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1.

__________ is the process of forecasting an organisations future demand for, and supply of, the
right type of people in the right number.
a. Human Resource Planning
b. Recruitments
c. Human Resource Management
d. Human Capital Management
2. Which of the following factors state the importance of the Human Resource Planning?
a. Creating highly talented personnel
b. International strategies
c. Resistance to change and move
d. All of the above
3. A process that is used for identifying and developing internal people with the potential to fill key
business leadership positions in the company is called ______.
a. Highly talented personnel creation
b. Investing in human resources
c. Succession planning
d. None of the above
4. State true or false
i. Human Resource Planning facilitates international expansion strategies.

a. True
b. False
5. Which of the following option is not the factor that hinders with the human resource planning
process?
a. Type and quality of forecasting information
b. Time horizons
c. Environmental uncertainties
d. Unite the perspectives of line and staff managers\
6. What is the major issue faced while doing personal planning?
a. Type of information which should be used in making forecasts
b. Types of people to be hired
c. Multiple positions to be filled
d. All of the above
7. Rearrange the following steps involved in the Human resource planning process in proper order.
A. HR Programming
B. HR Demand Forecast
C. Environmental Scanning
D. Control and evaluation of programme

E. Surplus - restricted hiring


F. HRP implementation
G. HR supply forecast
H. Organisational objectives and Policies
I. Shortage - Recruitments and Selection

a. ABCDEFGHI
b. CHBGAFDEI
c. IHDEBCAFG
d. IHGFEDCBA
8. Which of these factors is not included in environmental scanning?
a. Political and legislative issues
b. Economic factors
c. Technological changes
d. None of the above
9.

_______ is the process of estimating the quantity and quality of people required to meet future
needs of the organisation.
a. Demand forecasting
b. Supply forecasting
c. Environmental forecasting
d. None of the above

10. _______ is the process of estimating the quantity and quality of people required to meet future
needs of the organisation.
a. Demand forecasting
b. Supply forecasting
c. Environmental forecasting
d. None of the above
11. Which of the forecasting technique is the fastest?
a. Work study technique
b. Flow models
c. Ratio trend analysis
d. HR demand Forecast
12. What does the ratio trend analysis studies for forecasting?
a. Profits and loss
b. Retirements and requirements
c. Past and future ratios of workers and sales
d. None of the above

13. State true or false


i. The Delphi technique is named after the ancient Greek Oracle at the city of Delphi.

a. True
b. False
14. What does the Delphi technique use to do the forecasting?
a. Personal needs
b. Emotional needs
c. Social needs
d. All of the above
15. Which is the simplest flow model used for forecasting?
a. Semi - Markov Model
b. Resource based Model
c. Markov Model
d. Vacancy Model
16. ___________ is a systematic procedure for collecting, storing, maintaining, retrieving and
validating data needed by an organisation about its human resources.
a. Data collection
b. Human Resource Information System
c. Management Information System
d. Maintenance of records
17. Choose the correct option, where Human Resource Information System can be used.
a. Succession planning
b. Retirement
c. Designing jobs
d. Inducting new hires
18. How many steps are involved in implementing Human Resource Information System?
a. 10
b. 5
c. 14
d. 15
19. At what stage does vendor analysis step in while implementing human resource information
system?
a. 5
b. 14
c. 1
d. 3

20. What techniques are used while analysing the internal supply?
a. Inflows and outflows
b. Turnover rate
c. Conditions of work and absenteeism
d. All of the above
21. Complete the following formula to calculate turnover rate.
(Number of separations during one year / ______) X 100
_________
a. Average number of persons X number of working days
b. Average number of working days
c. Average number of employees during the year
d. Average number of leaves
22. Which of the below mentioned option is not a retention plan?
a. Performance appraisal
b. Compensation plan
c. Induction crisis
d. Voluntary retirement Scheme
23. Which of the following is a barrier while doing human resource planning?
a. HR information often is incompatible with the information used in strategy formulation
b. Implementing human resource information system
c. Managing inventories
d. Supply forecast
24. What are the pre- requisites for successful human resource planning?
a. Backing of top management
b. Personal records must be complete
c. Techniques of planning should be the best
d. All of the above
25. Which of the following is requisite for a typical succession planning?
a. Career counselling
b. Performance appraisal
c. Compensation plan
d. Employees quitting
26. State true or false
i. Human Resource Management (HRM) functions are not confined to business establishments;
they are applicable to non-business organisations as well.

a. True
b. False

27. Which of these activities are not included in the scope of human resource management?
a. Job analysis and design
b. Motivation and communication
c. Safety and health
d. Organizational structure and design
28. HRM differs from PM both in ____ and ____
a. Definitions and functions
b. Scope and orientation
c. Functions and objectives
d. None of the above
29. Which of the following is not an objective of the Human Resource Management Function?
a. Societal objectives
b. Political objectives
c. Personal Objectives
d. Organisational Objectives
30. Match the following objectives and functions:
I. Functional ------------- A. Union - Management Relations
II. Organisational --------- B. Compensation
III. Societal -------------- C. Employee Relations
IV. Personal --------------- D. Assessment

a. I-D, II-C, III-a, IV-B


b. I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
c. I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
d. I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
31. __________ is the process by which employers transfer routine or peripheral work to another
organisation that specialises in that work and can perform it more efficiently.
a. Farming out
b. Production Management
c. Compensation
d. Outsourcing
32. Which of the following companies were awarded as the best employers in 2006 - 2007 by Hewitt?
a. Agilent Tech
b. ICICI Bank
c. HCL
d. Videocon
33. Organisations need to evolve HR policies as they ensure _____ and _____ in treating people.
a. Constancy and similarity

b. Intention and safety


c. Consistency and uniformity
d. None of the above
34. State true or false
i. Sound policies do not help in resolving intrapersonal, interpersonal and intergroup conflicts.

a. True
b. False
35. Which of these are the principle sources for determining the content and meaning of policies?
a. Knowledge and experience gained from handling problems on a day to day basis
b. Past practices in the organisation
c. Attitudes and philosophy of the founders, top management, middle and lower management
d. Prevailing practices in rival companies
e. All of the above
36. Which of these is a HR Model?
a. The Guest Model
b. Open - System Theory
c. Mc Gregor's theory X and theory Y
d. None of the above
37. Which of these is the first HR model which dates back to 1984?
a. The Harvard Model
b. The Guest Model
c. The Fombrun, Tichy and Devanna Model
d. The Warwick Model
38. Who developed the Guest Model in 1997?
a. Hendry
b. David Guest
c. Pettigrew
d. None of the above
39. The two researchers Hendry and Pettigrew belonged to which institute?
a. Warwick University
b. Harvard University
c. Cambridge University
d. Stanford University
40. Match the following models with their respective functions/ components.
1. The Harvard Model ----- A. Selection, Appraisal, Development and Rewards
2. The Warwick Model ----- B. Stakeholders interests,Situational Factors, HRM Policy choices
3. The Guest Model ------ C. Strategy, Practices, Outcomes, Performance results

4. The Fombrun Model ----- D. Outer & Inner Context, Business strategy Content, HRM Content
and context

a. 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A


b. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
c. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
d. 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A
41. In which year did the term HRM emerge?
a. 1970
b. 1990
c. 1980
d. 1999
42. What is the role of a Human Capital Manager?
A. Unlearn old skills and acquire new skills
B. He or she seeks to fine-tune HR policies and practices to fir the culture
C. It is the responsibility of a centralised or a decentralised department.
a. Both A & C
b. A, B and C
c. Both A & B
d. B & C
43. Which of these is the purpose of recruitment?
a. Make sure that there is match between cost and benefit
b. Help increase the success rate of the selection process by reducing the number of visibly
underqualified or over qualified job applicants.
c. Help the firm create more culturally diverse work - force
d. None of the above
44. The poor quality of selection will mean extra cost on _______ and supervision.
a. Training
b. Recruitment
c. Work quality
d. None of the above
45. Which of these is the most important external factor governing recruitments?
a. Sons of soil
b. Labour market
c. Unemployment rate
d. Supply and demand
46. While recruiting for non - managerial, supervisory and middle - management positions which
external factor is of prime importance?

a. Political - Legal
b. Unemployment rate
c. Labour market
d. Growth and Expansion
47. Which of the following act deals with recruitment and selection?
a. Child labour act
b. The apprentices act
c. Mines act
d. All of the above
48. A major internal factor that can determine the success of the recruiting programme is whether or
not the company engages in ______.
a. HRP
b. Selection
c. Induction
d. None of the above
49. _________ refers to the process of identifying and attracting job seekers so as to build a pool of
qualified job applicants.
a. Selection
b. Training
c. Recruitments
d. Induction
50. How many stages does the recruitment process comprise of?
a. 2
b. 6
c. 9
d. 5
51. Rearrange the following steps of recruitment.
I. Searching
II. Evaluation and control
III. Planning
IV. Screening
V. Strategy development
52. ___________ express the relationship of applicant inputs to outputs at various decision points.
a. Number of contacts
b. Yield Ratios
c. Type of contacts
d. Technological sophistication

53. Which of the following are the decisions to be made while devising the strategies to hire?
a. Geographic distribution of labour markets comprising job seekers
b. Make or buy employees
c. Sequencing the activities in the recruitment process
d. All of the above
54. Which decision in strategy development relates to the methods used in recruitment and
selection?
a. Sources of recruitment
b. Technological sophistication
c. Sequencing the activities in the recruitment process
d. make or buy employees
55. Choose the odd man out.
a. Acquisitions and mergers
b. Radio and television
c. Former employees
d. Advertisements
56. What is the natural perception of people on the process of recruitment and selection?
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Both positive and negative
d. None of the above
57. What is the main objective of the recruitment and selection process?
a. Recruit the right candidates
b. Meet the high labour turnover
c. To reduce the costs of recruiting
d. None of the above
58. What is the full form of AIDA - a four point guide used by experienced advertisers?
a. Create abstract, develop industrious ads, defiant and acceptable
b. Being accessible, should be inexpensive, detailed and alluring
c. Attract attention, develop interest, create desire and instigate action
d. None of the above
59. Which mode of recruitment is through advertisements, newspapers and want ads?
a. Direct
b. Indirect
c. On payroll
d. None of the above
60. Which is the least expensive method for recruitments?
a. Walk - ins, write - ins and talk - ins

b. Campus placements
c. Employment exchanges
d. Consultants
61. What is the general fee charged by consultants?
a. 10 - 20 % of the first year salaries of the individuals placed
b. 20 - 50% of the first year salaries of the individuals placed
c. 20 - 30 % of the first year salaries of the individuals placed
d. None of the above
62. Identifying the right people in rival companies, offering them better terms and luring them away is
popularly called as __________.
a. Competition
b. Acquisition
c. Poaching
d. None of the above
63. Which of the following are general costs incurred in the recruitment process?
a. Costs of material
b. Costs of overtime and outsourcing while the vacancies remain unfilled
c. Costs of property
d. None of the above
64. Which philosophies of recruiting have been mentioned by K. Ashwathappa in his book Human
Resource Management?
A. Realistic job previews
B. Job compatibility questionnaire
C. Temporary employment

a. Both A & B
b. A & C
c. B & C
d. A, B and C
65. _______ provides complete job related information (both positive and negative) to the applicants
so that they can make right decisions before taking the job.
a. Job Compatibility Questionnaire
b. Realistic job preview
c. Market survey
d. None of the above
66. Which of these is an alternative to recruitments?
a. Employee leasing
b. Contractors

c. Trade associations
d. None of the above
67. ______ is the process of differentiating between applicants in order to identify and hire those with
a greater likelihood of success in a job.
a. False negative error
b. Training
c. Selection
d. None of the above
68. If outside vendors abroad are supplying services that are previously done by in-house
employees is
a. Outsourcing
b. off shoring
c. alternative staffing
d. None of above
69. HR plans of any organization does not includes
a. personnel plans
b. production plans
c. compensation plans
d. training and development plans
70. Supply of services by outside vendors that are done by in-house employees previously is
a. Outsourcing
b. off shoring
c. alternative staffing
d. None of above
71. Personnel plan requires forecast of
a. personnel needs
b. supply of inside candidates
c. supply of outside candidates
d. All of above
72. Process of identifying, assessing and developing leadership is called
a. Employment planning
b. Human resource planning
c. Succession planning
d. All of above
73. Selection is ______ in its application as much as it seeks to eliminate as many unqualified
applications as possible in order to identify the right candidates.
a. Both negative and positive
b. Positive

c. Negative
d. None of the above
74. Rejection of an applicant who would have succeeded is _____.
a. False positive error
b. True positive
c. True negative
d. False negative error
75. Which is the type of error in which failure is predicted and it happens?
a. False positive error
b. True negative
c. False negative error
d. True positive
76. Rearrange the following steps involved in the selection process.
i. External environment
ii. Internal environment
iii. Preliminary interview
iv. Selection test
v. Employment interview
vi. Reference and background analysis
vii. Selection decision
viii. Physical examination
ix. Job offer
x. Employment contract
xi. Evaluation
77. Which test assesses an individual's achievement and motivational levels?
a. Thurstone Temperament Survey
b. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality
c. Thematic Apperception Test
d. Guilford - Zimmerman Temperament Survey
78. A test that seeks to predict success or failure through ones handwriting is ____
a. Polygraph
b. Graphology
c. Grammatologist
d. None of the above
79. Which country uses the graphology test to select candidates?
a. U.S
b. India

c. Germany
d. China
80. Which tests are designed to ensure accuracy of the information given in the applications?
a. Graphology test
b. Interest test
c. Grammatology test
d. Polygraph test
81. Who used the graphology technique first and in which year?
a. Jean - Hippolyte in 1830
b. Elaine Quigley in 1893
c. Jean Charles Gille in 1907
d. Alfred Binnet in 1920
82. In __________, the interviewer uses pre-set standardised questions which are put to all
applicants.
a. Unstructured interview
b. Structured interview
c. Behavioural interview
d. Mixed interview
83. _______ occurs when an interviewer judges an applicant's entire potential for job performance on
the basis of a single trait, such as how the applicant dresses or talks.
a. Stress producing
b. Halo - effect
c. Unstructured
d. None of the above
84. Which of the selection steps is the most critical?
a. Physical examination
b. Selection decision
c. Reference and background checks
d. Employment interviews
85. Relationship between two variable can be identified with help of
a. ratio analysis
b. scatter plot
c. trend analysis
d. All of above
86. Process which consists how and what positions are to be filled is called
a. Employment planning
b. Human resource planning
c. Succession planning

d. All of above
87. Study of variations in employment needs of company is
a. ratio analysis
b. scatter plot
c.

trend analysis

d. All of above
88. ___________ is a systematic and planned introduction of employees to their jobs, their coworkers and the organisation.
a. Job evaluation
b. Investiture orientation
c. Orientation
d. Placement
89. Which type of information is conveyed by orientation?
a. Training and education benefit
b. Job location
c. Job safety requirements
d. General information about the daily work routine
90. In which country and year was orientation first developed?
a. U.S in 1970
b. U.K in 1970
c. India in 1970
d. None of the above
91. Which strategic choices a firm needs to make before designing its orientation programme?
a. Formal or informal
b. Individual or collective
c. Serial or disjunctive
d. Investiture or divestiture
e. All of the above
92. _________ seeks to ratify the usefulness of the characteristics that the person brings to the new
job.
a. Divestiture orientation
b. Individual or collective
c. Investiture orientation
d. None of the above
93. Which of these is a stage while conducting formal orientation?
a. Employee is given only menial tasks that discourage job interest and company loyalty
b. Employee is overloaded with forms to complete

c. Specific orientation to the department and the job, typically given by the employee's supervisor
d. Employee's mistakes can damage the company
94. Which of the below options are the topics covered in employee orientation programme?
a. Training and education benefit
b. To employee counsellor
c. Relationship to other jobs
d. Disciplinary regulations
e. All of the above
95. ______ refers to the allocation of people to jobs; it includes initial assignment of new employees,
and promotion, transfer, or demotion of present employees.

a. Recruitment
b. Placement
c. Selection
d. None of the above
96. Which of these is a job in the context of placement problems and employee works?
a. Group health
b. Early departures
c. Independent
d. All of the above
97. Which of these is mentioned in the orientation checklist?
A. Parking
B. Equal employment opportunity
C. Complete form B

a. A & B
b. B & C
c. A & C
d. A, B & C
98. ______ is an objective assessment of an individual's performance against well-defined
benchmarks.
a. Performance Appraisal
b. HR Planning
c. Information for goal identification
d. None of the above
99. What is linked with performance appraisal?
a. Job Design
b. Development

c. Job analysis
d. None of the above
100.

Which of the following is an alternate term used for performance appraisal?

a. Quality and quantity of output


b. Job knowledge
c. Employee assessment
d. None of the above
101.

Match the following general applications of performance assessment with their specific

purposes
I. Administrative Uses/ Decisions ----- A. Performance Feedback
II. Documentation --------------------- B. Lay - offs
III. Organisational Maintenance/ Objectives ---- C. Helping to meet legal requirements
IV. Developmental Uses ----- D. Evaluation of HR systems
a. I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
b. I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
c. I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-D
d. I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C
102.

Which of these is the main purpose of employee assessment?

a. Making correct decisions


b. To effect promotions based on competence and performance
c. Establish job expectations
d. None of the above
103.

How performance appraisal can contribute to a firm's competitive advantage?

a. Ensures legal compliances


b. Minimising job dissatisfaction and turnover
c. Improves performance
d. All of the above
104.

From the strategic point of view, in which three categories can an organisation be

grouped?
a. Defenders
b. Prospectors
c. Analysers
d. All of the above
105.

Successful defenders use performance appraisal for identifying ____________.

a. Staffing needs
b. Job behaviour
c. Training needs
d. None of the above

106.

Analysers tend to emphasise both ______ and _______ and employee extensive training

programmes.
a. Skill building and skill acquisition
b. Current performance and past performance
c. Strategy and behaviour
d. None of the above
107.

What do successful analysers tend to examine?

a. Division and corporate performance evaluation


b. Current performance with past performance
c. Ideal appraisal process
d. None of the above\
108.

Rearrange the steps in appraisal process.

A. Objectives of performance appraisal


B. Establish job expectations
C. Design in appraisal programme
D. Performance Management
E. Appraise performance
F. Performance interview
G. Archive appraisal data
H. Use appraisal data for appropriate purposes

a. DCHGFABE
b. HGFEDBCA
c. ABCFGHDE
d. ABCDEFGH
109.

Which of these is an issue while designing an appraisal programme?

a. Quality
b. What methods of appraisal are to be used
c. Quantity
d. Cost of effectiveness
110.

State true or false

Raters can be immediate supervisors, specialists from the HR department, subordinates, peers,
committees, clients and self - appraisals or a combination of all.

a. True
b. False

111.

When appraisals are made by superiors, peers, subordinates and clients then it is called

____.

a. 360 degree feedback


b. 180 degree feedback
c. Self - appraisal
d. None of the above
112.

Which company first developed the 360 degree system of appraisal?

a. Wipro in 1990
b. Godrej Soaps in 1991
c. General Electric, US in 1992
d. None of the above
113.

Which factors lower the accuracy rate of the rater?

a. The rater is aware of personal biases and is willing to take action to minimise their effect
b. Performance factors are properly defined
c. The rater has documented behaviours to improve the recall
d. The rater is unable to express himself or herself honestly and unambiguously
114.

Which of these is one of the seven criteria for assessing performance?

a. Community service
b. Interpersonal contact
c. Need for supervision
d. All of the above\
115.

Which is the simplest and most popular technique for appraising employee performance?

a. Rating Scales
b. Critical Incident
c. Cost accounting
d. BARS
116.

State true or false

i. In the forced choice method the rater is forced to select statements which are readymade.
a. True
b. False
117.

Which of these is a major weakness of the forced distribution method?

a. Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution


b. Work is reliable
c. The error of central tendency
d. None of the above