Sample English Exam Paper for Grade 10 Students

VIBGYOR
HIGH
First Term Examination

Sample Paper
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Grade : X
Max. Marks
Date
Time Allowed : 2 hours
: 80
INSTRUCTIONS:
Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the
answers.
The intended marks for the questions or parts of questions are given
alongside the questions.
Attempt all four questions.

_________________________________________________________________________
Question 1
(Do not spend more than 35 minutes on this question.)
Write a composition (350 400 words) on any one of the following:
(a)
[25]
As one door closes, another always opens.

Write an original short story to bring out the truth of this statement.
(b)
Imagine you were trekking near Kathmandu when an earthquake struck. You
were caught between two landslides and rescued only after a few days. Describe
what you went through till you were airlifted and finally saved.
(c)
Fame, Money or Power Which is the most and the least important to you and
why?
(d)
The use of mobile phones has lowered active social life and has become an
addiction. Express your views either for or against the statement.
(e)
Study the picture given below. Write a short story or description or an account of
what the picture suggests to you. Your composition may be about the subject of
the picture or you may take suggestions from it; however your composition must
have a clear connection with the picture.
Question 2
(Do not spend more than 20 minutes on this question.)
Select ONE of the following:
(a)
[10]
You have been elected to the Student Council of your school. Write a letter to
your grandfather expressing your pride in being elected. Describe your
responsibilities and explain how this will make you a more responsible individual.
(b)
Write a letter to the Editor of The Mumbai Mirror expressing concern over the
careless and negligent attitude of visitors who write names and messages on the
walls and domes of monuments. Suggest steps that should be taken to
preserve the monuments.
Question 3
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
[25]
Sita went to her Grandfather and sat down beside him.

When you are hungry, tell me, she said, and I will make the bread.
Is your Grandmother asleep?
Yes. But she will wake soon. The pain is deep.
The old man stared across the river, at the dark green of the forest, at the leaden sky,
and said, If she is not better by morning, I will take her to the hospital in Shahganj.
They will know how to make her well. You may be on your own for two or three days.
You have been on your own before.
Sita nodded gravely. She had been alone before; but not in the middle of the rains
with the river so high. But she knew that someone had to stay behind. She wanted
Grandmother to get well and she knew that only Grandfather could take the small boat
across the river when the current was so strong.
Sita was not afraid of being left alone but she did not like the look of the river.
That evening it began to rain again. Big pellets of rain were scarring the surface of the
river. But it was warm rain and Sita could move about in it. She was not afraid of
getting wet. She rather liked it. In the previous month, when the monsoon shower had
arrived , washing the dusty leaves of the tree and bringing up the good smell of the
earth, she had exulted in it, had run about shouting in joy. She was used to it now.
Though a little tired of the rain, she did not mind getting wet. It was steamy indoors
and her thin dress would soon dry in the heat from the kitchen fire.
She now walked about barefooted, barelegged. She was very sure on her feet. Her
toes had grown accustomed to gripping all kinds of rocks, slippery or sharp. Though
thin, she was surprisingly strong. She had black hair streaming across her face, black
eyes, slim brown arms, and a scar on her thigh. When she was small, visiting her
mothers village, a hyena had entered the house where she was sleeping. It fastened
on to her leg and tried to drag her away. But her screams had roused the villagers and
the hyena had run off.
She moved about in the pouring rain, chasing the hens into a shelter behind the hut. A
harmless brown snake, flooded out of its hole, was moving across the open ground.
Sita took a stick, picked the snake up with it, and dropped it behind a cluster of rocks.
She had no problems with snakes. They kept down the rats and the frogs. She often
wondered how the rats had first come to the island probably in someones boat or in
a sack of grain.
She disliked the huge black scorpions who left their waterlogged dwellings and tried to
take shelter in the hut. It was so easy to step on one and the sting could be very
painful. She had been bitten by a scorpion the previous monsoon and for a day and a
night she had known fever and great pain. Sita had never killed living creatures but
now, whenever she found a scorpion, she crushed it with a rock!
When, finally, she went indoors, she was hungry. She ate some parched gram and
warmed up some goats milk.
Grandmother woke once and asked for water and Grandfather held the brass tumbler
to her lips.
The roof was leaking and a small puddle had formed on the floor. Grandfather kept the
kerosene lamps alight. They did not need the light but somehow it made them feel
safer.
It rained all night.
3
(a)
Give the meaning of each of the following words as used in the passage.
One word answers or short phrases will be accepted.
(i)
gravely
(ii)
exulted
[3]
(iii) parched
(b) Answer the following questions briefly in your own words.
[12]
(i)
Why was Sita willing to stay alone?
[2]
(ii)
What had made Sita like the first monsoon shower?
[2]
(iii) Why did Sita have a scar on her thigh?
[2]
(iv) Which sentence in the passage tells us that Sita did not fear snakes? Why
(v)
did she consider them useful?
[2]
What did Sita do with the snake?
[2]
(vi) The passage tells us that Sita never killed living creatures. Why did she then
crush the scorpions with a rock?
(c)
[2]
What kind of a girl was Sita? Describe her in not more than 60 words.
[8]
(d) Give a title to your summary in 3 (c). Give a reason to justify your choice.
[2]
Question 4
(a)
Fill in each of the numbered blanks with the correct form of the word given
in brackets. Do not copy the passage, but write in correct serial order the
word or phrase appropriate to the blank space.
[4]
Example: (0) to endure

It takes a disciplined spirit ____0____ (endure) the monastery life on Mount
Serat in Spain. One of the requirements of this religious order is that the young
men must maintain silence. Opportunities to speak ______1_____ (give) once
every two years, at which time they_____2_____(allow) to speak only two words.
One young disciple in this religious order, who _____3______ (complete) his first
two years of training, _____4_____ (invite) by his superior to make his first two
word presentation. Food terrible, he said. Two years later the invitation was
once again extended. The young man used this forum to explain, Bed lumpy.
_____5_____ (Arrive) at his superiors office two years later he _______6______
(proclaim), I quit.
The superior looked at this young monk and said, You know, it _____7____ (do
not) surprise me a bit. All you _____8______ (do) since you arrived is complain,
complain and complain.
4
(b) Fill in the blanks with an appropriate word:

(i)
She has acted ___________ my advice.
(ii)
Never jump _____________ hasty conclusions.
[4]
(iii) His friends stood______________ him during his financial crisis.

(iv) He was brought _____________ by his grandmother.
(v)
The receptionist had to bear ______________ the customers rude behavior.
(vi) Our new car broke _____________ on the highway.

(vii) The tennis match was called _________ due to rain.
(viii) They had to borrow a bicycle____________ the tea vendor.
(c)
Join the following sentences to make one complete sentence without using
and, but or so.
[4]
(i) The players had not reached. We could not have the tournament.
(ii)
He completed his project before time. There were many obstacles.
(iii) I met Sheilas mother. She works in the factory nearby.

(iv) John gave me the novel. John wanted me to review it.
(d) Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after
each. Make other changes that may be necessary, but do not change the
meaning of each sentence.
(i)
[8]
He is not only clever, but also hardworking.

(Begin: Besides .)
(ii)
The Mayor is inaugurating the new school tomorrow.

(Begin: The new school ...)
(iii) As soon as Joe had seated himself, he asked for some water.
(Begin: No sooner .)
(iv) One should have sympathy for the poor.
(Rewrite the sentence using sympathise.)
(v)
This is the most boring movie that I have ever seen.

(Rewrite using the comparative form.)
(vi) My friend said, Did you watch the news last night?
(Begin: My friend asked me.)
(vii) The hall is so small that it cannot accommodate everybody.
(Rewrite without using so..that)
(viii) As soon as I fell on the patch of gravel, my sunglasses broke.
(Begin: Hardly .)
*****
5
VIBGYOR
HIGH

Sample Paper
ENGLISH LITERATURE
Grade : X
Max. Marks
Date
: 80
INSTRUCTIONS:
answers.
You should answer one question from each of the Sections A, B, and C and
any two other questions.
_________________________________________________________________________
Attempt five questions in all.
Section A Drama
The Merchant of Venice: Shakespeare
Question 1
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
[16]
He shall do this, or else I do recant

The pardon that I late pronounced here.
(i)
Who is the speaker of the given lines? Where are they? Why have they come
there?
(ii)
[3]
What are the arguments that Antonio gives to prove that Bassanios pleas will be
ineffective to soften that Jewish heart?
[3]
(iii) How does Portia try to trap Shylock?
[3]
(iv) What, according to Portia, has been enacted in the laws of Venice?
[3]
(v)
The man who seeks revenge digs two graves. Do you agree? Justify with
reference to the play The Merchant of Venice.
[4]
1
Question2
[16]
I am very glad of it; Ill plague him; Ill

torture him: I am glad of it.
(i)
Who is him in the extract? Enumerate the wrongs that Shylock has suffered at
the hands of him?
(ii)
[3]
Who is Tubal? Where are he and Shylock now? What was the news about
Jessica that Tubal brought from Genoa?
(iii) What news, given by Tubal brings joy to Shylock?
[3]
[3]
(iv) What instructions does Shylock give to Tubal at the end of the scene? Why does
Shylock go to the synagogue?
(v)
[3]
Shakespeare marvels in contrasting two characters on the same issue of loyalty.

Do you agree? Justify with reference to the two female characters of the play
The Merchant of Venice.
[4]
Section B Poetry
A Collection of Poems and Short Stories
Question 3
[16]
The woods are lovely, dark and deep.

But I have promises to keep
(i)
What do the dark and deep woods signify? Who is the owner of the woods?
[3]
(ii)
Which season is it? Why does the rider stop by the woods in this season?
[3]
(iii) What did the horse do? Why was it bewildered?
[3]
(iv) Explain the line- and miles to go before I sleep.
[3]
(v)
The poem Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening expresses the conflict

between the demands of practical life and the strong desire to escape into the
land of dreams. Explain the above statement with reference to the poem.
[4]
Question 4
[16]
It dawned on us we must
Get to the hospital: we needed aidAnd I should help my staff too.
(i)
(ii)
Who are the us in the given extract? What had happened around them just
before they decided to go to the hospital?
[3]
What was the condition of the narrator while he was on his way to the hospital?
[3]
(iii) Describe the horrible sight of people that the speaker sees on the street around
him? What was common to all of them?
(iv) What was the impact of the explosion on the place and the people?
(v)
[3]
[3]
Only after devastation can we be resurrected. Explain with reference to the

poem A Doctors Journal Entry for August 6, 1945.
[4]
Section C Prose
A Collection of Poems and Short Stories
Question 5
[16]
The panch knows neither friend nor enemy. If you dont trust anyone, dont
propose any name.
(i)
Who is the speaker of the given extract? Why had the speaker gone about from
villager to villager earlier?
(ii)
[3]
Whom did the speaker approach at last? What did she request of him? How did
the person respond to her request?
[3]
(iii) What was the verdict given to the speaker by the Panchayat? How did it affect
the relationship between the two friends?
[3]
(iv) When and where was the Panchayat held? What arrangements did Jumman
make for it?
(v)
[3]
Justice knows neither friendship nor enmity. Discuss the statement with
reference to the story God Lives in the Panch.
Question 6
[4]
[16]
The Kabuliwala presents a living example of human relationships. Elaborate.
*****
3
VIBGYOR
HIGH

Sample Paper
HINDI
Grade : X
Max. Marks
Date
: 80
INSTRUCTIONS:
Answer to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing
the answers.
This paper consists of two sections, Section A and Section B
Attempt all the questions from Section A.
Attempt any four questions from Section B, answering at least one

question each from the two books you have studied and any two other
questions.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in

brackets [ ].
_________________________________________________________________________
SECTION- A (40 marks)
Attempt all questions.
Question 1
Write a short composition in Hindi of approximately 250 words on any one of
the following:-
[15]
fuEufyf[kr fok;ksa esa ls fdlh ,d fok; ij fgUnh esa yxHkx 250 kCnksa esa
laf{kIr ys[k fyf[k,%&
i)
eksckby Qksu dk bLrseky ;fn lko?kkuh ls ugha fd;k x;k rks ;g gesa
ekufld vkSj kkjhfjd nksuksa izdkj ls dV ns ldrk gSaA bl fok; ij ,d
izLrko fyf[k,A
ii)
^dMs+ dkuwu cnyko yk ldrs g+aS*&blds i{k ;k foi{k esa vius fopkj
fyf[k,A
iii)
Je esa keZZ dSlh\ bl dFku ds leFkZu esa vius fopkj O;Dr dhft,A
iv)
v/kty xxjh Nydr tk, & bl mfDr dks vk/kkj cukdj ,d ekSfyd
dgkuh fyf[k,A
v)
fuEu fp= dks /;kuiwoZd nsf[k, vkSj eu esa meM+us okys fopkjksa ds vk/kkj ij
izLrko fyf[k, ftldk lh/kk laca/k fp= ls gksA
Question 2
Write a letter in Hindi in approximately 120 words on any one of the topics
given below:-
[7]
fuEufyf[kr fok;ksa esa ls fdlh ,d fok; ij fgUnh esa yxHkx 120 kCnksa esa Ik=
fyf[k,%&
i)
vkids {ks= esa vO;ofLFkr cl lsok ls mRiUu vlqfo/kkvksa dk mYys[k djrs gq,
fMiks eSustj dks i= fy[kdj lq/kkj ds fy, vuqjks/k dhft,A
vFkok
ii)
NksVs HkkbZ dks i= fy[kdj ^ikSfVd vkgkj* ds egRRo ij izdkk Mkfy,A

2
Question 3
Read the passage given below and answer in Hindi the questions that follow
using your own words as far as possible:-
fuEufyf[kr x|kak dks /;kuiwoZd if<+, rFkk mlds uhps fy[ks izuksa ds mRrj fgUnh
esa fyf[k,A mRrj ;FkklaHko vkids vius kCnksa esa gksus pkfg,%
[10]
[kqys vkleku ds uhps cSBs 20 cPps viuh d{kk kq: gksus dh izrh{kk dj jgs
gSaA bu cPpksa esa ls dqN viuh fdrkcksa esa vk[ksa xM+k, gSa rks dqN b/kj&m/kj rkd jgs
gSaA bUgha cPpksa ds chp esa [kkdh iSVa igus [kMs+ gSa gsMekLVj lkgc tks yxkrkj
tksj&tksj ls cPpksa dks funsZk ns jgs gSaA gsMekLVj dh ckr lkjs cPPkksa ds eryc dh
ugha gS blfy, dqN gh nwj Vs<+h&es<+h ykbuksa esa cSBs igyh d{kk ds cPpksa dks vki
galh&fBBksyh djrs vkSj /kwy esa [ksyrs gq, ns[k ldrs gSaA
;g gS ckcj vyh dk Ldwy] vkuan fk{kk fudsruA ;g Ldwy mu 800 cPpksa
dh i<+us&fy[kus esa enn dj jgk gS tks vkSipkfjd fk{kk ra= ls fNVd x, gSaA ;gka
cPps dbZ fdyksehVj nwj ls iSny pydj vkrs gSaA ckcj vyh dk ;g vkuan fk{kk
fudsru Ldwy [ksy&[ksy esa cu x;k FkkA tSlk fd og crkrk gS] ge Ldwy&Ldwy
[ksyk djrs FksA D;kasfd esjs nksLr dHkh Ldwy ugha x, FksA os Nk= curs Fks vkSj eSa
gsMekLVjA [ksy&[ksy esa os vadxf.kr lh[k x,A 2002 esa ckcj us bl [ksy dks
dqN xaHkhjrk ls fy;k vkSj Ldwy kq: dj fn;kA
ysfdu ckn esa tSls&tSls bl uUgs gsMekLVj vkSj mlds Ldwy dh [kcj QSyrh
xbZ yksx enn djus ds fy, vkxs vkrs x,A enn djusokyksa esa ckcj ds Ldwy
fk{kdksa] LFkkuh; jke.k feku ds laU;kfl;ksa vkSj vkbZ,,l vf/kdkfj;ksa ls ysdj
LFkkuh; iqfyldehZ Hkh kkfey gks x,A ckcj us vius Ldwy esa tc e/;ku~ Hkkstu dh
kq#vkr dh rks igys pkoy mlds firk ds [ksr ls gh vk;k ysfdu vc LFkkuh;
izkklu esa fLFkr nksLrksa dh enn ls vukt ljdkjh dksVs ls vkrk gSA
bl uUgs gsMekLVj dk gj fnu lqcg lkr cts vius Ldwy ls kq: gksrk gS] tgk
ckcj ckjgoha d{kk dk Nk= gSA nksigj ,d cts Ldwy [kRe gksrs gh og viuh nwljh
Hkwfedk ds fy, rS;kj gks tkrk gSA nwljh rjQ lQsn lkM+h iguusokyh vkSj Ldwy esa
,d gkFk esa NM+h j[kdj ?kweusokyh Vqyq jkuh gktjk tks lqcg ds le; eNyh cspus
3
dk dke djrh gSa vkSj nksigj ds oDr os bl fk{kk vkanksyu dh lf; lnL; cu
tkrh gSaA os ?kwe&?kwe dj eNyh cspus ds nkSjku mu yksxksa ls feyrh gSa] ftUgksaus vius
cPpksa dks Ldwy Hkstuk can dj fn;k gSA vius Ldwy ds fy, u, Nk= tksM+uk Hkh
mudk dke gSA vc rd os ,sls 80 cPpksa dks Ldwy dh jkg fn[kk pqdh gSaA
ckcj dh gh rjg nloha esa i<+usokys bfEr;kt ks[k dgrs gSa] fk{kk vaf/k;kjk nwj
djrk gSA ;gka ftanxh csgrj cukus dk ;gh jkLrk gSA blhfy, eSa vkuan fk{kk fudsru
esa i<+krk gwaA ysfdu D;k bu fk{kdksa dh de mez Nk=ksa dks laHkkyus esa vkMs+ ugha
vkrh\ bl ij ckcj dgrs gSa] gekjs chp mez dk de Qklyk bl fglkc ls
Qk;nsean gS fd ge Nk=ksa ds lkFk nksLrksa dh rjg jg ldrs gSaA esjs Ldwy esa NM+h
dksus esa iM+h jgrh gSA lius ns[kusokys vkSj mUgsa tehu ij mrkjusokys bl uUgs
gsMekLVj dk vxyk liuk gS&vius Ldwy ds fy, ,d iDdh bekjrA os pkgrs gSa
fd ,d iz;ksxkkyk] [ksy dk eSnku vkSj vkWfMVksfj;e Hkh cu ldsA ysfdu ;s
fQygky ckn dh ckras gSA
izu %&
i)
ckcj us Ldwy esa e/;ku~ Hkkstu dh O;oLFkk dSls dh\
[2]
ii)
izR;sd fnu ckcj vyh dh igyh Hkwfedk D;k gS\
[2]
iii)
Vqyq jkuh gktjk Ldwy ds fy, D;k dke djrh gSa\
[2]
iv)
Ldwy esa NM+h dksus esa D;ksa iM+h jgrh gS\
[2]
v)
uUgs gsMekLVj dk vxyk liuk D;k gS \
[2]
Question 4
Answer the following according to the given instructions:-
fuEufyf[kr izuksa ds mRrj funsZkkuqlkj fyf[k,%&

i)
fuEu kCnksa ls foksk.k cukb,&
[1]
keZ] lkgl
ii)
Ik;kZ;okph kCn fyf[k, dksbZ ,d%&
[1]
mtkyk] vK
iii)
foijhrkFkZd fyf[k, dksbZ nks%&
[1]
vej] dM+ok] py] vk;

iv)
,d eqgkojs dh lgk;rk ls okD; cukb,%&
[1]
dej dluk] vkxs dqvk ihNs [kkbZ

v)
Hkkookpd laKk fyf[k, %&
[1]
tkxuk] gjk
vi)
funsZkkuqlkj okD; ifjorZu djsAa

1)
[3]
cPps xhr xkrs gSaA

Hkwrdky esa cnfy,
2)
og bl ckr ls nq[kh gSA

^mls* ls okD; kq: dhft,
3)
ckfjk fxj jgh gSA

okD; kqn~/k dhft,
SECTION- B (40 marks)
Attempt four questions from this Section.
You must answer at least one question from each of the two books you have studied
and two others questions.
Xk|&ladyu
Question 5
Read the extract given below and answer in Hindi the questions that follow:-
fuEufyf[kr vorj.kksa dks if<+, vkSj uhps fn, x, Ikzuksa ds mRrj nhft, &
;w ugh] ekA rqe rks tkurh gks] nk;k gkFk feyk;k tkrk gSA
i)
oDrk dk ifjp; nhft,A
[2]
ii)
fdls] fdlls gkFk feykus dk <ax fl[kk;k tk jgk gS vkSj D;kas\
[2]
iii)
vkxarqd ds vkxeu dk mn~ns; D;k gS\
[3]
iv)
oDrk vkxarqd ds lkeus D;k iznfkZr djuk pkgrk gS vkSj D;ka\

s
[3]
Question 6
rw Hkh tYn ogha vkuk tgk ge yksx tk jgs gSaA ;gk ls FkksM+h gh nsj dk
jkLRkk gSA ek
i)
oDrk dkSu gS\ mldk ifjp; nsrs gq, fyf[k, fd og dgk vkus dh ckr dj
jgk gS vkSj D;ksa\
[2]
ii)
ek ,d okZ rd cPpksa ds fy, D;k&D;k djrh jgh vkSj D;ks\

a
[2]
iii)
ph vnkyr us D;k QSlyk lquk;k\ mldk ek rFkk cPpksa ij D;k izHkko
iv)
iM+k\
[3]
oDrk rFkk ys[kd ds chp dSlk laca/k gS\ ys[kd oDrk ls D;k pkgrk Fkk\
[3]
Question 7
HkkbZ] uke rks rqEgkjk fy[k ysrk gw ij tYnh ukSdjh ikus dh dksbZ vkkk er
djukA
i)
mi;qZDr laokn fdlus] fdlls vkSj dc dgk\
[2]
ii)
ys[kd us nhukukFk dks ukSdjh ds izlxa esa D;k ijkekZ fn;k\
[2]
iii)
jkstxkj dk;kZy; dh nkk dk o.kZu djsaA
[3]
iv)
ys[kd mDr izlax }kjk D;k dguk pkgrk gS\
[3]
,dkadh lqeu
Question 8
Jh jkepUnz ds pj.k LikZ ls vfgY;k ifo= gks x;hA jkepUnz ds gkFkksa ls
fko /kuqk fruds ds leku VwV x;kA Jh jkepUnz dh kfDr ls [kj nwk.k dk
foukk gqvk] Jh jkepUnz ds vuqxzg ls lqxzho us viuk [kks;k gqvk jkT; izkIr
fd;k vkSj Jh jkepUnz dh d`ik ls eq>s muds pj.kksa dh HkfDr------
i)
oDrk dkSu gS\ og bl le; dgk vkSj D;ksa gS\
[2]
ii)
vfgY;k dkSu gS\ og dc vkSj dSls ifo= gks x;h Fkh\
[2]
iii)
fko /kuqk Hakx dh dFkk l{ksi esa fyf[k,A
[3]
iv)
lqxzho dks viuk [kks;k gqvk jkT; dSls izkIr gqvk\
[3]
Question 9
ugha ththA ;g ?kj dh ugha] lkjs nsk dh {kfr gS] nsk D;k gels vkSj
ge nsk ls vyx gS\
a
i)
oDrk vkSj Jksrk dkSu gSa\ nksuksa dk laf{kIr ifjp; nhft,A
[2]
ii)
fdl {kfr dh ppkZ gks jgh gS\ LiV dhft,A
[2]
iii)
nsk fdlls vyx ugha gS vkSj D;ksa\ le>kdj fyf[k,A
[3]
iv)
,dkadh dk dsanzh; Hkko LiV dhft,A
[3]
Question 10
dqekj lkgc] tks rkR;k Vksis ugha dj lds] ukuk lkgc ugha dj lds] og
jktk dqojflag vkSj vejflag us dj fn[kk;kA vkB eghus gq,] eSaus nkukiqj ds
flikfg;ksa ds lkeus tks kiFk vki nksuksa Hkkb;ksa dks fnyokbZ] og vkt iwjh
gqbZA
i)
oDrk dkSu gS\ mldk laf{kIr ifjp; nhft,\
[2]
ii)
oDrk us nksuksa Hkkb;ksa dks dkSu&lh kiFk fnyokbZ Fkh vkSj D;ksa\
[2]
iii)
1857 ds Lora=rk laxzke ds fok; esa vki D;k tkurs gSa\ ,d vuq+PNsn esa
iv)
mRrj nhft,A
[3]
izLrqr ,dkadh ds khkZd dh lkFkZdrk LiV dhft,A
[3]
*****
VIBGYOR
HIGH

Sample Paper
PHYSICS
Grade: X
Max. Marks
: 80
Date :
________________________________________________________________________
INSTRUCTIONS:
answers.
Section I is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section II.

________________________________________________________________________
SECTION I (40 Marks)
Attempt all questions from this section.
Question 1
a)
(i)
Name the device by which the amplitude of an alternating e.m.f can be

changed.
(ii)
b)
Write the principle on which the device functions.
[2]
A certain amount of heat Q will warm 1g of material P by 6C and 1g of material

R by 8C. Which material has greater specific heat? Give reason.
[2]
c)
(i)
Figure given alongside is an experimental setup;

write the purpose of this setup.
(ii)
[2]
Name the method of the setup.
d)
A copper wire of resistance R is bent such that the two endpoints meet to form a
single wire. Calculate its new resistance and state the reason for the
change in the value of resistance.
e)
[2]
Give an example of each of class I lever where the mechanical advantage is

(i) equal to one (ii) more than one.
[2]
Question 2
a)
The speed of light in air is 3 x 108 ms-1. Calculate the speed of light in glass. The
refractive index of glass is 1.5.
b)
(i)
[2]
Draw a graph to show the change in potential difference across the ends
of an ohmic resistance and the current flowing in it. (label it)
(ii)
c)
d)
e)
Slope of the graph represents ______________.
State the effects:

(i)
on melting point of ice when salt is added to it.
(ii)
on boiling point of water when pressure is increased.
[2]
[2]
Ramesh while driving a car suddenly takes a left turn what will be the sign of the
moments of force applied (i) by left hand (ii) by right hand.
[2]
Derive the relation between power, velocity and force mathematically.
[2]
Question 3
a)
Name the material which is used as a fuse wire and state the special
characteristics a fuse wire must have.
[2]
b)
State two conditions when the work done by the body is said to be zero.
[2]
c)
Substance having zero resistance at very low temperature is called__________.

Give one example.
d)
(i)
[2]
Write the mathematical expression to show relation between intensity of

scattering of light and its wavelength.
(ii)
e)
From the above relation state which colour will be scattered the least.
Define heat capacity of a body. Write the S.I. unit of specific latent heat.
[2]
[2]
Question 4
a)
State the energy conversions taking place in the following cases:

(i)
microphone.
(ii)
burning of candle.
[2]
2
b)
State the two conditions that must be satisfied for a body to be in equilibrium.
c)
(i)
[2]
Find the mechanical advantage of a lever in which the distance between

load and fulcrum is 4cm and the distance between effort and fulcrum is
60cm.
(ii)
d)
Write the expression for mechanical advantage of inclined plane.
[2]
State one reason for using soft iron for an armature in an electric bell. Write the
principle on which it works.
e)
[2]
(i)
Write one similarity between gamma rays and X- rays.
(ii)
Name the radiation which can be detected by rock salt prism.
[2]
SECTION II (40 Marks)

Attempt any four questions from this section.
Question 5
a)
Find the equivalent resistance between the points A and B.
4
2
3
3
1
4
2
c)
b)
[4]
(i)
Write two disadvantages of using nuclear energy for producing electricity.
(ii)
State the work-energy theorem and write its mathematical expression.
[4]
A satellite revolving around the earth is under accelerated motion. Justify.
[2]
Question 6
a) A monochromatic point source of light X is seen through a rectangular glass
block PQRS. Paths of two rays, in and outside the block are shown in the figure
below.
(i)
Does the source X will appear nearer or

farther with respect to the surface PR? P
(ii)
[4]
R
How does the shift depends on the

thickness (PQ or RS) of block?
(iii) Justify your answer in (ii) with the help
of an appropriate ray diagram.

3
b)
(i)
An electric bulb consumes 24W when connected to 12V supply. Find the
power if it is connected to 9V supply.
(ii)
c)
Distinguish between: step-up transformer and step-down transformer.
[4]
A uniform metre rule can be balanced at 70cm mark when a weight of 500gf is
hung from 94cm mark. Find the mass of the metre rule.
[2]
Question 7
a)
1kg of ice at -10C is heated at constant rate until the whole of it vaporises. How
much heat is required?
[specific latent heat of fusion of
ice = 336 x 103J/kg, specific latent heat of
steam = 2268 x 103J/kg, specific heat capacity of ice = 2.1 x 103J/kgC,

specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 x 103J/kgC]
b)
[4]
Redraw the ray diagram given below and complete it to obtain the final image.
Write its nature with respect to the object.
2F1
[4]
F1
c)
B
Define energy degradation. Give one example.
[2]
Question 8
a) A current carrying conductor is suspended between the two poles of strong horse
shoe magnet.
(i)
What will be the effect on the current carrying conductor?
(ii)
State the reason for the effect.
[4]
(iii) Name a device which is based on it.

(iv) Write the conversion of energy taking place in the above mentioned device.
b)
You are given three pulleys and two strings.

(i)
Draw a neat labelled diagram to use them so as to obtain a maximum

mechanical advantage equal to 4.
(ii)
Write the assumptions you have made to obtain the required mechanical
advantage.
c)
Name two greenhouse gases.
[4]
[2]
4
Question 9
a)
(i)
A bucket contains 8kg of water at 4C. 2kg of water at 80C is poured into it.
Neglecting the heat energy absorbed by the bucket, calculate the final
temperature of water.
b)
c)
(ii)
Vessel used in calorimeter is made up of thin copper sheets. Give reason.
(i)
Write two essential conditions for total internal reflection.
(ii)
State two factors affecting the angle of deviation.
[4]
[4]
Explain how a gear system can be used to obtain:

(i)
gain in torque
(ii)
gain in speed.
[2]
Question 10
a)
(i)
1kg of ice is heated at a constant rate and its temperature is recorded after
every 30 seconds till steam is formed at 100C. Draw and label the
temperature time graph to represent the change of phase.
b)
(ii)
State two economic measures to minimise global warming.
(i)
A cell of e.m.f 1.5V, internal resistance 1 is connected to two resistors of
[4]
4 and 20 in series. Calculate:
(ii)
c)
1)
current in the circuit,
2)
p.d across 20 resistor,
3)
p.d across the cell.
Write the colour code of neutral wire as per new convention.
[4]
State two ways by which e.m.f in an A.C generator can be increased.
[2]
*****
VIBGYOR
HIGH

Sample Paper
TECHNICAL DRAWING APPLICATIONS

Grade : X
Max. Marks
: 100
Date :
_________________________________________________________________________
INSTRUCTIONS:
You will not be allowed to draw/ write during the first 15 minutes.
Each section should be answered on a separate paper.
All questions must be answered in full scale.
All Dimensions are in mm. unless specified otherwise.
Assume suitable data if necessary.
Retain all construction lines.
Answer to question should be grouped together & written together.

_________________________________________________________________________
SECTION A (48 Marks)
(Attempt any three questions.)
Question 1
a)
Draw a hexagon of side 60mm. Inscribe three circles such that each circle will
touch each other & also two side of the hexagon.
b)
[8]
Draw a quadrilateral ABCD l (AB) =80mm, l (BC) =60mm, l (AD) =l(CD)=50mm.

m DAB=60. Convert into a triangle having same area.
[8]
Question 2
On a ground plan, a line 20cm long represents a distance of 25m. Devise a suitable
scale for the plan to read up to 30m to show meters & decimeters. Using the above
scale construct a triangle & circumscribe the circle about the triangle.
Take l (AB) = 15.5 m l(BC) =13.3 m & l(AC) = 8.7m
[16]
Question 3
Draw an Oblique view of the given object using 1:1 scale & take receding
Angle at 300.
[16]
Question 4
Copy the given template & insert any six dimensions.
[16]
Question 5
Draw the AUXILARY PLAN of a pentagonal pyramid with its axis inclined at 300 H.P &
parallel to V.P. With its one side of the base parallel to V.P & nearer to it.
Also draw its D.L.S
Given: - side of the base = 45 mm & axis ht. = 80 mm Use the FIRST ANGLE method
of projection.
[16]
SECTION B (52 Marks)

(Attempt any two questions.)
Question 6
Draw an isometric view of the given object.
[26]
Question 7
The Fig. given below shows the F.V of the Hexagonal pyramid resting on the base on
HP with its one pair of the base edge perpendicular to VP. Draw by using first Angle
method of projection. Copy the F.V & complete the Sectional T.V, Sectional S.V &
Auxiliary view of the retained portion of Solid & also draw D.L.S. Take the side of the
base edge as 30 mm.
[26]
Question 8
Draw by using THIRD ANGLE method of projection.
i) sectional S.V along A-A, ii) T.V, iii) F.V
[26]
*****
4
VIBGYOR
HIGH

Sample Paper
ART PAPER 1
Drawing and Painting from Still life.
Grade : X
Max. Marks
: 100
Date :
_________________________________________________________________________
INSTRUCTIONS:
Candidates Index Number must be written clearly on the top right hand
corner of the front surface of the paper.
1.
Mechanical devices should not be used.
Draw the group of objects placed before you large enough to suit the size of
the paper.
2.
Organising the group of objects harmoniously and proportionately is very

important.
3.
Colour your drawing in a suitable manner taking into consideration the masses
of light and shade, texture and colours.
4.
You may use Water colours (transparent or opaque) with a combination of

crayons if required.
*****
VIBGYOR
HIGH

Sample Paper
ART PAPER 3
Original Imaginative composition in colour
Grade : X
Max. Marks
: 100
Date :
_________________________________________________________________________
INSTRUCTIONS:
Candidates Index Number must be written clearly on the top right hand corner
of the front surface of the paper.
You must not base your composition on any picture you have seen.
Bear in mind that the quality of the composition, feeling and originality are the
main objectives of this paper.
Mechanical devices should not be used.

_________________________________________________________________________
Attempt any one of the following topics:
1.
Save the Girl child.
2.
An Interesting depiction of Mumbai City.
3.
Depict a scene of a fish market with at least four to five human figures. Buying
and selling is in progress. The flavour and character of the market should be
highlighted.
4.
Clean city Swachh Bharat Campaign.
*****
VIBGYOR
HIGH

Sample Paper
BIOLOGY
Grade : X
Max. Marks
Date
: 80
INSTRUCTIONS:
The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing
the answers.
The intended marks for the questions or parts of questions are

given alongside the questions.
Attempt all questions from Section I and four questions from Section II.
________________________________________________________________________
SECTION I (40 marks)
Question 1
a)
b)
Name the following:

i)
The cell division which brings about growth and development.
ii)
The part of human brain which regulates the body temperature.
iii)
The surgical method of contraception in females.
iv)
The vaccine that helps to provide immunity against typhoid.
v)
A mixture of smoke and fog.
State the main function of each the following:

i)
Coronary artery
ii)
Distal convoluted tubule
iii)
Corpus callosum
iv)
Oxytocin
v)
Prostate gland
[5]
[5]
c)
Complete the following by filling in the blanks from 1 to 5 with the

appropriate term/terms:
[5]
The lens of the human eye is transparent and________. It is located just behind
the _____. It is collectively held in position by fibres called the suspensory
ligaments which are attached to the _______. The lens divides the inner cavity of
the eye-ball into two fluid filled chambers. The fluid_________ helps to refract the
light while ________ protects the retina and its nerve endings.
d)
Given below are five sets with four terms each. In each set a term is an odd
one and cannot be grouped in the same category to which the other three
belong. Identify the odd one in each set and name the category to which
the remaining three belong. The first one has been done as an example
Example: Fructose, Sucrose, Glucose, Calcium
Odd term: Calcium
Category: Carbohydrates.
e)
i)
Adenine, Glucagon, Guanine, Cytosine
ii)
Blood, Tissue fluid, Lymph, Serum
iii)
Fibrin, Leucocytes, Thrombin, Platelets
iv)
Saliva, Leucocytes, Sweat, Tears
v)
MTP, IUD, Condom, Vasectomy
[5]
The diagram given below is representing two reproductive cells in humans.

Study the same and answer the questions that follow:
i)
Identify the cells labelled as A and B.
ii)
Name the specific part in the reproductive system where the above cells are
[5]
produced.
iiI)
Identify the process depicted in the diagram.
iv)
Where in the female reproductive system does this process take place?
v)
Which enzyme facilitates the entry of part A into B by dissolving its wall?
2
f)
Choose the correct answer from the four options given below:
i)
ii)
[5]
Vein differs from artery in having:

A.
narrow lumen
C.
elastic walls
B.
strong muscular walls
D.
no valves
Which of the following is an abnormal constituent in the urine produced by

humans?
iii)
iv)
v)
g)
A.
urea
C.
sodium chloride
B.
albumin
D.
uric acid
The re-absorption of water in the kidney is under the control of:

A.
LH
C.
ACTH
B.
ADH
D.
FSH
The Red Cross Day is observed on:

A.
08 May
C.
11 July
B.
16 September
D.
09 August
The disease not caused by water pollution is :

A.
cholera
C.
jaundice
B.
pneumonia
D.
typhoid
Match the items in column A with that which is most appropriate in column
B. Rewrite the matching pairs as shown in the example:
Example: Fibrinogen Clotting of blood
[5]
Column A
i)
Initiates cell division
Column B
a.
To promote and support

projects for research on
diseases
ii)
Statistical study of human population
b.
SO 2
iii)
WHO
c.
Centrosome
iv)
Disinfectant
d.
Growth rate of population
v)
Main source of acid rain
e.
Supply of safe drinking water
f.
Demography
g.
Benzoic acid
h.
Ozone
i.
Ribosome
j.
Bordeaux mixture
3
h)
State the exact location of each of the following structures:

i)
Mitral valve
ii)
Bowmans Capsule
iii)
Organ of corti
iv)
Thyroid gland
v)
Amnion
[5]
Section II (40 marks)

Attempt any four questions from this section
Question 2
a)
The diagram represents a certain gland in the human body. Study the
same and answer the following questions:
b)
i)
Identify Xand give its exact location.
ii)
Name the special hormone secreting cells of this gland.
iii)
Why is insulin not taken orally?
iv)
What is hypoglycemia?
[5]
Differentiate between the following pairs on the basis of what is mentioned

within the bracket:
i)
Antiseptic and Antibiotic (Definition)
ii)
Plant cell and Animal cell (Mechanism of cytokinesis)
iii)
Mortality and Natality ( Definition)
iv)
Sensory neuron and Motor neuron ( Direction of transmission of nerve
[5]
impulse)
v)
Ovary and Testis (Hormone secreted)
Question 3
a)
Answer the following briefly:

i)
Name one cellular and one non-cellular component of lymph.
ii)
Why is micturition more frequent during winter as compared to summer?
iii)
Why does the outer portion of brain appear gray?
iv)
How can we achieve sustainable development?
v)
What immediate first aid will you carry out on a person who is stung by a
[5]
bee?
b)
Answer the following briefly:

i)
Mention two major activities of the Red Cross.
ii)
List two merits of the local defence system.
iii)
How can we control vehicular air pollution?
[5]
Question 4
a)
Observe the diagram given below and answer the following questions:
i)
Name the parts labelled as A,B, C and D.
ii)
Why is the right kidney slightly lower than the left one?
iii)
Name two major steps involved in the formation of
[5]
the fluid that passes down B.

iv)
Name two organic components found in the fluid

as mentioned in (iii).
b)
[5]
i)
Draw a neat and complete diagram of a myelinated neuron and label the
following parts: Cyton, Node of Ranvier, Axon, Axon endings.
ii)
How many pairs of cranial nerves are found in humans?
iii)
Define reflex action.
Question 5
a)
The diagram given below represents the female reproductive system. Study
the same and answer the questions that follow:
b)
i)
Name the parts labelled as 1, 2, 3, and 4.
ii)
What is the importance of part labelled 1?
iii)
Differentiate between menarche and menopause.
iv)
Define ovulation.
Briefly explain the following terms:

i)
Crossing over
ii)
Double circulation
iii)
Diapedesis
iv)
Tropic hormone
v)
Ozone hole
[5]
[5]
Question 6
a)
Give the biological term/terms for each of the following:

i)
The heart sound produced due to the closure of semilunar valves.
ii)
The regulation of osmotic pressure in the blood.
iii)
The region of best vision in the normal human eye.
iv)
The number of individuals per square kilometer at any given time.
v)
The immediate assistance given to any patient before the doctor/nurse
[5]
arrives.
b)
[5]
i)
Draw a neat and labelled diagram of the blood smear as seen under the
compound microscope.
ii)
Why does a mammalian erythrocyte lack endoplasmic reticulum?
iii)
Define phagocytosis.
Question 7
a)
Given below is a schematic diagram showing Mendels experiment on pea

plants having yellow round seeds (YYRR) and green wrinkled seeds (yyrr).
Observe it and answer the questions that follow:
i)
State the phenotype of F 1 progeny.
ii)
Give the phenotypic ratio of F 2 progeny.
iii)
State the law deduced by Mendel
[5]
based on the above observation.

iv)
Why did Mendel select the pea plant

for his experiments?
v)
b)
Define the term mutation.
Give scientific reasons for the following statements:

i)
Adrenalin is termed as an emergency hormone.
ii)
Testes are located in the scrotum outside the abdomen.
iii)
Illiteracy is an important factor responsible for the population explosion in
[5]
India.
iv)
The skin forms the first line of human defence mechanism.
v)
Noise pollution is hazardous to human health.
*****
6
VIBGYOR
HIGH

Sample Paper
CHEMISTRY
Grade : X
Max. Marks
Date
: 80
INSTRUCTIONS:
answers.
Attempt all questions from Section I and Four questions from Section II,
_________________________________________________________________________
SECTION I (40 marks)
Attempt all questions from this section
Question 1
A)
Name the following : (i)
[5]
The gas evolved on reaction of aluminium with boiling and dilute caustic
soda solution.
(ii)
A compound used in making denatured alcohol.
(iii) The product formed when methyl alcohol reacts with acetic acid in the
presence of concentrated sulphuric acid.
(iv) An alloy of zinc and copper which is used in making cartridges and musical
instruments.
(v)
B)
A chloride which is insoluble in cold water but dissolves in hot water.
Write balanced equations for the following reactions : (i)
A mixture of sodium propionate and soda lime is heated.
(ii)
Monochloro ethane is added to alcoholic and concentrated KOH.
[5]
(iii) Dehydration of methyl alcohol by concentrated H 2 SO 4 .
(iv) Reaction of acetic acid with magnesium metal.

(v)
C)
Reaction of methanol with sodium.
Match the following and rewrite the correct answer: Column 1
[5]
Column 2
German silver
a Al 2 O 3
Zinc Blende
b [Cu(OH)Cl]
Cryolite
c HC
Basic salt
d H 2 C = CH 2
Acetylene
e Resistors
f
CH
ZnS
g Na 3 AlF 6
D)
[5]
(i)
Find the number of molecules in 3.2 grams of SO 2 .
(ii)
Calculate the number of moles in 0.8 gram of methane.
(iii) P + 5HNO 3 H 3 PO 4 + H 2 O + 5NO 2 .

a)
What mass of phosphoric acid can be prepared from 6.2 grams of

phosphorus?
b)
E)
What mass of nitric acid will be consumed at the same time?
Fill in the blanks from the choices given below : -
[5]
(i)
A molecule of _______ contains a triple bond (ammonia, nitrogen).
(ii)
Electrovalent compounds have a _______ boiling point (low, high).
(iii) Across a period, the ionization potential _______ (increases, decreases).

(iv) The basicity of acetic acid is _______ (1, 4).
(v)
An alloy which is used for making high speed machine tools is _______
(nickel steel, tungsten steel).
F)
Choose the correct answer: (i)
(ii)
[10]
An alloy used for making automobile parts

(a)
Nickel steel
(c)
Alnico
(b)
Invar
(d)
Manganese steel
7 grams of carbon on complete oxidation produces

(a)
26 grams of CO 2
(c)
14 grams of CO 2
(b)
22 grams of CO 2
(d)
30 grams of CO 2
(iii) Which of the following is not a covalent molecule

(a)
CHCl 3
(c)
NaCl
(b)
CH 4
(d)
SO 2
(iv) The percentage of carbon is least in
(v)
(a)
Cast iron
(c)
Wrought iron
(b)
Mild steel
(d)
Hard steel
Which has the smallest size?

(a)
Na+
(c)
P5+
(b)
Al3+
(d)
Mg2+
(vi) A non metal which has metallic lustre is

(a)
Carbon
(c)
Phosphorus
(b)
Iodine
(d)
Sulphur
(vii) The compound used in alcoholic drink is

(a)
Methanol
(c)
Chloroform
(b)
Ethanol
(d)
Propanol
(viii) The compound with CHO as a part of its structure is

(a)
Ethanol
(c)
Ethanoic acid
(b)
Ethane
(d)
Ethanal
(ix) The metal which does not produce hydrogen on reaction with dilute or
concentrated acids
(x)
G)
(a)
Lead
(c)
Iron
(b)
Silver
(d)
Potassium
FeSO 4. (NH 4 ) 2 SO 4. 6H 2 O is a
(a)
Basic salt
(c)
Mixed salt
(b)
Double salt
(d)
Complex salt
What do you observe when: (i)
Few drops of Baeyers reagent is added to ethyne.
(ii)
Methane is burnt in excess air.
[5]
(iii) Hydrogen is passed over heated copper oxide.

(iv) Crystals of KNO 3 are heated in a test tube.
(v)
Red litmus is introduced in sodium carbonate solution.
SECTION II (40 marks)

Attempt any four questions from this section
Question 2
A)
Give equations for the following conversions: (i)
Iodoethane to ethene.
(ii)
Ethane to acetaldehyde using a catalyst.
[5]
(iii) Calcium carbide to acetylene.

(iv) Ethene to ethylene glycol using alkaline KMnO 4
(v)
B)
Ethanol to acetic acid using platinum black catalyst.
Among the elements of the second period, pick out the element: (i)
With the least ionization potential.
(ii)
With the highest electronegativity.
[5]
(iii) With the largest atomic size.

(iv) Which belongs to the halogen series.
(v)
Which is an alkaline earth metal.
Question 3
A)
B)
Draw the structural formula of:

(i)
Acetone
(ii)
3-methyl pent-2-ene
Give reasons:
(i)
[2]
[6]
Electrovalent compounds are good conductors of electricity in the fused or

aqueous state.
(ii)
Ethyne is more reactive than ethane.
(iii) Aluminium is used in aluminothermy.

C)
State whether the following compounds would increase or decrease in

mass if exposed to air. Give reasons.
(i)
Solid NaOH
(ii)
MgSO 4 .7H 2 O
[2]
Question 4
A)
Account for the following facts:

(i)
[4]
Lead sulphate cannot be prepared by the action of dilute H 2 SO 4 on lead

oxide.
(ii)
Potassium carbonate solution is alkaline in nature.
B)
Differentiate between the following:

(i)
Quenching and Annealing.
(ii)
Position isomerism and functional isomerism. Give one example for each of
[6]
them.
(iii) Electrovalent and covalent compounds with respect to dissociation and
solubility.
Question 5
A)
[5]
(i)
What happens to copper when it is exposed to moist air over a long period
of time?
(ii)
Explain sacrificial protection with an example.
(iii) What is a flux?

(iv) Write the balanced equation for the conversion of bauxite to sodium
aluminate in the Baeyers process.
(v)
B)
Write the balanced equation for the reduction of zinc oxide.
Name the following:

(i)
A non-metal which is ductile.
(ii)
A complex salt containing silver.
[5]
(iii) An ore which is concentrated by froth floation process.

(iv) Constituents of invar.
(v)
An organic compound made from water gas.
Question 6
A)
How are the following salts prepared? Give balanced equations for the
same:
(i)
Calcium sulphate from calcium carbonate.
(ii)
Lead carbonate from lead nitrate.
B)
Draw the electron dot structure for the formation of Hydronium ion.
C)
Calculate the mass of a mixture of gases of 11.2 litres of hydrogen and 8 litres of
nitrogen at STP.
D)
[2]
[2]
[3]
Calculate the empirical formula of a compound containing 37.6% of sodium,

23.1% of silicon and 39.3% of oxygen (Answer correct to two decimal places).
[3]
[O = 16, Na = 23, Si = 28]
Question 7
A)
Calculate the following:

(i)
(ii)
B)
C)
The gram molecular mass of nitrogen, if 360c.c.of the gas at STP weighs
0.45 grams.
[2]
The number of gram molecules of water in 4.5 grams of water.
[1]
Define the following:

(i)
Deliquescence
(ii)
Calcination
[4]
Write the IUPAC names for the following:
[3]
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
*****
VIBGYOR
HIGH

Sample Paper
COMMERCIAL STUDIES
Grade : X
Max. Marks
Date
: 80
INSTRUCTIONS:
answers.
Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from
Section B.
________________________________________________________________________
SECTION A
Question 1
Distinguish between:
(a)
Advertising and Publicity
[2]
(b)
Fixed Deposit and Current Deposit
[2]
(c)
Marketing and Selling
[2]
(d)
Trading Account and Profit and loss Account
[2]
(e)
Receipts and Payment Account and Income and Expenditure Account
[2]
Question 2
(a)
What are the features of Income and Expenditure Account?
[2]
(b)
Write a short note on ATM.
[2]
(c)
Distinguish between Fixed and Variable cost.
[2]
(d)
What is Deferred revenue expenditure?
[2]
(e)
What is Marketing Survey?
[2]
Question 3
(a)
What are the benefits of advertising to the society?
[2]
(b)
Why is master budget known as summary budget?
[2]
(c)
What are liquid Assets?
[2]
(d)
For a good salesman, what are the essential social attributes?
[2]
(e)
What is a bill of exchange?
[2]
Question 4
(a)
What is the difference between direct and indirect cost?
[2]
(b)
Explain any two types of banks.
[2]
(c)
What is standardization and grading?
[2]
(d)
Central bank is The lender of Last Resort. Explain.
[2]
(e)
What is the role of marketing research?
[2]
SECTION B
Attempt any four questions from this Section
Question 5
(a)
What are the functions of Central bank?
[5]
(b)
Budgets are very useful in management .Comment.
[5]
Question 6
(a)
Explain the steps of Marketing Research.
(b)
Marketing is essential for the growth of business. Explain in light of its

objectives.
[5]
[5]
Question 7
(a)
(b)
Explain any two media of Advertising. What are the essentials of a good
advertisement?
[5]
Marketing offers many benefits. Explain.
[5]
Question 8
(a)
What is the role of banks in economic development of a country?
(b)
Consumer Protection Act, 1986 has provided many rights to the consumers.
Explain any five of such rights.
[5]
[5]
Question 9
(a)
Differentiate between Capital and Revenue expenditure.
[5]
(b)
What are the techniques of Sales Promotion?
[5]
Question 10
Prepare a Trading A/c, Profit and Loss A/c and Balance Sheet of Mr. Rajan for the
year ended 31st March, 2013 from the following balances:
[10]
Salaries
400
Sales
7,819
Advertising
42
Carriage Inwards
Postage and Telegrams
27
Capital
3,600
Bad Debts
28
Creditors
1,124
Interest
130
loans
1,200
Discount (Dr.)
100
Debtors
388
Wages
430
Fixtures and Fittings
1,616
Opening Stock
995
Buildings
2,378
Purchases
6,200
Machinery
1,000
Closing Stock
1,430
*****
VIBGYOR
HIGH

Sample Paper
COMPUTER APPLICATIONS
Grade : X
Max. Marks
Date
: 100
INSTRUCTIONS:
answers.
This paper is divided into two sections.
Answer all questions from Section A, and any four questions from Section B.
Section A (40 Marks)

Attempt all the questions
Question 1
a)
Define Class.
[2]
b)
Differentiate between entry controlled loop and exit controlled loop
[2]
c)
What do you mean by precedence of operators?
[2]
d)
What are the two types of constructors?
[2]
e)
What is Byte code?
[2]
Question 2
a)
What is infinite loop? Give one example using while loop
[2]
b)
What is fall through condition?
[2]
c)
Name any two types of error in java.
[2]
d)
Write the java expression for
[2]
S=UT+ AT2
e)
What is Inheritance? Name the keyword to inherit the class.
[2]
Question 3
a)
Differentiate between call by value and call by reference.
[2]
b)
What are the escape sequences for tab space and carriage return?
[2]
c)
What is a message?
[2]
d)
Give the output of the following program segment:
[2]
int a=10, b=5;

int c = ++a - --b + b * a;
System.out.print(c);
e)
f)
Write function prototype for compare which has two integer parameter and returns
boolean value.
[2]
What is the output of the following program segment
[2]
String s1 = "smartphones are used worldwide";

String str1 = s1.substring(21,26).concat( );
String str2=str1.concat(s1. substring(21,22))+s1.substring(2,4);
System.out.println(str2);
g)
Name any two types of tokens.
[2]
h)
Convert the following program segment using ternary operator
[2]
int c;
if(a>b)
c=a-b;
else
c=b-a;
i)
Name any two types of comments in java
[2]
j)
Differentiate between Linear Search and Binary Search
[2]
Section B
Attempt any four questions from this Section.
Question 4
[15]
Create a class consumerLIC having the following description:

Data Members:
name name of the consumer
pno policy number
pramt premium amount paid to LIC/month
salary monthly salary
Member Methods:
consumerLIC() to initialise class variables
void accept () to input the name, pno, and salary of the consumer.
void calculation() to calculate pramt and grosssalary of the consumer as per given criteria:
Premium Amount = 15% of salary
Gross Salary = salary Premium Amount
void show () to print the name, pno, pramt, salary and grosssalary of the consumer.
Write a main method to create suitable object of the class and call member methods.
Question 5
[15]
Write a program to input the size of an array and then take input for these elements in
an ascending order. Then ask the user to enter the value to be searched and perform
binary search on the array.
Question 6
[15]
Write a program in Java to

Write a program in java to print the following pattern depending on users choice
Sample output for Choice 1
#0#0#
#0#0
#0#
#0
#
Sample output for Choice 2

1
12
123
1234
12345
Question 7
[15]
Write a program that input and checks whether or not two string arrays are identical,
that is, whether they have same number of string values and all string values in
corresponding positions are equal.
Question 8
[15]
Write a program to input a string. Print the given string after toggling each character of
the string.
Example
Input String: JaVA ProGRaMmE
Output String: jAva pROgrAmMe
Question 9
[15]
Design a class to overload a function compute() as follows:

(i)
double compute(double n) with one double argument. Compute its factorial and
returns the ans of the series.
ans = 2/1 + 3/5 + 4/23+ 5/119 + n terms
(ii)
double compute (double a, double n) with two double arguments and returns the
sum of the series.
ans = 1/a2 + 4/a5 + 7/a8 + 10/a11 .. to n terms
*****
VIBGYOR
HIGH

Sample Paper
ECONOMICS
Grade : X
Max. Marks
: 80
Date :
INSTRUCTIONS:
answers.
Attempt ALL questions from Section A and any four questions from
Section B.
________________________________________________________________________
Section A (40 Marks)
Attempt all questions from this Section.
Question 1
(a)
How does division of labour help in production?
(b)
More commodities are demanded at the same price. Does it indicate a change
[2]
in demand or change in quantity demanded?
[2]
(c)
What is Wagners Law?
[2]
(d)
Mention any two causes for the leftward shift of the supply curve.
[2]
(e)
Explain the key factors determining capital formation.
[2]
Question 2
(a)
What is galloping inflation?
[2]
(b)
Give two determinants of market demand for a commodity.
[2]
(c)
State two differences between tax and price.
[2]
(d)
Explain how Public Expenditure helps to lessen the inequalities of income and
(e)
wealth.
[2]
All currency is money, but all money is not currency. Explain.
[2]
1
Question 3
(a)
Explain any three factors that affect productivity of land.
[2]
(b)
Distinguish between stock and supply.
[2]
(c)
What is progressive taxation?
[2]
(d)
State the important contingent functions of money.
[2]
(e)
Explain any two causes of Demand pull inflation.
[2]
Question 4
(a)
How can direct tax helps in fostering social consciousness?
[2]
(b)
Explain the qualities of an entrepreneur.
[2]
(c)
What is debt trap?
[2]
(d)
Explain the effects of inflation on farmers and investors.
[2]
(e)
State the difference between simple and complex division of labour.
[2]
SECTION B
Attempt any four questions from this Section
Question 5
(a)
(b)
Define public finance? What are the differences between private and public
finance?
[5]
State and explain the law of demand.
[5]
Question 6
(a)
(b)
There is positive correlation between entrepreneurship and economic

development. Give five arguments in support of the above statement.
[5]
Explain the different stages in the evolution of money.
[5]
Question 7
(a)
Define price elasticity of demand. Explain its types.
[5]
(b)
Discuss the main causes of low level of efficiency of workers in India.
[5]
Question 8
(a)
Discuss the main reasons for the growth of public expenditure in modern time.
[5]
(b)
What is cost push inflation? Explain its causes.
[5]
Question 9
(a)
Direct and indirect taxes are mutually complementary to each other. Justify.
(b)
Explain the following terms briefly:

i)
Redeemable debt
ii)
Productive debt
iii)
External debt
[5]
Question 10
(a)
(b)
What is meant by supply of a commodity? Explain any four factors that determine
supply of a commodity.
[5]
How can inflation be controlled? Suggest measures.
[5]
*****
VIBGYOR
HIGH

Sample Paper
GEOGRAPHY
Grade : X
Max. Marks
Date
Time Allowed : 2hours
: 80
INSTRUCTIONS:
answers.
Attempt seven questions in all.
Part I is compulsory. All questions from Part I are to be attempted.
A total of five questions are to be attempted from Part II.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in

brackets [ ].
________________________________________________________________________
To be supplied with this paper: Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45 D/10
and 20cm of twine.
In all Map work, by a wise use of arrows to indicate positions ofcities and
other insertions that you make, you will be ableto avoid overcrowding parts
of the map.
The Map given at the end of this question paper must be fastened with your
answer booklet.
All sub-sections of each question must be answered in the correct order.
PART I (30 Marks)

(All questions are compulsory)
Question 1
Study the extract of the Survey of India Map Sheet number 45D/10 and answer
the following questions: (Year 2001)
a)
State the six figure grid reference of the surveyed tree south of Sarliya and spot
height 1336.
[2]
b)
Name the perennial sources of water for Abu settlement.
[2]
c)
Calculate the indirect distance between the causeway in 1403 and distance
stone 10 in meters.
d)
[2]
State the difference in meters the highest and the lowest triangulated heights on
the map.
[2]
e)
State the general slope of the map and give reason for your answer.
[2]
f)
Name a linear settlement on the map and state one prominent manmade feature
in it.
[2]
g)
Which is the universal scale on the map and why?
[2]
h)
Calculate the area in square kilometers enclosed between eastings 15 to 19 and

northings 04 to 07.
[2]
i)
Why is Abu settlement not connected to the southwestern part of the map?
[2]
j)
State the meaning of the following:
[2]
i)
Red cross (1911)
ii)
6r (1903)
Question 2
On the outline map provided, mark and label the following:
a)
River Ravi
[1]
b)
Singhbum
[1]
c)
Mark with a bold dash and label the important line of latitude that divides India
into two.
[1]
d)
Vindhyas
[1]
e)
Commercial capital of India
[1]
f)
Malwa Plateau
[1]
g)
South West monsoon winds-Arabian sea branch
[1]
h)
Chilka Lake
[1]
i)
Eastern Ghats
[1]
j)
Nathula pass
[1]
2
PART II (50 Marks)

(Attempt any five questions from this part)
Question 3
a)
How are the sources of rainfall in South India different from North West India in
winter season?
b)
c)
[2]
Define the following terms:

i)
Kalbaisakhi
ii)
October Heat
[2]
Give the reasons for each of the following:
d)
i)
Western coastal plains receive heavy rainfall.
ii)
Himalayas act as a climatic divide.
iii)
Chennai has more rainy months but experiences less rainfall than Mumbai.
[3]
Study the table below and answer the question that follows:
Months
Jan
Feb
Mar
Apr
May
Jun
Jul
Aug
Sep
Oct
Nov
Dec
Temp (oC)
24.4
25.4
26.7
29.3
30.0
29.9
29.8
27.8
26.9
26.3
25.1
24.8
Rain (cm)
0.1
0.3
0.5
0.6
3.8
26.8
29.6
30.5
26.5
11.9
1.1
0.2
Station X
i)
Name the driest month.
ii)
Calculate the annual range of temperature for station X.
iii)
What type of climate does this station experience?
[3]
Question 4
a)
Name the seasons experienced in India.
[2]
b)
Explain any four characteristic of Monsoons.
[2]
c)
Give the reasons for each of the following:
[3]
i)
Mangalore gets heavier rainfall than Bangalore.
ii)
People from North India visit South in December.
iii)
Lucknow is hotter in June than Mumbai.
d)
Study the table below and answer the question that follows:
Station
[3]
Month
Jan
Feb
Mar
Apr
May
June
July
Aug
Sept
Oct
Nov
Dec
TempC
12.7
15.1
22.1
31.8
37.2
39.1
37.3
33.4
28
26.7
16.1
13.6
Rain(cm)
2.1
2.3
1.0
0.9
1.5
5.6
18.3
18.9
15.1
0.6
0.3
1.8
TempC
23.1
24.8
26.5
29.3
32
32.8
33.1
32.1
30.5
29.3
28.7
26.1
Rain(cm)
15.3
10.1
0.3
0.1
1.3
4.5
6.1
10.2
10.5
20.1
16.8
19.0
i)
Which Station has an inlandand which Station has a coastal location?
ii)
What is annual range of temperature in Station A?
iii)
Name the winds that bring most of the rainfall to Station B. State one
reason for your answer.
Question 5
a)
Name the soil found in the Deccan trap region. Why is it known for its selfploughing quality?
[2]
b)
State any two effects of soil erosion.
[2]
c)
Give reasons:
[3]
d)
i)
Alluvial soil is called as loamy soil.
ii)
Red soil is used for dry farming.
iii)
Laterite soil is called leached soil.
Explain the following measures of soil conservation:

i)
Shelter Belts.
ii)
Terrace Farming.
iii)
Plugging Gullies.
[3]
Question 6
a)
Name the kinds of soil which:

i)
Is most widely found in Chhota Nagpur plateau.
ii)
Is a result of desilication
b)
Explain two ways by which soil can get Nitrogen.
c)
Mention two characteristics of Riverine soil. Name two fiber crops grown in this
soil.
d)
[2]
[2]
[3]
Answer the following:

i)
What is Humus?
ii)
What do you mean by loamy soil?
iii)
Explain one step which can be taken to prevent soil erosion by water.
[3]
Question 7
a)
State the characteristics of the tropical evergreen forest.
[2]
b)
Explain the correlation of the forest with the environment.
[2]
c)
Give reasons:
[3]
d)
i)
Tropical deciduous trees shed their leaves.
ii)
Type of vegetation varies in the Himalayan mountain range.
iii)
Area under forests is depleting in India.
Name the tree which has the following uses:

i)
It is eaten raw and is used as an astringent.
ii)
It is used for ornamental carving and for decoration.
iii)
Used for making furniture and radio cabinet.
[3]
Question 8
a)
Why canal irrigation is more developed in northern India as compared to

southern India.
[2]
b)
Explain the term Recharge Pit.
[2]
c)
Explain the term spray irrigation. State its disadvantages.
[3]
d)
Irrigation is required for the agricultural development in India. Explain the

statement.
[3]
Question 9
a)
What is Irrigation? State its need in India?
b)
Cherrapunji receives the highest amount of rainfall yet suffers from shortage of
[3]
potable water. Explain why?
[2]
c)
Give one advantage and disadvantage of well irrigation.
[2]
d)
Well Irrigation is not popular in Peninsular India.
[3]
Question 10
a)
Name the variety of coal which is used widely in industries in India. State its
properties.
b)
Name the oil refinery set up in collaboration with Russia and Romania. Why is
petroleum called as liquid gold?
c)
[2]
State any two uses of manganese. Name the districts in Madhya Pradesh where
manganese reserves are found?
d)
[2]
[3]
Answer the following:

i)
Why is limestone used in the iron and steel industries?
ii)
Name the byproducts of coal.
iii)
Name the largest aluminium plant in India. Where is it located?
[3]
5
Question 11
a)
Name the states which are the leading producers of Manganese. State the use of
Manganese in chemical industries.
[2]
b)
What is Brown coal? Name one site in India where it is mined.
[2]
c)
State the unique characteristics of Minerals found in India.
[3]
d)
Write a short note on the Damudas coal fields
[3]
Maps of Africa
*****
Name: __________________________________________Roll No. ________Grade/Div: X ______

Question 2
VIBGYOR
HIGH

Sample Paper
HISTORY AND CIVICS
Grade : X
Max. Marks
Date
: 80
INSTRUCTIONS:
answers.
_________________________________________________________________________
This paper is divided into 2 parts. Part I is compulsory. A total of five questions are to be
attempted from Part II, two out of three questions from Section A and three out of five
questions from Section B.
_________________________________________________________________________
Part I (30 Marks)
Attempt all questions from this Part
Question 1
a)
Name the body that elects the members of the Rajya Sabha.
[1]
b)
How is the Adjournment of the House different from its Prorogation?
[1]
c)
On what grounds can the Governor of a State recommend the imposition of the
Presidents rule in a State?
[1]
d)
State two functions of the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
[1]
e)
Who will be appointed the Prime Minister in case there is no political party
enjoying absolute majority in the Lok Sabha?
[1]
f)
Name the three categories of Ministers in order of their rank.
[1]
g)
Under what provision can a non-member of Parliament be made a Minister?
[1]
h)
What does the principle of collective responsibility imply?
[1]
i)
j)
State any one power of the Supreme Court which is not enjoyed by the other
courts in India.
[1]
What is meant by Judicial Review?
[1]
Question 2
a)
Mention four methods adopted by the British to expand their power in India.
b)
What was the General Service Enlistment Act of 1856? In what way did it
[2]
disregard the feelings of the Indian troops?
[2]
c)
What was the objective of the Ilbert Bill? Why was it not passed?
[2]
d)
Briefly explain any two drawbacks of the Lucknow Pact of 1916.
[2]
e)
Give one main factor which prompted the making of the historical Declaration of
20 August, 1917. What was the significance of this Declaration?
[2]
f)
Why was the Simon Commission appointed? Why was it boycotted everywhere?
[2]
g)
Name two events which disillusioned Gandhiji and turned him into a noncooperator from a cooperator with the British government.
h)
[2]
When was the Quit India Resolution passed? What was the immediate reaction
of the British Government to this resolution?
[2]
i)
Give the full form of UNICEF. Why was it established?
[2]
j)
How are the judges of the International Court of Justice elected? What is their
term?
[2]
Part II (50 Marks)

SECTION A
Attempt any two questions from this Section.
Question 3
With reference to the powers and functions of the Rajya Sabha and the Lok
Sabha, answer the following questions:
a)
What is an Ordinance? When is it promulgated and by whom? When does it

cease to operate?
b)
Name the two kinds of Bills that originate in the Parliament. What is the role of
the Upper House with respect to each of them?
c)
[3]
[4]
Give three reasons to justify how the Lok Sabha is more powerful than the Rajya
Sabha.
[3]
Question 4
The President of India enjoys vast powers.
In this context, briefly explain the following:
a)
His Diplomatic Powers
[4]
b)
His Military Powers
[3]
c)
His Financial Powers
[3]
Question 5
With reference to the independence and the impartiality of the Supreme Court of
India, explain the significance of each of the following provisions:
a)
Prohibition of Practice post Retirement
[2]
b)
Security of Salaries and Service Conditions
[3]
c)
Removal of Judges
[3]
d)
Freedom to Announce Decrees and Decisions
[2]
SECTION B
Attempt any three questions from this section.
Question 6
With reference to the growth of nationalism and the birth of the Indian National
Congress, answer the following questions:
a)
b)
How did the following encourage the rise of national sentiments in the Indians:(i)
Vernacular Press Act
[2]
(ii)
Role of the Press
[4]
State the immediate objectives of the Indian National Congress.
[4]
Question 7
There were many factors and events that led to the formation of the Muslim
League.
With reference to the above, answer the following questions:
a)
Describe the role played by Principal Beck in encouraging the formation of the
Muslim League?
b)
How did the Hindi Urdu controversy lead to the demand for the Muslim
League?
c)
[3]
[3]
What were the demands made by the Muslim Deputation in the address
prepared for the Viceroy, Lord Minto?
[4]
3
Question 8
In 1920, the Nagpur session of the Congress adopted a resolution for the NonCooperation Movement under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.
a)
Describe the reasons for the sudden withdrawal of this Movement.
[3]
b)
State and explain any four far reaching effects of this Movement.
[4]
c)
Name the Movement launched by Gandhiji on 12 March, 1930. How was it

different from this Movement?
[3]
Question 9
The United Nations Organization was established on 24 October, 1945.
a)
State the aims of the UNO.
[4]
b)
What are the functions of the executive body of the United Nations?
[3]
c)
Explain the efforts made by UNESCO in the field of communication.
[3]
Question 10
Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:
a)
Identify the three leaders in the picture.
[3]
b)
When was the Movement formally launched by them?
[1]
c)
State any three factors responsible for the development of this Movement.
[3]
d)
Mention any three objectives of this Movement.
[3]
*****
4
VIBGYOR
HIGH

Sample Paper
MATHEMATICS
Grade : X
Max. Marks
Date
: 80
INSTRUCTIONS:
answers.
All working, including rough work, must be clearly shown and must be
done on the same sheet as the rest of the answer. Omission of essential
working will result in the loss of marks.
Geometrical figures to be constructed wherever applicable.
For geometry, figures are to be copied to the answer script.

SECTION A (40 marks)
(Attempt all questions)
Question 1
a)
Find the value of a and b if x 1 and x 2 are factors of x3 ax + b.
b)
Solve the given inequation and graph the solution on the number line.
-2
c)
2
2
1
< 3 , y Z
y+
3
3
3
[3]
[3]
In the given figure, ABCD is a quadriteral inscribed in a circle with centre O.CD is
produced to E. If ADE =95 and OBA =30, calculate:
i)
OBC
ii)
OAC
Question 2
a)
In the given figure ABC is a triangle with EDB = ACB . Prove that
ABC ~ EBD. If BE= 6 cm, EC = 4 cm, BD = 5 cm and
area of BED= 9 cm2. Calculate the
b)
i)
length of AB
ii)
area of ABC.
The area of circular ring enclosed between two concentric circles is 286 cm2.
Find the radii of the two circles given that difference of radii is 7cm.
c)
[3]
[3]
A helicopter is flying at an altitude of 250m between two banks of a river. From

the helicopter it is observed that the angles of depression of two boats on the
opposite banks are 45 and 60 respectively. Find the width of the river. Give
your answer correct to the nearest metre.
[4]
Question 3
a)
All even numbered cards are removed from a pack of 52 playing cards. What is
the probability that a card picked up is
b)
i)
a face card
ii)
multiple of 3 of clubs
iii)
a prime number
[3]
A company with 10,000 shares of Rs.100 each declares an annual dividend of

5%.
i)
What is the total dividend paid by the company?
ii)
What would be the annual income of a man, who has 72 shares in the
company?
iii)
If he received only 4% on his investment, find the price he paid for each
share.
c)
[3]
Use a graph paper to answer the following question. Plot the points A (4, 3)
and B (-4,-3).From A and B draw perpendiculars AM and BN on the x-axis
(take 1cm= 1unit on both the axis).
i)
Name the image of A of reflection in the origin.
ii)
Name the figure AMBN and find its area.
iii)
Write the coordinates of the point to which M is mapped on reflection in

x- axis and y-axis.
[4]
Question 4
a)
The population of a town is 24000.It is increasing at the rate of 5% every year.

What will be the population of this town after 3 years? Also find the increase in
population in 3 years.
b)
c)
[3]
AP and BP are tangents .O is the centre. Find AOB and ACB .
[3]
Find x using property of proportion:
x 2 x + 1 14(x 1)
=
x 2 + x + 1 13(x + 1)
[4]
SECTION B (40 marks)

(Attempt any four questions)
Question 5
a)
Using ruler and compass, construct ABC, where AB = 5.5cm, BC = 3.2cm,

AC= 4.8cm.
i)
Draw the locus of a point which moves such that it is always at a distance of
2.cm from B.
ii)
Draw the locus of a point which moves such that it is equidistant from the
sides BC and AB.
iii)
Locate the point P in the interior of the triangle, which is the point of
intersection of the two loci. Measure AP.
b)
Find the equation of the line parallel to the line 3x + 2y = 8 and passing
through the point (0, 1).
c)
[3]
[3]
A wooden toy is in the form of a cone surmounted on a hemisphere. The

diameter of the base of the cone is 6cm and its height is 4cm. Find the cost of
painting the toy at the rate of Rs 5 per 100 cm2.
[4]
Question 6
a)
In a mixture of 45 litres, the ratio of milk to water is 13:2. How much water must
be added to the mixture to make the ratio of milk to water as 3:1?
b)
In the given circle, O is the centre, PQR =

49 and QRS = 21.Find OPS.
c)
Mr. Amit sold some Rs.20 shares paying 8% dividend at Rs.18 and invested the
[3]
proceeds in Rs.10 shares paying 12% dividend at 50% premium. If the change in
his annual income is Rs.360, find the number of shares sold by Mr. Amit.
[4]
Question 7
a)
ABCD is a rectangle, AP is perpendicular to BD.

i)
Prove that ABP DAP
ii)
If BP = 4.5cm, PD =8cm, AD = 10cm

find AP and AB
b)
If the coordinates of point A is (7,-8) and point B lies on the x-axis, find the
coordinates of B, if AB = 10 units.
c)
[3]
[3]
A shopkeeper buys an audio system at a discount of 10% from the wholesaler.

The printed price of the audio system is Rs.22000 and the rate of sales tax is
8%. The shopkeeper sells it to the customer at the printed price and charges tax
at the same rate. Find:
i)
the price at which the audio system can be bought.
ii)
The VAT paid by the shopkeeper.
[4]
Question 8
a)
Find the value of k for which the roots of the following equation are equal.
k2x2 2(2k-1) x + 4 = 0
[3]
b)
c)
The line through P (5, 3) intersects y-axis at Q

i)
Find the slope of line.
ii)
Write the equation of line.
iii)
Find the coordinate of Q.
[3]
PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral .RT is a tangent, PQR = 80 and SRT = 50.

Find the angles of PSR. If PS = 3cm and ST = 9cm, find the length RT.
[4]
Question 9
a)
b)
1 1
Let A
= [1 2] , where A is a matrix:
0 2
i)
State the order of the matrix A
ii)
Find the matrix A.
[3]
ABC is a triangle and G (4, 3) is the centroid of the triangle. If A = (1. 3),
B = (4, b) and C (a, 1), find a and b .Find the length of the side BC.
c)
[3]
Kamalpreet has an account in the State Bank of India. A page from her
passbook is given below:
Date
Particulars
Withdrawals
Deposit
Balance
(in Rs )
(in Rs)
(in Rs)
01-04-2008
BF
-------
-------
1400.00
10-05-2008
By cash
-------
700.00
2100.00
02-06-2008
To Self
1000.00
-------
1100.00
11-07-2008
To cheque
300.00
-------
800.00
21-08-2008
By cash
-------
1700.00
2500.00
03-10-2008
By cash
-------
2400.00
4900.00
If the interest earned by Kamalpreet at the end of December, 2008 was

Rs.87.75, find the rate of interest per annum.
[4]
Question 10
a)
Draw a circle of radius 3.5cm. Mark a point P outside the circle at a distance of
6cm from the centre. Construct two tangents from P to the given circle. Measure
and write down the length of the tangents.
b)
[3]
A solid right circular cylinder of radius 60cm and height 20cm is melted and
recast into a right circular cone of height 3 times that of the cylinder. Find the
slant height of cone.
c)
[3]
A trader buys x articles for a total cost of Rs 600. Write down the cost of one
article in terms of x. If the cost per article were Rs 5 more, the number of articles
that can be bought for Rs 600 would be four less. Write down the equation in x
for the above situation and solve it to find x.
[4]
Question 11
a)
In the given figure, find the area of the shaded region.

(Use = 3.14)
b)
[3]
Prove that:
cos A
sin A
sin A cos A
+
+1=
1 sin A 1 cos A
(1 sin A)(1 cos A)
c)
[3]
The compound interest on a certain sum of money at 5% per annum for two
years is Rs 246. Calculate the simple interest on the same sum for three years at
6% per annum.
[4]
*****
VIBGYOR
HIGH

Sample Paper
PHYSICAL EDUCATION
Grade : X
Max. Marks
Date
: 100
INSTRUCTIONS:
answers.
The questions paper divided in two sections.
ATTEMPT all questions from Section A.
ATTEMPT any TWO questions from Section B.
The intended marks for the questions or parts of questions are given in
brackets [ ].
SECTION A (50 marks)
Question 1
a)
Exercise has physical and psychological benefits on human health. Mention two
points to be kept in mind while performing exercises.
[2]
b)
Name two diseases which are caused by droplet infection.
[2]
c)
What are the symptoms of Bronchitis?
[3]
d)
Suggest three precautions to avoid accidents caused by cooking gas.
[3]
Question 2
a)
What is meant by community health?
[2]
b)
Give two points of difference between prescribed and non- prescribed drugs.
[2]
c)
What preventive measures would one adopt to control Tuberculosis?
[3]
d)
Mention the precautions that should be taken to avoid electrical accidents.
[3]
1
Question 3
a)
Name two sexually transmitted diseases.
[2]
b)
State two causes of accidents.
[2]
c)
What are the harmful effects of smoking?
[3]
d)
How is Ringworm caused? State its symptoms.
[3]
Question 4
a)
Name two causes of heart attack
[2]
b)
Explain two steps as to how the community can be healthful.
[2]
c)
What is obesity? List two causes of obesity.
[3]
d)
Name the pathogen (germ) which causes the following diseases:

i)
Cholera
ii)
Typhoid
iii)
Plague
[3]
Question 5
a)
Mention two points to be kept in mind for hair care.
[2]
b)
What precautions would you take to prevent Atheletes Foot?
[2]
c)
Name three preventive vaccines and the diseases for which they are given.
[3]
d)
Define the following:

i)
Antibiotic
ii)
Antiseptic
iii)
Disinfectant
[3]
SECTION B (50 marks)
Answer two questions from this section.
(You must attempt one Question on each of the following two games of your choice.)
FOOTBALL
Question 6
(a)
Write the following:

(i)
Length and breadth of the field.
(ii)
The distance of the penalty point from the goal line and from the penalty arc.
(iii) Breadth and height of the goal post.

(iv) Radius of centre circle and corner arc.
[8]
(b)
(i)
How many types of warning cards are used by a referee? What does
each card indicate?
(c)
(ii)
Write any three instances when a direct free kick is awarded.
(iii)
When is the ball considered out of play?
(i)
State any three cautionable offences and sent off offences committed by a
[9]
player in football.
(ii)
Name and explain any two techniques of passing the football on the ground. [8]
Question 7
(a)
(b)
State the following:

(1)
Minimum and maximum number of players to begin the match.
(2)
Full form of FIFA.
(3)
Officials for conducting a football match.
(4)
Duration of the match and duration of extra time.
(i)
Under what three situations is a player not considered off- side?
(ii)
State the position of the following during the execution of the penalty kick
[8]
in a game of football:
(1)
The ball
(2)
The defending goalkeeper
(3)
The players
(iii) State any three duties of a referee.

(c)
[9]
What decision will the referee give in the following cases?

(i)
When the goal is scored unintentionally by the centre referee.
(ii)
At a kick off the same player touches the ball a second time.
(iii) During a penalty kick the ball rebounds from the crossbar and the same
player kicks in the ball to score a goal.
(iv) A defence player intentionally handles the ball in the penalty area.
[8]
BASKETBALL
Question 8
(a)
Explain the following terms:

(i)
A jump ball
(ii)
Alternating possession
(iii) Player out of bounds

(iv) Blocking
[8]
3
(b)
Draw the diagram showing the dimensions of basketball play field.
(c)
(i)
(ii)
[9]
Explain the hand signals for the following:

(1)
Charged with the ball
(2)
Jump ball situation
(3)
Twenty- four second reset
(4)
Disqualifying foul
What is the procedure adopted to decide the winner if the match ends in a
tie?
(iii) What is the aim of each team?
[8]
Question 9
(a)
(i)
Mention two situations when the ball is considered live in a game of

basketball.
(ii)
What do you mean by game lost by forfeit?
(iii) What is understood by the term hook shot in basketball?

(iv) What is 8 second rule?
(b)
[8]
(i)
Differentiate between a Zone- Defence and a Man to Man Defence.
(ii)
Differentiate between Unsportsmanlike Foul and Disqualifying Foul.
(iii) Differentiate between a Foul and a Violation.

(c)
[9]
Give decisions for the following situations:

(i)
If a player deliberately scores a field goal in his teams own basket.
(ii)
A flagrant unsportsmanlike behavior by player while playing.
(iii) A player refuses to play after being instructed to do so by the referee.

(iv) If a player gives back court pass.
[8]
CRICKET
Question 10
(a)
Explain the following terms:

(i)
An overthrow
(ii)
A Yorker
(iii) A Run- out

(iv) Hitting the ball twice
[8]
(b)
Draw a neat labelled diagram of cricket field showing the following fielding
positions.
(i)
Cover
(ii)
Forward Short leg
(iii) Square leg

(iv) 3rd Man
(v)
Mid Wicket
(vi) Fine leg

(vii) Silly point
(viii) Wicket keeper
(ix) Mid on
(c)
(i)
List any four protective equipments used in the game of cricket.
(ii)
State the full form of ICC and BCCI.
[9]
(iii) When is a follow on implemented during the course of a test match?

(iv) Name four strokes played by a batsman.
[8]
Question 11
(a)
Explain the following terms in Cricket:

(i)
Mid wicket
(ii)
A Runner
(iii) Off spin

(iv) A Hit- Wicket
(b)
(i)
Explain any three instances when the ball becomes dead.
(ii)
Mention any three restrictions imposed on a substitute during a
[8]
match.
(iii) When is a ball deemed lost during play? What procedures are then
adopted in case the ball is declared lost?
(c)
[9]
What decision will the umpire give in the following cases?

(i)
The ball becomes unfit for play during the game.
(ii)
The bowler is incapacitate or suspended from playing during an over.
(iii) The ball touches the gloves of the batsmans hand holding the bat and a
catch is taken.
(iv) If a fielder willfully obstructs a batsman in running.
[8]
5
HANDBALL
Question 12
(a)
(i)
What is the weight and circumference of the ball for male and female
players?
(ii)
What decision shall the referee take if a player intentionally plays the ball in
his own goalarea and the ball does not enter the goal but is touched by the
goalkeeper?
(iii) What is the maximum time a player can hold on to a ball in a match?
(iv) Mention the number of officials required to conduct a match.
(b)
(i)
[8]
Explain how the winner team is decided if the game is a tie at the end of a
normal playing time.
(ii)
(c)
What is the procedure for a substitution during a match?
(iii) Mention any three acts which a goalkeeper is prohibited from indulging in.
[9]
Draw a neat labelled diagram of the handball playing court.
[8]
Question 13
(a)
Explain the following terms in handball.

(i)
7 meter line
(ii)
Substitution line
(iii) Safety zone

(iv) The goalkeeper throw
(b)
[8]
Write in briefly:
(i)
Name the different playing positions on the handball playfield.
(ii)
Mention any 3 duties of the score keeper.
(iii) What is meant by running in a game of handball?

(c)
(i)
State any four duties of the referee.
(ii)
List any four fundamental skills of handball.
[9]
(iii) Give the signal of referee for:

(1)
Time- out
(2)
Disqualification
[8]
*****
6

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VIBGYOR

First Term Examination

Time Allowed : 2 hours

Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.

You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.

This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.

Attempt all four questions.

As one door closes, another always opens.

Sita went to her Grandfather and sat down beside him.

Why was Sita willing to stay alone?

What had made Sita like the first monsoon shower?

(iii) Why did Sita have a scar on her thigh?

did she consider them useful?

What did Sita do with the snake?

Example: (0) to endure

(b) Fill in the blanks with an appropriate word:

She has acted ___________ my advice.

Never jump _____________ hasty conclusions.

(iii) His friends stood______________ him during his financial crisis.

The receptionist had to bear ______________ the customers rude behavior.

(vi) Our new car broke _____________ on the highway.

He completed his project before time. There were many obstacles.

(iii) I met Sheilas mother. She works in the factory nearby.

He is not only clever, but also hardworking.

The Mayor is inaugurating the new school tomorrow.

This is the most boring movie that I have ever seen.

First Term Examination

Time Allowed : 2 hours

Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.

You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.

This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.

He shall do this, or else I do recant

(iii) How does Portia try to trap Shylock?

I am very glad of it; Ill plague him; Ill

(iii) What news, given by Tubal brings joy to Shylock?

Shakespeare marvels in contrasting two characters on the same issue of loyalty.

The woods are lovely, dark and deep.

(iii) What did the horse do? Why was it bewildered?

(iv) Explain the line- and miles to go before I sleep.

The poem Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening expresses the conflict

Only after devastation can we be resurrected. Explain with reference to the

The Kabuliwala presents a living example of human relationships. Elaborate.

First Term Examination

Time Allowed : 3 hours

Answer to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.

You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.

This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.

This paper consists of two sections, Section A and Section B

Attempt all the questions from Section A.

Attempt any four questions from Section B, answering at least one

The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in

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