AIR LAW

REVISION QUESTIONS

REVISION QUESTIONS CHAPTER 7
1.

What is the lCAO document that defines the Procedures for Air Navigation?
a.
b.
c.
d.

2.

Why do PANS OPS require a separate document from the Annexes
a.
b.
c.
d.

3.

Directional Monitoring Equipment
Distance Monitoring Equipment
Digital Measurement Equipment
Distance Measuring Equipment

What does the abbreviation OCH stand for?
a.
b.
c.
d.

5.

The procedures are outside of the scope of the SARPS
The procedures are too complicated for pilots to understand
The document is not only relevant to air crew
The Annexes are too big to contain all the extra information

What does the abbreviation DME stand for?
a.
b.
c.
d.

4.

The Chicago Convention
Doc 8168
JAR Ops 1
lCAO Annex 6

Obstacle Clearance Height
Observed Clearance Height
Overall Clearance Height
Operational Ceiling Height

What basic assumption is made with regard to the capability of the aeroplane when discussing
departure procedures?
a.
b.
c.
d.

That it can comply with the noise abatement requirements
That the procedure is capable of being flown by the average pilot
That all engines are working
That the initial part of the procedure will be flown with the flaps and lift enhancers
operating

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REVISION QUESTIONS

AIR LAW

6.

A category A aeroplane is defined as having a maximum climb out turning speed of 120 kt.
What would you expect the maximum turning speed of a category E aeroplane to be?
a.
b.
c.
d.

7.

In designing a departure procedure reference is made to the DER. What is the DER?
a.
b.
c.
d.

8.

Direct
Straight
Turning
Omni-directional

A departure procedure from runway 26L requires the aeroplane to climb straight ahead to 500
ft and then intercept the 350 inbound radial to an en-route VOR beacon, what type of procedure
would this be?
a.
b.
c.
d.

10.

Directional extension required
Drag engagement rate
Departure end of the runway
Distance/Energy ratio

If a departure procedure was based on tracking directly outbound on a radial from a VOR beacon
situated on the aerodrome to a point 12 nm from the end of the runway before turning to join
airways, what type of departure procedure would this be?
a.
b.
c.
d.

9.

Greater than 120 kts
Less than 120 kts
Unlimited
At the pilot's discretion

Direct
Straight
Turning
Omni-directional

If the initial departure track required by a departure procedure requires a tum of more than a
specified angle, a turning area is to be constructed to ensure the aeroplane is safe during the tum.
What is the specified angle above which the tur:ning area is required?
a.
b.
c.
d.

5 deg
15 deg
45 deg
90 deg

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c. can you pre-set the system to fly a laid down departure procedure? a.71 © Oxford Aviation Services Limited . REVISION QUESTIONS As sectors to be avoided or minimum climb gradient/minimum altitude sectors As geographic radar vectoring sectors with the minimum safety altitude specified As VOR radials and DME ranges delineating the restricted zones As notified danger areas If you have a sophisticated EFIS coupled flight management system linked to an auto pilot. d. d. 15. d. c. b. Ignore it Abort the take off Continue the departure in accordance with the contingency procedure Carry out a circling approach and land at the aerodrome from which you have just taken off Who is responsible for deciding the contingency procedure in the event of an engine failure? a. No. b. b.AIR LAW 11. c. 16. b. 13. b. but only in CAT HIe operations 7 . d. c. providing you monitor the system Yes. how are the restrictions specified? a. c. 295ft (90m) 495 ft (150m) 394 ft (120m) 969ft (300m) Where details of an omni-directional departure procedure are published. but only in VMC Yes. The Commander The Authority of the state of registration The Authority of the State of the Operator The Operator What determines when an omni-directional departure procedure should be established? a. the specified procedure must be flown manually Yes. d. what is the pilot required to do? a. 12. c. To what height is the climb required before turning? a. If an engine fails at VI. d. 14. b. Where no specific track guidance is required In mountainous terrain At aerodromes with no ATC facilities Take offs from aerodromes on the coast where the take off path is all over the sea An omni-directional departure procedure requires the aircraft to be flown straight ahead and climb before turning.

d. d. d. c. b. What is the minimum obstacle clearance provided by the MSA? a. Is this always true? a. 22. the procedure may be flown on timings What is the difference between a precision approach and a non-precision approach? a. b. c. b. b. the final approach can begin at the interception of the glide path No. c. True heading Mag heading True track Mag track 7 -72 © Oxford Aviation Services Limited . Yes Yes. 19. Each of the approach segments starts and ends at fixes. For a non-precision approach it is permissable for the approach to be offset by up to what angle? a. The degree of accuracy of the track alignment in the final approach The degree of accuracy with which the touchdown point can be identified The method of determination of azimuthal information in the final approach The method by which the vertical displacement of the aeroplane is determined in the final approach A straight in approach is one in which the final approach is aligned with the runway heading. c. b. c. 18.REVISION QUESTIONS AIR LAW 17. Which of the following is not one of the five approach procedure segments? a. but only where a fix is available and within the required tolerance No. c. 300m within 25nm 500ft within 10nm 1000ft within 50nm 120m within 40km On the STAR plate you will be given information to guide you from one fix to the next. d. b. 21. d. d. 20. Initial Missed Approach Terminal Intermediate 30 deg 45 deg 90 deg 180 deg It is a requirement of any approach procedure that minimum sector altitudes (MSA) are to be established for each aerodrome. What type of information is supplied? a.

b. c. c. visual minima to land It is the MDH if the glide path information is lost It is the minimum allowance added to the dominant obstacle allowance by the operator to obtain decision height What is the datum against which the obstacle clearance height (OCH) for a non-precision approach is normally referenced? a. d. the designer will base the procedure on certain minimum criteria one of which is aircraft speed. gear down and lift enhancers extended Minimum drag speed Threshold speed Mean Sea Level Aerodrome Datum height Aerodrome elevation Threshold elevation of the landing runway. Mean Sea Level Aerodrome datum height Aerodrome elevation Threshold elevation 7 -73 © Oxford Aviation Services Limited . d. 1. 26. c. 25. d.3 x the stalling speed in the landing configuration 2 x (Vne . Specifically. Normal cruising speed Average speed with flaps.V md) V2 +10 kts V max drag or the maximum undercarriage down speed. b. How is the speed referred to in Q23 calculated? a. b. 27. b.REVISION QUESTIONS AIR LAW 23. 24. (whichever is less) minus 10 kts What is the datum against which the obstacle clearance height (OCH) for a precision approach is referenced? a. In designing an approach procedure. d. It is the lowest height at which a missed approach must be initiated It is the height at which an aircraft correctly positioned on the glide path must obtain the c. c. What is the relevance of the OCH for a precision approach? a. what speed is the designer interested in? a. d. b.

It is the height at which visual reference must be obtained It is the height at which a missed approach must be initiated It is the lowest height to which the aircraft can descend and not infringe the obstacle d. b. d. In Q27 the word 'normally' is used. obstacle whichever is higher The highest obstacle in the final approach segment The highest obstacle within 10nm The obstacle upon which the minimum sector altitude is based No. REVISION QUESTIONS If the aerodrome is below sea level Runway threshold if that was more than 2m below aerodrome elevation Runway threshold if that was more than 2m above aerodrome elevation In Northern Ireland. 29. 31. in both procedure cases the dominant obstacle height defines the lowest safe approach height Which of the following correctly defines the Minimum Obstacle Clearance (MOC)? a. c. c. for a non-precision approach the dominant obstacle is the highest obstacle in the final approach segment Yes. both approaches have the same dominant obstacle criteria Yes. c. Under what circumstances would another datum be used for the reference? a. b. Is the dominant obstacle for a non-precision approach different from that for a precision approach. c. b. It is 250ft above the height of the highest obstacle in the in the approach path clearance criteria 30. and if so why? a. What constitutes the dominant obstacle for a precision approach? a. The highest approach. or missed approach. d. The dominant obstacle allowance The difference between the dominant obstacle height and the minimum decision height The fixed allowance added to the dominant obstacle height to give MDH 250 feet (75m) except in mountainous areas where it may contain an additional allowance for the local terrain 7 -74 © Oxford Aviation Services Limited . d. b. 32. d.AIR LAW 28. b. the Belfast Bay Datum What is the relevance of the OCH for a non-precision approach visual (circling) manoeuvre? a. in a non-precision approach the dominant obstacle is called the highest sector obstacle No. c.

b. b.AIR LAW 33. 35. b. Secondary Surveillance Radar ILS localiser VOR beacon NDB beacon 7 -75 © Oxford Aviation Services Limited . In plotting fixes for use in instrument approaches. but only the intermediate and final approach segments No. What is the name given to the area in which an intersection fix may lie? a. c. d. d. The fix tolerance area The intersection area The maximum accuracy area The RNP fix accuracy area Which of the following do you think is most likely to lead to the greatest inaccuracy in obtaining a fix during an instrument approach? a. Initial approach Fix (IAF) Missed Approach Fix (MAF) Final Approach Fix (F AF) Turning Point (TP) In Nav General you have come across 'cocked hats'. d. c. d. only the width of the primary area Which of the following is not a fix or point used in an instrument approach? a. 37. the designer also takes into account the accuracy of the fixing aid( s). Is Moe provided over the entire base width of the cross sectional area of the approach segments? a. Yes No Yes. b. d. b. c. c. 36. 34. c. REVISION QUESTIONS Aircraft speed Aircraft altitude Aircraft distance from the facility Proximity of high ground Which of these facilities is the most accurate at providing track information? a.

5 and 0. Why does the accuracy ofa radar fix depend upon the speed of the aeroplane? a. The VOR because it uses VHF The NDB because the aerial is a simple dipole It depends upon the type of aircraft Not a lot in it really. b. Which is the most accurate? a. You may hear the term 'fan' marker used. b. Fix tolerances are also applied radar fixes and these are related distance from the radar transmitter. 42. position fixes are introduced by the use of75Mhz or' Z' beacons. c. b. and the last fix will therefore be more inaccurate for a fast target. although the cone of ambiguity is tighter for the NDB 7 -76 © Oxford Aviation Services Limited . d. c. a fast contact will move further than a slow one during the rotation. c. REVISION QUESTIONS Because of the speed the aeroplane is moving Because the aircraft system cannot cope with instantaneous change of bearing Because of the cone of ambiguity over the aerial system of a beacon Because the aircraft aerials are usually on top of the aeroplane and shielded from the transmissions from the beacon Comparing VOR with NDB. c. d. Surveillance radar at 60nm Terminal area radar at 20 nm Surveillance radar at 40nm Terminal area radar at 40 nm As part of an ILS system. Because of the Doppler effect Because the aspect of the target to the radar head is speed related Because a slow target will be lost in ground clutter Because the target position is only updated once every rotation of the radar. 40. b. c. In some cases radar vectoring is used to guide the aeroplane onto the approach procedure. 5.5nm from touchdown.AIR LAW 38. What is the typical accuracy of a fix from such a beacon?? a. In such cases surveillance radar or terminal area is used. which gives the best fix when 'on top' the beacon? a. 41. b. These define the outer and middle marker positions at approx. d. d. 39. d. 1 nm at 1000ft 350m at 1000ft Not very good because of the frequency Very good laterally but poor longitudinally Why are there errors in fixing when on top of a beacon? a.

45. b. d.0° (300ft/ml) 4. c. b. To provide a buffer between the Arrival segment and the Final approach segment To provide airspace for the aircraft to reduce height and speed To provide airspace for the aircraft to reduce speed and change configuration To allow plenty of space for lining up on the final approach path 7 -77 © Oxford Aviation Services Limited . b. 48.8° (400ft/ml) 6. 46.AIR LAW 43.00% or 3.50% or 3. c. d. 6. c. Initial segment Arrival segment Arrival route En-route segment Where does the initial approach segment of an instrument approach start? a. At the initial fix At the arrival fix The start of the arrival route The end of the arrival route For a precision procedure. An instrument procedure normally starts at the initial approach fix (IAF). d.00% or 3. 5nm 10nm 15nm 20nm What is the optimum descent gradient in the final approach segment of an instrument approach? a. 47. what is the maximum interception angle from the initial approach segment to the IF? a. b.5° (250ft/ml) The en-route phase of a flight usually involves flight along airways. c. What is the maximum distance that the Final Approach Fix (F AF) can be located from the runway threshold? a. d.5° (350ft/ml) 5. c. d. b. c. d. 44. What is the name of the segment between the recommended point of leaving the airway and IAF? a. REVISION QUESTIONS 45° 60° 90° 120° What is the purpose of the intermediate approach segment? a.50% or 2. b.

c. climb. 50. b. d.5nm from the threshold of the runway The position related to a time interval after passing the IAF A specified distance from the FAF For a non-precision procedure. Yes No Yes. 54. providing the approach is a non-precision approach No. A Missed Approach Procedure begins at the Missed Approach Point On an ILS the missed approach procedure begins at DH/A The missed approach point may be defined as a fix or time and distance from a fix On an ILS no glide path approach the missed approach point is the middle marker The missed approach point can be defined by which of the following? a. 51. d. Secondary missed approach. intermediate missed approach. Initial missed approach. b. REVISION QUESTIONS At MDH/A if the visual reference has not been obtained At the missed approach point ifvisual reference has not been obtained If aircraft is below 1000ft and the RVR is reported to be below minima At any point visual contact with the runway is lost In the event of a missed approach prior to the missed approach point which of the following is the correct course of action? a. Is the final approach always made to a runway? a. final missed approach Initial missed approach. 53. b. Fly to the MAPt at the DH/A or MDH/A before initiating the procedure If above DHIA or MDHIA continue to descend until reaching the MAPt Climb immediately to the height/altitude specified in the procedure flying via the MAPt Maintain height and fly to the MAPt and begin the procedure from there 7 -78 © Oxford Aviation Services Limited . c. return to the IF Decision. b. c. a non precision approach can be made to an aerodrome Which of the following correctly identifies the phases of a missed approach? a. The point of interception of the localiser with the applicable DHIA Not more than 1. d. manoeuvre. 52. c. d. d. procedure Which of the following is correct? a. b.AIR LAW 49. at what point must the missed approach procedure be immediately initiated? a. c. b. d. c. final missed approach Overshoot.

d. b.AIR LAW 55. 58. 56. Why are there no turns prescribed in the initial missed approach segment? a. b. The visual phase to be flown in specified sectors at a lower altitude than the overall area obstacle clearance height Different types of approach to be flown leading to the visual phase Use of the instrument DR/A in the visual phase A right hand circuit to be flown Apart from obstacle clearance. minimum visibility Aircraft speed and weight MOC in the final approach phase Cloud ceiling and visibility A basic assumption is made concerning visual manoeuvring. Climbing turns are not recommended The aircraft may be so low that a wing may hit the ground in a tum The pilot will be too busy changing configuration to be able to cope with a tum as well The initial track will be roughly along the runway so that is a safe direction and no turns are needed What is a Visual Manoeuvre (Circling)? a. c. c. b. What is it? a. d. b. What does this allow? a. d. c. c. c. what is the OCR for the visual manoeuvre is based on? a. d. In the event of a missed approach it will allow the pilot to circle the aerodrome and regain the instrument runway threshold It is another name for a visual circuit at an aerodrome of which the A TZ is class A It allows an back-beam ILS to be flown to the downwind end of the runway and then land on the upwind end It is a visual phase after an instrument approach to allow a landing on a runway not suitable for a straight in approach The VM(C) Area is sectored. That the aeroplane can remain in VMC throughout the visual phase The missed approach procedure for th~ instrument phase of the approach is good at all times during the visual phase That the pilot will remain in visual contact with the threshold of the landing runway throughout That the OCR for the visual phase must be higher than the DR for the instrument phase 7 -79 © Oxford Aviation Services Limited . REVISION QUESTIONS Aircraft category. b. d. 59. 57.

10 km 9. What do these procedures cater for? a. 65. 64. Different handling characteristics of aeroplanes Skill levels of pilots The orientation of the holding direction To allow 3 aeroplanes to join the hold at the same time In still air. d. c. b. d. d. 61. c. 1 minute 1Y2 minutes 2 minutes 2 Y2 minutes Where would you normally leave a holding pattern? a. c. If the aeroplane has a Flight Management System fitted and it is decided to use it during a precision approach. d. d. c. b. 63. 62. the holding side is now the buffer side Yes the entry procedures are reversed (procedure 1 is now Offset etc . b. a right hand holding pattern is called a procedure tum There are three types of entry procedure into the holding pattern.80 © Oxford Aviation Services Limited .. The procedure must be monitored on the basic display normally associated with the procedure The DH must be increased by a factor specified by the operator The RVR is reported at all times The missed approach procedure must be initiated if the FMS fails Is there any difference in a holding pattern where the holding tum is left instead of right? a. b. c.AIR LAW 60. what must also be done? a. REVISION QUESTIONS On the outbound leg On the inbound leg At the holding point Overhead the fixing facility How far does the buffer area extend beyond the boundary of the holding area? a. No the patterns are symmetrical Yes. what is the outbound leg time for holding at 10 OOOft? a. c. ) Yes.3 nm 3 nm 5 nm 7 . d. b. b.

You are tracking towards the beacon heading 355 T. c. 67. Why is a lowest holding altitude (LHA) specified? a. d. What type of entry procedure will you employ? a. Parallel Offset Direct Don't know (this option does not exist!) At what point would you normally start the timing for the holding pattern in Q67? a. which ever occurs later What are the two main objectives of altimeter setting? a. 69. c.81 © Oxford Aviation Services Limited . The minimum holding level is FL160. d. The holding direction is 180 and the holding tum is right at the facility. So that obstacle clearance can be achieved So that as many aeroplanes as possible can use the holding facility So that an airway can exist under the holding pattern So that the lowest level in the holding pattern is above the initial level for any arrival or departure procedure A holding pattern is set up on the WOT beacon. The variation is 7° East and the drift 5° starboard. c. 70. b. At the fix Abeam the fix When the outbound tum is complete Over or abeam the fix. Which of the following correctly defines altitude? a. 68. b. b. REVISION QUESTIONS To read height and barometric pressure QNH to be set in the vicinity of the aerodrome and QFE en route To provide adequate terrain clearance and vertical separation To provide altimeter reference to MSL above the transition altitude and to aerodrome level below. d. d.AIR LAW 66. c. d. b. Vertical position with reference to MSL Vertical position with reference to aerddrome elevation Vertical position with reference to touchdown Vertical position with reference to the standard pressure level 7 . c. b.

82 © Oxford Aviation Services Limited . b. c. c. 74. the VFR level is the IFR level plus 500' ifbelow FL290 At what point in a flight is the QNH communicated to the pilot by ATC? a.AIR LAW 71. c. b. d. Which of the following correctly defines height? a. c. 75. b. 73.25mb Where QNH = QNE What is the relationship between IFR and VFR flight levels? a. b. d. b. 72. d. Vertical position with reference to MSL Vertical position with reference to aerodrome elevation Vertical position with reference to touchdown Vertical position with reference to the standard pressure level If the QNH is 991 Mb where is FLO? (Assume 1 Mb = 30 ft) a. but IFR levels must only be flown in IMC For a given mag track. REVISION QUESTIONS VFR levels are odd levels and IFR are even levels IFR levels are flown on mag tracks from 000 to 179 and VFR levels from 180 to 359 VFR levels may be flown in VMC or IMC. c. d.25mb The atmospheric pressure level of 1013 . 76. c. Vertical position with reference to MSL Vertical position with reference to aerodrome elevation Vertical position with reference to touchdown Vertical position with reference to the standard pressure level Which of the following correctly defines flight level? a. b. d. The first flight level above the transition level The level defined with reference to a QNH of 1013. d. Below sea level! 660 ft above mean sea level 660 ft above the transition level 660 ft below the transition altitude Which of the following is the location of FLO? a. On engine start In the taxi clearance In the ATC clearance With the take-off clearance 7 .

c. On the approach plate it tells you that the transition level is FL50. b. You only need the departure aerodrome and destination aerodrome QNHs and then interpolate the difference whilst en route Ask the met man to forecast the QNH for the route before you take off Ask the FIS controller for local aerodrome QNHs Set 1013 mb and add the root mean squared difference between the departure and destination aerodrome QNHs and 1013. 78. 79. Your flight conditions are VMC and you are flying VFR. The radar controller tells you set the Birmingham QNH 1007 and descend to and maintain 4500 ft. 80. convert the difference to altitude at the rate of 1mb = 27ft and then add this to the safety altitude to give you the lowest safe en route altitude You are approaching an aerodrome to land and call the approach controller at 10nm from the edge of the ATZ. b.AIR LAW 77. c. When would you expect to be advised to set the aerodrome QNH? a. b. d. Set 1007 immediately and advise leaving 7000 ft for 4500 ft Leave 1013 set until at FL50 then set 1007 and descend to 4500 ft Tell the radar controller that you cannot accept his clearance as you are above the transition level. d. If you are flying outside an aerodrome traffic zone. What do you do? a. b. c. from where would you get altimeter setting information whilst airborne? a. d. REVISION QUESTIONS On initial contact the app controller will pass QNH and tell you what altitude to fly at On clearance to enter the traffic pattern established for a visual join to land When descending below the transition altitude On handover from approach to tower You are carrying out an instrument approach to land at Birmingham International. what are you required to set on your altimeter sub scale? a. Regional QFF The lowest forecast pressure setting with respect to MSL for the area in which you are flying The local QNH obtained from FIS or the nearest aerodrome The QFE for the highest aerodrome in the vicinity If you are flying en route below the transition level but are well briefed with regard to safety altitude.83 © Oxford Aviation Services Limited . d. c. Assume that the radar controller knows what he is doing but make sure that you report the matter when you land 7 . You are IMC at FL 70.

REVISION QUESTIONS AIR LAW 81. Mode 1 is visual approaches only and mode 2 is a mixture of visual and instrument approaches Mode 1 requires ILS Cat III criteria whereas mode 2 is either Cat I or Cat II Mode 2 requires radar separation to be applied between aircraft using adjacent ILS systems Mode 1 permits straight in approaches whereas mode 2 doesn't. d. b. What would a serviceable altimeter read? a. c. d. 1. 85. b. 5.3 and 5 1.4 and 5 Where both the parallel runways have ILS or MLS systems installed Where the runways are separated by not less than 760 metres Where one runway is used for take-offs and the other for landings Where the angle of divergence from the.2. restricted airspace etc . c. 82. The height of the aeroplane above the datum The elevation of the position of the aeroplane plus the height of the altimeter static vent The altitude of the aeroplane above the datum The height of the aeroplane above mean sea level corrected for temperature error and with reference to a set point on the surface of the aerodrome In selecting a flight level for a flight. c. b. Why are parallel runway operations used? a. 84. Adequate terrain clearance is ensured ATC requirements (Danger Areas. What is the difference between these modes of operation? a. b. 2. 4.. ) are complied with Minimum traffic separation is ensured Adequate separation from VFR traffic is ensured (differential flight levels applied) The appropriate flight level in accordance with the table of flight levels The level chosen complies with the table of cruising levels a. 3.2 and 5 All the above 1.84 © Oxford Aviation Services Limited . d. You test your altimeter with aerodrome QNH set. To make the most use of the runways available To increase an aerodromes IFR traffic capacity in IMC To cut down queues at the holding points and make slot times more attainable To increases separation between aeroplanes making instrument approaches Where is it feasible to use parallel runway approach operations? a. b.3. 83. parallel is not more than 15 deg There are 2 basic modes of parallel runway approach operations: Mode 1 and Mode 2. d. which of the following should be taken into consideration? 1. 7 . d. c. c.

b. b. d. All of it % of it Half of it ( Y4 either side of the extended centreline) Only the inner half When would a radar approach controller intervene to manoeuvre an aircraft in a parallel approach situation? a. d. where does the NTZ start? a. providing the departure procedures do not interfere with the missed approach procedure for the instrument approach runway No.AIR lAW 86. d. b. REVISION QUESTIONS During Mode 2 (dependant parallel approach) operations only During independent parallel approaches (Mode 1) when the NTZ is penetrated by another aircraft When radar separation is lost during penetration of the NTZ When 1000 ft separation cannot be maintained between approaching aircraft Where independent parallel approach operations are established. c. c. how much of the NOZ is used? a. Is it feasible to use one runway for take-offs and the other for landings? a. 88. 90.85 © Oxford Aviation Services Limited . c. d. c. 87. d. Yes. b. 89. b. c. it is known as Mode 4 segregated parallel operations Yes. providing all the departures are 'straight departures' (ie initial departure track within15 deg of runway heading) What does NOZ stand for? a. Where adjacent aeroplanes are established on the ILS centreline The Final Approach Fix (F AF) Where normal radar separation can no longer be applied The point where 1000 ft separation is lost 7 . because there must be a dedicated direction of tum for the missed approach procedure and this would preclude departures in that direction Yes. The No Obstruction Zone The Normal Operating Zone The Normal Operations Zone The Not Over Zero weight area Where independent parallel approach operations are in operation.

Only on controlled flights When in receipt of a radar service ie Radar advisory or Radar control On all commercial flights When required by A TC You are entering a FIR where SSR is used from an area where SSR is not used. d. Switch the set off Try recycling the transponder and set 7777 to maximise the response Tell ATC Just forget it. d.REVISION QUESTIONS AIR LAW 91. What would you squawk? a. d. d. Straight in approaches only All approaches to be radar monitored Maximum centreline (localiser) interception angle to be 30 deg No reduction of 1000 ft separation unless both aircraft are established on the ILS localiser Diverging tracks to be established for missed approach procedures a. c. Which of the following are correct for parallel approach operations? 1. b. c. b. 93. 3. Standby A/1234 + C A17000 + C A/2000 + C Your aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference (hi jacking). c. c. 2. c. d. 92. what would you squawk? a. 95. 94. 5.4 and 5 3. b.86 © Oxford Aviation Services Limited .4 and 5 2.3. When are SSR transponders to be operated? a. 4. b.3. All the above 1.4 and 5 A17700 + C A17600 + C A17500 + C Either A17700 or A17500 depending uP9n the situation What are you required to do if you become aware that your transponder has failed? a. the controller will soon notice 7 . Without upsetting the man with the gun. b.

Al7777 + C A/5678 + C A/2000 +C AlOOOO + C On a single SSR control box/selector system (ie no changeover switch). Advisory. d. b. Squawk 'standby'. c. 98. Counselling and Arbitration Service Anti-Collision Action System Automatic Collision Avoidance System Airborne Collision Avoidance System How often are ranges to be passed during an SRA terminating at 2 nm from touchdown? a. Which of the following is an invalid squawk? a. c. Only change one digit at a time It doesn't matter because there is a delay built into the ground station What does the abbreviation ACAS mean? a. then change the code.87 © Oxford Aviation Services Limited . Squawk 'off'. then change the code. d. then squawk 'normal'. d. 97. c. c. b. REVISION QUESTIONS Every mile Every half mile As required Every mile until 4 nm from touchdown then every half mile after that Precision Approach Radar (PAR) may be used to provide distance and centre line information (PAR in azimuth only). 99. b.AIR LAW 96. Precision Instrument approach SRA Non-precision instrument approach Radar vectored approach 7 . d. what is the correct procedure for changing squawk? a. What type of an approach is this? a. c. 100. b. then squawk 'normal'. d. b.

AIR LAW REVISION QUESTIONS ANSWERS TO REVISION QUESTIONS FOR CHAPTER 7 1 B 26 A 51 C 76 B 2 A 27 C 52 D 77 C 3 D 28 B 53 B 78 C 4 A 29 C 54 C 79 B 5 C 30 A 55 C 80 A 6 A 31 B 56 D 81 B 7 C 32 C 57 A 82 A 8 B 33 D 58 A 83 B 9 C 34 B 59 B 84 A 10 B 35 A 60 A 85 C 11 B 36 C 61 A 86 C 12 D 37 B 62 C 87 B 13 A 38 D 63 A 88 D 14 C 39 B 64 C 89 B 15 A 40 B 65 D 90 D 16 B 41 C 66 A 91 A 17 C 42 D 67 B 92 C 18 C 43 B 68 B 93 D 19 D 44 C 69 C 94 D 20 A 45 C 70 A 95 C 21 A 46 D 71 B 96 B 22 D 47 B 72 D 97 A 23 D 48 C 73 A 98 D 24 A 49 D 74 C 99 A 25 D 50 A 75 D 100 C 7 .88 © Oxford Aviation Services Limited .