Professional Documents
Culture Documents
22
O pt i o n s
a n d Co r p orate
Fin a n ce : Co nce p t s
KEY NOTATIONS
S = Current share price
E = Exercise price of call
R = Annual risk-free rate of
return, continuously
compounded
2
s = Variance (per year) of
continuous share price return
t = Time (in years) to expiration
date
___
PART SIX
Chapter
601
On 31 December 2008 the closing share prices for the British companies Experian
and Smith & Nephew were 4.32 and 4.385, respectively. Each company had
a call option trading on Euronext Liffe with a 4.40 strike price and an expiration
date of 31 March 2009. You might expect that the prices on these call options
would be similar, but they werent. The Experian options sold for 0.5349 and
Smith & Nephew options traded at 0.4253. Why did these options, which
for all intents and purposes had exactly the same terms, have an 0.11 price
difference when the share prices differed by 0.06? A big reason is that the
volatility of the underlying shares is an important determinant of an options
underlying value; and, in fact, these two equities had very different volatilities.
In this chapter we explore this issue and many others in much greater
depth using the Nobel-Prize-winning BlackScholes option pricing model.
22.1 Options
An option is a contract giving its owner the right to buy or sell an asset at a xed price on or before a given
date. For example, an option on a building might give the buyer the right to buy the building for $1 million
on or any time before the Saturday prior to the third Wednesday in January 2014. Options are a unique type
of nancial contract, because they give the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to do something. The
buyer uses the option only if it is advantageous to do so; otherwise the option can be thrown away.
There is a special vocabulary associated with options. Here are some important denitions:
1 Exercising the option: The act of buying or selling the underlying asset via the option contract.
2 Strike or exercise price: The xed price in the option contract at which the holder can buy or sell the
underlying asset.
3 Expiration date: The maturity date of the option; after this date, the option is dead.
4 American and European options: An American option may be exercised any time up to the expiration
date. A European option differs from an American option in that it can be exercised only on the
expiration date.
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 601
6/10/09 7:31:57 PM
___
602
Figure 22.1 plots the value of the call at expiration against the value of Associated British
Foods equity. This is referred to as the hockey stick diagram of call option values. If the share
FIGURE
Value of call
at expiration ()
22.1
100
Value of equity at expiration ()
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 602
6/10/09 7:32:00 PM
Put Options
603
___
price is less than 7.00, the call is out of the money and worthless. If the share price is greater
than 7.00, the call is in the money and its value rises one-for-one with increases in the share
price. Notice that the call can never have a negative value. It is a limited liability instrument,
which means that all the holder can lose is the initial amount she paid for it.
EXAMPLE
22.1
Suppose Mr Optimist holds a one-year call option on equity of the Belgian imaging and
IT company Agfa-Gevaert. It is a European call option and can be exercised at $1.80.
Assume that the expiration date has arrived. What is the value of the Agfa-Gevaert
call option on the expiration date? If Agfa-Gevaert is selling for $2.00 per share, Mr Optimist can
exercise the option purchase Agfa-Gevaert at 1.80 and then immediately sell the share at $2.00.
Mr Optimist will have made $0.20 (= $2,00 $1.80). Thus the price of this call option must be $0.20
at expiration.
Instead, assume that Agfa-Gevaert is selling for $1.00 per share on the expiration date. If Mr Optimist
still holds the call option, he will throw it out. The value of the Agfa-Gevaert call on the expiration
date will be zero in this case.
50 Share price
Figure 22.2 plots the values of a put option for all possible values of the underlying share.
It is instructive to compare Fig. 22.2 with Fig. 22.1 for the call option. The call option is
valuable when the share price is above the exercise price, and the put is valuable when the
share price is below the exercise price.
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 603
6/10/09 7:32:00 PM
___
604
22.2
Value of put
at expiration ()
FIGURE
A put option gives the owner the right
to sell an asset at a fixed price during
a particular period. If the share price is
greater than the exercise price of 50,
the put value is zero. If the share price
is less than 50, the put value is:
50
50
Value of equity at expiration ()
50 Share price
EXAMPLE
22.2
Ms Pessimist believes that the German healthcare rm Bayer AG will fall from its current
$42.00 share price. She buys a put. Her put option contract gives her the right to sell a
share of Bayer equity at $42.00 one year from now. If the price of Bayer is $44.00 on the
expiration date, she will tear up the put option contract, because it is worthless. That is, she will not
want to sell shares worth $44.00 for the exercise price of $42.00.
On the other hand, if Bayer is selling for $40.00 on the expiration date, she will exercise the option.
In this case she can buy a share of Bayer in the market for $40.00 and turn around and sell the share
at the exercise price of $42.00. Her prot will be $2.00 (= $42.00 $40.00). The value of the put
option on the expiration date therefore will be $2.00.
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 604
6/10/09 7:32:03 PM
605
FIGURE
Sell a put
Value of sellers position
at expiration ()
Sell a call
Value of sellers position
at expiration ()
22.3
50
50
Option Quotes
___
Buy a share
50
50
50
Share price at expiration ()
Share price ()
Figure 22.3 The payoffs to sellers of calls and puts and to buyers of equity
at expiration date is below 50. However, the seller loses a pound for every pound that the
share price rises above 50. The graph in the centre of the gure shows that the seller of a
put loses nothing when the share price at expiration date is above 50. However, the seller
loses a pound for every pound that the share price falls below 50.
It is worth while to spend a few minutes comparing the graphs in Fig. 22.3 with those
in Figs 22.1 and 22.2. The graph of selling a call (the graph in the left side of Fig. 22.3) is
the mirror image of the graph of buying a call (Fig. 22.1).3 This occurs because options are a
zero-sum game. The seller of a call loses what the buyer makes. Similarly, the graph of selling
a put (the middle graph in Fig. 22.3) is the mirror image of the graph of buying a put
(Fig. 22.2). Again, the seller of a put loses what the buyer makes.
Figure 22.3 also shows the value at expiration of simply buying equity. Notice that buying
the share is the same as buying a call option on the share with an exercise price of zero. This
is not surprising. If the exercise price is zero, the call holder can buy the share for nothing,
which is really the same as owning it.
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 605
6/10/09 7:32:07 PM
___
606
TA B L E
22.1
AFA
Market
Liffe Amsterdam
Vol.
24
31/12/08
Exercise type
American
Currency
O.I.
9,182
30/12/08
Euronext
Amsterdam
Underlying
Name
AIR
FRANCE-KLM
ISIN
FR0000031122
Market
Currency
Best bid
9.01
31/12/08 14:00
Best ask
Time
CET
Last
9.19
31/12/08 14:00
Volume
4,301
High
9.55
9.59
Low
31/12/08
14:00
9.19
Puts
Day
Time
Time
Day
Settl. volume Vol (CET) Last Bid Ask C Strike P Bid Ask Last (CET) Vol volume Settl.
1.75
1.70 1.85 C
20
0.45
1.25
1.20 1.30 C
8.8
P 0.70 0.80
0.75
1.00
0.95 1.05 C
9.2
P 0.85 0.95
0.90
0.80
0.75 0.85 C
9.6
P 1.05 1.15
1.10
0.65
0.60 0.70 C
P 1.30 1.40
1.35
10
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 606
6/10/09 7:32:11 PM
Option Combinations
50
Buy put
50
Value of equity at
expiration ()
50
50
Value of equity at
expiration ()
___
Combination
Value of combination
of share and put positions
at expiration ()
Buy share
Value of share position
at expiration ()
22.4
FIGURE
607
50
50
Value of equity at
expiration ()
Figure 22.4 Payoff to the combination of buying a put and buying the underlying
equity
22.5
Buy zero
coupon bond
Buy call
50
Value of equity at
expiration ()
50
50
Value of equity at
expiration ()
Combination
Value of combination
of call and zero coupon
bond at expiration ()
FIGURE
50
50
Value of equity at
expiration ()
The graph of buying a call and buying a zero coupon bond is the same as the graph of buying a put and buying the
share in Figure 22.4
Figure 22.5 Payoff to the combination of buying a call and buying a zero coupon
bond
What does the graph of simultaneously buying both leg A and leg B of this strategy look
like? It looks like the far right graph of Fig. 22.5. That is, the investor receives a guaranteed
50 from the bond, regardless of what happens to the share price. In addition, the investor
receives a pay-off from the call of 1 for every 1 that the share price rises above the exercise
price of 50.
The far right graph of Fig. 22.5 looks exactly like the far right graph of Fig. 22.4. Thus
an investor gets the same pay-off from the strategy of Fig. 22.4 and the strategy of Fig. 22.5,
regardless of what happens to the price of the underlying equity. In other words, the investor
gets the same pay-off from:
1 Buying a put and buying the underlying share.
2 Buying a call and buying a risk-free, zero coupon bond.
If investors have the same pay-offs from the two strategies, the two strategies must have
the same cost. Otherwise, all investors will choose the strategy with the lower cost and avoid
the strategy with the higher cost. This leads to the following interesting result:
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 607
6/10/09 7:32:20 PM
608
___
Price of
call
value of
+ Present
exercise price
(22.1)
This relationship is known as putcall parity and is one of the most fundamental relationships concerning options. It says that there are two ways of buying a protective put. You can
buy a put and buy the underlying equity simultaneously. Here, your total cost is the share
price of the underlying equity plus the price of the put. Or you can buy the call and buy a
zero coupon bond. Here, your total cost is the price of the call plus the price of the zero
coupon bond. The price of the zero coupon bond is equal to the present value of the exercise
price that is, the present value of 50 in our example.
Equation (22.1) is a very precise relationship. It holds only if the put and the call have
both the same exercise price and the same expiration date. In addition, the maturity date of
the zero coupon bond must be the same as the expiration date of the options.
To see how fundamental putcall parity is, lets rearrange the formula, yielding
Price of underlying =
equity
Price of
call
Price of
put
value of
+ Present
exercise price
This relationship now states that you can replicate the purchase of a share of equity by buying
a call, selling a put, and buying a zero coupon bond. (Note that because a minus sign comes
before Price of put, the put is sold, not bought.) Investors in this three-legged strategy are
said to have purchased a synthetic share.
Lets do one more transformation:
Covered call strategy:
Price of underlying Price = Price + Present value of
of call
of put
exercise price
equity
Many investors like to buy a share and write the call on the share simultaneously. This is
a conservative strategy known as selling a covered call. The preceding putcall parity relationship tells us that this strategy is equivalent to selling a put and buying a zero coupon bond.
Figure 22.6 develops the graph for the covered call. You can verify that the covered call can
be replicated by selling a put and simultaneously buying a zero coupon bond.
FIGURE
Buy equity
Sell a call
Value of combination
of buying equity and
selling a call ()
Value of equity
at expiration ()
Value of selling
a call at expiration ()
22.6
50
50
50
Value of equity at
expiration ()
Value of equity at
expiration ()
Value of equity at
expiration ()
Figure 22.6 Payoff to the combination of buying a share and selling a call
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 608
6/10/09 7:32:27 PM
Valuing Options
609
___
Of course, there are other ways of rearranging the basic putcall relationship. For each
rearrangement, the strategy on the left side is equivalent to the strategy on the right side. The
beauty of putcall parity is that it shows how any strategy in options can be achieved in two
different ways.
To test your understanding of putcall parity, suppose Nokia Oyj shares are selling for
$10.95. A three-month call option with an $10.95 strike price goes for $0.35. The risk-free
rate is 0.5 per cent per month. Whats the value of a three-month put option with a $10.95
strike price?
We can rearrange the putcall parity relationship to solve for the price of the put as follows:
Price of
put
Price of underlying
of + Present value
+ Price
call
of strike price
equity
EXAMPLE
A Synthetic T-Bill
22.3
Suppose shares of Smolira plc are selling for 110. A call option on Smolira with one year
to maturity and a 110 strike price sells for 15. A put with the same terms sells for 5.
Whats the risk-free rate?
To answer, we need to use putcall parity to determine the price of a risk-free, zero coupon bond:
Price of underlying share + Price of put Price of call = Present value of exercise price
Transaction
()
Today
Today
(2) Exercise call that is, buy underlying share at exercise price.
50
Today
+60
Arbitrage prot
+1
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 609
6/10/09 7:32:27 PM
___
610
22.7
FIGURE
Upper Price
=
bound of share
Exercise
Lower Price
=
Exercise price
Value of equity prior to expiration date
Value of the call must lie in the coloured region
The type of prot that is described in this transaction is an arbitrage prot. Arbitrage prots
come from transactions that have no risk or cost, and cannot occur regularly in normal, wellfunctioning nancial markets. The excess demand for these options would quickly force the
option price up to at least 10 (= 60 50).
Of course, the price of the option is likely to be above 10. Investors will rationally pay
more than 10, because of the possibility that the share will rise above 60 before expiration.
For example, suppose the call actually sells for 12. In this case we say that the intrinsic value
of the option is 10, meaning it must always be worth at least this much. The remaining
12 10 = 2 is sometimes called the time premium, and it represents the extra amount that
investors are willing to pay because of the possibility that the share price will rise before the
option expires.
Upper Bound Is there an upper boundary for the option price as well? It turns out that the
upper boundary is the price of the underlying share. That is, an option to buy equity cannot
have a greater value than the equity itself. A call option can be used to buy equity with a
payment of the exercise price. It would be foolish to buy equity this way if the shares could be
purchased directly at a lower price. The upper and lower bounds are represented in Fig. 22.7.
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 610
6/10/09 7:32:33 PM
Valuing Options
22.8
FIGURE
Maximum
value of call
611
___
Minimum
value of call
Value of call
as function
of share price
Exercise price
Value of share prior to expiration date
months within which these rights can be exercised. It cannot be worth less, and will generally
be more valuable.5
Share Price Other things being equal, the higher the share price, the more valuable the call
option will be. For example, if a share is worth 80, a call with an exercise price of 100 isnt
worth very much. If the share soars to 120, the call becomes much more valuable.
Now consider Fig. 22.8, which shows the relationship between the call price and the share
price prior to expiration. The curve indicates that the call price increases as the share price
increases. Furthermore, it can be shown that the relationship is represented not by a straight
line, but by a convex curve. That is, the increase in the call price for a given change in the
share price is greater when the share price is high than when the share price is low.
There are two special points on the curve in Fig. 22.8:
1 The equity is worthless. The call must be worthless if the underlying equity is worthless.
That is, if the equity has no chance of attaining any value, it is not worth while to pay
the exercise price to obtain the share.
2 The share price is very high relative to the exercise price. In this situation, the owner of the
call knows that she will end up exercising the call. She can view herself as the owner of
the share now, with one difference: she must pay the exercise price at expiration.
Thus the value of her position that is, the value of the call is
Share price Present value of exercise price
These two points on the curve are summarized in the bottom half of Table 22.2.
The Key Factor: The Variability of the Underlying Asset The greater the variability of the
underlying asset, the more valuable the call option will be. Consider the following example.
Suppose that just before the call expires, the share price will be either 100 with probability
0.5 or 80 with probability 0.5. What will be the value of a call with an exercise price of 110?
Clearly, it will be worthless, because no matter what happens to the equity, the share price
will always be below the exercise price.
What happens if the share price is more variable? Suppose we add 20 to the best case
and take 20 away from the worst case. Now the equity has a one-half chance of being worth
60 and a one-half chance of being worth 120. We have spread the share returns, but of
course the expected value of the share has stayed the same:
(1/2 80) + (1/2 100) = 90 = (1/2 60) + (1/2 120)
Notice that the call option has value now, because there is a one-half chance that the share
price will be 120, or 10 above the exercise price of 110. This illustrates an important point.
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 611
6/10/09 7:32:39 PM
___
612
TA B L E
22.2
Increase in
Call option*
Put option*
Exercise price
Interest rate
Time to expiration
In addition to the preceding, we have presented the following four relationships for
American calls:
1 The call price can never be greater than the share price (upper bound).
2 The call price can never be less than either zero or the difference between the share
price and the exercise price (lower bound).
3 The call is worth zero if the underlying equity is worth zero.
4 When the share price is much greater than the exercise price, the call price tends towards
the difference between the share price and the present value of the exercise price.
*The signs (+, ) indicate the effect of the variables on the value of the option. For example, the
two +s for share volatility indicate that an increase in volatility will increase both the value of
a call and the value of a put.
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 612
6/10/09 7:32:45 PM
613
___
FIGURE
Probability
22.9
Exercise price
Price of equity at expiration
Figure 22.9 Distribution of equity price at expiration for both security A and
security B. Options on the two securities have the same exercise price
2 The value of a put with a high exercise price is greater than the value of an otherwise
identical put with a low exercise price, for the reason given in (1).
3 A high interest rate adversely affects the value of a put. The ability to sell a share at a xed
exercise price sometime in the future is worth less if the present value of the exercise price
is reduced by a high interest rate.
The effect of the other two factors on puts is the same as the effect of these factors on calls:
4 The value of an American put with a distant expiration date is greater than an otherwise
identical put with an earlier expiration.6 The longer time to maturity gives the put holder
more exibility, just as it did in the case of a call.
5 Volatility of the underlying share price increases the value of the put. The reasoning is
analogous to that for a call. At expiration, a put that is way in the money is more valuable
than a put only slightly in the money. However, at expiration, a put way out of the money
is worth zero, just as is a put only slightly out of the money.
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 613
6/10/09 7:32:52 PM
___
614
If share price is 60
If share price is 40
60 50 = 10
60 = 30
40 = 20
(18.18 1.10) = 20
20
10
1. Buy a call
Note that the future pay-off structure of the buy-a-call strategy is duplicated by the strategy
of buy share and borrow. That is, under either strategy an investor would end up with 10
if the share price rose and 0 if the share price fell. Thus these two strategies are equivalent
as far as traders are concerned.
If two strategies always have the same cash ows at the end of the year, how must their
initial costs be related? The two strategies must have the same initial cost. Otherwise, there
will be an arbitrage possibility. We can easily calculate this cost for our strategy of buying
share and borrowing:
Buy share of equity 50 =
Borrow 18.18
25.00
18.18
6.82
Because the call option provides the same pay-offs at expiration as does the strategy of
buying equity and borrowing, the call must be priced at 6.82. This is the value of the call
option in a market without arbitrage prots.
We left two issues unexplained in the preceding example.
Determining the Delta How did we know to buy one-half share of equity in the duplicating strategy? Actually, the answer is easier than it might at rst appear. The call price at the
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 614
6/10/09 7:32:53 PM
615
___
end of the year will be either 10 or 0, whereas the share price will be either 60 or 40.
Thus the call price has a potential swing of 10 (= 10 0) next period, whereas the share
price has a potential swing of 20 (= 60 40). We can write this in terms of the following
ratio:
Swing of call
Swing of equity
10 0
=
60 40
1
=
2
Delta =
As indicated, this ratio is called the delta of the call. In words, a 1 swing in the share price
gives rise to a 1/2 swing in the price of the call. Because we are trying to duplicate the call
with the equity, it seems sensible to buy one-half share of equity instead of buying one call.
In other words, the risk of buying one-half share of equity should be the same as the risk of
buying one call.
Determining the Amount of Borrowing How did we know how much to borrow? Buying
one-half share of equity brings us either 30 or 20 at expiration, which is exactly 20 more
than the pay-offs of 10 and 0, respectively, from the call. To duplicate the call through a
purchase of equity, we should also borrow enough money so that we have to pay back exactly
20 of interest and principal. This amount of borrowing is merely the present value of 20,
which is 18.18 (= 20/1.10).
Now that we know how to determine both the delta and the borrowing, we can write the
value of the call as follows:
Value of call = Share price Delta Amount borrowed
6.82 = 50 1/2 18.18
(22.2)
Solving this formula, we nd that the probability of a rise is 3/4 and the probability of
a fall is 1/4. If we apply these probabilities to the call, we can value it as
3
1
10 + 0
4
4
Value of call =
1.10
= 6.82
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 615
6/10/09 7:32:54 PM
616
___
where
d1 =
ln( S E ) + ( R + s 2 2 )t
s 2t
d2 = d1 s 2t
This formula for the value of a call, C, is one of the most complex in nance. However,
it involves only ve parameters: S, the current share price; E, the exercise price of the call;
R, the annual risk-free rate of return, continuously compounded; s 2, the variance (per year)
of the continuous share price return; and t, the time (in years) to expiration date.
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 616
6/10/09 7:32:55 PM
617
___
Rather than discuss the formula in its algebraic state, we illustrate the formula with an example.
EXAMPLE
BlackScholes
22.4
Consider Private Equipment Company (PEC). On 4 October of year 0, the PEC 21 April
call option (exercise price = 49) had a closing value of 4. The equity itself was selling at
50. On 4 October the option had 199 days to expiration (maturity date = 21 April, year
1). The annual risk-free interest rate, continuously compounded, was 7 per cent.
This information determines three variables directly:
1 The share price, S, is 50.
2 The exercise price, E, is 49.
3 The risk-free rate, R, is 0.07.
In addition, the time to maturity, t, can be calculated quickly: the formula calls for t to be expressed
in years.
4 We express the 199-day interval in years as t = 199/365.
In the real world, an option trader would know S and E exactly. Traders generally view government
Treasury bills as riskless, so a current quote from newspapers, such as the Financial Times or a similar
source, would be obtained for the interest rate. The trader would also know (or could count) the number
of days to expiration exactly. Thus the fraction of a year to expiration, t, could be calculated quickly.
The problem comes in determining the variance of the underlying equitys return. The formula calls
for the variance between the purchase date of 4 October and the expiration date. Unfortunately,
this represents the future, so the correct value for variance is not available. Instead, traders frequently
estimate variance from past data, just as we calculated variance in an earlier chapter. In addition, some
traders may use intuition to adjust their estimate. For example, if anticipation of an upcoming event is
likely to increase the volatility of the share price, the trader might adjust her estimate of variance upwards
to reect this.
The preceding discussion was intended merely to mention the difculties in variance estimation,
not to present a solution. For our purposes, we assume that a trader has come up with an estimate of
variance:
5 The variance of Private Equipment Corporation has been estimated to be 0.09 per year.
Using these ve parameters, we calculate the BlackScholes value of the PEC option in three steps:
1 Calculate d1 and d2. These values can be determined by a straightforward, albeit tedious, insertion
of our parameters into the basic formula. We have
S
2
d1 = ln + R +
t
2t
2
E
50
0.09 199
= ln + 0.07 +
2 365
49
0.0202 + 0.0627
=
0.2215
= 0.3742
0.09
d2 = d1 2t
= 0.01527
199
365
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 617
6/10/09 7:32:55 PM
618
___
2 Calculate N(d1) and N(d2). We can best understand the values N(d1) and N(d2) by examining
Fig. 22.10. The gure shows the normal distribution with an expected value of 0 and a standard
deviation of 1. This is frequently called the standardized normal distribution. We mentioned in
an earlier chapter that the probability that a drawing from this distribution will be between 1 and
+1 (within one standard deviation of its mean, in other words) is 68.26 per cent.
Now let us ask a different question: What is the probability that a drawing from the standardized
normal distribution will be below a particular value? For example, the probability that a drawing
will be below 0 is clearly 50 per cent because the normal distribution is symmetric. Using statistical
terminology, we say that the cumulative probability of 0 is 50 per cent. Statisticians also say that
N(0) = 50%. It turns out that
N(d1) = N(0.3742) = 0.6459
N(d2) = N(0.1527) = 0.5607
The rst value means that there is a 64.59 per cent probability that a drawing from the standardized
normal distribution will be below 0.3742. The second value means that there is a 56.07 per cent
probability that a drawing from the standardized normal distribution will be below 0.1527. More
generally, N(d) is the probability that a drawing from the standardized normal distribution will be
below d. In other words, N(d) is the cumulative probability of d. Note that d1 and d2 in our example
are slightly above zero, so N(d1) and N(d2) are slightly greater than 0.50.
Perhaps the easiest way to determine N(d1) and N(d2) is from the Microsoft Excel function
NORMSDIST. In our example, NORMSDIST(0.3742) and NORMSDIST(0.1527) are 0.6459 and 0.5607,
respectively.
We can also determine the cumulative probability from Table 22.3. For example, consider d = 0.37.
This can be found in the table as 0.3 on the vertical and 0.07 on the horizontal. The value in the
table for d = 0.37 is 0.1443. This value is not the cumulative probability of 0.37. We must rst make
an adjustment to determine cumulative probability. That is:
N(0.37) = 0.50 + 0.1443 = 0.6443
N(0.37) = 0.50 0.1443 = 0.3557
Unfortunately, our table handles only two signicant digits, whereas our value of 0.3742 has
four signicant digits. Hence we must interpolate to nd N(0.3742). Because N(0.37) = 0.6443 and
N(0.38) = 0.6480, the difference between the two values is 0.0037 (= 0.6480 0.6443). Since 0.3742
is 42 per cent of the way between 0.37 and 0.38, we interpolate as8
N(0.3742) = 0.6443 + 0.42 0.0037 = 0.6459
3 Calculate C. We have
C=
=
=
=
=
The estimated price of 5.85 is greater than the 4 actual price, implying that the call option
is underpriced. A trader believing in the BlackScholes model would buy a call. Of course, the
BlackScholes model is fallible. Perhaps the disparity between the models estimate and the market
price reects error in the traders estimate of variance.
The previous example stressed the calculations involved in using the BlackScholes formula.
Is there any intuition behind the formula? Yes, and that intuition follows from the share
purchase and borrowing strategy in our binomial example. The rst line of the BlackScholes
equation is
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 618
6/10/09 7:32:56 PM
619
___
FIGURE
Shaded area represents cumulative
probability. Because the probability is
0.6459 that a drawing from the standard
normal distribution will be below 0.3742,
we say that N(0.3742) = 0.6459. That is, the
cumulative probability of 0.3742 is 0.6459.
Probability
22.10
0 0.3742 1
Value
TA B L E
22.3
0.00
0.01
0.02
0.03
0.04
0.05
0.06
0.07
0.08
0.09
0.0 0.0000 0.0040 0.0080 0.0120 0.0160 0.0199 0.0239 0.0279 0.0319 0.0359
0.1 0.0398 0.0438 0.0478 0.0517 0.0557 0.0596 0.0636 0.0675 0.0714 0.0753
0.2 0.0793 0.0832 0.0871 0.0910 0.0948 0.0987 0.1026 0.1064 0.1103 0.1141
0.3 0.1179 0.1217 0.1255 0.1293 0.1331 0.1368 0.1406 0.1443 0.1480 0.1517
0.4 0.1554 0.1591 0.1628 0.1664 0.1700 0.1736 0.1772 0.1808 0.1844 0.1879
0.5 0.1915 0.1950 0.1985 0.2019 0.2054 0.2088 0.2123 0.2157 0.2190 0.2224
N(d) represents areas under the standard normal distribution function. Suppose that d1 = 0.24.
The table implies a cumulative probability of 0.5000 + 0.0948 = 0.5948. If d1 is equal to 0.2452,
we must estimate the probability by interpolating between N(0.25) and N(0.24).
C = S N(d1) EeRtN(d2)
(22.1)
We presented this equation in the binomial example. It turns out that N(d1) is the delta in
the BlackScholes model. N(d1) is 0.6459 in the previous example. In addition, EeRt N(d2) is
the amount that an investor must borrow to duplicate a call. In the previous example, this
value is 26.45 (= 49 0.9626 0.5607). Thus the model tells us that we can duplicate the
call of the preceding example by both:
(a) buying 0.6459 share of equity;
(b) borrowing 26.45.
It is no exaggeration to say that the BlackScholes formula is among the most important
contributions in nance. It allows anyone to calculate the value of an option, given a few
parameters. The attraction of the formula is that four of the parameters are observable: the
current share price, S; the exercise price, E; the interest rate, R; and the time to expiration
date, t. Only one of the parameters must be estimated: the variance of return, s 2.
To see how truly attractive this formula is, note what parameters are not needed. First, the
investors risk aversion does not affect value. The formula can be used by anyone, regardless
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 619
6/10/09 7:33:11 PM
___
620
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 620
6/10/09 7:33:11 PM
621
___
EXAMPLE
22.5
The Popov Company has been awarded the contract for athletics-related ice cream packaging at the 2012 Olympic Games in London. Because it is unlikely that there will be
much need for athletics-related ice cream after the Olympics, their enterprise will disband
after the games. The rm has issued debt to help nance this venture. Interest and principal due on
the debt next year will be 800, at which time the debt will be paid off in full. The rms cash ows
next year are forecast as follows:
Popovs Cash Flow Schedule
Very
successful games
()
Cash ow before
interest and principal
Moderately
successful games
()
Moderately
unsuccessful games
()
Outright
failure
()
1,000
850
700
550
800
800
700
550
Cash ow to shareholders
200
50
As can be seen, there are four equally likely scenarios. If either of the rst two scenarios occurs, the
bondholders will be paid in full. The extra cash ow goes to the shareholders. However, if either of
the last two scenarios occurs, the bondholders will not be paid in full. Instead they will receive the
rms entire cash ow, leaving the shareholders with nothing.
This example is similar to the bankruptcy examples presented in our chapters about capital
structure. Our new insight is that the relationship between the equity and the rm can be
expressed in terms of options. We consider call options rst, because the intuition is easier.
The put option scenario is treated next.
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 621
6/10/09 7:33:12 PM
___
622
22.11
Cash flow to
shareholders ()
FIGURE
45
800
Cash flow to firm ()
22.12
Cash flow to
bondholders ()
FIGURE
800
0
800
Cash flow to firm ()
ow to the rm. The shareholders receive nothing if the rms cash ows are less than 800:
here all of the cash ows go to the bondholders. However, the shareholders earn a pound for
every pound that the rm receives above 800. The graph looks exactly like the call option
graphs that we considered earlier in this chapter.
But what is the underlying asset upon which the equity is a call option? The underlying
asset is the rm itself. That is, we can view the bondholders as owning the rm. However, the
shareholders have a call option on the rm, with an exercise price of 800.
If the rms cash ow is above 800, the shareholders would choose to exercise this option.
In other words, they would buy the rm from the bondholders for 800. Their net cash ow
is the difference between the rms cash ow and their 800 payment. This would be 200
(= 1,000 800) if the games are very successful and 50 (= 850 800) if the games are
moderately successful.
Should the value of the rms cash ows be less than 800, the shareholders would not
choose to exercise their option. Instead, they would walk away from the rm, as any call
option holder would do. The bondholders would then receive the rms entire cash ow.
This view of the rm is a novel one, and students are frequently bothered by it on rst
exposure. However, we encourage students to keep looking at the rm in this way until the
view becomes second nature to them.
The Bondholders What about the bondholders? Our earlier cash ow schedule showed that
they would get the entire cash ow of the rm if the rm generated less cash than 800.
Should the rm earn more than 800, the bondholders would receive only 800. That is, they
are entitled only to interest and principal. This schedule is graphed in Fig. 22.12.
In keeping with our view that the shareholders have a call option on the rm, what does
the bondholders position consist of? The bondholders position can be described by two claims:
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 622
6/10/09 7:33:28 PM
623
___
Value of
default-free bond
Value of
put option
That is, the value of the risky bond is the value of the default-free bond less the value of the
shareholders option to sell the company for 800.
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 623
6/10/09 7:33:29 PM
624
___
TA B L E
22.4
Shareholders
Bondholders
(22.2)
Using the results of this section, Eq. (22.2) can be rewritten like this:
Value of call = Value of + Value of put
Value of
firm
on firm
on firm
default-free bond
(22.3)
,
Shareholders
,
S hareholders position
position in terms = in terms of put options
of call options
Going from Eq. (22.2) to Eq. (22.3) involves a few steps. First, we treat the rm, not the equity,
as the underlying asset in this section. (In keeping with common convention, we refer to the
value of the rm and the price of the equity.) Second, the exercise price is now 800, the
principal and interest on the rms debt. Taking the present value of this amount at the riskless rate yields the value of a default-free bond. Third, the order of the terms in Eq. (22.2) is
rearranged in Eq. (22.3).
Note that the left side of Eq. (22.3) is the shareholders position in terms of call options,
as shown in Table 22.4. The right side of Eq. (22.3) is the shareholders position in terms of
put options, as shown in the same table. Thus putcall parity shows that viewing the shareholders position in terms of call options is equivalent to viewing the shareholders position
in terms of put options.
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 624
6/10/09 7:33:38 PM
625
___
Now lets rearrange the terms in Eq. (22.3) to yield the following:
Value of
Value of put
Value of Value of call =
default-free bond
on firm
firm
on firm
(22.4)
,
,
Bondholders position in
Bo ndholders position in
=
terms of call options
terms of put options
The left side of Eq. (22.4) is the bondholders position in terms of call options, as shown
in Table 22.4. (The minus sign on this side of the equation indicates that the bondholders are
writing a call.) The right side of the equation is the bondholders position in terms of put
options, as shown in Table 22.4. Thus putcall parity shows that viewing the bondholders
position in terms of call options is equivalent to viewing the bondholders position in terms
of put options.
Value of
+ put
option
This equation shows that the government is assuming an obligation that has a cost equal to
the value of a put option.
This analysis differs from that of either politicians or company spokespeople. They generally say that the guarantee will cost the taxpayers nothing, because the guarantee enables the
rm to attract debt, thereby staying solvent. However, it should be pointed out that although
solvency may be a strong possibility, it is never a certainty. Thus, when the guarantee is made,
the governments obligation has a cost in terms of present value. To say that a government
guarantee costs the government nothing is like saying a put on the equity of Apple has no
value because the equity is likely to rise in price.
Several governments (such as those of Britain, France, Germany and the US) used loan
guarantees to help rms get through the major recession that began in 2008. Under the
guarantees, if a company defaulted on new loans, the lenders could obtain the full value of
their claims from the companys government. From the lenders point of view, the loans
became as risk-free as Treasury bonds. Loan guarantees enable rms to borrow cash to get
through a difcult time.
Who benets from a typical loan guarantee?
1 If existing risky bonds are guaranteed, all gains accrue to the existing bondholders.
The shareholders gain nothing, because the limited liability of corporations absolves the
shareholders of any obligation in bankruptcy.
2 If new debt is issued and guaranteed, the new debtholders do not gain. Rather, in a
competitive market, they must accept a low interest rate because of the debts low risk.
The shareholders gain here, because they are able to issue debt at a low interest rate. In
addition, some of the gains accrue to the old bondholders, because the rms value is
greater than would otherwise be true. Therefore, if shareholders want all the gains from
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 625
6/10/09 7:33:40 PM
___
626
22.11
Options and Corporate Decisions: Some Applications
In this section we explore the implications of options analysis in two key areas: capital
budgeting and mergers. We start with mergers, and show a very surprising result. We then go
on to show that the net present value rule has some important wrinkles in a leveraged rm.
Polar Winterwear
30 million
10 million
12 million
4 million
3 years
3 years
50%
60%
Debt maturity
Asset return standard deviation
The risk-free rate, continuously compounded, is 5 per cent. Given this, we can view the equity
in each rm as a call option, and calculate the following using BlackScholes to determine
equity values (check these for practice):
Sunshine Swimwear
Polar Winterwear
20.394 million
6.992 million
9.606 million
3.008 million
If you check these, you may get slightly different answers if you use Table 22.3 (we used
a spreadsheet). Notice that we calculated the market value of debt using the market value
balance sheet identity.
After the merger, the combined rms assets will simply be the sum of the pre-merger
values, $30 + $10 = $40, because no value was created or destroyed. Similarly, the total face
value of the debt is now $16 million. However, we shall assume that the combined rms
asset return standard deviation is 40 per cent. This is lower than for either of the two
individual rms, because of the diversication effect.
So, what is the impact of this merger? To nd out, we compute the post-merger value of
the equity. Based on our discussion, here is the relevant information:
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 626
6/10/09 7:33:40 PM
627
___
Combined rm
Market value of assets
40 million
16 million
Debt maturity
3 years
40%
26.602 million
13.398 million
What we notice is that this merger is a terrible idea, at least for the shareholders! Before
the merger, the equity in the two separate rms was worth a total of $20.394 + $6.992 =
$27.386 million compared with only $26.602 million post-merger; so the merger vaporized
$27.386 $26.602 = $0.784 million.
Where did $0.784 million in equity go? It went to the bondholders. Their bonds were
worth $9.606 + $3.008 = $12.614 million before the merger and $13.398 million after, a gain
of exactly $0.784 million. Thus this merger neither created nor destroyed value, but it shifted
it from the shareholders to the bondholders.
Our example shows that pure nancial mergers are a bad idea, and it also shows why. The
diversication works in the sense that it reduces the volatility of the rms return on assets.
This risk reduction benets the bondholders by making default less likely. This is sometimes
called the co-insurance effect. Essentially, by merging, the rms insure each others bonds.
The bonds are thus less risky, and they rise in value. If the bonds increase in value, and there
is no net increase in asset values, then the equity must decrease in value. Thus pure nancial
mergers are good for creditors but not for shareholders.
Another way to see this is that because the equity is a call option, a reduction in return
variance on the underlying asset has to reduce its value. The reduction in value in the case
of a purely nancial merger has an interesting interpretation. The merger makes default (and
thus bankruptcy) less likely to happen. That is obviously a good thing from a bondholders
perspective, but why is it a bad thing from a shareholders perspective? The answer is simple:
The right to go bankrupt is a valuable shareholder option. A purely nancial merger reduces
the value of that option.
20 million
40 million
Debt maturity
5 years
50%
The risk-free rate is 4 per cent. As we have now done several times, we can calculate equity
and debt values:
Market value of equity
Market value of debt
5.724 million
14.276 million
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 627
6/10/09 7:33:40 PM
___
628
Project B
24
22
40%
60%
Which project is better? It is obvious that project A has the higher NPV, but by now you are
wary of the change in the rms asset return standard deviation. One project reduces it; the
other increases it. To see which project the shareholders like better, we have to go through
our by now familiar calculations:
Project A
Market value of equity
Market value of debt
Project B
5.938
8.730
18.062
13.270
There is a dramatic difference between the two projects. Project A benets both the shareholders
and the bondholders, but most of the gain goes to the bondholders. Project B has a huge impact
on the value of the equity, plus it reduces the value of the debt. Clearly the shareholders prefer B.
What are the implications of our analysis? Basically, we have discovered two things. First,
when the equity has a delta signicantly smaller than 1.0, any value created will go partially
to bondholders. Second, shareholders have a strong incentive to increase the variance of the
return on the rms assets. More specically, shareholders will have a strong preference for varianceincreasing projects as opposed to variance-decreasing ones, even if that means a lower NPV.
Lets do one nal example. Here is a different set of numbers:
Market value of assets
Face value of pure discount debt
20 million
100 million
Debt maturity
5 years
50%
The risk-free rate is 4 per cent, so the equity and debt values are these:
Market value of equity
Market value of debt
2 million
18 million
Notice that the change from our previous example is that the face value of the debt is now
100 million, so the option is far out of the money. The delta is only 0.24, so most of any
value created will go to the bondholders.
The rm has an investment under consideration that must be taken now or never. The
project affects both the market value of the rms assets and the rms asset return standard
deviation as follows:
1 million
Project NPV
Market value of rms assets (20 million + NPV)
19 million
70%
Thus the project has a negative NPV, but it increases the standard deviation of the rms return
on assets. If the rm takes the project, here is the result:
Market value of equity
Market value of debt
___
4.821 million
14.179 million
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 628
6/10/09 7:33:41 PM
629
___
This project more than doubles the value of the equity! Once again, what we are seeing is
that shareholders have a strong incentive to increase volatility, particularly when the option
is far out of the money. What is happening is that the shareholders have relatively little to
lose, because bankruptcy is the likely outcome. As a result, there is a strong incentive to go
for a long shot, even if that long shot has a negative NPV. Its a bit like using your very last
euro on a lottery ticket. Its a bad investment, but there arent a lot of other options!
of Value of =
+ Value
put
call
Present value of
exercise price
111
1 Options Many laypeople nd the whole concept of options difcult to understand. Use
a non-nancial example to explain how options work, and why theyre so important for
exible decision-making.
2 Call Options Explain what is meant by a call option. What are the main reasons why
a corporation would consider buying a call option.
3 Put Options Are put options the same as writing a call option? Explain.
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 629
6/10/09 7:33:42 PM
___
630
REGULAR
1253
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 630
6/10/09 7:33:42 PM
631
___
20 Options and Share Price Volatility What is the impact of an increase in the volatility
of the underlying equitys return on an options value? Explain.
21 Insurance as an Option An insurance policy is considered analogous to an option.
From the policyholders point of view, what type of option is an insurance policy? Why?
22 Equity as a Call Option It is said that the shareholders of a levered rm can be thought
of as holding a call option on the rms assets. Explain what is meant by this statement.
23 Option Valuation and NPV You are CEO of Titan Industries and have just been awarded
a large number of employee share options. The company has two mutually exclusive
projects available. The rst project has a large NPV and will reduce the total risk of the
company. The second project has a small NPV and will increase the total risk of the
company. You have decided to accept the rst project when you remember your employee
share options. How might this affect your decision?
24 PutCall Parity One thing putcall parity tells us is that, given any three of a share, a
call, a put and a T-bill, the fourth can be synthesized or replicated using the other three.
For example, how can we replicate a share of equity using a call, a put and a T-bill?
25 Two-State Option Pricing Model T-bills currently yield 5.5 per cent. Equity in Nina
Manufacturing is currently selling for 55 Swedish krona (SKr) per share. There is no
possibility that the equity will be worth less than SKr50 per share in one year.
(a) What is the value of a call option with a SKr45 exercise price? What is the intrinsic
value?
(b) What is the value of a call option with a SKr35 exercise price? What is the intrinsic
value?
(c) What is the value of a put option with a SKr45 exercise price? What is the intrinsic
value?
26 Understanding Option Quotes Use the option quote information from Euronext Liffe
shown here for Xstrata plc to answer the questions that follow. The equity is currently
selling for 7.47.
Day
Time
Vol
Last
volume
(CET)
Bid
Puts
Ask
AQ
Bid
AQ
Strike
AQ Bid AQ Ask
Ask C
P
39.25
27.25
300.25 330.25 C 480 P
50.25
38.25
270.50 300.50 C 520 P
61.75
46.75
235.00 245.00 248.25 273.25 C 560 P
77.00
62.00
220.00 235.00 222.75 247.75 C 600 P
91.00
76.00
210.00 225.00 197.25 222.25 C 640 P
90.50 105.50
8 3 12:47 158.00 193.00 199.00 175.00 200.00 C 680 P 108.00 123.00
10 10 11:50 136.00 172.00 178.00 159.50 179.50 C 720 P 128.75 145.75
20 10 11:50 120.00 153.00 159.00 138.50 158.50 C 760 P 147.50 164.50
11 1 14:44 114.00 135.00 141.00 121.50 141.50 C 800 P 170.25 187.25
119.00 125.00 105.50 125.50 C 840 P 194.25 211.25
105.00 110.00 96.00 113.00 C 880 P 221.75 241.75
14 2 17:05 88.00 88.00 88.00 85.00 102.00 C 920 P 250.50 270.50
72.75 89.75 C 960 P 278.25 298.25
62.00 79.00 C 1,000 P 307.50 327.50
47.00 62.00 C 1,100 P 388.50 413.50
31.25 46.25 C 1,200 P 472.75 497.75
300.00 22.50 37.50 C 1,300 P 561.50 591.50
15.25 27.25 C 1,400 P 652.75 682.75
9.75 21.75 C 1,500 P 747.50 777.50
6.25 18.25 C 1,600 P 844.00 874.00
3.50 15.50 C 1,700 P 941.50 971.50
0.50 12.50 C 1,800 P 1,039.25 1,069.25
0.25 10.25 C 1,900 P 1,137.50 1,167.50
9.25 C 2,000 P 1,237.00 1,267.00
Bid
Ask
Last
58.00
72.00
84.00
101.00
119.00
138.00
159.00
181.00
205.00
50.00
65.00
77.00
90.00
106.00
124.00
143.00
164.00
186.00
210.00
50.00
74.00
91.00
109.00
134.00
195.00
Time
Day
Vol
(CET)
volume
15:34 2
10:27 10
10:27 10
10:27 10
14:10 5
16:26 3
Settl.
36.75
47.75
2
58.00
10
74.25
10
88.75
10
103.25
5 121.50
143.50
162.50
3 185.25
209.00
238.00
267.00
294.75
324.25
406.75
491.25
580.75
672.00
765.25
861.75
959.00
1,056.00
1,153.75
1,253.25
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 631
6/10/09 7:33:44 PM
___
632
Expiry :
[hint]
FORTIS
January 2009
February 2009
March 2009
Number of strikes : 5
GO
FOR
Market
American
Currency
FORTIS
ISIN
Best bid
Last
High
Liffe Amsterdam
Vol.
40,658
02/01/09
O.I.
2,131,944
31/12/08
Market
Best ask
Last change
Low
Euronext Brussels
1.047
02/01/09 17:36
9.69
0.926
Underlying
Name
Currency
Time
Volume
CET
4,035,029
BE0003801181
1.012
02/01/09 17:36
02/01/09 17:35
1.019
1.055
Calls
Settl. Day volume Vol
0.45
0.25
0.15
0.05
0.05
Time
Last Bid
(CET)
Ask
0.05 C
Strike
0.6
0.8
1
1.2
1.4
Time
Vol Day volume Settl.
(CET)
P
0.05
P
0.05
P 0.05 0.10 0.10 16:26 250
P 0.15 0.25 0.20 16:59 2
P 0.35 0.40 0.45 09:07 6
250
202
6
0.05
0.05
0.10
0.20
0.40
(a) Suppose you buy 10 contracts of the January $1.20 call option. How much will you
pay, ignoring commissions?
(b) In part (a), suppose that Fortis equity is selling for $1.40 per share on the expiration
date. How much is your options investment worth? What if the terminal share price
is $1.05? Explain.
(c) Suppose you buy 10 contracts of the January $0.80 put option. What is your
maximum gain? On the expiration date, Fortis is selling for $0.64 per share. How
much is your options investment worth? What is your net gain?
(d) In part (c), suppose you sell 10 of the January $0.80 put contracts. What is your
net gain or loss if Fortis is selling for $0.64 at expiration? For $1.32? What is the
break-even price that is, the terminal share price that results in a zero prot?
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 632
6/10/09 7:33:46 PM
633
___
28 Two-State Option Pricing Model The price of Ervin plc share will be either 75 or
95 at the end of the year. Call options are available with one year to expiration. T-bills
currently yield 6 per cent.
(a) Suppose the current price of Ervin equity is 80. What is the value of the call option
if the exercise price is 70 per share?
(b) Suppose the exercise price is 90 in part (a). What is the value of the call option
now?
29 Two-State Option Pricing Model The price of Norwegian Property ASA shares will be
either NKr6.00 or NKr8.00 at the end of the year. Call options are available with one year
to expiration. T-bills currently yield 5 per cent.
(a) Suppose the current price of Norwegian Property shares is NKr7.00. What is the
value of the call option if the exercise price is NKr4.50 per share?
(b) Suppose the exercise price is NKr7.00 in part (a). What is the value of the call option
now?
30 PutCall Parity An equity is currently selling for $61 per share. A call option with an
exercise price of $65 sells for $4.12 and expires in three months. If the risk-free rate of
interest is 2.6 per cent per year, compounded continuously, what is the price of a put
option with the same exercise price?
31 PutCall Parity A put option that expires in six months with an exercise price of $50
sells for $4.89. The equity is currently priced at $53, and the risk-free rate is 3.6 per cent
per year, compounded continuously. What is the price of a call option with the same
exercise price?
32 PutCall Parity A put option and a call option with an exercise price of $70 and
three months to expiration sell for $2.87 and $4.68, respectively. If the risk-free rate is
4.8 per cent per year, compounded continuously, what is the current share price?
33 PutCall Parity A put option and a call option with an exercise price of 65 expire in
two months and sell for 2.86 and 4.08, respectively. If the equity is currently priced
at 65.80, what is the annual continuously compounded rate of interest?
34 BlackScholes What are the prices of a call option and a put option with the following
characteristics?
Share price = 38
Exercise price = 35
Risk-free rate = 6% per year, compounded continuously
Maturity = 3 months
Standard deviation = 54% per year
35 BlackScholes What are the prices of a call option and a put option with the following
characteristics?
Share price = 86
Exercise price = 90
Risk-free rate = 4% per year, compounded continuously
Maturity = 8 months
Standard deviation = 62% per year
36 Delta What are the deltas of a call option and a put option with the following
characteristics? What does the delta of the option tell you?
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 633
6/10/09 7:33:46 PM
___
634
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 634
6/10/09 7:33:47 PM
635
___
rms assets is $10,500. The standard deviation of the return on the rms assets is
38 per cent per year, and the annual risk-free rate is 5 per cent per year, compounded
continuously. Based on the BlackScholes model, what is the market value of the rms
equity and debt?
46 Equity as an Option and NPV Suppose the rm in the previous problem is considering
two mutually exclusive investments. Project A has a NPV of $700, and project B has a
NPV of $1,000. As the result of taking project A, the standard deviation of the return on
the rms assets will increase to 55 per cent per year. If project B is taken, the standard
deviation will fall to 34 per cent per year.
(a) What is the value of the rms equity and debt if project A is undertaken? If project
B is undertaken?
(b) Which project would the shareholders prefer? Can you reconcile your answer with
the NPV rule?
(c) Suppose the shareholders and bondholders are in fact the same group of investors.
Would this affect your answer to (b)?
(d) What does this problem suggest to you about shareholder incentives?
47 Equity as an Option Frostbite Thermalwear has a zero coupon bond issue outstanding
with a face value of $20,000 that matures in one year. The current market value of
the rms assets is $22,000. The standard deviation of the return on the rms assets is
53 per cent per year, and the annual risk-free rate is 5 per cent per year, compounded
continuously. Based on the BlackScholes model, what is the market value of the rms
equity and debt? What is the rms continuously compounded cost of debt?
48 Mergers and Equity as an Option Suppose Sunburn Sunscreen and Frostbite Thermalwear
in the previous problems have decided to merge. Because the two companies have
seasonal sales, the combined rms return on assets will have a standard deviation of
31 per cent per year.
(a) What is the combined value of equity in the two existing companies? The value
of debt?
(b) What is the value of the new rms equity? The value of debt?
(c) What was the gain or loss for shareholders? For bondholders?
(d) What happened to shareholder value here?
49 Equity as an Option and NPV A company has a single zero coupon bond outstanding
that matures in 10 years with a face value of 30 million. The current value of the
companys assets is 22 million, and the standard deviation of the return on the rms
assets is 39 per cent per year. The risk-free rate is 6 per cent per year, compounded
continuously.
(a) What is the current market value of the companys equity?
(b) What is the current market value of the companys debt?
(c) What is the companys continuously compounded cost of debt?
(d) The company has a new project available. The project has an NPV of 750,000. If
the company undertakes the project, what will be the new market value of equity?
Assume volatility is unchanged.
(e) Assuming the company undertakes the new project and does not borrow any
additional funds, what is the new continuously compounded cost of debt? What is
happening here?
50 Two-State Option Pricing Model Ken is interested in buying a European call option
written on Southeastern Airlines plc, a nondividend-paying equity, with a strike price of
110 and one year until expiration. Currently, Southeasterns equity sells for 100 per share.
In one year Ken knows that Southeasterns share will be trading at either 125 per share
or 80 per share. Ken is able to borrow and lend at the risk-free EAR of 2.5 per cent.
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 635
6/10/09 7:33:47 PM
___
636
CHALLENGE
5462
54 Debt Valuation and Time to Maturity McLemore Industries has a zero coupon bond
issue that matures in two years with a face value of 30,000. The current value of
the companys assets is 13,000, and the standard deviation of the return on assets is
60 per cent per year.
(a) Assume the risk-free rate is 5 per cent per year, compounded continuously. What is
the value of a risk-free bond with the same face value and maturity as the companys
bond?
(b) What price would the bondholders have to pay for a put option on the rms assets
with a strike price equal to the face value of the debt?
(c) Using the answers from (a) and (b), what is the value of the rms debt? What is
the continuously compounded yield on the companys debt?
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 636
6/10/09 7:33:48 PM
637
___
(d) From an examination of the value of the assets of McLemore Industries, and the
fact that the debt must be repaid in two years, it seems likely that the company will
default on its debt. Management has approached bondholders and proposed a plan
whereby the company would repay the same face value of debt, but the repayment
would not occur for ve years. What is the value of the debt under the proposed
plan? What is the new continuously compounded yield on the debt? Explain why
this occurs.
55 Debt Valuation and Asset Variance Brozik plc has a zero coupon bond that matures
in ve years with a face value of 60,000. The current value of the companys assets is
57,000, and the standard deviation of its return on assets is 50 per cent per year. The
risk-free rate is 6 per cent per year, compounded continuously.
(a) What is the value of a risk-free bond with the same face value and maturity as the
current bond?
(b) What is the value of a put option on the rms assets with a strike price equal to
the face value of the debt?
(c) Using the answers from (a) and (b), what is the value of the rms debt? What is
the continuously compounded yield on the companys debt?
(d) Assume the company can restructure its assets so that the standard deviation of its
return on assets increases to 60 per cent per year. What happens to the value of the
debt? What is the new continuously compounded yield on the debt? Reconcile your
answers in (c) and (d).
(e) What happens to bondholders if the company restructures its assets? What happens
to shareholders? How does this create an agency problem?
56 Two-State Option Pricing and Corporate Valuation Strudler Property plc, a construction rm nanced by both debt and equity, is undertaking a new project. If the project
is successful the value of the rm in one year will be 500 million, but if the project
is a failure the rm will be worth only 320 million. The current value of Strudler is
400 million, a gure that includes the prospects for the new project. Strudler has
outstanding zero coupon bonds due in one year with a face value of 380 million. Treasury
bills that mature in one year yield 7 per cent EAR. Strudler pays no dividends.
(a) Use the two-state option pricing model to nd the current value of Strudlers debt
and equity.
(b) Suppose Strudler has 500,000 shares of equity outstanding. What is the price
per share of the rms equity?
(c) Compare the market value of Strudlers debt with the present value of an equal
amount of debt that is riskless with one year until maturity. Is the rms debt worth
more than, less than, or the same as the riskless debt? Does this make sense? What
factors might cause these two values to be different?
(d) Suppose that in place of the preceding project Strudlers management decides to
undertake a project that is even more risky. The value of the rm will either increase
to 800 million or decrease to 200 million by the end of the year. Surprisingly,
management concludes that the value of the rm today will remain at exactly 400
million if this risky project is substituted for the less risky one. Use the two-state
option pricing model to determine the value of the rms debt and equity if the
rm plans on undertaking this new project. Which project do bondholders prefer?
57 BlackScholes and Dividends In addition to the ve factors discussed in the chapter,
dividends also affect the price of an option. The BlackScholes option pricing model with
dividends is
C = S e dt N (d1 ) E e Rt N (d2 )
d1 = [ln( S E ) + ( R d + 2 2 ) t ] ( t )
d2 = d1 t
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 637
6/10/09 7:33:49 PM
638
___
61 BlackScholes An equity is currently priced at 50. The share will never pay a dividend.
The risk-free rate is 12 per cent per year, compounded continuously, and the standard
deviation of the shares return is 60 per cent. A European call option on the share has a
strike price of 100 and no expiration date, meaning that it has an innite life. Based
on BlackScholes, what is the value of the call option? Do you see a paradox here? Do
you see a way out of the paradox?
62 Delta You purchase one call and sell one put with the same strike price and expiration
date. What is the delta of your portfolio? Why?
M I N I
CA S E
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 638
6/10/09 7:33:49 PM
639
___
price as well. Mal states that because you can observe all of the option factors except the
standard deviation, you can simply solve the BlackScholes model and nd the implied
standard deviation.
To help you nd the implied standard deviation of the companys equity, Mal has provided
you with the following option prices on four call options that expire in six months. The
risk-free rate is 6 per cent, and the current share price is 50.
Strike price
()
Option price
()
30
23.00
40
16.05
50
9.75
55
7.95
1 How many different volatilities would you expect to see for the equity?
2 Unfortunately, solving for the implied standard deviation is not as easy as Mal suggests. In fact, there is no direct solution for the standard deviation of the equity even if
we have all other variables for the BlackScholes model. Mal would still like you to
estimate the implied standard deviation of the share. To do this, set up a spreadsheet using
the Solver function in Microsoft Excel to calculate the implied volatilities for each of the
options.
3 Are all of the implied volatilities for the options the same? (Hint: No.) What are the
possible reasons that can cause different volatilities for these options?
4 After you discuss the importance of volatility for option prices, your boss mentions that
he has heard of the FTSE 100 Volatility Index (VFTSE) on Euronext. What is the VFTSE,
and what does it represent?
Add to My Euronext
Last +13.16%
Data Solutions.
[Realtime data]
43.86
NYSE Euronext
Open
41.74
Market
Mnemo
Calculation mode
QS0011052162
QS0011052162
Indice
05/03/09 16:39 CET
43.86
13.16
08:05
16:30
15:01
41.74
43.86
33.72
21/01/09
16/01/09
50.58
21.68
Amsterdam
VFTSE
High
43.86
Low
33.72
Local
43.86
NYSE Euronext
33.72
08
09
10
11
12
Historical data
13
14
15
16
44
43
42
41
40
39
38
37
36
35
34
17
Data downloads
5 Look for current option quotes for the FTSE 100 Volatility on Euronext. To nd these,
search on the Euronext website for the ISIN: QS0011052162. What does the implied
volatility of a VFTSE option represent?
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 639
6/10/09 7:33:51 PM
___
640
Additional Reading
A very rich empirical and theoretical research eld considers option pricing dynamics. The
reference list below focuses on options as they relate to corporate nance.
Amram, M., F. Li and C.A. Perkins (2006) How Kimberly-Clark uses real options, Journal of
Applied Corporate Finance, vol. 18, no. 2, pp. 4047. US.
Giaccotto, C., G.M. Goldberg and S.P. Hegde (2007) The value of embedded real options:
evidence from consumer automobile lease contracts, Journal of Finance, vol. 62, no. 1,
pp. 411 445. US.
McDonald, R.L. (2006) The role of real options in capital budgeting: theory and practice,
Journal of Applied Corporate Finance, vol. 18, no. 2, pp. 2839. Theoretical paper.
Endnotes
1 We use buyer, owner and holder interchangeably.
2 This example assumes that the call lets the holder purchase one share at 7.00. In reality, one
call option contract would let the holder purchase 100 shares. The prot would then equal 100
[= (8.00 7.00) 100].
3 Actually, because of differing exercise prices, the two graphs are not quite mirror images of each other.
4 Our discussion in this section is of American options, because they are more commonly traded in the
real world. As necessary, we shall indicate differences for European options. American options are differentiated from European options through their ability to be exercised at any time before the expiration
date. The terminology has nothing to do with where the options are traded.
5 This relationship need not hold for a European call option. Consider a rm with two otherwise
identical European call options, one expiring at the end of May and the other expiring a few months
later. Further assume that a huge dividend is paid in early June. If the rst call is exercised at the end
of May, its holder will receive the underlying share. If he does not sell the share, he will receive the
large dividend shortly thereafter. However, the holder of the second call will receive the share through
exercise after the dividend is paid. Because the market knows that the holder of this option will miss
the dividend, the value of the second call option could be less than the value of the rst.
6 Though this result must hold in the case of an American put, it need not hold for a European put.
7 A full treatment of this assumption can be found in John C. Hull, Options, Futures and Other Derivatives,
7th ed. (Upper Saddle River, NJ: Prentice Hall, 2008).
8 This method is called linear interpolation. It is only one of a number of possible methods of interpolation.
To help you grasp the key concepts of this chapter check out
the extra resources posted on the Online Learning Centre at
www.mcgraw-hill.co.uk/textbooks/hillier
Among other helpful resources there are PowerPoint
presentations, chapter outlines and mini-cases.
___
Finanza aziendale
Stephen Ross, David Hillier, Randolph Westerfield, Jeffrey Jaffe, Bradford Jordan
2012 McGraw-Hill
Ross_ch22.indd 640
6/10/09 7:33:52 PM