(D) 65535 bits

A network socket is defined by
(A) Host name and IP address

A gateway must have a minimum of

(D) 1 network address and a port number

Identify the correct statement
(A) Selective Repeat ARQ is the most efficient protocol
(B) Go Back N ARQ is better than Selective Repeat ARQ
(C) Stop-and-Wait ARQ is the most efficient protocol
(D) Stop-and-Wait ARQ is better than Go Back N ARQ but worse than Selective
Repeat ARQ

Set - A

14

CS

112.

Public key cryptography uses public keys of size above
(A) 80 bits
(B) 128 bits
(C) 512 bits

113.

Dynamic Host Control Protocol Server is used
(A) in efficient transmission of IP packets
(B) to find IP address, given the domain name
(D) for congestion control

114.

A firewall is used to protect
(A) any networked device
(C) gateways

(D) 256 bits

(B) web servers
(D) networked computers only

115.

A digital signature is used to authenticate
(A) the identity of the sender and the integrity of the message
(B) the identity of the sender only
(C) the integrity of the message only
(D) the identity of the receiver and the integrity of the message

116.

A hop counter is included with in the packet to
(A) increase its life time
(B) enable it to travel through the shortest path
(C) detect duplicate packets
(D) to limit its life time

117.

WWW is nothing but
(A) internet
(C) an information system

(B) a collection of web servers
(D) a computer network

An XML document
(A) is a structured document
(C) can not use HTML tags

118.

119.

Server virtualization means
(A) providing a server with a huge amount of virtual memory
(B) a single virtual server hosting multiple physical server machines
(C) providing fake servers
(D) a single hardware platform hosting multiple servers

120.

HTML is
(A) a scripting language
(C) a programming language

Set - A

(B) a mark-up language
(D) a markup as well as a scripting language

15

CS

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Set - A

16

CS

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40

COMPUTER SCIENCE & INFORMATION
TECHNOLOGY (CS)
SET-A
B
41
C
81
A
42
A
82
C
43
B
83
A
44
A
84
B
45
A
85
C
46
D
86
B
47
B
87
D
48
C
88
D
49
B
89
D
50
D
90
D
A
51
91
D
52
C
92
D
53
C
93
A
54
A
94
D
55
C
95
C
56
A
96
D
57
B
97
A
58
B
98
A
59
D
99
B
60
B
100
C
A
61
101
C
62
D
102
D
63
D
103
C
64
D
104
B
65
A
105
A
66
B
106
C
67
C
107
B
68
C
108
B
69
A
109
D
70
D
110
A
B
71
111
A
72
C
112
A
73
A
113
B
74
C
114
C
75
B
115
C
76
D
116
D
77
B
117
B
78
D
118
D
79
A
119
D
80
A
120

D
B
B
B
A
C
C
C
B
B
C
D
D
B
C
D
B
A
D
C
A
B
B
D
A
A
B
C
D
C
A
C
C
A
A
D
C
A
D
B

Booklet No. :

A
SET

EC - 15

Electronics & Communication Engineering
Duration of Test : 2 Hours

Max. Marks : 120

Hall Ticket No.
Name of the Candidate :
Date of Examination :

Signature of the Candidate

Signature of the Invigilator

INSTRUCTIONS
1.

This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.

2.

Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.

3.

Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.

4.

This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.

5.

Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.

6.

on the OMR sheet carefully.

7.

OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.

8.

Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.

9.

No part of the Booklet should be detached under any circumstances.

10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

EC-15-A

ELECTRONICS & COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING (EC)
1.

2.

The system of equations x + 5y + 3z = 0, 5x + y – pz = 0 and x + 2y + pz = 0 has
nontrivial solution if p =
(A) 0
(B) 1/2
(C) 2
(D) 1

2 2 1
If two eigen values of A = 1 3 1  are 2 and 3 then the third eigen value is
1 2 2
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 7

3.

.
2
The value of ⌠. x3 e–x dx is equal to

0

(A)

1
2

(B)

1
3

(C)

3
2

(D)

2
3

4.

The unit normal to the surface x 2 + y 2 + 2 z 2 = 26 at the point (2, 2, 3) is
1
1
( i + 2 j + 3k )
(4i + 4 j + 12k )
(A)
(B)
186
176
1
(i + 2 j + 3k )
(C) 4i + 2 j + 3k
(D)
14

5.

The integrating factor of the differential equation (y + xy2)dx – xdy = 0 is
1
1
1
1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2
2
x +y
y
y2
x2

6.

The complete integral of the partial differential equation z = px + qy + p2q is
(A) bx + ay + b2 a (B) ax + by + ab2 (C) ax + by + a2b (D) does not exist

7.

The residue of the function f ( z ) =

(A)
8.

9.

1
3

(B)

1
9

z2
at the pole z = 1 is
( z − 1)2 ( z + 2)
5
2
(C)
(D)
9
9

1 − 12 z 2
e
If the random variable Z has the probability density function f ( z ) =
then the

variance of Z is equal to
1
(A) 0
(B)
(C) 2
(D) 1
2
If there is no repetition in the ranks and if di , i = 1,…, n then the rank correlation is given by
(A)

Set - A

−1

(B)

0

(C)
2

∑d
1−
n

2
i

(D)

1−

6∑ di2
n(n 2 + 1)
EC

10.

Picard’s first approximate solution of the initial value problem
when x = 0 is
x2
(A) 1 + x +
2

11.

(B)

(B)

(A) 10 mA

(B)

For the transfer function
(A)
(C)

(D)

i1

[4δ (t ) − e u(t )] A
[4e u(t ) − 4δ (t )] A

– 0.4 mA

50 Ω
(C)

10 mA

0.4 mA

(D) –10 mA

I o ( s)
s
=
, If ii (t ) = 4δ (t ) then io (t ) will be
I i (s) s + 1

−t

(B)

−t

(D)

[e u(t ) − δ (t )] A
[4δ (t ) − 4e u(t )] A
−t

−t

An independent voltage source in series with impedance ZS = RS + jXS
maximum average power to a load impedance ZLwhen
(A)

15.

1+ x

In the following circuit the current ‘i1’ is
100 Ω

100 Ω

14.

(D)

(C)

30 mA

13.

(C)

x2
2

Consider the network graph shown in the figure. Which one of the following is NOT a
tree of this graph

(A)

12.

x2
1− x +
2

dy
= x − y with y = 1
dx

Z L = RS + jX S (B) Z L = RS

(C)

Z L = jX S

(D)

delivers

Z L = RS − jX S

In the following circuit the voltage Va is
0.02 Va
2A
100 Ω
(A) –40V

Set - A

(B)

32 V

+
Va

50 Ω

_

(C)
3

40 V

(D) –32 V
EC

16.

Consider the circuit shown below

Io
1H
1/3 F

Is
4Ω

Io
The current ratio transfer function I is
s
s(s + 4)
(A)
(B)
s 2 + 3s + 4

(C)

s 2 + 3s + 4
s(s + 4)

(D)

s(s + 4)
(s + 1)(s + 3)
(s + 1)(s + 3)
s(s + 4)

17.

A parallel circuit has R=2 KΩ, C=50 µF and L=10 mH. The quality factor at resonance is
(A) 141.42
(B) 70.7
(C) 20
(D) 32.3

18.

The h parameters of the circuit shown in figure are
I1

10Ω

V1

(A)

19.

0.03 1 
 − 1 10

(B)

I2
30Ω

10 
 1
0.03 −1

(C)

V2

0.3 1 
 − 1 10

(D)

1 
10
− 1 0.03

The differential equation for the current i(t) in the circuit of the figure is
3Ω
i(t)

2H
1F

sin t

(A)
(C)
Set - A

2

d 2i(t)

dt 2
d 2i(t)
dt 2

di(t)
+ i(t) = cos t
dt

(B)

d 2i(t)
di(t)
+2
+ 3i(t) = sin t
2
dt
dt

di(t)
+ 3i(t) = cos t
dt

(D)

2

+3

+3

4

d 2i(t)
dt 2

+3

di(t)
+ i(t) = sin t
dt
EC

20.

The current in 9 Ω resistor using superposition theorem is
6Ω

3V

(A) -1.4 A

+

3A

9Ω
(B)

2A

(C)

1A

(D) 1.4 A

21.

The condition for the electrical symmetry in the two port network is
(A) h12= – h21
(B) AD – BC = 1 (C) Z12 = Z21
(D) A = D

22.

In the ac network shown in the figure, the phasor voltage VAB (in volts) is
A
5Ω

5∟30° A

5Ω

-j3

23.
24.
25.
26.

27.

j3

B
(A) 0
(B) 5∟30°
(C) 12.5∟30°
(D) 17∟30°
A p-n junction diode’s dynamic conductance is directly proportional to
(A) The applied voltage
(B) The temperature
(C) Its current
(D) The thermal voltage
If α = 0.981, ICO =6 µA and IB=100 µA for a NPN transistor, then the value of IC will be
(A) 2.3 mA
(B) 3.1 mA
(C) 4.6 mA
(D) 5.2 mA
In an integrated circuit, the SiO2 layer provides
(A) Electrical connection to external circuit (B) Physical strength
(C) Isolation
(D) Conducting path
A PIN diode is frequently used as a
(A) Peak clipper
(B) Voltage regulator
(C) Harmonic regulator
(D) Switching diode for frequencies up to 100 MHz range
In the monostable multivibrator as shown in Figure, R=100 k ohm and the time delay
T=200 m sec. Calculate the value of C.
+Vcc
8
Trigger
Input

4

2

R
7

555
6
5

C

3

1

0.1µF
O/P
(A) 8.1 µF
Set - A

(B)

2 µF

(C)
5

3 mF

(D) 1.81 µF
EC

28.

A diode that has no depletion layers and operates with hot carriers is called ____ diode.
(A) Schottky
(B) Gunn
(C) tunnel
(D) PIN

29.

A LED is basically a _______ p-n junction.
(A) Forward biased
(B) Reverse biased
(C) Lightly doped
(D) Heavily doped

30.

For a JFET in the pinch off region as the drain voltage is increased the drain current
(A) Becomes zero
(B) Abruptly decreases
(C) Abruptly increases
(D) Remains constant

31.

In the circuit shown below Vref = 0 V, Vi = 1Vp–p sine wave and saturation voltage of
±12 V, determine threshold voltages VUT
R3=100 kΩ
_
Vi

V0

+

R1=50 kΩ
R2=100 Ω
Vref = 0 V

(A) VUT = 2 µmV
(C) VUT = 26 mV

(B) VUT = –24 mV
(D) VUT = –26 mV

32.

A Hall effect transducer can be used to measure
(A) Displacement, temperature and magnetic flux
(B) Displacement, position and velocity
(C) Position, magnetic flux and pressure
(D) Displacement, position and magnetic flux

33.

For better performance of any regulator, it should have
(A) Lesser line Regulation
(C) Low ripple rejection
(D) High ripple rejection

34.

In the Circuit shown below if R1= R2= R3 = R = RF/2, then find the value of V0
RF
R Va

2V
3V
(A) 7 V
Set - A

1V
(B)

R1

_
V0

+

R2
R3
3V

(C)
6

6V

(D) 8 V
EC

35.

36.

37.
38.
39.
40.

41.

In an ideal balanced differential amplifier, the common-mode gain is
(A) Very Low
(B) Zero
(C) Very High
(D) Double of that of single ended difference amplifier
The values of voltage VD across a tunnel diode corresponding to peak and valley currents
are VP and VV respectively. The range of tunnel diode voltage VD for which the slope of
its I-VD characteristics is negative would be
(A) VD< 0
(B) 0 ≤ VD < VP (C) VP ≤ VD < VV (D) VD ≥ VV
The voltage gain of a given common source JFET amplifier depends on its
(A) Input impedance
(B) Amplification factor
(C) Dynamic drain resistance
The ‘pinch-off’ voltage of a JFET is 5 V. Its “cut-off” voltage is
(A) (5.0)1/2 V
(B) 2.5 V
(C) 5.0 V
(D) (5.0)3/2 V
A transistor has a current gain of 0.99 in the CB mode. Its current gain in the CC mode is
(A) 100
(B) 99
(C) 1.01
(D) 0.99
MOSFET can be used as a
(A) Current controlled capacitor
(B) Voltage controlled capacitor
(C) Current controlled inductor
(D) Voltage controlled inductor
What is the output waveform for the circuit shown if Vi is a sinusoidal waveform ?
(Vi = Vm sin ωt)
R
D

Vi

V0
VS

(A)

(B)

Vi

Vi
Vm

(VS+Vλ)

ωt

ωt

–(VS+Vλ)
–Vm

(C)

Vi

(D)

ωt

Vi
Vm

ωt

–Vm

Set - A

7

EC

42.

If both emitter-base and collector-base junctions of BJT are forward biased the transistor is in
(A) Active region
(B) Saturation region
(C) Cut-off region
(D) Inverse mode

43.

The depletion region in semiconductor p-n junction diode has
(A) Electrons and holes
(B) Positive and negative ions on either side
(C) Neither electron nor ion
(D) No holes

44.

In the circuit shown, for achieving good stabilisation we should have [Rb= R1//R2]
VCC
RC

R1

V0
Vi

(A)

Re
〈〈 1
Rb

(B)

R2

Ce

Re

Rb
〈〈 1
Re

(C)

Rb
〉〉 1
Re

(D)

Rb
≅1
Re

45.

For a transconductance amplifier the ideal values of input resistance (Ri) and output
resistance(R0) are
(A) Ri = ∞, R0 = 0
(B) Ri = 0, R0 = ∞
(C) Ri = ∞, R0 = ∞
(D) Ri = 0, R0 = 0

46.

The parameters of a source follower are gm = 3 mA/V. rd=30 kΩ, RL = 3 kΩ. Find the
output impedance
(A) 333 kΩ
(B) 2.7 Ω
(C) 3 Ω
(D) 300 Ω

47.

An amplifier with midband gain A = 500 has negative feedback applied of value
β = 1/100. Given the upper cut-off without feedback is 60 kHz with feedback it becomes
(A) 10 kHz
(B) 12 kHz
(C) 300 kHz
(D) 360 kHz

48.

An oscillator circuit is mainly
(A) DC to AC convertor
(C) DC to DC convertor

(B) AC to DC convertor
(D) AC to AC convertor

49.

The resolution of a 5-bit ADC is 0.32 Volts. For an analog input of 6.4 V, what is the
(A) 10100
(B) 10010
(C) 10011
(D) 10001

50.

D-FlipFlop is used as
(A) Delay Switch
(C) Toggle Switch

Set - A

(B) Divider circuit
(D) Differentiator
8

EC

51.

52.

The number of comparators in a 6-bit Flash ADC is
(A) 63
(B) 64
(C) 6

(D) 62

For the logic circuit shown, the Boolean expression in its simplest form at the output A is
X
Y

A
Z
(A) A=X

(B)

A=Y

(C)

A=Z

(D) A= X+Y

53.

The range of signed decimal numbers that can be represented by 5-bit is
(A) –15 to +15
(B) –31 to +31
(C) –31 to +32
(D) –16 to +16

54.

The non complement output Qn of edge trigger JK-Flip-flop is 0. If J=1, what will be the
state of output Qn+1
(A) Cannot determined
(B) Zero
(C) One
(D) Race around

55.

Simplify the Boolean Expression to minimum literals x yz + xz
(A) z(x + y)
(B) x y
(C) y(x + z)
(D)

z( x + y)

56.

The minimum number of NAND gates required to implement A + AB + AB C is equal to
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 7

57.

(A) is faster
(B) is more accurate
(C) uses fewer gates
(D) costs less

58.

A 4-bit Mod-16 ripple counter uses a J-K flip-flop. If the propagation delay of each flipflop is 50 ms, the maximum clock frequency is equal to
(A) 20 MHz
(B) 10 MHz
(C) 5 MHz
(D) 4 MHz

59.

A divide-by-78 counter can be realized by using
(A) 6 Mod-13 counters
(B) 13 Mod-6 counters
(C) 1 Mod- 13 counter followed by 1 Mod-6 counters
(D) 13 Mod-13 counters

60.

The code used to reduce the error due to ambiguity in reading of a binary encoder is
(A) Octal code
(B) Excess-3 code
(C) Gray code
(D) BCD code

Set - A

9

EC

61.

What is the maximum frequency of a clock pulse at which a 4 bit ripple counter operates
reliably, with flip-flop delay of 40 ns and pulse width of strobe signal 25 ns
(A) 5.8 MHz
(B) 5.4 MHz
(C) 6.2 MHz
(D) 6.5 MHz

62.

In standard TTL gates, the totem-pole output stage is primarily used to
(A) Increase the noise margin of the gate
(B) Decrease the output switching delay
(C) Facilitate a wired-OR logic connection
(D) Increasing the output impedance of the circuit

63.

Fourier transform of ‘A’
(A)

2πA δ(ω)

(B)

πAδ(ω)

(C)

πAδ(ω) +

A
(D)

πA δ(ω) +

1

64.

A signal of maximum frequency 20 kHz is sampled at Nyquist rate, and then the time
interval between two successive samples is
(A) 25 µs
(B) 2.5 µs
(C) 50 µs
(D) 20 ms

65.

The convolution of x (t) and h (t) is given by y (t ) =

∫ x(τ )h(t − τ )dτ , then
−∞

(A) both x(t) and h(t) are causal
(B) both x(t) and h(t) are non- causal
(C) x(t) is causal and h(t) is non-causal (D) h(t) is causal and x(t) is non-causal
66.

The Nyquist rate for the signal, x(t) = 5 sin 200 πt + 8 cos 500 πt is
(A) 200 Hz
(B) 500 Hz
(C) 700 Hz
(D) 300 Hz

67.

Aliasing occurs when the signal is
(A) over sampled
(C) critically sampled

68.

(B) under sampled
(D) not sampled

(z + 1)
A system is described by H(z) = 
 , the final value of the system is
 z(z − 2)(z + 2) 
(A) 1
(B) –1/4
(C) –4
(D) ∞

69.

The trigonometric Fourier series representation of a function with half wave symmetry
consists of
(A) cosine terms only
(B) sine terms only
(C) odd harmonics
(D) even harmonics

70.

The system characterized by the equation y(t) = ax(t) + b is
(A) linear for any value of b
(B) linear if b > 0
(C) linear if b < 0
(D) non-linear

71.

The impulse response of a system is h(n)= anu(n) . The condition for the system to be
BIBO stable is
(A) ‘a’ is real and positive
(B) ‘a’ is real and negative
(C) ‘a’> 1
(D) ‘a’ < 1

Set - A

10

EC

72.

The DFT of a signal x (n) of length N is X (k). When X (k) is given and x (n) is
computed from it, the length of x(n)
(A) is increased to infinity
(B) remains N
(C) becomes 2N – 1
(D) becomes N2

73.

The z transform of x(n) = sin Ωn u(n)
z sin Ω
(A)
2
z − 2z cos Ω + 1
z sin Ω
(C)
2
z − 2 z cos Ω − 1

74.

(B)
(D)

z sin Ω
2

z + 2z cos Ω + 1
z sin Ω
z 2 + 2z cos Ω − 1

If x1(k) = 2nu(k), x2(k) = δ(k) and x3(k) = x1(k)*x2(k) then X3(Ω) is given by
1
1
(A)
(B)
− jω
1 − 2e
1 − 2e jω
1
1
(C)
(D)
− jω
1 + 2e
1 + 2e jω
5

75.

∫ δ (t − 6)dt =
2

(A) 1

(B)

0

(C)

δ(6)

(D) 3

76.

The system having input x(n) related to output y(n) as y(n) = cos (x(n)) is
(A) causal, stable
(B) causal, not stable
(C) non-causal, stable
(D) non-causal, not stable

77.

Negative feedback in a closed loop control system does not
(A) Reduce the overall gain
(B) Reduce bandwidth
(C) Improve disturbance rejection
(D) Reduce sensitivity to parameter variation

78.

If the unit step response of a system is a unit impulse function, then the transfer function
of such a system is
(A) 1
(B) s
(C) 1/s
(D) s2

79.

The transfer function

I(s)

V(s )
in the signal flow graph shown in the figure is
I(s )
–s
>

V(s)

>
>
–1/s

(A)

Set - A

s2
s2 + s + 1

(B)

s2 − s − 1
s

(C)

11

s
s + 1/s

(D)

s
s2 + s + 1
EC

80.

In a linear system an input of 5 sin ωt produces an output of 10 cos ωt. The output
corresponding to input 10 cos ωt will be equal to
(A) 5 sin ωt
(B) –5 sin ωt
(C) 20 cos ωt
(D) -20 cos ωt

81.

For a feedback control system of type 2, the steady state error for a ramp input is
(A) infinite
(B) constant
(C) zero
(D) indeterminate

82.

If the characteristic equation of a system is s3 + 14s2 + 56s + k = 0 then it will be stable
only if
(A) 0 < k < 784 (B) 1 < k < 64
(C) 10 > k > 660 (D) 4 < k < 784

83.

The impulse response of an initially relaxed linear system is e–2tu(t). To produce a
response of te–2t u(t), the input must be equal to
1 − 2t
(A) 2e − t u(t)
(B)
(C) e −2t u(t)
(D) e − t u(t)
e u(t)
2

84.

The transfer function
(A)
(C)

(1 + 0.5s)
represents a
(1 + s)
(B) lag network
(D) proportional controller

85.

The frequency at which the Nyquist diagram crosses the negative real axis is known as
(A) gain crossover frequency
(B) phase crossover frequency
(C) damping frequency
(D) natural frequency

86.

Obtain the transfer function for the response shown below
dB
12

–20 dB/dc

ω

100
(A)
(C)
87.

40
s(1 + 0.1s)
4
(1 + 00.1s)

(B)
(D)

4
s(1 + 0.1s)
20
(1 + 0.1s)

The open loop transfer function of a unity feedback control system is given by
k(s + 2)
G(s) = 2
, the centroid and angle of root locus asymptotes are respectively
s(s + 2s + 2)
(A) Zero and + 90°, –90°
(B) –2/3 and + 60°, –60°
(C) Zero and +120°, –120°
(D) –2/3 and –90° and –90°, +90°

Set - A

12

EC

88.

Consider the following properties attributed to state model of a system :
1.
state model is unique
2.
state model can be derived from the system transfer function
3.
state model can be derived from time variant systems
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) 1 and 2 are correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) 1 and 3 are correct

89.

The term reset control refers to
(A) proportional control
(C) derivative control

(B) integral control
(D) none of these

90.

When zero-mean Gaussian process is given as input to LTI system, its output will be
(A) Zero-mean Gaussian process
(B) Gaussian process but not necessarily zero mean
(C) Zero mean process but not necessarily Gaussian
(D) Depends on the nature of h(t) of the system

91.

Ring modulator is used to produce
(A) DSB-SC
(B) SSB

(C) USB

(D) VSB

92.

Which one of the following modulations is non-linear?
(A) Amplitude modualtion
(B) SSB
(C) Frequency modulation
(D) Phase modulation

93.

The noise figure of a super heterodyne receiver is mostly controlled by
(A) the RF stage
(B) mixer stage
(C) IF stage
(D) detector stage

94.

Companding is used in PCM to
(A) Reduce Bandwidth
(C) Increase S/N ratio

(B) To maintain uniform S/N ratio
(D) Reduce Power

95.

An SSB transmitter has a 24-V dc power supply. On voice peaks the current achieves a
maximum of 9.3 A. What will be its Peak Envelope Power ?
(A) 223.2 W
(B) 2.5 W
(C) 446.4 W
(D) 61.9 W

96.

Noise performance of PAM is
(A) Better than direct base band transmission
(B) Poorer than direct base band transmission
(C) Better than CW amplitude modulation
(D) Poorer than CW amplitude modulation

97.

Which one of the following digital modulation scheme is not preferred when the channel
is non-linear?
(A) QAM
(B) BFSK
(C) BPSK
(D) MSK

Set - A

13

EC

98.

In a 16-ary PSK, the symbol rate is 10 kbps. The bit rate is
(A) 160 kbps
(B) 40 kbps
(C) 2.5 kbps

(D) (10/16) kbps

99.

The effect of atmospheric noise is most severe in
(A) medium wave band
(B) shortwave band
(C) VHF band
(D) microwave region

100.

For M-ary PSK system the best trade-off between bandwidth efficiency and transmitted
power is given for a value of M equal to
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 16

101.

The main advantage of TDM over FDM is that it
(A) Needs less power
(B) Needs less Bandwidth
(C) Needs simple circuitry
(D) Gives better S/N ratio

102.

Which type of multiple access method is preferred in GSM Cellular systems?
(A) FDMA
(B) FDMA/TDMA (C) CDMA
(D) SDMA

103.

FDMA technology efficiency reduced because of
(A) gaurd bands
(C) spectrum
(D) bandwidth

104.

Which of the following gives maximum probability error?
(B) FSK
(C) PSK

105.

Divergence theorem is applicable for
(A) static field only
(B)
(C) both static and time varying fields (D)

(D) DPSK

time varying fields only
electric fields only

106.

A wave is incident normally on a good conductor. If the frequency of a plane
electromagnetic wave increases four times, the skin depth, will
(A) increase by a factor of 2
(B) decrease by a factor of 4
(C) remain the same
(D) decrease by a factor of 2

107.

In a travelling electromagnetic wave, E and H vector fields are
(A) perpendicular in space
(B) parallel in space
(C) E is in the direction of wave travel (D) H is in the direction of wave travel

108.

In a dielectric-conductor boundary (interface), the tangential component of electric field is
(A) Et
(B) 2Et
(C) Zero
(D) Infinity

109.

For a transmission line terminated in its characteristic impedance, which of the following
statement is incorrect ?
(A) It is a smooth line
(B) The energy distribution between magnetic and electric field is not equal
(C) Standing wave does not exist
(D) Efficiency of transmission of power is maximum

Set - A

14

EC

110.

Transverse electric wave travelling in z- direction satisfies
(A) Ez = 0; Hz = 0
(B) Ez = 0; Hz ≠ 0
(C)

Ez ≠ 0; Hz = 0

(D) Ez ≠ 0; Hz ≠ 0

111.

Consider a transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and the line is
terminated at one end by +j 50 ohms, the VSWR produced in the transmission line will
be
(A) +1
(B) zero
(C) infinity
(D) –1

112.

Poynting vector gives
(A) direction of energy flux density
(C) intensity of electric field

(B) direction of polarization
(D) intensity of magnetic field

113.

A hollow rectangular waveguide acts as a
(A) High pass filter
(B) Low pass filter
(C) Band pass filter

114.

A very small thin wire of length λ/100 has a radiation resistance of
(A) 0 Ω
(B) 0.08 Ω
(C) 7.9 Ω
(D) 790 Ω

115.

Double stub matching eliminates standing waves on the
(A) Source side of the left stub
(B) Load side of the right stub
(C) Both sides of the stub
(D) In between the two stubs

116.

The characteristic impedance of a distortion less line is
(A) Real
(B) Inductive
(C) Capacitive

(D) Complex

117.

The intersection of the constant-r circle with positive real axis gives the position of
(A) average voltage on the line
(B) minimum voltage on the line
(C) maximum voltage on the line
(D) RMS voltage on the line

118.

In Rectangular Waveguide, the mode subscripts m and n indicate
(A) Number of half wave patterns
(B) Number of full wave patterns
(C) Number of zeros of the field
(D) Number of poles of the field

119.

In a circularly polarized uniform wave, travelling in x-direction, the phase difference
between Ez and Ey is
(A) 30°

120.

(B)

90°

(C)

45°

(D) 180°

The velocity of an EM wave in a conductor when compared to a dielectric is
(A) higher
(B) lower
(C) same velocity
(D) cannot be decided

Set - A

15

EC

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Set - A

16

EC

ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING (EC)
SET-A
1
D
41
81
B
C
2
A
42
82
B
A
3
A
43
83
B
C
4
B
44
84
B
B
5
D
45
85
C
B
6
C
46
86
D
C
7
C
47
87
D
A
8
D
48
88
A
C
9
D
49
89
A
B
10
B
50
90
A
A
11
51
91
D
A
A
12
52
92
A
A
C
13
53
93
D
A
A
14
54
94
D
C
B
15
55
95
C
A
A
16
56
96
B
A
B
17
57
97
A
B
A
18
58
98
D
C
B
19
59
99
A
B
A
20
60
100
D
D
B
21
61
101
D
B
C
22
62
102
D
B
B
23
63
103
C
A
A
24
64
104
D
A
A
25
65
105
C
B
C
26
66
106
D
B
D
27
67
107
D
B
C
28
68
108
B
B
C
29
69
109
A
C
B
30
70
110
D
D
B
31
71
111
A
D
C
32
72
112
A
B
A
33
73
113
A
A
A
34
74
114
C
A
B
35
75
115
B
B
A
36
76
116
C
B
A
37
77
117
B
B
C
38
78
118
C
C
A
39
79
119
A
A
C
40
80
120
B
D
B

Booklet No. :

A
SET

EE - 15

Electrical Engineering
Duration of Test : 2 Hours

Max. Marks : 120

Hall Ticket No.
Name of the Candidate :
Date of Examination :

Signature of the Candidate

Signature of the Invigilator

INSTRUCTIONS
1.

This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.

2.

Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.

3.

Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.

4.

This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.

5.

Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.

6.

on the OMR sheet carefully.

7.

OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.

8.

Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.

9.

No part of the Booklet should be detached under any circumstances.

10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

EE-15-A

ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING (EE)

1.

 , then which one of the following is true ?
2 

2 1 1

If A =  0 1 0

1

1
(A) A – 5A2 + 7A + 3I = 0
(C) A3 – 5A2 + 7A – 3I = 0
3

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

The directional derivative of xy + yz + zx at the point (1, 2, 0) in the direction of
i + 2j + 2k is
10
10
10
10
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)
3
14
14
3
∂(u, v)
=
∂(x, y)
(A) (x – y) (y – z) (z – x)
(C) xyz
If u = xy, v = x + y, then

The P.I. of (D2 + 16)y = cos 4x is
x
x
(A) – 8 cos 4x
(B)
sin 4x
8

(B) x + y + z
(D) (x – y) (z – y)(z – x)

(C)

x cos 4x

(D) x sin 4x

The half range Fourier sine series of f(x) = 1, 0 < x < π is
∞ (–1)n – 1
∞ (–1)n + 1
(A) f(x) = Σ
sin nx
(B) f(x) = Σ
sin nx

n=1
n=1
∞ (–1)n
∞ 1 – (–1)n
(C) f(x) = Σ
sin nx
(D) f(x) = Σ
sin nx

n = 1 nπ
n=1
∂u
∂u
= 0, u(x, 0) = 4e–x is
The solution of 3 + 2
∂x
∂y
(A) u(x, y) = 4e
(C)

7.

(B) A3 + 5A2 + 7A – 3I = 0
(D) A3 + 5A2 + 7A + 3I = 0

u(x, y) = 4e

x–

3
y
2

(B)

3
–x+ y
2

u(x, y) = 4e

–x–

3
y
2

(D) u(x, y) = 4e–x + y

2
⌠.(z + 1) dz, where c : | z – 1 | = 1 is
⌡. (z2 – 1)
c

(A) πi
8.

9.

(B)

πi/2

(C)

2πi

(D) –πi

 k(1 – x2) for 0 < x < 1
If f(x) = 
represents the probability density of a random

0
elsewhere
variable X, then k =
(A) 2/3
(B) 3/2
(C) 1/2
(D) 1
The correlation coefficient of twelve pairs of data having Σx = 730, Σy = 1017,
Σx2 = 44932, Σy2 = 86801 and Σxy = 62352 is
(A) 0.5674
(B) 0.68
(C) 0.83
(D) 0.857

Set - A

2

EE

10.

The solution of y' = x + y, y(0) = 1 at x = 0.2, using Euler’s method, is
(A) 1.24

11.

(B)

0.2

(C)

1.02

(D) 1.1

A tree of a network graph consists of
(A) (n-1) nodes
(B)

n branches

(C)

one or two nodes left in isolated position

(D) no closed paths
12.

The power delivered by the current source in the circuit shown in Figure.
2Ω
_
6V +

1.5A
4Ω

(A) 9 W

13.

(B)

12 W

(C)

18.5 W

(D) 22.5 W

The voltage across the 2 Ω resistor in the circuit shown in Figure.
2Ω

(A) 2 V

14.

+
_

2A

1Ω

(B)

4V

(C)

8V

4V

(D) 12 V

The current through 6 V source in the circuit shown in Figure.
1Ω

1Ω

_
6V +

(A) 0.5 A
Set - A

(B)

+
_ 2V

2A

1.0 A

(C)
3

1.5 A

(D) 2 A
EE

15.

The current through the circuit shown in Figure, if switch, S is closed at time, t = 0
2 kΩ
S
_
5V +

16.

(A)

10 × 10 −3 e −0.5 t

(B)

10 × 10−3 e−2 t

(C)

7.5 × 10−3 e −2 t

(D)

2.5 × 10−3 e−0.5 t

The damping ratio of an under damped R-L-C circuit with step response is
(A)

17.

1 mF

R

R

(B)

L/C

2 L/C

(C) 2 R L / C

(D)

R
2 C/L

The Thevenin equivalent across X-Y for the circuit shown below :
X
1Ω
2∠0°A

j3 Ω
−j2 Ω
Y

18.

(A)

2 ∠45o V, (1 + j1) Ω

(B)

(C)

2 2 ∠45o V, (1 + j1) Ω

(D)

2 ∠45o V, (1 + j1) Ω
2 ∠45o V, (1 − j1) Ω

The Z parameters of Tee network shown in Figure.
Za

+
V1

Zb

V2

Zc

_

(A)

Z a + Z c
Z
 c

(C)

Z a + Z c
− Z
 c

Set - A

+

_

Z b + Z c 
_Z
Zc

Z b + Z c 
c

(B)

Z a − Zc
Z
 c

Zb − Z c 

(D)

Zc − Z a
Z
 c

Z c − Z a 

4

Zc

Zc

EE

19.

In a 3-phase balanced system the phase voltages with a-b-c phase sequence are
Van = V p ∠0 o and Vbn = V p ∠ − 120o . The line voltages are
(A)

Vab = V L ∠30 o , Vbc = V L ∠ − 90 o

(B)

Vab = V L ∠30 o , Vbc = V L ∠150 o

(C)

Vab = V L ∠30 o , Vbc = V L ∠90 o

(D)

Vab = V L ∠ − 30 o , Vbc = V L ∠ − 150 o

20.

Two parallel conductors are separated by a distance, d carrying a current, I in the same
direction. The magnetic field along a line running parallel to the conductors and midway
between them is
(A) zero
(B) proportional to I
(C) proportional to d
(D) proportional to the permeability of the medium.

21.

A coil of N turns is placed in a medium of reluctance, S. The inductance is
N
N2
N
(B)
(A)
(C)
(D) N × S
S
S
S2

22.

A dielectric material is said to be linear if the electric flux density varies
(A) non-linearly with electric field
(B) linearly with electric field
(C) linearly with the permittivity
(D) non-linearly with electric potential

23.

The capacitance of a coaxial conductor of length L, having inner radius, a, outer radius, b
and permittivity, €
2π € L
2π € L
2π € L
2π € L
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
a
b
a+b
(a + b)/2
ln
ln
ln
2
b
a

24.

If x1 (t) is an odd signal and x2 (t) is an even signal then the condition to prove that the
product of the signals, y(t) is
(B) even and y( − t) = y(t)
(A) odd and y(t) = − y(t)
(C) odd and y( − t) = − y(t)
(D) even and − y(t) = y(t)

25.

A continuous time signal x(t) is sampled and the periodic impulse train of period τ is

given by s(t) =

∑ δ (t − nτ ). If ω s is the sampling frequency, then the Fourier Transform
n = −∞

(A)
(C)
26.

S ( jω ) =
S ( jω ) =

τ

τ

∑ δ (kωs )

(B)

S ( jω ) = 2π

n = −∞

∑ δ (ω − kωs )

(D)

n = −∞

S ( jω ) =

τ

∑ δ (kωs )
n = −∞

∑ δ (ωs )

n = −∞

The current through a circuit is expressed as, i(t ) = 3e −2t − 2e −t . The corresponding
transfer function of the circuit is
s +1
s −1
5s − 1
5s + 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2
2
2
2
s + 3s + 2
s + 3s + 2
s + 3s + 2
s + 3s + 2

Set - A

5

EE

27.

The Z-Transform of a discrete time signal x(n) is

(A)

∑ x ( n) z
n =0

−n

(B)

∑ x(n) z

−1

(C)

n = −∞

∑ x( n) z
n = −∞

−n

(D)

∑ x ( n) z

−n

n =1

28.

The magnetizing reactance of a 4 kV/ 400 V, 50 Hz single-phase transformer on low
voltage side is 35 Ω. The magnetizing reactance on the high voltage side is
(A) 0.35 Ω
(B) 3.5 Ω
(C) 350 Ω
(D) 3500 Ω

29.

At maximum efficiency of a single-phase transformer, the load power factor is
(A) unity
(B) lagging
(D) zero

30.

The per unit I 2 R losses and per unit reactance of a transformer at 0.8 leading power
factor is 0.1 and 0.03, respectively. The per unit regulation of the transformer is
(A) − 0.02
(B) − 0.01
(C) 0.04
(D) 0.026

31.

In star-star connection of 3-phase transformer, the triplen harmonics are suppressed by using
(A) star connected tertiary windings (B) delta connected tertiary windings
(C) neutral conductor
(D) additional insulation for the phases

32.

If two 3-phase transformers with unequal voltage ratios are connected in parallel, the
result is
(B) no circulating current on no-load

33.

In a 6-pole wave wound dc machine the number of conductors is 70. The back pitch and
commutator segments, respectively, are
(A) 11and 35
(B) 12 and 34
(C) 13 and 35
(D) 14 and 34

34.

The number of brushes in a 6-pole double-layer lap wound dc machine is
(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 2

35.

Equalizer rings are used in a dc machine to
(A) provide mechanical balance
(B) balance the flux produced by the poles
(C) provide path for the circulating currents
(D) overcome armature reaction

36.

The demagnetizing AT/pole of a 4-pole dc generator is 480. The number of conductors is
480 and the current in each conductor is 40 A. Then the required brush shift in
mechanical degrees
(A) 9°
(B) 7°
(C) 5°
(D) 3°

37.

In a dc shunt generator critical field circuit resistance line is the line drawn
(A) above the OCC
(B) below the OCC
(C) tangent to the saturation curve
(D) tangent to the linear portion of OCC

38.

A 200 V dc motor takes a field current of 2 A to generate a back emf of 180 V. If the
field winding resistance is 80 Ω, the resistance of the shunt field regulator is
(A) 10 Ω
(B) 20 Ω
(C) 100 Ω
(D)
180 Ω

Set - A

6

EE

39.

The stator mmf and rotor mmf of a 3-phase induction motor
(A) are equal
(B) rotate with slip speed
(C) are opposite but rotate with synchronous speed
(D) rotate with the same rotor speed

40.

The mechanical power developed and the rotor copper losses of a 3-phase induction
motor in terms of slip, s are in the ratio of
(A) 1 − s : s
(B) s : 1 − s
(C) 1 + s : s
(D) (1 − s)/s : s

41.

In a single-phase induction motor the slip with respect to forward and backward rotating
magnetic fields, respectively, are
(A) s and (1 − s) (B) s and (1 + s) (C) s and (2 − s) (D) (1 − s) and (2 − s)

42.

The number of slip-rings in a turbo-alternator are
(A) zero
(B) 2
(C) 3

(D) 4

43.

To eliminate nth harmonic voltage in the generated voltage of a 3-phase synchronous
generator, the coil span of the stator winding is
(A) π/n
(B) π (1 − 1/n)
(C) π (1 + 1/n) (D) n π (1 − 1/n)

44.

The ratio of air-gap line voltage from open-circuit characteristic and armature current
from short-circuit characteristic for a particular value of the field current in a
synchronous generator is
(A) synchronous reactance
(B) synchronous impedance
(C) unsaturated synchronous reactance
(D) unsaturated synchronous impedance

45.

When two synchronous machines are connected in parallel the synchronizing power
tends to
(A) accelerate the faster machine
(B) retard the faster machine
(C) retards the slower machine
(D) pull the faster machine out of step

46.

The maximum power transferred by a 3-phase, 400 V synchronous generator with
synchronous reactance of 5 Ω and at an excitation voltage of 650 V is
(A) 52 kW
(B) 78 kW
(C) 104 kW
(D) 52 3 kW

47.

The power factor of a synchronous machine is controlled by
(B) generated voltage
(C) field current

48.

VE
V2
cos
δ

In a non-salient pole synchronous generator
, where V = generated
Xd
Xd
voltage, E = back emf, X d = direct axis synchronous reactance, and δ = load angle,
represents
(A) active power
(B) reactive power
(C) reluctance power
(D) total power

Set - A

7

EE

49.

As the speed increases, the torque developed by a dc servo motor
(A) decrease with a negative slope
(B) increases with a positive slope
(C) remain constant
(D) becomes unstable

50.

A plant with 10 MW installed capacity produces an annual output of 6 × 106 kWh and
remains in operation for 2000 hours in a year. The Plant Use Factor is
(A) 0.33 %
(B) 3.33 %
(C) 15 %
(D) 30 %

51.

In a medium transmission line, the complex A, B, C, D constants are related as
(A) A = B, C = D
(B) A = D, C = 0
(C) AB − CD = 0
(D) A = C, B = D

52.

The sending end current and receiving end current of a medium transmission line are
(120 − j 15) A and (180 − j 90) A, respectively. The charging current is
(A) (300 − j 105) A
(B) ( − 60 + j 75) A
(C) (60 − j 75) A
(D) 135 A

53.

The minimum potential gradient of a single-core cable with core diameter, d, internal
sheath diameter, D and the potential difference between the conductor and sheath, V is
2V
2V
V
V
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
D
D
D
D
D log e
d log e
d log e
D log e
d
d
d
d

54.

(A) reduce voltage fluctuations
(B) increase service reliability
(C) distribute power at low voltage
(D) distribute power to long distances

55.

The base kV and base MVA are halved and the per unit impedance new value is 0.5. The
per unit impedance of the original circuit element is
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.625
(D) 1.0

56.

The necessary condition for an n × n Z bus and Ybus matrices is, if
(A) Z bus is symmetric, Ybus is diagonal
(B)

Z bus is diagonal, Ybus is symmetric

(C)

Z bus is symmetric, Ybus is symmetric

(D) Z bus is symmetric, then Ybus is transpose of Z bus
57.

In the load flow analysis, a Jacobian is a matrix of size n × n with
(A) constant elements
(B) upper triangular constant elements
(C) first partial derivative elements
(D) second partial derivative elements

Set - A

8

EE

58.

In a power flow program the input and output data, respectively, at the k th load bus are
(A) Pk , Vk and Q k , δ k
(B) Pk , Q k and Vk , δ k
(C ) Vk , δ k and Pk , Q k
(D) Pk , δ k and Vk , Q k

59.

The effect of corona is less by using
(A) overhead lines of large conductor size
(B) under ground cable of small conductor size
(C) overhead lines having less spacing between conductors
(D) overhead lines of higher voltages

60.

A synchronous condenser is used at the receiving end of a transmission line for
(A) supplying lagging kVA
(B) voltage control
(C) frequency control
(D) maintaining a higher voltage than at the sending end

61.

Real power flow in transmission lines is controlled by
(A) tap changing transformer
(B) voltage regulating transformer
(C) phase-angle regulating transformer
(D) booster transformer

62.

The injected complex power for a given bus system, given Ybus, Zbus, bus voltage for
i = 1, 2, ….n
n

(A)

∑ YimVmVi
m =1

n

(B)

∑ YimVmVi*

n

(C)

m =1

∑ Z imVmVi*
m =1

n

(D)

∑Y

Vm*Vi

im

m =1

63.

The voltage profile of a n-bus power system can be improved by controlling the
(B) active power flows
(C) reactive power flows
(D) complex power flows

64.

Given 3-phase voltages a, b, c, and the transformation matrix ( a = 1∠120 o ),
1 1 1 

T = 1 a a 2  , the matrix equation for positive, negative and zero sequence currents is
1 a 2 a 

1
(A) V1, 2 ,0 = TVa ,b ,c
(B) V1, 2,0 = 3 TVa ,b ,c
1
(D) V1, 2,0 = TVa ,b,c
(C) V0,1, 2 = TVa ,b ,c
2

65.

Two 3-phase synchronous generators with reactance 60% and 40% feed a fault current of
1200 A up to short-circuit fault point. The short-circuit current is
(A) 1200 A
(B) 2400 A
(C) 4000 A
(D) 5000 A

Set - A

9

EE

66.

A single-line-to-ground fault on a overhead transmission line creates
(A) voltage sag (B) voltage swell (C) over voltage (D) voltage flicker

67.

Ratio relay by using line-to-neutral voltage protect
(A) 3-phase faults
(B) double line faults
(C) double-line-to-ground faults
(D) generator bus earth faults

68.

Protection of transformer from all types of faults is by using
(A) over current relay
(B) differential relay
(C) distance relay
(D) Buchholz relay

69.

The voltage that appears across the contacts of the circuit breaker after the arc extinction
is called as
(A) arc voltage
(B) recovery voltage
(C) re-striking voltage
(D) extinction voltage

70.

Differential relays detect internal faults in 3-phase transformers by
(A) zero sequence currents
(B) positive sequence currents
(C) negative sequence currents
(D) both positive and negative sequence currents

71.

For a synchronous machine swing curve, the load angle swings between δ min and δ max ,
if the damping constant is
(A) equal to zero
(B) greater than zero
(C) less than zero
(D) equal to normalized inertia constant

72.

The breakeven distance for HVDC transmission is
(A) 100 kM
(B) 250 kM
(C) 500 kM – 800 kM
(D) Above 1000 kM

73.

A homo-polar HVDC link consists of
(A) single-conductor with positive polarity
(B) two conductors with one positive and another negative polarity
(C ) two conductors having the same polarity with a ground return
(D) single conductor with negative polarity and ground as positive polarity

74.

A static VAR compensator is a
(A) series connected thyristor based controller
(B) shunt connected thyristor based controller
(C) energy storage device
(D) combined series–shunt connected controller

75.

The Interline Power Flow Controller in a transmission system
(A) injects voltage by static series converters
(B) injects current by static shunt converters
(C) injects voltage and current by the static series and shunt converters
(D) provides real and reactive power compensation by static shunt compensator

Set - A

10

EE

76.

1 + sT
1 + sT1
(B) minimum phase system
(D) unstable system

The system given by the transfer function, G ( s ) =
(A) non-minimum phase system
(C ) system with transport lag

77.

The

closed-loop
transfer
function
of
unity feedback
K
R
G1 ( s) = and G2 ( s ) =
in the forward path is
s
RCs + 1
KR
RCs 2 + s
(A)
(B)
KRs 2 + s + RC
RCs 2 + s + KR
RC
KR
(C)
(D)
2
2
RCs + s + KR
RCs + s + KR

78.

The open-loop transfer function of a unity feedback system is
error in the unit-step response is
1
(A) Zero
(B) 1 + K K
p

(C)

1
1− K pK

KpK
Ts + 1

(D)

system

with

K pK

79.

For a unity feedback system with a transfer function G(s) and input R(s), the steady state
error is
sR( s)
R( s )
1
R( s)
(A) lim
(B) lim
(C) lim
(D) lim
s →0 1 + G ( s )
s →0 1 + G ( s )
s →0 1 + G ( s )
s →0 s (1 + G ( s ))

80.

A system represented by the characteristic equation s 4 + 2 s 3 + 3s 2 + 2 s + K is said to be
stable if
(A) K > 0
(B) 1 > K > 0
(C) 2 > K > 0
(D) K > − 1

81.

The Nyquist plot of a unity feedback minimum phase system is drawn for different
values of gain, K. The system is stable if the plot
(A) does not enclose the ( − 1 + j 0) point
(B) passes through the ( − 1 + j 0) point
(C) encloses the ( − 1 + j 0) point
(D) passes through the ( − 2 + j 0) point

82.

For unity feedback control system, the magnitude of G(jω1) at the phase cross-over
frequency, ω1is measured as 2/3 from the Bode plot. The gain margin is
(A) 2/3
(B) 3/2
(C ) 4/9
(D) 9/4

83.

A lag-lead compensator for a second order system
(A) improves steady state errors, reduces relative stability
(B) marginally improves steady state errors, increases relative stability
(C) reduces steady state errors, increases relative stability
(D) improves both transient response and steady state response

Set - A

11

EE

84.

The point of intersection of two asymptotes in a plot is called
(A) corner frequency in uniform scale
(B) corner frequency in logarithmic scale
(C) phase cross-over frequency in uniform scale
(D) phase cross-over frequency in logarithmic scale

85.

In the Bode plots, the magnitude and phase angle of the factor (1 + j ω T) are
1
1
, tan −1 ωT
(A) 20 log 1 + jωT , tan −1
(B) − 20 log
1 + jωT
ωT
(C)

1 + jωT , cos −1ωT

(D)

− 20 log

1
, 0
1 + jωT

86.

For the state equation X& = AX where X = n-vector and A = n × n constant matrix. Given
the initial state X(0), the solution of the state equation
(A) X (t ) = e − At X (0)
(B) X (t ) = A −1 X (0)
(C) X (t ) = e At X (0)
(D) X (t ) = AT X (0)

87.

The mathematical model of a system is &y& + 3 y& + 2 y = u , where u = input, and y = output.
The matrix state equation for y = x 1 , is
1   x1 
 x&1  0 1   x1 
 x&1  0
(A)   = 
(B)   = 

 
 x& 2  2 3   x2 
 x& 2  − 2 - 3  x2 
(C)

88.

 x&1  0
 x&  = − 2
 2 

1   x1  1 
+
[u ]
- 3  x2  0

(D)

 x&1  0
 x&  = − 2
 2 

The state transition matrix of a state equation, X& = AX + Bu
(A) L−1 ( sI − A) −1
(B) ( sI − A) −1
(C) L−1 [( sI − A)]
(D) L−1 ( A − sI ) −1

[

]

[

[

]

1   x1  0
+
[u ]
- 3  x2  1 

]

89.

Given X& = AX + Bu where A is a 2 × 2 matrix and B is a 2 × 1 matrix. The condition for
controllability is
(A) [A : AB]
(B) [B : AB]
(C) [AB : A]
(D) [AB : B]

90.

Given X& = AX + Bu , y = CX where A = 2 × 2 matrix, B = 2 × 1 matrix and
C = 1 × 2 matrix. The condition for observability is
(A) [CB : CAB] (B) [B : AB]
(C) B * : A* B *
(D) C * : A*C *

[

91.

92.

A Wien bridge is used to measure
(A) quality factor of a coil
(C) capacitance of a capacitor

]

[

]

(B) audio frequency of a signal
(D) inductance of a coil

The full scale range of PMMC voltmeter is 100 V and its sensitivity is 1000 Ω/V. If the
meter reads 50 V, the current through the voltmeter is
(A) 0.05 mA
(B) 0.5 mA
(C) 5 mA
(D) 50 mA

Set - A

12

EE

93.

The power in a 3-phase load is measured by two watt meters. If one watt meter reads
zero, then the load power factor is
(A) Zero
(B) 0.5
(C ) 0.866
(D) unity

94.

The burden of the instrument transformers is
(A) VA rating
(B) secondary winding current
(C) secondary winding voltage
(D) (secondary winding current)2 × resistance of secondary winding

95.

Digital meters are superior over analogue meters because
(A) less expensive
(B) output reading is binary in nature
(C) output impedance is less
(D) installation is easy as panel meters

96.

The most accurate instrument for measuring phase difference between two signals is
(A) X − Y plotter
(B) oscilloscope
(C) phase sensitive detector
(D) electronic counter/timer

97.

Measurement of power by voltmeter and ammeter method in a circuit resulted in
calculated maximum errors of ±1 % and ± 2 %, respectively. The likely error in
calculated power is
(A) ± 3 %
(B) ± 0.022 %
(C) ± 1.5 %
(D) ± 0.22 %

98.

Major cause for creeping in induction type energy meter is due to
(A) only current coil is energized
(B) under compensation for friction
(C) over compensation for friction

99.

The semiconductor device that operates in the reverse breakdown region
(A) light emitting diode
(B) zener diode
(C) field effect transistor
(D) bipolar junction transistor

100.

The region consisting of holes and electrons near the p-n junction of a diode is
(A) diffusion region
(B) neutral zone
(C) recombination region
(D) depletion region

101.

A BJT’s voltage stand-off capability when the base current is zero
(A) collector-emitter breakdown voltage
(B) minimum collector-emitter voltage
(C) collector-base breakdown voltage
(D) emitter-base voltage

102.

The output voltage change in 2 µs of a certain operation amplifier is ± 8 V in the linear
region. The slew rate is
(C) 8 V/µs
(D) 16 V/µs
(A) 4 V/µs
(B) − 4 V/µs

Set - A

13

EE

103.

The critical frequency of a single-pole active low-pass filter with RC network is
1

1
RC
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2π RC
RC
2πRC

104.

An 8-bit analogue-to-digital converter returns for an analogue input signal
(A) a continuous set of discrete values
(B) 216 discrete values
(C) 210 discrete values
(D) 28 discrete values

105.

The IC used for 2:1 multiplexer is
(A) IC 74150
(B) IC 74151

(C)

IC 74153

(D) IC 74157

106.

In a sample-and-hold circuit, the aperture time is
(A) time required following a sample
(B) time required for the switch to open
(C) transition time interval between sample and hold
(D) time from the hold command to the opening of the switch

107.

A bi-stable multi-vibrator can be built by using
(A) NAND gates
(B) AND gates
(C) AND or OR gates
(D) Excusive-NOR gates

108.

Semiconductor devices are protected by a fuse and the material used is
(A) silver
(B) gold
(C) copper
(D) tin

109.

The power loss in a transistor is a function of the product of
(A) base current and collector-emitter voltage
(B) collector current and base current
(C) collector current and saturation voltage
(D) collector current and collector-emitter voltage

110.

A TRIAC can be switched into on-state by
(A) positive gate current only
(B) negative gate current only
(C) positive or negative gate current
(D) sinusoidal gate current

111.

The conducting SCR turns-off when the on-state current is
(A) below the latching current
(B) below the holding current
(C) equal to the reverse leakage current
(D) zero

Set - A

14

EE

112.

The power factor of input source current of a single-phase semi-converter operating at a
firing delay angle, α and feeding a dc load, is
(A)

cos

α
2

(B)

cosα

(C)

unity

(D)

cos 2α

113.

A fully controlled single-phase bridge converter is supplied at 120 V, 50 Hz and the
firing delay angle of the SCRs is 45°. The average output load voltage for continuous
current is
120
120
240
120 2
(C)
(D)
(A)
(B)
π 2
π
π
π

114.

The duty ratio of a step-up chopper with an output voltage of 200 V from a 80 V dc
source, is
(A) 0.4
(B) 0.5
(C ) 0.6
(D) 1.5

115.

The fundamental component of rms output voltage of a full-bridge single-phase squarewave inverter with Vdc as input voltage, is
(A)

4

π

Vdc

(B)

2

π

Vdc

(C)

4Vdc

(D)

4Vdc

116.

The starting torque of a V/f controlled inverter-fed 3-phase induction motor operating at
25 Hz as compared with the same motor operating at 50 Hz is
(A) more
(B) double
(C) equal
(D) less

117.

Regenerative breaking of ac-dc converter fed dc motor is possible when firing delay
angle of SCRs is
(A) 30°
(B) 60°
(C ) 90°
(D) 120°

118.

In slip-energy recovery scheme of converter-fed 3-phase induction motor, super
synchronous speeds are possible by
(A) injecting voltage into the stator
(B) injecting voltage into the rotor
(C) extracting voltage from the stator
(D) extracting voltage from the rotor.

119.

The voltage collected by the pantograph of electric locomotive is
(A) DC voltage
(B) single-phase AC, 50 Hz
(C) 3-phase AC, 50 Hz
(D) single-phase AC, 25 Hz

120.

Fast acceleration and high-speed cruising electric traction drive motor is
(A) separately excited dc motor
(B) DC series motor
(C) AC series motor
(D) 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor
___________

Set - A

15

EE

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Set - A

16

EE

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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING (EE)
SET-A
41
C
81
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B
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B
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D
84
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B
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A
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C
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D
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D
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B
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C
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A
B
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B

Booklet No. :

A
SET

FT - 15

Food Technology
Duration of Test : 2 Hours

Max. Marks : 120

Hall Ticket No.
Name of the Candidate :
Date of Examination :

Signature of the Candidate

Signature of the Invigilator

INSTRUCTIONS
1.

This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.

2.

Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.

3.

Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.

4.

This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.

5.

Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.

6.

on the OMR sheet carefully.

7.

OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.

8.

Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.

9.

No part of the Booklet should be detached under any circumstances.

10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

FT-15-A

FOOD TECHNOLOGY
1.

What percentage of human body is made up of proteins ?
(A) 50 percent
(B) 45 percent
(C) 30 percent

(D) 20 percent

2.

Vitamins are classified as fat-soluble and water soluble and they perform specific
functions in human body. Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin ?
(A) vitamin A
(B) vitamin D
(C) vitamin E
(D) vitamin B6

3.

Which of the following statement is incorrect in relation to function of minerals ?
(A) Copper is useful in iron absorption and collagen metabolism.
(B)
Magnesium is found useful as enzyme activator.
(C)
Manganese is used in body for cholesterol metabolism.
(D) Selenium is useful in oxygen transport.

4.

Which of the following statement is false in connection with vitamin ?
(A) Vitamin A is highly sensitive to acid, air and light.
(B)
Vitamin C and D are sensitive to alkalinity, air, light and heat.
(C)
Thiamin acts as co-enzyme in energy metabolism.
(D) Niacin helps in absorption of dietary calcium and phosphorus.

5.

ISO prepared a document called ISO 9000 series in 1987 (modified in 1994) as a
guideline for all organizations on managing quality and standard. Its Indian equivalent is
called :
(A) IS 14000
(B) IS 12000
(C) IS 22000
(D) IS 2000

6.

The Ministry of Food Processing Industries was established in which of the following the
year ?
(A) 1988
(B) 2000
(C) 1996
(D) 2001

7.

A viscosity value of 50cp will be equivalent to how many Pa.s ?
(A) 5 × 10–2 Pa.s
(B) 150 × 10–2 Pa.s
(C)
250 × 10–2 Pa.s
(D) 350 × 10–2 Pa.s

8.

Identify which of the following is not a Flow measurement device :
(A) Venturi tube
(B) Pitot tube
(C)
Orifice meter
(D) Lactometer

9.

There are two important types of time-dependent non-Newtonian liquids, namely shearthinning liquids and shear-thickening liquids. Shear-thinning liquids are also called
(A) Thixotropic fluids
(B) Dilatant liquid
(C)
Pseudoplastic
(D) Newtonian fluids

Set - A

2

FT

10.

Which of the following mixer is mismatched below ?
(A) Ribbon mixers
dry powder and particulate foods
(B)
low or medium viscosity liquids
(C)
high viscosity liquids and paste
(D) Sigma blade mixers low viscosity foods

11.

The extraction or separation of food components is fundamental for the preparation of
ingredients during processing. The process of removing liquids from solids is referred to
as
(A) Centrifugation (B) Filtration
(C) Expression (D) Extraction

12.

The benefits of size reduction of foods in food processing are as following, except
(A) A similar range of particle sizes allows more complete mixing of ingredients
(B)
Size reduction has little or no preservative effect
(C)
There is increase in the surface area to volume ratio of the food, which decreases
the rate of drying, heating or cooling
(D) Improves the efficiency and rate of extraction of liquid components

13.

Which of the following factors are considered important for the stability of an emulsion ?
(A) The viscosity of the dispersed phase
(B)
The type and quantity of emulsifying agent
(C)
The interfacial forces acting at the surfaces of the globules
(D) The differences between the densities of the dispersed and continuous phases

14.

Which of the following are covered under proximate analysis of foods ?
(A) Proteins, carbohydrates, vitamins
(B)
Proteins, carbohydrates, fats
(C)
Proteins, sugars, minerals
(D) Fats, vitamins, minerals

15.

Which of the following is least related to the other three ?
(A) Evaporation
- Milk
(B)
Dehydration
- Peas
(C)
Sun drying
- Grapes
(D) Reverse osmosis
- Orange juice

16.

One of the following is a major risk factor in heart diseases
(A) HDL cholesterol
(B) VLDL cholesterol
(C)
LDL cholesterol
(D) Triglycerides

17.

Aspartame is a low-calorie sweetener resulting from the combination of two amino acids.
The amino acids used are
(A) Alanine and glutamine
(B) Aspartic acid and glutamine
(C)
Aspartic acid and alanine
(D) Aspartic acid and phenylalanine

Set - A

3

FT

18.

Which of the following is least related to other three ?
(A) Bligh and Dyer technique
(B) Mojonnier method
(C) Soxhlet extraction
(D) Gerber method

19.

If moisture content of a food is 20% on wet weight basis. Calculate its moisture content
on dry weight basis ?
(A) 22 percent
(B) 25 percent
(C) 31 percent (D) 45 percent

20.

The baking performance of wheat flour improves when they are treated with maturing
agents. Among the maturing agents that may not be added in wheat flour for this purpose
is
(A) Chlorine dioxide gas
(B) Acetone peroxide
(C) Azodicarbonamide
(D) Potassium propionate

21.

Rigor mortis results in increase in lactic acid content in meat which is formed from
(A) Amylopectin (B) Amylose
(C) Glycogen
(D) Dextrins

22.

Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?
(A) Lactobacillus bulgaricus

fermented milk
(B) Aspergillus niger

amylases
(C) Rhizopus nigricans

gluconic acid
(D) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

23.

Marasmus is mainly caused due to deficiency of proteins or carbohydrates or both. It
shows the following symptoms, except
(A) The child gives shriveled appearance
(B) The face looks thin and eyes are sunken
(C) Belly generally comes out
(D) The skin shows a number of folding as the fat and muscles are very less

24.

Which of the following is referred to as bread wheat ?
(A) Triticum aestivum
(B) Triticum monococcum
(C) Triticum durum
(D) Triticum turgidum

25.

Which of the following compound cannot be synthesised by human body ?
(A) Lactic acid (B) Ascorbic acid (C) Pyruvic acid (D) Oleic acid

26.

Heat required to change, at constant temperature, the physical state of materials from
solid to liquid, liquid to gas or solid to gas is known as
(A) Sensible heat
(B) Specific heat
(C) Calorie
(D) Latent heat

27.

The dimensionless Reynolds number (Re) characterizes fluid flow. The Reynolds
number less than 2100 indicates
(A) Streamline flow
(B) Transitional flow
(C) Turbulent flow
(D) Unidirectional flow

Set - A

4

FT

28.

Which of the following is not an example of positive displacement pump ?
(A) Gear pump
(B) Rotary pump
(C) Centrifugal pump
(D) Reciprocating pump

29.

In which of the following industrial operation heat is not transferred ?
(A) Freezing
(B) Emulsification
(C) Pasteurization
(D) Blanching

30.

Why food kept at refrigerated conditions is considered safe ?
(A) Low temperature arrests growth of pathogens
(B) Low temperature arrests growth of psychrophiles
(C) Low temperature kills microbes
(D) Low temperature arrests growth of all microbes

31.

Gliadin protein of gluten is responsible for which characteristics of dough ?
(A) Extensibility
(B) Elasticity
(C) Dough stability
(D) Water holding capacity

32.

Which of the following dryer is commonly used for drying of peas ?
(A) Drum dryer
(B) Fluidized bed dryer
(C) Spray dryer
(D) Bin dryer

33.

According to FPO specifications a tomato paste must contain
(A) 15 % TSS
(B) 25 % TSS
(C) 30 % TSS (D) 40 % TSS

34.

Water hardness influences the processed food quality. The hardness of water is measured
in parts per million of
(A) Calcium carbonate
(B) Calcium chloride
(C) Calcium sulphate
(D) Calcium oxalate

35.

Reduction in the size of solid food is referred to as
(A) Emulsification
(B) Commination
(C) Homogenization
(D) None of these

36.

Which of the following mixer is generally used to mix bread dough ?
(A) Trough mixer
(B) Ribbon mixer
(D) Cone mixture

37.

A process of exposing the raw fruits and vegetables to heat for a few minutes by
immersing in boiling water or with steam is known as
(A) Blanching
(B) Cooking
(C) Thawing
(D) Heating

38.

Which of the following is least related to other three ?
(A) Sterilization –
beans
(B) Baking

biscuits
(C) Drying

peas
(D) Freezing

red meat

Set - A

5

FT

39.

Which of the following term is incorrectly defined ?
(A) Cold shortening

undesirable changes to meat caused by cooling before
rigor mortis has occurred
(B) Chilling injury

physiological changes to some types of fruits and
vegetables caused by low temperature which results in
loss of eating quality
(C) Rigor mortis

a condition in which muscle tissues become extensible
(D) Dew point

temperature at which an air-water vapour mixture
becomes saturated with moisture, making onset of
condensation

40.

Starch is made up of two distinct polymers, amylose and amylopectin. Waxy wheat
starch has been shown to lack measurable amount of
(A) Amylopectin
(B) Amylose
(C) Both amylose and amylopectin
(D) Neither amylose nor amylopectin

41.

Some of the physical characteristics of food are described below. Find the one, which is
incorrectly defined.
(A) Elasticity – the rate at which a deformed food sample goes back to its original
condition after the deforming force is withdrawn.
(B) Gumminess – the quantity to stimulate the energy required to disintegrate a semisolid food sample to a steady state of swallowing
(C) Chewiness – the quantity to stimulate the energy required to masticate a semi-solid
food sample to a steady state of swallowing
(D) Friability – the hardness of a food and its tendency to resist crack.

42.

In a food processing industry, several unit operations are carried out. Identify the one,
which is incorrectly defined ?
(A) Grading – the assessment of a number of attributes to obtain an indication of
overall quality of a food
(B) Filtration – the separation of liquid from solids by applied pressure
(C) Sorting – the separation of foods into categories on the basis of a measurable
physical properties
(D) Ohmic heating – direct electrical heating of foods

43.

Naturally occurring pigments in food are generally water-soluble. Identify the one, which
is oil soluble pigment.
(A) Anthocyanins (B) Betalaines
(C) Carotenes
(D) Curcumin

44.

Hard wheat tends to contain relatively low levels of starch and high levels of proteins,
while reverse is true for soft wheat. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(A) Durum wheat flours are best suited for pasta products.
(B) Wheat holds a unique place amongst cereals because upon mixing wheat flour with
water, an elastic matrix called gluten is formed.
(C) High protein flours are best suited for biscuits.
(D) Low protein flours are best suited for cakes and pastries.

Set - A

6

FT

45.

Different types of maize are classified on the basis of their protein content and the
hardness of the kernel. Much of the niacin in corn is in a bound form and this led to a
disorder in population where corn is the staple food. This niacin deficiency is known as
(A) Pellagra
(B) NTD
(C) Rickets
(D) Jaundice

46.

Oats have a relatively minor status among cereals because they are more difficult to
process and are unstable due to their high lipid content and lipase activity. Reports of the
possible blood cholesterol lowering effect of oat bran have increased the popularity of its
use for human food in developed countries. Which of the following constituents is held
responsible for cholesterol lowering effect of oat ?
(A) Beta amylase
(B) Beta glucan
(C) Lipase activity
(D) High Pentosans

47.

There is a considerable variation in the protein contents among the cereals. Which of the
following cereals contain highest percentage of protein content ?
(A) Brown rice (B) Sorghum
(C) Maize
(D) Pearl Millet

48.

Cereals contain appreciable amounts of toxic or antinutritional substances. Which of the
following antinutritional substance is not found in appreciable quantity in cereals ?
(A) Tannins
(B) Phytates
(C) Polyphenols (D) Saponins

49.

Foods can be classified according to their pH values into low acid, medium acid, acid
and highly acid foods. Which of the following class of food does not have correct pH
value ?
(A) Low acid pH 5.0 and higher

peas, beans, asparagus
(B) Medium acid pH 5.0 – 4.5

meat, spaghetti, soups
(C) Acid pH 4.5–3.7

sauerkraut, rhubarb, berries
(D) Highly acid pH 3.7 and below

pickles, citrus juices

50.

A mixture of water and sodium chloride can be separated by
(A) Evaporation
(B) Simple distillation
(C) Fractional distillation
(D) Decantation

51.

The watery part of milk separated from curd during cheese making is extensively used in
the manufacturing of
(A) Lactic acid (B) Amines
(C) Protein
(D) Starch

52.

The element which is required in the largest amounts by the human body is
(A) Calcium
(B) Zinc
(C) Iodine
(D) Iron

53.

Typical temperatures for a range of food processing operations are indicated below.
Indicate which one of the following is a mismatch.
(A) Spray drying, Baking

200-250 °C
(B) Extrusion cooking, UHT

140-150 °C
(C) Canning

110-125 °C
(D) Pasteurization, hot-air drying

50-100 °C

Set - A

7

FT

54.

Enthalpy is the heat content or energy level in a system per unit mass, and its unit is :
(A) Joules/kg
(B) Joules/kg °C
(C) W/m °C
(D) None of the above

55.

A technique for separating proteins and nucleic acids on the basis of charge and
molecular size is known as
(A) Chromatography
(B) SE-HPLC
(C) RP-HPLC
(D) Electrophoresis

56.

An analytical procedure where the weight of a food constituent is measured after suitable
treatments is called
(A) Gravimetric analysis
(B) Titrimetric analysis
(C) Physical analysis
(D) Volumetric procedure

57.

Protein can be assessed in foods by several methods. Which one of the following method
is not used for protein estimation ?
(A) Kjeldahl method
(B) Formol titration
(C) Thermal combustion method
(D) Soxhlet method

58.

Which of the following organism play important role in the production of pickles ?
(A) Distiller yeast
(B) S. cerevisiae
(C) Lactobacillus plantarum
(D) Azatobacter

59.

India ranks first in the world for annual production of
(A) Milk
(B) Cereal grains
(C) Rabbit Meat
(D) Vegetables & fruits

60.

Khoa is prepared by continuous boiling of milk until desired concentration is achieved.
The total solids in khoa is
(A) 95 - 92 percent
(B) 85 - 82 percent
(C) 75 - 78 percent
(D) 65 - 72 percent

61.

Which one of the following compounds provides food to yeast ?
(A) Ammonium chloride
(B) Diastase
(C) Zymase
(D) Ammonium sulphate

62.

In case of jelly the phenomenon of spontaneous exudation of fluid from a gel is called
(A) Cloudy jelly
(B) Foggy jelly
(C) Weeping jelly
(D) Synegy jelly

Set - A

8

FT

63.

Tomatoes are processed into a variety of products such as tomato juice, puree, paste and
ketchup. These products should have minimum prescribed total/tomato solid. Which of
the following product has incorrect percentage of solids.
(A) Tomato paste should have not less than 25 percent of tomato solids
(B) Tomato ketchup contains not less than 12 percent tomato solids
(C) Tomato puree contains not less than 20 percent tomato solids
(D) Tomato juice should have a total solids content of 5.66 percent

64.

Vinegar is a fermented product, which contains varying amounts of fruit acids, colouring
matter, salts and a few other fermentation products those impart a characteristics flour
and aroma to the product. It should contain at least
(A) 6 percent acetic acid
(B) 8 percent acetic acid
(C) 10 percent acetic acid
(D) 4 percent acetic acid

65.

Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?
(A) Thermal capacity
– calorie/°C
(B) Latent heat
– calorie/gm
(C) Heat
– Joule
(D) Specific heat
– calorie/gm/°C

66.

For a gram of water to change into gas, 540 calories is required. This energy
requirement is called
(A) Heat of solidification
(B) Heat of vaporization
(C) Heat of fusion
(D) Heat of evaporation

67.

Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?
(A) Ascorbic acid
– antioxidant
(B) Benzoic acid
– preservative
(C) Monosodium glutamate – anticaking agent
(D) BHQ
– antioxidant

68.

Which of the following term is incorrectly defined ?
(A) TSS is the amount of sugars and water soluble substances present in fruit and
vegetables
(B) De-tartarisation is the elimination of sodium bi-tartrate from fruit beverages
(C) Pasteurization is the process of heat treatment used to reduce the total microflora,
especially pathogenic bacteria
(D) Decanter is the process of removal of suspended material from fruit juice

Set - A

9

FT

69.

Jam is a product with reasonably thick consistency, firm enough to hold the fruit tissues
in position and is made by boiling fruit pulp with sufficient sugar. It contains 0.5-0.6 %
acid and invert sugar in it should not be more than
(A) 40 percent
(B) 35 percent
(C) 25 percent
(D) 10 percent

70.

The finishing or end point of jam can be determined by the following methods, except
(A) Drop test
(B) Jel test
(C) Sheet test
(D) Refractometer test

71.

Which of the following fruit product has incorrect TSS in accordance with FPO
specifications ?
(A) Fruit jam
68 % TSS (minimum)
(B) Fruit jelly
65 % TSS (minimum)
(C) Marmalade 68 % TSS (minimum)
(D) Fruit preserve 68 % TSS (minimum)

72.

In milk processing the lower-temperature longer-time process operating at 63 °C for
30 min causes greater changes to flavour and slightly greater loss of vitamins than HTST
method where milk is processed at
(A) 72 °C for 15 s
(B) 90 °C for 0.1 s
(C) 90 °C for 0.01 s
(D) 90°C for 1 s

73.

The process of drying in which ice is directly converted into vapours is known as
(A) Cabinet drying
(B) Sun drying
(C) Sublimation
(D) Tunnel drying

74.

Which of the following statements correctly describes HACCP ?
(A) Hazard analysis and quality control point.
(B) Hazard analysis and critical control point.
(C) Hazard assessment and quality control point.
(D) Hazard assessment and critical control point.

75.

In wheat dough, the starch is converted into sugar by the action of
(A) Amylase
(B) Protease
(C) Lipase
(D) Zymase

76.

Which of the following is incorrectly matched for measuring the tenderness of food
items ?
(A) Pastry

Shortometer

Compressimeter
(C) Apple

Texture analyzer
(D) Grape Jelly

Masticometer

Set - A

10

FT

77.

Night blindness is the problem faced by millions of people all over the world. It is caused
by Vitamin A deficiency. Which of the following is true for Vitamin A ?
(A) Vitamin A is synthesized by using beta-carotene, a chemical present in many
yellow fruits and vegetables.
(B) It is needed for our cardiovascular well-being
(C) It maintains healthy immune system
(D) All of the above

78.

Which of the following is not an essential amino acid ?
(A) Cystine
(B) Isoleucine
(C) Lysine

(D) Valine

79.

The liquid separated in the process of milk coagulation by application of either rennet or
acid to precipitate casein is called
(A) Wash liquid
(B) Affluent liquid
(C) Whey
(D) Creamy fluid

80.

Moisture content is often specified in compositional standards. Which of the following
product is incorrectly matched for moisture or solid contents ?
(A) Biscuits
40 percent moisture
(B) Raisins
18 percent moisture
20 percent moisture
(D) Honey
17 percent moisture

81.

Invert sugar syrup is basically an equimolecular combination of Glucose and Fructose,
which is sweeter than sucrose by

82.

About two percent of world population shows allergy called celiac disease to wheat grain
protein. Which of the following is that protein ?
(A) Globulin
(C) Gluten
(D) Albumin

83.

Which of the following statement with respect to vitamin stability in foods is incorrect ?
(A) Vitamin A is normally not affected by heat processing but it is destroyed by UV
rays and air.
(B) Vitamin C is unstable to heat but destroyed by acids
(C) Vitamin D is increased in ultraviolet radiation
(D) B complex Vitamins are more heat stable

Set - A

11

FT

84.

Enzymes and other additives are used as processing aids. Rennet is used in one of
following the food products :
(A) Wine making
(B) Cheese manufacture
(C) Yogurt making
(D) Butter manufacture

85.

The milling process results in some loss of food value. The refinement of cereal grains
result in the loss of vitamin
(A) K
(B) E
(C) B
(D) C

86.

The food constituents undergo changes on processing. Milk fat in butter should be
(A) not less than 80%
(B) 65%
(C) 75%
(D) not less than 90%

87.

The food constituents provide us energy to work. The principal sources of food energy
are
(A) fats and protein
(B) proteins and carbohydrates
(C) carbohydrates and fats
(D) vitamins and carbohydrates

88.

Many diet related disorders occur in human beings. Kwashiorkor is a disease related to
(A) Fatty acid deficiency
(B) Vitamin deficiency
(C) Food energy deficiency
(D) Protein deficiency

89.

Food poisoning occurs due to inadequate processing or poor handling of processed food
articles. The most dangerous food poisoning organism is
(A) Salmonella spp.
(B) Clostridium perfringeus
(C) Staphylococcus aureus
(D) Clostridium botulinum

90.

Raw agricultural commodities are processed for certain advantages. Food preservation
has the principal aim of suppressing
(A) Enzymatic changes
(B) Nutritional changes
(C) Microbial changes
(D) All the above

91.

Parboiling is used in the Asian countries for grain processing. Parboiling technique is
generally applied to
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Maize
(D) Millets

92.

Which of the following is correctly matched ?
(A) ISO 9001 - deals with product development & manufacturing
(B) ISO 9002 - companies doing only manufacturing
(C) ISO 9004 - deals with quality management and system
(D) All the above

Set - A

12

FT

93.

The designer foods refers to
(A) Food with increased levels of health promoting substances
(B) Foods those are contained in well-designed packaging materials for consumer
acceptance
(C) Foods those are raised by organic farming
(D) None of the above

94.

Which of the following is not true in relation to fats ?
(A) Animal fats tend to have less unsaturation and are therefore harder fats
(B) Coconut and palm kernel oil have short to medium chain saturated fatty acids
causing these to be solid at room temperature
(C) Fats are a concern because they have a high caloric density of 7 cal/g
(D) Fats are a medium of heat transfer and are used to thermally process number of
food products.

95.

A wet food product contains 70% water. After drying, it is found that 80% of original
water has been removed. How much mass of water is removed per kilogram of wet food ?
(A) 0.56 kg
(B) 0.60 kg
(C) 0.66 kg
(D) 0.76 kg

96.

The moisture content of a food product is 50% (wet basis). What would be the moisture
content on dry basis ?
(A) 100%
(B) 50%
(C) 60%
(D) 45%

97.

Test weight of rice grain is an important parameter of milling quality of rice. Which one
of the following is the correct range for full kernel weight of rice ?
(A) 15-29 mg
(B) 30-39 mg
(C) 40-49 mg
(D) 59-69 mg

98.

Fruit nectars are produced from fruit slurries or whole fruits by homogenization in the
presence of sugar, water and citric acid/ascorbic acid. The fruit contents in nectars should
be
(A) 25-50%
(B) 15-25%
(C) More than 50%
(D) 65%

99.

True density of grains is calculated by fluid displacement method using
(A) Rheometer
(B) Viscometer (C) Pycnometer (D) Declinometer

100.

As per PFA definition, the ice-cream should contain
(A) Not less than 40 percent TS
(B) Not less than 36 percent TS
(C) Not less than 46 percent TS
(D) Not less than 56 percent TS

101.

Food Safety and Standards Authority of India has been established to regulate food
processing industries. It has
(A) Eleven members including chairman
(B) Nine members including chairman
(C) Seven members including chairman
(D) Five members including chairman

Set - A

13

FT

102.

Colour of a food product can be measured by following techniques/instrument :
(A) Hunter lab colour meter
(B) Spectrophotometer
(C) Tintometer
(D) All the above

103.

Malting process allows malt amylase and proteinases to degrade starch and protein to
(A) glucose and peptone as well as peptides
(B) glucose and amino acids
(C) maltose and peptone as well as peptides
(D) maltose and amino acids

104.

Which one of the following is a water-soluble pigment ?
(A) Anthrocyanin (B) Chlorophylls (C) Phycocyanin (D) Carotene

105.

There are several ways of arriving at the standards for product quality but four methods
are commonly used which are given below, except
(A) Company or voluntary standards (B) Legal standards
(C) Guided standards
(D) Industry standards

106.

How many high molecular weights subunits are contained in a single wheat cultivar ?
(A) 1-2 HMW-GS
(B) 3-5 HMW-GS
(C) 2-6 HMW-GS
(D) 4-5 HMW-GS

107.

Wheat gluten proteins are classified into gluten forming and non-gluten forming proteins.
The average percentage of gluten forming proteins in bread wheat cultivars is
(A) 40 percent
(B) 50 percent
(C) 60 percent
(D) 80 percent

108.

Water activity of some food is given below. Which one is mismatched ?
(A) Condensed milk - 0.80 aw
(B)

Jam

-

0.75 aw

(C)

Biscuits

-

0.30 aw

-

0.70 aw

109.

Sulfur dioxide is a food preservative that has following characteristics, except
(A) Effective at various pH conditions
(B) Its mechanism of activity is unknown
(C) Used in dried fruits, wine, lemon juice, fruit juices
(D) Active against bacteria but not active against fungi

110.

Falling number value is linked to amylase activity in wheat flour. Which of the following
falling number value is recommended in flour for bread making ?
(A) 500 sec
(B) 400 sec
(C) 600 sec
(D) 250 sec

Set - A

14

FT

111.

The viscoelasticity of wheat gluten is linked to which of the following HMW-GS ?
(A) 2+12
(B) 20
(C) 7+8
(D) 5+10

112.

Name fungi used for cheese making
(A) Penicillium camemberti
(C) Penicillium notatum

(B) Penicillium gaualum
(D) Penicillium chrysogenum

113.

Food preservation has the principal aim of suppressing
(A) Microbial changes
(B) Enzymatic changes
(C) Nutritional changes
(D) All the above

114.

Much of the niacin in corn is in a bound form and this led to a disorder in population
where corn is the staple food. This niacin deficiency is known
(A) Jaundice
(B) NTD
(C) Rickets
(D) Pellagra

115.

Folic acid is a/an
(A) B vitamin

(B)

Amino acid

(C)

Fatty acid

(D) Mineral

116.

Which one is incorrectly matched ?
(A) Vitamin C
Scurvy
(B) Thiamin
Beriberi
(C) Protein
Kwashiorkor
(D) Vitamin D
Marasmus

117.

Which of the following is matched incorrectly ?
(A) Retort Pouch
flexible packaging material
(B) Hedonic scale
food testing
(C) RDA
recommended dietary allowances
(D) Flavor
a blend of taste and smell

118.

Some vitamins also act as antioxidants. Identify such vitamins from the choices given
below:
(A) Vitamin C and E
(B) Vitamin A and B2
(C) Vitamin D and K
(D) Vitamin B-compex

119.

Vitamin A is present in
(A) Green vegetables
(C) Liver

120.

(B) Milk
(D) All the above

The common term used for water-soluble protein
(A) Zein
(B) Albumin
(C) Conjugated proteins
(D) Gluten
___________

Set - A

15

FT

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Set - A

16

FT

1
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40

D
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A
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A
B
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D
C
C
C
A
D
D
A
C
B
A
A
B
B
A
B
C
A
D
C
B

FOOD TECHNOLOGY (FT)
SET-A
41
D
42
B
43
C
44
C
45
A
46
B
47
D
48
D
49
C
50
A
51
A
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A
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B
54
A
55
D
56
A
57
D
58
C
59
A
60
D
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D
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C
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C
64
D
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C
66
B
67
C
68
B
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A
70
B
71
C
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A
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B
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D
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120

A
C
B
B
C
A
C
D
D
D
A
D
A
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A
A
A
A
C
B
A
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B
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D
D
D
B
A
D
C
A
D
C
A
D
B

Booklet No. :

A
SET

GG - 15

Geo Engineering & Geo Informatics
Duration of Test : 2 Hours

Max. Marks : 120

Hall Ticket No.
Name of the Candidate :
Date of Examination :

Signature of the Candidate

Signature of the Invigilator

INSTRUCTIONS
1.

This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.

2.

Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.

3.

Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.

4.

This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.

5.

Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.

6.

on the OMR sheet carefully.

7.

OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.

8.

Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.

9.

No part of the Booklet should be detached under any circumstances.

10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

GG-15-A

GEO ENGINEERING & GEO INFORMATICS
1.

2.

The solution of the equations x + 3 y + 2 z = 0 , x + 4 y + 3z = 0 and x + 5 y + 4 z = 0
(A)

x = y = 1, z = −1

(C)

y = z = 1, x = −1

0
either -1 or +1

(B)

1
neither 0 nor 1

∂( x, y)
=
∂( r , θ )

r

(C)

1

(D) none

(C)

zero

(D) a scalar

If φ is any scalar function then ∇φ is
(A) solenoidal

5.

(B)
(D)

If x = r cos θ and y = r sinθ then
(A) 0

4.

x = z = 1, y = −1
(D) none

The eigen values of an orthogonal matrix are
(A)
(C)

3.

(B)

If u ( x, y ) =

(A)

(B)

irrotational

∂u
∂u
x2 y2
then x + y
is equal to
2
2
∂x
∂y
x +y

2u

(B)

4u

(C)

1
u
2

(D)

1
u
4

6.

The real and imaginary parts of a complex analytic function are called
(A) even functions
(B) odd functions
(C) none of these
(D) harmonics

7.

A complex function f ( z ) = u( x, y) + iv( x, y) is analytic then
(A)

(C)

8.

∂u
∂v
=−
∂y
∂x
∂u ∂v
=
∂y ∂x

(B)

(D)

∂u
=0
∂x

∂u
=0
∂y

If the mean and variance of a binomial distributed random variable are 4 and 3
respectively then the probability distribution is
(A)

Cx8 (1/ 4) x (3 / 4)8− x

(B)

Cx8 (1/ 3) x (2 / 3)8− x

(C)

x
16 − x
C16
x (1/ 4) (3 / 4)

(D)

None

Set - A

2

GG

9.

If the number of road accidents during the peak period of a day follow Poisson
distribution with 2 accidents on an average, the probability that on a given day there will
be atleast one accident is
(A)

10.

e−2 2
1!

(C)

1 − e−2

(D) None

1 – 1z2
The variance of a standard normal distribution
e 2 is

(A) 1

11.

(B)

e−2 2
1+
1!

(B)

0

The shape of the earth is
(A) Sphere
(B) Ellipse

1

(C)

0.5

(D)

(C)

Spheroid

(D) Circular

12.

The densest central part of the earth which is composed of the inner and outer cores is
known as
(A) Hydrosphere
(B) Asthemosphere
(C) Lithosphere
(D) Barysphere

13.

The diameter at equator of the earth is
(A) 12713 km
(B) 12756 km

(C)

6357 km

Mass Density of the whole earth is
(A) 1.03 g/cm3
(B) 2.8 g/cm3

(C)

10.72 g/cm3

Isostasy refers to
(A) Gravitational equilibrium
(C) Plate tectonics

(B) Continental drift
(D) Volcanic activity

14.

15.

(D) 6371 km

(D)

16.

Which of the following explains the hypothesis of sea floor spreading ?
(A) Earth quakes
(B) Thermal convection
(C) Tsunami
(D) Gravitation

17.

The movement of the continents relative to one another is termed
(A) Plate tectonics
(B) Diastrophism
(C) Continental drift

18.

The estimate of reasonably reliable age of the earth is based on
(A) Gradual development of earth features
(B) Normal processes of sedimentation
(C) Evolutionary sequence indicated by fossils

Set - A

3

5.52 g/cm3

GG

19.

An ice sheet that covers mountains and plains of large section of continent is called
(A) Continental Glacier
(B) Composite glacier
(C) Calving
(D) Cirque

20.

The causes for cyclonic storm wind circulation to be counter clockwise in the Northern
hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern hemisphere is due to
(A) Deflation
(B) Bore
(C) Gravitation (D) Coriolis effect

21.

Name the location where the highest seamount is found
(A) Esperance, Australia
(B) West coast of India
(C) Tonga trench, New Zealand
(D) Near Andaman island

22.

Vast plains form deep layer of sediment lying 3500 m below sea level
(A) Submarine canyon
(B) Abyssal plain
(C) Guyot
(D) Trench

23.

The study of regular pattern of faces and angles between the faces and of the internal
structure of the mineral to which it is related, is called
(A) Crystallography
(B) Twinning
(C) Tenacity
(D) Palaeontology

24.

The _______ is the colour of the powdered mineral which is most readily seen by
scraping the mineral across a plate of unglazed hard porcelain.
(A) Streak
(B) Tenacity
(C) Cleavage
(D) lustre

25.

The following is a symbolic structure for the clay minerals and its representing structure
of

(A) Kaolin

(B)

Serpentine

(C)

Illite

(D) Montmorillonite

26.

The relative hardness (H) of quartz as per the arbitrary scale of ten standard minerals,
arranged in Mohs’ scale of hardness is
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 7
(D) 10

27.

The term reniform used to describe crystal habit means
(A) kidney shaped
(C) bunch of grapes
(D) long crystals—like fibres

Set - A

4

GG

28.

Minerals with specific gravities between 4.5 and 7.5 include
(A) native metallic elements such as pure copper, gold and silver.
(B) metallic ores such as sulphides and oxides
(C) silicates and carbonates
(D) sulphates and halides

29.

The dominant agent in dynamic metamorphism is
(A) increased stress
(B) increased temperature
(C) increased temperature or pressure
(D) both, increased temperature and pressure

30.

Grain size of gneiss is
(A) fine to medium grained
(C) medium to coarse grained

(B) fine grained
(D) medium grained

31.

Sum of specific yield and specific retention is equal to
(A) Permeability
(C) Porosity
(D) Hydraulic conductivity

32.

Rocks that are formed by the accumulation and compaction of fragments from preexisting rocks which have been disintegrated by erosion are called
(A) Igneous rocks
(B) Metamorphic rocks
(C) Extrusive rocks
(D) Sedimentary rocks

33.

What are spectral bands useful for rock type mapping ?
(A) Visible and short wave infrared bands
(B) Thermal infrared data
(D) Near infrared data

34.

The type of rock which can be readily identified in Arial photography
(A) Sedimentary rock
(B) Igneous rock
(C) Metamorphic rock
(D) Lime stone

35.

Which of the following is more strong and impervious ?
(A) Granite
(B) Mica schist’s
(C) Lime stones
(D) Shale

36.

The angle between two plane mirrors of an optical square is
(A) 30°
(B) 60°
(C) 45°
(D)

Set - A

5

90°
GG

37.

Reciprocal ranging is adopted when the following is encountered
(A) a dense forest (B) a hillock
(C) a river
(D) a tall building

38.

An instrument used for measuring the angle of a slope is
(A) Planimeter
(B) Clinometer
(C) Tacheometer
(D) Omnimeter

39.

The instrument used to reproduce plans to a different scale is called
(A) Planimeter
(B) Clinometer (C) Ghat tracer (D) Pantograph

40.

The method which is most commonly used in triangulation survey
(A) Repetition
(B) Reiteration
(C) Both A and B
(D) None

41.

The contours which are parallel and equidistant of an area, then that area should be
(A) Flat
(B) Steep slope (C) Gentle slope (D) Uniform slope.

42.

The most rapid method of orientation by the three-point method of plane tabling is the
(A) Tracing paper method
(B) Graphical method
(C) Trial and error method
(D) Both A and B

43.

Geodetic surveying is different from plane surveying because of
(A) The curvature of the earth
(B) The large difference of elevations between various points
(C) Coverage is large
(D) Undulations of the topography

44.

If the R.L. of a B.M. is 100.00 m, the back sight is 1.215 m and the foresight is 1.870 m,
the R.L. of the forward station is
(A) 99.345 m
(B) 100.345 m
(C) 100.655 m (D) 101.870 m

45.

The process of revolving the telescope through 360° about its transverse horizontal axis
is known as
(A) Setting
(B) Focusing
(C) Transiting (D) Centering

46.

Systematic errors in survey works is known as
(A) Natural errors
(B) Personal errors
(C) Compensating errors
(D) Cumulative errors

Set - A

6

GG

47.

The ratio of map distance to the corresponding ground distance is called
(A) Graphical scale
(B) Engineer’s scale
(C) Representative fraction
(D) Numerical scale

48.

Which among the following is large scale map ?
(B) Atlas
(C) Wall map
(D) Globe

49.

SOI Toposheets are of _____ map projection.
(A) Conic
(B) Polyconic
(C) UTM

(D) Cylindrical

50.

Spatial relationships between features is called
(A) Topology
(B) Topography
(C) Photo-geology
(D) DEM

51.

Triangulated Irregular Network is
(A) Land use / land cover classification
(B) Consists of elevation data with x, y coordinates
(C) Vector model of elevation
(D) Steroscopic view of an image

52.

The process of filling each cell of a new grid with the value of the corresponding cell or
cells in an original grid is termed as
(A) Resampling
(B) Affine
(C) Rubber sheeting
(D) Stretching

53.

Relational database is
(A) A database that is organized at different levels and uses the one-to-many
association between levels.
(B) A database that contains all data in a large table.
(C) A database that consists of a collection of tables and uses keys to connect the
tables.
(D) A database that is based on the built-in-connections across tables.

54.

Conformal Projection is
(A) One type of map projection that uses a cylinder as the projection surface.
(B) One type of map projection that uses a polyconic as the projection surface.
(C) One type of map projection that preserves local shapes.
(D) One type of map projection that retains certain accurate directions. It uses a plane
as the projection surface.

Set - A

7

GG

55.

Contour interval is equal to
(A) the value of a contour
(B) difference of value between consecutive contours
(C) horizontal shortest distance between consecutive contours
(D) slope of the contour line

56.

Flow direction grid is
(A) the directional measure of slope
(B) the vertical distance between contour lines
(C) a graphic method which simulates how the land surface looks with the interaction
between sunlight and landform features.
(D) that shows the direction that water will flow out of each cell of a DEM.

57.

A map projection preserves the following
(A) Area
(B) Shape
(C) Direction
(D) One of the above

58.

The instrument for plotting planimetry is
(A) Digital photogrammetry
(B)
(C)
Stereometer
(D)

Theodolite
Altimeter

59.

Buffering in GIS analysis refers to
(A) An overlay method that preserves only those features that fall within the area
extent common to the input and overlay maps.
(B) A GIS operation, in which each point of a point map is assigned attribute data of
the polygon within which it falls.
(C) A GIS operation in which areas that are within a specified distance of selected map
features are separated from areas that are beyond.
(D) A polygon –on-polygon overlay method that preserves all features from the input
and overlay maps extent defined by the input map

60.

If ‘f ’ is the focal length of an Aerial camera lens and ‘H’ is the flying height above the
mean terrain then f/H is equal to
(A) Tilt
(B) Relief
(C) Vertical exaggeration
(D) Scale

61.

_______ measures (in geometric transformation) the deviation between the actual
location and the estimated location of the tie (control) points.
(A) Mean
(B) Mode
(C) Root Mean Square (RMS)
(D) Chi square

Set - A

8

GG

62.

Slivers defined as
(A) Overshoot arcs
(B) Undershoot arcs
(C) Very small polygons found along the shared boundary of the two input maps in
map overlay, often resulted from digitizing
(D) A polygon –on-polygon overlay method that preserves all features from the input
and overlay maps

63.

(A) The directional measure of slope
(B) The vertical distance between contour lines
(C) A graphic method which simulates how the land surface looks with the interaction
between sunlight and landform features.
(D) A grid that shows the direction water will flow out of each cell of a DEM.

64.

The raster data analysis operation that involves a focus cell and a set of its surrounding
cells
(A) Band ratioing
(B) NDVI
(C) Neighbourhood operation
(D) Classification

65.

Geo-referencing is
(A) The process of filling each cell of a new grid with the value of the corresponding
cell or cells in an original grid
(B) The process of using a set of control points to convert images from image
coordinates to real–world coordinates
(C) Selecting Bench Mark
(D) Referring to astronomical survey

66.

Flat file is defined as
(A) A database that is organized at different levels and uses the one-to-many
association between levels
(B) A database that contains all data in a large table
(C) A database that consists of a collection of tables and uses keys to connect the
tables
(D) A database that is based on the built-in-connections across tables

67.

The Scattering process which explains about blue sky, red sunset etc. is known as
(A) Rayleigh
(B) Mie
(C) Non-selective
(D)
Selective

Set - A

9

GG

68.

Atmospheric windows are present in
(A) only visible part
(B) visible part and infrared regions of EM spectrum
(C) only infrared regions of EM spectrum
(D) Ultraviolet region

69.

The average spectrum reflectance values of an object observed for distinct wavelength
bands will indicate
(A) Mean spectral reflectance
(B) Spectral characteristics
(C) Spectral signature

70.

Thermal IR imagery is usually obtained in the wavelength regions of
(A) less than 0.7 micrometre
(B) 3 to 5.5 and 8 to 14 micrometre
(C) 3 to 35 micrometre
(D) above 35 micrometre

71.

At Nadir point, geometrical distortion is
(A) zero
(B)
(C) average
(D)

highest
varies with focal length of camera lens

72.

For a stereoscopic coverage, Aerial photography is normally flown with
(A) 25% forward slope and 60% side lap
(B) 30% overlap
(C) 60% forward overlap and 25% side lap
(D) No overlap is required

73.

Aspect is defined as
(A) The directional measure of slope
(B) The vertical distance between contour lines
(C) A graphic method which simulates how the land surface looks with the interaction
between sunlight and landform features.
(D) A grid that shows the direction water will flow out of each cell of a DEM.

74.

Map overlay is
(A) A distance tolerance used to force points and lines to be snapped together if they
fall within the specified distance
(B) A GIS operation that combines the geometry and attributes of two digital maps to
create the output
(C) A GIS operation in which areas that are within a specified distance of selected map
features are separated from areas that are beyond
(D) An overlay method that preserves only features that fall within the area extent
defined by the input map

Set - A

10

GG

75.

The basic assumptions of unit hydrograph theory are
(A) Linear response and non linear time variance
(B) Linear response and time variance
(C) Non-linear response and time variance
(D) Linear response and linear time variance

76.

Specific capacity of a confined well under equilibrium conditions and within the working
limits of drawdown
(A) Is constant at all drawdowns
(B) Decrease with the increasing drawdown
(C) Increases with drawdown
(D) Increases with decreasing drawdown

77.

For unconfined aquifers, the storage coefficient
(A) Is essentially same as the specific yield
(B) Is essentially same as the specific retention
(C) Is essentially same as the porosity
(D) Doesn’t exist

78.

A 6 hour storm had 6 cm of rainfall and 3 cm of runoff. If the infiltration index (φ)
remains at the same value, a rainfall excess 12 cm in a 15 hour storm produces a runoff
in this catchment of
(A) 3 cm
(B) 4.5 cm
(C) 6 cm
(D) 7.5 cm

79.

The rain gauge station density as per BIS recommendation for plains is approximately
equal to one station per _______ sq.km.
(A) 130
(B) 260
(C) 390
(D) 520

80.

The recording type rain-gauge gives
(A) Mass curve of rainfall
(C) Total rainfall of 24 hours period

(B) Rainfall per second
(D) Hourly rainfall

81.

The hyetograph is related to
(A) Runoff curve
(B) Hourly rainfall of a storm
(C) Line joining points of equal rainfall
(D) Hydrograph

82.

Time taken for the runoff to be equal to rainfall in urban catchments is known as
(A) Basin time lag
(B) Rainfall duration
(C) Equilibrium time
(D) Peak flood time

Set - A

11

GG

83.

84.

The best method of estimating runoff is
(A) Unit Hydrograph

(B)

(C)

(D) Infiltration index method

Rational formula

If K is permeability coefficient and d is depth of aquifer, the transmissibility coefficient
is equal to
(A) d/K

85.

(B)

K/d

87.

88.

91.

(D) Capillary moisture

(B)

(C)

(D) Above water table

Below water table

Below HFL

The permeability coefficient of an aquifer can be determined by
(A) Pumping test

(B)

(C)

(D) All the above

Topographical surveying

Soil test

In Duipt’s theory, the assumption made that the aquifer is
(B)

Confined

(C)

Isotropic

(D) Anisotropic

Aquifer

(D) Hydrograph

The cone of depression is related to
(B)

River intake (C)

The drawdown is increasing towards
(A) Nearest observation well

(B)

(C)

(D) Spring

Farthest observation well

Testing well

The solid part of the earth’s crust is known as
(A) Atmosphere

92.

(D) K*d

(A) Above the channel bed

(A) Reservoir
90.

K+d

The capillary fringe is

(A) Unconfined
89.

(C)

The amount of water in soil mass not useful to plant’s growth is
(A) Available moisture
(C) Hygroscopic water

86.

Runoff-Coefficient Method

(B)

Hydrosphere (C)

Lithosphere (D) Biosphere

Blue Planet is the name given to the earth due to the presence of
(A) Ice

(B)

Ocean

(C)

(D)

Ice, water and water vapour

Set - A

Water vapour

12

GG

93.

Which of the following refers to life zone on earth ?
(A) Hydrosphere (B)

94.

96.

97.

98.

(B)

Calcium

100.

Humus

(D) Microbes

(B)

(C)

(D) Fungi, Bacteria and Protozoa

Only Bacteria

Bacteria and Protozoa

Which of the following are consumers ?
(A) Herbivores

(B)

(C)

(D) All the above

Decomposers

Carnivores

Now-a-days, to monitor and control the environment pollution, an increasing threat to be
considered is
(A) Ozone layer depletion

(B)

(C)

(D) Water pollution

Air pollution

Global warming

World environment day is observed on
(C)

17th July

(D) 22nd September

The biotic components of environment are
(A) Autotrophs

(B)

(C)

(D) Petrophs

Autotrophs and Heterotrophs

Heterotrophs

The optimum moisture content for clay will be
(B)

12-16%

(C)

8-12%

(D) 6-10%

The void ratio of a soil sample is 0.5, then porosity of the sample is
(A) 0.5

102.

(C)

(A) Fungi and Bacteria

(A) 14-20%
101.

Atmosphere (D) Lithosphere

Which of the following depends on autotrophs for both energy and raw materials to make
complex organic molecules ?

(A) 1st December (B) 5th June
99.

(C)

Which of the following is not an abiotic component of earth’s environment ?
(A) Soil

95.

Biosphere

(B)

1.0

(C)

0.33

(D)

0.25

The swelling nature of black cotton soil is primarily due to the presence of
(A) Kaolinite

(B)

(C)

(D) Vermiculite

Set - A

Montmorillonite

13

Illite

GG

103.

The liquid limit and plastic limit of a soil sample is 45% and 25% respectively. In the
liquid limit test of the soil sample, its water content varied from 5% to 25%. When the
number of blows increased from 10 to 100, the toughness index of the soil is
(A) 1.0
(B) 0.75
(C) 0.50
(D) 2.0

104.

The useful moisture of a soil is equal to its
(A) Field capacity
(B) Saturation capacity
(C) Moisture content at permanent wilting point
(D) Difference between field capacity and permanent wilting point within the root zone
of plants

105.

Texture of a soil is largely reflected by the particle
(A) Size
(B) Shape
(C) Size and Shape

106.

The Critical void ratio is the void ratio at which volume change is
(A) Constant
(B) Zero
(C) Maximum (D) Minimum

107.

The optimum moisture content is the water content at which the dry density is
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Constant
(D) Maximum

108.

During liquefaction, soil will have
(A) Gain of shear strength
(C) Erosion

(B)
(D)

Loss of shear strength
Sedimentation

109.

Soils that are formed by disintegration of rocks in place under various actions are known
as
(A) Residual soils
(B) Alluvial soils
(C) Aeolian soils
(D) Colluvial soils

110.

According to Darcy’s law, as porosity (n) of soil sample increases, the seepage velocity
(Vs)
(A) increases
(C) decreases

111.

(B) constant
(D) independent of porosity

The function that defines the entry point and exit point of a C program is
(A) printf
(B) scanf
(C) main( )
(D) float c

Set - A

14

GG

112.

In C, ‘for’, ‘while’, ‘do-while’ are types of
(A) Errors

113.

115.

119.

(B)

Structures

(C)

Arrays

(D) Pointers

(C)

(D) (&) AND operator

(!) OR operator

(? :) Conditional operator

Which of the following is a decision control structure ?
(B)

else

(C)

char

(D) switch-case

Which of the following is not a type of storage class in C ?
(C)

extern

(D) auto

(B)

register

(C)

&a

(D) %a

(A) Library functions

(B)

Loops

(C)

(D) Data types

A pointer is generally notated as
(B)

*a

int, char and float are
Operators

Which of the following is not a library function ?
(A) clrscr( )

120.

(D) Library functions

(B)

(A) a[ ]
118.

Data types

(A) (.) Dot operator

(A) stack
117.

(C)

The structure elements are accessed using _______ operator.

(A) scanf
116.

Loops

A collection of similar elements stored in adjacent locations are called
(A) Functions

114.

(B)

(B)

(C)

getch( )

(D) scanf( )

Fuzzy tolerance
(A) Distance tolerance used to force points and lines to be snapped together if they fall
within the specified distance.
(B)

A GIS operation that combines the geometry and attributes of two digital maps to
create the output.

(C)

Very small polygons found along the shared boundary of the two input maps in
map overlay, often resulted from digitizing.

(D) An overlay method that preserves only features that fall within the area extent
defined by the input map.
_____________
Set - A

15

GG

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Set - A

16

GG

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40

GEO ENGINEERING & GEO INFORMATICS (GG)
SET-A
D
B
41
81
C
C
42
82
A
B
43
83
A
B
44
84
C
A
45
85
D
D
46
86
C
C
47
87
A
D
48
88
B
D
49
89
A
A
50
90
C
C
51
91
D
A
52
92
B
C
53
93
D
C
54
94
A
B
55
95
B
D
56
96
C
D
57
97
D
C
58
98
A
C
59
99
D
D
60
100
C
C
61
101
B
C
62
102
A
C
63
103
A
C
64
104
A
B
65
105
C
B
66
106
A
A
67
107
B
B
68
108
A
C
69
109
C
B
70
110
C
A
71
111
D
C
72
112
A
A
73
113
B
B
74
114
A
B
75
115
C
B
76
116
B
A
77
117
B
B
78
118
D
D
79
119
B
A
80
120

B
C
A
D
C
D
A
C
C
B
C
D
B
D
D
D
B
B
C
A
C
C
C
D
D
B
D
B
A
C
C
B
C
A
B
A
B
D
B
A

Booklet No. :

A
SET

EI - 15

Instrumentation Engineering
Duration of Test : 2 Hours

Max. Marks : 120

Hall Ticket No.
Name of the Candidate :
Date of Examination :

Signature of the Candidate

Signature of the Invigilator

INSTRUCTIONS
1.

This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.

2.

Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.

3.

Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.

4.

This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.

5.

Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.

6.

on the OMR sheet carefully.

7.

OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.

8.

Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.

9.

No part of the Booklet should be detached under any circumstances.

10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

EI-15-A

INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING (EI)
1.

2.

3.

The set of the equations x + y + z = 3 , x + 2 y + 3z = 4 and x + 4 y + 9 z = 6 has
(A) unique solution

(B)

(C)

(D) no solution

many solutions

 2 0 1 
The three eigen values of the matrix  0 2 0  are
 1 0 2 
(A) 0, 0, 3
(B) 1, 2, 3
(C) 1, –i, i

(B)

7.

F = ∇2φ

1
sin 2x is
(D – 2)2

1
sin 2x
4

x
cos2
cos 2x
2

(B)

The complete integral of

0

(D) equal to bn

(C)

F = ∇φ

1
(C)
4

cos 2x

(D) none

(D) none

p + q = 1 is

(A)

z = ax + by + c

(B)

z = x + y +c

(C)

z = ax + (1 – a)2y + c

(D)

z = ax + (1 − a ) y + c

If f ( z ) =
(A) 0

8.

(B)

The particular integral
(A)

6.

does not exist (C)

If F is a conservative force field, then there exist a scalar function φ
(A) ∇.F = 0

5.

(D) 2, 2, 2

If f (x) is an odd function in the interval (–L, L), then the Fourier coefficient an is
(A) 1

4.

trivial solution

z
then the residue of f ( z) at z = −2 is
( z + 1)( z + 2)

(B)

2

(C)

1

(D) –2

The variance of the random variable whose probability distribution function
e–λ λx
f(x) = x! , λ > 0 is
(A) λ2

Set - A

(B)

1
λ

(C)
2

λ

(D) 1
EI

9.

The minimum and maximum values of the coefficient of correlation are
(A) –1 and 1

10.

(B)

0 and 1

For the initial value problem

(C)

–1 and 0

(D) –2 and 2

dy
= x + y + x y and y(0) = 1 , then the value of y (0.025) by
dx

Euler’s method is
(A) 0.025
11.

(B)

0.15 J

(C)

0.5 J

(B)

√6 V

(C)

√8 V

(B)

ZP > ZG

(C)

ZP = ZG

(B)

R only

(C)

L only

(B)

3969 mH

(C)

32 mH

(D) √12 V

(D) ZP = 2 ZG

(D) R and L combination

(D) 63 mH

The short-circuit admittance matrix of two port network is 
network is

17.

(D) 1.15 J

The maximum value of mutual inductance of two coils inductively coupled coils with
self inductance of L1 = 49 mH and L2 = 81 mH is
(A) 130 mH

16.

(D) none

A DC voltage source is connected across a series RLC circuit. Under steady condition,
the applied DC voltage drops entirely across the
(A) C only

15.

1.025

A generator of internal impedance |ZG| delivers maximum power to a load impedance
ZP only if
(A) ZP < ZG

14.

(C)

The root-mean square value of voltage waveform consisting of a super imposition of
2 V dc and a 4 V peak to peak square wave is
(A) 2 V

13.

1.05

The energy stored in the magnetic field at a solenoid 30 cm long and 3 cm diameter
wound with 1000 turns of wire carrying a current of 10 A is
(A) 0.015 J

12.

(B)

0
1/2

(A) non-reciprocal and passive

(B)

(C)

(D) reciprocal and active

reciprocal and passive

1/2
, the two port
0

non-reciprocal and active

A circuit which resonates at 1 MHz has a Q of 100. Bandwidth between half-power point is
(A) 10 kHz

Set - A

(B)

100 kHz

(C)
3

10 Hz

(D) 100 Hz
EI

18.

A pressure gauge is calibrated from 0-50 kN/m2. It has a uniform scale with 100 scale
divisions. One fifth of a scale division can be read with certainty. The gauge has
(A) a resolution of 0.5 kN/m2
(B) threshold of 0.15 kN/m2
(C) resolution of 0.1 kN/m2
(D) dead zone of 0.2 kN/m2

19.

A capacitor is charged by a constant current of 2 mA and results in a voltage increase of
12 V in a 10 sec interval. The value of capacitance is
(A) 0.75 mF
(B) 1.33 mF
(C) 0.6 mF
(D) 1.67 mF

20.

The maximum probability has a large value for small value of
(A) standard deviation
(B) precision index
(C) uncertainty
(D) average deviation

21.

In second order system the frequency of damped oscillation is 18 rad /sec. The value of
damping factor is 0.866. The natural frequency of oscillation is

22.

The transfer function of a system is G(s) =   . The system 



(A) has a transportation lag
(C) is a linear system
23.

According to Chauvenet’s criterion, a reading out of a set of n readings should be
rejected if the probability of obtaining the deviation from mean is
(A) less than 1/2n
(B) greater than 1/2n
(C)

24.

(B) is a non-linear system
(D) has a zero dead time

(D) less than 1/ 2n

less than 1/n

A measurement system with input x(t) and output of y(t) is described by the differential 

equation is 3  +5y = 8x. The static sensitivity of the system is
(A) 0.60

(B)

1.60

(C)

1.67

(D) 2.67

25.

A transducer has an output impedance of 1 kΩ and a load resistance of 1 Ω, then it
behaves as
(A) constant power source
(B) constant voltage source
(C) constant current source
(D) constant impedance source

26.

In a transducer, the observed output deviates from the correct value by a constant factor
the resulting error is called
(A) dynamic error
(B) hysteresis error
(C) non-conformity error
(D) sensitivity error

Set - A

4

EI

27.

A resistance potentiometer has a total resistance of 10 kΩ and is rated 4W. If the range of
the potentiometer is 0 to 100 mm, then its sensitivity in V/mm is
(A) 1.0
(B) 2.0
(C) 2.5
(D) 25

28.

For signal conditioning of the piezoelectric type transducer, we require
(A) a charge amplifier
(B) a differential amplifier
(C) an instrumentation amplifier
(D) a transconductance amplifier

29.

Two inductive transducers working on the principle of change of self inductance L are
connected in a push-pull arrangement. If the change of inductance of transducers is ∆L,
the change of inductance of output terminal is
(A) ∆L
(B) 2∆L
(C) ± 2∆L
(D) Zero

30.

A piezoelectric accelerometer has a sensitivity of 100 mV/g. The transducer is subjected
to a constant acceleration of 5 g. The steady state output of the transducer will be
(A) zero
(B) 100 mV
(C) 0.5 V
(D) 5 V

31.

Magnetostriction is the effect produced when a magnetic material is subjected to change
of magnetization results in change of
(A) permittivity
(B) permeability
(C) dimensions
(D) temperature

32.

A barium titanate crystal has a thickness of 2 mm. Its voltage sensitivity is 12 × 10–3 Vm/N.
It is subjected to a pressure of 0.5 MN/m2. Calculate the voltage generated
(A) 3 V
(B) 6 V
(C) 9 V
(D) 12 V

33.

Pirani gauge is used for the measurement of pressure in the range of
(A) 10–1 mm to 10–3 mm of Hg
(C)

10–1 mm to 10–9 mm of Hg

(B)

10–1 mm to 10–6 mm of Hg

(D) 10–1 mm to 10–12 mm of Hg

34.

In a drag cup type a.c. tachogenerator, the output voltage is
(A) sinusoidal
(B) in the form of pulses
(C) modulated waveforms
(D) constant dc voltage

35.

If the temperature of a radiating body is 1500 °C, the wavelength at which the maximum
(A) 2.8 µm
(B) 1.63 µm
(C) 1 µm
(D) 4.5 µm

Set - A

5

EI

36.

Magnetic flux can be measured by which of the transducers ?
(A) Capacitive pickup
(B) Inductive pickup
(C) Piezoelectric pickup
(D) Hall effect pickup

37.

In a venturimeter the flow rate is 0.15 m3/s when the differential pressure is 30 kN/m2.
What is the value of flow when the differential pressure is 60 kN/m2 ?
(A) 0.212 m3/s

(B)

0.106 m3/s

(C)

0.3 m3/s

(D) 0.075 m3/s

38.

A diaphragm has a natural frequency of 30 kHz. If both the diameter and thickness are
halved, the natural frequency is
(A) 15 kHz
(B) 240 kHz
(C) 60 kHz
(D) 120 kHz

39.

The torque in a rotating shaft is measured using strain gauges. The strain gauges must be
positioned on the shaft such that axes of the strain gauges are at
(A) 0° with respect to the axis of the shaft
(B)

30° with respect to the axis of the shaft

(C)

45° with respect to the axis of the shaft

(D) 90° with respect to the axis of the shaft
40.

Measurement of viscosity involves measuring
(A) Corioli’s forces
(B) Buoyant force
(C) Centrifugal force
(D) Frictional force

41.

The input impedance (Zi) and the output impedance (Zo) of an ideal transconductance
amplifier are
(A) Zi = 0, Zo = 0 (B) Zi = 0, Zo = ∞ (C) Zi = ∞, Zo = 0 (D) Zi = ∞, Zo = ∞

42.

A forward-biased silicon diode when carrying negligible current, has a voltage drop of
0.64 V. When the current is 1 A it dissipates 1W. The On-resistance of the diode is
(A) 1.0 Ω
(B) 0.64 Ω
(C) 0.74 Ω
(D) 0.36 Ω

43.

In a negative feedback amplifier using voltage series feedback
(A) Ri decreases and Ro decreases
(B) Ri decreases and Ro increases
(C)

44.

Ri increases and Ro decreases

(D) Ri increases and Ro increases

The first dominant pole encountered in the frequency response of a compensated op-amp
is approximately at
(A) 5 Hz
(B) 10 kHz
(C) 1 MHz
(D) 100 MHz

Set - A

6

EI

45.

An n-type semiconductor strain gauge has a nominal resistance of 1000Ω and gauge
factor of –100. The resistance of the gauge, when a compressive strain of 100 µm/m is
applied, is
(A) 900 Ω
(B) 990 Ω
(C) 1100 Ω
(D) 1010 Ω

46.

A diode whose internal resistance is 10 Ω, is to power supply to 1000 Ω load from
110 V (rms) source supply. Calculate the DC and AC load currents
(A) 49.02 mA, 77 mA
(B) 77 mA, 49.02 mA
(C) 77 A, 49.02 A
(D) 49.02 A, 77 A

47.

An audio amplifier is designed to have a small-signal bandwidth of 20 kHz. The openloop low-frequency voltage gain of the op-amp is 105 and unity gain bandwidth is
1 MHz. What is the maximum closed-loop voltage gain for this amplifier ?
(A) 500

(B)

5 × 106

(C)

2 × 106

(D) 50

48.

An ideal op-amp has the characteristics of an ideal
(A) voltage controlled voltage source (B) voltage controlled current source
(C) current controlled voltage source (D) current controlled current source

49.

A 1st order low-pass Butter-Worth filter has a cut-off frequency of 1 kHz for
C = 0.01 µF. Now, if the cut-off frequency has to change by a scaling factor of
0.625.What should be the value of resistor ?
(A) 15.9 kΩ
(B) 25.44 kΩ
(C) 9.95 kΩ
(D) 25.47 kΩ

50.

Three identical amplifiers with each one having a voltage gain of 50, input resistance of
1 kΩ and output resistance of 250 Ω are cascaded. The open circuit voltage gain of the
combined amplifier is
(A) 49 dB
(B) 51 dB
(C) 98 dB
(D) 102 dB

51.

A class B push-pull complementary symmetry amplifier uses
(A) two npn transistors
(B) one pnp and one npn transistor
(C) two pnp transistors
(D) one pre-amplifier of npn transistor followed by amplifier of two transistor

52.

A unity gain buffer amplifier has a bandwidth of 1 MHz. The output voltage of the
amplifier for an input of 2 V sinusoid of frequency 1 MHz will be
(A) 2 V

Set - A

(B)

2√2 V

(C)
7 

√

V

(D) 

√

V
EI

53.

The output of an op-amplifier is 2V peak. The slew rate is 5 V/µs. The input sinusoidal
which can be reproduced with no distortion has the maximum frequency of
(A) 398 kHz
(B) 398 Hz
(C) 1592 kHz
(D) 1592 Hz

54.

A high pass RC filter acts as a pure differentiator when
(A) ωτ = 1
(B) ωτ << 1
(C) ωτ >> 1

(D) ωτ = 0

55.

A differential amplifier having CMRR 50,000 has a differential mode gain of 500.
The common mode gain is
(A) 0.0001
(B) 0.1
(C) 0.001
(D) 0.01

56.

A combinational logic circuit which sends data coming from a single source to two or
more separate destinations is
(A) Decoder
(B) Encoder
(C) Multiplexer (D) Demultiplexer

57.

In signed-magnitude binary division, if the dividend is (11100)2 and divisor is (10011)2,
then the result is ______
(A) (00100)2
(B) (10100)2
(C) (11001)2
(D) (01100)2

58.

A logic function F(A,B,C) = (A+B'+C) (A'+B'+ C) (A+B'+C') can also be written as
(A) Σm(2,3,6,7) (B) Σm(1,2,5,6,7) (C) Σm(0,1,4,5,7) (D) Σm(0,2,4,6)

59.

A 4 bit ripple counter and a 4 bit synchronous counter are made by flip-flops having a
propagation delay of 10 ns each. If the worst case delay in the ripple counter and
synchronous counter be R and S respectively, then
(A) R = 10 ns, S = 40 ns
(B) R = 40 ns, S = 10 ns
(C) R = 10 ns, S = 30 ns
(D) R = 30 ns, S = 10 ns

60.

An 8 bit successive approximation ADC has full scale reading of 2.55 V and conversion
time for analog input of 1 V is 20µs. Conversion time for a 2 V input is
(A) 20 µs
(B) 10 µs
(C) 40 µs
(D) 50 µs

61.

When a subroutine is called, the address of the instruction following the CALL
instructions stored in/on the
(A) stack pointer
(B) accumulator
(C) program counter
(D) stack memory

62.

The full scale output of a DAC is 10 mA. If resolution is to be less than 40 µA, then
required bits of the DAC are
(A) 10
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 12

Set - A

8

EI

63.

The following instructions are executed sequentially
Prog : XRA A
MOV L,A
MOV H,L
INX
H
After execution of this program the contents of HL pair is
(A) 0000H
(B) 0101 H
(C) 0002 H

(D) 0001H

64.

A sample and hold amplifier circuit is normally necessary before the following type of
A/D converter :
(A) successive approximation converter
(B) flash type converter
(C) voltage to frequency converter
(D) dual slope integrating converter

65.

Which of these interrupts of 8085 microprocessor will be recognized for both edge and
level triggered inputs ?
(A) INTR
(B) TRAP
(C) RST 7.5
(D) RST 6.5

66.

DMA is particularly suited for transfer of data between
(A) disk drive and CPU
(B) disk drive and RAM
(C) disk drive and ROM
(D) disk drive and I/O

67.

Which of the following discrete-time systems is time invariant ?
(A) y[n] = n x[n]
(B) y[n] = x[3n]
(C) y[n] = x[– n]
(D) y [n] = x[n – 3]

68.

The inverse Laplace transform of the function   is 

(A) 2   
(C)   2 

(B) 2  2 
(D)    

69.

The Fourier series for a periodic signal is given as x(t) = cos (1.2πt) + cos (2πt) +
cos (2.8πt), the fundamental frequency of the signal is
(A) 1.4 Hz
(B) 1.0 Hz
(C) 0.2 Hz
(D) 0.4 Hz

70.

Identify the transfer function corresponding to an all pass filter from the following :
1 – sτ
1 + sτ
1

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1 + sτ
1 – sτ
1 + sτ
1 + sτ

Set - A

9

EI

71.

The region of convergence of the Z-transform of the discrete-time signal x[n] = 2n u[n]
will be
(A) |z| > 2

72.

(B)

(B)

75.

(B)

150 Hz

(C)

100 Hz 

(D) 50 Hz

180 kHz

(C)

120 kHz

(D) 240 kHz

(C)

(D) low pass IIR filter

low pass FIR filter

high pass IIR filter

If the modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 0.5, the transmitted power
increases by
(B)

25 %

(C)

50 %

(D) 100 %

(C)

800 Hz

(D) 1200 Hz

The Nyquist sampling rate for the signal
!"#  \$
\$

×

!"# % \$
\$

(B)

is given by

600 Hz

In a Pulse Coded Modulated(PCM) signal sampled at fs and encoded into an n-bit code,
the minimum bandwidth required for faithful reconstruction is
(A) 2nfs

(B)

nfs/2

(C)

nfs

(D) fs

In a digital communication system employing Frequency Shift Keying (FSK) the 0 and 1
bits are represented by sine waves of 10 kHz and 25 kHz respectively. These waveforms
will be orthogonal for a bit interval of
(A) 45 µs

79.

(D) |z| <

(B)

(A) 400 Hz

78. 

(A) high pass FIR filter

s(t) =

77.

A DSP convolves each discrete sample with four coefficients and they are equal to 0.25.
This must be an

(A) 12.5 %
76.

|z| >

In an FM broadcast, the maximum frequency deviation allowed is 75 kHz, and the
maximum modulation frequency is 15 kHz. The bandwidth is closest to
(A) 60 kHz

74.

(C)

A digital filter has the transfer function H(z) =  + 1/  + 0.81. If this filter has to reject
50 Hz interference from the input, then the sampling frequency of the input should be
(A) 200 Hz

73.

|z| < 2

(B)

50 µs

(C)

200 µs

(D) 250 µs

(C)

PCM signal

(D) DSB-SC signal

A PLL can be used to demodulate
(A) FM signal

Set - A

(B)

PAM signal

10

EI

80.

Source encoding in data communication system is done in order to
(A) enhance the information transmission rate
(B)

reduce the transmission errors

(C)

conserve the transmission power

(D) facilitate the clock recovery in the receiver
81.

In Kelvin double bridge two sets of readings are taken when measuring a low resistance,
one with the current in one direction and the other with direction of current reversed.
This is done to
(A) eliminate the effect of contact resistance
(B)

eliminate the effect of resistance of leads

(C)

correct for changes in battery voltage

(D) eliminate the effect thermo-electric emfs
82.

83.

In a gravity controlled instrument, the deflection angle is proportional to
(A) the measurand

(B)

(C)

(D) sine of the measurand

In three-phase power measurement the power factor of load will be
(A)
(C)

84.

sine inverse of the measurand

3

(W1 − W2 )
(W1 + W2 )

(W1 − W2 )
W1 + W2

(B)

W1 + W2

(D)

(W1 − W2 )
W1 + W2

A DC ammeter has a resistance of 0.1 Ω and its current range is 0-100 A. If the range of
the ammeter is to extend to 0-500 A the meter requires which of the following shunt
resistance ?
(A) 0.010 Ω

85.

square of the measurand

(B)

0.025 Ω

(C)

0.011 Ω

(D) 1.0 Ω

A coil has been designed for high Q performance at a rated voltage and a specified
frequency. If the frequency of operation is doubled and the coil is operated at the same
voltage, then the Q factor and the active power P consumed by the coil will be affected as
(A) P is doubled and Q is halved
(B)

P is halved and Q is doubled

(C)

P remains constant and Q is doubled

(D) P decreased 4 times and Q is doubled
Set - A

11

EI

86.

Wagner’s Earth Devices are used in A.C. Bridge circuits for
(A) eliminating the effects of inter-component capacitances
(B) shielding the bridge elements
(C) eliminating the effect of earth capacitances
(D) eliminating the effect of stray electrostatic fields

87.

Maxwell’s inductance-capacitance bridge is used for measurement of inductance
(A) low Q coils
(B) medium Q coils
(C) high Q coils
(D) low and medium Q coils

88.

The deflection of an electron beam on CRT screen is 10 mm. Suppose the pre-accelerating
anode voltage is halved and the potential between deflecting plates is doubled, the
deflection of the electron beam will be
(A) 80 mm
(B) 40 mm
(C) 20 mm
(D) 10 mm

89.

The resonant frequency of an RLC series circuit is 1.5 MHz with the tuning capacitors
set at 150 pF. The bandwidth is 10 kHz. The effective resistance of the circuit is
(A) 4.7 Ω
(B) 9.4 Ω
(C) 14.75 Ω
(D) 29.5 Ω

90.

An average reading digital multimeter reads 10 V when fed with a triangular wave,
(A) 20 3

91.

(B)

–10 3

The operation of megger is based on
(A) dynamo meter
(C) moving coil meter

(C)

–20 3

(D) 10 3

(B) electrostatic meter
(D) moving iron meter

92.

A 53 Hz reed type frequency meter is polarized with D.C. voltage. The new range of
frequency meter is
(A) 106 Hz
(B) 26.5 Hz
(C) 53 Hz
(D) 212 Hz

93.

Light load adjustments for induction type energy meters are usually done at
(A) 10% of full load current
(B) 5% of full load current
(C) 50 % of full load current
(D) 1% of full load current

94.

An astable mutivibrator uses a resistance of 100 Ω and capacitance of 0.01 µF.The
frequency of the square wave generated by it is
(A) 924 Hz
(B) 593 Hz
(C) 693 Hz
(D) 110 Hz

Set - A

12

EI

95.

A transfer function has two zeros at infinity. Then the relation between the numerator
degree (N) and denominator degree (M) of the transfer function is
(A) N = M + 2
(B) N = M – 2
(C) N = M +1
(D) N = M – 1

96.

The system with open-loop transfer function
G(s) H(s) = 

&  

(A) – 6 dB

has a gain margin of

(B)

Zero

(C)

3.5 dB

(D) 6 dB

97.

An amplifier with resistive negative feedback has two left half plane poles in its openloop transfer function. The amplifier
(A) will be stable for all frequencies
(B) will always be unstable at high frequencies
(C) may be unstable, depending on the feedback factor
(D) will oscillate at low frequencies

98.

The proportional gain (K) of a PID controller can be expressed in terms of its
Proportional Band (PB) as
(A) PB
(B) 100 × PB
(C) PB / 100
(D) 100 / PB

99.

The maximum phase shift that can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer 
'
function G(s) =  is
(A) 15°

(B)

30°

(C)

45°

(D) 60°

100.

In the Bode plot of a unity feedback control system, the value of phase of G(jw) at the
gain crossover frequency is – 120°. The phase margin of the system is
(A) – 120°
(B) – 60°
(C) 60°
(D) 120°

101.

A temperature control system is usually very sluggish. To improve its dynamics
(A) a PI controller can be used
(B) an integral controller can be used
(C) a PID controller with large I and negligible D action can be used
(D) a PD controller can be used

102.

A process in a feedback loop with a proportional controller with ultimate gain of Ku = 10
is oscillating at a frequency of Pu = 8 Hz. The Zeigler-Nichols setting for the proportional
controller is
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 1.25

Set - A

13

EI

103.

Consider the following standard state-space description of a linear time-invariant single
input single output system : x' =Ax + Bu, y = Cx + Du.
Which one of the following statements about the transfer function cannot be true if D ≠ 0 ?
(A) The system is unstable.
(B) The system is strictly proper.
(C) The system is low pass.
(D) The system is of type zero.

104.

Which of the following is commonly used to convert the angular position of shaft into an
electric signal ?
(A) Servo motor (B) Synchros
(C) Stepper motor (D) LVDT

105.

Identify the sequence of operation in fuzzy control :
(I) Rule base
(II) Fuzzification
(III) Fuzzy inference
(IV) Defuzzification
(A) I-II-III-IV
(B) II-I-IV-III
(C) II-I-III-IV
(D) I-III-II-IV

106.

Which of the following controller produces Zero offset ?
(A) On-Off control
(B) Proportional
(C) Derivative
(D) Integral

107.

A step index optical fiber, whose refractive indices of the core and cladding are 1.44 and
1.40 respectively, is surrounded by air. Its numerical aperture is
(A) 0.12
(B) 0.75
(C) 0.06
(D) 0.34

108.

Infrared spectrometry is used for the determination of the molecular structure of the
molecules having
(A) Ionic bonds
(B) Covalent bonds
(C) Metallic bonds
(D) Hydrogen bonds

109.

Find the distance between two successive positions of the movable mirror of Michelson
interferometer giving best fringes in the case of sodium source with lines of λ = 5890 Å
and 5896 Å .
(A) 289 nm
(B) 282 nm
(C) 280 nm
(D) 308 nm

110.

What is the shortest wavelength of X-rays produced in an X-ray tube with accelerating
potential as 70 kV ?
(A) 0.015
(B) 0.018
(C) 0.017
(D) 0.019

111.

In a spectrophotometer, the monochromator must be able to resolve two wavelengths
599.9 nm and 600.1 nm. The required resolution is
(A) 100
(B) 500
(C) 1000
(D) 3000

Set - A

14

EI

112.

A photo diode made of Ga-As has a band gap of 1.43 eV. Find the wavelength at which
it will start to operate
(B) 0.87 µm
(C) 0.73 µm
(D) 0.84 µm
(A) 0.68 µm

113.

The time interval between two successive R peaks in ECG is 0.8 s. Then, the heart rate is
(A) 12.5 bpm
(B) 72 bpm
(C) 60 bpm
(D) 75 bpm

114.

In laser, the process of creating a population inversion by supplying energy to the
medium is called
(A) pumping
(B) optical resonator
(C) Q-switching
(D) trimming

115.

1 th
If half life of the radioactive radon is 3.8 days, then time at the end of which 20 of the
radon sample will remain undecayed is
(A) 3.8 days
(B) 16.5 days
(C) 33 days
(D) 76 days

116.

A He-Ne laser emit light of wavelength 672.8 nm has an output power of 2.3 mW/s.
How many photons are emitted each minute by the laser ?
(B) 4.2 × 1016 photons/min
(A) 4.6 × 1017 photons/min
(D) 5.6 × 1017 photons/min
(C) 9.8 × 1016 photons/min

117.

The cardiac output is measured with the help of indicator dilution method. The quantity
of indicator injected is 20 mg and the area under the die dilution curve is found to be
180 mg s/L. Find the cardiac output.
(A) 8.66 L/min (B) 8 L/min
(C) 6.66 L/min (D) 6 L/min

118.

Which of the following type of image is produced by a CT scan machine ?
(A) 1-D image
(B) 2-D image
(C) 3-D image
(D) All the above

119.

Korotkoff sounds are used
(A) as a reference for sound level measurement
(B) for studying heart muscle functioning
(C) for study of heart valve functioning
(D) for blood pressure measurement

120.

In an electromagnetic blood flow meter, the induced voltage is directly proportional to the
(A) square root of the blood flow rate
(B) blood flow rate
(C) square of the blood flow rate
(D) logarithm of the blood flow rate
__________

Set - A

15

EI

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Set - A

16

EI

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
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20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40

INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING (EI)
SET-A
A
41
81
D
B
42
82
A
C
43
83
C
C
44
84
A
C
45
85
B
C
46
86
A
B
47
87
D
C
48
88
A
A
49
89
C
C
50
90
D
51
91
B
B
52
92
C
C
53
93
C
A
54
94
A
B
55
95
D
D
56
96
B
D
57
97
A
B
58
98
C
C
59
99
D
B
60
100
B
A
61
101
C
D
62
102
A
B
63
103
A
C
64
104
B
A
65
105
C
B
66
106
D
B
67
107
B
D
68
108
A
A
69
109
C
C
70
110
C
A
71
111
B
A
72
112
D
D
73
113
A
B
74
114
C
C
75
115
B
A
76
116
D
D
77
117
A
B
78
118
C
C
79
119
C
A
80
120
D
A

D
C
A
B
D
C
B
B
A
D
C
A
B
C
C
B
A
D
B
C
D
A
A
B
C
D
D
B
A
C
D
B
D
A
B
A
C
C
D
B

Booklet No. :

A
SET

ME - 15

Mechanical Engineering
Duration of Test : 2 Hours

Max. Marks : 120

Hall Ticket No.
Name of the Candidate :
Date of Examination :

Signature of the Candidate

Signature of the Invigilator

INSTRUCTIONS
1.

This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.

2.

Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.

3.

Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.

4.

This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.

5.

Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.

6.

on the OMR sheet carefully.

7.

OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.

8.

Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.

9.

No part of the Booklet should be detached under any circumstances.

10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

ME-15-A

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING (ME)
1.

2.

A system of n simultaneous equations A X = 0 in n unknowns has nontrivial solution if
−1
(A) | A |≠ 1
(B) | A |< n
(C) | A |= 0
(D) A exists

 8 −6 2 

One eigen vector of the matrix A =  −6 7 −4  is X=
 2 −4 3 
1 
 2
1 
 2
1 
 
(A)  
(B)  
(C) 1
1
1
2

(D)

1 
 2
 
2

3.

The shortest distance of the plane l x + m y + n z = p from the origin is
p
p
(A)
(B)
l+m+n
l 2 + m2 + n 2
1
(C)
(D) 0
l 2 + m2 + n 2

4.

If C is the ellipse
(A)

5.

7.

I

1
sin 2 x is
D −4
1 2
1
− sin x
+ cos2 x
(B)
4
8

The value of
(A)

6.

π ab

x2 y2
1
+ 2 = 1 , then the value of  (xdy – ydx) is
2
2 c
a
b
π ab
(B)
(C) ab 2
(D) π a 2 b
2

2

The Laplace transform of e 2 x x 2 is
1
1
(A)
(B)
3
( s − 2)
( s + 2)3
The residue of the function f ( z ) =
(A)

Set - A

5
9

(B)

1
2

(C)

none

(D)

1 1
(−1) + cos2 x
8 16

(C)

2
( s − 2) 3

(D)

2
( s + 2)3

z2
at the pole z = −2 is
( z − 1)2 ( z + 2)
4
(C)
(D) 0
9

2

ME

8.

If a random variable X has the PDF f ( x) = (1 − p) x −1 p, x = 1, 2,.. and 0 < p < 1 .Then the
mean of X is
(A) p + 1
(B) p 2 + p
(C) p
(D) 1

9.

Monthly-breakdowns of a computer is a random variable having Poisson distribution with
mean 2.0. The probability that the computer will function for a month without a
breakdown is
0.2
−0.2
(A) e
(B) e
(C) 0.2
(D) 0

10.

The condition for convergence of iteration scheme xn +1 = xn −
(A)

f ′′ ( xn ) f ( xn ) ≤  f ′ ( xn ) 

(C)

f ′ ( xn ) > 1

2

f ( xn )
is
f ′ ( xn )

(B)

f ′ ( xn ) < 1

(D)

f ′′ ( xn ) f ( xn ) ≥  f ′ ( xn ) 

2

11.

Instantaneous center of a body rolling without sliding on a straight surface lies
(A) At the point of contact
(B) On the common tangent at the point of contact
(C) On the common normal at the point of contact
(D) At infinity

12.

A stone of mass m is attached to a string of length l is rotated in vertical circle at constant
speed. The tension in the string will be
(A) Maximum at the point of contact
(B) Minimum when the stone is at half way down from the top
(C) Maximum when the stone is quarter way down from the top
(D) Maximum at the bottom of the circle

13.

A wheel of mass m and radius r is in accelerated rolling motion without slipping under a
steady torque T. If the co-efficient of friction between the two surfaces is µ, then the
normal force acting on the surface by the wheel is
T
(A) 0
(B) mg
(C) r
(D) T

14.

The co-efficient of restitution of a perfectly elastic impact is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) Infinite

15.

An automobile of mass m accelerates uniformly starting from rest. If the engine supplies
constant power P, which of the following relations is correct ? 

(A)    

16.

(B)  

(C)  



(D)    

A ball of mass of 10–2 kg strikes on a wall and returns back in the same direction. If its
speed changes from 20 m/s to 10 m/s, the magnitude of impulse acting on the bullet is
(A) 0.1 Ns
(B) 0.3 Ns
(C) 30 Ns
(D) 1 Ns

Set - A

3

ME

17.

A swinging pendulum eventually stops because its energy is finally converted into
(A) Kinetic energy
(B) Heat energy
(C) Potential energy
(D) Electromagnetic energy

18.

A solid sphere of mass M, rolling down an inclined plane has a velocity v along the plane.
Total kinetic energy will be 

(A)


(B)  

(C)  

(D)  

19.

A material with same properties in all directions is called
(A) Homogeneous material
(B) Isotropic material
(C) Elastic material
(D) Crystalline material

20.

The energy absorbed in a body when it is strained to elastic limits is known as
(A) Strain energy (B) Hysterisis
(C) Resilience
(D) Toughness

21.

Poisson’s ratio for an incompressible material is
(A) Cannot be determined
(B) Infinite
(C) 1
(D) Zero

22.

If a shaft is rotating at N rpm with a Torque T Nm, the power transmitted to the shaft in
Watts is
(A)

23.  

(B)

For a cantilever beam,
diagram is
(A) rectangle

(B)  

(C)  

(D)  

dM
= constant for the whole length. The shape of the shear force
dx

triangle

(C)

parabola

(D) hyperbola

24.

A thin cylinder of diameter d, length L and thickness t is subjected to internal pressure P.
What is the ratio of longitudinal strain to hoop strain in terms of Poisson’s ratio (1/m)
m−2
m−2
2m − 2
2m + 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2m + 1
2m − 1
m −1
m −1

25.

A bar of circular cross section has a uniformly varying diameter from D to 2D. If
extension in the bar due to a tensile force is calculated assuming it as a cylindrical bar of
mean diameter, the Percentage error in the calculation will be close to
(A) 10
(B) 25
(C) 33
(D) 50

26.

If E is the Young’s modulus of a material, the minimum value of bulk modulus of
elasticity is
E
E
E
E
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2
3
4
5

Set - A

4

ME

27.

A solid shaft of diameter 100 mm, length 100 mm is subjected to a torque T. The
maximum shear stress developed in the shaft is 60 N/mm2. If a through hole of 50 mm
diameter is made throughout the length of the shaft, What must be the torque applied to
keep the shear stress same as before ?
15T
3T
11T
7T
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
16
4
12
8

28.

The component of acceleration parallel to the velocity of the particle, at a given instant is
(B) Tangential component
(C) Coriolis component
(D) Net acceleration

29.

If the ratio of length of connecting rod to the crank radius increases, then
(A) Primary unbalanced forces will increase
(B) Primary unbalanced forces will decrease
(C) Secondary unbalanced forces will increase
(D) Secondary unbalanced forces will decrease

30.

A body of mass m and radius of gyration k is replaced by two masses m1 and m2 located at
distances h1 and h2 from the center of gravity of the original body. The condition for an
equivalent dynamic system is
(A) h1 + h2 = k
(B) h12 + h22 = k 2 (C) h1h2 = k 2
(D)
h1h2 = k 2

31.

The speed of an engine with a fly wheel varies from 210 rad/s to 190 rad/s. If the
corresponding change in Kinetic energy is 400 Nm, the inertia of the flywheel is
(A) 0.10 kgm2
(B) 0.20 kgm2
(C) 0.30 kgm2
(D) 0.40 kgm2

32.

In a 4 stroke IC engine, the turning moment diagram during the compression stroke is
(A) Positive throughout
(B) Negative throughout
(C) Positive during major portion of the stroke
(D) Negative during major portion of the stroke

33.

The number of pairs of teeth in contact in a gear and pinion if arc of contact is 31.4 mm
and module is 5 are
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 5

34.

The degrees of freedom of a planar linkage with 8 links and 9 simple revolute joints is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

35.

For an involute gear, the ratio of base circle diameter to pitch circle diameter is ( φ is the
pressure angle)
(A) cos φ
(B) sin φ
(C) cosec φ
(D) sec φ

36.

The ratio of maximum damping co-efficient to the critical damping co-efficient is called
(A) Magnification factor
(B) Logarithmic decrement
(C) Damping factor
(D) Damping co-efficient

Set - A

5

ME

ω
= 2 , where ω = forced vibration frequency and
ωn
ωn = natural frequency, then transmissibility is
(A) >1
(B) <1
(C) =1
(D) 0

37.

In a vibration isolation system, if

38.

Which of the following causes whirling of shafts ?
(A) Non-homogenity of shaft materials (B) Mis-alignment of bearings
(C) Fluctuation of speed
(D) Internal damping

39.

If the governing equation of a vibrating system is 7
is
(A) 7 Hz

(B)

49 Hz

(C)

d2x
+ 49 x = 0 , the natural frequency
dt 2

7 Hz

(D) 9 Hz

40.

A system with natural frequency 100 Hz has a damping factor of 0.6. The frequency of the
damped system is
(A) 60Hz
(B) 80Hz
(C) 100Hz
(D) cannot be determined

41.

In a forced vibration system with viscous damping, the amplitude is maximum when
(A) Forced frequency is equal to natural frequency
(B) Forced frequency is slightly less than natural frequency
(C) Forced frequency is slightly greater than natural frequency
(D) zero

42.

If the static deflection of a shaft with a flywheel is 4 mm. Considering acceleration due to
gravity is 10 m/s2, the critical speed in rad/s is
(A) 50
(B) 20
(C) 10
(D) 5

43.

A single degree of freedom spring mass damper system is undergoing critically damped
vibrations. If mass is 5 kg and stiffness of spring is 20 N/m, the viscous damping
co-efficient is
(A) 10 Ns/m
(B) 20 Ns/m
(C) 4 Ns/m
(D) 8 Ns/m

44.

A material under fatigue fails
(A) at elastic limit
(C) at yield point

(B) below elastic limit
(D) below yield point

45.

Which of the following relation results in a conservative estimate with same factor of
safety ?
(A) Gerber relation
(B) Soderberg relation
(C) Goodman relation
(D) Euler relation

46.

A cotter joint is capable of transmitting
(A) Twisting moment
(B) Bending moment

Set - A

6

ME

47.

A Hooke’s joint is used to connect
(A) Coplanar and non-parallel shafts
(C) Co-planar and parallel shafts

(B) Non-coplanar and non-parallel shafts
(D) Non-coplanar and parallel shafts

48.

The bearing characteristic number in case of Hydrodynamic bearing depends upon
(B) Length, width and speed
(D) Viscosity, speed and bearing pressure

49.

While deriving Lewis equation, it is assumed that tangential tooth load acts on the
(A) Pitch point
(B) Tip of the tooth
(C) Root of the tooth
(D) Whole face of the tooth

50.

When a shaft transmits power through gears, the shaft experiences
(A) Torsional stresses only
(B) Bending stresses only
(C) Constant bending and varying torsional stresses
(D) Varying bending and constant torsional stress

51.

The SI unit of dynamic viscosity is
(A) m2/s
(B) m/s2

(C)

Ns/m2

(D) N/m2

52.

A lubricating oil of viscosity 10 Poise is filled between two parallel plates that are 0.5 cm
apart. If the relative velocity between the plates is 2 m/s, then shear stress developed in
lubricating oil is
(A) 20 N/m2
(B) 200 N/m2
(C) 40 N/m2
(D) 400 N/m2

53.

What is the pressure inside a soap bubble over the atmospheric pressure, if the diameter is
1 cm ?
(A) 0.2 N/m2
(B) 0.1 N/m2
(C) 20 N/m2
(D) 10 N/m2

54.

The density of a liquid changes from 250 kg/m2 to 251 kg/m2, when the pressure on the
liquid changes from 4 MPa to 4.5 MPa. What is the average value of bulk modulus of the
liquid over the given pressure range ?
(A) 250 MPa
(B) 125 MPa
(C) 62.5 MPa
(D) 12 MPa

55.

A tank with four equal vertical faces of width w and height h is filled with a liquid. If the
force on any vertical side is equal to the force at the bottom, the value of h/t is
(A) 2
(B) 1.414
(C) 1
(D) 0.5

56.

Buoyant force is
(A) Lateral force acting on a submerged body
(B) Resultant force acting on a submerged body
(C) Vertical force acting on a body due to fluid surrounding it
(D) Vertical force acting on a submerged body

Set - A

7

ME

57.

Turbulent flow in rough pipes depends on
(A) Velocity of flow
(B) Pipe diameter
(C) Type of fluid flowing
(D) Pipe condition and diameter

58.

For flow through a horizontal pipe, the pressure gradient opposite to the flow direction is
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Cannot be determined
(D) Depends on the fluid properties

59.

Which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) Hydraulic grade line slopes upwards meeting the energy grade line at the exit of
flow.
(B) Energy grade line lies above the hydraulic grade line and they are separated from
each other by a vertical distance equal to velocity head.
(D) The hydraulic grade line slopes upwards meeting the energy grade at the exit of flow.

60.

A Francis turbine is coupled to an alternator to generate electricity with a frequency of
50 Hz. If the alternator has 12 poles, the turbine should be regulated to run at which of the
following speeds ?
(A) 250 rpm
(B) 500 rpm
(C) 600 rpm
(D) 1000 rpm

61.

A cylinder made of metal of conductivity 40 W/mK is to be insulated with a material of
conductivity 0.1 W/mK. If the convective heat transfer co-efficient with the ambient
atmosphere is 5 W/m2K, the critical radius of insulation is
(A) 2 cm
(B) 4 cm
(C) 8 cm
(D) 50 cm

62.

A large concrete slab 1m thick has one dimensional temperature distribution of
T = 5 − 5 x + 5 x 2 + 15 x 3 (in oC) where x (in m) is the distance from one face of the wall. If
the slab material has thermal diffusivity of 2 × 10 −3 m2/hr. The rate of change of
temperature at the other face of the wall is
(A) 0.1 °C/hr
(B) 0.2 °C/hr
(C) 0.3 °C/hr
(D) 0.4 °C/hr

63.

Transient heat conduction means
(A) Heat transfer is constant with respect to time
(B) Heat transfer is constant with respect to position
(C) The heat transfer is very negligible in the direction perpendicular to heat flow
(D) Heat transfer is very negligible in the direction of heat flow

64.

Addition of a fin increases heat transfer only when
hA
hA
hA
=1
>1
<1
(A)
(B)
(C)
kP
kP
kP

65.

(D)

1<

hA
<2
kP

A stagnant liquid film of 0.4 mm thickness is held between two parallel plates. The top
plate is maintained at 40 °C and the bottom plate is maintained at 30 °C. If the thermal
conductivity of the liquid is 0.14 W/mK then the steady state heat flux (in W/m2)
assuming one dimensional heat transfer is
(A) 3.5
(B) 350
(C) 3500
(D) 7000

Set - A

8

ME

66.

Grashoff’s number is
thermal diffusivity
(A)
mass diffusivity
(C)

buoyancy force
viscous force

(B)

sensible heat
latent heat

(D)

inertial force
surface tension force

67.

If the temperature of a solid surface changes from 27 °C to 327 °C, its emissive power
will increase in the ratio of
(A) 2 :1
(B) 4 :1
(C) 8 :1
(D) 16 :1

68.

Intensity of radiation at a surface in perpendicular direction is equal to
1
(A) Product of emissivity of surface and
π
(B) Product of emissivity of surface and π
1
(C) Product of emissive power of surface and
π
(D) Product of emissive power of surface and π

69.

For a hemisphere, the solid angle is

70.

(C)

Select the correct statements :
Flow configuration does not matter in a heat exchanger if
1. A liquid is evaporating
2. A vapour is condensing
3. Mass flow rate of one of the fluid is far greater
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3

(D) 1, 2 and 3

71.

In a new temperature scale, the boiling point and freezing point of water are given as 100
units and 300 units respectively. The reading of 0 units on the new scale corresponds to
(A) 0 °C
(B) 50 °C
(C) 100 °C
(D) 150 °C

72.

For a mixture of solid, liquid and vapour phase of a pure substance, the number of
intrinsic properties needed to describe the state are
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3

73.

The amount of thermodynamic work to be done to inflate a balloon of volume 1m3 with an
internal pressure of 105 Pa. The amount of work done upon the atmosphere by the balloon
is
(A) 0
(B) 100 J
(C) 1 kJ
(D) 50 kJ

Set - A

9

ME

74.

An ideal gas expands isothermally from volume V1 to V2 and then compressed to original
volume V1 adiabatically. If initial pressure is P1 and final pressure is P3 and total work
done by the gas is W, then
(A) P3>P1, W>0 (B) P3<P1, W<0 (C) P3>P1, W<0 (D) P3=P1, W=0

75.

Air with enthalpy of 100 kJ/kg is compressed to a pressure and temperature where
enthalpy becomes 200 kJ/kg. The loss of heat from compressor is 40 kJ/kg. Neglecting
kinetic and potential energies, the energy required for air flow rate of 0.5 kg/s is
(A) 30 kW
(B) 50 kW
(C) 70 kW
(D) 90 kW

76.

If the time taken by a system to execute a process through a finite gradient is infinitely
large, the process
(A) becomes reversible
(B) remain irreversible
(C) become isothermal

77.

A Carnot cycle operates between two temperatures T1 and T2 (T1> T2). If η1 is the Carnot
efficiency when T1 is raised by ∆T and η 2 is the Carnot efficiency when T2 is decreased
by ∆T , then which of the following is correct ?
(A) η1 = η 2
(B) η1 > η 2
(C) η1 < η 2
(D) Unpredictable

78.

A reversible heat engine receives 6 kJ of heat from thermal reservoir at temperature of
800 K and 8 kJ from another heat source at a temperature of 600 K. If it rejects heat at a
temperature of 100 K, the thermal efficiency of the engine is equal to
(A) 65%
(B) 75%
(C) 80%
(D) 85%

79.

An engine of thermal efficiency 30% is used to drive a refrigerator of COP of 5. What is
the heat input into the engine for each MJ of energy removed from the cold body ?
(A) 420 kJ
(B) 567.89 kJ
(C) 666.67 kJ
(D) 778.46 kJ

80.

Find the loss of available energy associated with the transfer of 1000 kJ of heat from a
constant temperature system of 600 K to another at 400 K, when the atmospheric
temperature is 300 K
(A) 100 kJ
(B) 150 kJ
(C) 200 kJ
(D) 250 kJ

81.

1kg of water at room temperature is brought into contact with a high temperature thermal
reservoir. The entropy change in the universe is
(A) always positive
(B) equal to entropy change in the reservoir
(C) equal to zero
(D) equal to entropy change of water

Set - A

10

ME

82.

For a system existing at a constant volume and constant temperature, which of the
following parameter is criterion for equilibrium and stability of the system ?
(A) Entropy
(B) Gibb’s function
(C) Helmholtz function
(D) Internal energy

83.

Saturated liquid at a higher pressure P1 having hf1 = 1000 kJ/kg is throttled to a lower
pressure P2. The enthalpy of saturated liquid and saturated vapour is 800 kJ/kg and
2800 kJ/kg respectively. The dryness fraction of vapour after throttling is
(A) 0.1
(B) 0.2
(C) 0.8
(D) 0.9

84.

In Rankine cycle, regeneration results in higher efficiency because
(A) Pressure inside the boiler increases
(B) Heat is added before steam enters the low pressure turbine
(C) Average temperature of heat addition in the boiler increases
(D) Total work delivered by the turbine increases

85.

The reheat cycle in steam power plant is mainly adopted to
(A) Improve thermal efficiency
(B) Decrease moisture content in low stage to a safe value
(C) Decreases the capacity of the condenser
(D) Remove the waste heat of boiler

86.

Addition of Magnesium to cast iron increases its
(A) Hardness
(B) Ductility and strength in tension
(C) Corrosion resistance
(D) Creep resistance

87.

For a rhombohedral lattice, which of the following relations is correct ?
(A) α = β = γ = 90o
(B) α = β = γ ≠ 90o
(C)

α = γ = 90o ≠ β

(D)

α ≠ γ ≠ β ≠ 90o

88.

Which of the following materials can be subjected to age hardening ?
(A) HSS
(B) Aluminium (C) Pure iron
(D) Stellite

89.

The material property which depends only on crystal structure is
(A) Fatigue strength
(B) Work hardening
(C) Fracture strength
(D) Elastic constant

90.

Repeatability of measuring instruments is
(A) The closeness with which the measurement can be read directly from a measuring
instrument
(B) Difference between measured values and actual values
(C) Capacity to indicate the same reading again and again for a given measurement
(D) The smallest change that can be measured

Set - A

11

ME

91.

For interference fit, the lower limit of the shaft must be
(A) Greater than the upper limit of hole
(B) Lesser than the upper limit of the hole
(C) Greater than the lower limit of the hole
(D) Lesser than the lower limit of the hole

92.

A hole specified as 20+0.050
mm, has a mating shaft with clearance fit of minimum
−0.000
clearance of 0.01mm. The tolerance on the shaft is 0.04. The maximum clearance in mm
between hole and shaft is
(A) 0.04
(B) 0.05
(C) 0.10
(D) 0.11

93.

An expendable pattern is used in
(A) Slush casting
(C) Centrifugal casting

(B) Squeeze casting
(D) Investment casting

94.

Fluidity of cast iron in casting a component is greatly influenced by
(A) Carbon content of molten metal
(B) Melting temperature of molten metal
(D) Pouring temperature of molten metal

95.

In green sand moulding, uniform ramming leads to
(A) Less chance of gas porosity
(B) Uniform flow of molten metal in to the mould cavity
(C) Greater dimensional stability in casting
(D) Less sand expansion type casting defect

96.

A spherical molten metal drop of radius 4 mm was found to solidify in 10 seconds. A drop
of 8 mm will solidify in
(A) 14.14 s
(B) 20 s
(C) 18.30 s
(D) 40 s

97.

A rolling mill requires 30 kW per roll. Assuming a power loss of 5 kW, the total power
required for the mill is
(A) 35 kW
(B) 25 kW
(C) 65 kW
(D) 55 kW

98.

Which of the following is correct for upset forging ?
(B) Used to force the end of a heated bar into a desired shape
(C) Two halves of rotating die open and close rapidly while impacting the end of the
heated tube or shell
(D) Reduced diameter of a bar and in the process making it longer

Set - A

12

ME

99.

Hot working operation is carried at
(A) Near plastic stage temperature
(B) Below recrystallization temperature
(C) Above recrystallization temperature
(D) Above Curie temperature

100. Which of the following processes improves fatigue strength ?
(A) Spinning
(B) Shot peening (C) Hemming
(D) Lancing
101. In an arc welding operation, the voltage and current are 25 V and 300 A respectively.
If the arc heat transfer efficiency is 0.85 and welding speed 8 mm/s, the net heat input
(in J/mm) is
(A) 64
(B) 797
(C) 1103
(D) 79700
102. Drooping characteristics are used in manual welding operation to
(A) keep voltage constant when arc length changes
(B) Current constant when arc length changes
(C) Temperature in the arc constant
(D) Weld pool red-hot
103. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) No flux is used in gas welding of mild steel
(B) Borax is the commonly used flux coating on welding electrodes
(C) Laser beam welding employs a vacuum chamber and thus avoids use of a shielding
method
(D) Alternating current can be used for GTAW process
104. Too low welding current in arc welding would result in
(A) Excessive piling up of weld metal, poor penetration, wasted electrodes
(B) Excessive spatter, under cutting along edges, irregular deposits, wasted electrodes
(C) Too small bead, weak weld and wasted electrodes
(D) Excessive piling up of weld metal, over planning without penetration of edges,
wasted electrodes
105. In a turning operation, if feed is doubled, to keep the same surface finish, the nose radius
should be
(A) Halved
(B) Kept unchanged
(C) Doubled
106. Which of the following statements about EDM are correct ?
(A) No relative motion occurs between tool and workpiece
(B) No tool wear occurs
(C) No power is consumed during metal cutting
(D) No direct contact occurs between tool and workpiece
Set - A

13

ME

107. If φ is the shear angle, β is the friction angle and α is the rake angle, which of the
following statements is correct according to Merchant’s analysis ?
π
π
(A) 2φ + 2 β − α =
(B) 2φ + β − α =
4
2
π
π
(C) 2φ + β − 2α =
(D) 2φ + β − α =
4
4
108. Which of the following property is not a characteristic of Ceramic tools ?
(A) High hardness
(B) High compressive strength
(C) High thermal conductivity
(D) High brittleness
109. The demand and forecast for February are 12000 and 10275 respectively. Using single
exponential smoothening method, forecast for the month of March is (smoothening
co-efficient = 0.25)
(A) 431
(B) 9587
(C) 10706
(D) 13000
110. In forecasting using moving average method, the number of periods of data is independent
of
(A) Criteria of accuracy
(B) Impulse response
(C) Noise damping
(D) Total number of sales
111. Market demand for springs is 8,00,000 per annum. A company purchases these springs in
lots and sells them. The cost of making a purchase order is ` 1200. The cost of storage of
springs is ` 120 per stored piece per annum. The Economic order Quantity is
(A) 400
(B) 2828
(C) 4000
(D) 8000
112. Which of the following is a correct statement for graphical method in linear programming ?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

A point in the feasible region is not a solution to the problem
One of the corner points of the feasible region is not the optimum solution
Any point in the positive quadrant does not satisfy the non-negativity constraint
The lines corresponding to different values of objective functions are parallel

113. For a standard transportation linear program with m sources and n destinations and total
supply equaling total demand, an optimal solution (lowest cost) with the smallest number
of non-zero xij values (amounts from source i to destination j) is desired. The best upper
bound for this number is

(A)
Set - A

mn

(B)

2 ( m + n)

(C)
14

m+n

(D)

m + n −1
ME

114. The expected time in an activity is based on the assumption that activity follows
(A) Poisson distribution
(B) Binomial distribution
(C) Beta distribution
(D) Alpha distribution
115. A maintenance facility has Poisson arrival rates, negative exponential service time and
operates on a ‘first come first serve’ queue method. Break downs occur on an average of 3
per day with a range of 0 to 8. The maintenance crew can service and average of 6
machines per day with a range of 0 to 7. The mean waiting time for an item to be serviced
would be
1
1
(A)
day
(B)
day
(C) 1 day
(D) 3 days
6
3
116. A manufacturing firm has a fixed cost of ` 18,000. The variable cost consists of ` 8 per
unit and selling price is ` 13. Find the number of pieces to be produced to break even
(A) 1800
(B) 2400
(C) 3600
(D) 5400
117. In an assembly line when workstation times are unequal, the overall production rate of an
assembly line is determined by the
(A) Fastest station time
(B) Slowest station time
(C) Average station time
(D) Average of slowest and fastest station times
118. There are five jobs which are to be processed on a workpiece in a sheet metal shop. The
processing times for each of them are given below :
Job
A
B C
D E
Processing time
4
17 14
19 11
According to shortest processing time rule, the average number of jobs in the system each
day is
(A) 1.23
(B) 2.44
(C) 3.89
(D) 4.84
119. What are the key functions of a master schedule ?
(1) To generate material and capacity requirements
(2) To maintain valid priorities
(3) An effective capacity utilization
(4) Planning the quantity and timing of output over the intermediate time horizons
Select the correct answers from the above options
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
120. Which of the following layout is suitable for low demand and high variety product ?
(A) Group layout
(B) Process layout
(C) Product layout
(D) Static layout
_____________

Set - A

15

ME

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Set - A

16

ME

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING (ME)
SET-A
C
41
B
81
D
42
A
82
A
43
B
83
A
44
D
84
D
45
B
85
C
46
B
86
C
47
A
87
C
48
D
88
B
49
B
89
A
50
C
90
A
51
C
91
D
52
D
92
C
53
C
93
B
54
B
94
C
55
A
95
C
56
D
96
B
57
B
97
C
58
A
98
B
59
B
99
C
60
B
100
A
61
A
101
A
62
B
102
B
63
A
103
B
64
C
104
A
65
C
105
B
66
C
106
A
67
D
107
B
68
C
108
D
69
C
109
C
70
A
110
A
71
D
111
B
72
A
112
C
73
A
113
C
74
C
114
A
75
C
115
C
76
A
116
A
77
C
117
A
78
D
118
C
79
C
119
B
80
D
120

A
B
A
C
B
B
B
B
D
C
A
B
D
D
C
D
D
B
D
B
B
B
D
A
D
D
D
C
C
D
C
A
D
C
A
C
B
B
B
B

Booklet No. :

A
SET

MT - 15

Metallurgy
Duration of Test : 2 Hours

Max. Marks : 120

Hall Ticket No.
Name of the Candidate :
Date of Examination :

Signature of the Candidate

Signature of the Invigilator

INSTRUCTIONS
1.

This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.

2.

Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.

3.

Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.

4.

This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.

5.

Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.

6.

on the OMR sheet carefully.

7.

OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.

8.

Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.

9.

No part of the Booklet should be detached under any circumstances.

10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

MT-15-A

METALLURGY (MT)
1.

A value of λ for which the equations x + y + z = 1 , x + 2 y + 4 z = λ and x + 4 y + 10 z = λ 2
are consistent is
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 0
(D) None

2.

The necessary and sufficient condition that the linear system of equations AX = B is
consistent when
(A) Rank ( AB) > Rank ( A)
(B) Rank ( AB) = Rank ( A)
(C)

3.

Rank ( AB) ≠ Rank ( A)

(D) None

The function f ( x) = x2 sin x + xcos x in the interval (–1, 1) is
(A) odd function
(C) neither even nor odd function

4.

The series ∑
n =1

(B) even function
(D) discontinuous function

1
n2 + 1

(A) converges
(C) diverges

(B) neither converges nor diverges
(D) oscillatory

5.

If ∇φ1 and ∇φ2 are normals to the surfaces φ1 and φ2 , then the angle between the
surfaces is
 ∇φ1.∇φ2 
 ∇φ1. ∇φ2 
(A) cos–1 
(B) tan–1 

| ∇φ1 || ∇φ2|
| ∇φ1 || ∇φ2|
(C) 0
(D) 90°

6.

If S is an open surface bounded by a closed curve C and F is a vector differentiable

function, then by Stoke’s theorem  Fd–r
C

I

(A)
(C)

7.

∫∫
∫∫

S

S

(B)

∇ 2 Fds

(D) 0

The particular integral
(A)

Set - A

∫∫

∇.Fds

x
cos α x

S

∇ × F .nds

1
cosα x is
(D + α 2 )

(B)

2

x
sinα x

(C)
2

x

α2

sinα x

(D)

x

α

cosα x

MT

8.

9.

The differential equation M(x,y) dx + N(x,y) dy = 0 is exact if
(A)

∂M ∂N
=
∂x
∂y

(B)

(C)

∂M ∂N
=
∂y
∂x

(D) None

If the mean and variance of a binomially distributed random variable are 3 and 2
respectively, then its probability distribution function is
2
(A) b(9, 3)

10.

11.

(B)

13.

1
b(12, 3)

(C)

1
b(9, 3)

(D) None

The iteration formulae used in Euler’s method is
h
f ( xk , yk )
2

(A)

yk +1 = yk +

(C)

yk +1 = yk + hf ( xk , yk )

(B)

yk +1 = y0 −

(D)

None

h
f ( xk , yk )
2

Quantity of electricity that deposits 1 equivalent weight of the metal is called

12.

xM ( x, y ) + y N ( x, y) = 0

one Coulomb (C)

one Amp

(D) one Amp/sec

Which one of the following is an anodic process ?
(A) Electroplating

(B)

(C)

(D) Electro deposition

Electro polishing

Electro refining

Self diffusion
(A) is the migration of atoms in pure metals
(B)

occurs in binary metals and alloys

(C)

is atomic migration along a phase

(D) is atomic migration along grain boundaries
14.

Ohmic over voltage is due to
(A) slowest step of the deposition
(B)

electrode coverage by oxidation products

(C)

concentration changes of the electrolyte

(D) increase in the current density
Set - A

3

MT

15.

Best material for storage of dilute Sulphuric acid is
(A) Nickel
(B) Stainless steel
(D) Aluminum

16.

Intergranular corrosion is due to
(A) depletion of C
(C) depletion of Ni

(B) depletion of Cr
(D) increase of C

17.

A solution containing different ions of Zn and Cd when electrolyzed
(A) Zn gets deposited first
(B) both Zn and Cd get deposited
(C) Cd gets deposited initially
(D) no deposition occurs

18.

Austenitic SS exhibit greatest pitting resistance when
(A) cold worked
(B) cold worked and annealed
(C) solution quenched above 980 °C (D) solution quenched below 980 °C

19.

To protect against oxygen reaction, an oxide must possess
(A) low melting point
(B) high vapour pressure
(C) high electrical conductivity

20.

Ellingham diagrams for the formation of metal oxides are plotted

1
(A) ∆G° against T
(C)
21.

22.

23.

1
∆G° against T 0.5

(A) enthalpy remains constant
(C) heat transfer is zero

(B)

1
∆G° against T 2

(D) ∆G° against T

(B) work done is a path function
(D) temperature

The free energy change for a chemical reaction is
(A) RTlnK
(B) RlnK
(C) – RTlnK

(D) – RlnK

In an ideal gas mixture, fugacity of a specie is equal to its
(A) volume
(B) chemical potential
(C) vapour pressure
(D) partial pressure

Set - A

4

MT

24.

25.

Gibbs free energy per mole for a pure substance is equal to
(A) heat capacity

(B)

(C)

(D) latent heat of vapourisation

molal boiling point

When a gas in a vessel expands, its internal energy decreases. The process involved is

26.

chemical potential

(B)

irreversible

(C)

isothermal

(D) reversible

The equilibrium constant of a chemical reaction ____in the presence of a catalyst
(A) decreases
(B)

remains unaffected

(C)

increases

(D) can either increase or decrease (depends on the type of catalyst)
27.

28.

For a zero order reaction, concentration of product increases with
(A) decreases in total pressure

(B)

(C)

(D) increase in total pressure

increase in reaction time

Half-life period of a first order irreversible reaction, A → B is
(A) ln 2/k

29.

30.

k/2

(C)

ln k/2

(D) ln 0.5/k

(A) slow

(B)

(C)

(D) non-spontaneous

always spontaneous

fast

Which of the following has the highest thermal conductivity ?
(B)

Brick

(C)

Copper

(D) Water

Maximum heat transfer rate is obtained in ___flow.
(A) creeping

32.

(B)

The reaction with low activation energy is

(A) Air
31.

increase in initial concentration

(B)

transient region (C) laminar

(D) turbulent

The ratio of the actual mesh dimensions of Taylors series to that of the next smaller
screen is
(A) √2

Set - A

(B)

2

(C)
5

1.5

(D) 2.5
MT

33.

Froth floatation is most suitable for treating
(A) Carbonate ores (B)

34.

35.

37.

(B)

(C)

(D) Equilibrium diagrams

Arrhenius diagrams

(B)

more than 40% (C)

(A) zone refining

(B)

(C)

(D) electrolytic

42.

(D) 30%

fire

fractional distillation

Matte smelting is used for the production of
(B)

Zn

(C)

Ni

(D) Sn

The following metal is extracted in gaseous state
(B)

Zirconium

(C)

Zinc

(D) Nickel

Dissolution of sulphides in bacterial leaching is due to
(C)

41.

35%

Zinc refining is carried out by

(A) ferric ions

40.

Pourbaix diagrams

Flash smelting process is autogenous when the combustant contains about ____ Oxygen

39.

(D) Iron ores

(A) Kellog diagrams

(A) Pb
38.

Quartzite

Cu-O-S and Fe-O-S equilibrium diagrams are known as

(A) 20%
36.

Sulphide ores (C)

(B)

H2SO4

ferrous ions

(D) presence of Thiobacillus ferroxidans

Flux is added to lower _______ of the slag.
(A) activity

(B)

(C)

(D) surface tension

density

liquidus temperature

Minimum size of riser is obtained from ___ shape.
(A) spherical

(B)

(C)

(D) cubical

cylindrical

semi-spherical

Anode effect occurs in an electrolytic cell when normal Al2O3 level from _____ drops to
below 1%.
(A) 6-10%

Set - A

(B)

18-26%

(C)
6

27-32%

(D) 33% - 41%
MT

43.

Nickel is produced directly from nickel mattes through the following converter :
(A) Peirce-Smith (B)

44.

47.

48.

Top blown rotary

(D)

LD

(B)

iron ore

(C)

sinter

(D) coke

Permeability of the charge in the bosh region of blast furnace is maintained by
(A) lime stone

46.

(C)

Chief source of sulphur in the blast furnace charge is
(A) flux

45.

Hoboken

(B)

iron ore

(C)

sinter

(D) coke

Main activity in the tuyere region of iron blast furnace is
(A) combustion of coke

(B)

(C)

(D) solution loss reaction

reduction of iron oxide

melting of slag

Sudden sinking of the stock in the blast furnace caused by collapse of scaffold, hanging
etc. is called
(A) channeling

(B)

(C)

(D) break out

slipping

pillaring

Hard driving of blast furnace is due to
(A) charging coarse coke
(B)

blowing maximum volume of blast in the furnace

(C)

charging hard coke (having low M10 value)

(D) maintaining highly permeable coke bed in the bosh region
49.

50.

IRSID/CAFL process of steel making employs
(A) acid brick lining in the furnace

(B)

(C)

(D) open combustion

suppressed combustion

external heating

High alumina refractories when compared to fire clay refractories have
(A) high resistance to thermal shock and creep
(B)

(C)

less resistance to slag attack

(D) low refractoriness
Set - A

7

MT

51.

Carbon refractories
(A) don’t resist temperature fluctuations
(B) have very low thermal and electrical conductivities
(C) don’t burn/oxidize when exposed to air on heating
(D) are not attacked by slags as they are not wetted by melts

52.

Use of pulverized coal in boiler operations provide
(A) better combustion
(B) higher calorific value
(C) smokeless burning
(D) less erosion on furnace wall

53.

Most of the coking coals are
(A) anthracite
(B) lignite

(C)

bituminous

(D) peat

54.

Calorific value (C.V.) of coke oven gas is about _______ kcal/Nm3
(A) 1900
(B) 7500
(C) 900
(D) 4200

55.

Materials with metallic bonds are necessarily
(A) have low electrical conductivity (B) hard
(C) ductile under stress
(D) gases at room temperature

56.

During cooling of steel containing 0.8% carbon from 1000 ºC, pearlite occurs at _______ ºC.
(A) 910
(B) 480
(C) 768
(D) 723

57.

What is the criterion used for the determination of hardness of steel ?
(A) shape and distribution of carbide in iron
(B) method of steel production
(C) carbon content
(D) alloying elements contents

58.

Case carburizing is the most widely used method for steel parts with
(A) high corrosion resistance
(B) high hardness
(C) low carbon content
(D) low tensile strength

59.

Martensite has ________ lattice.
(A) body centered cubic
(C) face centered cubic

Set - A

(B) body centered tetragonal
(D) closed packed hexagonal
8

MT

60.

61.

62.

63.

Toughness of a material implies
(A) machinability

(B)

(C)

(D) strength

conductivity

Boron in steel increases its
(A) hardenability

(B)

(C)

(D) weldability

corrosion resistance

(A) rough machinability

(B)

(C)

(D) creep strength

impact toughness

66.

(B)

Ferritic

(C)

Austenitic

(D) All of the above

cooled

(D) tempered

Tool steel should be first hardened and then
(B)

annealed

(C)

With increase in temperature, the grain size produced by annealing
(A) increases

(B)

(C)

(D) decreases

remains unchanged

increase or decrease

What is the maximum solubility of carbon in iron at 1130 ºC ?
(A) 3.5%

67.

hardenability

Which stainless steel has the highest thermal conductivity ?

(A) normalised
65.

impact resistance

The fine austenitic grain size in steel increases

(A) Martensitic
64.

stress relieving

(B)

2%

(C)

1%

(D) 0.5%

Sub zero treatment of steel is applicable for
(A) high speed tool steels
(B)

steels containing < 0.2% carbon

(C)

steels not containing retained austenite

(D) low carbon steels
68.

For paramagnetic materials, the value of K is
(A) small and positive

(B)

(C)

(D) small and negative

Set - A

large and positive

9

large and negative

MT

69.

70.

71.

72.

Which of the following have the most stable atomic structure ?
(A) Alkali metals

(B)

(C)

(D) Rare earth metals

Rare gases

Diffusion in solid solution is given by
(A) Schrodinger equation

(B)

(C)

(D) Fick’s law

De’ Broglie expression

74.

75.

Kirkendal effect

Mathematical expression, nλ = 2d sine, is called
(A) De Broglie expression

(B)

(C)

(D) Pauli exclusion principle

Bragg’s law

Fick’s law

Energy associated with an electron at absolute zero temperature (which is the maximum
value for that electron) is called _______ energy.
(A) fermi

73.

Transition elements

(B)

degenerate

(C)

ionisation

(D) electron

_______ is used for tracing stereographic projection.
(A) Logarithmic graph paper

(B)

(C)

(D) Ternary phase diagram

Ordinary graph paper

Wulff net

Which of the following property of a material is not affected by the grain boundaries
or crystal imperfections ?
(A) Impact strength

(B)

(C)

(D) Coefficient of thermal expansion

Yield strength

Hardness

A high reduction of cross sectional area of a metal (on application of tensile load)
indicates that the material has
(A) lost its malleability
(B)

lost its ductility

(C)

a low rate of hardening by deformation

(D) a high rate of hardening by deformation
76.

The thickness of the test specimen in BHN test should not be less than ______ times the
depth of impression.
(A) ten

Set - A

(B)

two

(C)
10

five

(D) seven
MT

77.

Which of the following is liable to creep even at room temperature ?
(A) Aluminium

78.

(B) Low carbon steel (C) Copper

The fatigue limit of metals is decreased by
(A) cold working (B)

79.

decarburising (C) carburising

(D) nitriding

With increase in Izod value of metals, its fatigue limit
(A) increases
(B)

remains same

(C)

may increase or decrease; there is no direct relationship between the two

(D) decreases
80.

81.

Which of the following is not a nondestructive test ?
(A) Wohler fatigue test

(B)

(C)

(D) Magnaflux method

Which of the following has the least Young’s modulus ?
(A) Aluminium

82.

Copper

(C)

Steel

(D) Iron

(B)

hard

(C)

ductile

(D) brittle

Recrystallisation of which of the following metals can occur even at room temperature ?
(A) Nickel

84.

(B)

Compression test is mostly used for ________ materials.
(A) soft

83.

Ultrasonic testing

(B)

Iron

(C)

Zinc

(D) Copper

Cold working of a metal
(A) does not cause work hardening
(B)

results in strain hardening

(C)

is always carried out at room temperature for all the metals

(D) is carried out above its recrystallization temperature
85.

Which type of rolling mill is suitable for the production of very thin strip in hard
materials ?
(A) Tandem

Set - A

(B)

Three high

(C)
11

Four high

(D) Cluster
MT

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

Work hardening of metals
(A) does not affect ductility

(B)

(C)

(D) decreases tensile strength

decreases ductility

Cold working of metals does not improve
(A) yield strength

(B)

(C)

(D) Izod value

hardness

92.

(A) soaking time to heating time

(B)

(C)

(D) tracking time to heating time

heating time to track time

heating time to soaking time

Which fuel gas is commonly used for hot machine scarfing of steel ?
(A) LD gas

(B)

(C)

(D) Coke oven gas

Acetylene gas

Blast furnace gas

A material which does not possess identical properties in all directions is called _______
material.
(C)

anisotropic

(B)

isotopic

(D) homogeneous

(A) seamless tubes

(B)

forged parts

(C)

(D) cup shaped parts

Piercing is done for producing
wires

Which of the following cold working operation involves drawing ?
(A) Punching

93.

residual stresses

Heating ratio of ingot is defined as the ratio of

(A) plastic
91.

increases ductility

(B)

Spinning

(C)

Slitting

(D) Impact intrusion

Young’s modulus of elasticity is the
(A) slope of the plastic region of the stress – strain curve
(B)

ratio of strain to elasticity

(C)

slope of initial linear portion of the stress – strain curve

(D) ratio of strain to stress
Set - A

12

MT

94.

Which of the following is mainly responsible for tertiary stage creep to occur ?
(A) Low stress and high temperature level
(B)

High stress and low temperature level

(C)

High stress and high temperature level

(D) Low stress and low temperature level

95.

96.

97.

Maximum pressure build up in the rolling of plates is at ________ of the plate.
(A) mid center

(B)

(C)

(D) two third of length

one third of length

In hot rolling of steel
(A) annealing operation is must

(B)

(C)

(D) grain refinement is not possible

surface finish is excellent

surface finish is not good

Oxygen to acetylene ratio in case of oxidizing flame is
(A) 2 : 1

98.

both ends

(B)

1.5 : 1

(C)

1:1

(D) 2.5 : 1

Function of flux in brazing is to
(A) facilitate the wetting by reducing the viscosity of the melt
(B)

prevent oxide formation both on base metal and brazing material

(C)

avoid thermal distortion and cracking

(D) dissolve surface oxide coating formed prior to brazing

99.

For welding aluminium, in inert gas arc welding _______ is used.
(A) Noncombustible electrode with helium and direct current
(B)

Straight polarity direct current

(C)

CO2 and high speed

(D) Combustible electrode and argon with alternating current

100.

Temperature attained in soldering of metals is about _____ °C
(A) 1000-1500

Set - A

(B)

150-300

(C)
13

750-1000

(D) 1500-2000
MT

101.

Ultrasonic welding
(A) is useful for joining sections with different thicknesses
(B)

is cheapest of all the welding processes

(C)

is not used in lap form of construction

(D) cannot join materials of different construction
102.

103.

Which of the following is the most weldable of all metals ?
(A) Brass

(B)

(C)

(D) Stainless steel

Plain carbon steel

Which joining process is used for joining two stainless steel foils of 0.075 mm thickness ?
(A) Arc welding (B)

104.

(B)

(B)

(B)

Cast iron

(D) Stainless steel

Copper rod

(C)

Flux rod

(D) Solder

oxidizing

(C)

neutral

(D) reducing

Laser

(C)

MIG

(D) TIG

maraging

(C)

high speed

(D) stainless

gas

(D) resistance

Thermit welding is a form of ______ welding.
(A) arc

110.

(C)

Weld decay occurs in _______ steel when heated in the range of 510 ºC to 790 ºC
(A) plain carbon (B)

109.

Aluminium

_______ welding uses consumable electrode.
(A) Thermit

108.

(B)

Oxy-acetylene welding is employed with _______ flame.
(A) carburising

107.

MIG welding (D) Plasma arc welding

Which material is used in brazing ?
(A) Spelter

106.

TIG welding (C)

TIG welding is best used for welding
(A) Titanium

105.

Aluminium

(B)

fusion

(C)

Preheating of material to be welded is necessary in the case of
(A) Cast iron

Set - A

(B)

High speed steel (C) Stainless steel (D) Copper
14

MT

111.

112.

The best moulding process for production of intricate castings weighing more than
100 tons is
(A) Cement moulding

(B)

(C)

(D) Green sand moulding

Pit moulding

Plastic articles are manufactured by _______ moulding.
(A) Dry sand

113.

(B)

(B)

(B)

(C)

in-gates

(D) sprue

Lost wax

(C)

Shell moulding (D) Die casting

Scab

(C)

Swell

(D) Shift

permeability (C)

(B)

<1

(C)

10

(D) 20

(B)

pig

(C)

malleable

(D) nodular

By using the following, the efficiency of raiser can be enhanced :
(A) bottom gate

120.

risers

Cupola is used for producing ______ iron.
(A) grey cast

119.

(D) Injection

Shrinkage allowance for cast iron is about ____ mm/metre
(A) > 20

118.

Pit

The property of sand due to which the sand grains stick together is known as
(A) cohesiveness (B)

117.

(C)

Casting defect which results in mismatching of the top and bottom part of the casting is
known as
(A) Sand wash

116.

Shell

Small precision castings are made by _______ process.
(A) Centrifugal

115.

(B)

Skim bob is attached to
(A) pouring cup

114.

Ceramic moulding

(B)

chills

(C)

chaplets

(D) sprue

The following process is used for the casting of dental alloys :
(A) dry sand

Set - A

(B)

true centrifugal (C) die casting

15

(D) investment casting

MT

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Set - A

16

MT

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40

B
B
A
C
A
B
B
D
C
D
A
C
A
B
C
B
C
C
D
D
C
C
B
B
D
B
C
A
B
C
D
A
B
A
B
B
C
C
A
B

METALLURGY (MT)
SET - A
41
A
42
A
43
C
44
D
45
D
46
A
47
C
48
B
49
C
50
A
51
D
52
A
53
C
54
D
55
C
56
D
57
A
58
C
59
B
60
D
61
A
62
C
63
A
64
D
65
D
66
B
67
A
68
A
69
C
70
D
71
C
72
A
73
B
74
D
75
C
76
A
77
D
78
B
79
C
80
A

81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
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Booklet No. :

A
SET

NT - 15

Nano Technology
Duration of Test : 2 Hours

Max. Marks : 120

Hall Ticket No.
Name of the Candidate :
Date of Examination :

Signature of the Candidate

Signature of the Invigilator

INSTRUCTIONS
1.

This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.

2.

Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.

3.

Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.

4.

This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.

5.

Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.

6.

on the OMR sheet carefully.

7.

OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.

8.

Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.

9.

No part of the Booklet should be detached under any circumstances.

10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

NT-15-A

NANO TECHNOLOGY (NT)
1.

Select the equation that represents the equation of force equilibrium in the x direction.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

P cos45 – F cos 45 + 100 cos 30 = 0
100 cos30 + F cos 75 – P cos 15 = 0
F cos 75 + 100 cos 30 – P cos 45 = 0
– P cos 45 + F cos 75 + 100 = 0

2.

A coplanar parallel system of forces will be in equilibrium, if………
I.
the resultant of the coplanar parallel force system is equal to zero.
II. the system reduces to a couple equal to zero.
(A) I alone is correct
(B) II alone is correct
(C) both I and II are correct
(D) Neither I nor II is correct.

3.

Determine the x-coordinate of the location of the center of mass for the masses shown in
Figure.

(A) 0.45m
4.

(C)

0.96m

(D)

0.54m

Find the polar moment of inertia of a square of length ‘a’ with respect to its
centroid.
(A) a4/6

5.

(B) 0.73m

(B)

a4/12

(C)

a4/3

(D) a4/9

If a force Ē acts in space at a point A whose position vector is ā, the moment of the force
Ē about the origin is given by
(A) Ē x ā
(B) Ē.ā
(C) ā x Ē
(D) ā . Ē

Set - A

2

NT

6.

A particle moving along a circle with variable angular speed will have
(A) tangential component of acceleration only
(B) normal component of acceleration only
(C) no acceleration
(D) both tangential and normal components of acceleration

7.

Centrifugal force is
(A) real force
(C) not an inertial force

(B) fictitious force
(D) an inertial force

8.

A thin ring of mass M and radius R rolls down an incline from a height H without
slipping, the maximum attainable velocity V of its center will be_________
1/2
1/2
3 
2 
1/2
1/2
(D)
(A) V= (gH)
(B) V= (2gH)
(C) V= 3 gH
2 gH

9.

The conservation of momentum of a two body system is possible if
(A) external force acts on any one of the bodies
(B) external forces act on both the bodies
(C) no external force acts on either body
(D) each body exerts no force on the other body

10.

A disc is fixed at its center to the one end of a shaft of torsional stiffness Kt, the other end
of the shaft is fixed. If the mass moment of inertia of the disc about the axis of the shaft
is I, what is the natural frequency of the torsional system ?
(A) (Kt/I)1/2
(B) (KtI)1/2
(C) (I/Kt)1/2
(D) (2Kt/I)1/2

11.

The area under the stress – strain curve (up to elastic limit) gives ________
(A) strain energy
(B) strain energy per unit volume
(C) modulus of elasticity
(D) bulk modulus

12.

In which cross section of a cantilever beam with an end point load, the maximum
bending stress occurs ?
(A) Cross section at free end
(B) Cross section at mid length
(C) Cross section at the fixed end
(D) Depends on the magnitude of the load

13.

The shape of Bending moment diagram for a cantilever beam subjected to uniformly
(A) rectangle
(B) parabola
(C) cubic curve (D) triangle

14.

According to the theory of simple bending, the variation of bending stress across a beam
cross section is ______________
(A) Linear
(B) Zero
(C) Parabolic
(D) Hyperbolic

Set - A

3

NT

15.

The rate of change of shear force along the length of a beam is equal to _________
(A) bending moment
(B) slope of the beam
(D) deflection of the beam

16.

In case of biaxial stresses, the maximum shear stress is _________
(A) difference of normal stresses
(B) half the difference of normal stresses
(C) sum of the normal stresses
(D) half the sum of normal stresses

17.

For two shafts joined in series, which of the following is the same ?
(A) Shear stress (B) Torque
(C) Angle of twist (D) Stiffness

18.

The ratio of maximum bending stress to maximum shear stress on the cross section when
a shaft is simultaneously subjected to a torque T and bending moment M is _________
(A) M/T
(B) M/2T
(C) 4M/T
(D) 2M/T

19.

The planes of maximum shear stress lie at ________ to the planes of principal stresses.
(A) 45o
(B) 90o
(C) 270o
(D) 120o

20.

For the case of two perpendicular direct stresses with simple shear, the extremities of its
Mohr’s stress circle diameter indicate ________
(A) maximum and minimum principal stresses
(B) maximum and minimum shear stresses
(C) maximum principal stress and maximum shear stresses
(D) minimum principal stress and maximum shear stresses

21.

A composite slab has two layers of different materials with thermal conductivity K1 and
K2. If each layer had the same thickness, the equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab
would be
K1 + K 2
2 K 1K 2
(D) K1K2
(C)
(A) K1 +K2
(B)
K 1K 2
K1 + K 2

22.

It is desired to increase the heat dissipation rate over the surface of an electronic device
of spherical shape of 5 mm radius exposed to convection with h=10W/m2K by encasing
it in a spherical sheath of conductivity 0.04 W/m K. For maximum heat flow, the
diameter of the sheath should be
(A) 18 mm
(B) 16 mm
(C) 12 mm
(D) 8 mm

23.

Up to the critical radius of insulation
(A) added insulation will increase heat loss
(B) added insulation will decrease heat loss
(C) convection heat loss will be less than conduction heat loss
(D) heat flux will decrease.

Set - A

4

NT

24.

The average heat transfer coefficient of an electric heater which has heat flux
6000 W/m2, the surface temperature of 120 °C is cooled by air at 70 °C is
(A) 60
(B) 120
(C) 180
(D) 240

25.

A flat composite wall with three different materials whose thermal conductivity and
thicknesses are k1, k2, & k3 and x1, x2, & x3 respectively. The surface temperatures are t1,
t2, t3 & t4. The conduction through wall is
k 1A k 2 A k 3 A
(t1 − t 4 )A
+
+
Q=
x
x2
x3
k1 k 2 k 3
(A) Q = 1
(B)
+
+
(t 1 − t 4 )
x1 x 2 x 3
Q=
(C)

t1 − t 4
k 1A k 2 A k 3 A
+
+
x1
x2
x3

Q=
(D)

t1 − t 4
x
x1
x
+ 2 + 3
k 1A k 2 A k 3 A

26.

The radial heat transfer rate through hollow cylinder increases as the ratio of outer radius
(A) constant
(B) increases
(C) decreases
(D) decreases first and then increases

27.

A hollow cylinder of internal radius r1, external radius r2, and length L, the heat transfer
2πL log e ( t1 / t 2 )
2πL( t1 − t 2 )k
(A) Q =
(B) Q =
log10 r2 / r1
(r2 − r1 )k
(C)

Q=

2πL( t1 − t 2 )
k (r2 − r1 )

(D)

Q=

2πL( t1 − t 2 )k
log e r2 / r1

28.

The ratio of inertia force to viscous force is
(A) Biot number
(B) Euler number
(C) Reynolds number
(D) Reyleigh number

29.

Mean radius of a hollow sphere of outer and inner radii of 16mm and 9mm is equal to
(A) 12.5mm
(B) 14.4 mm
(C) 17 mm
(D) 12mm

30.

If k is thermal conductivity and h is film coefficient of heat transfer at outer radius of a
sphere, then the critical radius of insulation is    

(A)
(B)
(C) √
(D)
√    

31.

Wavelength for maximum emissive power is given by
(A) Stefan’s law
(B) Kirchoff’s law
(C) Wein’s law
(D) Plank’s law

Set - A

5

NT

32.

Air at 50 ºC blows over a plate of 50 cm × 20 cm maintained at 250 ºC. If the convection
heat transfer coefficient is 25 W/m2 ºC, the heat transfer rate is
(A) 125W
(B) 500W
(C) 750W
(D) 1000W

33.

A furnace wall of thickness 1 m and of surface area 3 m2, is made of a material whose
thermal conductivity is 1 kJ/hr mºC. The temperature of inner surface of the wall is
950 ºC and of outer surface is 150 ºC. Heat flow through the wall in kJ/hr
(A) 450
(B) 2400
(C) 2650
(D) 2850

34.

Three metal walls of the same cross-sectional area having thermal conductivities in the
ratio 1 : 3 : 5 transfer heat at the rate of 6000 kJ/hr. For the same wall thickness, the
temperature drops will be in the ratio.
1 1
1 1
: :1
(A) 1 : 1 : 1
(B) 1 : 3 : 5
(C) 1 : :
(D)
3 5
5 3
A wall of (surface area A, thickness ∆x and conductivity k) contains hot fluid at
temperature T1 on one side and cold fluid at temperature T2 on the other side. The rate of

35.

heat transfer from hot fluid to cold fluid is equal to

(A)

(C)

 1
∆x
1 


+
+
 h1A kA h 2 A 
(T1 − T2 )
(T1 − T2 )(h 1 − h 2 )
A ( ∆x )

(B)

(D)

1
1 
(T1 − T2  + A
 h1 h 2 
∆x
T1 − T2
 1
1 
∆x


+
+
 h1A kA h 2 A 

36.

A drum of radius R full of a fluid of density d is rotated at ω rad/sec. The increase in
pressure at the outer edge of the drum will be
ωR d
ω2 R 2 d
ω2 Rd
ω R d2
(A)
(D)
(B)
(C)
2
2
2
2

37.

The critical velocity is
(A) maximum attainable velocity
(B) terminal velocity
(C) velocity above which the flow ceases to be streamlined
(D) velocity at which flow is maximum

38.

Reynolds number for non-circular cross section in terms of V-mean velocity, v-kinematic
viscosity and P- ratio of cross sectional area to the wetted perimeter is
V.4P
V. P
V. P
VP
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
ν
ν

Set - A

6

NT

39.

The flow of any fluid, real or ideal, must fulfill the following :
(A) Newton’s law of viscosity
(B) Newton’s second law of viscosity
(C) Velocity at boundary must be zero
(D) The continuity equation

40.

For a two- dimensional fluid element in x-y plane, the rotational component is given as
1  ∂v ∂u 
1  ∂u ∂v 
(A) ωz =  + 
(B) ωz =  − 
2  ∂x ∂y 
2  ∂x ∂y 
1  ∂u ∂v 
 + 
2  ∂x ∂y 
Density of water is maximum at
(A) 0 ºC
(B) 4 ºC
(C)

41.

ωz =

(D)

ωz =

(C)

32 ºC

1  ∂v ∂u 
 − 
2  ∂x ∂y 
(D) 100 ºC

42.

If the velocity in a fluid flow does not change with respect to length of direction of flow,
it is called
(A) rotational flow
(B) incompressible flow
(C) uniform flow

43.

The cross sectional areas of a Venturimeter at inlet and outlet are A1 and A2 respectively.
If the pressure head h, and coefficient of discharge is Cd then the discharge is
2

(A)

Q = Cd

(C)

Q = Cd

A1 A 2

2

2

A1 − A 2
2

A1 A 2
2

2

× 2gh

(B)

Q = Cd

(D)

Q = Cd

2

2A1 − A 2

2

× 2gh

A 1A 2
2

2A1 − A 2
A 1A 2
2

A1 − A 2

2

2

× 2gh

× 2gh

44.

The square root of the ratio of inertia force to gravity force is
(A) Reynolds number
(B) Euler number
(C) Mach number
(D) Froude number

45.

Model analysis of aeroplanes and projectile moving at super- sonic speed are based on
(A) Euler number
(B) Mach number
(C) Froude number
(D) Reynolds number

46.

Drag force is expressed mathematically as
1
(B)
(A) FD = ρU 2 × C D × A
2
(C) FD = 2ρU 2 × C D × A
(D)

Set - A

7

1
ρU 2 × C D × A
4
FD = ρU 2 × C D × A
FD =

NT

47.

The thickness of turbulent boundary layer at a distance x from the leading edge over a
flat plate varies as
(A) x3/5
(B) x1/5
(C) x4/5
(D) x1/2

48.

The relation between co-efficient of friction (f) and Reynolds number (Re) for laminar
flow through a pipe is given by
4
8
12
16
(A) f =
(B) f =
(C) f =
(D) f =
Re
Re
Re
Re

49.

Which furnace employs preheating, heating and soaking zones ?
(A) Soaking pit
(B) Cupola
(C) Reheating furnace
(D) Open hearth furnace

50.

The time period of oscillation of a floating body, whose radius of gyration is k and metacentre height GM, is
(A)

T = 2π

GM
gk 2

(B)

T = 2π

gk 2
GM

(C)

T = 2π

k2
GM × g

(D)

T = 2π

GM × g
k2

51.

The first law of thermodynamics states
(A) About chemical equilibrium of system
(B) Law of conservation of energy of system
(C) Properties of atoms involved in the system
(D) Phase equilibrium

52.

The heat transfer takes place according to
(A) first law of thermodynamics
(B) zeroth law of thermodynamics
(C) second law of thermodynamics
(D) fourier’s law

53.

At equilibrium of any system
(A) ∆G = RT ln K
(C) ∆G° = RT ln K

(B) ∆G = – RT ln K
(D) ∆G° = – RT ln K

An ideal solution is one, which obeys
(A) Raoult’s law
(C) Sievert’s law

(B) Henry’s law
(D) Gibb’s Duhem law

54.

Set - A

8

NT

55.

Ellingham diagram for metal-oxide system doesn’t give idea about
(A) Oxidation of metals
(B) Reduction of metal oxides
(C) Kinetics of the oxide reaction
(D) Value of partial pressure of oxygen for the reactions shown in a diagram

56.

A body which absorbs all the radiations falling on it, is called
(A) Opaque body
(B) White body
(C) Black body
(D) Transparent body

57.

According to phase rule
(A) P – F = C + 2
(C) P + F = C + 2

(B) F + C = P + 2
(D) P + C = F + 2

58.

The enthalpy of a chemical element in the standard state at 0 °C is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 5
(D) 10

59.

The change in enthalpy is given as
(A) dH = V.dP/S.dT
(C) dH = S.dT+P.dv

(B) dH = P.dv/T.dS
(D) dH = T.dS+V.dP

60.

An isolated system is that
(A) whose internal energy is zero
(B) whose enthalpy value is negative
(C) whose thermal conductivity is infinite
(D) which is not affected by its surroundings

61.

The well known gas equation (P+a/V2) (V-b) = RT is called
(A) Charle’s
(B) Ostwald’s
(C) Dulong and Petit
(D) Vanderwaal’s

62.

The measure of the tendency of a given element to leave a given phase is
(A) Its chemical potential
(B) Its enthalpy
(C) Its Cp
(D) Its Cv

63.

The second law of thermodynamics is primarily concerned with
(A) Entropy
(B) Free energy (C) Activity
(D) Enthalpy

Set - A

9

NT

64.

In a heat engine following the carnot cycle and operating between a heat source at T1 and
Heat sink at T2, which of the following will lead to a maximum increase in efficiency
(assume that the extent of the change, ∆T, is the same in all cases) ?
(A) Lowering T2 by ∆T, keeping T1 constant
(B)

Lowering T1 by ∆T, keeping T2 constant

(C)

Increasing T2 by ∆T, keeping T1 constant

(D) Increasing T1 by ∆T, keeping T2 constant
65.

The enthalpy change for a reaction is the same whether it takes place in one or several
stages. This statement refers to
(A) Kirchoff’s law
(B) First law of thermodynamics
(C) Hess’s law
(D) Second law of thermodynamics

66.

For the reaction, ZnO (s) + H2 (g) → Zn (s) + H2O (g)
∆H0500= + 140 kJ mol–1; ∆S0500 = + 60 kJ K–1 mol–1
The above reaction at 500K is ______
(A) feasible
(B) not feasible
(C) forward and backward reaction are equally feasible
(D) feasibility can’t be determined

67.

In the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 + 92.37 kJ, the formation of NH3 will be favoured by
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

low temperature
high temperature
low pressure and high temperature
low temperature and high pressure

68.

If the concentration of reactant is increased in a system at equilibrium, the
(A) equilibrium constant increases
(B) reaction will shift to left
(C) reaction will shift to right
(D) equilibrium constant decreases

69.

In the reaction Fe + CO2 ↔ FeO + CO, increasing the pressure will
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Set - A

shift the equilibrium towards right
shift the equilibrium towards left
no change in equilibrium condition
equilibrium constant increases
10

NT

70.

In the reaction, ZnO + C → Zn + CO, ∆H0 = + 349 kJ / mol–1 increase in
temperature will
(A) shift the equilibrium towards left
(B) shift the equilibrium towards right
(C) no change in the position of equilibrium
(D) equilibrium constant remains unaltered

71.

Gibbs - Helmholtz equation is
(A) ∆G = ∆H - T∆S
(C)

72.

dP / dT = ∆Hvap/T∆Vvap

(D) ∆A = ∆U – T∆S

∆G vs 1/T
(D) ∆G0 vs 1/T

(B)

In the Ellingham diagram of oxides, the reaction that is parallel to the temperature axis is
(A) 2C + O2 = 2CO
(B) 2Zn + O2 = 2ZnO
(C)

74.

∆G = ∆H + T [∆ (∆G) / dT]P

Ellingham diagrams for M – MOx reactions is a plot of
(A) ∆G vs T
(C) ∆G0 vs T

73.

(B)

C + O2 = CO2

(D) 2CO + O2 = 2CO2

In the Ellingham diagram of oxides, the position of formation _____ oxide is very low
(A) Fe
(C) Mg

(B) Ca
(D) Al

75.

Ellingham diagram does not give any idea about
(A) reduction of metal sulphides
(B) oxidation of metals
(C) kinetics of reaction
(D) reduction of metal oxides

76.

Metal chlorides cannot be reduced by carbon because of the fact that
(A) unstable metal carbide is formed
(B) unstable carbon tetrachloride is formed
(C) reactions require very high temperature
(D) reactions require sub-zero temperature

77.

The units of rate constant for a second-order reaction is
(A) mol2 m3 s–2
(B) mol–1 m3 s2
(C) mol–1 m3 s–1
(D) mol–2 m3 s–3

Set - A

11

NT

78.

The recrystallised grain size will be smaller
(A) lower the annealing temperature and lower the amount of prior cold work
(B) higher the annealing temperature and lower the amount of prior cold work
(C) lower the annealing temperature and higher the amount of prior cold work
(D) higher the annealing temperature and higher the amount of prior cold work

79.

The driving force for grain growth is
(A) decrease in dislocation strain energy
(B) increase in grain boundary energy
(C) decrease in grain boundary energy
(D) decrease in vacancy concentration

80.

Hot working of metals is carried out
(A) Below recrystallization temperature
(B) Above recrystallization temperature
(C) Not related to temperature
(D) Above melting point

81.

Coordination number in simple cubic crystal structure
(A) 1
(B) 6
(C) 3

(D) 4

82.

The angle between the line vector and burgers vector of an edge dislocation is
(A) 180°
(B) 120°
(C) 90°
(D) 0°

83.

The close-packed direction in F.C.C. is
(A) [100]
(B) [111]
(C)

[210]

(D) [110]

84.

Stage III in single crystal deformation is due to
(A) easy glide
(B) cross-slip
(C) work hardening
(D) dynamic recovery

85.

Dislocation density depends on
(A) Temperature
(C) Degree of cold work

(B) Strain-rate
(D) Time

86.

Screw dislocation can move into a different slip plane by
(A) glide
(B) cross-slip
(C) cross-slip and climb
(D) climb

87.

Yield strength of the material is related to grain size ‘d’
(A) Proportional to d
(B) Inversely proportional to d
(C) Proportional to √d
(D) Inversely Proportional to √d

Set - A

12

NT

88.

89.

90.

True stress-strain curve need to be corrected after
(A) Elastic limit
(B) Yield limit
(C) Tensile strength
(D) No need to correct
The coordination number for a H.C.P. lattice is
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 12

(D) 8

Stacking faults are _________________ imperfections
(A) linear
(B) point
(C) surface

(D) volume

91.

Choose the correct statement
(A) Burgers vector is parallel to an edge dislocation
(B) Burgers vector is perpendicular to screw dislocation
(C) Screw dislocation can undergo cross slip
(D) Screw dislocation can undergo climb

92.

The dislocation reaction a/2 [1 1 1] + a/2 [1 1 1] -----> a [1 0 0] is
(A) energetically favourable
(B) energetically unfavourable
(C) vectorially unbalanced
(D) likely to occur in Tin.

93.

Material showing well defined yield point in the stress-strain diagram
(A) Aluminium alloy
(B) Cast Iron
(C) Mild Steel
(D) Cement

94.

The stacking fault energy of metal A is greater than that of metal B, then
(A) Width of stacking fault will be greater in metal A
(B) Width of stacking fault will be greater in metal B
(C) Cross-slip of screw dislocation will be easier in metal B
(D) Metal A will work harden more than metal B

95.

Which of the following material has over lapping energy bands ?
(A) Diamond
(B) Al
(C) Ge
(D) Si

96.

________ is a donor impurity for a p-type semiconductor
(A) P
(B) As
(C) In

(D) Sb

The material used for transformer cores is
(A) Fe - 5% W
(B) Fe - 4% Cr (C)

(D) Barium ferrite

97.

98.

Fe - 4% Si

Example for a thermosetting polymer is
(A) Polyethylene
(B) Polyester
(C) Cellulose nitrate
(D) PVC

Set - A

13

NT

99.

Electrical conductivity of a metal _______ with temperature and cold working.
(A) decreases
(B) increases
(C) remains constant
(D) none of the above

100.

For soft magnetic materials magnetic coercivity and saturation magnetization should be
(A) low & low

101.

(B)

high & low

(C)

low & high

In the PTFE (Teflon) monomer, the four side groups are
(A) F F F F
(B) H H H H
(C) H H H Cl

(D) high & high

(D) H H H CH3

102.

The first three reflecting planes of silicon (DC) are
(A) 111, 200, 220
(B) 110, 200, 211
(C) 111, 220, 311
(D) 100,110,111

103.

The word ‘ceramic’ meant for ______________.
(A) soft material (B) hard material (C) burnt material (D) dry material

104.

Not a characteristic property of ceramic material
(A) high temperature stability
(B) high mechanical strength
(C) low elongation
(D) low hardness

105.

(A) silica
(B) clay
(C)

106.

feldspar

Not a major contributor of engineering ceramics
(A) SiC
(B) SiO2
(C) Si3N4

(D) all the above

(D) Al2O3

107.

The following ceramic product is mostly used as pigment in paints
(A) TiO2
(B) SiO2
(C) UO2
(D) ZrO2

108.

Most commercial glasses consist of
(A) lime
(B) soda

(C)

silica

(D) all the above

109.

The atomic diameter of an BCC crystal (if a is lattice parameter) is
(A) a
(B) a/2
(C) a/(4/√3)
(D) a/(4/√2)

110.

If ‘c’ is the velocity of light in vacuum, and ‘v’ is the velocity of light in a material, the
index of refraction of the material, ‘n’, is given by
(A) n = c/v
(B) n = v/c
(C) n = (v/c)2
(D) n = (c/v) 2

Set - A

14

NT

111.

A very weak form of magnetism that is nonpermanent and persists only when an external
field is applied and manifests itself in a direction opposite to that of the applied field is
called
(A) Diamagnetism
(B) Paramagnetism
(C) Ferromagnetism
(D) Ferrimagnetism

112.

The energy of a dislocation is
(A) Proportional to b
(C) Proportional to 1/b

(B) Proportional to b2
(D) Independent of b

113.

The property of a material varies with the orientation or the direction in case of a/an
_________ material
(A) Isotropic
(B) Anisotropic (C) Plastic
(D) Elastic

114.

Schottky Defect is
(A) anion and cation vacancy
(C) inclusion

(B) interstitial
(D) substitutional defect

115.

N-type semiconductor is a silicon doped with element of
(A) monovalent
(B) divalent
(C) trivalent
(D) pentavalent

116.

Insulators have
(A) high dielectric constants
(C) high electrical conductivity

(B) low dielectric constants
(D) none of the above

117.

Mechanical properties of fiber reinforced composites depend on
(A) Properties of constituents
(B) Interface strength
(C) Fiber length, orientation, and volume fraction
(D) All the above

118.

Nanostructure can be studied using
(A) Optical microscope
(C) Rockwell tester

(B) AFM
(D) UTM

Example of Top-down approach
(A) PVD
(C) High Energy ball mill

(B) CVD
(D) Electrodeposition

119.

120.

Example of one-dimensional nano-structure
(A) Nano-particle
(B) Nano-tube
(C) Nano-film
(D) Nano-crystal
____________

Set - A

15

NT

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Set - A

16

NT

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40

NANO TECHNOLOGY (NT)
SET - A
B
41
B
81
C
42
C
82
D
43
D
83
A
44
D
84
C
45
B
85
D
46
A
86
B
47
C
87
A
48
D
88
C
49
A
89
A
50
C
90
B
51
91
B
C
52
92
C
B
53
93
B
A
54
94
A
C
55
95
C
B
56
96
C
B
57
97
C
D
58
98
A
A
59
99
D
A
60
100
D
C
61
101
D
A
62
102
A
A
63
103
A
B
64
104
A
D
65
105
C
C
66
106
A
D
67
107
D
C
68
108
C
D
69
109
C
B
70
110
C
C
71
111
B
B
72
112
C
B
73
113
C
C
74
114
B
D
75
115
C
A
76
116
C
C
77
117
B
B
78
118
C
D
79
119
C
D
80
120
B

B
C
D
D
C
B
D
C
C
C
C
A
C
B
C
C
C
B
A
C
A
C
C
D
D
B
A
D
C
A
A
B
B
A
D
A
D
B
C
B