Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

---------------------------------------------------------------INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each
item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO
ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only.
---------------------------------------------------------------1.

What is the duration of Arresto Mayor as a penalty?

A. One day to thirty days
B. As the court may determine
C. Six months and one day to six years
D. One month and one day to six months

2.

If the convict has no property with which to meet the fine of his pecuniary liabilities, he shall be subject to
__.
A. Accessory penalty
B. Preventive imprisonment
C. Subsidiary penalty
D. Afflictive penalty

3.

One by which a party sues another for the enforcement or protection of a right or the prevention or
redress of a wrong. What is being defined?
A. Civil action
B. Criminal action
C. Special proceedings
D. Remedial action

4.

It is the method prescribed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of persons accused of any
criminal offense, and their punishment, in case of conviction.
A. Criminal Law
B. Criminal Procedure
C. Criminal Evidence
D. Remedial Law

5.

It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend and testify at the hearing or trial or the trial of
an action or at any investigation conducted by competent authority or the taking of his deposition.
A. Summons
B. Subpoena
C. Court Order
D. Warrant

6.

It is an accusation in writing charging a person with an offense, subscribed by the prosecutor and filed
with the court.
A. Information
B. Mittimus
C. Court Order
D. Complaint

7.

___ is one by which the State prosecutes a person for an act or omission punishable by law.
A. Civil Action
B. Remedial Action
C. Criminal Action
D. Power of the State

8.

It is concerned with the procedural steps through which a criminal case passes, commencing with the
initial investigation of a crime and concluding with the unconditional release of the offender. What is being
defined?
A. Criminal Procedure
B. Criminal Evidence
C. Criminal Law

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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

D. Remedial Law
9.

It is a writ addressed to the defendant, directing him to answer within the time prescribed by the rules the
complaint filed against him by the plaintiff, with a notice that unless he so answers, plaintiff will take
judgment by default and maybe granted the relief applied for.
A. Court Order
B. Summons
C. Subpoena
D. Warrant

10. __ are remedies by which a party seeks to establish a status, a right, or a particular fact.
A. Criminal Action
B. Special proceedings
C. Administrative case
D. None of the above
11.

It is a generic term used to describe the network of laws and rules which govern the procedural
administration of criminal justice.
A. Criminal Law
B. Criminal Evidence
C. Criminal Procedure
D. Remedial Law

12.

What is called the authority to hear and decide a particular offense and impose punishment for it?
A. Criminal Evidence
B. Criminal Jurisdiction
C. Power of the Court
D. Juridical Power

13.

The facts alleged in the complaint and the laws in force at the time of the commencement of the action
determine the jurisdiction of a court. This statement is
A. Correct, as it is a general rule
B. Incorrect, as not one among the rules
C. It depends on the judge to consider
D. It depends on the law existing at the time of application

14.

It is the process of resolving a dispute or a grievance outside of the court by presenting it to a third party
or a panel decision.
A. Mediation
B. Arbitration
C. Amicable settlement
D. Negotiation

15.

In Katarungang Pambarangay proceedings, may the parties appear with the assistance of their counsel?
A. Yes, because of their right to have counsel
B. No, appearance of a lawyer in all Patarungang Pambarangay proceedings is prohibited
C. Yes, at the prerogative of each party
D. No, unless the lupon chairman allows it

16.

It is a sworn written statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed by the offended party, any
peace officer, or other public officer charge with the enforcement of the law violated.
A. Subpoena
B. Warrant
C. Complaint
D. Summons

17.

Under the rules, all criminal actions commenced by a complaint or information shall be prosecuted under
the direction and control of the ___.
A. Judge

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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

B. Policeman
C. Prosecutor
D. Lupon chairman
18.

As an exception to the rule, in Municipal Trial Courts or Municipal Circuit Trial Courts when the
prosecutor assigned thereto or to the case is not available, the following can prosecute the case, except A. the MTC judge
B. the offended party
C. any peace officer
D. public officer charged with enforcement of the law violated

19.

In the crimes of adultery and concubinage, it shall not be prosecuted except upon a complaint filed by
A. the offended spouse
B. parents of offended spouse
C. guardian of offended party
D. grandparents of offended party

20.

For a complaint or information to be sufficient, it must state the following, except

A. the name of the accused
B. the designation of the offense
C. the acts or omissions complained of
D. the age of the offended party

21.

When an offense is committed by more than one person, all of them shall be included in the complaint or
information. This statement is
A. correct
B. not necessary, under the rules
C. incorrect
D. doubtful

22.

The rule provides that the complaint or information must state the name and surname of the accused or
any appellation or nickname by which he has been or is known. What if his name cannot be ascertained?
The rule says A. leave the name blank to be supplied later on
B. the name juan de la cruz should be used
C. he must be described under a fictitious name with a statement that his true name is unknown
D. the name john doe should be entered

23.

The rule provides that the complaint or information shall state the designation of the offense given by the
statute, aver the acts or omissions constituting the offense, and specify its qualifying and aggravating
circumstances. If there is no designation of the offense, then
A. reference shall be made to the section or subsection of the statute punishing it
B. reference shall be based on the provisions of the Revised Penal Code
C. reference shall be made on the basis of special laws
D. reference shall be made in accordance with the civil code

24.

The acts or omissions complained of as constituting the offense and the qualifying and aggravating
circumstances must be stated in ordinary and
A. shall be translated to Tagalong or Ilocano dialect
B. concise language
C. not necessarily in the language used in the statue
D. as long as the person know what offense is being charged

25.

The complaint or information is sufficient if it can be understood from its allegations that the offense was
committed or some of its essential ingredients occurred at some place within
A. the locality
B. the reach of coverage area
C. the jurisdiction of the court
D. the identification of the person

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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

26.

It is not necessary to state in the complaint or information the precise date the offense was committed
except
A. when it is a material ingredient of the offense
B. when the offense may be alleged to have been committed on a date as near as possible to the
actual date of its commission
C. Both A and B are correct
D. when date is clearly known

27.

Where an offense is committed in a train, aircraft, or other public or private vehicle in the course of its
trip, the criminal action shall be instituted
A. at the nearest RTC where such train, aircraft, or other vehicle passed during its trip.
B. at the nearest MTC where such train, aircraft, or other vehicle passed during its trip.
C. under the prerogative of the prosecutor
D. in the court of any municipality or territory where such train, aircraft, or other vehicle passed
during its trip, including the place of its departure and arrival.

28.

A complaint or information is sufficient in substance if it doesnt contain any of the defects which is a
ground for a motion to quash. A motion to quash, once granted, is equivalent to dismissal, but not
acquittal. This statement is
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
C. Sometimes correct
D. Sometimes incorrect

29.

If acquittal is based on the merits of the case, dismissal is based on ___.

A. crime committed
B. technicality
C. judges prerogative
D. lack of evidence

30.

It is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well-founded

belief that a crime has been committed and the respondent is probably guilty thereof, and should be held
for trial.
A. Prejudicial question
B. Double jeopardy
C. Preliminary Investigation
D. Probe

31.

A preliminary investigation is required to be conducted before the filing of a complaint or information for
an offense where the penalty prescribed by law is
A. Capital punishment
B. Life imprisonment
C. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one (1) day without regard to the fine
D. prision mayor to reclusion perpetua

32.

Which among the following is not authorized to conduct preliminary investigation?

A. National and Regional State Prosecutors
B. Provincial or City Prosecutors
C. Judges of lower courts
D. City Assistant Prosecutors

33.

Within how many days after the filing of the complaint, the investigating officer either dismiss or issue a
subpoena to the respondent?
A. 10 days, according to the procedures
B. 15 days, according to the rules
C. 20 days, according to the judge
D. At any time, according to the prosecutor

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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

34.

Within how many days from receipt of the subpoena with the complaint and supporting affidavits and
documents, the respondent should submit his counter-affidavit and that of his witnesses and other
supporting documents relied upon for his defense?
A. 10 days, according to the procedures
B. 15 days, according to the rules
C. 20 days, according to the judge
D. At any time, according to the prosecutor

35.

Within how many days after the investigation, the investigating officer should determine whether or not
there is sufficient ground to hold the respondent for trial?
A. 10 days, according to the procedures
B. 15 days, according to the rules
C. 20 days, according to the judge
D. At any time, according to the prosecutor

36.

An arrest is made by an actual restraint of a person to be arrested, or by

A. recognizance
B. way of probation
C. his submission to the custody of the person making the arrest
D. voluntary detention

37.

The duty of the officer executing the warrant to arrest the accused is to
A. detain the arrested person within the time prescribed by law
B. deliver him to the nearest police station or jail without unnecessary delay
C. conduct preliminary investigation
D. lock up the person to the detention cell for safekeeping

38.

Are there how many Justices of the Supreme Court of the Philippines?
A. 13 Justices excluding the Chief Justice
B. 15 Justices including the Chief Justice
C. 16 Justices including the Chief Justice
D. 12 Justices excluding the Chief Justice

39.

The head of the office to whom the warrant of arrest was delivered for execution shall cause the warrant to
be executed within ten (10) days from its receipt. Within ten (10) days after the expiration of the period,
the officer to whom it was assigned for execution should
A. make a follow up investigation on the progress of the execution of the warrant
B. make a report to the judge who issued the warrant
C. execute the warrant by himself
D. apply to the court for another warrant

40.

When the person to be arrested is a prisoner who has escaped from a penal establishment or place where
he is serving final judgment or is temporarily confined while his case is pending, or has escaped while
being transferred from one confinement to another, there is no need for a warrant of arrest. This
statement is
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
C. Sometimes correct
D. Sometimes incorrect

41.

It is now a settled rule that the time of making arrest can be made during the day and at any time of the
day only. This statement is
A. True
B. False
C. It depends upon the judge
D. It depends upon the arresting officer

42.

When making an arrest by virtue of a warrant, the officer shall inform the person to be arrested of the
cause of the arrest and the fact that a warrant has been issued for his arrest, except

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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

A.
B.
C.
D.

when he flees or forcibly resists before the officer has opportunity to so inform him
when the giving of such information will imperil the arrest.
Both A and B are correct
voluntary surrender

43.

An officer, in order to make an arrest either by virtue of a warrant, or without a warrant, may break into
any building or enclosure where the person to be arrested is or is reasonably believed to be, if he is refused
admittance thereto, after announcing his authority and purpose. Is this allowed?
A. No, it is a violation of domicile
B. No, it is trespass to dwelling
C. Yes, it is in accordance with the rules
D. Yes, according to the judge

44.

If a person lawfully arrested escapes or is rescued, any person may immediately pursue or retake him
without a warrant at any time and in any place within the Philippines. This statement is
A. Correct, in accordance with the rules
B. Incorrect, it is baseless
C. Sometimes correct, when the person is unidentified
D. Sometime incorrect, unless with a valid search warrant

45.

A restraint on person, depriving one of his own will and liberty, binding him to become obedient to the will
of the law. What is being defined?
A. Custody
B. Arrest
C. Search
D. Seizure

46.

What is the literal meaning of the Latin phrase In flagrante delicto?

A. caught in the act of wrong
B. hot pursuit of a person
C. delicate flower flagrance
D. in the name of the people

47.

For purposes of search and seizure, the officer can break into any building or enclosure without violating
the right of privacy. Is this allowed?
A. No, never allowed.
B. Yes, when there is consent and there is a warrant
C. No, this is allowed only in making an arrest not search
D. It all depends on the officer thru police discretion

48.

It is the security given for the release of a person in custody of the law, furnished by him or a bondsman, to
guarantee his appearance before any court as required under the conditions hereinafter specified.
A. Recognizance
B. Probation
C. Republic Act 5487
D. Bail

49.

The failure of the accused to appear at the trial without justification and despite due notice shall be
deemed a waiver of his right to be present thereat. In such case, should the trial proceed?
A. Yes, the trial may proceed in absentia
B. No, because of the absence of the accused
C. No, anyway there is always bail as security
D. Yes, upon the order of the high court

50.

When an accused is represented by a fake lawyer who pretended to be a member of the bar, his right to
counsel is violated, unless
A. the fake lawyer is a person of probity
B. the accused voluntarily chose him knowing him to be a non-lawyer
C. the court allows it

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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

D. the public attorneys office is informed

51.

On arraignment, the accused must be arraigned before

A. the prosecutor who conducted preliminary investigation
B. the Regional Trial Court
C. the court where the complaint or information was filed or assigned for trial
D. the Supreme Court

52.

It is an order in writing issued in the name of the People of the Philippines, signed by a judge and directed
to a peace officer, commanding him to search for personal property described therein and bring it before
the court.
A. Warrant of Arrest
B. Search Warrant
C. Bench Warrant
D. Court Order

53.

Before arraignment, the court shall inform the accused of his right to counsel and ask him if he desires to
have one. Unless the accused is allowed to defend himself in person or has employed counsel of his choice
A. the court shall suspend the trial until the accused picked his lawyer
B. the court must assign a counsel de oficto to defend him
C. the court proceed with the trial in the absence of a lawyer
D. the court will impose judgement on merits of the case

54.

The initial step in a criminal prosecution whereby the defendant is brought before the court to hear the
charges and to enter a plea is called
A. Pleadings
B. Plea Bargaining
C. Arraignment
D. Preliminary Investigation

55.

At what time the accused may move to quash the complaint or information?
A. At any time before entering a plea
B. 10 days before the date of trial
C. 15 days immediately after plea bargaining
D. 10 days upon receipt of information by the court

56.

After a plea of not guilty is entered, the accused shall have __________ to prepare for trial. The trial shall
commence within thirty (30) days from receipt of the pre-trial order.
A. at least 5 days
B. at least 10 days
C. at least 15 days
D. at least 20 days

57.

Among the following, which shall be the first in the order of trial?
A. The defense counsel will preside in the case
B. The accused should be presented on the witness stand
C. The prosecution will present evidence to prove the charge and, in the proper case, the civil
liability
D. The judge will recite the Panunupa sa Watawat

58.

The judgment is promulgated by reading it in the presence of the accused and any judge of the court in
which it was rendered. However, when the judge is absent or outside the province or city, the judgment
may be promulgated by
A. the clerk of court
B. secretary of justice
C. any justice of the supreme court
D. any judge in the RTC or MTC within the immediate locality

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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

59.

At any time before a judgment of conviction becomes final, the court may, on motion of the accused or at
its own instance but with the consent of the accused, grant new trial or reconsideration. This statement is
A. Incorrect, it should be within five (5) days after judgement
B. Correct, as stated in the rules
C. Correct, as long as on the motion of the accused
D. Incorrect, motion for reconsideration should be denied

60.

An appeal must be taken within ____ from the promulgation of the judgment or from notice of the final
order appealed from.
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 20 days
D. 10 days

61.

The Court of Appeals of the Philippines is the second highest court next to the Supreme Court. It is
composed of ___ .
A. 69 Justices including the Presiding Justice
B. 58 Justices including the Presiding Justice
C. 28 Justices including the Presiding Justice
D. 16 Justices including the Presiding Justice

62.

A search warrant shall not issue except upon ___ in connection with one specific offense to be determined
personally by the judge after examination under oath or affirmation of the complainant and the witnesses
he may produce.
A. existence of probable cause
B. conduct of preliminary investigation
C. availability of witnesses
D. in writing

63.

A search warrant shall be valid for _____ from its date. Thereafter, it shall be void.
A. 15 days
B. 10 days
C. 20 days
D. until it is served

64.

Can a person lawfully arrested be searched for dangerous weapon or anything which may have been used
or constitute proof in the commission of an offense without a search warrant?
A. Yes, it is allowed by the rules
B. No, it must be with search warrant
C. It depends upon the the order of the court
D. It is a prerogative of the peace officer

65.

Every person is entitled to be presumed innocent of a crime or wrong, unless proven otherwise. This is a
prima facie presumption which must be overcome by proof beyond reasonable doubt. This statement is
A. absolutely true
B. absolutely false
C. without legal basis
D. out of context in the Philippines

66.

It is the means, sanctioned by the Revised Rules of Court, of ascertaining to a judicial proceeding the truth
respecting a matter of fact.
A. Motive
B. Fact
C. Evidence
D. Proof of crimes

67.

Evidence is ___ when it has a tendency in reason to establish the probability or improbability if a fact in
issue.
A. Accurate

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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

B. Relevant
C. Competent
D. Complete
68.

Direct evidence proves the fact in dispute without the aid of any inference or presumption while _____ is
the proof of a fact or facts from which, taken either singly or collectively, the existence of the particular
fact in dispute may be inferred as a necessary or probable consequence.
A. Indirect Evidence
B. Circumstantial Evidence
C. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
D. Preponderance of evidence

69.

The evidence is considered positive when the witness affirms that a fact did or did not occur, and ____
when the witness states he did not see or know of the occurrence of a fact.
A. Hearsey
B. Negative
C. Neutral
D. Active

70.

What kind of evidence is given by one possessing in regard to a particular subject or department of human
activity or knowledge which does not usually acquired by other persons?
A. Expert evidence
B. Special evidence
C. Ordinary evidence
D. Cumulative evidence

71.

It is an additional evidence of a different kind and character, tending to prove the same point.
A. Cumulative evidence
B. Corroborative evidence
C. Prima facie evidence
D. Add value evidence

72.

Evidence is the means of proof while ____is the effect of evidence, the establishment of as fact by evidence.
It results as a probative effect of evidence and is the conviction or persuasion of mind resulting from a
consideration of the evidence.
A. Motive
B. Evidence
C. Proof
D. Value

73.

In evidence, what is the ultimate fact or the fact to be established?

A. Factum Lactum
B. Factum Probandum
C. Factum Probans
D. Factum Facie

74.

When the evidence consists of writings or any material containing letters, words, numbers, figures,
symbols or other modes of written expression offered as proof of their contents, they are called
A. Material evidence
B. Documentary evidence
C. Testimonial evidence
D. Relevant evidence

75.

The oral testimony of the witness to the killing as reflected in the stenographic notes is considered
A. Material evidence
B. Documentary evidence
C. Testimonial evidence
D. Relevant evidence

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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

76.

The cognizance of certain facts which judges may properly take and act on without proof because they
already know them is called
A.
Legal presumption
B.
Judicial notice
C.
Factum probandum
D.
Legal history

77.

Generally speaking, matters of judicial notice have three material requisites, except A. the matter be common and general knowledge
B. the matter must be well and authoritatively settled and not doubtful or uncertain
C. the matter must be biblically based
D. the matter must be known to be within the limits of jurisdiction of the court

78.

When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document, no evidence shall be admissible other than the
original document itself. This is the
A. Originality rule
B. Best evidence rule
C. Parole evidence rule
D. Questioned document rule

79.

When the original of a document is in the custody of a public officer and is recorded in a public office, its
contents may be proved by
A. a xerox copy of the original
B. a notarized copy of the original
C. a certified copy issued by the public office in custody thereof
D. all of these

80.

When the terms of an agreement have been reduced into writing, it is considered as containing all the
terms agreed upon and there can be, between the parties and their successors-in-interests, no evidence of
such other terms or agreements other than the contents of the written agreement. This is called the
A. Best evidence rule
B. Parole evidence rule
C. Pardon evidence rule
D. Questioned document rule

81.

Can a deaf and dumb person allowed to testify in court?

A. Yes, in any manner satisfactory to the court
B. Yes, by writing or signs through an interpreter
C. No, never allowed by the rules
D. Both A and B are correct

82.

The husband or the wife, during or after the marriage, cannot be examined without the consent of the
other as to any communication received in confidence by one from the other during the marriage. This
statement is covered under the so called
A. Marital Priviledge Rule
B. Paternity Rule
C. Rule on Marriage
D. Rule on Special proceedings

83.

Tacio admitted to his lawyer that he killed Badong. After sometime, the lawyer withdrew his
representation of Tacio. Thereafter, the prosecution wishes to offer the lawyers testimony as to the
admission of Tacio to him. Will the testimony of Tacio be presented as evidence?
A. No, the admission was learned during the existence of the attorney-client relationship covered
under privileged communication
B. Yes, the lawyers withdrawal of representation cuts attorney-client relationship
C. Both A and B are incorrect
D. It depends upon the prerogative of the court

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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

84.

It is a contract whereby the parties, by making reciprocal concessions, avoid litigation or put an end to one
already commenced.
A. Agreement
B. Compromise
C. Special arrangement
D. Treaty

85.

The act, declaration or omission of a party as to a relevant fact may be given in evidence against him is
called
A.
Declaration
B.
Admission
C.
Confession
D.
Oral argument

86.

A confession made before a court in which the case is pending and in the course of legal proceedings
therein is called
A. Judicial confession
B. Extrajudicial confession
C. Intrajudicial confession
D. Paralegal confession

87.

A confession is admissible only against the accused who made it and not against his co-accused, for, as
against the latter, the confession would be hearsay and res inter alios acta. This statement is
A. Correct as a general rule
B. Incorrect, not allowed by the rules
C. Sometimes correct
D. Sometimes incorrect

88.

Hearsay evidence is that which derives its value, not solely from the credit to be given to the witness upon
the stand, but in part from the veracity and competency of some other person. Is hearsay evidence
admissible?
A.
Absolutely not admissible
B.
No, except in some case like in dying declaration
C.
Absolutely admissible without exemption
D.
All of the above are correct

89.

The declaration of a dying person, made under the consciousness of an impending death, may be received
in any case wherein his death is the subject of inquiry, as evidence of the cause and surrounding
circumstances of such death is called
A. Oral testament
B. Dying declaration
C. Res gestae
D. Deadmans statute

90.

These are spontaneous statements made by a person while a startling occurrence is taking place or
immediately prior or subsequent thereto with respect to the circumstances thereof.
A. Dying declaration
B. Deadmans statute
C. Res gestae
D. Oral testament

91.

Alfie was in his room when he overheard Oliver and Arjay talking in the other room. Oliver telling Arjay
that he had got into a fight in a bar and stabbed Remrick thereafter he ran away to the house of Arjay.
The following day, Alfie learned that Remrick died of a stab wound. Can Alfie testify as the statement
made by Oliver to Arjay even though he did not personally see Oliver stab Remrick?
A. No, it is hearsay
B. Yes, it is part of res gestea
C. It depends if the judge admit such testimony
D. No, it is not a dying declaration

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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

92.

As a rule, a witness must confine his testimony to matters within his actual knowledge. He cannot be
asked questions calling for his opinion or conclusions upon facts, which are for the court to make. This is
called
A. Admisibility test
B. Opinion rule
C. Special arrangement
D. Invalid questioning

93.

____ is the duty of a party to present evidence on the facts in issue necessary to establish his claim or
defense by the amount of evidence required by law.
A. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
B. Burden of proof
C. Burden of evidence
D. Prima facie case

94.

____ is defined as that logical necessity which rests on a party at any particular time during a trial to
create a prima facie case in his own favor, or to overthrow one when created against him.
A. Burden of proof
B. Burden of evidence
C. Prima facie case
D. Proof reasonable doubt

95.

What is a presumption?
A. Knowledge of an event to have been occured
B. An inference as to the existence of a fact not actually known, arising from its usual connection
with another which is known
C. A chance or probability of the existence of an event
D. Circumstances surrounding the an event

96.

Whenever a party has, by his own declaration, act or omission, intentionally and deliberately led another
to believe a particular thing true, and to act upon such belief, he cannot, in any litigation arising out of
such declaration, act or omission, be permitted to falsify it. This is called
A. Presumtive evidence
B. Estoppel in pais
C. Morality
D. Falsehood

97.

The examination of witnesses presented in a trial or hearing should be done in

A. private with the judge, defense and prosecutor
B. open court and under oath or affirmation
C. speedy manner to beat the time frame specified by law
D. None of the above is correct

98.

In the order of examination of an individual witness, which one comes first?

A. Direct examination by the proponent
B. Cross-examination by the opponent
C. Re-direct examination by the proponent
D. Re-cross-examination by the opponents

99.

If the examination of a witness is made by the party presenting him on the facts relevant to the issue, it is
called
A. Direct examination
B. Cross examination
C. Re-direct examination
D. Re-cross examnation

100.

In a criminal case, the accused is entitled to an acquittal, unless his guilt is shown beyond reasonable
doubt. What is proof beyond reasonable doubt?

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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

A.
B.
C.
D.

that degree of proof which produces a conviction in unprejudiced mind

the greater weight of evidence against guilt
the greater weight of evidence against innocence
the presumption of innocent unless proved otherwise

End
SUGGESTED KEY ANSWER
CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE AND PROCEDURE
SET C
1. D
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. B
6. A
7. C
8. A
9. B
10. B
11. C
12. B
13. A
14. B
15. B
16. C
17. C
18. A
19. A
20. D
21. A
22. C
23. A
24. B
25. C

26. C
27. D
28. A
29. B
30. C
31. C
32. C
33. A
34. A
35. A
36. C
37. B
38. B
39. B
40. A
41. B
42. C
43. C
44. A
45. B
46. A
47. B
48. D
49. A
50. B

51. C
52. B
53. B
54. C
55. A
56. C
57. C
58. A
59. B
60. A
61. A
62. A
63. B
64. A
65. A
66. C
67. B
68. B
69. B
70. A
71. B
72. C
73. B
74. B
75. C

***

55

76. B
77. C
78. B
79. C
80. B
81. D
82. A
83. A
84. B
85. B
86. A
87. A
88. B
89. B
90. C
91. B
92. B
93. B
94. B
95. B
96. B
97. B
98. A
99. A
00. A