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ANATOMY

1800 Multiple Choice
Questions
M J T FitzGerald, M D , PhD, DSC
Professor and Chairman, Department of Anatomy, University College,
Galway, Ireland;
Formerly Associate Professor, Department of Biological Structure,
University of Washington School of Medicine, Seattle, USA

James P Golden,

MB

;

FRCSI

Chief of Surgery, County Hospital, Co. Donegal, Ireland

Maeve FitzGerald, MB, BCh, BSC
Senior Lecturer, Department of Anatomy, University College,
Galway, Ireland;
Formerly of the Department of Oral Biology, University of
Washington School of Dentistry and Department of Anatomy,
St Louis University School of Medicine, Missouri, USA

Butterworths
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Wellington

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First published 1973
Reprinted 1975
Reprinted 1977
Reprinted 1978
Reprinted 1981
Reprinted 1984
Revised Edition 1986
Reprinted 1990
© Butterworth & Co. (Publishers) Ltd, 1986
British Library Cataloguing in Publication Data
FitzGerald, M. J . T .
Anatomy : 1800 multiple choice questions.—Rev. ed.
1. Anatomy, Human—Problems, exercises, etc.
I. Title II. G o l d e n , James P. III. FitzGerald, Maeve
611'.0076
QM32
ISBN 0-407-00341-X

Library of Congress Cataloging in Publication Data
FitzGerald, M. J . T .
Anatomy : 1800 multiple choice questions.
1. Anatomy, Human—Examinations, questions, etc.
I. G o l d e n , James P. II. FitzGerald, Maeve
[ D N L M : 1. Anatomy—examination questions.
Q S 18 F554a]
QM32.F57

1986

611'.0076

85-26902

ISBN 0-407-00341-X
Composition by Genesis Typesetting, Borough Green, Sevenoaks, Kent
Printed and bound in Great Britain by Courier International Ltd, Tiptree, Essex

PREFACE
This book supersedes Anatomy: 1600 Multiple Choice
Questions, published by Butterworths in 1973. In addition to
being longer, it differs from that book in the following
respects: many of the Gross Anatomy questions have been
revised or substituted; the Histology section has been
substantially enlarged, and segregated from the Gross
Anatomy; Embryology has also been segregated;
Neuroanatomy has been updated; and an entirely new and
larger set of illustrations is provided.
MJTF
JPG
MF

INSTRUCTIONS FOR
STUDENTS
The various sections of the book should be used upon
completion of the corresponding parts of your Anatomy
course.
In assessing your own performance on a particular section you
7 two categories
should bear in mind that the questions fall into
for scoring purposes. In the 'group true-false type of question
you are required to judge whether each one of the five
statements provided is true or false. In grading these answers it
is common practice to award a mark for each correct decision,
and to deduct a mark for each wrong decision. The average
score obtained by chance alone will therefore be zero.
The remaining questions belong to the second category, in
which you are required to make a selection from a number of
answers provided. A score of 20-25 per cent is to be expected
on the basis of chance.
Note on Section VIII: Histology
In this Section, the questions in each of the six standard
formats are arranged in the same sequence, as follows: the
C e l l ; the Tissues (commencing with the Epithelia and ending
with Nervous Tissue); and the Systems (commencing with the
Cardiovascular and ending with the Reproductive). Having
studied a particular topic, the student should attempt the
relevant questions within each format.

Vein A B C D E which pierces the clavipectoral fascia: Basilic Lateral pectoral Internal thoracic Axillary Cephalic 1 . Muscle attached to the coracoid process of scapula: A Biceps B Triceps C Pectoralis major D Deltoid E Serratus anterior 3. The spine of the scapula is continued laterally as the: A Coracoid porcess B Angle of the scapula C Infraglenoid tubercle D Supraglenoid tubercle E Acromion 2.I UPPER LIMB Questions 1-39 For each of the following multiple choice questions select the one most appropriate answer: 1.

Branch of the axillary artery: A Suprascapular B Transverse cervical C Lateral thoracic D Nutrient artery to humerus E Internal thoracic 6. Origin from lateral cord of brachial plexus: A Axillary nerve B Ulnar nerve C Lateral cutaneous nerve of forearm D Musculocutaneous nerve E Suprascapular nerve 7. The humerus may be rotated laterally by: A Subscapulars B Supraspinatus C Pectoralis major D Deltoid E None of the above 8. The muscle pair responsible for abducting the humerus to a right angle: A Deltoid and subscapularis B Deltoid and supraspinatus C Supraspinatus and subscapularis D Teres major and subscapularis E Deltoid and teres major . The axillary vein: A Is lateral to the axillary artery B Is devoid of valves C Lies anterior to pectoralis minor D Is directly continuous with the brachiocephalic vein E None of the above 5.2 4.

The muscle pair which assists in elevating the arm above the head: A Trapezius and pectoralis minor B Levator scapulae and serratus anterior C Rhomboid major and serratus anterior D Rhomboid major and levator scapulae E Trapezius and serratus anterior 11. Muscle(s) supplied by the axillary nerve: A Latissimus dorsi B Deltoid C Infraspinatus D Teres major E All of the above 12. Nerve(s) supplying shoulder joint: A Radial B Lateral pectoral C Axillary D Suprascapular E All of the above . Abduction of the humerus is initiated by: A Supraspinatus B Infraspinatus C Deltoid D Pectoralis minor E Trapezius 10. The shoulder joint is weakest: A Above B Below C In front D Behind E Laterally 13.3 9.

Muscle inserted into medial lip of intertubercular sulcus: A Teres major B Teres minor C Pectoralis major D Pectoralis minor E Latissimus dorsi . The nerve trunk most intimately related to the capsule of the shoulder joint is: A Radial B Axillary C Median D Ulnar E Musculocutaneous 15. The following muscles belong to the 'rotator cuff group except: A Subscapularis B Deltoid C Supraspinatus D Infraspinatus E Teres minor 16.4 14. Muscles having an intracapsular tendon: A Long head of biceps B Short head of biceps C Coracobrachialis D Long head of triceps E None of the above 17. In contact with medial wall of axilla: A Medial root of median nerve B Medial cord of brachial plexus C Ulnar nerve D Medial pectoral nerve E Nerve to serratus anterior 18.

5 19. The apex of the cubital fossa is formed by: A Brachioradialis and pronator teres B Brachialis and pronator teres C Brachioradialis and biceps brachii D Biceps brachii and supinator E Brachioradialis and supinator 20. Usual level of bifurcation of the brachial artery: A Middle of arm B Just above the elbow C Level of intercondylar line D Level of elbow joint line E Neck of radius 22. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm is derived from the — nerve: A Musculocutaneous B Median C Ulnar D Radial E Axillary 21. Supplied by the ulnar nerve in the forearm: A Flexor carpi radialis B Flexor carpi ulnaris C Extensor carpi radialis D Extensor carpi ulnaris E Flexor pollicis longus . An important supinator muscle: A Biceps brachii B Brachialis C Triceps D Brachioradialis E Flexor carpi radialis 23.

Tendon directly medial to dorsal (Lister's) tubercle of radius: A Extensor pollicis brevis B Extensor pollicis longus C Extensor indicis D Extensor carpi radialis longus E Extensor carpi radialis brevis 25. Artery usually palpable in the floor of the 'anatomical snuff box': A Princeps pollicis B Radialis pollicis C Radialis indicis D Radial E Palmar branch of radial . The carpal bones articulating with the radius are: A Scaphoid and pisiform B Lunate and pisiform C Lunate and trapezium D Lunate and scaphoid E Scaphoid and capitate 27.6 24. The triangular fibrocartilage: A Is attached to styloid process of radius B Separates synovial cavities of radiocarpal and inferior radio-ulnar joint C Articulates with lunate bone when wrist is adducted D Is stationary during pronation and supination E Is commonly absent 28. Directly behind palmaris longus at the wrist: A Flexor carpi radialis B Flexor pollicis longus C Ulnar artery D Radial artery E Median nerve 26.

Carpal bones visible in radiograph of newborn: A None B Two C Four D Six E Eight 33. Abduction of the thumb carries it: A Forwards away from the palm B Backwards to the side of the palm C Towards the index finger D Laterally. Metacarpal bone with epiphysis at proximal end: A First B Second C Third D Fourth E Fifth 34.7 29. away from the index finger E In a direction intermediate between A and D . In the carpal tunnel: A Ulnar nerve B Median nerve C Radial nerve D Ulnar artery E Radial artery 32. Liable to dislocation in a heavy fall on the hand: A Scaphoid B Lunate C Triquetral D Pisiform E Hamate 30. Digital synovial sheath(s) in communication with ulnar bursa: A Index B Middle finger C Ring finger D Little finger E All the above 31.

The skin of the palm is supplied by: A Ulnar and median nerves B Radial and median nerves C Radial and ulnar nerves D Ulnar nerve alone E Radial nerve alone . the median nerve supplies: A Abductor pollicis brevis B Adductor pollicis C First palmar interosseous D Abductor pollicis longus E Extensor indicis 37.8 35. In the hand. Number of muscles inserted on index finger: A Three B Four C Five D Six E Seven 36. The innervation of the lumbrical muscles is related to the innervation of: A Flexor digitorum superficialis B Flexor digitorum profundus C Extensor digitorum D The interossei E The two flexor carpi muscles 38. The skin of the index finger is supplied by: A Ulnar and radial nerves B Radial and median nerves C Median and ulnar nerves D Median only E Radial only 39.

Deltoid Trapezius Both Neither Supinator of forearm Flexor of elbow Both Neither Biceps brachii Triceps brachii Pronator teres Brachialis Coracobrachialis A B C D 49. 52.9 Questions 40-61 The set of lettered headings below is followed by a list of numbered words or phrases. 51. 43. item item item item Biceps Brachialis Both Neither Origin from humerus Insertion into radius Blood supply from brachial artery Motor supply from median nerve . 42. For each numbered word or phrase select the correct answer under: A B C D If the If the If the If the A B C D 40. 47. is associated with A only is associated with B only is associated with both A and B is associated with neither A nor B Attached to spine of scapula Can elevate the shoulder Supplied by the axillary nerve Can retract the scapula A B C D 44. 50. 45. 48. 46. 41.

59. Subclavius .7 9 Directions: In the following series of questions. 58. Answer A if 1. 54. Pectoralis major 2. Anterior interosseous nerve Posterior interosseous nerve Both Neither Flexor of wrist Flexor of index finger Both Neither Flexor carpi radialis Flexor carpi ulnaris Flexor digitorum superficialis Flexor digitorum profundus Palmaris longus Questions 6 2 . 55. Muscles arising from the clavicle include: 1. Pierces supinator muscle Derived from ulnar nerve Sensory to wrist joint Extensive cutaneous distribution A B C D 57. 61. Trapezius 3. Deltoid 4. one or more of the four items is/are correct. 60. 56.10 A B C D 53. 2 and 3 are correct B if 1 and 3 are correct C if 2 and 4 are correct D if only 4 is correct and E if all four are correct 62.

Trapezius muscle 2. Is a flexor of the wrist 2. Humero-ulnar 2. Deltoid muscle 64. Division of the long thoracic nerve is manifested by: 1. Infraspinatus 4. Clavicle 4. Subscapular 66. Supraspinatus 3. Flexor carpi ulnaris 67. Inability to retract the scapula 2. Hinge joint(s): 1. Bursa(e) in communication with the shoulder joint synovial cavity: 1. Grooves the trapezoid bone . Wrist 68. 'Winging' of the scapula 65. Palmaris longus 3. Is supplied by the median nerve 4. The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the trunk via the: 1. Is an abductor of the wrist 3. Wasting of the pectoralis major muscle 3. The flexor carpi radialis muscle: 1. Weakness of humeral adduction 4. Flexor carpi radialis 2. Pronator teres 4. Origin from medial epicondyle of humerus: 1. Interphalangeal 4. Coracoclavicular ligaments 3. Subacromial 2. Metacarpophalangeal 3.11 63.

Scaphoid 2. Muscle(s) supplied by anterior interosseous nerve: 1. The lumbrical to the little finger 3. Flexor pollicis longus 3. The abductor pollicis brevis 4. Is cutaneous to the back of the hand 4. Inserts into distal end of radius 3.12 69. Acromioclavicular 4. Joint(s) containing intra-articular fibrocartilage: 1. Is supplied by the median nerve 70. Supplies the extensor digitorum muscle 71. Passes between the radius and ulna 2. Sternoclavicular 2. Trapezium 3. The first dorsal interosseous muscle 72. The ulnar nerve usually supplies: 1. Bony attachment(s) of the flexor retinaculum: 1. Hamate 4. Is a flexor of elbow joint 4. Pronator teres 74. The medial half of flexor digitorum superficialis 2. Pronator quadratus 4. Flexor digitorum profundus 2. Temporomandibular 3. Brachioradialis muscle: 1. Fi rst carpometacarpal 73. Arises from lateral supracondylar line 2. The posterior interosseous nerve: 1. Lies on the interosseous membrane throughout its course 3. Pisiform .

Superficial branch of radial artery 76. First lumbricai 77. Give(s) arterial contribution to deep palmar arch: 1. Articulates with the hamate bone: 1. Third palmar 4.13 75. Second dorsal 3. Extension of thumb is aided by: 1. Capitate 2. Muscles innervated by the median nerve include: 1. First dorsal interosseous 4. Deep branch of ulnar artery 4. Opponens pollicis 3. Interossei inserted into middle finger: 1. Fourth metacarpal 79. Triquetral 3. First lumbricai 2. Fifth metacarpal 4. Adductor pollicis 4. First palmar interosseous 3. Main ulnar artery 3. Third dorsal . Abductor pollicis longus 78. Second palmar 2. Palmaris brevis 2. Main radial artery 2.

81. 98. 91. Trapezius Deltoid Brachialis Supinator Flexor carpi ulnaris A Musculocutaneous nerve Accessory nerve Ulnar nerve Axillary nerve None of the above 95. 88. 93. 89. 94. 84. 97. Note: Each choice may be used only once. 87. E Flexion of humerus Lateral rotation of humerus Abduction of humerus Medial rotation of humerus None of the above 86. 82.14 Questions 80-104 The group of questions below consists of numbered headings. 85. 99. Coracobrachialis Supraspinatus Suscapularis Pectoralis minor Infraspinatus A B C D B C D E C D E Median nerve Musculocutaneous nerve Radial nerve Ulnar nerve Axillary nerve . For each heading select the one word or phrase which is most closely related to it. 96. followed by a list of lettered words or phrases. Flexion of the elbow Abduction of the shoulder Extension of the elbow Pronation of the forearm Abduction of index finger A B 80. 92. C o m m o n interosseous artery Profunda brachii artery Suprascapular artery Radialis indicis artery Lateral thoracic artery A B C D E Subclavian Axillary Brachial Ulnar None of the above 90. 83.

102. Pierces coracobrachialis The axillary artery: 115. 101. Begins at the upper border of the clavicle 116. Inserts into the axillary border of scapula 107. Terminates as it crosses the inferior border of pectoralis minor 117.15 100. Arises by digitations from the lower eight ribs 106. Has the radial nerve behind its distal third . Is accompanied by the profunda brachii artery 114. 103. Paralysis gives rise to the condition known as 'winged scapula' The axillary nerve: 110. Acts synergistically with trapezius in abduction of arm to 90 degrees 108. Is closely related to the shoulder joint 112. Flexion of wrist Extension of wrist Extension of fingers Adduction of wrist Abduction of wrist A B C D E Extensor digitorum and extensor digiti minimi Flexor carpi radialis and radial carpal extensors Flexor and extensor carpi ulnaris Radial and ulnar carpal extensors Flexor carpi radialis and flexor carpi ulnaris Questions 105-159 In reply to the following questions indicate whether you think each statement is True or False: The serratus anterior: 105. Is a branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus 111. 104. Is a purely motor nerve 113. Nerve supply from thoracodorsal nerve 109. Is contained in the axillary sheath 118. Has the median nerve anterior to its proximal third 119.

Short head arises from clavicle 128. Arises from the medial cord of the brachial plexus 136. Long head of triceps arises within joint 124. Arises directly from trunks of the brachial plexus 141. Innervates most of the dorsal skin of the hand 134. gives rise to the condition known as 'claw hand' . Enters the forearm through pronator quadratus 143. Tendon of long head is partially enclosed in synovial membrane 129. When injured. When injured. Head of humerus is entirely intracapsular The biceps brachii: 125. Supplies skin on medial side of arm and forearm 137. Passes behind medial epicondyle of humerus 138. Crosses the axillary artery from lateral to medial side 142. Arises from lateral cord of brachial plexus 131. Divides below the elbow into muscular and cutaneous components 133. Both supinates and pronates the forearm 127. could cause 'wrist drop' The ulnar nerve: 135. Bony surfaces permit considerable movement 121. Enters the hand by passing through carpal tunnel 144. thenar muscles waste The median nerve: 140.16 At the shoulder joint: 120. Subscapularis bursa communicates with synovial cavity 123. Supplies the interossei 139. Is supplied by the median nerve The radial nerve: 130. Supplies brachioradialis 132. Flexes both the shoulder and the elbow joints 126. Stability depends mainly on glenoidal labrum 122. When injured.

The radial nerve supplies no intrinsic muscles 158. Compression of nerve in tunnel causes sensory loss in index finger (palmar surface) 149. Is attached to the skin of the palm by fibrous septa 151. The ulnar nerve supplies adductor pollicis . Apex is attached to flexor retinaculum In the hand: 155. The first dorsal interosseous muscle abducts the index finger 156. Protects the underlying tendons 153. Contains the tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis 147. Abduction of the thumb takes place in a forward direction 157. Receives tendon of palmaris longus 154.17 The carpal tunnel: 145. The superficial palmar arch is superficial to the palmar aponeurosis 159. Contains portion of ulnar bursa The palmar aponeurosis: 150. Is attached distally to the fibrous flexor sheaths 152. Is a fibroosseous tunnel formed by carpal bones and palmar aponeurosis 146. Contains both the radial and ulnar arteries 148.

18 Shoulder region 160 165 164 Identify the numbered structures. long head Teres minor Teres major Triceps. from the choices given below: A B C D Axillary nerve Circumflex scapular artery Suprascapular artery Radial nerve E F G H Triceps. lateral head .

from the choices given below: A B C D E Median nerve Cephalic vein Brachial artery Brachialis Radial nerve F G H J K Brachioradialis Basilic vein Biceps brachii Triceps brachii Ulnar nerve .19 Section of arm 168 Identify the numbered structures.

from the choices given below: A B C D Flexor carpi radialis Ulnar nerve Median nerve Palmaris longus E F G H Flexor pollicis longus Lunate bone Scaphoid bone Flexor digitorum profundus .20 Section of wrist 178 Identify the numbered structures.

21 Tendons at wrist Identify the numbered structures. from the choices given below: A B C D Extensor carpi radialis brevis Extensor indicis Extensor pollicis longus Extensor digiti minimi E F G H Extensor carpi radialis longus Extensor digitorum Extensor carpi ulnaris Abductor pollicis longus .

42. 46. 28. 85. 19. 2. 58. 51. 10. 89. 79. 116. 72. 54. 119. 69. 60. 95. 81. 27. 61. 57. 14. 67. 97. 107. 108. 68. 102. 115. 39. 34. 66. B B D D E B A A C C A A E B C D E C 80. 71. 114. 43. 98. 22. 45. 104. 106. 4. 20. 37. 25. 70. 47. 100. 5. 73. F F F F T T T F F F F F T F T . 55. 29. 63. 113. 111. 15. 101. 26.22 Answers 1. 53. 38. 91. 110. 118. 117. 76. 3. 82. 88. 13. 94. 17. 11. 52. 75. 92. 36. A C D E B D C A E B B D A E C B E C A D E D A C B 105. C 41. 59. 99. 9. 50. 65. 18. E A E E C D D B A E B B E B B A E A A A E A B B E D B D B D B A A A E A B B A 40. 31. 24. 93. 49. 32. 16. 112. 74. 78. 12. 90. 109. 84. 56. 33. 44. 96. 77. 64. 87. 7. 86. 8. 83. B A B C D B B D B A C D B D C D A A C C A 62. 6. 35. 103. 23. 21. 48. 30.

140. 147. 162. 135. A H E D G B 180. 126. 146. 178. 137. 133. 127. 185. 167.157. 181. 121. 122. G D B C E H . 149. 148. 155. 170. 165. 179. 152. 124. 134. 145. 123. 158. 141. 128. 129. 169. 171. 130. 136. 125. 154. 172. 173. 176. 151. 139. C A E F H D 160. 131. 184. 153. 163. C A G K E F D B 174. F F T F T T T T T T T T T T F T 166. 164. 143. 182.23 120. 161. 132. 156. T F T F T T F F T F F T T T T T F T T F F F F T 144. 168. 175. 177. . 183. 142. 150. 138. 159.

The femoral triangle is bounded by: A Inguinal ligament. Immediately lateral to the lacunar ligament: A Femoral artery B Femoral vein C Femoral ring D Femoral nerve E Pectineus 24 . gracilis C Inguinal ligament. The quadriceps femoris muscle: A Extends the knee B Flexes the knee C Extends the hip D Rotates the knee E Abducts the knee 2. adductor longus. rectus femoris. sartorius B Inguinal ligament. pectineus. adductor longus.II LOWER LIMB Questions 1-40 For each of the following multiple choice questions select the one most appropriate answer: 1. sartorius D Inguinal ligament. sartorius E None of the above 3.

Artery in subsartorial canal: A Femoral B Obturator C Profunda femoris D Perforating branch of profunda femoris E Medial circumflex femoral 6. The orifice in adductor magnus muscle transmits: A Femoral vessels B Femoral nerve C Saphenous nerve D Tibial nerve E Sciatic nerve 7.25 4. The A B C D E 5. except: A Superior gluteal vessels B Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh C Piriformis muscle D Obturator internus E Inferior gluteal vessels femoral canal contains: The femoral nerve The femoral artery The femoral vein The ilioinguinal nerve Lymphatics . The greater sciatic foramen transmits the following structures. A tributary of the long saphenous vein: A Short saphenous B Sural C Superficial epigastric D Femoral E Popliteal 8.

The sciatic nerve supplies the following muscles except: A Biceps femoris: B Semitendinosus C Semimembranosus D Gluteus maximus E Adductor magnus 13. Muscle pair inserted into iliotibial tract: A Gluteus maximus and gluteus medius B Gluteus medius and gluteus minimus C Quadratus femoris and gluteus maximus D Tensor fasciae latae and quadratus femoris E Tensor fasciae latae and gluteus maximus 11. To avoid the sciatic nerve. except: A Gluteus maximus B Gluteus medius C Gluteus minimus D Piriformis E Obturator externus 10. an injection into the buttock is best given into: A Upper and outer quadrant B Upper and inner quadrant C Lower and inner quadrant D Lower and outer quadrant E The junction of the four quadrants 12. The following muscles are inserted into the greater trochanter of femur. In the hip joint the synovial membrane does not line the: A Inner surface of the capsule B Ligament of the head of the femur C Articular cartilages D Non-articular surface of the femur E Acetabular pad of fat .26 9.

27 14. Bony prominences on which you kneel: A Femoral condyles B Patellae C Tibial condyles D Intercondylar eminences of tibia E Tibial tuberosities 16. Flexion of the hip joint is carried out by: A Iliopsoas B Vastus intermedius C Semimembranosus D Gluteus maximus E Quadratus femoris 15. Muscle which flexes hip and knee: A Rectus femoris B Semitendinosus C Biceps femoris D Sartorius E Gracilis 17. The structure closest to the posterior ligament of the knee joint: A Popliteal artery B Popliteal vein C Tibial nerve D C o m m o n peroneal nerve E Sural nerve 18. The following bursa always communicates with the knee joint synovial cavity: A Suprapatellar B Prepatellar C Subcutaneous infrapatellar D Deep infrapatellar E Semimembranosus .

The superficial peroneal nerve supplies: A Peroneus longus and brevis B Peroneus tertius C Tibialis anterior D Extensor digitorum longus E Flexor digitorum longus 23. The cortex of the shaft of the tibia receives its main blood supply from: A Arteries in attached muscles B The collateral circulation at knee and ankle C The nutrient artery D The circulus vasculosus E None of the above 21. Articulates with head of talus: A Navicular B Medial cuneiform C Intermediate cuneiform D Cuboid E None of the above .28 19. The saphenous nerve: A Is a branch of the obturator B Gives a branch to the scrotum C Is closely related to the great saphenous vein in the upper thigh D Is cutaneous to the medial side of the foot E Is motor to adductor magnus 20. The epiphysis of the upper end of tibia receives the attachment of: A Ligamentum patellae B Fibular collateral ligament C Sartorius D Popliteus E Gracilis 22.

The following bones enter the medial longitudinal arch of the foot except: A Talus B Calcaneus C Navicular D Cuboid E The three cuneiform bones 25. Structure closest to the skin of the sole: A Flexor digitorum brevis B Quadratus plantae C Plantar aponeurosis D Long plantar ligament E Short plantar ligament 26. The talus provides origin for: A Extensor digitorum brevis B Quadratus plantae C Flexor hallucis longus D Flexor digitorum brevis E None of the above 28. 1 The medial plantar nerve: A Supplies cutaneous branches to 3 /2 toes B Supplies motor branches to the interossei C Supplies adductor hallucis D Is homologous with the ulnar nerve in the hand E Passes through the first intermetatarsal space .29 24. Sesamoid bones in the foot are found in: A Flexor hallucis longus B Flexor hallucis brevis C Flexor digitorum longus D Flexor digitorum brevis E Quadratus plantae 27.

Inversion of the foot is performed by. The medial longitudinal arch of the foot is supported by: A Tibialis anterior B Flexor hallucis longus C The 'spring' ligament D The plantar aponeurosis E All of the above 31. The ankle joint has greatest freedom of movement when: A It is plantar flexed B It is dorsi-flexed C The foot is inverted D The foot is everted E The forefoot is adducted . The plantar nerves and vessels lie between: A Plantar aponeurosis and the first muscle layer B First and second muscle layers C Second and third muscle layers D Third and fourth muscle layers E Plantar aponeurosis and skin 33. The 'keystone' of the medial longitudinal arch of the foot is: A Head of talus B Calcaneus C Navicular D Cuboid E First metatarsal base 30. The cuboid is grooved by the tendon of: A Peroneus longus B Peroneus brevis C Peroneus tertius D Tibialis posterior E Flexor hallucis longus 34.: A Peroneus longus and brevis B Peroneus longus and tibialis posterior C Tibialis anterior and tibialis posterior D Tibialis anterior and peroneus tertius E None of the above muscle pairs 32.30 29.

Number of tarsal bones articulating with the five metatarsals: A Two B Three C Four D Five E Seven 38.31 35. The earliest epiphyseal centre of ossification to appear in the lower limb is for the: A Lower end of femur B Upper end of tibia C Calcaneus D Patella E Head of fibula . The mid-tarsal joint: A Is between talus and calcaneus B Is between talus and navicular C Comprises the talonavicular and calcaneo-cuboid joints D Is a purely fibrous joint E Permits dorsi-flexion of the foot 39. The dorsalis pedis artery terminates by: A Dividing in the cleft between great and second toes B Joining the deep plantar arch C Forming a dorsal arterial arch D Dividing into medial and lateral plantar arteries E Supplying the ankle joint 37. The inverted posture of the newborn foot is due to: A Angulation of the neck of the talus B Ligamentous shortening at the subtalar joint C Contraction of tibialis anterior and posterior muscles D Torsion at the talonavicular joint E Late development of the Achilles tendon 36.

47. is associated with A only is associated with B only is associated with both A and B is associated with neither A nor B Acetabulum Head of femur Both Neither Articulating surface devoid of hyaline cartilage Ligament attached near centre Joint capsule attached to margin Centre of ossification appears in first postnatal year A B C D 45. For each numbered word or phrase select the correct answer as follows: A B C D If the If the If the If the A B C D 41. 48. 43. 44. 46. item item item item Vastus medialis Vastus lateralis Both Neither Partial origin from hip bone Partial origin from linea aspera Muscular down to the level of the patella Supplied only by femoral nerve .7 6 The set of lettered headings below is followed by a list of numbered words or phrases. 42.32 40. The following muscle of the hand has no homologue in the foot: A Abductor pollicis brevis B Adductor pollicis C Opponens pollicis D First dorsal interosseous E First lumbrical Questions 41 .

Long saphenous vein Short saphenous vein Both Neither Anterior to medial malleolus Related to saphenous nerve at the ankle Characterized by absence of valves Perforating branches to deep veins of leg A B C D 61. 56. 60. 62. 55.33 A B C D 49. 58. 52. 50. Sartorius Semimembranosus Gluteus maximus Adductor magnus A B C D 53. Femoral artery Femoral nerve Both Neither Found in the femoral sheath Medial to the femoral vein Found in the femoral triangle Normally palpable in the living A B C D 57. Extension of hip Flexion of knee Both Neither Gluteus maximus Gluteus medius Both Neither Active in abduction of hip Active in pelvic support when opposite limb is off the ground Stabilizing action on the knee joint Supplied by the superior gluteal nerve . 63. 54. 64. 51. 59.

71. 74. 72. Semitendinosus Biceps femoris Both Neither Medial plantar nerve Lateral plantar nerve Both Neither Derived from common peroneal nerve Cutaneous to sole of foot Motor to long flexor muscles Motor to extensor digitorum brevis Questions 7 7 . if 1. 70. 76. Tibia Fibula Both Neither Articulation with lateral femoral condyle Articulation with body of talus Origin of tibialis anterior Upper epiphysis appears before lower epiphysis A B C D 73. one or more of the four items is/are correct.34 A B C D 65.9 0 Directions: In the following series of questions. Origin exclusively from ischial tuberosity Insertion into head of fibula Medial rotator of flexed leg Supplied by obturator nerve A B C D 69. 68. 75. 66. 2 and 3 are correct Answer A if 1 and 3 are correct B if 2 and 4 are correct C if only 4 is correct D and if all four are correct E . 67.

Passes beneath the extensor retinacula of the ankle 4. Is supplied by superior gluteal nerve 80. Is sometimes absent 78. Is at the level of an epiphyseal plate 82. Inserts into the medial surface of the medial cuneiform bone 3. Is a lateral rotator of the flexed knee joint 81. Tibialis anterior: 1. Has an origin from the ischial tuberosity 2. Arises from the lateral surface of tibia 2. Is invested by a synovial sheath at the ankle . Conveys blood vessels to the head of femur 3. Inferior gluteal nerve 4. Gives origin to the popliteus 2. Sciatic nerve 2. Is invested by synovial membrane 4.35 77. Contracts when right foot bears body weight 3. Is attached to the margins of the acetabular notch 2. Inserts in lesser trochanter of femur 4. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh 79. The adductor tubercle: 1. Inserts into head of fibula 3. Gives attachment to the medial semilunar cartilage 4. Branch(es) of lumbar plexus: 1. The right gluteus medius muscle: 1. Is a flexor of the knee joint 4. The ligament of the head of the femur: 1. Receives the tendon of adductor magnus 3. The biceps femoris muscle: 1. Obturator nerve 3. Adducts the right femur 2.

The dorsalis pedis artery: 1. Paralysis of plantar flexion 86. Anaesthesia on dorsum of foot 4. Supplies the long head of biceps femoris 2. 2.36 83. Peroneus longus 87. Bones articulating with the navicular: 1. Compression of the common peroneal nerve at the neck of the fibula may produce: 1. Peroneus tertius 4. Is palpable between tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus tendons 3. Tibialis anterior 2. Talus 2. Passes between the first and second metatarsal bones 4. Supplied by deep peroneal nerve: 1. Tibialis posterior 3. Intermediate cuneiform 3. Calcaneus 88. Lateral cuneiform 4. Is a branch of the sciatic nerve 85. 4. Is the main blood supply to the sole of the foot gastrocnemius is: Portion of the triceps surae Supplied by the tibial nerve A flexor of the knee A plantar flexor of the ankle . 3. Paralysis of eversion 2. Passes between tibia and fibula 4. Forms the lateral plantar nerve 3. Is the continuation of the anterior tibial 2. Paralysis of ankle dorsiflexion 3. The 1. The common peroneal nerve: 1. 84.

96. Note: Each choice may be used only once. 93. 98. Sustentaculum tali 3. Femoral artery Popliteal artery Profunda femoris artery External iliac artery 95. Sesamoid bones are found in: 1. Peroneus brevis 3. followed by a list of lettered words or phrases. A 94. 102. Peroneus longus 2. Intertrochanteric line Ischial spine Ischial tuberosity Intertrochanteric crest Pubic tubercle A B C D E Sacrotuberous ligament Iliofemoral ligament Sacrospinous ligament Inguinal ligament None of the above 100.1 0 8 The group of questions below consists of numbered headings. 103. 101. The deltoid ligament is attached to the: 1. Medial malleolus 2. For each heading select the one word or phrase which is most closely related to it. Flexor hallucis brevis 4. Flexor hallucis longus Questions 91 .37 89. 'Spring' ligament 4. B C D Inferior epigastric artery Superficial epigastric artery Perforating arteries Paired genicular arteries nerves . 104. Adductor magnus Biceps femoris Gracilis Vastus intermedius Tensor fasciae latae A B C D E Femoral nerve Obturator nerve Sciatic nerve Superior gluteal nerve Two of the above 91. 99. Tubercle of the navicular 90. 92. 97.

The lesser sciatic foramen lies between the sacrotuberous and the sacrospinous ligaments 123. 106. ball-and-socket joint 110. Is usually unstable at birth because ossification in the head of the femur has not commenced 111. Gluteus medius muscle inserts into the lesser trochanter of the femur 121. The pudendal nerve leaves the buttock through the lesser sciatic foramen 122. The head of femur is mainly supplied by retinacular blood vessels In the gluteal region: 119. Iliopsoas is the principal flexor muscle 116. Femoral neck fractures within the capsule may deprive the femoral head of its main blood supply At the hip joint: 114.38 105. Depends on muscular factors for its stability in the adult 112. Synovial cavity may communicate with bursa behind iliopsoas 113. The hamstring muscles have an extensor function 118. The obturator nerve supplies the knee as well as the hip 117. 108. The superior gluteal nerve supplies gluteus minimus 120. 107. Peroneus longus Peroneus tertius Flexor hallucis longus Tibialis posterior A B C D Groove under sustentaculum tali Fifth metatarsal Navicular Groove under cuboid Questions 109-163 In reply to the following questions indicate whether you think each statement is True or False: The hip joint: 109. Is a synovial. A branch of the inferior gluteal artery contributes to the cruciate anastomosis . Ligamentum teres extends from pit on head to margins of acetabular notch 115.

Is formed entirely by sacral spinal nerves 135. Is attached to sacrotuberous ligament 126. Stabilizes flexed weight-bearing knee joint 128. Arise from ischial tuberosity 130. Passes midway between the greater trochanter and the ischial tuberosity 137. Insert into linea aspera 131. The cruciate ligaments prevent excessive movement of the tibia in an antero-posterior direction 143. Flexes the hip joint 125.39 Gluteus maximus: 124. Rotation is not permitted . Extend the hip joint during walking The sciatic nerve: 134. Terminates by dividing into superficial and deep peroneal nerves In the knee joint: 139. The lateral meniscus is not attached to the fibular collateral ligament 142. Consists of two components. The medial meniscus is attached to the tibial collateral ligament 141. Is supplied by the inferior gluteal nerve The hamstring muscles: 129. Synovial fluid can flow easily into the suprapatellar bursa 140. Rests on adductor magnus 138. Receive blood from the profunda femoris artery 132. which pass through the greater and lesser sciatic foramina respectively 136. Inserts entirely into gluteal ridge 127. Are innervated by the sciatic nerve 133.

from the choices given below: A B C D Femoral vein Femoral nerve Pectineus Adductor longus E F G H Femoral artery Iliopsoas Sartorius Femoral ring .40 Section of groin 147 148 Identify the numbered structures.

41 Gluteal region and thigh 149 150 151 -152 156 •153 -154 •155 Identify the numbered structures. from the choices given below: A B C D E Quadratus femoris Adductor magnus Biceps femoris Gluteus minimus Vastus lateralis F G H J K Piriformis Superior gluteal nerve Inferior gluteal nerve Sciatic nerve Semitendinosus .

from the choices given below: A B C D E Fibular collateral ligament Sartorius Ligamentum patellae Gracilis Tibial collateral ligament F G H J K lliotibial tract Popliteus Plantaris Posterior cruciate ligament Anterior cruciate ligament .42 Section of knee Identify the numbered structures.

from the choices given below: A B C D Peroneus longus Tibialis anterior Soleus Flexor digitorum longus E F G H Flexor hallucis longus Peroneus brevis Tibialis posterior Extensor hallucis longus .43 Section of left leg Identify the numbered structures.

75. 49. 69. 50. 103. 33. 87. 116. 81. 61. 8. 7. 30. 119. A D C E A A C D A E A D C A E D A A D C A A A D C B E A A E C B A A A B C C A C 41. 43. 107. 81. 76. 95. 98. 82. 60. 48. 105. 94. 12. 52.44 Answers 1. 32. 45. 3. 2. 108. 113. E D A B A B E B 91. 88. 54. 92. 112. 36. 15. 93. 101. 29. 24. 63. 72. 121. 6. 68. 79. 10. 53. 114. 17. 71. 19. D 42. 70. 21. 58. 13. 64. 74. 27. 25. 14. 51. 34. 84. 23. 62. 57. B A B D C A C B C A A A D C A A A D C B B A B A B A D A C A A D C D D 77. 99. 90. E C C E C E 83. 5. 16. 118. 18. 46. 115. 86. 110. 37. 31. 38. 35. 22. 85. 122. 104. 40. T T F T T T T T T T T F T T . 106. 59. 44. 97. 120. 67. 73. 65. 89. 20. 102. 96. 28. 100. 117. 47. 26. 66. 55. 11. B D C A B C A E D E C B A D D B A C 109. 4. 111. 9. 56. 39. 78.

132. 139. 146. 133. K 157. 162. 160. 159. 155. H E B F C 149. 134. 161. 170. T 143. 147. 168. 137. F 158. 150. T 142. 125. F 144. 151. 167. 124. 140. 127. 130. B G C E A . 145. 128. 154. 165. 153. C A G H D B E K 166. 126. 148. 138.45 123. 152. 163. T F T F T T T F T T T F F T T F T T 141. 169. 129. 131. 135. 164. G D A B J E C 156. 136.

The A B C D E 2.Ill THORAX Questions 1-16 For each of the following multiple choice questions select the most appropriate answer: 1. The sternal angle is at the level of the lower border of vertebra: A T1 B T2 C T3 D T4 E T5 3. The number of pairs of costal cartilages usually attached the sternum: A Six B Seven C Eight D Nine E Ten sternum: Is composed of four parts Gives origin to pectoralis minor Articulates with the upper ten costal cartilages Contains red marrow at its upper end only Makes a synovial joint with the clavicle 46 .

47 4. The intercostal nerves and vessels course between: A Skin and deep fascia B Deep fascia and external intercostals C External and internal intercostals D Internal and innermost intercostals E Innermost intercostals and endothoracic fascia 6. The brachiocephalic trunk divides into two arteries: A Right and left common carotid B Right common carotid and right subclavian C Left common carotid and left subclavian D Right and left subclavian E Right and left coronary most superficial structure in the superior mediastinum: Thymus Arch of aorta Left brachiocephalic vein Brachiocephalic trunk Vagus nerve . The A B C D E 8. The aortic arch lies behind: A Manubrium sterni B Sternal angle C Body of sternum D Second right costal cartilage E Second left costal cartilage 7. The following ribs are typical except ihe: A First B Third C Fifth D Seventh E Ninth 5.

48 9. The number of broncho-pulmonary segments in the middle lobe of the right lung is: A One B Two C Three D Four E From two to four 11. The number of pulmonary veins entering the left atrium is normally: A One B Two C Four D Six E Eight 13. The azygos vein: A Carries blood from the oesophagus B Arches directly over the inferior lobe bronchus C Passes between the vagus and the trachea D Joins the superior vena cava behind the first costal cartilage E None of the above 10. Number of broncho-pulmonary segments in the right lower lobe of lung: A One B Three C Five D Seven E Nine 12. The bundle of His usually receives its blood supply from the: A Right coronary artery B Interventricular branch of the left coronary artery C Right marginal artery D Left marginal artery E Left coronary trunk directly .

At the level of the sternal angle: A Bifurcation of the pulmonary artery B Upper border of left atrium C Bifurcation of the trachea D Aortic valve E Formation of superior vena cava Questions 17-35 The set of lettered headings below is followed by a list of numbered words or phrases. The following surface landmark is a guide to the g a s t r oesophageal orifice: A Seventh left costal cartilage B Left linea semilunaris C Tip of the ninth left costal cartilage D Xiphisternal joint E Left nipple 15. Anterior to oesophagus: A Left atrium B Left bronchus C Trachea D Lymph nodes E All of the above 16.49 14. For each numbered word or phrase select the correct answer under: A B C D If If If If the the the the item item item item is associated with A only is associated with B only is associated with both A and B is associated with neither A nor B .

Sinuatrial node Atrioventricular node Both Neither Composed of muscle fibres Close to superior vena caval opening into right atrium Initiates the heart beat Receive(s) postganglionic fibres from the vagus Give(s) rise to Purkinje fibres A B C D 31. 35. 25. 23. 27. 34. 30. 24. 18. 29. 28. 33. 20. Attached by ligaments to chest wall A n oblique fissure is present Impressed by azygos vein Four broncho-pulmonary segments present in the upper lobe Related to lower thoracic oesophagus A B C D 22. 19. Right ventricle Left ventricle Both Neither Form(s) part of diaphragmatic surface of heart Contain(s) the atrioventricular node in its wall Frequently contains the septomarginal trabecula Mitral valve guards its atrioventricular opening A B C D 26.50 A B C D 17. 21. Right lung Left lung Both Neither Left coronary artery Right coronary artery Both Neither Origin from pulmonary artery Main source of blood supply to bundle of His Main blood supply to left ventricle Innervated by the vagus Origin from an aortic sinus . 32.

4 5 Directions: In the following series of questions. Twelfth rib 3. Xiphisternal 39. Body of twelfth thoracic vertebra 38. The lower aperture of the thorax is formed by the: 1. Lower costal cartilages 2. External oblique 3. Trachea 2. Latissimus dorsi 40. Intercostal 3. 2 and 3 are correct B if 1 and 3 are correct C if 2 and 4 are correct D if only 4 is correct and E if all four are correct 36. Circumflex humeral 2. Answer A if 1. Phrenic nerves 4. Lungs 3. one or more of the four items is/are correct. Diaphragm . Among the contents of the mediastinum: 1. Sternomastoid 2. Pectoralis major 4. Internal thoracic 37. Sternochondral 4. Manubriosternal 3. The mammary gland receives arterial supply from the: 1.51 Questions 3 6 . Sternoclavicular 2. Synovial joint(s): 1. Accessory muscle(s) of inspiration: 1. Subclavian 4. Xyphoid process 4.

Oesophagus 4. the right is: 1. Pleura 4. Left half of the body above the diaphragm 4. Arch of aorta 2. Inferior vena cava 44. Aorta 2. Left bronchus 3. Spleen 2. The thoracic duct returns lymph from all areas of the body except: 1. Lung 3. Azygosvein 3. Central tendon of diaphragm is pierced by: 1. The following may impress the oesophagus during passage of barium swallow: 1. Left atrium 4. Shorter 2. Right half of the body above the diaphragm 45. More vertical 4. Of the two bronchi. Left half of the body below the diaphragm 2. Left ventricle 42. A three-inch stab wound passing radially through the left ninth intercostal space will pierce the: 1. Wider 3. Kidney . Right half of the body below the diaphragm 3.52 41. In contact with the oesophagus 43.

The phrenic nerves descend posteriorly The breast: 51. Receive inferior thyroid veins 63. 4. The right vein marks the right lung . Possess valves which prevent reverse blood flow during changes of intrathoracic pressure 62. Frequently extends a 'tail' into the axilla 54. In the infant. 59.9 4 In reply to the following questions indicate whether you think each statement is True or False: At the lung root: 46. 5 Supply the skin over the deltoid muscles Enter the thorax by crossing the necks of the first ribs Give sensory branches to the mediastinal and diaphragmatic pleura 60. 57. 58. the left vein may encroach above the suprasternal notch 65. Accessory nipples may appear on the abdominal skin The 56. Lymphatics drain entirely into the axilla 53. The hilar (bronchopulmonary) lymph nodes drain the entire lung 48. The left bronchus enters the lung before dividing 47. The bronchial arteries end in this region 49. phrenic nerves: Arise from the cervical plexus roots 3. Are the only motor nerves to the diaphragm The brachiocephalic veins: 61. Is connected to skin and deep fascia by fibrous bands 52. O n e pulmonary vein emerges from each lung 50.53 Questions 4 6 . Left nipple is usually a little lower than right nipple 55. Lie in front of thymus when this is fully developed 64.

Receives the azygos vein 83. Is lodged in a groove in the upper lobe of the right lung 84. Parasympathetic ganglia are embedded in the atria 74. Contributes to both the cardiac and pulmonary plexuses 68. The septomarginal trabecula contains vagal nerve fibres The right lung: 76. The coronary sinus occupies the atrioventricular groove 75. Commences by the union of right internal jugular and subclavian veins 82. Is in direct contact with the aortic arch 69.54 The left vagus nerve: 66. The bronchus to the apical segment of the lower lobe is the first posterior branch of the bronchial tree 78. The left coronary artery divides into anterior interventricular and circumflex branches 72. Is accompanied by the vagus nerve . Injury in the region of the aortic arch may cause hoarseness 70. Expansion is brought about by muscles in the bronchial tree 79. Makes up part of the cranial parasympathetic outflow 67. Lies behind the ascending aorta 81. Auscultation of the middle lobe is best carried out immediately inferior to the scapula 77. The great cardiac vein accompanies the posterior interventricular artery 73. Enters the abdomen as the left gastric nerve In the walls of the heart: 71. Quiet expiration is a passive movement caused by elastic recoil of the lungs The superior vena cava: 80.

The layer on the surface of the heart is part of the epicardium 89. Has a bicuspid valve between it and the left ventricle 94.55 The pericardium of the heart: 85. Contains oxygenated blood in adult but not in fetal life 93. Is the most posterior heart chamber . Visceral and parietal layers meet around the great vessels The left atrium of the heart: 90. The fibrous pericardium is attached to the inferior aspect of the right ventricle 87. Forms the anterior wall of the transverse sinus of the pericardium 92. Attachment to central tendon of diaphragm causes the heart to descend on inspiration 88. Receives one pulmonary vein on each side 91. Is composed of outer serous and Inner fibrous layers 86.

56 Right lung Identify the numbered structures. from the choices given below: A B C D E Trachea Diaphragm Right atrium Azygosvein Eparterial bronchus F G H J K Inferior vena cava Pulmonary ligament Pulmonary trunk Anterior pulmonary vein Superior vena cava .

57 Mediastinum Identify the numbered structures. from the choices given below: A B C D Phrenic nerve Aortic arch Vagus nerve Thoracic duct E F G H Greater splanchnic nerve Oesophagus Recurrent laryngeal nerve Anterior pulmonary vein .

from the choices given below: A B C D Oesophageal plexus Thoracic duct Recurrent laryngeal nerve Azygosvein E F G H Sympathetic chain Phrenic nerve Greater splanchnic nerve Aorta .58 Section of thorax Identify the numbered structures.

48. 69. 58. 80. 9. 50. 71. 18. 40. 97. 91. 35. 100. 22. 52. 2. 8. 78. 106. 105. 12. 32. 13. 54. E D B A D A A B A B C C A A E C 17. 92. 90. 30. 75. D C A D B C D A B C A A C B D B A D C 36. 56. 98. 26. 43. 111. 94. 57. 81. 42. 55. 59. 67. 27. 107. 37. 60. 96. 70. 102. 23. 20. 62. 4. 88. 15. F A D E C B H . T T F F F T F T T T T F F T T F T F T T T T T T F T F T T F F T F 79. 51. 74. 28. C E B 39. 45. 24. 93. 21. 53. 110. 14. T F F T T F F F T T T F F F T T 95. 61. 86. 16. 19. 33. D E A H C F 109. 77. 115. 76. 38. 64. 31. 85. 49. 47. 101. 34. 83. 114. 87. 6. 99. 7. 10. 104. 25. 68. A E D G F C J K 103.59 Answers 1. 84. 108. 113. 89. 5. 65. 112. B B A A D D A 46. 41. 29. 73. 11. 63. 3. 72. 82. 66. 44.

The internal spermatic fascia is derived from the: A External oblique B Internal oblique C Transversus abdominis D Transversalis fascia E Peritoneum 60 . together with both the parietal and visceral layers of the peritoneum 3. Enclosed within the sheath of the rectus abdominis muscle: A External oblique aponeurosis B Lineaalba C Linea semilunaris D Transversalis fascia E None of the above 2. together with the subjacent parietal peritoneum E All of the above structures. The lower six intercostal nerves supply: A Intercostal muscles only B intercostal and abdominal muscles C Intercostal and abdominal muscles and overlying skin D All of the above structures.IV ABDOMEN Questions 1-22 For each of the following multiple choice questions select the one most appropriate answer: 1.

Immediately anterior to the conjoint tendon: A Internal oblique B Transversus abdominis C Superficial inguinal ring D Transversalis fascia E None of the above 7. The most common position of the vermiform appendix is: A Retrocaecal B Retrocolic C Retroileal D Pelvic E Subcaecal 9.61 4. Anterior to the deep inguinal ring: A Internal oblique B Transversus abdominis C Conjoint tendon D Two of the above E None of the above 5. The mesentery of the appendix has an attachment to the: A Caecum B Ascending colon C Ileum D Mesentery of ileum E Posterior abdominal wall . Immediately medial to the deep inguinal ring: A Femoral artery B Lineaalba C Spermatic cord D The inguinal (Hesselbach's) triangle E Inferior epigastric artery 6. Nerve passing through the superficial inguinal ring: A Iliohypogastric B Ilioinguinal C Lateral cutaneous of thigh D Femoral E Perineal 8.

Upper boundary of the hepatorenal (right subhepatic) pouch: A Duodenum B Right kidney C Diaphragm D Lower layer of coronary ligament E Upper layer of coronary ligament 11.62 10. A branch of the hepatic artery: A Cystic B Left gastric C Splenic D Gastrohepatic E Oesophageal 15. A branch of the inferior mesenteric artery: A Right colic B Left colic C Middle colic D Left gastroepiploic E Splenic . Vertebral level of bifurcation of abdominal aorta: A L2 B L3 C L4 D L5 E S1 14. Vertebral level of origin of renal arteries: A T12 B L1 C L2 D L3 E L4 13. The anterior limit of the normal spleen is represented by the: A Posterior axillary line B Midaxillary line C Anterior axillary line D Mid-clavicular line E Linea semilunaris 12.

The superior mesenteric vessels: A Are the vessels of the primitive foregut B Cross the third portion of duodenum C Artery arises from aorta at L3 level D Vein drains into the inferior vena cava E All of the above .63 16. except: A Hepatic artery B Hepatic veins C C o m m o n bile duct D Lymphatics E Vagal nerve fibres 20. The greater omentum is attached to: A Liver and stomach B Stomach and jejunum C Jejunum and colon D Stomach and colon E Liver and colon 19. The left renal vein: A Is crossed anteriorly by the superior mesenteric artery B Lies behind the left renal artery C Joins the portal vein behind the pancreas D Receives the inferior mesenteric vein E None of the above 18. Directly behind the duodenum: A Hepatic artery B Gastroduodenal artery C Right gastric artery D Superior mesenteric vein E Inferior mesenteric vein 17. The following structures are found within the lesser omentum.

64 21.4 5 The set of lettered headings below is followed by a list of numbered words or phrases. 24. For each numbered word or phrase select the correct answer under: A B C D If If If If A B C D 23. Behind the kidney: A Quadratus lumborum B Twelfth rib C Subcostal nerve D Diaphragm E All of the above Questions 2 3 . 26. The normal number of segments in the kidney is: A Three B Five C Seven D Ten E Twenty 22. 25. the the the the item item item item is associated with A only is associated with B only is associated with both A and B is associated with neither A nor B Duodenum Jejunum Both Neither Site of Meckel's diverticulum Has a mesentery throughout entire length Arterial supply entirely from superior mesenteric Venous drainage to portal venous system .

38. Caecum Appendix Both Neither Taeniae coli present A mesentery is present Blood supply from superior mesenteric artery Venous drainage to inferior vena cava Unique to man A B C D 36. 35. Jejunum Ileum Both Neither Stomach Spleen Both Neither Supplied by branches of splenic artery Gives attachment to gastrosplenic ligament O n e surface is coated by peritoneum of lesser sac Venous blood drains into portal venous system In contact with left kidney . 42. 30. 29. 40. Myenteric (Auerbach's) plexus is lodged between muscle layers Blood supply from superior mesenteric artery Mesentery devoid of arterial arcades Appendices epiploicae are a gross feature A B C D 31. 44. 39. 43. 33.65 A B C D 27. 37. Liver Spleen Both Neither Attached to the diaphragm by peritoneal reflections Venous drainage to inferior vena cava Part of stomach bed Arterial supply via coeliac artery Invested by peritoneum of greater sac A B C D 41. 45. 32. 34. 28.

66 Questions 4 6 . The 1. Branch(eS) of splenic artery: 1. Lesser omentum 2. Marked in its upper half by tendinous intersections 3. one or more of the four items is/are correct. Surrounded by the rectus sheath throughout its length 4. Quadrate lobe of liver 48. 50. Short gastric portal vein receives blood from the: Stomach Liver Caecum Kidneys . Bile duct 4. 2 and 3 are correct B if 1 and 3 are correct C if 2 and 4 are correct D if only 4 is correct and E if all four are correct 46. Inferior vena cava 3. Lymphatic duct 49. The portal triad contains the: 1. 4. 2. Portal vein 2. Right gastro-epiploic 4. Attached to the ninth and tenth ribs 2. Duodenum 4. A flexor of the vertebral column 47. Hepatic artery 3. The rectus abdominis is: 1. Answer A if 1. 3. Left gastric 2. The epiploic foramen is bounded by the: 1.5 6 Directions: In the following series of questions. Right gastric 3.

Liver 4. Plicae circulares 52. Psoas major 2. Characteristic of large intestine: 1. Colon 55. Haustracoli 4. Quadratus lumborum 54. Relations of the right kidney include: 1. Duodenum 2. Appendices epiploicae 3. Transverse 3. Pancreas 4. Belong(s) to the stomach bed: 1. Colon 3. Left kidney . Stomach 2. Posterior relation(s) of the right kidney: 1. Pancreas 3. Part(s) of colon having a mesentery: 1. Ascending 2. Transversus abdominis 56. The spleen makes contact with: 1. Diaphragm 4. Right kidney 4. Descending 4. Jejunum 2. Sigmoid 53.67 51. Quadratus lumborum 3. Taeniae coli 2. Left kidney 3.

followed by a list of lettered words or phrases.68 Questions 57-71 The group of questions below consists of numbered headings. Skin lymphatics above umbilicus drain to axillary nodes 75. 58. 70. Is innervated mainly by lumbar nerves 74. Note: Each choice may be used only once. 64. C D E Tunica vaginalis External spermatic fascia Internal spermatic fascia Cremaster None of the above Questions 72-106 In reply to the following questions indicate whether you think each statement is True or False: The anterior abdominal wall: 72. 67. 60. 69. External oblique Internal oblique Rectus abdominis Transversalis fascia Peritoneum A B 62. 68. Body of gall bladder Hilum of spleen Hepatic flexure of colon Quadrate lobe of liver Caudate lobe of liver A B C D E Tail of pancreas Second part of duodenum First part of duodenum Right kidney None of the above Left gastric vein Inferior mesenteric vein Inferior epigastric vein Left testicular vein Right ovarian vein A B C D E Inferior vena cava Renal vein Portal vein Splenic vein External iliac vein 65. 57. For each heading select the one word or phrase which is most closely related to it. 71. 66. 59. Muscles contract during coughing 73. 63. Veins below umbilicus drain mainly into the portal system 76. Inferior attachment of membranous (Scarpa's) fascia is to the inguinal ligament . 61.

Is more oblique in the adult than in the newborn 80. Is a highly vascular organ 88. Invariably occupies the right iliac fossa after birth . Runs in the lesser omentum with a branch of the coeliac artery 85. Contains liquid faeces and gas 99. Cannot be palpated in the infant The duodenum: 92. Carries venous blood from the spleen 84. Is directly related to the right kidney 94. Occupies right upper abdomen in fetal life 101. Contains the spermatic cord in the male but only fat in the female 78. Normally contains a peritoneal diverticulum in adults 79. Is absent in the male if the testis is undescended The portal vein: 82. Lies posterior to the superior mesenteric vessels 96. Is retroperitoneal in its entire length 93. Lies anterior to the common bile duct 95.69 The inguinal canal: 77. Is related to both the greater and lesser sacs of peritoneum 89. Has well-developed taeniae coli 100. Obstruction may be manifested by dilated paraumbilical veins The spleen: 87. Notches the bare area of the liver 86. Its superficial ring is protected by the pyramidalis muscle 81. Is an important site of portosystemic venous anastomosis The caecum: 97. Is formed by union of superior and inferior mesenteric veins 83. In the adult is normally palpable below the left rib margin 91. Is non-distensible because of its relatively rigid wall 98. Normally lies in the axis of the left tenth rib 90.

Is related to many lymph nodes 106. Bifurcates at the level of the fifth lumbar vertebra . Is crossed superficially by the left renal vein 105.70 The abdominal aorta: 102. Enters the abdomen behind the medial arcuate ligament 103. Normally gives origin directly to the splenic artery 104.

from the choices given below: A B C D E Duodenum Suprarenal gland Oesophagus C o m m o n iliac artery C o m m o n iliac vein F G H J K Splenic flexure of colon Portal vein Quadratus lumborum Superior mesenteric vein Hepatic flexure of colon .71 Posterior abdominal structures Identify the numbered structures.

72 Nerves on posterior abdominal wall Identify the numbered structures. from the choices given below: A B C Gentiofemoral Lumbosacral trunk Ilioinguinal D E F Obturator Lateral femoral cutaneous Femoral .

C E A F D . 63. 76. 39. 112. 99. 13. 74. 26. 70. 21. 4. 14. 109. 32. 28. 111. 24. 17. 30. 110. 62. 55. 116. 16. 113. 36. 61. 35. 69. 31. 44. E D D A E C B A D D B C C A B B A D B B B E 23. 82. C A C B 46. 94. 86. 106. 91. 87. 118. 84. 75. 58. 9. 15. 64. 89. 85. 56. 19. 105. 93. 104. 10. 92. 71. 12. F F F T T F T T T T F F F T T T F F T T F F F F T T F 107. 40. 79. 60. 68. 45. 3. 8. 100. 38. 117. 77. B D E C A B A D C E C D E B A 72. 43. 90. 25. 65. 101. 54. 2. 52. 83. T F T F F F F F 80. 27. 96. 5. 97. 41. 115. 66. 88. C A A B D A C E E E C 57. 7. 33. 18. D B B C C C D D A B C D D A A B C C C 42. 20. C B H E J K A 114. 53. 98. 34. 67. 6. 51. 59. 108. 29. 22. 11. 102. 37. 95. 49.73 Answers 1. 73. 47. 78. 48. 50. 103. 81.

The A B C D E 2. The ductus (vas) deferens is connected to the prostatic urethra by: A The prostatic utricle B Gartner's duct C The ejaculatory duct D Theurachus E None of the above prostate: Is the size of an orange Surrounds the membranous urethra Is pierced by the ductus (vas) deferens Has no function in man None of the above 74 .V PELVIS AND PERINEUM Questions 1-15 For each of the following multiple choice questions select the one most appropriate answer: 1. The middle lobe of prostate is the part between: A Rectum and prostatic urethra B Ejaculatory ducts and rectum C Ejaculatory ducts and prostatic urethra D Pubis and prostatic urethra E Pubis and rectum 3.

The internal os of the uterus marks the junction of: A Uterine tube and peritoneal cavity B Uterine tube and fundus of uterus C Fundus and body of uterus D Body and cervix of uterus E Cervix and vagina 7. The uterine artery: A Usually arises from the internal iliac artery B Anastomoses with the ovarian artery C Crosses the ureter above the lateral vaginal fornix D Gives branches to the vagina E All of the above 6. The following structures occupy the male superficial perineal pouch. The lateral fornix of the vagina is most closely related to the: A Urethra B Ureter C Middle rectal artery D Uterine artery E Round ligament of uterus 8. The anal valves are at the level of the: A Anorectal junction B Anal margin C White line of Hilton D Rectal ampulla E Pectinate line 5. except: A Corpora cavernosa B Corpus spongiosum C Posterior scrotal nerves and vessels D Bulbo-urethral glands E Bulb of penis .75 4.

Location of sphincter urethrae: A Superficial perineal pouch B Deep perineal pouch C Ischiorectal fossa D Above the prostate gland E None of the above 12. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes receive lymph from: A Anal canal B Vagina C Lower abdominal wall D Rectum E All of the above 14. The internal iliac lymph nodes receive lymph from: A Body of uterus B Cervix of uterus C Prostate D Rectum E All of the above 13. Nodes receiving lymph from the testis: A External iliac B Internal iliac C Superficial inguinal D Presacral E Para-aortic .76 The inferior rectal nerve supplies: A External anal sphincter B Internal anal sphincter C Rectal mucous membrane D Levator ani muscle E Muscle of rectal ampulla 10. The ischiorectal fossa is bounded directly by: A The rectum and ischium B Obturator internus fascia and rectum C Levator ani and obturator internus fascia D Ischium and sacrum E None of the above 11.

Composed of smooth muscle: A Bulbospongiosus B Levatorani C Sphincter urethrae D External anal sphincter E Internal anal sphincter Questions 16-40 The set of lettered headings below is followed by a list of numbered words or phrases. 23. 18. the the the the Related behind to rectum Related in front to bladder Both Neither Vagina Seminal vesicle Pouch of Douglas Prostate Cervix uteri .77 15. 20. 19. 25. For each numbered word or phrase select the correct answer under: A B C D If If If If A B C D 16. 24. item item item item is associated with A only is associated with B only is associated with both A and B is associated with neither A nor B Prostate Bladder Both Neither Lymph drainage to internal inguinal lymph nodes Blood supply from inferior vesical artery Pierced by ejaculatory ducts Related to pelvic peritoneum Contains the utricle A B C D 21. 17. 22.

35. 30. Answer A if 1. 39. 40. 28. 34. Levatorani Sphincter ani externus Both Neither Uterus Ovary Both Neither Lymph drainage to lumbar para-aortic nodes Lymph drainage to internal iliac nodes Venous drainage to internal iliac vein Corpus luteum Endometrium Questions 4 1 . Composed of striated muscle Contains puborectalis Partial origin from ischium Motor supply from autonomic system Attached to perineal body A B C D 31. Passes through Passes through Passes through Passes through greater sciatic notch lesser sciatic notch both neither Obturator externus Obturator internus Pudendal nerve Sciatic nerve Piriformis A B C D 36.78 A B C D 26. 38. one or more of the four items is/are correct. 2 and 3 are correct B if 1 and 3 are correct C if 2 and 4 are correct D if only 4 is correct and E if all four are correct . 29.4 6 Directions: In the following series of questions. 32. 27. 37. 33.

Anorectal junction 44. Prostate 3. Male accessory sex gland(s): 1. 43. Stimulation of the pelvic splanchnic nerves will: 1. Preganglionic parasympathetic 2. Contract sphincter urethrae 46. Main 1. Seminal vesicles 2. The superior hypogastric plexus (presacral nerve) contains the following nerve fibres: 1. Contract levator ani 3. Visceral afferent 45. Rectosigmoid junction 2. Cervix uteri 4.79 41. Empty the bladder 2. Testis 42. Greater anteroposterior diameter 3. Greater transverse diameter 2. 3. Wider subpubic angle source(s) of arterial supply to rectum: Inferior rectal Middle rectal External iliac Superior rectal . Cause erection of the penis 4. Postganglionic parasympathetic 4. Preganglionic sympathetic 3. Prostatic plexus 3. Shallower pelvic cavity 4. The female pelvis differs from the male pelvis in the following: 1. 2. 4. Bulbo-urethral 4. Site(s) of porto-systemic anastomosis: 1.

65. 55. . Is surrounded by a plexus of veins 59. 53. 54. Usually has a posterior median groove 61. Anal canal Body of uterus Testis Bladder Vagina A B 52. 47. 49. 64. Is palpable on rectal examination The 62. 63. followed by a list of lettered words or phrases.80 Questions 4 7 . 66. bladder: Is an abdominal organ in the infant Has peritoneum on its anterior surface when full Has an entirely smooth-walled interior Its muscular walls are pierced obliquely by the ureters The urachus is a 'safety valve' allowing overflow when the urethra is obstructed. Note: Each choice may be used more than once. 48. 51. For each heading select the one word or phrase which is most closely related to it. Ischial tuberosity Ischial spine Body of pubis Conjoint ramus Pubic tubercle A C D E B C D E Internal iliac nodes Superficial inguinal nodes Para-aortic nodes Deep inguinal nodes None of the above Sacrotuberous ligament Sacrospinous ligament Pubovesical ligament Perineal membrane Inguinal ligament Questions 57-91 In reply to the following questions indicate whether you think each statement is True or False: The prostate gland: 57. Has a stony hard consistency 60. Is situated in the perineum immediately below levator ani 58. 56.5 6 The group of questions below consists of numbered headings. 50.

pudendal nerve: Arises from 2nd. Is separated from the prostate by peritoneum 79.81 The ovaries: 67. Is a constituent of the spermatic cord 89. Anterior wall is in contact with bladder and urethra 74. into its orifice The anal canal: 77. Surrounds the internal os of the uterus 73. Is a boundary of the inguinal triangle 91. Posterior fornix is directly related to the recto-uterine pouch 75. Is surrounded by a voluntary sphincter The 82. Portion of levator ani forms a sling around its upper part 76. 86. Are attached to the broad ligaments by means of the ovarian ligaments The vagina: 72. Lie in the angle between the internal and external iliac arteries 69. each by a single duct. Is highly sensitive in its lower half 80. The vestibular glands (of Bartholin) open. Commences in the head of the epididymis 88. Terminates in the membranous urethra . C a n be palpated on clinical examination 90. Lymph drains to superficial inguinal nodes 81. 85. Receive their blood supply from the internal iliac arteries 70. 84. 3rd and 4th sacral nerves Crosses the sacrospinous ligament Passes through the centre of the ischiorectal fossa Gives origin to the inferior rectal nerve Is sensory to the labia majora The ductus (vas) deferens: 87. Are normally palpable on abdominal examination 71. Are attached to the posterior leaf of the broad ligament of the uterus 68. 83. Differs structurally in male and female 78.

from the choices given below: A B C D E Obturator membrane Prostatic venous plexus Crus of penis Membranous urethra Retropubic space F G H J K Bulbospongiosus Bulbourethral gland Obturator internus Levatorani Ischiorectal fossa. anterior recess .82 Section of male pelvis Identify the numbered structures.

from the choices given below: A B C D Pectinate line Anal column Internal anal sphincter External anal sphincter E F G H Pudendal canal Ischiorectal fossa Lunate fascia Levator ani .83 Anal canal Identify the numbered structures.

84 Rectal examination Identify the numbered structures. from the choices given below: A B C D Perineal body Perineal membrane Prostate Bulbourethral gland E F G H Trigone Rectovesical pouch Seminal vesicle Sphincter ani externus .

44. 71. 67. 29. 69. 107. 112. 76. 94. 53. 59. 80. 49. 70. 26. 45. 85. 51. 35. F F T T T T T F T T F T T F F 92. 105. 20. 102. 15. 61. 38. 13. 56. 6. A C D C B E 47. 4. 24. 18. 11.85 Answers 1. 42. 109. 91. 58. 27. 97. 25. 104. 73. 33. 9. G H E F D C B A 108. 48. 37. A 41. 23. 103. 83. 98. 72. 90. 82. 62. 81. 10. 5. 65. 55. 79. 96. 32. 14. 93. 66. 17. 2. 86. 64. 54. 19. 46. 110. 78. 30. 39. 28. 88. G H A C E . 68. E C C E E D B D A C B E E E E 16. 50. 111. 99. 3. 36. 101. 87. 12. B A C A B A B C D E 57. 8. 75. 84. 63. 34. 106. 89. 43. 21. F T F T T T F F T F T T F F F F T T T T 77. 22. 95. 31. 60. 7. 52. H J K C G F B A 100. C C A B A C C C A C C A A D C D B C A A B A A B 40. 74.

The common carotid artery ends at the level of the: A Sternoclavicular joint B Upper border of cricoid cartilage C Upper border of thyroid cartilage D Lower border of mandible E Neck of mandible 3. Directly behind isthmus of thyroid gland: A Sternohyoid muscle B Thyrohyoid muscle C Oesophagus D Inferior thyroid artery E Trachea 2.VI HEAD AND NECK Questions 1-55 For each of the following multiple choice questions select the one most appropriate answer: 1. except: A C o m m o n carotid artery B Internal carotid artery C Vagus nerve D Sympathetic trunk E Internal jugular vein 86 . The following structures occupy the carotid sheath.

87 4. Principal adductor of vocal folds: A Lateral cricoarytenoid B Posterior cricoarytenoid C Aryepiglottic muscle D Cricothyroid E None of the above 5. Section of the inferior (recurrent) laryngeal nerve would paralyse the intrinsic laryngeal muscles. Anterior relation(s) of scalenus anterior: A Subclavian vein B Phrenic nerve C Brachial plexus D Subclavian artery E Two of the above . The cricoid cartilage is at the vertebral level of: A C2 B C4 C C6 D T1 E T3 8. The thyroid gland is enveloped in: A Investing fascia of the neck B Prevertebral fascia C Pretracheal fascia D Superficial fascia E None of the above 7. except: A Cricothyroid B Posterior cricoarytenoid C Vocalis D Lateral cricoarytenoid E Interarytenoid 6.

The intermediate tendon of the omohyoid muscle is anchored by a fascial sling to the: A Hyoid bone B Thyroid cartilage C Clavicle D Sternum E Scapula 10. C5 11 The roots of the brachial plexus pass between: A Scalenus anterior and sternomastoid B Scalenus anterior and clavicle C Scalenus anterior and scalenus medius D Scalenus medius and scalenus posterior E Scalenus posterior and levator scapulae 12.C4 D C 3 . C 4 .C3. C4 E C 3 .88 9. The cervical plexus is formed by the ventral rami of: A C1. Muscle attached to the first rib between subclavian vein artery: A Subclavius B Scalenus medius C Scalenus anterior D Scalenus posterior E Sternomastoid 13 The larger blood vessels of the scalp run in the: A Skin B Subcutaneous tissue C Epicranial aponeurosis D Subaponeurotic tissue E Pericranium .C2.C3 B C 1 .C2. C2 C C1.

The zygomatic arch gives origin to: A Masseter B Temporalis C Buccinator D Platysma E Medial pterygoid 17.89 14. The plane of movement of the scalp is between: A Skin and epicranial aponeurosis B Epicranial aponeurosis (galea aponeurotica) and pericranium C Skin and subcutaneous fat D Pericranium and skull E None of the above 15. The main sensory nerve to the upper lip is the: A Facial B Infraorbital C Buccal of mandibular D External nasal E Anterior superior alveolar 18. The main sensory nerve to the back of the head: A Greater auricular B Greater occipital C Posterior auricular D Lesser occipital E Third occipital 16. The main sensory nerve to the lower lip is the: A Buccal B Cervical of facial C Mental D Submandibular E Inferior labial .

90 19. A muscle which elevates and retracts the mandible: A Masseter B Temporalis C Medial pterygoid D Lateral pterygoid E Digastric 21. A muscle attached to the coronoid process of mandible: A Buccinator B Lateral pterygoid C Medial pterygoid D Temporalis E Masseter 22. The buccal branch of the mandibular nerve supplies: A Buccinator muscle B Skin and mucous membrane of cheek C Only skin of cheek D Only mucous membrane of cheek E Molar tooth pulps . Nerve from which the parasympathetic fibres for the parotid gland take origin: A Vagus B Facial C Glossopharyngeal D Trigeminal E Accessory 23. The most horizontal fibres of temporalis muscle are: A Deep B Superficial C Posterior D Middle E Anterior 20.

three molars . The parotid duct opens into the oral cavity opposite the crown of the: A Upper first premolar tooth B Upper second molar C Lower first premolar D Upper third molar E Lower second molar 27. canine.91 24. The sublingual papilla: A Is a swelling on the lingual nerve B Is caused by the loop of the lingual artery C Is a swelling caused by the sublingual gland D Marks the opening of the submandibular duct E Is a specialized taste bud 28. The following muscle assists the tongue in keeping food between the upper and lower molar teeth during mastication: A Masseter B Temporalis C Orbicularis oris D Buccinator E Risorius 25. canine. three premolars. three molars C Two incisors. three molars D O n e incisor. two premolars. canine. canine. three molars E Two incisors. two molars B O n e incisor. canine. two premolars. The permanent dentition in each quadrant of the mouth comprises: A Two incisors. A structure passing deep to the hyoglossus muscle: A Hypoglossal nerve B Mylohyloid nerve C Submandibular duct D Lingual nerve E None of the above 26. one premolar. two premolars.

canine. vomer. The first deciduous tooth to erupt is usually the: A Central incisor B Canine C First premolar D First molar E Third molar 32. The first permanent tooth to erupt is the: A Lateral incisor B Canine C First premolar D First molar E Third molar 31. palatine crest of maxilla E Perpendicular plate of vomer. The lingual tonsil is confined to the: A Posterior one-third of the tongue B Anterior one-third of the tongue C Sulcus terminalis D Ventral surface of the tongue E None of the above 33. two molars B O n e incisor. canine. three molars 30. palatine. two premolars. rostrum of sphenoid . canine. one premolar. canine. The bony part of the nasal septum contains: A Perpendicular plate of ethmoid and vomer B Perpendicular plate of palatine and vomer C Perpendicular plate of palatine. and perpendicular plate of ethmoid D Perpendicular plate of palatine. three molars C O n e incisor. canine. two molars E Two incisors. vomer. two molars D Two incisors.92 29. The deciduous dentition in each quadrant of the mouth comprises: A Two incisors.

The adult maxillary air sinus always lies directly above the following teeth: A Incisors B Incisors and canine C Premolars D Molars E All of the above 36. The inferior nasal concha belongs to the: A Ethmoid B Sphenoid C Vomer D Maxilla E None of the above 38.93 34. The geniculate ganglion is concerned with: A Secretomotor nerves to the lacrimal gland B Secretomotor nerves to the submandibular gland C Sensory nerves to the face D Sensory nerves to the oropharynx E Taste . Opening into the inferior meatus of the nose: A The frontal air sinus B The nasolacrimal duct C The maxillary air sinus D The sphenoidal air sinus E Two of the above 35. A branch of the maxillary nerve: A Infraorbital B Supraorbital C Aurticulotemporal D External nasal E Frontal 37.

Directly lateral to the jugular foramen: A Carotid canal B Styloid process C Mastoid process D Lateral pterygoid plate E Hypoglossal canal . The following dural venous sinus occupies the tentorium cerebelli: A Sphenoparietal B Inferior petrosal C Straight D Inferior sagittal E Occipital 41.94 39. except: A Lesser wings of sphenoid B Pterygoid plates of sphenoid C Squamous temporal D Petrous temporal E Tympanic plate 43. The following bony parts ossify from membranous precursors. The glossopharyngeal nerve supplies the mucous membrane of: A Nasopharynx B Oropharynx C Laryngopharynx D Larynx E All of the above 40. Structure directly anterior to the jugular foramen: A Styloid process B Occipital condyle C Foramen magnum D Sphenoidal spine E Carotid canal 42.

except: A Hypoglossus B Inferior longitudinal muscle of the tongue C Genioglossus D Styloglossus E Mylohyoid 47.95 44. Origin from internal carotid artery: A Lingual B Facial C Superior thyroid D Inferior thyroid E None of the above 48. The hypoglossal nerve supplies the following muscles. The following belong to the sphenoid bone. The main artery to the palatine tonsil comes from the: A Lingual B Faucial C Facial D Submandibular E Sublingual . except: A Crista galli B Anterior clinoid process C Lateral pterygoid plate D Sella turcica E Optic foramen 46. Embedded in the parotid gland: A Facial nerve B External carotid artery C Retromandibular vein D Lymph nodes E All of the above 45.

The superior orbital fissure is bounded by the: A Maxilla and greater wing of sphenoid B Maxilla and lesser wing of sphenoid C Lesser wing of sphenoid and ethmoidal D Lesser wing and greater wing of sphenoid E Lesser wing of sphenoid and frontal 53. Bone(s) forming the lateral margin of the orbit: A Zygomatic B Frontal C Zygomatic and frontal D Zygomatic and sphenoidal E Frontal and sphenoidal . In contact with the tympanic membrane: A Chorda tympani nerve B Facial nerve C Incus D Tensor tympani E Stapes 52.96 49. Commonly found in abducent nerve paralysis: A Ptosis B Convergent squint C Loss of upward gaze D Loss of medial gaze E Loss of accommodation 51. Transmitted by the carotid canal: A External carotid artery B Sympathetic nerves to the eye C The facial nerve D The vagus nerve E None of the above 50.

The main sensory nerve to the pinna of the ear: A Great auricular B Greater occipital C Zygomatico-facial D Zygomaticotemporal E Lesser occipital Questions 5 6 .9 5 The set of lettered headings below is followed by a list of numbered words or phrases. 57.97 54. 59. 58. For each numbered word or phrase select the correct answer under: A B C D If the If the If the If the A B C D 56. Opening of the middle ear in which the footplate of the stapes is placed: A O p e n i n g of pyramid B Oval window (fenestra vestibuli) C Aditus D Tubal opening E Round window (fenestra cochleae) 55. item item item item is associated with A only is associated with B only is associated with both A and B is associated with neither A nor B Lateral pterygoid Medial pterygoid Both Neither Attached to articular disc of temporomandibular joint Attached to neck of mandible Assists in opening the mouth Assists in closing the mouth .

98
A
B
C
D
60.
61.
62.
63.

Motor to buccinator
Motor to medial pterygoid
Sensory to upper lip
Sensory to lower lip
A
B
C
D

64.
65.
66.
67.

Hyoglossus
Genioglossus
Both
Neither

Hypoglossal nerve supply
Contact with submandibular gland
Superficial to lingual artery
Attached to mandible
A
B
C
D

72.
73.
74.
75.
76.

Foramen ovale
Foramen spinosum
Both
Neither

Maxillary nerve
Mandibular nerve
Facial nerve
Branches of maxillary artery
A
B
C
D

68.
69.
70.
71.

Facial nerve
Mandibular nerve
Both
Neither

Middle meatus of nose
Inferior meatus of nose
Both
Neither

Orifice of frontal air sinus
Orifice of nasolacrimal duct
Orifice of sphenoidal air sinus
Lined by olfactory epithelium
Origin from stomodaeum of embryo

99
A
B
C
D
77.
78.
79.
80.

Is an air sinus
Direct communication with cavernous sinus
Croove(s) the temporal bone
Posterior relation of tympanic cavity
A
B
C
D

81.
82.
83.
84.
85.

Ophthalmic nerve
Facial nerve
Both
Neither

Light reflex
Accommodation reflex
Corneal reflex
Consensual reflex
jaw jerk
A
B
C
D

91.
92.
93.
94.
95.

Superior rectus muscle of eye
Inferior oblique muscle of eye
Both
Neither

Oculomotor nerve supply
Looking upwards
Looking downwards
Looking downwards and outwards
Muscle spindles are present
A
B
C
D

86.
87.
88.
89.
90.

Superior petrosal sinus
Sigmoid sinus
Both
Neither

Tympanic cavity
Epitympanic recess
Both
Neither

Related to facial nerve
Leads directly into mastoid antrum
Leads directly into Eustachian tube
Related directly to tympanic membrane
Derived from ectoderm of first pharyngeal groove (cleft)

100

Questions 9 6 - 1 1 0
Directions: In the following series of questions, one or more
the four items is/are correct.
Answer A
if 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B
if 1 and 3 are correct
C
if 2 and 4 are correct
D
if only 4 is correct
and
E
if all four are correct
96.

The contracting sternomastoid:
1.
Rotates the head to the opposite side
2.
Tilts the head to the same side
3.
Flexes the neck
4.
May assist inspiration

97.

Active in opening the mouth:
1.
Medial pterygoid
2.
Digastric
3.
Masseter
4.
Lateral pterygoid

98.

Haemostats placed on the inferior thyroid artery may
endanger:
1.
The inferior (recurrent) laryngeal nerve
2.
The external laryngeal nerve
3.
The cervical sympathetic chain
4.
The phrenic nerve

99.

The
1.
2.
3.
4.

vocal folds are abducted by:
Thyro-arytenoids
Lateral crico-arytenoids
Inter-arytenoids
Posterior crico-arytenoids

100. Origin of buccinator muscle:
1.
Pterygomandibular raphe
2.
Maxilla above molar teeth
3.
Mandible below molar teeth
4.
Coronoid process

101
101. The
1.
2.
3.
4.

vocal folds are attached to the:
Hyoid bone
Thyroid cartilage
Cricoid cartilage
Arytenoid cartilages

102. The
1.
2.
3.
4.

cricopharyngeus muscle is:
Part of the middle constrictor of the pharynx
Innervated by inferior (recurrent) laryngeal nerve
C o m p o s e d of smooth muscle fibres
Horizontally disposed

103. The
1.
2.
3.
4.

sensory supply of the pulps of the upper teeth is by:
Posterior superior alveolar nerve
Middle superior alveolar nerve
Anterior superior alveolar nerve
Infraorbital nerve

104. The
1.
2.
3.
4.

soft palate:
Separates nasopharynx from oropharynx
Is elevated mainly by tensor palati
May be occupied by portion of the tonsil
Contains the horizontal plate of the palatine bone

105. Ocular sign(s) of sympathetic paralysis:
1.
Constricted pupil
2.
Raised eyelid
3.
Ptosis
4.
Exophthalmos
106. The straight sinus:
1.
Occupies the line of attachment of falx cerebri to
vault of skull
2.
Is formed by union of the great cerebral vein and
inferior sagittal sinus
3.
Is commonly absent
4.
Enters the confluence of sinuses

Is lowered by contraction of orbicularis oculi 108. 3. Submandibular lymph nodes 113. Ciliary muscle 110. followed by a list of lettered words or phrases. 2. Dilator pupillae 2. The upper eyelid: 1. Is strengthened by the superior tarsus 3. O p e n s into the nasolacrimal duct 109. Is raised by contraction of levator palpebrae superioris 4. The lacrimal sac: 1. Note: Each choice may be used once only. Contains modified sebaceous glands 2. Is emptied by blinking 3.102 107. Orbicularis oculi 4. For each heading select the one word or phrase which is most closely related to it. 111. Sphincter pupillae 3. Secretes the tears 4. Mastoid lymph nodes A B C D E Tip of tongue Lower molar teeth Outer canthus of eye Posterior third of tongue None of the above . Lies against the upper lateral wall of the orbit 2. The 1. 4. abducent nerve innervates the: Superior rectus Medial rectus Inferior rectus Lateral rectus Questions 111-128 The group of questions below consists of numbered headings. Preauricular lymph nodes 114. Accommodation of the eye is associated with contraction of the: 1. Submental lymph nodes 112.

Maxillary nerve Nervus spinosus Mandibular nerve Facial nerve Glossopharyngeal nerve A B C D E Foramen ovale Foramen spinosum Stylomastoid foramen Jugular foramen Foramen rotundum 125. The recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies cricothyroid 130. 122. 128. 116. 126. The inferior thyroid artery passes behind the carotid sheath 132. 124.103 115. The phrenic nerve descends on the anterior surface of scalenus anterior . Internal carotid artery External carotid artery Vertebral artery Maxillary artery Middle meningeal artery A B C D E Pterygomaxillary fissure Foramen magnum Carotid foramen Foramen spinosum None of the above 120. The sympathetic chain occupies the carotid sheath 133. 123. 119. Temporalis Mylohyoid Orbicularis oculi Levator palpebrae superioris A B C D Opening the mouth Closing the mouth Opening the eye Closing the eye Questions 129-203 In reply to the following questions indicate whether you think each statement is True or False: In the neck: 129. 117. 121. 118. 127. The recurrent laryngeal nerve branches contact those of the superior thyroid artery 131.

104 The external jugular vein: 134. Contributes to the pharyngeal plexus of nerves 148. Accessory thyroid tissue is sometimes present close to internal jugular vein The ophthalmic nerve: 154. Because it lies beneath the deep fascia. Is motor to levator palpebrae superioris 157. Because it lacks competent valves. Enters the skull via the foramen magnum 146. Arises entirely from the spinal cord 145. Is invested by pretracheal fascia together with the parathyroids 153. Is formed by the junction of the superficial temporal and maxillary veins 135. Is bordered by sternomastoid. Contains numerous lymph nodes The spinal accessory nerve: 144. Is closely related to inferior (recurrent) laryngeal nerve 150. Crosses the sternomastoid to enter the posterior triangle 136. Moves on swallowing 151. Has the eleventh cranial nerve in its floor 141. When injured the light reflex is abolished on the same side . mandible and trapezius 140. Carries corneal sensation 156. Enters the orbit through the optic foramen 155. is never visible in the living 137. Isthmus is at level of thyroid cartilage 152. Is sensory to the upper teeth 158. Usually terminates in the subclavian vein 138. Contains the trunks of the brachial plexus 143. Is confined to the posterior aspect of the neck 142. it is an important indicator of pressure changes in the right atrium The posterior triangle of the neck: 139. Injury in the posterior triangle results in wasting of the trapezius on the same side The thyroid gland: 149. Leaves the skull via the jugular foramen 147.

Supplies sensation to the anterior part of the tongue 170. Provides one limb of the corneal reflex arc The hypoglossal nerve: 169. the tongue on protrusion deviates towards the affected side In the temporo-mandibular joint: 174. Is wedged between trapezius and mandible 180. Contact is between mandible and tympanic plate 175. Is motor to the buccinator 167. Arises from the trigeminal ganglion 160. Occupies the lateral wall of the cavernous sinus 161. Gliding movements take place in the upper compartment 177. Is motor to both intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue 173. Following paralysis. Passes between the internal and external carotid arteries 172. Has the otic ganglion attached to it 162. Articular surface includes the eminentia articularis 176.105 The maxillary nerve: 159. Carries secreto-motor fibres for the parotid gland 168. Is entirely sensory The facial nerve: 164. Its duct pierces buccinator to enter the mouth . Is covered by investing layer of cervical fascia 181. Supplies sensory fibres to the conjunctiva 166. Supplies the skin of the bridge of the nose 163. Has lymph nodes buried in its substance 183. Axis of joint rotation passes through the head of the mandible The parotid gland: 179. Contains the facial artery 182. Carries fibres from the second and third cervical nerves 171. Rotatory movement takes place in the lower compartment 178. Leaves the skull through foramen spinosum 165.

Receives secreto-motor fibres from the submandibular ganglion 188. Leaves the skull through the pterygomaxillary fissure 195. Is a branch of the internal carotid 200. Occupies the sublingual fold in floor of mouth 190. Carries fibres from the first cervical spinal nerve 196. Has only one duct The sublingual gland: 189. Lies between mylohyoid and digastric muscles 191. Gives a branch to the circle of Willis 202.106 The submandibular salivary gland: 184. Divides in the region of the pterion 203. Secreto-motor nerves travel via chorda tympani and lingual nerves 193. Discharges into the mouth via the sublingual papilla 186. Enters the skull through the foramen spinosum 201. Lies entirely deep to the mylohyoid 187. Carries fibres for both taste and common sensation from the anterior tongue The middle meningeal artery: 199. Has only one large duct 192. Is closely related to the mandible behind the third molar tooth 197. Haemorrhage from the artery is usually subdural . Has two lobes 185. Lies on the submandibular duct The lingual nerve: 194. Carries secreto-motor fibres to the submandibular salivary gland 198.

from the choices given below: A B C D Lateral pterygoid plate Carotid canal Occipital condyle Stylomastoid foramen E F G H Foramen lacerum Articular fossa Inferior nuchal line Superior nuchal line .107 Base of Skull Identify the numbered structures.

108 Intratemporal fossa Identify the numbered structures. from the choices given below: A B C D Lingual nerve Inferior alveolar nerve Deep temporal nerve Buccal branch of mandibular nerve E F G H Stylomandibular ligament Sphenomandibular ligament Medial pterygoid Auriculotemporal nerve .

from the choices given below: A B C D E Scalenus anterior Scalenus medius Longus colli Internal thoracic artery Thoracic duct F G H J K Brachial plexus Sympathetic trunk Subclavian vein Phrenic nerve Vagus nerve .109 Deep structures of neck 224- 223 Identify the numbered structures.

from the choices given below: A B C D E Scalenus anterior Trachea Scalenus medius Thyroid gland Sympathetic trunk F G H J K Vagus nerve Oesophagus Vertebral artery Brachial plexus Recurrent laryngeal nerve .110 Section of neck Identify the numbered structures.

from the choices given below: A B C D Interarytenoid Cricoid cartilage Thyroid cartilage Vallecula E F G H Posterior cricoarytenoid Epiglottis Aryepiglotticus Pyriform fossa .111 Larynx Identify the numbered structures.

B E A E E C B B A D C B A 56. 118. 78. 75. 94. 67. 59. D C D D C D D C B A A D 96. 64. 68. A A A B A B D B D A D C C A A B A B D D C D A C B C C D 84. 6. 97. 81. 37. 71. 4. 34. 40. 77. 69. 52. 99. 100. A B C E C E B A D E B A . 25. 82. 89. 61. 11. 20. 110. 60. 85. 26. 28. 18. 14. 98. 74. 116. 101. 15. 8. 114. 39. 2. 27. 120. 9. 109. 46. 38. 35. 47. 55. 5. 50. E C B D A C C A B B C E C C D 111. 107. E C D A A C C E C C C C B B B A B C C B D C B D E B D C A D A A A B D A E E B C E D 43. 87. 117. 76. 102. 73. 12. 30. 41. 16. 32. 121. 22. 7. 48. 21. 19. 103. 112. 119. 104. 79. 31. 115. 51. 91. 45. 3. 72. 86. 80. 122. 70. 44. 63. 29. 66. 36. 17. 106. 57. 49. 65. 58. 108. 33. 23. 83. 105. 10. 42. 88.112 Answers 1. 113. 95. 24. 92. 54. 53. 90. 13. 62. 93.

230. 146. 180. 151. 216. 130. 239. 177. B D E J H A F K 233. 227. 202. 132. 137. 172. 178. 150. 139. 220. 213. 140. 133. 169. 143. 231. F G C B E A H . 209. F F T F T F T F T T F T F T T T T T F T T T F T T F T F F F T T F F 163. 196. 185. 141. 162. 208. 192. 232. 168. 197. 158. 218. 182. 154. 157. 238. 226. 124. 235. 223. 190. 236. 156. 228. 155. 203. 174. 144. 189. 145. 171. 194. C D B A D C 129. 135. 181. 199. 210. 221. 215. 188. 126. 212. 164. 183. 186. 160. 165. 184. 149. 207. 161. 167. 191. 131. 175. 187. 136. B G J A H D E C 225. A F D H C B E 211. 173. 219. 224. 205. 148. 125. 153. 159. 198. 206. 179. C H E F B A 217. 127. 234. 170. 237. 147. 222. 166. T F F T F T F F F T T F T T T F F T F T T T T F T T T F F T T F F T T T F T F T F 204.113 123. 176. 134. 229. 142. 200. 195. 193. 214. 128. 152. 138. 201.

The rate of regeneration of peripheral nerves following injury is: A 1.3 B 1.3 C 1.3 E 1. Pacinian corpuscles are numerous in: A The dermis of the skin B Periarticular tissues C Bone marrow D Muscle E Intestine 3. In the 'motor nerve' entering a muscle. sensory fibres make up the following proportion: A None B 20 per cent C 40 per cent D 75 per cent E 90 per cent 2.3 D 1.VII NERVOUS SYSTEM Questions 1-50 For each of the following multiple choice questions select the one most appropriate answer: 1.3 micra per day mm per hour mm per day mm per week mm per month 114 .

The cells of the posterior grey horn of the spinal cord are arranged: A In clusters B In laminae from apex to base C In laminae from medial to lateral side D Diffusely E In alternating large and small cell groups 6.115 4. Grossly the spinal cord presents two swellings: A Cervical and thoracic B Cervical and lumbar C Thoracic and lumbar D Thoracic and sacral E Lumbar and sacral 7 The A B C D E 8. In the postnatal period the greatest growth in the grey matter of the CNS is of: A Nerve cell numbers B Length of axonal processes C Dendritic trees D Size of perikarya E None of the above 5. The internal vertebral venous plexus communicates with: A Vertebral bone marrow B Segmental veins C Intracranial sinuses D Pelvic venous plexuses E All the above internal vertebral venous plexus occupies: The extradural space The subdural space The subarachnoid space The spinal cord The foramen transversarium .

the sequence of neurones activated is: A Tendon afferent. internuncial. internuncial. alpha efferent E Spindle afferent. internuncial. A disc prolapse at L5 level. Inferior cerebral veins terminate in the: A Transverse sinus B Cavernous sinus C Sigmoid sinus D Great cerebral vein E Inferior sagittal sinus 10. gamma efferent D Tendon afferent. The subarachnoid space reaches to vertebral level: A T12orL1 B L1 or L2 C L4orL5 D S2 E Tip of coccyx 11. alpha efferent C Spindle afferent.4 and 5 nerve roots B L4 roots C L5 roots D S1 roots E All the above 12. Commonest level of termination of the adult spinal cord: A T12-L1 disc B L1-L2disc C L3-L4disc D L5-S1 disc E Second sacral vertebra .116 9. In eliciting a tendon reflex. alpha efferent 13. alpha efferent B Spindle afferent. may compress: A L3. in the usual position of extrusion.

117 14. The cell in the CNS most like the Schwann cell in function is the: A Fibrous astrocyte B Protoplasmic astrocyte C Microglial cell D Pericyte E Oligodendrocyte 15. Axons from the nucleus ambiguus innervate muscles of the: A Eye B Tongue C Larynx D Ear E Jaws 18. shuffling gait C Loss of 'joint sense' D Spasticity E Intention tremor . portions of first order sensory neurones are found: A In the posterior white columns B In the posterolateral tract of Lissauer C In the lateral white columns D In the anterior white columns E Two of the above 16. A classical sign of cerebellar disease: A Rigidity B Short. In the C N S . The sacral segments of the spinal cord may be crushed by fracture of: A The first lumbar vertebra B The third lumbar vertebra C The fifth lumbar vertebra D The first and second sacral vertebrae E None of the above 17.

118
19.

Tract which is small or absent in humans:
A
Rubrospinal
B
Tectospinal
C
Vestibulospinal
D
Olivospinal
E
Anterior corticospinal

20.

A midline nucleus in the medulla oblongata:
A
Hypoglossal nucleus
B
Nucleus ambiguus
C
Dorsal vagal nucleus
D
Nucleus raphe magnus
E
Central reticular nucleus

21.

The cerebellum sends efferent fibres to each of the following,
except:
A
The red nucleus of the opposite side
B
The thalamus of the opposite side
C
Reticular formation
D
The vestibular nuclei of the same side
E
The substantia nigra

22.

The structure closest to the crus cerebri is the:
A
Substantia nigra
B
Red nucleus
C
Medial lemniscus
D
Opposite crus
E
Superior cerebellar peduncle

23.

The cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius) connects:
A
The lateral ventricles
B
Lateral and third ventricles
C
Third and fourth ventricles
D
Fourth ventricle and subarachnoid space
E
Fourth ventricle and central canal of spinal cord

119
24.

The following structure occupies the floor of the temporal
horn of the lateral ventricle:
A
Stria vascularis
B
Calcaravis
C
Diagonal band of Broca
D
Amygdala
E
Hippocampus

25.

The interventricular foramen of Monro connects:
A
The two lateral ventricles
B
Lateral ventricle with third ventricle
C
Third and fourth ventricles
D
Fourth ventricle with subarachnoid space
E
Tela choroidea with third ventricle

26.

Betz cells constitute the following percentage of the
corticospinal tract neurones:
A
0
B
3
C
10
D
50
E
100

27.

The cms cerebri contains:
A
Medial lemniscus
B
Spinothalamic tract
C
Temporopontine fibres
D
Lateral lemniscus
E
None of the above

28.

Folds of the cerebral cortex overlying the insula are called
the:
A
Temporal lobes
B
Corpus callosum
C
Opercula
D
Commissures of the fornix
E
Pallia

120
29.

Nystagmus depends upon connections between vestibular
and oculomotor nuclei via:
A
Medial longitudinal bundle
B
Medial lemniscus
C
Reticular formation
D
Spinal lemniscus
E
Central grey matter

30.

The retrolentiform (retrolenticular) part of the internal
capsule contains:
A
The optic radiation
B
The pyramidal tract
C
The main thalamocortical system
D
Frontopontine fibres
E
Temporopontine fibres

31.

Broca's area occupies the:
A
Superior frontal gyrus
B
Middle frontal gyrus
C
Inferior frontal gyrus
D
Superior temporal gyrus
E
Inferior temporal gyrus

32.

The cells of origin of the optic radiation occupy the:
A
Ganglion cell layer of retina
B
Medial geniculate nucleus
C
Lateral geniculate nucleus
D
Superior colliculus
E
Occipital cortex

33.

Buried in the lateral sulcus of the cerebral hemisphere is the:
A
Occipital lobe
B
Splenium
C
Operculum
D
Insula
E
Pars triangularis

121
34.

Neurological examination of a patient reveals right-sided
hemiparesis, increased tendon reflexes, and a Babinski sign.
Which of the following is the most likely site of the lesion?
A
Left occipital cortex
B
Left frontal lobe
C
Left internal capsule
D
Optic chiasma
E
Right thalamus

35.

The above patient's symptomatology would lead you to
expect, on the right side:
A
Analgesia
B
Absent abdominal reflexes
C
Cerebellar signs
D
Abnormal pupillary reactions
E
Fasciculation of muscles

36.

A cranial nerve lesion corresponding to an upper motor
neurone lesion of a spinal nerve is called:
A
Suprasegmental
B
Supratentorial
C
Supranuclear
D
Supramarginal
E
Supraorbital

37.

The ganglionic cells of the retina are homologous with:
A
Posterior root ganglion neurones
B
Posterior grey horn neurones
C
Anterior grey horn neurones
D
Autonomic ganglia
E
None of the above

38.

The following structures are found at the level of the nucleus
of the oculomotor nerve, except:
A
Red nucleus
B
Pretectal nucleus
C
Substantia nigra
D
Decussation of the superior cerebellar peduncles
E
Superior collicus

122
39.

The abducent nerve is especially liable to be compressed by a
rise in intracranial pressure because:
A
It emerges at the lower border of the pons
B
It Is related to the basisphenoid
C
It crosses the sharp apex of the petrous temporal
bone
D
It traverses the superior orbital fissure
E
It traverses the subarachnoid space

40.

Fibres from the dorsal cochlear nucleus join fibres from the
ventral cochlear nucleus in the:
A
Nucleus of the vestibular nerve
B
Trapezoid body
C
Medial longitudinal fasciculus
D
Medial lemniscus
E
None of the above

41.

The nucleus ambiguus gives origin to motor fibres that run in
the — nerves:
A
Vagus, trigeminal and facial
B
Glossopharyngeal and vagus
C
Vagus, hypoglossal and facial
D
Facial, abducent and oculomotor
E
Trigeminal, abducent and facial.

42.

In the human brain, the red nucleus projects mainly to the:
A
Ipsilateral cerebellar cortex
B
Ipsilateral inferior olivary nucleus
C
Contralateral dentate nucleus
D
Contralateral anterior grey horn
E
Ipsilateral thalamus

43.

Basal forebrain and brain stem are linked by fibre systems
running in the:
A
Central tegmental tract
B
Fornix
C
Posterior longitudinal fasciculus
D
Medial forebrain bundle
E
Inferior longitudinal fasciculus

nucleus: A Arcuate B Supraoptic C Ventromedial D Preoptic E Paraventricular 46. Hypothalamic neurones containing large secretory granules: A Suprachlasmatic B Posterior C Paraventricular D Posterior E Ventromedial 45. In the hypothalamus. In the hypothalamus. Spinoreticular fibres are relayed rostrally to the — nucleus of thalamus: A Intralaminar B Mediodorsal C Anterior D Lateral posterior E Ventral lateral . The hypothalamohypophyseal tract terminates in the: A Median eminence B Tuber cinereum C Anterior lobe of pituitary gland D Posterior lobe of pituitary gland E All the above 48. dopaminergic neurones are concentrated in the . the tuberinfundibular tract terminates in the: A Median eminence B Midbrain C Adenohypophysis D Arcuate nucleus E Limbic cortex 47.123 44.

52. 54. A thalamic nucleus composed of recurrent inhibitory neurones: A Laterodorsal B Parafascicular C Centromedian D Reticular E Pulvinar Questions 5 1 . item item item item is associated with A only is associated with B only is associated with both A and B is associated with neither A nor B Unipolar nerve cells Multipolar nerve cells Both Neither Found in sympathetic ganglia Found in dorsal grey horn of spinal cord Restricted to sensory pathways Usually no synapse in vicinity Derived from embryonic bipolar neurones .7 6 The set of lettered headings below is followed by a list of numbered words or phrases. For each numbered word or phrase select the correct answer under: A B C D If the If the If the If the A B C D 51. 53.124 49 The medial lemniscus and the spinothalamic tract both terminate in the — nucleus of thalamus: A Anterior B Ventral anterior C Ventral lateral D Ventral posterior E Lateral posterior 50. 55.

65. 59. 60. 75. 58. 71. Dorsal grey horn Ventral grey horn Both Neither Anterior cerebral artery Middle cerebral artery Both Neither Blood supply to l e g area' of motor cortex Blood supply to posterior limb of internal capsule Blood supply to auditory cortex Blood supply to visual cortex In contact with corpus callosum . 61. 74. Alphamotoneu rones Gamma motoneurones Both Neither Cell bodies occupy dorsal grey horns Distributed exclusively to extrafusal muscle fibres Axons terminate in motor end plates Stimulated directly by primary spindle afferents Are synonymous with Renshaw cells A B C D 67. 64. 70. 57. Termination of pyramidal tract Origin of fasciculus cuneatus All neurones are multipolar Origin of parasympathetic outflow Propriospinal neurones are present Renshaw cells are present A B C D 62.125 A B C D 56. 69. Upper motor neurone lesion Lower motor neurone lesion Both Neither Characterized by rapid wasting Characterized by fasciculation Characterized by weakness Characterized by sensory loss Characterized by Babinski sign A B C D 72. 76. 66. 68. 73. 63.

Ribosomes 3. Synaptic vesicles 4. Soma 2. one or more of the four items is/are correct. Microtubules 78.126 Questions 7 7 . Synaptic boutons may be found on the: 1.9 4 Directions: In the following series of questions. Nissl bodies 2. Organelles required for rapid axoplasmic transport mechanism: 1. Ribosomes 80. Stretch of related extrafusal muscle fibres 4. Answer A if 1. Spinal ganglia 81. Terminal knobs (boutons terminaux) contain: 1. Neuromuscular junctions 4. Contraction of intrafusal muscle fibres 2. Annulospiral nerve endings are activated by: 1. Sympathetic ganglia 2. Synaptic vesicles 2. Axon hillock 3. Dendrites 4. Stretch of antagonist muscles 3. Synapses are present in: 1. Contraction of related extrafusal muscle fibres . Mitochondria 3. Parasympathetic ganglia 3. Microtubules 4. 2 and 3 are correct B if 1 and 3 are correct C if 2 and 4 are correct D if only 4 is correct and E if all four are correct 77. Initial unmyelinated segment 79.

Baroreceptor reflex 2. Flaccidity 2. The nucleus ambiguus: 1. Spasticity 2. Taste 4. Loss of reflexes at the same segmental level 3. Absent abdominal reflexes 84. The nucleus solitarius is concerned with: 1. Nodule 3. Occupies the lateral part of the medulla oblongata 4. Part(s) of cerebellum in median plane: 1. Tonsil 4. Loss of vibration sense in the right leg 4. Increased tendon reflexes 3. Lower motor neurone lesions are characterized by: 1. Touch 3. Vermis 86. Innervates striated muscle of branchial origin 2. Wasting 4. Loss of vibration sense in the left leg 85. Loss of pain sensation in the left leg 2. Sensory loss 83. Is usually absent in man . Contributes to the facial nerve 3. Smell 87. Flocculus 2. Babinski sign 4. Left-sided hemisection of spinal cord in the mid-thoracic region may produce: 1. Upper motor neurone lesions are characterized by: 1.127 82. Loss of pain sensation in the right leg 3.

Corticoreticular 93. Optic tract 4. Consensual 4. Occupies medulla. Is influenced by the cerebellum 4. pons and midbrain 2. Component fibres of internal capsule: 1. Thalamocortical 2. Corticobulbar 4. A left homonymous hemianopia can be produced by a lesion in the right: 1. The reticular formation: 1. Accommodation 3. Light 2. Area 17 3. Synonym(s) for primary visual cortex: 1. Corticospinal 3. Striate cortex 2. Convergence 90. Visual-auditory conversion area(s): 1. Broca'sarea 3. Optic nerve 91. Occipital cortex 2. Is concerned in reflexes regulating muscle tone 89. Is played upon by fibres from the cerebral cortex 3.128 88. The pretectal nucleus is on the pathway of the — reflex: 1. Calcarine cortex 4. Angular gyrus 92. Supramarginal gyrus 2. Occipital lobe . Wernicke's area 4. Optical radiation 3.

Middle cerebral 4. Unipolar nerve cells Preganglionic sympathetic nerve fibres Multipolar neurones Cervical plexus Postganglionic sympathetic nerve fibres A B C D E 100. Between pons and olive A B C D 105. Note: each choice may be used only once. 96. Between pyramid and olive 103. Between pons and middle cerebellar peduncle 101. Pons A B C E D E Posterior root ganglia Anterior horn cells Grey rami communicantes Ventral rami None of the above Trigeminal nerve roots Abducent nerve Facial nerve Glossopharyngeal nerve Hypoglossal nerve Anterior cerebral artery Middle cerebral artery Posterior cerebral artery Basilar artery Posterior inferior cerebellar artery . 98. Anterior cerebral 3. 97. For each numbered phrase select the one heading which is most closely related to it. Arm area of motor cortex 106. followed by a list of numbered phrases. 95. Medulla oblongata 109. Posterior cerebral Questions 95-109 The group of questions below consists of five lettered headings. Visuosensory cortex 107. Between olive and inferior cerebellar peduncle 104. Between pons and pyramid 102. Ophthalmic 2.129 94. Branch(es) of the internal carotid artery: 1. 99. Leg area of sensory cortex 108.

Thickening of the apposed plasma membranes 121. re-establish neuromuscular junctions at the original locations 118. The presence of dense-core vesicles in the adjacent region of dendrite or soma 123. Becomes darker in Parkinson's disease . Projects to ventrolateral nucleus of thalamus 127. Require the support of living Schwann cells in the peripheral stump 116. Appears to be mainly inhibitory in function 128. The endoneurium in the distal stump undergoes a gradual increase in thickness 111. Schwann cells migrate from both cut surfaces to bridge the gap 114. Acquire new myelin sheaths as they traverse the distal stump The following ultrastructural features characterize a synapse: 120. Grow at the same rate in motor and sensory nerves of similar size 117. Intrusion of delicate glial processes into the synaptic cleft 124. Following section of a peripheral nerve: 110. Is composed of monoaminergic neurones 129. In muscle. Tight junctions at the margins of the synaptic cleft The substantia nigra: 125. Axis cylinders break up simultaneously throughout the entire length of the distal stump 113.130 Questions 110-134 In reply to the following questions indicate whether you think each statement is True or False. Enter the distal stump in large numbers provided apposition of cut ends is good 119. Is restricted to the midbrain 126. Myelin sheaths in the distal stump break up and are phagocytosed 112. The parent cells undergo chromatolysis Regenerating peripheral nerves: 115. The presence of small vesicles in the axon terminal 122.

131 In the cerebellum: 130. Blood supply is exclusively from the basilar artery 134. Disease of one hemisphere results in contralateral signs in the limbs . The total output from the cortex is inhibitory 132. Granule cells synapse only on Purkinje cell dendrites 131. Efferents from the dentate nucleus form the bulk of the superior cerebellar peduncle 133.

anterior pillar Fornix. posterior pillar Putamen Tail of caudate nucleus .132 Horizontal section of brain Identify the numbered structures. from the choices given below: A B C D E Thalamus Corpus callosum Optic radiation Internal capsule Hippocampus F G H J K Head of caudate nucleus Fornix.

from the choices given below: A B C D Superior colliculus Oculomotor nerve Pyramidal tract Raphe nucleus E F G H Substantia nigra Medial lemniscus Periaqueductal grey matter Spinothalamic tract .133 Section of midbrain Identify the numbered structures.

134 Section of Pons Identify the numbered structures. from the choices given below: A B C D Central tegmental tract Lateral lemniscus Corticopontine fibres Corticospinal fibres E F G H Superior cerebellar peduncle Medial lemniscus Facial nerve Abducent nerve .

135 Section of spinal cord 158 163 Identify the numbered structures. from the choices given below: A B C D Fasciculus gracilis Fasciculus cuneatus Lissauer's tract Rubrospinal tract E F G H Vestibulospinal tract Propriospinal tract Spinothalamic Lateral corticospinal tract .

from the choices given below: A B C Axosomatic synapse Nissl body Axodendritic synapse D E F Dendrite Golgi complex Axon .136 Neurone 167 Identify the numbered structures.

137 Section of a nerve Identify the numbered structures. from the choices given below: A B C D Epineurium Perineurium Endoneurium Myelin sheath E F G H Basement membrane Capillary endothelium Unmyelinated axon Mesaxon .

138 Motor end plate Identify the numbered structures. from the choices given below: A B C D Golgi complex Basement membrane Nucleus of Schwann cell Sole plate nucleus E F G H Endomysium Active zone Junctional fold Sarcomere .

74. 47. 109. 50. 42. 96. A E B D C A B E D C B C A E D 110. 52. 121. 102. 113. 35. 92. 64. 10. 82. 99. 79. 4. 27. 16. 84. 17.139 Answers 1. 5. 68. 78. 118. B B A A A C D C D C B D A C A D B B C D A A B B D A 77. 11. 98. 49. 86. 65. 32. 6. 58. 91. 71. 93. 76. 120. 33. 103. 18. 116. 107. 56. 22. 117. 81. 41. 104. D C A A D A D D 51. 53. 106. 25. 48. 60. 119. 63. T T T T T T T T T T T T F . 14. 38. 101. 105. 85. 26. 54. 30. 8. 59. 112. 73. 13. E C C B B E B A D E A A 95. 39. 24. 23. 29. 57. 12. C B C C B B A E A D D E B E E A C E A D E A C E B B C C A A C C D C B C B D C B B B 43. 19. 75. 114. 111. 108. 45. 87. 67. 40. 97. 28. 3. 2. 21. 34. D E A A B A 83. 44. 55. 122. 37. 66. 72. 46. 62. 69. 36. 31. 70. 15. 80. 9. 89. 94. 20. 100. 88. 61. 7. 90. 115.

145. A G F E D B C H 152. A C H G E 163. 136.140 123. 130. 170. 153. 161. 165. 166. A B C F E 169. 126. 181. 128. F C B D G A . 137. 134. 146. 171. 138. 167. F 164. 148. 151. 127. 172. 142. 132. F F T F T T F T T T F F 135. 149. E A F C G D 158. 133. A C G D E H B 176. 159. 168. 173. 155. 147. 141. D K H C A J G F B 144. 162. 150. 124. 139. 143. 131. 157. 160. 175. 129. 178. 125. 140. 177. 180. 154. 156. 179. 174.

Cilia A B C D E 3. Nissl bodies are composed of: A Granular endoplasmic reticulum B Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C Golgi complexes D Neurofilaments E Microtubules 2.VIII HISTOLOGY Questions 1-28 For each of the following multiple choice questions select the one most appropriate answer 1. Stratified squamous epithelium lines: A Trachea B Colon C Rectum D Ureter E None of the above are found in the epithelium of: Maxillary air sinuses Bronchi Uterine tube All the above A and B only 141 .

142 4. Elastic fibres are found in the walls of: A Bronchi B Bronchioles C Pulmonary alveoli D All the above E None of the above 7. Epiphyseal ossification centre always present at full term: A Proximal humerus B Proximal fibula C Distal femur D Proximal tibia E Distal tibia 8. The fibroblast: A Has little rough endoplasmic reticulum B Is not an active cell C Produces all the elastin in the body D Is the second commonest cell in ordinary connective tissue E Is mesodermal in origin 6. Simple squamous epithelium: A Is protective rather than secretory or absorptive B Consists of a single layer of flattened cells C Is not readily penetrated by water and ions D Is keratinized in the oesophagus E Has a rich supply of capillaries running between its cell layers 5. In synovial joints the synovial membrane: A Lines the inner surface of the capsule B Covers the articular cartilage C Does not cover intra-articular tendons D Never communicates with adjacent synovial bursae E None of the above .

Conducting tissue in the heart is composed of: A Connective tissue B Modified nerves C Modified heart muscle D Smooth muscle E Sinusoidal blood vessels 14. A peripheral nerve (e. Cardiac muscle: A Is richly innervated B Is syncytial C Is relatively avascular D Has intercalated discs uniting the cells E Has few mitochondria 10. The dorsal root ganglion: A Is a collection of cells within the brain stem B Contains multipolar neurons C Contains unipolar neurons D Consists of efferent neurons E Is associated with innervation of the dorsal part of the body wall only 13.143 9. Capillaries differ from arterioles in having: A Pavement endothelium B Smooth muscle C An adventitial coat D Sympathetic nerve endings E No tunica media . Smooth muscle is found in the wall of the: A Pharynx B Upper end of oesophagus C Lower end of oesophagus D All the above E Two of the above 11. ulnar): A Is enclosed in epineurium B Is entirely motor C Is devoid of myelination D Contains microglia E Is endodermal in origin 12.g.

Alveoli of lungs communicate directly with one another through: A Alveolar ducts B Atria C Respiratory bronchioles D Alveolar sacs E Alveolar pores 16. Substances applied to the skin surface may enter the skin freely through: A Hair follicles B Sweat glands C Stratum corneum D Palm of hand E Glomus cells . In the respiratory system: A Bronchioles have no cartilage B The trachea is encircled by hyaline cartilage C The nasal cavity has a simple squamous epithelium D The larynx is lined throughout by ciliated.144 15. In the lymphatic system: A Plasma cells produce heparin B The thymus has a fine reticular fibre network C Lymphatic capillaries are present only in intestinal villi D The lymphocyte is an immunologically competent cell E The thoracic duct has no valves 18. The spleen: A Has a delicate reticular fibre capsule B Filters blood and lymph C Contains no plasma cells D Has germinal centres in its lymph nodules E Has afferent lymphatics entering at its hilum 19. pseudostratified columnar epithelium E Maxillary sinuses contain olfactory cells in their lining epithelium 17.

Characteristic of the normal kidney: A Distal convoluted tubules longer than proximal B Slit membranes between macula densa and juxta-glomerular apparatus C Glomerulus has single arteriole D Cuboidal epithelium in parietal layer of Bowman's capsule E Podocytes in visceral layer of Bowman's capsule . In the ureter.145 20. the lining epithelium is: A Transitional B Cuboidal C Ciliated columnar D Stratified squamous E None of the above 24. In skin: A Sweat glands are absent from the palm and sole B The epidermis has no nerves C Prickle cells are joined in such a way that cytoplasm flows from cell to cell D Defence cells form nodules in the epidermis E Sebaceous glands are affected by sex hormones 21. parietal (oxyntic) cells are found in the: A Fundus B Body C Pyloric canal D Cardiac region E AandB 23. The odontoblast produces: A Enamel B Dentin C Cementum D Pulp E Alveolar bone 22. In the stomach.

The secretory phase of the menstrual cycle is associated with: A Doubling of thickness of endometrium B Widening and wrinkling (sawtooth) of glands C Active corpus luteum D All of the above E A and B only Questions 29-140 The set of lettered headings below is followed by a list of numbered words or phrases.146 25. For each numbered word or phrase select the correct answer under: A B C D If the If the If the If the item is associated with A only item is associated with B only item is associated with both A and B item is associated with neither A nor B . All endocrine tissue shows the following feature: A A rich capillary supply B Encapsulation C No lymphatics D No nerve fibres E Intracellular secretory granules 27. Secretory granules in neurohypophysis accumulate in: A Pituicytes B Nerve endings C Intercellular spaces D Sinusoids E Capillary endothelium 26. The following cells contact the basement membrane of the seminiferous tubule: A Spermatogonia and Sertoli cells B Sertoli cells and Leydig cells C Primary and secondary spermatocytes D Spermatogonia and Leydig cells E Spermatids 28.

38. 30. 40. 31. Hydrolytic enzymes Oxidative phosphorylation Both Neither Stratified keratinized epithelium Simple columnar epithelium Both Neither Epididymis Hard palate Cervix of uterus Urinary bladder . 39. Ciliated columnar epithelium Stratified squamous epithelium Both Neither Larynx Pulmonary alveoli Tongue Oesophagus A B C D 41. 36. 44. Mitotic spindle Protein for export Both Neither Golgi apparatus Rough endoplasmic reticulum Centrioles Microvilli A B C D 37. 42. 32. 34. 43. 35.147 A B C D 29. Lysosomes Nucleolus Free ribosomes Mitochondria A B C D 33.

55. 51. 52. 48. 54. May double their length on being stretched Branch freely Have high resistance to tensile strain Show periodicity at 64 nm intervals A B C D 49. 58. 56. Elastic fibres Smooth muscle Both Neither Abundant in tunica media of aorta Abundant in tunica media of arterioles Absent from capillaries Absent from veins A B C D 53. 50. Collagen fibrils Elastic fibres Both Neither Cartilage Bone Both Neither Rich blood supply Excellent reparative power Collagen in matrix Ground substance rich in glycosaminoglycans . 47. 60. Intervertebral disc Skull suture Both Neither Synovial joint Secondary cartilaginous joint Syndesmosis Primary cartilaginous joint A B C D 57.148 A B C D 45. 59. 46.

67. Neutrophils Lymphocytes Erythrocytes Platelets A B C D 65. Dense-cored granules containing serotonin Reticulocytes Both Neither Attachment plaques Nexuses (gap junctions) Both Neither Extensors of the toes Uterine muscle (myometrium) Sphincter pupillae Detrusor muscle of urinary bladder . 62. 66. 63. 64. 76. 72. Dendrites Axons Both Neither Neurofibrils Ribosomes Lysosomes Mitochondria A B C D 73. Transverse tubules Sarcoplasmic reticulum Both Neither Cardiac muscle Skeletal muscle Intestinal muscle Arrectorpili A B C D 69. 68.149 A B C D 61. 70. 74. 71. 75.

Motor end plate Muscle spindle Both Neither Hyaline cartilage Elastic fibres Both Neither Alveolar duct Bronchus Bronchiole Air sac . 90. Smooth muscle Nail bed Dental pulp Cardiac muscle A B C D 81. 79.150 A B C D 77. 88. 83. Lymphatic vessels Veins Both Neither C o m m e n c e blindly Valves are present Lined by endothelium Contain erythrocytes A B C D 85. 80. 78. 87. 84. 86. Aorta Arterioles Both Neither Rich in elastic fibres Mainly muscular Lined by flat endothelium Adventitial coat is present A B C D 89. 92. 82. 91.

98. 96. Alveolar wall Respiratory bronchioles Trachea Larynx A B C D 97. Clara cells Alveolar macrophages Both Neither Epidermis Dermis Both Neither Origin from mesoderm Contain(s) blood vessels Produce(s) keratin Contain(s) lymph vessels . 94. 104. 95. 107.151 A B C D 93. Palatine tonsil Lingual tonsil Both Neither Lymphatics B-lymphocytes No capsule Lymph nodules A B C D 101. 102. 108. 99. 103. 100. Keratinocytes Sebaceous gland Both Neither Gap junctions Hair follicle Stratum basale Melanin A B C D 105. 106.

123. Liver lobule Liver acinus Both Neither Basement membrane Capillary network Both Neither Glomerulus Visceral layer of Bowman's capsule Renal papilla LoopofHenle . 110. Absorption Basal infoldings in lining cells Both Neither Proximal convoluted tubule Distal convoluted tubule Collecting ducts Renal pelvis A B C D 121. 122. 114. 124. 112. 115. 116. 118. 119. Gall bladder Appendix Both Neither Simple epithelium Villi Immunological function Folded mucous membrane A B C D 117. Blood flow converges on a central vein Invested by a loose connective tissue capsule Several are supplied from a single portal vein Devoid of sinusoids A B C D 113. 111.152 A B C D 109. 120.

139. 140. 138. Pineal Parathyroid Suprarenal cortex Thyroid A B C D 129. 131. 136. Contains axon terminals Rich in blood supply Both Neither Posterior pituitary Thyroid Adrenal medulla Parathyroid A B C D 133. 130. 135. 132. Mineralocorticoids Oxyphil cells Both Neither Trophoblast Mucous glands Both Neither Graafian follicle Placental membrane (barrier) Epididymis Endocervix (uterine) . 127. 126. 128. 134.153 A B C D 125. Corpus luteum Graafian follicle Both Neither Menopause Menstruation Progesterone Oestrogen A B C D 137.

2 and 3 are correct B if 1 and 3 are correct C if 2 and 4 are correct D if only 4 is correct and E if all four are correct 141. Rectum to anal canal 4. Microvilli are found in epithelium of: 1. Tendon 2. The trachea 144. Proximal convoluted tubules of kidney 3. The mitochondrion 142. The blood-air barrier . The descending colon 3. Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium lines: 1. From stratified squamous to pseudostratified columnar with mucus-secreting cells: 1. The supporting framework of the spleen 3. The nucleus 3. Gallbladder 2. The Golgi apparatus 2. The distal convoluted tubule of the kidney 4. Oral to nasal surface of palate 145. Oesophagus 143. Answer A if 1. Rough endoplasmic reticulum 4. Capsules of joints 4. Intestinal epithelium 4. Collagen fibres are the main connective tissue fibres in: 1.154 Questions 141-168 Directions: In the following series of questions. one or more of the four items is/are correct. A double membrane is associated with: 1. The respiratory portion of the respiratory system 2. Exocervix to endocervix 3. Dorsal to ventral surface of tongue 2.

Pylorus 3. In the capsule (Glisson's) of the liver 3. Olfactory cells 3. May require pinning 4. In the ligaments of the knee 4.155 146. Fracture of the neck of the femur: 1. Covered by perichondrium 4. Colon 2. Occurs often in the elderly 2. Anterior horn cells . Is rich in lymphocytes 151. Has branching cells 3. Posterior root ganglion cells 2. Articular cartilage is: 1. Permanent 3. Always heals well 3. Elastic fibres are essential: 1. In the supporting framework of lymph nodes 2. In the walls of the air sacs of the lung 147. Cells of adrenal medulla 4. Contains myosin filaments 4. Oviduct 4. Multipolar neurones: 1. Is usually extracapsular 149. Contains actin filaments 2. Voluntary striated muscle: 1. Smooth muscle: 1. Elastic 2. Avascular 148. Papillary muscles 150.

Laryngeal mucous membrane . Insignificant in bronchi 2. Bronchiolar mucous membrane 4. Involved in protection against antigens: 1. Melanocytes 4.156 152. Schwann cells 2. Small and medium veins 155. In nasal mucous membrane: 1. Suprarenal cortex 153. Nasal mucosa 2. Carotid sinus 3. Bipolar neurones 3. Thin tunica media: 1. Well innervated in sphenoidal sinuses 4. Basement membrane: 1. Neural tube 3. Bone 154. Origin from neural crest: 1. Simple squamous epithelium 4. Carotid body 2. Rich vascularization 157. Tracheal mucous membrane 3. Capillaries are absent from: 1. Cartilage 3. Epidermis 2. No goblet cells 2. Cornea 4. Arterioles 4. Prominent in tracheal mucosa 156. Absent in blood-air barrier 3.

Contains T-lymphocytes: 1. Caecum 163. Contains voluntary muscle running in three directions 2. The germinal matrix of hair 2. 2. Spleen 3. Melanocytes are present in: 1. Has both serous and mucous glands 4. Thymus 2. grows faster: When cut When washed frequently In Eskimos In Summer 160. Distal convoluted tubule . Is divisible into an anterior papillary one-third. Submucous glands present in: 1. The tongue: 1. Lymph nodule 159. Confined to renal cortex: 1. 4. Cells of sebaceous glands 161. Duodenum 4. The nail matrix 3. and a posterior tonsillar two-thirds 3. Hair 1. Stratum basale of epidermis 4. Appendix 3. Lymph node 4. Has no autonomic nerve supply 162. Oesophagus 2. Proximal convoluted tubule 2. 3.157 158. LoopofHenle 4. Glomerulus 3.

For each heading select the one word or phrase which is most closely related to it. Ureter 3. Endocrine cells in the testis: 1. Oxyphil cells 4. Spermatozoa 3. Spermatogonia 3. First polar body 2. Beta cells 166. Anterior pituitary 2. Note: Each choice may be used only once. Sertoli 2. .158 164. Embryoblast Questions 169-302 The group of questions below consists of numbered headings. Role in blood pressure control: 1. followed by a list of lettered words or phrases. Parafollicular cells 3. Suprarenal cortex 167. Renal pelvis 2. Leydig 168. Posterior pituitary 3. The cells that comprise the parenchyma of the parathyroid gland are the: 1. Extensions of granulosa cells 4. Collecting ducts 165. Found in the perivitelline space: 1. Lined by transitional epithelium: 1. Pars media of pituitary 4. Spermatids 4. Principal (chief) cells 2. Urinary bladder 4.

Stratified transitional epithelium 182. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum 171. 175. Granular endoplasmic reticulum 170. 177. Stratified squamous epithelium 188. A B C D E Reticular fibres Heparin Phagocytic Antibodies Very little cytoplasm 174. 178. Ciliated epithelium 185. Columnar epithelium with microvilli 186. Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium 180. Lysosomes Mitochondria Z o n a occludens Macula adherens Gap junction (nexus) Lymphocytes Plasma cells Mast cells Histiocyte Fibroblasts A B Cytoskeleton Protein for cell metabolism Nuclear D N A Protein for secretion Metabolism of fat . 190. 191. Chromosomes A B C D E C D E Hydrolytic enzymes Oxidative phosphorylation Fused membranes Desmosome Rapid conduction 179. 192. Simple squamous epithelium 187. Free ribosomes 172. Transitional epithelium A B C D E Gaseous exchange Absorption Protection Distension Removal of particulate matter 189. Microfibrils 173. 193. Simple columnar epithelium A B C D E Jejunum Oesophagus Gums/Gingivae Bladder Alveolar sacs 184. Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium 181.159 169. Simple squamous epithelium 183. 176.

209. Appositional growth Collagen fibres Elastic cartilage Fibrocartilage Hyaline cartilage A B C D E Tensile strength Articular surfaces Bone Pinna (of ear) Intervertebral disc 199. 214. 200.160 194. 217. 222. 203. 219. All leucocytes Monocytes Lymphocytes Eosinophils T-lymphocytes A B C D E C D E Histiocytes Work outside the bloodstream Become plasma cells Graft rejection Allergic conditions . 207. 201. 215. 202. 212. Osteoblasts Osteoclasts Osteocytes Osteones A Form organic matrix of bone Resorb bone Composed of bony lamellae Are highly branched cells B C D 208. Elastic cartilage Hyaline cartilage Fibrocartilage Cancellous bone Compact bone A B C D E Epiphysis of femur Epiglottis Pubic symphysis Shaft of radius Trachea 204. Smooth muscle Myoepithelium Cardiac muscle Tendon Skeletal muscle A B Poor blood supply Central blunt-ended nucleus Wall of ileum Peripheral nuclei Exocrine glands 218. 216. 205. 211. 198. 206. 220. 221. 197. 210. 195. Intercalated discs Intermediate filaments Abundant myoglobin Sarcomere Muscle spindles A B C D E Postural muscle Contractile unit Stretch receptors Smooth muscle Cardiac muscle 213. 196.

Trachea Branch bronchi Bronchioles Larynx Conchae A 223. Conducting system Selective distribution Valves Pericytes Pressure reduction A B C D E Capillaries Subendocardium Arterioles Veins of limbs Medium arteries 243. Synaptic vesicles A B C D E Schwann cell Motor end plates Axon Afferent impulses Nissl substance 233. Muscle spindles Unipolar cells Bipolar cells Multipolar cells Neurofibrils C D E B C D E Continuous cartilage plates No cartilage Elastic cartilage C-shaped cartilages Erectile tissue . 245. 234. Intercalated discs Papillary muscles Arterioles Lymphatics Capillaries A B C D E Pressure reduction Many valves Fenestrations Gap junctions Purkinje fibres 238.161 A B C D E Perikaryon Stretch receptors Dorsal root ganglia Olfactory neurons Autonomic ganglia 228. 251. 241. 225. 239. 250. 247. 252. 249. 242. 240. Myelin 231. 236. 227. Clara cells Dust cells Type I pneumocytes Type II pneumocytes Cartilage rings A B Squamous epithelium Extrapulmonary bronchi Respiratory bronchioles Surfactant Macrophages 248. 246. 226. 237. Dendrites 232. 224. 235. Neurofilaments 230. Rough endoplasmic reticulum 229. 244.

276. Spleen Lymph node Thymus Ileum Bursa of Fabricius A B C D E Cytotoxic lymphocytes Subcapsular sinus Peyer's patches Periarterial nodules B-lymphocytes 258. 266. 261. 277. Chief cells Parietal cells Brunner's glands Crypts of Lieberkuhn Taeniae coli A B C D E Canaliculi Submucosal Mitotic figures Colon Much rough endoplasmic reticulum 273. 271. 264. 281. 270. 260. Afferent arteriole Distal tubule Renal papilla Medullary rays Continuous with Bowman's capsule A B Macula densa Juxtaglomerular apparatus Minor calyx Collecting tubules None of the above 278. 256. 262. Mesangial cells Afferent arteriole Glomerular capillaries Podocytes Glomerular basement membrane A C D E B C D E Fenestrated endothelium Very thick Phagocytic Visceral epithelium of Bowman's capsule Juxtaglomerular cells . 254. Lymphatic capillary Lymph node Tonsils Thymus Thoracic duct A B C D E Medullary cords Cellular reticulum Simple valves Anchoring filaments Partially encapsulated 263.62 253. 274. 272. 257. 269. Lacteal Oxyntic cells Zymogenic cells Striated muscle Mucous glands A B C D E Hydrochloric acid Digestive enzymes Villus Pylorus Soft palate 268. 267. 282. 279. 255. 259. 275. 280. 265.

Is a barrier to the passage of lipid-soluble substances 305. 294. 301. 286. Is about 9 [im thick . 289. 287. 284. 285. indicate whether you think each statement is True or False: The cell membrane: 303. 296. Thyroid Adrenal medulla Pancreas Adrenal cortex Middle lobe of pituitary A B C 288. 290. Stem cells Corpus luteum Exocervix Graafian follicle Sperm head A Proliferative endometrium Secretory phase of cycle Acrosome Spermatogonia Stratified squamous epithelium D E B C D E Alpha cells Z o n a reticularis Melanocyte stimulating hormone Chromaffin cells Parafollicular cells Questions 303-417 In reply to the following questions. 300. Cumulus oophorus Vitelline membrane Perivitelline space Ampulla of oviduct Inner cell mass A B C D E First polar body Granulosa cells Embryoblast Plasmalemma Site of fertilization 298. 291. 295. 297. 292. Consists of a lipid bilayer with protein associated with both surfaces 304. Is not the same thing as the cell coat 307. 302. Has a higher concentration of sodium ions on its outer than on its inner surface 306. 299. Suprarenal cortex Suprarenal medulla Adenohypophysis Neurohypophysis Corpus luteum A B C D E Progesterone Cortisol Follicle stimulating hormone Adrenaline Oxytocin 293.163 283.

Can develop anywhere in the body where mesenchyme existed in the embryo Tendon: 328. Has a rich blood supply 325. Forms the epidermis Simple squamous epithelium: 318. Has a sympathetic nerve supply 326. Lines air sacs 319. Covers the ventral surface of the tongue 316. Lines the oesophagus 317. Lines all cavities of the cardiovascular system. Stores glycogen 311. Cannot undergo repair if severed . where it is called endothelium Adipose tissue: 323. Is studded with ribosomes Keratinized epithelium: 313. Is derived from embryonic ectoderm 324. Is a protective epithelium 321. Detoxifies drugs 309. Contains calcium ions 312. all running in the same direction and causing the cells to be distributed in a linear manner 331. Is usually secretory 322. Is a type of dense connective tissue adapted to weight-bearing 329. Is always stratified 314. Covers the soft palate completely 315. Has dense bundles of collagen. Synthesizes lipids 310. Has a rich blood supply 332. Develops from all three germ layers 320. Is primarily a cellular tissue with a protective function 330. Is a good insulator 327.164 Smooth endoplasmic reticulum: 308.

Increases in amount by both appositional and interstitial growth 336. Has a reticular fibre stroma 347. Has a poor blood supply 346. Contain myofilaments which are visible only with the electron microscope 350.165 Cartilage: 333. Is decalcified by cells rich in rough endoplasmic reticulum Myeloid tissue: 343. When first formed is always cancellous 342. is united to adjacent bones by syndesmoses 340. Form tight junctions with each other to aid in the transmission of waves of contraction In cardiac muscle: 353. Can be replaced by transformation of mesenchymal cells even in adult life 352. Is everywhere covered by perichondrium Bone: 338. Remain constant in size throughout life 351. remains permanently weaker 339. Is present in the iliac crest 344. Contains progenitor cells for T-lymphocytes 345. After fracture. Never forms a permanent structure 335. Peripheral nuclei are characteristic 354. Have a single nucleus located in the widest part of the cells 349. Cannot survive if invaded by blood capillaries 337. Contains megakarocytes Smooth muscle cells: 348. No striations are visible . Is an avascular tissue 334. O f the limbs is developed from lateral plate mesoderm 341. Many mitochondria are required 357. A rich nerve supply is seen 356. In the skull. Gap junctions permit intercellular communication 355.

Cardiac valves have a rich blood supply 372. Pacinian corpuscles are subcutaneous 364. Merkel cells are absent from the epidermis In the cardiovascular system: 368. Myenteric plexuses are found near epidermal ridges 367. The endoneurium is interrupted at nodes of Ranvier 359. Perineurium encloses fascicles 361. Ruffini endings occupy the deep dermis 365.166 In peripheral nerves: 358. Elastic laminae decrease in number in the aorta from birth onwards 375. Arterioles control the amount of blood going to a particular region. Schwann cell constitutes neurolemma 360. In general the walls of veins are thinner than those of their companion arteries In the circulatory system: 373. Veins have thick walls in relation to the size of the lumen of the vessel 377. Capillaries have no basement membrane . Conducting tissue can be found in the subendocardium 371. Heart valves have a core of cardiac muscle 376.g. Arterioles have a thick muscular media relative to the size of their lumina 370. Meissner's corpuscles may contain up to nine axons 366. There are no elastic fibres In skin innervation: 363. Veins can be distinguished from lymphatics by the absence of valves in the latter 369. The axolemma is the plasma membrane of an axon 362. the arm or the digestive system 374. e.

Participate in the immune response 390. Are present in lymph nodes In the intestine: 393.167 In the respiratory system: 378. The appendix has abundant lymphatic tissue 394. Nodules in lamina propria are encapsulated Plasma cells: 388. The spleen filters lymph 387. Are found in abundance beneath wet epithelial surfaces 391. The thymus does not produce plasma cells 385. The extrapulmonary subdivisions of the trachea have cartilage in their walls 379. Produce heparin and histamine 389. There are no taeniae in the ileum 397. There is a nerve plexus between the layers of the muscularis externa in the duodenum . The basement membrane is unusually prominent in the mucous membrane of the conducting portion of the system 380. Respiratory bronchioles are directly associated with air sacs In lymphatic tissue: 383. Elastic tissue is not a feature of the conducting portion of the system 381. There are no microvilli in the jejunum 396. Are absent from connective tissue underlying respiratory epithelium 392. The thymus has no lymphocytes at birth 384. The spleen can be identified by the presence of Hassal's corpuscles 386. There are no crypts of Lieberkuhn in the colon 395. The paranasal air sinuses have abundant goblet cells in their epithelial lining 382.

Has three zones in the medulla 411. Parathormone elevates serum calcium 405. Pubertal increase in size is mainly due to adipose tissue 415. Co-operates with the thyroid to control blood calcium levels 406. Secretes milk in response to adrenal cortical stimulation 416. Medulla is ectodermal 410. Contains chief cells which produce parathyroid hormone 404. Medullary cells are modified sympathetic neurons The mammary gland: 413.168 In the kidney: 398. resorb fluid 401. stimulated by antidiuretic hormone. Lies outside the true capsule of the thyroid The adrenal gland: 408. All renal corpuscles are in the cortex 402. The pelvis of the ureter is lined by transitional epithelium 400. Interlobar arteries are end arteries Parathyroid gland: 403. Contains about 20 compound exocrine glands 414. Has lactiferous ducts lined by a double layer of columnar cells 417. Cortex is of mesodermal origin 409. Has myoepithelial cells surrounding the secretory units . Podocytes line collecting ducts 399. Collecting ducts. Cortex has poor blood supply 412. Diminishes renal tubular absorption of calcium 407.

from the choices given below: A B C D E F G Osteoclast Epiphyseal plate Z o n e of proliferating cartilage Epiphysis Osteoblast Nerve Diaphysis H J K L M N O Myeloid tissue Zone of calcified cartilage Z o n e of maturing cartilage Metaphysis Artery Trabeculum Fibrocartilage .169 Developing bone Identify the numbered structures.

from the choices given below: A B C D Cortical bone Trabeculated bone Nerve Annulus fibrosus E F G H Nucleus pulposus Hyaline cartilage Myeloid tissue Tendon .170 Intervertebral disc Identify the numbered structures.

171 Larynx Identify the numbered structures. from the choices given below: A B C D E Lymphoid tissue Stratified squamous epithelium Vocal fold Vestibular fold Thyroid cartilage F G H J K Ciliated columnar epithelium Thyroid gland Saccule Striated muscle Mucous gland .

172 Lung Identify the numbered structures. from the choices given below: A B C D E F Alveolus Branch of pulmonary artery Tracheal ring Alveolar duct Branch bronchus Alveolar sac G H J K L M Bronchiole Capillary Type I pneumocyte Type II pneumocyte Main bronchus Macrophage .

173 Spleen 454 Identify the numbered structures. from the choices given below: A B C D E Central artery Subcapsular sinus Trabecular vein Germinal centre Marginal zone F G H J K Trabecular artery Hassars corpuscle Capsule Red pulp White pulp .

from the choices given below: A B C D E Dentin Ameloblasts Enamel space Nerve Pulp F G H J K Odontoblasts Lymphatic vessel Cementocytes Bone Epithelial diaphragm .174 Developing tooth Identify the numbered structures.

175 Stomach 464 465 Identify the numbered structures. from the choices given below: A B C D E F Gastric pit Auerbach's plexus Ruga Parietal (oxyntic) cells Chief (zymogenic) cells Submucosa G H J K L M Inner oblique muscle Mucous cell Muscularis mucosae Meissner's plexus Villus Lacteal .

from the choices given below: A B C D E Muscularis mucosae Muscularis externa Brunner's glands Pancreas Villus F G H J K Lacteal Wirsung's duct Crypt of Lieberkuhn Enteroendocrine cells Islets of Langerhans . 477 476 475 Identify the numbered structures.176 Duodenum 472.

from the choices given below: A B C D E Rough endoplasmic reticulum Smooth endoplasmic reticulum Microvillus Junctional complex Centriole F G H J K Golgi complex Forming vesicle Lysome Acinar cell Zymogen granules .177 Pancreas Identify the numbered structures.

178 Vermiform appendix Identify the numbered structures. from the choices given below: A B C D Mesentery Crypt Serosa Lacteal E F G H Peyer's patch Germinal centre Muscularis mucosae Longitudinal muscle .

179 Kidney Identify the numbered structures. from the choices given below: A B C D E F Papilla Minor calyx Renal vein Renal pelvis LoopofHenle Pyramid G H J K L M Interlobar artery Distal convoluted tubule Collecting duct Interlobular artery Renal corpuscle Arcuate artery .

180 Ureter Identify the numbered structures. from the choices given below: A B C D Transitional epithelium Lamina propria Circular muscle Vein E F C H Adventitia Longitudinal muscle Meissner's plexus Stellate lumen .

181 Ovary Identify the numbered structures. from the choices given below: A B C D E Granulosa cells (follicular) Primary oocyte Stroma Antrum Cumulus oophorus F G H J K Theca interna Theca externa Sertoli cells Secondary follicle Capsule .

from the choices given below: A B C D E Colloid Septa Follicle True capsule Cuboidal epithelium F G H J Lymphatic tissue Pretracheal fascia Blood vessel Parafollicular cell .182 Thyroid gland Identify the numbered structures.

from the choices given below: A B C D E Chromaffin cells Z o n a reticularis Medulla Secretory veiscles Z o n a glomerulosa F G H J K Capsule Islets Bloodvessel Cortex Zona fasciculata .183 Adrenal gland 521 527 Identify the numbered structures.

from the choices given below: A B C D E Sweat gland Dermis Striated muscle Pacinian corpuscle Sebaceous gland F G H J Arrectorpili Hypodermis External root sheath Epidermis .184 Skin Identify the numbered structures.

from the choices given below: A B C D E Intralobular duct Suspensory ligament Lactiferous sinus Secretion Intralobar duct F G H J K Alveoli Fat Pectoralis major Pectoral fascia Sweat gland .185 Lactating breast Identify the numbered structures.

186 Anterior part of eye 550 Identify the numbered structures. from the choices given below: A B C D E Ciliary muscle Cornea Retina Posterior chamber Anterior chamber F G H J K Sphincter pupillae Dilator pupillae Lens Ciliary process Sinus venosus sclerae (canal of Schlemm) .

from the choices given below: A B C D Scala vestibuli Scala tympani Cochlea duct Basilar membrane E F G H Stria vascularis Tectorial membrane Vestibular membrane Tunnel of Corti .187 Cochlea Identify the numbered structures.

35. 114. 72. A B D B B A A A B C D D A B D B B C C D D B A C C B B C A D C D C C C D D D D A C C 84. 96. 86. 59. 44. 122. 47. 123. 88. 22. 51. 4. 24. 33. 2. 21. 13. 82.188 Answers 1. 55. 48. 104. 25. 28. 111. 18. 61. A D E B E D C A D C A C C E E A D D A E B E A E B A A D 29. 16. 102. 19. 17. 85. 77. 101. 94. 11. 98. 54. 14. 31. 45. B A B C C B C B B B A D D D C B C D B C A B B A B A A C D C D B A C C A D C C A C D . 41. 95. 27. 53. 3. 49. 100. 39. 20. 7. 63. 124. 106. 113. 97. 78. 110. 121. 76. 26. 40. 81. 66. 112. 57. 60. 64. 71. 38. 58. 34. 23. 93. 12. 30. 92. 73. 120. 99. 5. 65. 36. 87. 91. 75. 108. 9. A D D B B B A D C D B B B 42. 56. 105. 15. 69. 107. 46. 117. 52. 116. 10. 80. 83. 50. 37. 90. 62. 119. 67. 103. 68. 43. 89. 32. 118. 8. 6. 79. 125. 115. 74. 70. 109.

197. 171. 245. 209. 161. 150. 156. 155. 247. 234. 201. 251. 237. D E B A C A B C D E C B D E A E B A C D E D B C A C A D E B B E C A D A B D C E D A B C 213. 151. 148. 162. 211. 193. 238. 243. 246. 159. 163. 146. 130. 167. 214. 143. 195. 182. 207. 244. 203. 233. 224. 166. 222. 196. 225. 170. 185. 133. 173. 217. 210. 223. 132. 219. 178. 138. 215. C A D C B D C B A B D B A C D C E E D B B B C A B C D A 169. 180. 142. 199. 160. 127. 206. 157. 174. 176. 177. 192. 231. 181. 189. 194. 239. 179. 229. 152. 186. 153. 188. 147. 139. 216. 168. 226. 131. 187. 212. 164. 137. 253. 175. 241. 149. B A D C B C B D D A C B A D B 141. 134. 254. 172. 250. 165. 249. 255. 202. C E B A D B A C E D B C D E A E C A D B D E A B C B E D A C C E A D B D A B C E D B A C . 140. 129. 135. 190.189 126. 242. 220. 221. 154. 200. 228. 240. 136. 248. 158. 230. 232. 183. 252. 204. 256. 198. 191. 218. 128. 235. 205. 208. 184. 227. 145. 236. 144.

335. 351. 308. 325. 304. 297. 268. 283. 339. 382. 352. 358. 280. 311. 290. 361. 367. 331. 282. 292. 378. 338. 369. 267. 364. 320. 355. 354. 384. 350. 326. 314. 332. 307. E D A E B C C A B E D E A B C D B A C D E C E A D B E D A B C B D C E A B D A E C D B E 301. 333. 317. 270. 309. 348. 385. 359. 380. 276. 299. 295. 374. 328. 278. 323. 296. 264. 343. 381. 279. 373. 324. 277. 356. 337. 310. C 303. 285. 371. 336. 322. 288. 360. 300. 334. 368. 383. 273. 259. 291. 349. 269. 376. 265. 365. 330. 286. 353. 386. 342. 372. 387. 305. 293. 316.190 257. 271. 318. 363. T F T T T T F T F F T F T F F T T T F T T T F F F T T F T F F F F F T T F F T F T F F F . 327. 261. 289. 329. 281. 357. 370. 377. 294. 284. 347. A 302. 298. 319. T F T T F T T T T F T F F F T T T F F T F T T T F F F T F F T F T T F F T T T F T 344. 321. 345. 366. 306. 258. 313. 312. 346. 263. 375. 287. 315. 362. 266. 274. 262. 272. 260. 379. 340. 275. 341.

396. 464. 440. G B E J K M A D 449. 443. 413. 488. 411. 495. 425. 454. 437. 451. 397. 410. 497. 426. 395. 446. 472. B 431. 476. G 470. H E A B F C . 499. 483. 389. 496. 423. 462. C A H D E 468. 461. 458. 453. 414. 503. 404. 502. D B L K C J E N H A 428. G 433. B C A G K D E 463. 435. 504. 445. 390. 393. A D F J L H K E 500. 494. E 429. 447. D 418. F T T F T T F F T T F T T T T T T T T T T T F F T T T F T T 430. 401. 487. 489. 444. 394. 400. 467. 460. 490. 399. J 471. 438. 416. 485. 442. 409. 501. 459. 415. 434. 498. 455. F 469. B H A G C F 492. 491. 493. 465. 484. 474. 403. 457. 448. 424. 450.191 388. F K A D H B J E 441. D K C G H A J F 486. 391. 480. 466. 427. 407. 479. 477. E H J F D C A 456. 417. 398. 481. F 432. A E F H B C D 478. 420. 473. 392. 422. 402. 408. 419. 505. 452. 482. 412. 475. 421. 406. 405. 436. 439.

509. 511. 547. 541. K B H A C 529. 535. 507. 528. G 544. 534. B K A C J D F 551. 537. 553. 558. 515. 554. 539. 520. 546. G D C J A E H 521. 527. 550. 510. 526. A C B G E D F H . 532. 549. B A J F E H G 536. 555. 557. 513. 516. 533. 519. 531. E 524. 518. 517. F E A G C B D J 514. 540. 525. 556. 545. F 523. B 543. 508. 512. 530. 548.192 506. J 522. F E C K D A 542. 552. 538.

The chromosomal formula of the oocyte at ovulation: A 44 autosomes and 2 X chromosomes B 45 autosomes and 1 X chromosome C 22 autosomes and 1 Y chromosome D 22 autosomes and 1 X chromosome E 44 autosomes and 2 Y chromosomes 2. The ovum is surrounded by a non-cellular.IX EMBRYOLOGY Questions 1-37 For each of the following multiple choice questions select the one most appropriate answer: 1. secreted layer known as the: A Corona radiata B Theca folliculi C Zona pellucida D Cumulus oophorus E Stratum granulosum 193 . Following ovulation the ovum is viable for up to: A O n e hour B Twenty-four hours C Three days D Four days E Seven days 3.

194
4.

The spermatozoon is usually viable within the female genital
tract for up to:
A
O n e hour
B
Twenty-four hours
C
Forty-eight hours
D
Four days
E
Seven days

5.

The usual number of days between fertilization and the
commencement of implantation is:
A
One
B
Three
C
Six
D
Ten
E
Fourteen

6.

The fertilized ovum is completely implanted in the
endometrium by the end of the — day after fertilization:
A
Third
B
Seventh
C
Fourteenth
D
Twenty-first
E
Twenty-eighth

7.

Fraternal twins may arise by:
A
Simultaneous fertilization of two ova
B
Division of a single fertilized ovum
C
Duplication of the embryoblast
D
Duplication of the primitive streak
E
All of the above mechanisms

8.

The uterine cavity is obliterated during pregnancy by fusion
of:
A
Chorion frondosum and decidua basalis
B
Decidua capsularis and decidua parietalis
C
Amnion and decidua capsularis
D
Amnion and chorion
E
Endometrium and myometrium

195
9.

The embryo is called a fetus after the:
A
Third week
B
Eighth week
C
Twelfth week
D
Sixteenth week
E
Twenty-eighth week

10.

At the rostral end of the primitive streak lies the primitive:
A
Spot
B
Node
C
Notochord
D
Plate
E
Groove

11.

At the caudal end of the primitive steak, ectoderm and
endoderm meet at the:
A
Notochordal canal
B
Coelom
C
Cloacal membrane
D
Neural groove
E
Notochord

12.

The neural crest separates off from the:
A
Neural groove
B
Neural fold
C
Neural tube
D
Neurenteric canal
E
Neuropore

13.

Segmentation is observed in the — mesoderm:
A
Paraxial
B
Intermediate
C
Lateral plate
D
Splanchnic
E
Branchial

196
14.

The embryonic coelom is formed between the layers of the:
A
Ectoderm
B
Mesoderm
C
Endoderm
D
Somatopleure
E
Splanchnopleure

15.

The mesenchymal vertebrae are formed from:
A
Sclerotomes
B
Myotomes
C
Dermatomes
D
Notochord
E
Cartilage rudiments

16.

At birth, the normal umbilical cord contains:
A
Two umbilical veins
B
The vitelline duct
C
The ductus venosus
D
Two umbilical arteries
E
Theallantois

17.

The oral (buccopharyngeal) membrane separates:
A
Amniotic sac from yolk sac
B
Nasal cavity from oral cavity
C
Proctodeum from hindgut
D
Larynx from pharynx
E
Stomodeum from foregut

18.

The urorectal septum divides the cloaca into:
A
Rectum and urogenital sinus
B
Rectum and bladder
C
Bladder and allantois
D
Hindgut and bladder
E
Urethra and anal canal

19.

The cloaca,of the embryo contributes to the:
A
Bladder
B
Ureter
C
Descending colon
D
Permanent kidney
E
Spinal cord

197
20.

The conus regions of both cardiac ventricles are derived from:
A
Sinus venosus
B
Primitive atrium
C
Primitive ventricle
D
Bulbus cordis
E
Truncus arteriosus

21.

Ductus venosus connects:
A
Umbilical vein to sinus venosus
B
Right to left umbilical vein
C
Pulmonary trunk to aorta
D
Right to left atrium
E
Hepatic veins to inferior vena cava

22.

The ligamentum arteriosum is derived from the:
A
Ductus arteriosus
B
Glomus arteriosus
C
C o n u s arteriosus
D
Truncus arteriosus
E
Umbilical artery

23.

The inguinal canal is created by:
A
Gubernaculum of gonad
B
Processus vaginalis
C
Descent of the gonad
D
Spermatic cord
E
External spermatic fascia

24.

The mesonephric duct persists as the:
A
Uterine tube
B
Round ligament of uterus
C
Ureter
D
Ductus (vas) deferens
E
Nephrons

25.

The mesonephros is the permanent kidney of:
A
Fishes
B
Amphibia
C
All mammals
D
Primates only
E
Man only

An ectopic testis may be found in the: A Pelvis B Superficial inguinal ring C Inguinal canal D Scrotum E Perineum 30.198 26. The commonest malformation of the kidney is: A Horseshoe kidney B Congenital cystic kidney C Partial duplication D Unilateral agenesis E Failure of ascent 29. Origin from second (hyoid) branchial arch: A Trapezius B Temporalis C Occipitofrontalis D Lingual musculature E Lower teeth . Derived from the vitelline duct: A Ductus venosus B Portal vein C Gall bladder D Duodenum E Meckel's diverticulum 27. The two embryonic portions of the permanent human kidney are: A Mesonephros and metanephros B Mesonephric duct and metanephros C Metanephric cap and mesonephric duct D Metanephric cap and ureteric diverticulum E Ureteric diverticulum and nephrogenic cord 28.

Bone ossified from a cartilaginous precursor: A Frontal B Parietal C Zygomatic D Maxilla E None of the above 33. The somatic efferent cell column of the primitive neural tube occupies the: A Roof plate B Floor plate C Alar lamina D Basal lamina E Marginal layer .199 31. The sulcus limitans of the developing neural tube separates: A Alar lamina from basal lamina B The alar laminae C The basal laminae D Ependymal layer from mantle layer E Mantle layer from marginal layer 34. The cephalic flexure of the brain occurs in the region of: A Medulla oblongata B Pons C Midbrain D Diencephalon E Telencephalon 35. The premaxilla is formed from the: A Medial nasal processes B The maxillary processes C The lingual swellings D The mandibular arch E The nasal septum 32.

The last descending tract to undergo myelination: A Rubrospinal B Tectospinal C Olivospinal D Corticospinal E Reticulospinal Questions 3 8 .4 6 The set of lettered headings below is followed by a list of numbered words or phrases. Developmentally. 41.200 36. For each numbered word or phrase select the correct answer under: A B C D If If If If A B C D 38. 40. the the the the item item item item is associated with A only is associated with B only is associated with both A and B is associated with neither A nor B Oxygenated blood Reduced blood Both Neither Ductus venosus Umbilical vein Umbilical artery Vitelline duct . 39. the corpus striatum belongs to the: A Telencephalon B Diencephalon C Mesencephalon D Metencephalon E Myelencephalon 37.

Amniotic epithelium 2. Syncytiotrophoblast 4. Lamina densa 49. The following structure(s) separate(s) fetal from maternal blood in the mature placenta: 1. Endoderm 4. Ventral mesogastrlum Dorsal mesogastrium Both Neither Lesser omentum Greater omentum Falciform ligament Gastrosplenic ligament Lienorenal ligament Questions 4 7 . Component(s) of a tertiary chorionic villus: 1. Fetal capillary endothelium 2. Ectoderm 2. 44. Lacunae 4. 43. 46. 45. Answer A if 1. Trophoblast 48. Mesoderm 3.201 A B C D 42. Component(s) of the oral membrane: 1. Maternal capillary endothelium 3. one or more of the four items is/are correct.6 3 Directions: In the following series of questions. Notochord . 2 and 3 are correct B if 1 and 3 are correct C if 2 and 4 are correct D if only 4 is correct and E if all four are correct 47. Fetal vessels 3.

Derived from septum transversum: 1. Pulmonary trunk 2. Ventral mesogastrium 3. Sinusvenarum 2. Coronary sinus 4. Ductus arteriosus 54. Appendix 4. Derived from sinus venosus: 1. Derived from the cloaca: 1. Dorsal mesocardium . Rectum 2. The developing diaphragm receives contributions from the: 1. Central tendon of diaphragm 3. Pancreas 3. Pleuroperitoneal membranes 4. Bladder 3. Ascending aorta 4. Transverse sinus of pericardium 4. Definitive kidney (metanephros) 55. Urethra 4. Superior vena cava 53. Allantois 51. Septum transversum 2. Coronary arteries 3. Musculature of diaphragm 2. Stomach 2. Left atrium 3. Connective tissue of liver 52.202 50. Derived from truncus arteriosus: 1. Organ(s) developing from two primordia: 1.

Lower respiratory tract 57. Greater omentum 58. Laryngocoele 3. Falciform ligament 2. Neural tube 3. Thyroid gland 3. Melanocytes 4. Ductus deferens 59. Branchial cyst 2. Major calyces 2.203 56. Nephrons 60. Lesser omentum 4. Derived from mesonephric duct: 1. The dorsal mesentery of the primitive gut gives rise to the: 1. Innerear 4. Seminiferous tubules 3. Spinal ganglia 2. Ventral horn cells 61. Anterior lobe of hypophysis 2. Derived from ureteric bud: 1. Cystic hygroma 4. Remnant(s) of embryonic thyroid outgrowth from the pharynx: 1. The foregut of the embryo gives rise to the: 1. Lienorenal ligament 3. Round ligament of uterus 4. Minor calyces 3. Collecting ducts 4. Uterine tube 2. Derived from neural crest: 1. Pyramidal lobe .

3. Soft palate Masseter External acoustic meatus Tympanic cavity Orbicularis oris A B C D E Maxillary process Mandibular arch First pharyngeal cleft First pharyngeal pouch Hyoid arch 77. . 71. 76. 70. For each heading select the one word or phrase which is most closely related to it. Muscles of facial expression 3.7 8 The group of questions below consists of numbered headings. Derived from second branchial arch: 1. 73. Styloid process of temporal bone 63. cells of ectodermal origin: Ependymal cells Astrocytes Oligodendrocytes Microglia Questions 6 4 . 2. 65. Vitelline duct Mesonephric duct Paramesonephric duct Metanephric duct Allantois A B C D E Uterine tube Ureter Urachus Meckel's diverticulum Vas deferens 74. 75. Muscles of mastication 2. 64. 67. 66. followed by a list of lettered words or phrases. Ramus of mandible 4. Note: Each choice may be used only once. 68. 72. Ventral mesogastrium Dorsal mesogastrium Primitive dorsal mesentery Umbilical artery Umbilical vein A B C D E Ligamentum teres Falciform ligament Greater omentum Lateral umbilical ligament Sigmoid mesocolon 69. 78. Glial 1. 4.204 62.

205 Questions 7 9 . as an abnormality In the developing limb 89. Is inconstant 88. Occurs during the middle three months of gestation 86. Blood pressure is higher in the right atrium than in the left 82. Mitoses are scarce in the apical ectodermal ridge (crest) 90. May persist until birth.9 3 In reply to the following questions indicate whether you think each statement is True or False: In the developing heart: 79. Is reduced as the level of the diaphragm rises within the abdomen 87. Removal of the apical ridge causes cessation of limb growth 91. Deoxygenated blood from the right atrium passes mainly into the right ventricle The 'physiological umbilicaf hernia' of the fetus: 84. Most of the limb muscles develop in situ 92. Ossification of the carpus begins before birth . Contains the fetal stomach 85. Cell degeneration is important in development of the digits 93. The sinus venosus contributes to the formation of both atria 80. A left-to-right shunt occurs through the foramen ovale 83. Most of the left atrium is formed from primitive pulmonary veins 81.

206 Embryo in utero Identify the numbered structures. from the choices given below: A B C D Chorion laeve Chorion frondosum Decidua capsularis Amnion E F G H Decidua basalis Myometrium Decidua parietalis Yolk sac remnant .

from the choices given below: A B C D E Notochord Septum transversum Neural tube Cloaca Allantois F G H J K Foregut Midgut Truncus arteriosus Stomodeum Vitelline duct .207 Sagittal section of embryo 101 102 103 Identify the numbered structures.

208 Section of embryo Identify the numbered structures. from the choices given below: A B C D E Neural crest Notochord Skin ectoderm Aorta Intermediate mesoderm F G H J K Gut Sinus venosus Paraxial mesoderm Coelom Extraembryonic mesoderm .

209 Early placenta Identify the numbered structures. from the choices given below: A B C D E Amnion Extraembryonic mesoderm Syncytiotrophoblast Fetal capillary Myometrium F G H J K Allantois Intervillous space Cytotrophoblast Placental barrier Decidua basalis .

F T T F 83. 3. 76. 6. B C E D A D E A B C A B C D E 79. 113. 110. 85. 103. 95. 36. 50. 23. 86. 53. F E H D A C 100. 112. 12. 62. 57. 22. 122.210 Answers 1. B G D C H K E . 2. 117. 74. 87. 19. 61. 97. 105. 34. 81. 70. 52. 67. 10. 37. 51. 59. 82. 102. 17. 58. 63. 29. 104. 101. 32. 21. 93. 75. 89. 13. 71. 120. 54. A C C C C C A B B B C B A B A D E A A D A A A D B E D C E C A E A C D A D 38. 8. 24. 18. B A B B 47. 4. 27. 92. 56. 106. F H C A D E K B J 109. 5. 98. 84. 121. 20. 114. 66. 78. 96. 30. A H D J F E B 116. 115. 49. 88. 25. 15. A A B D A 43. 68. 45. 99. 41. 118. 35. 7. 55. 16. 72. 107. 14. 9. 31. 119. 26. 40. 44. 90. C B B A C B B C B C C D A B D C A 64. 69. T F F F F T T T T T F 94. 60. 46. 48. 73. 108. 33. 65. 11. 42. 39. 77. 28. 91. 80. 111.

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