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1.

It is an illness due to a specific agent transmitted by an agent from a reservoir to a susceptible host through
different modes of transmission:
a. Contagious disease
b. Communicable disease
c. Infectious disease
d. Iatrogenic disease

2.

A clinically manifest disease of a man or animal resulting from an infection:


a. Contagious disease
b. Communicable disease
c. Infectious disease
d. Iatrogenic disease

3.

Presence of classical sings and symptoms that are highly specific to a certain disease is known as:
a. Tell tall signs
b. Pathognomonic sign
c. Distinctive sign
d. Fastigium sign

4.

When will you consider that an infection is acquired in the hospital and called as nosocomial?
a. When infection occurred upon admission
b. When infection is acquired before discharge
c. When infection is validated by the laboratory of the hospital
d. When the patient is within 14 days of hospital stay

5.

A infection that is completely manifested by signs and symptoms:


a. Opportunistic infection
b. True infection
c. Communicable infection
d. Contagious infection

6.

Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

7.

Which of the following causative agent are able to live in a non-nutritive environment and is easily transmitted
in the hospital?
a. S. aureus
b. P. aeruginosa
c. E. Coli
d. H. influenza

8.

The infection brought by normal biota of the body with low degree of virulence but may take advantage when
the body is immunocompromised:
a. Opportunistic infection
b. Nosocomial infection
c. True infection
d. Parasitic infection

9.

When a disease can be easily transmitted from one person to another, such infection is:
a. Communicable
b. Infectious
c. Contagious
d. Virulent

of the following is the main cause of nosocomial infection?


Surgical wound infection
Sepsis
Urinary tract infection
Respiratory tract infection

10. What is the difference between gonorrhea and influenza when taking into consideration being infectious and
contagious?
a. Gonorrhea is infectious and influenza is contagious
b. Influenza is infectious and gonorrhea is contagious
c. Both are contagious and infectious
d. Gonorrhea and influenza are not contagious but only infectious
11. Which of the following statements are true?
a. All communicable diseases are infectious and contagious.
b. All contagious diseases are infectious but not all infectious are contagious.

c.
d.

Communicable diseases are all contagious but not infectious.


Infectious diseases are contagious and also communicable.

12. An organism that is capable of invading and multiplying in the body of the host:
a. Causative agent
b. Reservoir
c. Bacteria
d. Carrier
13. The infecting ability of a microorganism depends on its degree of:
a. Pathogenecity
b. Communicability
c. Teratogenecity
d. Epidemiology
14. Shigella species only requires 10 microorganisms to cause infection while Salmonella must have 1,000 bacteria
to initiate disease. This property of microorganism is known as:
a. Viability
b. Toxigenecity
c. Virulence
d. Invasiveness
15. (Refer to number 16) Also, this directly proportional relationship of number and infection refers to what
property of the causative agent?
a. Dose
b. Antigenicity
c. Specificity
d. Mode of action
16. A person whose medical history and symptoms suggest that he may now have or be developing some
communicable disease is known as:
a. Patient
b. Carrier
c. Contact
d. Suspect
17. A special type of toxin found on the cell wall of the gram negative bacteria that causes sepsis especially when
they lyse themselves (suicide bomber):
a. Exotoxin
b. Enterotoxin
c. Endotoxin
d. Epitoxin
18. The type of exotoxin that is released in the GI tract that stimulates the vomiting center of the body and
exhibits its harmful effect by the inflammation of the intestinal tract:
a. Exotoxin
b. Enterotoxin
c. Endotoxin
d. Epitoxin
19. A non cellular microorganism that contains a nucleus of DNA and/or RNA with a surrounding protein coat and
are self-limiting. Also known as the ultimate parasite:
a. Virus
b. Protozoa
c. Amoeba
d. Bacteria
20. Beds in the hospital are arranged in such a way that droplet transmission of microorganism can be prevented.
This is done by:
a. Letting a single bed occupy a single room
b. Arranging the bed not facing the door or window
c. Positioning the bed 1 meter away from each other
d. Placing blinders in each patient, if possible.
21. When an infective microorganism escaping from the reservoir is suspended in the air and is carried through air
current in the form of droplet nuclei, the mode of transmission is:
a. Airborne

b.
c.
d.
22. Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

Droplet
Pressurized
Fomites
of the following is considered a fomite?
Staphylococcus aureus carrier
Urinals
Mosquito
Hands

23. A vector that transmits a microorganism by harboring it to its system and serves as its reservoir:
a. Mechanical vector
b. Biological vector
c. Accidental host
d. Intermediate vector
24. Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

of the following will most likely acquire an infectious disease?


A 30 year old male who is alcoholic
A pregnant mother
A healthy sexual worker
A patient who is discharged from the hospital

25. The pattern of infection where the pathognomonic signs of a specific disease is present is:
a. Incubation period
b. Prodromal period
c. Invasion/ fastigium period
d. Convalescent period
26. Cholera, tetanus, and typhoid fever occurs intermittently or on and off in different parts of the country. This is
pattern of disease occurrence is known as:
a. Endemic
b. Epidemic
c. Sporadic
d. Pandemic
27. A newly emerged strain of E. Coli that killed hundreds of hamburger eaters in the United States:
a. Sin Nombre Coli
b. E. coli O157:H7
c. Colicollus coli
d. Legionairres coli
28. Level of prevention focused on the early sick and aimed to detect diseases at its early state:
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Quarternary
29. Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

of the following is a primary level of disease prevention:


Mass screening
Contact tracing
Hand washing
Prompt treatment

30. Health education is prevents communicable diseases through IEC. Which of the following refers to the part of
IEC that involves behavioral change?
a. Information
b. Education
c. Communication
d. Integration
31. An information learned and caused a change in behavior of the client will only be effective if:
a. Able to apply everyday
b. If shared with other members of the family or even the society
c. If kept and considered as own
d. Written and well documented
32. Which of the following vaccine is introduced intradermally at right deltoid region?

a.
b.
c.
d.

BCG
DPT
Measles
Hep B

33. Which of the following vaccine is very sensitive from heat and should be stored at (-15 C to -25C) at the
freezer?
a. Measles
b. DPT
c. BCG
d. Hep B
34. Hep B is given for three doses and the schedule is:
a. At birth, 6 weeks after the 1st dose and 8 weeks after the 2nd dose
b. At six months with interval of 4 weeks in each doses
c. At birth with 4 weeks interval
d. Given together with DPT and OPV
35. What will the nurse do if a child developed convulsion within 24 hours after giving DPT?
a. Give TSB and paracetamol, as ordered.
b. Do not give the second dose of DPT.
c. Give the child DTaP instead.
d. The child must begin with DT only on the second dose because the child reacted negatively and
developed pertussis with the first dose.
36. Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

of the following is true about Tetanus Toxoid?


It is given for mothers for two doses with one month interval with booster doses every next pregnancy.
It is given with 0.05 cc, IM at deltoid region
It provides 99% immunity at the third dose
Infant is protected from tetanus for 10 years if TT2 is given

37. Environmental sanitation refers to the study of all factors in mans physical environment which may exercise or
may not exercise deleterious effect on his health and well-being. Which of the following is not included?
a. Safe and Water Supply
b. Proper Excreta and Waste Disposal
c. Food Sanitation
d. Sexual workers occupation sanitation program
38. The four Rs of food sanitation includes all of the following, except:
a. Right Source
b. Right Price
c. Right Storage
d. Right Cooking
39. An adequately cooked food is heated with the temperature of:
a. 10-60 degrees C
b. 70 degrees C
c. 100 degrees C
d. 150 degrees C
40. For right storage, the following is correct except:
a. Foods should not be stored longer than 2 hours
b. Reheat with 60 degrees centrigrade.
c. Food must not be stored with room temperature
d. No rethawing, if possible.
41. Food establishments in the community shall be appraised as to their sanitary conditions. Which of the following
is important for the cook or cook helper to have?
a. Inspection
b. Approval of all food sources
c. Updated health services
d. Compliance to health certificate
42. A patient is removed from the other persons because he is susceptible in acquiring a certain disease. This kind
of isolation is called as:
a. Strict isolation
b. Contact isolation

c. Source isolation
d. Reverse isolation
43. Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

of the following is true regarding source isolation?


Negative pressure in the room and positive outside
Positive pressure in the room and negative outside
Equalized pressure from both areas
Negative pressure should be maintained inside and out

44. The restriction of activities of well person that has been exposed to a case of communicable disease to prevent
disease transmission during the incubation period but without limitation to movements:
a. Complete quarantine
b. Source isolation
c. Surveillance
d. Separation
45. A patient with typhoid fever and have several bouts of diarrheal stool prompts a nurse to use what kind of
precaution:
a. Contact
b. Reverse Isolation
c. Drainage precaution
d. Enteric precaution
46. Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

of the following statements about source isolation is false?


Air entering the room is passed through filters
The room is under negative air pressure
Source isolation is appropriate for patients with meningitis, whooping cough, or influenza
Transmission-based precautions will be necessary

47. Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

of the following is not part of the standard precaution?


Hand washing between patient contacts
Placing a patient in a private room having negative air pressure
Proper disposal of needles, scalpels and other sharps
Wearing gloves, masks, eye protection and gowns when appropriate

48. A patient with suspected tuberculosis has been admitted to the hospital. Which of the following is not
appropriate?
a. Droplet precautions
b. Source isolation
c. Standard precautions
d. Use of a type of N95 respirator by the health care provider
49. Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

of the following precautions doesnt require any private room?


Reverse isolation
Strict isolation
Droplet precaution
Universal precaution

50. Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

of the following statements about medical asepsis is false?


Disinfection is a medical aseptic technique
Hand washing is a medical aseptic technique
Medical asepsis is considered a clean technique
The goal of medical asepsis is to exclude all microorganisms

51. It is the killing of microorganisms by chemical and physical means. It can be done through dry heat, moist heat
and radiation:
a. Disinfection
b. Sterilization
c. Sanitation
d. Disinfestation
52. You are caring a client in isolation. After nursing care is done what will you remove first after handling the
patient?
a. Mask
b. Gown
c. Gloves
d. Bonnet

53. The process of weakening microorganism through consecutive steps of freezing and dessication. This process
is used for making vaccine:
a. Use of formaldehyde
b. Lyophilization
c. Attenuation
d. Moist heat application
54. The process of rendering surface that has been heavily exposed to infectious pathogen safe to handle is known
as:
a. Disinfection
b. Decontamination
c. Sterilization
d. Anti-septic
55. When a nurse uses alcohol on the clients skin before an injection, she uses what kind of chemical-removingmicroorganism?
a. Antiseptic
b. Disinfectant
c. Decontaminant
d. Antimicrobial
56. The removal of stains and any contaminants from a kitchen utensils done at home is also known as:
a. Sanitization
b. Sanitation
c. Decontamination
d. Disinfection
57. The client with tuberculosis is expelling large amount of sputum. The nurse, every time the client coughs,
removes the soiled linen and discards the tissues and burns it. This technique is what kind of disinfection?
a. Terminal
b. Concurrent
c. Longitudinal
d. Post-expulsion
58. The process of filling animal forms through use of gaseous agent.
a. Indoor Residual Spraying (IRS)
b. Disinfestation
c. Sanitation
d. Gaseous Desentisization
59. Medical hand washing can be done for ___ and with elbows ___ :
a. 10 15 seconds: down
b. 10 15 seconds: up
c. 3 - 5 minutes: down
d. 3 5 minutes: up
60. The removal of all harmful microorganisms is also known as:
a. Medical asepsis
b. Surgical asepsis
c. Sterilization
d. Decontamination
61. Clostridium tetani has the following characteristics, except:
a. Drum-stick in appearance and normal inhabitant of intestine
b. Aerobic, spore-forming rod shape bacteria
c. Found in soil fomites and excretion animals and human
d. Produces one of the most potent toxin
62. Incubation period of Clostridium tetani is:
a. 3 to 30 days
b. 3 days to 3 weeks
c. 3 to 9 days
d. 3 to 3 months
63. The incubation period of tetanus among infants is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

3 to 30 days
3 days to 3 weeks
3 to 9 days
3 to 3 months

64. Tetanolysis causes RBC destruction while tetanospasmin causes:


a. Inhibition of impulses that stops muscle contraction
b. Direct control over contraction of muscles
c. Absence of sodium potassium pump that inhibits contraction
d. Stimulation of salivary which produces excessive salivation
65. The initial sign of tetanus is:
a. Trismus
b. Abdominal rigidity
c. Opisthotonus
d. Risus sardonicus
66. The pathognomonic sign of tetanus is:
a. Trismus
b. Abdominal rigidity
c. Opisthotonus
d. Risus sardonicus
67. Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

of the following management neutralized the toxins present in the body with tetanus?
Anti-tetanus toxin
Tetanus immunoglobulin
Penicillin
Equine anti toxin

68. DPT immunization provides how many years of protection?


a. 2 years
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 10 years
69. Tetanus toxoid for mothers are given, except:
a. Two doses at the 2nd trimester
b. With one month interval
c. At thigh region , IM, 0.5 cc
d. Booster dose in every other pregnancy
70. Prevention of tetanus neonatorum among infants is best achieved through:
a. Adequate and effective maternal and child health
b. Provision of adequate medicine to tetanus infected child
c. Proper wound care
d. Frequent hand washing among health care providers especially during child birth
71. Wounds with patients with suspected tetanus infection is best cleaned by:
a. Soap and water
b. 3% hydrogen peroxide
c. Iodophor
d. Cydex
72. Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

of the following facts about meningitis is not true:


2/3 of humans are asymptomatic carrier
It is caused by gram negative sphere bacteria
Can be caused by other bacteria other than Neisseria meningitides
Non-infectious after one week of treatment

73. The following strains of N. meningitides do not have vaccines?


a. A
b. Y
c. C
d. B
74. Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

of the following causative agents of meningitis which is common among children?


Hemophilus influenza
Streptococcus pneumonia
Meningococcus
E. coli

75. The drug of choice for this meningitis causative agent is Penicillin:
a. Hemophilus influenza
b. Streptococcus pneumonia
c. Meningococcus
d. Clostridium tetani
76. Meningoccocemia is a result of the systemic profileration of the microorganism in the body characterized by
except:
a. Petechial rash
b. Hypotension
c. DIC
d. Convulsion
77. Meningitis is the characterized by flexion of the hip and knee while in supine position, when neck is flexed. This
is known as:
a. Kernigs sign
b. Brudzinskis sign
c. Opisthotonus
d. Nuchal rigidity
78. Chemoprophylaxis for meningitis includes which of the following pharmacological intervention for 2 days and 2
dose and is contraindicated for pregnant mothers and taking contraceptives:
a. Rifampicin
b. Penicillin
c. Ceftriaxone
d. Tetracycline
79. The drug of choice for Meningitis is:
a. Rifampicin
b. Penicillin
c. Ceftriaxone
d. Penicilin
80. The following management decreases tendency of increased intra-cranial pressure, except:
a. Avoid valsalva maneuver
b. Administer anti-diuretics
c. Lessen environmental stimuli
d. Elevate head part
81. Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

of the following causes of encephalitis is brought by a mosquito?


Japanese B encephalitis
Amoebic meningoencephalitis
Toxic encephalitis
Spongiform encephalopathy

82. West Nile Encephalitis and St. Louis Encephalitis are mosquito-related encephalitis and is caused by:
a. Flavivuris

b.
c.
d.

Togavirus
Bunyavirus
Paramyxovirus

83. It is a kind of encephalitis that resulted from complication of communicable disease of viral origin due to
ascending infection:
a. Secondary encephalitis
b. Amoebic encephalitis
c. Toxic encephalitis
d. Mosquito-borne encephalitis
84. La crosse virus is very potent to patients who are:
a. Under 15 years old
b. Elderly
c. Pregnant
d. Male
85. The only mosquito borne encephalitis that have vaccine made from inactivated brain of mouse, given for three
doses of I cc:
a. Australian X Encephalitis
b. Equine Encephalitis
c. Japanese B encephalitis
d. St. Louise encephalitis
86. Mad cow disease is a kind of encephalitis and medically called as:
a. Kuru
b. Creudzfeldt Jakob Disease
c. Scrapie
d. Bovine spongiform encephalitis
87. Amoebic encephalitis is brought by a microorganism from waters containing organic waste and enters body
through nasal passages, olfactory nerve reaching the CNS. What is this amoeba?
a. N. fowleri
b. Acanthamoeba
c. Plasmodium ovale
d. T. brucei
88. Increase ICP among infants is manifested primarily by all of the following, in exception of:
a. High-pitched cry
b. Bulging of fontanels
c. Decrease pulse rate
d. Projectile vomiting
89. The following are the diagnostic procedures for encephalitis, except:
a. EEG
b. Blood culture
c. Nose and throat swab
d. Lumbar puncture
90. Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

of the following intervention can be a preventive measure against encephalitis?


Avoid nasopharyngeal secretions from infected individuals with toxic encephalitis
CLEAN program of DOH
Influenza virus vaccine
Proper food handling

91. The following are included in the CLEAN program of DOH:


a. Stream seeding
b. Zooprohylaxis
c. Stream clearing

d.

IRS

92. Drug of choice for encephalitis is:


a. Penicillin
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Variable
d. Azithromycin
93. In 1955, Jonas Salk introduced this vaccine to prevent poliomyelitis caused by Sabins vaccine?
a. OPV
b. IPV
c. OPT
d. OPM
94. Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

of the following strain of Legio-debilitans causes permanent immunity?


Brunhilde
Lansing
Leon
Paquita

95. Stage of poliomyelitis where no evident involvement of CNS noted?


a. Invasive
b. Pre-paralytic
c. Paralytic
d. Poliotic
96. Pathognomonic sign of poliomyelitis includes all of the following, except:
a. Hoynes sign
b. Pokers sign
c. Stimsons sign
d. Paralysis
97. How many days will it take to have an irreversible paralysis among client with Poliomyelitis?
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 100 days
98. Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

kind of paralysis that affects the cranial nerves and respiratory muscles?
Spinal
Bulbar
Bulbo-spinal
Laundrys paralysis

99. Diagnostic procedure for poliomyelitis includes all of the following, except:
a. Muscle Grading Scale
b. Electroencephalogram
c. Lumbar puncture
d. Stool exam
100. Priority nursing diagnosis for clients with poliomyelitis is:
a. Impaired gas exchange
b. Impaired Physical Mobility
c. Self Care deficit
d. Ineffective airway clearance
101.
a.
b.

IPV is given for three doses and:


2 doses are given at 1 to two months interval
3rd dose after 6 to 12 months

c.
d.

Given at 2, 4, 6-18 months


Booster dose at 10 years old

a.
b.
c.
d.

Incubation period of Rabies virus for man is:


10 days to 10 years
3 to 8 weeks
3 to 10 days
Hours to 3 days

a.
b.
c.
d.

Rhabdovirus is:
Bullet shaped
Drum-stick in appearance
Chinese characters-like
Cork-screw appearance

a.
b.
c.
d.

Intense salivation of a rabid animal is seen in what form?


Dumb form
Furious form
Both dumb and furious
None of the above

a.
b.
c.
d.

The pathognomonic sign of rabies is:


Hydrophobia
Intense salivation
Bizarre behavior
Laryngospasm

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following factors determines treatment of rabies, except?


Nature of contact
Animal species
Vaccination or clinical status of animal
Amount of saliva present during biting period

a.
b.
c.
d.

Absence of laryngospasm during the paralytic stage indicates:


Poor prognosis
Recovery
Paralysis of extremities
Aerophobia

a.
b.
c.
d.

Pre-exposure vaccine is not given:


To high risk individuals such as veterinarians
For 3 doses of 1 ml IM
At 0, 7, 21 to 28 days
to animals quarantined and observed for 10 days

a.
b.
c.
d.

Post-exposure prophylaxis is given for:


14 doses plus 2 booster doses
3 doses and no booster doses
21 doses included of which is the 3 booster doses
10 doses plus 2 doses for the animal

a.
b.
c.
d.

A dog can be vaccinated as early as:


During at birth
3 months
6 weeks
One year

102.

103.

104.

105.

106.

107.

108.

109.

110.

111.
dog?

Which of the following neutralizes virus and said to be safe if given to human bitten by an infected

a.
b.
c.
d.

ERIG, 40 IU/kg
HRIG , 20 IU/kg
HyperRab 40 IU/kg
Imogam 60 IU/kg

a.
b.
c.
d.

If an animal dies after 10 days, the following are the considerations, except:
Animal should not be cooked for food
Keep the brain frozen
Send animals head immediately to the laboratory for the detection of Negri bodies
Put it in a cool dawg

a.
b.
c.
d.

Management for the wound includes all of the following, except:


70 % alcohol antisepsis
Running water and soap cleaning
Suture site if wound is large to prevent excessive bleeding
Place blockage tie above the injury site

a.
b.
c.
d.

A wild animal if even though unprovoked bit, animal should be:


Observed for 10 days
Killed at once
Send to PAWS
Donated to Malabon Zoo

a.
b.
c.
d.

The following are the characteristics of Cornyebacterium diptheriae, except:


Aerobic, non motile
Gram positive
Arrange like Chinese letters
Drum stick in appearance

a.
b.
c.
d.

The causative agent of diphtheria manifest its infective property by:


Invasion in the throat by adhesion and initiates inflammatory response
Exotoxin kills leukocytes and forms congregation in the throat
Staying latent in the lungs after non-recognition of macrophages
Increase mucus production and impedes entry air going to lungs

a.
b.
c.
d.

The type of diphtheria where hoarseness of voice, DOB, and aphonia is observed:
Nasal
Pharyngeal
Laryngeal
Mucous membrane

112.

113.

114.

115.

116.

117.

118.
What type of diphtheria is manifested where the client has exudative pseudomembrane on throat and
vulva and considered uncommon yet very dangerous?
a. Nasal
b. Pharyngeal
c. Laryngeal
d. Mucous membrane
119.
Pharyngeal type of diphtheria with 2 cultures already sent to the laboratory
isolation for:
a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 2 to 4 days
d. 14 days

must have a strict

120.
Patients with diphtheria must have how many negative results should be taken to confirm absence of
infection?
a. Three
b. Two

c.
d.

One
None, clinical sign is enough to confirm presence

a.
b.
c.
d.

The pathognomonic sign of diphtheria is:


Inspiratory whoop
Hemoptysis
Pseudomembrane
Coryza

a.
b.
c.
d.

Equine diphtheria anti-toxin must be given for patients with diphtheria:


After three positive result to nose and throat culture
Even without laboratory result
Together with penicillin or erythromycin to eliminate toxin that has already been absorbed
If not allergic to equine; otherwise, human equine anti-toxin must be given

a.
b.
c.
d.

If client is experiencing diphtheria, which of the following is a must at the clients bedside?
Pair of scissors
Mechanical ventilator
Tracheostomy set
Bottle

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following complications is likely to happen for clients with diphtheria?
Meningitis
Orchitis
Myocarditis
Gastro-intestinal affectations

a.
b.
c.
d.

Contact isolation is needed for client with what kind of diphtheria?


Nasal
Laryngeal
Cutaneous
Mucous membrane

121.

122.

123.

124.

125.

126.
are not
a.
b.
c.
d.
127.

Preventive measure against diphtheria is through vaccination. Which of the following considerations
intended for diphtheria vaccine?
3 doses, given first at 6 weeks
Injected IM at deltoid region
Booster dose every two years especially for travelers
DPT antigen is a whole cell vaccine

Which of the following about pertussis, is considered incorrect?


a. Patients under 6 months and vaccinated do not create a whoop
b. Whooping cough is characterized by repeated violent coughing followed by rapid
expiration
c. It produces pertussis toxin that increases mucus production
d. Pertussis is characterized also by increase in thoracic and intracranial pressure

128.
Presence of whooping cough, increase thoracic pressure and involuntary micturition occurs on what
stage of pertussis?
a. Invasive
b. Spasmodic
c. Catarrhal
d. Convalescence
129.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The diagnostic procedure for pertussis is:


Shicks test
Maloneys test
Bordet-gengou test
Pandys test

130.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The client with Pertussis taking Penicillin is considered non-infective after:


Negative result on the laboratory test
Five days after continued therapy
Increased WBC up to 20 per cent
Absence of whooping cough

a.
b.
c.
d.

Possible complication of Pertussis include, except:


Abdominal hernia
Increase ICP
Secondary infection
Blindness

131.

132.
Patient with pertussis should be seggrated for 3 weeks from the appearance of paroxysmal cough
through:
a. Contact isolation
b. Airborne isolation
c. Droplet isolation
d. Transmission based precaution
133.
If a child experienced convulsion after a DPT immunization, which of the following intervention would
the nurse do?
a. Give the next dose as scheduled
b. Give DTaP on the next dose
c. Give DT for the next dose
d. No vaccination on the next schedule
134.
It is a acute and mutative highly communicable diseases that cause 20 M deaths (1918) rendering
more mortality than the World War I.
a. Malaria
b. Tuberculosis
c. AIDS
d. Influenza
135.
The influenza virus is very virulent to those immunocompromised and extremes of age and has the
ability to:
a. Reactivate after latent infection
b. Mutate and create another strain
c. Infiltrate other organs; hence, multiple organ failure
d. Affect gonads and may lead to sterility
136.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Strain of influenza that is most severe and major cause of epidemics and endemics:
Type A
Type B
Type C
Type D

a.
b.
c.
d.

The drug of choice for influenza, especially for type A is:


Amantidine
Acyclovir
Zidovoudine
Zanamivir

a.
b.
c.
d.

Zanamivir (Reenza) and Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) are both effective to influenza virus type:
A
B
Both A and B
Type C

137.

138.

139.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following is a preventive measure against influenza?


Contact isolation
Vaccination each year especially for travelers
Chemoprophylaxis of Amantidine
Adequate nutrition

a.
b.
c.
d.

The major cause of disability in the world is brought by:


Leprosy
Tuberculosis
Pneumonia
Poliomyelitis

a.
b.
c.
d.

The following are characteristics of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, except:


Gram positive and rod shape
Acid-fast and highly aerobic
Can be killed by drying and disinfectants
May cause delayed hypersensitivity reaction

a.
b.
c.
d.

The patient is considered non-infective after:


Two to four weeks after therapy
one week after therapy
after negative Microscopic Examination result
after negative chest X-ray

a.
b.
c.
d.

The tuberculosis-causing microorganism can be transmitted through the following means, except:
Coughing, sneezing, singing
Direct invasion through mucus membrane or break in the skin
Feco-oral route
Unpasteurized milk or dairy products

a.
b.
c.
d.

Granuloma or tubercles that resist digestion and removal by macrophages are called:
Ghons complexes
Caseous necrosis
Consumption
Cavity

a.
b.
c.
d.

TB in the bones is also known as:


Miliary Tuberculosis
TB meningitis
Potts disease
Extrapulmonary TB

a.
b.
c.
d.

A tuberculosis patient have moderately advanced extent of disease progression if:


Lesions are demonstrated without excavation and confined to small part of one or both lungs
One or both lungs are involved with a total diameter of cavities less than 4 cm
Lesions are more than the volume of a single lung
Microorganisms traveled in the systemic circulation affecting only proximal organs

140.

141.

142.

143.

144.

145.

146.

147.
Which of the following TB category according to DOH, has a new smear negative PTB with minimal
parenchymal lesions on Chest X-ray?
a. Category I
b. Category II
c. Category III
d. Category IV
148.
a.
b.
c.

Immediate reporting of this category to the Regional Tuberculosis Program Center is a must:
Category I
Category II
Category III

d. Category IV
149.
Which of the following signs and symptoms may prompt a patient to seek medical attention suspecting
tuberculosis?
a. Chest pain
b. Afternoon fever
c. Cough for two weeks
d. Shortness of breath
150.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The standard diagnostic procedure for tuberculosis is:


Direct sputum smear microscopy
Chest X-ray
Mantoux test
Purified protein derivative

a.
b.
c.
d.

Induration of 8 to 10 mm, according to DOH, means?


Past exposure to tuberculosis
Positive tuberculosis case
Immunocompromised patient
Possible with HIV

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following patient does not confirm positive test for Mantoux test?
5 mm induration for those positive granuloma formation after CXR
10 mm induration for those with DM, Renal Failure and hematological problem
10 mm induration for those with sudden weight loss
10 mm for HIV patient

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following drug for TB is the only one in capsule form?
Rifampicin
Ethambutol
Pyrazinamide
Isoniazid

a.
b.
c.
d.

TB formulation of anti-TB drugs that are prepared separately:


Single drug formulation
Fixed dose combination
DOTS
MDT paucibacillary

a.
b.
c.
d.

Allergic reaction is frequently observed with:


Rifampicin
Ethambutol
Pyrazinamide
Isoniazid

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following is also used as a chemoprophylaxis for TB:


Rifampicin
Ethambutol
Pyrazinamide
Isoniazid

a.
b.
c.
d.

Side effect of Ethambutol is:


Peripheral neuritis
Orange bodily secretions
Optic neuritis
Ototoxicity

a.

The best method of prevention of TB and leprosy especially among children is:
Taking INH for prophylaxis

151.

152.

153.

154.

155.

156.

157.

158.

b. Good nutrition
c. Healthy environment
d. BCG immunization
159.
a.
b.
c.
d.
160.

Patients taking isoniazid primarily, must:


Take medication with food
Take vitamin B6
Be assessed every 2 to 4 weeks for vision
Have kidney and liver function test

The recommended regimen for patients under category 2 is:


a. HRZES for 2 months, HRZE for 1 month (intensive phase) and five months of HRE
(maintenance phase)
b. 2 months of HRZE (intensive phase) and 4 months of HR (maintenance phase)
c. HRZES for 3 months (intensive phase) and five months of HRE (maintenance phase)
d. 2 months of HRZE and 2 month of HR (intensive phase) and 4 months of HR (maintenance phase)

161.
a.
b.
c.
d.

BCG immunization came from what mycobacterium strain?


Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycobacterium africanum
Mycobacterium bovis
Mycobacterium caninum

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following food handling measures are said to be incorrect?


Boil food approximately reaching 60 degrees Celcius.
Avoid tasting unusual or foods with peculiar odor.
Sanitization is the process of disinfecting kitchen utensils.
Wash hand before, during and after food preparation.

a.
b.
c.
d.

According to WHO, the following are the keys on how to maintain safety of food, except:
Cook thoroughly
Use safe water
Separate raw and cook
Use hand sanitizer

a.
b.
c.
d.

Diet that is frequently ordered for a client with diarrhea:


Acid ash diet
Alkaline ash diet
Bland diet
High fiber diet

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following bleeding episodes indicates upper GI bleeding


Hematemesis
Hematochezia
Melena
Hemoptysis

162.

163.

164.

165.

TYPHOID FEVER
166.
The causative agent of typhoid fever is:
a. Salmonella enterica
b. Salmonella typhosa
c. Salmonella enteritidis
d. Salmonella choleraesuis
167.
a.
b.
c.

A vector that transmits typhoid bacillus to its infective host:


Mosquito
Snail
Fly

d.

Feces

a.
b.
c.
d.

The pathognomonic sign of typhoid fever is:


Rose spots on the abdomen
Butterfly rash
Stimsons sign
Forscheimer spots

168.

169.
action?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Salmonella enterica / typhosa microorganism is virulent because which of the following mode of

170.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The following clinical manifestations are observed during the fastidial stage, except:
Typhoid psychosis
Carphologia
Subsultus tendinum
Intestinal perforation

a.
b.
c.
d.

A cook of a restaurant is free from typhoid bacillus only if:


3 consecutive cultures are done, with one month interval and found negative
After 48 hours of continued therapy and found negative during culture
After a negative scotch tape result
After 10 days of fecalysis and found negative

a.
b.
c.
d.

The following immunoglobulin findings indicate the early infection of typhoid fever:
Increase IgG
Increase IgM
No Ig increase
Increase in both IgG and IgM

a.
b.
c.
d.

The drug of choice for typhoid fever is:


Chloramphenicol
Ampicillin
Ceftriaxone
Penicillin

a.
b.
c.
d.

Chloramphenicol is contraindicated for children in the United States because it may cause:
Liver cirrhosis
Aplastic anemia
Sterility
Blindness

a.
b.
c.
d.

Possible complication of typhoid fever includes, except:


Intestinal perforation
Hemorrhage
Extraintestinal typhoid fever
Peritonitis

a.
b.
c.
d.

Shigellosis is also known as, except:


Asylum dysentery
Bacillary dysentery
Blood flux
El tor

171.

172.

173.

174.

175.

176.

Pushing itself from one cell to another by adhesin and actin tail
Attracts electrolytes and then expelled causing diarrhea
Burrowing to the Peyers patches of the small intestine
Penetrating the intestinal wall and travels systemically

177.
The group of Shigella or dysentery bacillus that produces a Shiga toxin and is said to be the most
virulent:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Shflesneri
Shboy-dii
Sh-dysenteriae
Sh-connei

a.
b.
c.
d.

The following are the means of transmitting Shigella or dysentery bacillus, except:
Feco-oral transmission
Contaminated water, milk and food
Droplet transmission
Transmission by fly

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following nursing intervention in collecting stool specimen with Shigellosis?
Must be of sufficient amount to obtain accurate result, approximately one half of a drinking cup
2 successive fecal sample twice a day
Must be sent in the laboratory at once
Must be refrigerated first to halt the growth of other microorganisms

a.
b.
c.
d.

The drug of choice for Shigellosis which is a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimetropin:
Ampicillin
Tetracycline
Cotrimoxazole
Loperamide

a.
b.
c.
d.

Another term to connote cholera is, except:


Violent dysentery
El tor
Washerwomans disease
Flux

a.
b.
c.
d.

Possible effects of diarrhea is:


Respiratory alkalosis
Hypokalemia
Hypernatremia
Respiratory acidosis

178.

179.

180.

181.

182.

183.
During the collapse stage of cholera, the client will be experiencing what sign of dehydration which is
considered also a pathognomonic sign of cholera:
a. Marked mental depression
b. Sultus tendinum
c. Washerwomans sign
d. Rose spots on the abdomen
184.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Drug of choice for cholera is:


Ampicillin
Tetracycline
Cotrimoxazole
Loperamide

185.
gives:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Cholera, dysentery and typhoid fever can be prevented by CDT immunization given deltoid area and

186.

Which of the following gastro-intestinal disease is caused by protozoa?


Violent dysentery
Typhoid fever
Bacillary dysentery

a.
b.
c.

6 months immunity
1 year immunity
3 years immunity
5 months immunity

d. Amebic dysentery
187.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is:


Larva
Cyst
Trophozoites
Gametocytes

a.
b.
c.
d.

The possible complication of amebiasis which is of greatest concern and most severe is:
Extraintestinal amebiasis
Dehydration
Hemorrhage
Shock

a.
b.
c.
d.

The drug of choice for amebiasis is:


Chloramphenicol
Cotrimoxazole
Metronidazole
Tetracycline

188.

189.

PARAGONOMIASIS
190.
The main and primary intermediate host of Paragonomiasis
a. Antemelania asperata
b. Varona litterata
c. Paragonimus westermani
d. Paragonimus siamenses
191.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The following are the possible modes of transmission of Paragonomiasis


Ingestion of raw or insufficiently cooked crabs
Contamination of food and utensils
Drinking contaminated water
Sexual contact

a.
b.
c.
d.

Paragonomiasis is endemic in the following areas, except:


Mindoro, Camarines region
Sorsogon, Samar and Leyte
Albay, Cebu and Basilan
Guimaras, Pangasinan and Zambales

a.
b.
c.
d.

Patients with Paragonomiasis are misdiagnosed because it has this disease manifestation:
PTB
Diptheria
Pneumonia
Pertussis

a.
b.
c.
d.

Diagnostic examination for Paragonomiasis are the following, except:


Sputum examination
CSF analysis
Immunology
Fecalysis

a.
b.
c.
d.

Drug of choice for Paragonomiasis is:


Praziquantel
Hetrazan
Chloroquine
Penicilin

192.

193.

194.

195.

196.

Alternative drug choice for Paragonomiasis


a. BITIN

b.
c.
d.

Rifampicin
Chloroquine
Tetracycline

a.
b.
c.
d.

The most important means of preventing Paragonomiasis is:


Sanitary disposal of excreta
Food sanitation
Avoid bathing in infected water
Anti-mollusk campaign

a.
b.
c.
d.

Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning (PSP)is commonly known as:


Red Tide
Green algae Poisoning
Sting Ray Poisoning
Paragonomiasis

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following facts about PSPs causative agent is not true?
Caused by Dinoflagellates
Common term is plankton
Less than 30 kinds of 2000 varieties ca cause poisoning
Increases because of continuous high temperature and/or summer

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following mollusks is the cause of PSP, except:


Tahong
Talaba
Halaan
Pamaypay

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following facts about shellfish with poison is not true:
It contains a toxin known as Pyromidium
The toxin affects the CNS primarily
It can be neutralize by vinegar or any acidic solution
It can tolerate extreme heat and temperature

a.
b.
c.
d.

Classical clinical manifestations of PSP are the following, in exception to:


Paralysis
Ataxia
Dysphagia
Urticaria

197.

198.

199.

200.

201.

202.

203.
Which of the following victims would probably have the highest rate of survival after ingesting a
poisonous shellfish?
a. Those who have eaten pamaypay, the least poisonous shellfish
b. Those who have survived the first 12 hours after ingestion
c. Those who have drank immediately sea water to counterpart shellfishs poison
d. Those who urged and successfully vomited
204.
a.
b.
c.
d.

A person who have eaten and manifested signs and symptoms of PSP must first:
Drink decaffeinated coffee
Take the shellfish and let it be examined by the laboratory technicians to know antibiotic of choice.
Induce vomiting.
Take metronidazole, as ordered.

205.
During the early stage of poisoning, let the client do which of the following first aid measures to
neutralize toxin, except?
a. Drinking pure coconut milk
b. Drinking milk
c. Drinking sodium bicarbonate solution

d. Drinking vinegar
206.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The most common reason of botulism among infants is:


Eating fecal material of the child
Eating commercially prepared food such as Cerelac
Introduction of honey to baby
Inadequately boiled drinking milk

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following facts about botulism is not true:


Manifest within 12 to 36 hours
First 24 hours critical
Initial signs and symptoms includes dry mouth, sore throat, weakness, vomiting diarrhea
Infants are rigid and muscle contraction is evident.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following facts about STH is not true?


third most prevalent infection worldwide
ranked top 10 among the Worlds Top Ten Infectious Diseases Killer
Deworming is the number one cost effective priority intervention among five to fourteen year group
2-5 years old are the reservoirs; while 6 to 14 are easily infected

a.
b.
c.
d.

The three major causes of intestinal parasitic infection in the Philippines are, except:
Ascaris lumbricoides
Trichuris trichuria
Hookworms (Ancylostoma duodonale and Necator americanus)
Oxyuris vermicularis

a.
b.
c.
d.

Causative agent of pinworm:


Oxyuris vermicularis
Ascaris lumbricoides
Strogyloides stercoralis
Trichuris trichuria

a.
b.
c.
d.

Another term for pinworm:


Enterobiasis
Strongyloidiasis
Trichuriasis
Ancylostosomiasis

a.
b.
c.
d.

Primarily, pinworms are transmitted through:


Droplet
Soil
Fomites
Airborne

a.
b.
c.
d.

The pathognomonic sign of Pinworm infection is:


Aplastic anemia
Nocturnal ani
Eczema
Hemorrhoids

a.
b.
c.
d.

Ascariasis lumbricoides is also known as:


Pinworm
Tapeworm
Roundworm
Threadworm

207.

208.

209.

210.

211.

212.

213.

214.

215.

It has a strong affinity to this part of the body where the eggs matures for 3 weeks:
a. Liver
b. Lungs
c. Kidneys

d.

GI tract

a.
b.
c.
d.

Threadworms are also known as:


Enterobiasis
Strongyloidiasis
Trichuriasis
Ancylostosomiasis

a.
b.
c.
d.

Threadworms are different from other roundworms because it has the following capacity, except:
Reproduce even without host
Eggs hatch into larvae in the intestine
Have an increase viability form known as the rhabdozoite
Eggs are the infective stage

a.
b.
c.
d.

Whipworm infection is caused by:


Oxyuris vermicularis
Ascaris lumbricoides
Strogyloides stercoralis
Trichuris trichuria

a.
b.
c.
d.

Ancylostomiasis is also known as:


Pinworm
Hookworm
Roundworm
Tapeworm

a.
b.
c.
d.

Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodanale infection can result:


Eczema
Ear infection
Anemia
Vitamin B 12 deficiency

a.
b.
c.
d.

Tapeworm or flatworms are found in fish, beef and pork. Tapeworm infection from pork is caused by:
Diphyllobothrium latum
Taenia saginata
Taenia solium
Taenia baraziliense

a.
b.
c.
d.

Pinworms are embedded in the animal meat through what form?


Cysticerci
Proglottids
Rhabdozoites
Sporozoites

a.
b.
c.
d.

The most efficient and cost-effective method done to determine worm infection is:
Stool Exam
Scotch tape method
Direct fecal smear
Sigmoidoscopy

a.
b.
c.
d.

Mebendazole and its drug family kills worms by:


Paralyzing the worms
Inhibiting the glucose intake of the worms
Detoxifying their toxins
Chemically altering their component

216.

217.

218.

219.

220.

221.

222.

223.

224.

225.

The most effective measure against worm infections is:


a. Avoid walking bare footed
b. Promoting hygiene

c.
d.
HEPATITIS
226.

Considered AIDS twin, it is the 2nd leading cause of cancer, second to tobacco:
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D

227.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Also known as post-infusion hepatitis:


Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D

a.
b.
c.
d.

Another term for hepatitis B is:


Homologous serum jaundice
Epidemic hepatitis
Catarrhal jaundice
Post-transfusion hepatitis

a.
b.
c.
d.

Most common type of hepatitis:


Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D

a.
b.
c.
d.

Transmission of hepatitis E includes which of the following?


Feco-oral route
Blood, sexual contact
Semen
Transfusion

a.
b.
c.
d.

Post infection of a fulminant hepatitis B:


Hepatitis A
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis F

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following intervention is appropriate for the Hepatitis A:


Blood screening for blood donation.
Use of disposable equipment especially syringe and needles.
Avoid oro-anal sexual intercourse
No sharing of personal items which may cause break in the skin. (e.g. razor)

a.
b.
c.
d.

Jaundice, a pathognomonic sign of hepatitis, appears on what stage of illiness:


Pre-icteric
Icteric
Latent
Post-icteric

a.
b.
c.
d.

Diet of patients with a fulminant hepatitis includes all the following except:
small, frequent feedings
high CHO
increase CHON
high in vitamins, especially Vitamin B Complex

228.

229.

230.

231.

232.

233.

234.

235.

Vaccination
Isolation

Which of the following is not nursing management intended to clients with hepatitis?
a. Relieve pruritus warm, moist compress or emollient lotion

b.
c.
d.
236.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Health teaching avoid alcohol


Isolation precaution
Administer medications as ordered (Corticosteroids, Liver protector Essentiale)
Eruptions in the skin that present in the mucus membrane:
Exanthem
Enanthem
Papule
Lesions

237.
Which of the following management is not included for the care of patients with integumentary
problems?
a. Use calamine lotion
b. Administer anti-histamine
c. Trim nails and wear mittens among children
d. Wear constrictive clothing to alleviate itching
MEASLES
238.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Measles is also known as, except:


Three-day measles
Rubeola
Little Red Disease
Morbili

a.
b.
c.
d.

The pathognomic sign of measles is:


Forscheimer spots
Kopliks spots
Stimsons sign
Postherpetic Neuraglia

a.
b.
c.
d.

The following are the clinical manifestations of Measles, except


Conjuctivitis with photophobia
Bright red spot with a blue-white spot at the center at the buccal mucosa
Low grade fever
Deep red macula-papular eruptions

a.
b.
c.
d.

The appearance of rashes of measles is characterized by all of the following, except:


Begins at the hairline and behind the ears
Appears at the trunk first (unifocal)
Desquamation occurs after rashes
Cephalocaudal appearance of rashes is observed

239.

240.

241.

242.
coma:
a.
b.
c.
d.

A complication of Measles wherein a defective virus enters the brain and causes seizure, paralysis and

243.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Measles vaccine is given with the following considerations, except:


Introduced once at nine months
O.5 cc is introduced at deltoid muscle, ID
AMV can be given as early as 6 months
Report experience of fever and mild rashes for 3 to 4 days

a.
b.
c.
d.

Possible complication of measles include, except:


Pneumonia
Otitis media
Encephalitis
Renal failure

244.

Bovine Spongiform Encephalitis


Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis
Herpes Zoster
African Sleeping Sickness

245.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Measles can be prevented by a vaccine known as MMR and is given during the:
9th months
15th month
12th month
14th month

GERMAN MEASLES
246.
German measles is also known as, except:
a. Rubella
b. Rubeola
c. Roseola
d. Rothein
247.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Characteristics of German measles rash include all of the following, except:


Pink-red maculopapular rash
Rashes are slightly bigger than measles
Rashes appears on face going to the trunk to the extremities
Rash disappearance is characterized by fine flaking

248.
Avoidance of German measles is a must for pregnant mothers specifically for the first trimester
because of its possible effect to the baby. This is observed because:
a. The virus produces inflammatory response that is not conducive for the zygote.
b. The virus can readily pass through the placenta and produce its effects to the fetus
c. It causes abortion
d. It dilates the cervix that causes propulsion of the fetus.
249.
a.
b.
c.
d.
CHICKEN POX
250.
a.
b.
c.
d.
251.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The following are the possible complication of German measles, except:


Congenital anomaly
Otitis media
Bronchopneumonia
Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis

The causative agent of chicken pox is:


Herpes simplex
Human (alpha) herpesvirus 3 (varicella-zoster virus)
Paramyxovirus
Morbili virus
The possible sequelae of chicken pox when reactivated during the later years if life is:
Pneumonia
Peripheral Neuropathy
Cataract
Shingles

252.
The appearance of rashes among clients with chicken pox start from the trunk and is initially
characterized by what kind of lesion?
a. Maculae
b. Papulae
c. Vesicle
d. Pustule
253.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Penicillin is administered to patients with chicken pox is given because:


Penicillin inhibits the growth of microorganisms of chicken pox.
Penicillin alleviates signs and symptoms of chicken pox.
Penicillin prevents other infection accompanied possible by chicken pox.
Penicillin prevents prolonged exposure to virus.

254.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Aspirin is not given for patient with Chicken pox to prevent:


Creutzfeld-Jakob Syndrome
Reyes syndrome
Herpes Zoster
Postherpetic neuralgia

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following assessment procedures will diagnose chicken pox?


Varicella Zoster Ig is more than 10
Physical assessment
Fecalysis
CSF analysis on the 2nd day

255.

256.
nerves
a.
b.
c.
d.

The burning pain experienced along the cluster of skin vesicles, along courses of peripheral sensory
experienced by those with shingles is called:
Postherpetic neuralgia
Herpetic Blisters
Dermatologic pain
Shingles pain

257.
Involvement of the facial nerve in herpes zoster with facial paralysis, hearing loss, loss of taste in half
of the tongue and skin lesions around the ear and ear canal is known as:
a. Ramsay-hunt syndrome
b. Cushings sydrome
c. Psychotic syndrome
d. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
258.
a.
b.
c.
d.
259.
in:

The first disease where microorganism is discovered through the ages and in the bible:
Leprosy
Cholera
Typhus
Bubonic plague
Multidrug therapy was first introduced in the Philippines through a pilot study in Cebu and Ilocos Norte

a.
b.
c.
d.

1985
1987
1989
1991

a.
b.
c.
d.

MDT was implemented nationwide after the successful pilot study in Cebu and Ilocos Norte in:
1985
1987
1989
1991

a.
b.
c.
d.

Leprosy is still a health problem among 4 provinces in the Philippines, except:


Ilocos region
Basilan
Sulu
Aparri

260.

261.

262.
Which of the following leprosy type indicates skin lesions that are sharply demarcated and bilaterally
symmetrical?
a. Lepromatous
b. Tuberculoid
c. Indeterminate
d. Borderline

263.
In this type of leprosy, nodules, papules and macules are diffuse, infiltrations are bilaterally
symmetrical, numerous and extensive, and crusting of the nasal mucosa, obstructed breathing and epistaxis
occurs.
a. Lepromatous
b. Tuberculoid
c. Indeterminate
d. Borderline
264.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Leprosy type with hypopigmented macule with ill defined borders:


Lepromatous
Tuberculoid
Indeterminate
Borderline

a.
b.
c.
d.

A patient with more than 5 lesions is categorized as:


Single lesion paucibacillary
Paucibacillary
Multibacillary
Tuberculoid

a.
b.
c.
d.

Paucubacillary is a non-infectious type of leprosy that is treated for how many months?
6 to 9 months
24 to 30 months
12 to 24 months
8 to 16 months

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following manifestations is not considered a late sign of leprosy:


Anhydrosis
Lagopthalmos
Madarosis
Gynecomastia

a.
b.
c.
d.

Diagnosis of leprosy is currently based on:


Positive slit skin smear
Clinical signs and symptoms
ELISA
Antibody test

a.
b.
c.
d.

The use of two or more drugs for the treatment of leprosy and considered as a public health program:
MDT
DOTS
IMCI
MBS

a.
b.
c.
d.

A person is considered non-infectious after undergoing how many weeks of MDT?


Three weeks
One week
After the complete treatment of the Paucibacillay or Multibacillary treatment
Four weeks

a.
b.
c.
d.

How many blister pack should be completed for a patient with Multibacillary leprosy?
6 blisters packs for a maximum period of nine months
12 blister packs to be taken within a maximum period of 18 months
6 blister packs for a maximum period of 18 months
12 blister packs to be taken within nine months

265.

266.

267.

268.

269.

270.

271.

272.

All but one is an early sign of leprosy:


a. Madarosis
b. Change in skin color

c.
d.

Nasal obstruction or bleeding


Ulcers that doesnt heal

a.
b.
c.
d.

Leprosy can be transmitted through:


Blood
Semen
Sex
Prolonged skin to skin contact

a.
b.
c.
d.

A negative slit skin smear requires a single dose of the following drugs except:
Ofloxacin
Rifampicin
Clofazimine
Minocycline

a.
b.
c.
d.

The drug that has a side effect of skin discoloration is:


Clofazimine
Rifampicin
Dapsone
Streptomycin

a.
b.
c.
d.

Clofazimine is given how many times for a patient with Paucibacillary leprosy:
Once a month then daily
Once a month only
Daily
None

273.

274.

275.

276.

277.
Rifampicin in both Multibacillary and Paucibacillary treatment is given once a day with how many mg is
recommended for a child with leprosy?
a. 600 mg
b. 450 mg
c. 100 mg
d. 50 mg
278.
Should the patient fail to complete the regimen prescribed for MB, the patient should continue
treatment until how many blister packs are consumed?
a. 6
b. 12
c. 18
d. 24
279.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following management can prevent leprosy?


BCG immunization
Leprosy vaccine
Slit skin smear
Chemoprophylaxis of rifampicin

a.
b.
c.
d.

The disease that is the most common concern in the Philippines is:
Syphilis
Gonorrhea
Chlamydia
Trichomoniasis

a.
b.
c.
d.

The leading mode of transmission of HIV and STI in the Philippines is:
Sharing needles for injecting drug use
Sexual contact
Vertical transmission
Blood transfusion

280.

281.

282.
a.
b.
c.
d.
GONORRHEA
283.
a.
b.
c.
d.
284.

What is the most effective means of preventing STI?


Use of condom
Contact tracing
Drug compliance
Routine screening of sexual workers

The pathognomonic sign of gonorrhea is:


Nocturnal ani
Gleet
Dyspareunia
Chancre

a.
b.
c.
d.

Another term to connote gonorrhea is, except:


Strain
Morning drop
GC
Bad blood

a.
b.
c.
d.

The most common reportable sexually transmitted disease is:


Trichomoniasis
Chylamydia
Syphilis
Gonorrhea

a.
b.
c.
d.

Neisseria gonorrhea and Treponema pallidum is contracted only during sexual intercourse because:
These microorganisms need physical contact to transfer from one another.
These microorganisms love heat and grow fast when body temperature is high.
These microorganisms are active only during sexual intercourse.
These microorganisms possess the ability to penetrate only during sexual contact.

285.

286.

287.
Neisseria gonorrhea have the ability to be transferred from the infective male going to the partner
through:
a. Adhesion of the microorganism to the sperm during expulsion
b. Enterotoxin production that is transmitted by the sperm
c. Penile contact to the mucosa of the vagina transmits the microorganism
d. Oral and anal sex even without withdrawal
288.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The female who contracted the microorganism may have sterility because:
Microorganism attacks the ovaries and kills egg cells
Endotoxin paralyze cilia in the fallopian tube
The microorganism clogs in the cervical opening preventing sperm to enter
Uterus keeps on contracting expulsing sperm away due to toxins produced by the microorganism

a.
b.
c.
d.

The drug of choice in the treatment of gonorrhea is:


Penicillin
Azithromycin
Tetracycline
Metronidazole

289.

290.

Which of the following is true about gonorrhea?


a. Females are asymptomatic carriers making transmission of disease very easy and
undiagnosed
b. Males do not manifest any signs and symptoms for the first 10 days
c. Females produces a vaginal discharge that is cheesy in appearance
d. Infection of the eyes among infants is not possible unlike tetanus neonatorum

291.
a.
b.
c.
d.
292.

Which of the following are the possible complications of gonorrhea, except?


PID
Arthritis
Kidney damage
Liver cirrhosis

Syphilis is also known as:


a. Lues
b. Trich
c. Gleet

d.

Jack

a.
b.
c.
d.

The incubation period of syphilis is:


10 to 90 days
2 to 10 days
2 to 21 days
4 to 20 days

a.
b.
c.
d.

The pathognomonic sign of syphilis is:


Chancre
Gumma
Gleet
Painful urination

293.

294.

295.
The presence of rashes, where the blood vessels are severely damaged, is an indicator that the stage
of syphilis is now at what stage?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Latent
d. Tertiary
296.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Syphilis microorganism is sensitive with antibiotics, specifically a single injection of:


Tetracycline
Benzathine Penicillin
Vancomycin
Metronifazole

a.
b.
c.
d.

The stage when a syphilis-infected individual remains infectious but not to other people:
Primary
Secondary
Latent
Tertiary

a.
b.
c.
d.

The only sexually transmitted disease that may cause insanity is:
Syphilis
Gonorrhea
Trichomoniasis
Nonspecific vaginitis

297.

298.

299.
only be
a.
b.
c.
d.

The disease that manifests and same microbial invasion mechanism like that of Chylamydia and can
differentiated through culture test is:
Syphilis
Gonorrhea
Trichomoniasis
Herpes simplex

300.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Cases of chylamdia is difficult to trace and diagnose because:


Microorganism is resistant to staining
Females who are infected are usually asymptomatic
Males do not report it because of cultural factors
Microorganism looks like that of Treponema pallidum

a.
b.
c.
d.

One of the most common cause of ectopic pregnancy brought by a sexually transmitted disease is:
Syphilis
Gonorrhea
Chylamydia
Herpes simplex

a.
b.
c.
d.

The incubation period of Trichomonas vaginalis is


10-20 days
14-21 days
10-30 days
4-20 days

301.

302.

303.

The distinguishing characteristic of vaginal discharge of those with is Trichomoniasis is:


a. White-greenish discharge with fish like odor
b. Cheesy like discharge
c. Whitish with red spots discharge

d.

Vinegar smelling greenish discharge

a.
b.
c.
d.

The medicine of choice for female who are infected with Trichomonas vaginalis is?
Metronidazole
Tetracycline
Penicillin
Erythromycin

a.
b.
c.
d.

The possible complication of trichomoniasis is:


PID
Cervical cancer
Sterility
Blindness

a.
b.
c.
d.

A kind of candidiasis manifested in the nails is known as:


Onychomycosis
Moniliasis
Thrush
Diaper rash

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following may likely contribute to the development of Candidiasis, except?
Cancer
Diabetes
Broad spectrum antibiotics
Hereditary factors

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following medication is effective against oral thrush?


Nystatin solution taken 4 to 6 times a day, swished and swallowed
Imidazole suppository five times a day for 2 weeks
Myconazole retained for five minutes in the mouth then discarded
Amphotericin B via IV

a.
b.
c.
d.

Nursing management for Candidiasis includes:


Provide a diet high in alkaline
Provide care for itching
Increase fluid intake
Weigh the client everyday

a.
b.
c.
d.

Herpes simplex type that is transmitted through kissing, sharing kitchen utensils and/or sharing towels:
Type 1
Type 2
Latent type
Type 3

a.
b.
c.
d.

Herpes simplex type that causes minor rash, itching, muscular pain and burning sensation is:
Type 1
Type 2
Latent type
Type 3

a.
b.
c.
d.

The leading sexually transmitted disease among industrialized countries is:


Herpes simplex
Syphilis
Gonorrhea
Candidiasis

a.
b.
c.
d.

The first name for the end stage of HIV infection and coined on 1981 is:
Gay-related immunodeficiency syndrome
Hypo-immunity syndrome
Acquired immune deficiency disease
Venereal disease

a.
b.
c.
d.

The year when Philippines had its first case of AIDS:


1983
1984
1985
1986

304.

305.

306.

307.

308.

309.

310.

311.

312.

313.

314.

315.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The second to largest region where AIDS is prevalent:


Africa
South East Asia
Latin America
Europe

a.
b.
c.
d.

The causative agent of AIDS is:


Retrovirus HTLV-3
Human lentivirus immuno-deficiency virus
Human immunocompetent virus
G6 PD virus

316.

317.
shows
a.
b.
c.
d.

The period where no manifestations are observed for patient infected with HIV and laboratory results
no remarkable immune system defect?
Sero-conversion period
Cell-mediated period
Fastigium period
Early asymptomatic period

318.
How many times would a laboratory technician to withdraw blood sample from a patient to satisfy
ELISA and Western Blot diagnostic procedure?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
319.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The golden standard for confirming a positive individual infected with HIV:
ELISA
Western Blot
Immunosorbent test
Fluorescent Antibody test

a.
b.
c.
d.

A patient infected with HIV is said to be on its late stage when his/her CD4 cells are:
Below 200 cells/mm3
Below 300 cells/mm3
Below 400 cells/mm3
Below 100 cells/mm3

a.
b.
c.
d.

The transmission of HIV of a mother to her baby is known as:


Vertical transmission
Horizontal transmission
Definitive transmission
Diagonal transmission

a.
b.
c.
d.

Transmission of HIV is possible through, except:


Sexual contact
Kissing
Blood transfusion
Use of contaminated syringe

320.

321.

322.

323.
Opportunistic infection present during the early symptomatic stage includes all of the following,
except:
a. Toxoplasmosis
b. Herpes Simplex
c. Candidiasis
d. Pneumocystic carinii Pneumonia
324.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The leading cause of death among patients with AIDS is:


Herpes Simplex
Candidiasis
Tuberculosis
AIDS-related Dementia

a.
b.
c.
d.

An enzyme of an HIV that causes transformation of RNA to DNA is known as:


Protease
Reverse transcriptase
Integrase
Nuclease

325.

326.

The following are the consideration in taking good care of clients with HIV except:
a. Gloves should be worn when handling blood specimen, soiled linen or any body fluids.
b. Thermometer is washed with warm soapy water and soaks it with 40% alcohol for 10
minutes.
c. Avoid contact to open wound or lesions.
d. Universal precaution and body substance isolation is a must.

327.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Blood spills should be cleaned up promptly with a disinfectant solution of:


Household bleach
Alcohol
Iodine
Hydrogen peroxide

328.
Patients with AIDS are said to immunocompromised. Which of the following intervention is the nurse
would likely best perform to prevent further infection:
a. Administration of antibiotics, as ordered
b. Hand washing
c. Monitor for oral infection and meningitis
d. Always check laboratory records of WBC and CD4 cells
329.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Drug of choice for HIV is:


Indinavir
Zidovoudine
Ritonavir
Acyclovir

330.
will the
a.
b.
c.
d.

Client refused to answer some of the questions asked by the nurse during the assessment phase. What
nurse do?
Respect clients inability to discuss problem
Encourage verbalizations until information is extracted
Let the patient sign a refusal slip
Report patient to DOH at once

331.
a.
b.
c.
d.

According to the goals of Reproductive health, all are true, except,


Every pregnancy should be intended
Every birth should be healthy
Every women should be given condom to protect herself from STD and pregnancy
Every sex should be free of coercion and infection

a.
b.
c.
d.

The four Cs of STD management includes all of the following, except:


Condom
Contact-tracing
Counseling
Cooperation

332.

333.
Which of the management is included in the proposed strategy by the DOH to prevent mosquitocausing diseases such as dengue and malaria?
a. Insecticide treated mosquito net
b. Breeding of larva-eating fish
c. Stream clearing
d. Use of OFF lotion to the skin
334.
A mosquito net is said to be effective against mosquito, if the following characteristics is observed,
except:
a. It is treated with pyethroid or pyethrinoids.
b. It must have 156 holes/ square inch.
c. It must be tuck under the bed or mat.
d. With a seal by the DOH, as inspected.
335.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Stream seeding involves the following considerations, except:


Janitor fish is an effective fish that eats larva.
2-4 fish per square meter should be placed for immediate result
200 400 fish per hectare for delayed impact are bred.
Bio-ponds will be created by the Local Government Unit.

336.
N-diethyl-D-toluamide is an effective chemical against mosquito because it provide protections for how
many hours?
a. 24 hours
b. 4-12 hours
c. 12 to 24 hours
d. 2-3 hours only
337.
known
a.
b.
c.
d.
338.

The mosquito instead of biting distal humans , bits an animal proximal to it. This technique is also
as:
Chemoprophylaxis
Zooprophylaxis
Faunoprophylaxis
Malaria-dengue animal technique

a.
b.
c.
d.

A soap that is recommended by DOH that will propel mosquitoes away:


Safeguard
Lifebuoy
Likas Papaya
Lanzones soap

a.
b.
c.
d.

A local plant that is proven to repel mosquito away:


Talahib
Tanglad
Tsaang gubat
Talong

339.

DENGUE HEMORRHAGIC FEVER


340.
Another term for dengue hemorrhagic fever is:
a. Brickback fever
b. Brokenbone syndrome
c. Breakbone fever
d. Brokeback fever
341.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The first dengue case in the Philippines was reported last:


1953
1958
1984
1985

a.
b.
c.
d.

Dengue cases usually peaks in months of:


July to November
February to April
September to December
January to December

a.
b.
c.
d.

Among the viral strain of Dengue, the most common is, dengue virus type:
1
2
3
4

a.
b.
c.
d.

The following are the vectors that can carry the dengue virus, except:
Culex fatigans
Aedes Aegypti
Aedes albopictus
Aedes poecilus

342.

343.

344.

345.

Characteristics of mosquito causing dengue includes all of the following, except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Low flying mosquito


Bites at the lower extremities
Bites before sunrise and sunset
Breeds on a flowing water

a.
b.
c.
d.

The virus attacks what blood formed element:


Thrombocytes
Megakaryocytes
Eryhtrocytes
Leukocytes

346.

347.
Which of the following manifestations of the client, that according to WHO, may lead to definitive
diagnosis of Dengue Hemorrhagic fever, except:
a. Fever lasting 2-7 days
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Positive tourniquet test plus petechiae, ecchymoses, purpura
d. Abdominal pain plus joint fever
348.
a.
b.
c.
d.

In what stage is Hermans sign clinically manifested by the client?


Febrile stage
Hemorrhagic stage
Circulatory failure stage
Hypovolemic Shock

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of bleeding among clients with Dengue, except?
Hemoptysis
Melena
Hematochezia
Hematemesis

349.

350.
Which of the following signs and symptoms would indicate that the client is in the late stage of dengue
infection?
a. Vomiting of blood
b. Hermans sign
c. Hypotension, rapid weak pulse, narrow pulse pressure
d. Abdominal pain with bone pain
351.
a.
b.
c.
d.

A positive Rumpel Leads test indicates that:


Decrease blood supply is observed in the arm with tourniquet
20 or more petechiae are present per 1 inch square
The client manifests general flushing of the skin
Melena is observed in the stool

352.
Which of the following laboratory results will the nurse consistently monitors to those patients with
Dengue?
a. Troponin
b. Platelet count
c. Liver Enzymes
d. Viral count
353.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following management are not included to patients with Dengue?
Administer Vitamin K.
Complete bed rest
Provide warmth to patients, if possible comforters.
Do not give aspirin in cases of fever.

a.
b.

Majority of patients with dengue are candidate for transfusion if their platelet level is:
Below 150
Below 100

354.

c.
d.

Below 50
Below 25

355.
To prevent hypovolemic shock for patients with dengue, the nurse understands that this management
is aimed to prevent such case:
a. Give ORS 75 ml/kg in 4 to 6 hours for children
b. Give ORESOL up to 2 to 3 L for children
c. Give one to three cups oral rehydration solution, in every bout
d. ORESOL will only be given to patients with those who are experiencing vomiting and diarrhea
356.
a.
b.
c.
d.

In cases that the client is experiencing melena, what would be the most appropriate nursing response?
Provide ice chips
Ice bag over the abdomen
Low fat, low fiber diet
Assume dorsal recumbent position

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following diet can be given to patient with Dengue?


DAT
Noodle soup
Pineapple and watermelon
NPO

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following nursing intervention is best aimed against the prevention of dengue cases?
Insecticide use
Health education
Hand washing
Contact tracing

a.
b.
c.
d.

Another term for malaria is:


Brokeback fever
Ague
Bilharziasis
Weils disease

357.

358.

359.

360.
cases:
a.
b.
c.
d.

The Plasmodium species that is most common in the Philippines and accounts for 70% of all malarial

361.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following species of plasmodium doesnt exist in the Philippines?


P. falciparum
P. vivax
P. malariae
P. ovale

a.
b.
c.
d.

The following are the characteristics of malaria-causing mosquito, except:


Only female mosquito bites
Breeds on partly shaded water
Bites at night
Clean stagnant water is a good breeding site

362.

P. falciparum
P. vivax
P. malariae
P. ovale

363.
Which of the following vectors is the most common mosquito transmitting the Plasmodium species in
the country?
a. Anopheles litoralis
b. Anopheles flavistoris
c. Anopheles balabacensis
d. Anopheles mangyanus

364.
Plasmodium as an amoeba undergoes cycle. Which of the following is considered the definitive host of
malaria?
a. Humans
b. Streams
c. Mosquito
d. Fly
365.
a.
b.
c.
d.

What is the protozoan form that is present in the salivary glands of the mosquito?
Sporozoites
Merozoites
Thropozoites
Gametocytes

a.
b.
c.
d.

The protozoan stage present in the RBC, multiplies and causes lysis:
Sporozoites
Merozoites
Thropozoites
Gametocytes

a.
b.
c.
d.

The initial and primary site of merozoite multiplication is found in the:


Lungs
Kidneys
Liver
Gall bladder

a.
b.
c.
d.

The protozoa Plasmodium causes organ failure due to:


Production of toxins that causes cell death
Clogging of rigid RBCs infected by the plasmodia
Formation of merozoites that inhibits cellular metabolism
Sequestration of water from the cell causing cellular lysis or dehydration

366.

367.

368.

369.
Amazingly, patients with malaria have a cycle of cold, hot and diaphoretic stage. Fever is evident in a
particular period of time and not all through the disease process because:
a. During febrile stage toxins are present.
b. During febrile stage, the microorganisms simultaneously reproduce.
c. During febrile stage, iron is sequestered by the liver.
d. During febrile stage, the gametocytes are produced.
370.
a.
b.
c.
d.

A diagnostic procedure that is a must in every case of Malaria in a certain community:


Malarial Blood Smear
Quantitative Buffy Coat
ELISA
Nocturnal Blood Examination

a.
b.
c.
d.

The drug of choice against malaria is:


Chloroquine
N-diethyl-D-toluamide
Pyethrinoids
Biltricide

371.

372.

373.

Blood Schizonticides are given with the following dose:


a. Given at a dose of 10 mg/kg once a day for two days, then 5mg/kg single dose on the third
day
b. Given at a dose of 5 mg/kg once a day for two days, then 10 mg/kg single dose on the third day
c. Given at a dose of 10 mg/kg twice a day for two days, then 5mg/kg single dose on the third day
d. Given at a dose of 5 mg/kg twice a day for two days, then 5mg/kg single dose on the third day
Which of the following health teachings will be included if the patient is taking chloroquine?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Advise patient that the urine may turn rust brown in color.
It should be given before meals.
Can be given even before C and S is completed or confirmed.
Frequent ambulation is required when taking the medication.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following term is use to connote Filariasis?


Elephantiasis
Schistosomiasis
Ascariasis
Trichenelliasis

a.
b.
c.
d.

Causative agent of Filariasis that accounts for 90% of all the cases:
Wuchureria bancrofti
Brugia malayi
Brugia timori
Oncomelania quadrasi

a.
b.
c.
d.

The following regions in the Philippines, where Filariasis is said to be endemic are, except:
Region V
Region IX
Region X
Region XI

a.
b.
c.
d.

The immediate source or vector of Filariasis is:


Aedes Aegypti
Anopheles flavistoris
Aedes poecilus
Anopheles mangyanus

a.
b.
c.
d.

Lymphadenitis, Lymphangitis, epidydimitis is evidently seen in what clinical stage of Filariasis?


Asymptomatic stage
Acute stage
Chronic stage
Immune stage

374.

375.

376.

377.

378.

379.
The enlargement and thickening of the skin of the lower extremities and/or upper extremities, scrotum
or breast is known as:
a. Lymphedema
b. Lymphadenitis
c. Elephantiasis
d. Funiculitis
380.
a.
b.
c.
d.

A clinical diagnostic procedure for Filariasis that can be done at daytime:


NBE
ICT
MBS
ELISA

a.
b.
c.
d.

Drug of choice for filarisis is:


Hetrazan
Biltricide
Chloroquine
Praziquantel

a.
b.
c.
d.

Medication given to client that kills the microfilirae may be given with this drug to prevent side effects:
Corticosteroids / antihistamine
Penicillin
Metronidazole
Amoxicillin

381.

382.

383.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Hydrocele among infected individuals with filariasis is surgically intervened through:


Ligation and stripping of the lymphatics of pedicle of affected kidneys
Lymphoveous anastamosis
Inversion and resection of tunica vaginalis
Fistulectomy

a.
b.
c.
d.

Nocturnal form of filariasis-causing microorganism is active during:


10 PM to 2 AM
8 PM to 12 PM
12 PM to 5 AM
7 PM to 10 AM

a.
b.
c.
d.

The medical term similar to schistosomiasis is :


Brokeback fever
Ague
Bilharziasis
Weils disease

a.
b.
c.
d.

The causative agent of the Schistosomiasis that have the strong affinity with the urinary system is:
S. haematobium
S. mansoni
S. japonicum
S. schistosomium

a.
b.
c.
d.

The intermediate host of schistosoma species is:


Oncomelania quadrasi
Aedes poecilus
Humans
Cattle

a.
b.
c.
d.

The infective stage of Schistosoma is:


Oncomelania
Cercariae
Trophozoite
Gametocytes

a.
b.
c.
d.

The drug of choice for schistosomiasis:


Hetrazan
Doxycycline
Chloroquine
Praziquantel

a.
b.
c.
d.

Alternative drug for S. mansoni is:


Hetrazan
Biltricide
Metrifonate
Oxamniquine

a.
b.
c.
d.

After exposure to water, the susceptible individual must:


Drink the medication that has been prescribed as prophylaxis
Apply 70% alcohol to exposed area of the body
Treat water with iodine, standing 48 to 72 hours before use
Use rubber boots

a.
b.
c.
d.

Leptospirosis is also known as, except:


Weils disease, mud fever
Trench fever, flood fever
Spiroketal jaundice, Japanese seven days fever
Swineherds disease, infectious jaundice

384.

385.

386.

387.

388.

389.

390.

391.

392.

393.

Which of the following characteristics does not refer to Leptospira species:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Species is divided into 19 serogroups and 200 serovar


Icterohemorrhagiae subspecies causes Weils disease and is most virulent
It is a slender spirochete with hooked ends
Attacks and have a strong affinity to liver and gall bladder

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following are the correct consecutive steps in the disease progression of leptospirosis?
Anicteric - septicemic and immune; icteric jaundice and hemorrhagic
Icteric septicemic and immune; anicteric jaundice and hemorrhagic
Anicteric - jaundice and hemorrhagic; icteric septicemic and immune
Anicteric septicemic and jaundice; icteric hemorrhagic and immune

a.
b.
c.
d.

The clinical phase where jaundice is an evident clinical manifestation of Leptospirosis:


Leptospiremic phase
Immune phase
Septicemic phase
Hemorrhagic phase

394.

395.

396.
The following are the test for leptospirosis and with its respective day of specimen collection. Which of
the following is incorrectly paired:
a. Blood after 7 to 10 days
b. Urine 7 days after
c. CSF during the 10th day
d. Feces 3rd day
397.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following is the primary carrier of Leptospira species?


Snails
Rats
Dog
Bats

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following preventive measures is the most effective against leptospirosis?
Use of rubber boots
Eradication of rats
Use of chemoprophylactic drugs
Water treatment

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following measure is the most effective method of preventing communicable diseases?
Information dissemination
Education provision
Communication
Hand washing

a.
b.
c.
d.

The following statement refers to the objective of EPI?


Reduce the morbidity among infants and children
To reduce the morbidity among children
Reduce the mortality among the children
Reduce the maternal mortality

398.

399.

400.