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Unit 1 Review & Test

For each of Questions 1-4, select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.
1. Parents often live --------- lives through their children, and they do so with great
pride.
(A) sensory
(B) vicarious
(C) dexterous
(D) despondent
(E) sporadic

2. Throughout the winter, nothing aroused the bear from his ---------: he would not
emerge from hibernation until spring.
(A) lethargy
(B) collaboration
(C) resilience
(D) retrospect
(E) ambiguity

3. On occasion, the coaches thought Peters (i) --------- attitude was a (ii) --------- to
her play on the soccer field.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) scrupulous

(D) discretion

(B) gregarious

(E) lethargy

(C) facetious

(F) detriment

4. Not being a (i) --------- ruler, she ordered the use of force to (ii) --------- the people
who accused him of using the countrys reserves to invest on (iii) ---------projects, believed by all experts to be of no use to anyone.
Blank I

Blank ii

(A) sporadic

(D) squelch

(B) scrupulous

(E) fritter away

(C) ostentatious

(F) scoff at

Blank iii
(G) inadvertent
(H) despondent
(I) inane

For each of Questions 5- 6, select the two answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the sentence
as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.
5. Untempered by any ---------, she spread an ever more militant message to her

followers.
(A) dissidents
(B) wisdom
(C) zealots
(D) discretion
(E) lethargy
(F) retrospect

6. Although my grandmothers English vocabulary was limited to a few --------phrases, she always could make herself understood.
(A) ambiguous
(B) inadvertent
(C) unintentional
(D) rudimentary
(E) foolish
(F) basic

Question 7 is based on this passage.


An electric-power company gained greater profits and provided electricity to consumers at lower rates per unit of electricity by building largercapacity more efficient plants and by stimulating greater use of electricity within its area. To continue these financial trends, the company
planned to replace an old plant by a plant with triple the capacity of its largest plant.

7. The company's plan as described above assumed each of the following


EXCEPT:

(A) Demand for electricity within the company's area of service would
increase in the future.
(B) Expenses would not rise beyond the level that could be compensated for by
efficiency or volume of operation, or both.
(C) The planned plant would be sufficiently reliable in service to contribute a
net financial benefit to the company as a whole.
(D) Safety measures to be instituted for the new plant would be the same as
those for the plant it would replace.
(E) The tripling of capacity would not result in insuperable technological
obstacles to efficiency.

Question 8 is based on this passage.

Installing scrubbers in smokestacks and switching to cleaner-burning fuel are the two methods available to Northern Power for reducing harmful
emissions from its plants. Scrubbers will reduce harmful emissions more than cleaner-burning fuels will. Therefore, by installing scrubbers,
Northern Power will be doing the most that can be done to reduce harmful emissions from its plants.

8. Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument


depends?
(A) Switching to cleaner-burning fuel will not be more expensive than
installing scrubbers.
(B) Northern Power can choose from among various kinds of scrubbers, some
of which are more effective than others.
(C) Northern Power is not necessarily committed to reducing harmful
emissions from its plants.
(D) Harmful emissions from Northern Powers plants cannot be reduced more
by using both methods together than by the installation of scrubbers
alone.
(E) Aside from harmful emissions from the smokestacks of its plants, the
activities of Northern Power do not cause significant air pollution.

Question 9 is based on this passage.


What if someone told you about a kind of grass that grows as tall as the tallest trees? A grass that can be made as strong as steel? A grass
from which houses, furniture, boats, and hundreds of other useful things can be made? A grass that you would even enjoy eating? Would you
believe that person? You should, for that grass is bamboo, the wood of 1,001 uses.
Bamboo may look like wood, but it is part of the family of plants that includes wheat, oats, and barley. It is a kind of grass. This grass is not
just a material for making useful products. Young bamboo is eaten, often mixed with other vegetables, in many Asian foods.
Bamboo grows in many parts of the world. In the United States it grows in an area from Virginia west to Indiana and south to Florida,
Louisiana, and Texas. Most bamboo, however, is found in warm, wet climates, especially in Asia and on the islands of the South Pacific Ocean.
In most Asian countries, bamboo is nearly as important as rice. Many Asians live in bamboo houses. They sit on bamboo chairs and sleep on
bamboo mats. They fence their land with bamboo and use the wood for cages for chickens and pigs.
Bamboo is used to build large buildings as well as homes. When it is glued in layers, it becomes as strong as steel. On some islands in the
South Pacific, bamboo is even used for water pipes. This extraordinary material has many other uses. It is used to make musical instruments,
such as flutes and recorders. Paper made from bamboo has been highly prized by artists for thousands of years.
Bamboo is light and strong, and it bends without breaking. It is cheap, floats on water, almost never wears out, and is easy to grow. Nothing
else on earth grows quite so fast as bamboo. At times you can even see it grow! Botanists have recorded growths of more than three feet in just
twenty-four hours! Bamboo is hollow and has a strong root system that almost never stops growing and spreading. In fact, only after it flowers,
an event that may happen only once every thirty years, will bamboo die.
There are more than a thousand kinds of bamboo. The smallest is only three inches tall and one-tenth of an inch across. The largest reaches
more than two hundred feet in height and seven inches in diameter. No wonder, then, that the lives of nearly half the people on earth would

change enormously if there were no longer any bamboo. No wonder, too, that to many people bamboo is a symbol of happiness and good
fortune.

9. What is the main idea of this passage?


(A) Bamboo has at least 2,000 uses.
(B) Bamboo grows at an amazing rate and is found primarily in Asia.
(C) Bamboo is an amazing grass that can be used in multiple ways.
(D) There are at least a 1,000 types of bamboo.
(E) Bamboo could be considered a flower in some cases.

Question 10 is based on this passage.


Many United States companies have, unfortunately, made the search for legal protection from import competition into a major line of work.
Since 1980 the United States International Trade Commission (ITC) has received about 280 complaints alleging damage from imports that
benefit from subsidies by foreign governments. Another 340 charge that foreign companies dumped their products in the United States at less
than fair value. Even when no unfair practices are alleged, the simple claim that an industry has been injured by imports is sufficient grounds to
seek relief.
Contrary to the general impression, this quest for import relief has hurt more companies than it has helped. As corporations begin to function
globally, they develop an intricate web of marketing, production, and research relationships. The complexity of these relationships makes it
unlikely that a system of import relief laws will meet the strategic needs of all the units under the same parent company.
Internationalization increases the danger that foreign companies will use import relief laws against the very companies the laws were
designed to protect. Suppose a United States-owned company establishes an overseas plant to manufacture a product while its competitor makes
the same product in the United States. If the competitor can prove injury from the importsand that the United States company received a
subsidy from a foreign government to build its plant abroadthe United States companys products will be uncompetitive in the United States,
since they would be subject to duties.
Perhaps the most brazen (marked by contemptuous boldness) case occurred when the ITC investigated allegations that Canadian companies
were injuring the United States salt industry by dumping rock salt , used to de-ice roads. The bizarre aspect of the complaint was that a foreign
conglomerate with United States operations was crying for help against a United States company with foreign operations. The United States
company claiming injury was a subsidiary of a Dutch conglomerate, while the Canadian companies included a subsidiary of a Chicago firm
that was the second-largest domestic producer of rock salt.
10. The passage is chiefly concerned with
(A) arguing against the increased internationalization of United States
corporations
(B) warning that the application of laws affecting trade frequently has
unintended consequences
(C) demonstrating that foreign-based firms receive more subsidies from
their governments than United States firms receive from the United
States government
(D) advocating the use of trade restrictions for dumped products but not

for other imports


(E) recommending a uniform method for handling claims of unfair trade
practices

Answer key: 1. B 2. A 3.C/F

4. B/D/I

5. B/D

6. D/F

7. D

8.D

9. C 10.B

Unit 2 Review and Test

For each of Questions 1-4, select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.
1. Many analysts say a weak January in the small-cap arena is a ------- of
underperformance of the sector for the year.
(A) penury
(B) propensity
(C) liaison
(D) harbinger
(E) recluse

2. When the towns water supply ran low during the summer drought, the
residents received a notice that ------- them to take heed of the shortage of water
and avoid any water-related activities that werent necessary.
(A) imbued
(B) precipitated
(C) implored
(D) regressed
(E) alleviated

3. A miser hoards money not because he is endowed with -------- but because he is
greedy.
(A) prudence
(B) sentiment
(C) aphorism
(D) zenith
(E) propensity

4. Although the film critic was (i) ------- in her conviction that sequels are
generally inferior to their predecessors, she did not (ii) ------- as to the The
Godfather series and flatly acknowledged that The Godfather Part II, was one she
considered superior to the original.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) taciturn

(D) equivocate

(B) irrevocable

(E) relinquish

(C) obdurate

(F) berate

5. Psychologists define confirmation bias as a fallacy (i) -------- facts that


(ii) -------- ones previously held beliefs are emphasized and those that (iii) --------are downplayed.
Blank I

Blank ii

Blank iii

(A) despite

(D) predispose

(B) whereby

(E) mesmerize

(H) diverge

(F) corroborate

(I) estrange

(C) contrary to

(G) disseminate

For each of Questions 6- 8, select the two answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the sentence
as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.
6. Though Huck was quite willing to ------- Toms story, Aunt Polly knew better
than to believe either of them.
(A) berate
(B) verify
(C) decry
(D) corroborate
(E) diverge
(F) equivocate

7. Jackies arguments for using regular-grade gasoline rather than high test were
particularly -------, to the tune of 42 cents per gallon.
(A) ubiquitous
(B) abstemious
(C) convincing
(D) widespread
(E) cogent
(F) illicit

8. As Natalie Tyler says, Jane Austen is the one person whose insights about

yourself you would most fear because you realize that her perceptions are
penetrating, -------, and piercingly accurate.
(A) dormant
(B) sagacious
(C) inactive
(D) impeccable
(E) reprehensible
(F) perspicacious

Question 9 is based on this passage.


The earths resources are being depleted much too fast. To correct this, the United States must keep its resource consumption at present levels
for many years to come.
9. The argument above depends on which of the following assumptions?
(A) Per capita resource consumption in the United States is at an all-time high.
(B) The United States wastes resources.
(C) The United States uses more resources than any other country.
(D) The United States imports most of the resources it uses.
(E) Curbing U.S. resource consumption will significantly retard world resource
depletion.

Question 10 is based on this passage.


The burden of maintaining the U.S. highway system falls disproportionately on
the trucking industry. Trucks represent only about 10 percent of the vehicles on
U.S. roads. Yet road use taxes assessed on trucks amount to almost half the taxes
paid for highway upkeep and repair.

10. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument
above?

(A) The trucking industry has enjoyed record after-tax profits in three of the past
four years.
(B) Because of their weight, trucks cause over 50 percent of the damage sustained by
highway surfaces each year.
(C) Without an economically viable trucking industry, the cost of goods in the
United States would rise significantly.
(D) Road use taxes paid by trucking companies have decreased by 3 percent over the
past five years.
(E) Due to years of neglect, U.S. highways today are badly in need of major repairs
and rebuilding.

Question 11 is based on this passage.


No nation can long survive unless its people are united by a common tongue. For
proof, we need only consider Canada, which is being torn asunder by conflicts
between French-speaking Quebec and the other provinces, which are dominated
by English speakers.

11. Which of the following, if true, most effectively challenges the authors
conclusion?

(A) Conflicts over language have led to violent clashes between the Basque-speaking
minority in Spain and the Spanish-speaking majority.
(B) Proposals to declare English the official language of the United States have met
with resistance from members of Hispanic and other minority groups.
(C) Economic and political differences, along with linguistic ones, have contributed
to the provincial conflicts in Canada.
(D) The public of India, in existence sine 1948, has a population that speaks
hundreds of different, though related, languages.
(E) Switzerland has survived for nearly a thousand years as a home for speakers of
three different languages.

Questions 12-14 are based on this passage.


One of the questions of interest in the study of the evolution of spiders is whether the weaving of orb webs evolved only once or several
times. About half the 35,000 known kinds of spiders make webs; a third of the web weavers make orb webs. Since most orb weavers belong
either to the Araneidae or the Uloboridae families, the origin of the orb web can be determined only by ascertaining whether the families are
related.
Recent taxonomic analysis of individuals from both families indicates that the families evolved from different ancestors, thereby
contradicting Wiehles theory. This theory postulates that the families must be related, based on the assumption that complex behavior, such as
web building, could evolve only once. According to Kullman, web structure is the only characteristic that suggests a relationship between
families. The families differ in appearance, structure of body hair, and arrangement of eyes. Only Uloborids lack venom glands. Further
identification and study of characteristic features will undoubtedly answer the question of the evolution of the orb web.

12. The primary purpose of the passage is to


(A) settle the question of whether orb webs evolved once or more than once
(B) describe scientific speculation concerning an issue related to the evolution of orb
webs
(C) analyze the differences between the characteristic features of spiders in the

Araneidae and Uloboridae families


(D) question the methods used by earlier investigators of the habits of spiders
(E) demonstrate that Araneidae spiders are not related to Uloboridae spiders

For the following question consider each of the choices separately and
select all that apply.
13. According to the passage, members of the Araneidae family are similar to
members of the Uloboridae family in which of the following ways?
(A) The presence of venom glands
(B) The type of web they spin
(C) The structure of their body hair

14. Which of the following statements, if true, most weakens Wiehles theory that
complex behavior could evolve only once?
(A) Horses, introduced to the New World by the Spaniards, thrived under diverse
climatic conditions.
(B) Plants of the Palmaceae family, descendants of a common ancestor, evolved
unique seed forms even though the plants occupy similar habitats throughout
the world.
(C) All mammals are descended from a small, rodentlike animal whose physical
characteristics in some form are found in all its descendants.
(D) Plants in the Cactaceae and Euphorbiaceae families, although they often look
alike and have developed similar mechanisms to meet the rigors of the desert,
evolved independently.
(E) The Cuban anole, which was recently introduced in the Florida wilds, is quickly
replacing the native Florida chameleon because the anole has no competitors.

Questions 15-18 are based on this passage.


In an attempt to improve the overall performance of clerical workers, many companies have introduced computerized performance
monitoring and control systems (CPMCS) that record and report a workers computer-driven activities. However, at least one study has shown
that such monitoring may not be having the desired effect. In the study, researchers asked monitored clerical workers and their supervisors how
assessments of productivity affected supervisors ratings of workers performance. In contrast to unmonitored workers doing the same work,
who without exception identified the most important element in their jobs as customer service, the monitored workers and their supervisors all
responded that productivity was the critical factor in assigning ratings. This finding suggested that there should have been a strong correlation
between a monitored workers productivity and the overall rating the worker received. However, measures of the relationship between overall
rating and individual elements of performance clearly supported the conclusion that supervisors gave considerable weight to criteria such as
attendance, accuracy, and indications of customer satisfaction.

It is possible that productivity may be a hygiene factor, that is, if it is too low, it will hurt the overall rating. But the evidence suggests that
beyond the point at which productivity becomes good enough, higher productivity per se is unlikely to improve a rating.

15. According to the passage, before the final results of the study were known,
which of the following seemed likely?
(A) That workers with the highest productivity would also be the most accurate
(B) That workers who initially achieved high productivity ratings would continue to
do so consistently
(C) That the highest performance ratings would be achieved by workers with the
highest productivity
(D) That the most productive workers would be those whose supervisors claimed to
value productivity
(E) That supervisors who claimed to value productivity would place equal value on
customer satisfaction

16. Which of the following, if true, would most clearly have supported the
conclusion referred to in the last two lines of paragraph 1?
(A) Ratings of productivity correlated highly with ratings of both accuracy and
attendance.
(B) Electronic monitoring greatly increased productivity.
(C) Most supervisors based overall ratings of performance on measures of
productivity alone.
(D) Overall ratings of performance correlated more highly with measures of
productivity than the researchers expected.
(E) Overall ratings of performance correlated more highly with measures of
accuracy than with measures of productivity.

17. According to the passage, a hygiene factor (paragraph 2) is an aspect of a


workers performance that
(A) has no effect on the rating of a workers performance
(B) is so basic to performance that it is assumed to be adequate for all workers
(C) is given less importance than it deserves in rating a workers performance
(D) is not likely to affect a workers rating unless it is judged to be inadequate
(E) is important primarily because of the effect it has on a workers rating

18. The primary purpose of the passage is to


(A) explain the need for the introduction of an innovative strategy
(B) discuss a study of the use of a particular method
(C) recommend a course of action

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(D) resolved a difference of opinion


(E) suggest an alternative approach

Answer key: 1. D
10.B

2. C 3.A
11. E

17. D

4. C/D
12. B

5. B/F/H
13. B

14. D

6. B/D
15. C

7. C/E

8.B/F

9. E

16. E

18. B

Unit 3 Review and Test

For each of Questions 1-8, select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.

1. Unwilling to admit that they had been in error, the researchers tried to ____ their case
with more data obtained from dubious sources.
A. exhausted
B. acknowledged
C. reiterated
D. addressed
E. bolstered

2. Many people in the west are ____ to criticize science, which in the view of many has
become a
sacred cow.
A. cohesive
B. reticent
C. oblivious
D. grievous
E. vociferous

3. Given the lack of popular protest against the strident and polarized character of modern
political discourse, observers must ask whether the American people have become ____ it
or are simply apathetic.
A. unscathed by
B. replete with
C. inured to
D. tantamount to

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E. weary of

4. An experienced film critic is one who not only calls attention to the ____ of a particular
feature, but also puts forth legitimate recommendations that, if employed, would create a
more satisfying product.
A. drawbacks
B. attritions
C. disparities
D. apprehensions
E. concerns

5. The obligation to perform charitable acts is a central ____ of many world religions.
A. utopia
B. autonomy
C. legislation
D. tenet
E. joy

6. Excited and unafraid, the (i) ____ child examined the stranger with bright-eyed (ii)
____.
Blank (i)

Blank ii

A. inquisitive

D. apology

B. sedentary

E. curiosity

C. indiscriminate

F. logic

7. In their day to day decision making, many senior managers do not follow the
apparently rational model (i)____ by orthodox management experts, but rather rely
on intuitive processes that often appear (ii)____ and iconoclastic.
Blank (i)
A. inundated

Blank ii
D. capricious

B. inured

E. tenacious

C. bolstered

F. raucous

8. This drug holds out great hope that toxic goiter will no longer be a surgical condition.
(i) ____, present knowledge does not (ii) ____ final analysis of a sufficient number of
patients to indicate how frequently the drug may (iii) ____ the need for surgical
intervention. It is known, however, that under a number of circumstances,
particularly in patients with nodular goiter, in those patients with thyroid crises, and
perhaps under some other conditions, operation is still the prime form of treatment.

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Blank (i)
A. Thus
B. In a similar vein
C. As yet

Blank (ii)

Blank (iii)

D. relegate

G. ostracize

E. sanction

H. depreciate

F. address

I. circumvent

For each of Questions 9- 10, select the two answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the sentence
as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

9. Beths neighborhood was zoned for commercial use, so she had no ____ when the grocery
opened next door.
A. recourse
B. concern
C. disparity
D. alternative
E. apprehension
F. emotion

10. The president of the company was shocked when he arrived at the quiet boardroom the
day after the stock market crash; rather than exhibiting outrage, the members of the
board manifested an air of ____.
A. anger
B. impassivity
C. inquisitiveness
D. resentment
E. drawback
F. indifference

Question 11 is based on this passage.


Since the 55-mile-per-hour speed limit was mandated on our highways, both money
and human lives have been saved.
11. All of the following, if true, would strengthen the claim above EXCEPT:
A. Most highway users find that travel times are not appreciably lengthened by
the 55-mile-per-hour speed limit.
B. Highway driving at 55 miles per hour or less is more fuel-efficient than highspeed driving.
C. Nearly all highway safety experts agree that more accidents occur at speeds
over 55 miles per hour than at lower speeds.
D. The percentage of fatalities occurring in highway accidents at speeds greater
than 55 miles per hour is higher than that for low-speed accidents.

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E. Automobiles last longer and require fewer repairs when driven at consistently
lower speeds.

Question 12 is based on this passage.


In a marketing study, consumers were given two unlabeled cartons of laundry detergent. One carton was bright green and yellow; the
other was drab brown and gray. After using the detergent in the two cartons for one month, 83 percent of the consumers in the study
reported that the detergent in the bright green and yellow carton cleaned better. This study shows that packaging has a significant impact
on consumers judgment of the effectiveness of a laundry detergent.
12. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusion
drawn in the marketing study?
A. The detergent in the bright carton contained bleach crystals; the detergent in
the drab carton did not.
B. The detergents in the two cartons were the same.
C. The detergents in the two cartons were different, but they had both been
laboratory tested.
D. The detergent in the drab carton was a popular name brand; the detergent in
the bright carton was generic.
E. The detergent in the drab carton was generic; the detergent in the bright carton
was a popular name brand.

Question 13 is based on this passage.


Affirmative action is good business. So asserted the National Association of Manufacturers while urging retention of an executive
order requiring some federal contractors to set numerical goals for hiring minorities and women. Diversity in work force participation has
produced new ideas in management, product development, and marketing, the association claimed.
13. The associations argument as it is presented in the passage above would be
most strengthened if which of the following were true?
A. The percentage of minority and women workers in business has increased more
slowly than many minority and womens groups would prefer.
B. Those businesses with the highest percentages of minority and women workers
are those that have been the most innovative and profitable.
C. Disposable income has been rising as fast among minorities and women as
among the population as a whole.
D. The biggest growth in sales in the manufacturing sector has come in industries
that market the most innovative products.
E. Recent improvements in management practices have allowed many
manufacturers to experience enormous gains in worker productivity.

Question 14 is based on this passage.

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With the emergence of biotechnology companies, it was feared that they would impose silence about proprietary results on their inhouse researchers and their academic consultants. This constraint, in turn, would slow the development of biological science and
engineering.
14. Which of the following, if true, would tend to weaken most seriously the
prediction of scientific secrecy described above?
A. Biotechnological research funded by industry has reached some conclusions that
are of major scientific importance.
B. When the results of scientific research are kept secret, independent researchers
are unable to build on those results.
C. Since the research priorities of biotechnology companies are not the same as
those of academic institutions, the financial support of research by such
companies distorts the research agenda.
D. To enhance the companies standing in the scientific community, the
biotechnology companies encourage employees to publish their results,
especially results that are important.
E. Biotechnology companies devote some of their research resources to problems
that are of fundamental scientific importance and that are not expected to
produce immediate practical applications.

Questions 15-21 are based on this passage.


The founders of the Republic viewed their revolution primarily in political rather than economic or social terms. And they
talked about education as essential to the public gooda goal that took precedence over knowledge as occupational training or as a
means to self-fulfillment or self-improvement. Over and over again the Revolutionary generation, both liberal and conservative in
outlook, asserted its conviction that the welfare of the Republic rested upon an educated citizenry and that schools, especially free
public schools, would be the best means of educating the citizenry in civic values and the obligations required of everyone in a
democratic republican society. All agreed that the principal ingredients of a civic education were literacy and the inculcation of
patriotic and moral virtues, some others adding the study of history and the study of principles of the republican government itself.
The founders, as was the case of almost all their successors, were long on exhortation and rhetoric regarding the value of
civic education, but they left it to the textbook writers to distill the essence of those values for school children. Texts in American
history and government appeared as early as the 1790s. The textbook writers turned out to be very largely of conservative
persuasion, more likely Federalist in outlook than Jeffersonian, and almost universally agreed that political virtue must rest upon
moral and religious precepts. Since most textbook writers were New Englander, this meant that the texts were infused with
Protestant and, above all, Puritan outlooks.
In the first half of the Republic, civic education in the schools emphasized the inculcation of civic values and made little
attempt to develop participatory political skills. That was a task left to incipient political parties, town meetings, churches and the
coffee or ale houses where men gathered for conversation. Additionally as a reading of certain Federalist papers of the period would
demonstrate, the press probably did more to disseminate realistic as well as partisan knowledge of government than the schools. The
goal of education, however, was to achieve a higher form of unum (one out of many used on the Great Seal of the U.S. and on
several U.S. coins) for the new Republic. In the middle half of the nineteenth century, the political values taught in the public and

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private schools did not change substantially from those celebrated in the first fifty years of the Republic. In the textbooks of the day
their rosy hues if anything became golden. To the resplendent values of liberty, equality, and a benevolent Christian morality were
now added the middle-class virtues-especially of New England-of hard work, honesty and integrity, the rewards of individual effort,
and obedience to parents and legitimate authority. But of all the political values taught in school, patriotism was preeminent; and
whenever teachers explained to school children why they should love their country above all else, the idea of liberty assumed pride
of place.

15. The passage deals primarily with the


A. content of early textbooks on American history and government
B. role of education in late eighteenth-and early to mid-nineteenth-century
America
C. influence of New England Puritanism on early American values
D. origin and development of the Protestant work ethic in modern America
E. establishment of universal free public education in America

16. According to the passage, the founders of the Republic regarded education
primarily as
A. a religious obligation
B. a private matter
C. an unnecessary luxury
D. a matter of individual choice
E. a political necessity

17. The author states that textbooks written in the middle part of the nineteenth
century
A. departed radically in tone and style from earlier textbooks
B. mentioned for the first time the value of liberty
C. treated traditional civic virtues with even greater reverence
D. were commissioned by government agencies
E. contained no reference to conservative ideas

18. Which of the following would LEAST likely have been the subject of an early
American textbook?
A. basic rules of English grammar
B. the American Revolution
C. patriotism and other civic virtues
D. vocational education
E. principles of American government

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19. The authors attitude toward the educational system she discusses can best be
described as
A. cynical and unpatriotic
B. realistic and analytical
C. pragmatic and frustrated
D. disenchanted and bitter
E. idealistic and nave

20. The passage provides information that would be helpful in answering which of
the following questions?
A. Why were a disproportionate share of early American textbooks written by New
England authors?
B. Was the Federalist party primarily a liberal or conservative force in early
American politics?
C. How many years of education did the founders believe were sufficient to instruct
young citizens in civic virtue?
D. What were that names of some of the Puritan authors who wrote early
American textbooks?
E. Did most citizens of the early Republic agree with the founders that public
education was essential to the welfare of the Republic?

21. According to the passage citizens of the early Republic learned about practical
political matters in all of the following ways EXCEPT
A. reading newspapers
B. attending town meetings
C. conversing about political matters
D. reading textbooks
E. attending church

Answer key: 1. E

2. B

3. C

9. A/D

10. B/F

18. D

19. B 20. B

4. A

11. A

5. D

12. B

6. A/E
13. B

14. D

7. F/D

8. C/E/I

15. A

16. E 17. C

21. D

Unit 4 Review & Test

For each of Questions 1- 5, select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.

17

1. The playwright complained that the musical comedy version of his play was
a -------- of his work
(A) remorse
(B) facsimile
(C) detachment
(D) travesty
(E) hunch

2. Some of the most -------- concentration camps in history were the Gulag camps
used by the former Soviet Union to control dissidents.
(A) esoteric
(B) inclusive
(C) notorious
(D) disinterested
(E) perfunctory

3. The senators remark that she is ambivalent about running for a second term is
futile given the extremely -------- fund-raising activities of her campaign
committee.
(A) reticent
(B) clandestine
(C) egocentric
(D) indigenous
(E) superfluous

4. Franz Joseph Haydn was (i) -------- enough to produce over 150 symphonies
during his lifetime, 104 of which still exist in todays repertoire, although only
the last 16 are (ii) -------- frequently.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) prolific

(D) impeded

(B) inclusive

(E) mesmerized

(C) diffident

(F) performed

5. Though Socrates was (i) -------- by his students who found truth in his teachings,
his philosophy, constituting a threat to the existing government, was not
(ii) --------- by those in authority. Consequently, without the extreme position of
completely destroying Socrates position and philosophy, angry official had
sough to (iii) --------- the value of Socrates premises.
Blank I

Blank ii

Blank iii

18

(A) restrained

(D) reinstated

(G) emancipate

(B) emulated

(E) advocated

(H) arouse

(C) salvaged

(F) beleaguered

(I) undermine

For each of Questions 6- 8, select the two answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the sentence
as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.
6. Heathcliff, the protagonist of Emily Bronte's novel Wuthering Heights, feels great
-------- for Edgar Linton, the man who marries the woman Heathcliff loves.
(A) impartiality
(B) hostility
(C) idiosyncrasy
(D) antipathy
(E) detachment
(F) certitude

7. The title Rage of a Privileged Class seems --------, for such a privileged group would
seem on the surface to have no reason sustained anger with anyone.
(A) unusual
(B) contentious
(C) imminent
(D) precarious
(E) unsafe
(F) incongruous

8. The auditors -------- inspection of the books failed to spot many obvious errors.
(A) contentious
(B) careless
(C) disinterested
(D) controversial
(E) perfunctory
(F) prolific

Question 9 is based on this passage.


9. Which of the following best completes the passage below?
One tax-reform proposal that has gained increasing support in recent years is the flat tax, which would impose a uniform tax rate on
incomes at every level. Opponents of the flat tax say that a progressive tax system, which levies a higher rate of taxes on higher-income
taxpayers, is fairer, placing the greater burden on those better able to bear it. However, the present crazy quilt of tax deductions,
exemptions, credits, and loopholes benefits primarily the high-income taxpayer, who is consequently able to reduce his or her effective tax
rate, often to a level below that paid by the lower-income taxpayer. Therefore, ______.

19

(A) higher-income taxpayers are likely to lend their support to the flat-tax
proposal now being considered by Congress
(B) a flat-tax system that allowed no deductions or exemptions would
substantially increase actual government revenues
(C) the lower-income taxpayer might well be penalized by the institution
of a flat-tax system in this country
(D) the progressive nature of our present tax system is more illusory than
real
(E) the flat tax would actually be fairer to the lower-income taxpayer than
any progressive tax system could be

Question 10 is based on this passage.


10. Which of the following best completes the passage below?
the most serious flaw in televisions coverage of election campaigns is its tendency to focus on the horse-race side of politicsthat is, to
concentrate on the question Whos winning? at the expense of substantive coverage of the issues and the candidates positions on them.
The endless interviews with campaign managers, discussions of campaign strategies, and, especially, the obsession with opinion polls
have surrounded elections with the atmosphere of a football game or a prizefight. To reform this situation, a first step might well
be______.
(A) a shortening of the length of election campaigns to a period of six weeks
(B) a stringent limit on campaign spending
(C) a reduction in the television coverage of opinion polls during election
campaigns
(D) the publication and distribution of voter-education literature to inform
the public about each candidates position on the major issues
(E) a limit on the length and number of political advertisements broadcast
on television

Question 11 is based on this passage.


11. Which of the following best completes the passage below?
In todays pluralistic society, textbook publishers find themselves in an increasingly uncomfortable position. Since the schools are
regarded as a repository of societys moral and cultural values, each group within society wishes to prevent any material that offends its
own values from appearing in textbooks. As a result, stance on an issue is certain to run afoul of one group or another. And since textbook
publishers must rely on community goodwill to sell their books, it is inevitable that______.
(A) fewer and fewer publishers will be willing to enter the financially
uncertain textbook industry
(B) the ethical and moral content of textbooks will become increasingly
neutral and bland
(C) more and more pressure groups will arise that seek to influence the
content of textbooks

20

(D) the government will be forced to intervene in the increasingly


rancorous debate over the content of textbooks
(E) school boards, teachers, and principals will find it nearly impossible to
choose among the variety of textbooks being offered

Questions 12-13 are based on this passage.


Visual recognition involves storing and retrieving memories. Neural activity, triggered by the eye, forms an image in the brains memory system
that constitutes an internal representation of the viewed object. When an object is encountered again, it is matched with its internal representation
and thereby recognized. Controversy surrounds the question of whether recognition is a parallel, one-step process or a serial, step-by-step one.
Psychologists of the Gestalt school maintain that objects are recognized as wholes in a parallel procedure: the internal representation is matched
with the retinal image in a single operation. Other psychologists have proposed that internal representation features are matched serially with an
objects features. Although some experiments show that, as an object becomes familiar, its internal representation becomes more holistic and the
recognition process correspondingly more parallel, the weight of evidence seems to support the serial hypothesis, at least for objects that are not
notably simple and familiar.

12. The author is primarily concerned with


(A) explaining how the brain receives images
(B) synthesizing hypotheses of visual recognition
(C) examining the evidence supporting the serial recognition hypothesis
(D) discussing visual recognition and some hypotheses proposed to explain
it
(E) reporting on recent experiments dealing with memory systems and
their relationship to neural activity

13. It terms of its tone and form, the passage can best be characterized as
(A) a biased exposition
(B) a speculative study
(C) a dispassionate presentation
(D) an indignant denial
(E) a dogmatic explanation

Questions 14-18 are based on this passage.


In choosing a method for determining climatic conditions that existed in the past, paleoclimatologists invoke four principal criteria. First,
the materialrocks, lakes, vegetation, etc.on which the method relies must be widespread enough to provide plenty of information, since
analysis of material that is rarely encountered will not permit correlation with other regions or with other periods of geological history. Second,
in the process of formation, the material must have received an environmental signal that reflects a change in climate and that can be deciphered
by modern physical or chemical means. Third, at least some of the material must have retained the signal unaffected by subsequent changes in
the environment. Fourth, it must be possible to determine the time at which the inferred climatic conditions held. This last criterion is more

21

easily met in dating marine sediments, because dating of only a small number of layers in a marine sequence allows the age of other layers to be
estimated fairly reliably by extrapolation and interpolation. By contrast, because sedimentation is much less continuous in continental regions,
estimating the age of a continental bed from the known ages of beds above and below is more risky.
One very old method used in the investigation of past climatic conditions involves the measurement of water levels in ancient lakes. In
temperate regions, there are enough lakes for correlations between them to give us a reliable picture. In arid and semiarid regions, on the other
hand, the small number of lakes and the great distances between them reduce the possibilities for correlation. Moreover, since lake levels are
controlled by rates of evaporation as well as by precipitation, the interpretation of such levels is ambiguous. For instance, the fact that lake levels
in the semiarid southwestern United States appear to have been higher during the last ice age than they are now was at one time attributed to
increased precipitation. On the basis of snow-line elevations, however, it has been concluded that the climate then was not necessarily wetter
than it is now, but rather that both summers and winters were cooler, resulting in reduced evaporation.
Another problematic method is to reconstruct former climates on the basis of pollen profiles. The type of vegetation in a specific region
is determined by identifying and counting the various pollen grains found there. Although the relationship between vegetation and climate is not
as direct as the relationship between climate and lake levels, the method often works well in the temperate zones. In arid and semiarid regions in
which there is not much vegetation, however, small changes in one or a few plant types can change the picture dramatically, making accurate
correlations between neighboring areas difficult to obtain.

14. Which of the following statements about the difference between marine and
continental sedimentation is supported by information in the passage?
(A) Data provided by dating marine sedimentation is more consistent with
researchers findings in other disciplines than is data provided by
dating continental sedimentation.
(B) It is easier to estimate the age of a layer in a sequence of continental
sedimentation than it is to estimate the age of a layer in a sequence of
marine sedimentation.
(C) Marine sedimentation is much less widespread than continental
sedimentation.
(D) Researchers are more often forced to rely on extrapolation when dating
a layer of marine sedimentation than when dating a layer of
continental sedimentation.
(E) Marine sedimentation is much more continuous than is continental
sedimentation.

15. Which of the following statements best describes the organization of the
passage as a whole?
(A) The author describes a method for determining past climatic
conditions and then offers specific examples of situations in which it
has been used.
(B) The author discusses the method of dating marine and continental
sequences and then explains how dating is more difficult with lake

22

levels than with pollen profiles.


(C) The author describes the common requirements of methods for
determining past climatic conditions and then discusses examples of
such methods.
(D) The author describes various ways of choosing a material for
determining past climatic conditions and then discusses how two such
methods have yielded contradictory data.
(E) The author describes how methods for determining past climatic
conditions were first developed and then describes two of the earliest
known methods.

16. Which of the following would be the most likely topic for a paragraph that
logically continues the passage?
(A) The kinds of plants normally found in arid regions
(B) The effect of variation in lake levels on pollen distribution
(C) The material best suited to preserving signals of climatic changes
(D) Other criteria invoked by paleoclimatologists when choosing a method
to determine past climatic conditions
(E) A third method for investigating past climatic conditions

17. The author discusses lake levels in the southwestern United States in order
to
(A) illustrate the mechanics of the relationship between lake level,
evaporation, and precipitation
(B) provide an example of the uncertainty involved in interpreting lake
levels
(C) prove that there are not enough ancient lakes with which to make
accurate correlations
(D) explain the effects of increased rates of evaporation on levels of
precipitation
(E) suggest that snow-line elevations are invariably more accurate than
lake levels in determining rates of precipitation at various points in the
past

For the following question consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.
18. According to the passage, the material used to determine past climatic
conditions must be widespread for which of the following reasons?
(A) Paleoclimatologists need to make comparisons between periods of
geological history.

23

(B) Paleoclimatologists need to compare materials that have supported a


wide variety of vegetation.
(C) Paleoclimatologists need to make comparisons with data collected in
other regions.

Answer key: 1. D

2. C 3.B

10. C

11. B

17. B

18. A/C

4. A/F
12. D

5. B/E/I
13. C

14. E

6. B/D

7. A/F

8.B/E

9. D

15. C 16. E

Unit 5 Review & Test

For each of Questions 1-8, select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.
1. Many people feel that the federal government should do more to alleviate the
____ of the homeless.
A. conglomeration
B. stint
C. plight
D. masochist
E. diffusion

2. Bobs avoiding meeting Garys eyes after having damaged his boat was the
result of his feeling ____.
A. meticulous
B. stringent
C. congenital
D. contrite
E. salutary

3. Even though Byron is frequently glib, it is still hard to dismiss him as a ____
thinker.
A. lucid
B. sordid
C. symmetrical
D. germane
E. flamboyant

24

4. Mrs. Thatcher had a better eye for the weaknesses and ____ of her
contemporaries than for their virtues.
A. restitutions
B. foibles
C. stints
D. talents
E. inclinations

5. Apes and humans have ____ of tails, suggesting that some earlier ancestors
probably were tailed.
A. recriminations
B. weaknesses
C. cornerstones
D. plights
E. vestiges

6. When faced with an urgent problem for which there is no immediately obvious
solution, we tend to welcome any suggestion, however ____, that might throw
light on the dilemma.
A. courageous
B. stringent
C. tenuous
D. flamboyant
E. beneficial

7. Booing and hissing, the audience showed how much they (i) ____ Vidkund
Quisling, whose(ii) ____ through his so-called Fifth Column led to the taking of
Norway by Nazi Germany.
Blank (i)

(Blank ii)

A. forsook

D. perfidy

B. detested

E. restriction

C. lionized

F. compensation

8. The reform candidate denounced the venal city officers for having betrayed
the publics trust by acting more to appease their thirst for money than to
obliterate crime.
Blank (i)

(Blank ii)

(Blank iii)

A. meddled in

D. tenuous

G. appeased

B. recuperated

E. venal

H. thrived

25

C. denounced

F. superficial

I. condemned

For each of Questions 9- 10, select the two answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the sentence
as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.
9. Let us forget our ____ and join together in a new spirit of friendship and
cooperation.
A. suffering
B. hatred
C. restitution
D. speculation
E. rancor
F. compensation

10. The human mind can often reject the most ____ data in favor of something
that, though valueless, at least sounds familiar.
A. symmetrical
B. contagious
C. relevant
D. innocuous
E. harmless
F. germane

Question 11 is based on this passage.


Stock analyst: "We believe Company A's stock will appreciate at 35% a year for the next 5 to 7 years. Company A just became the leader in its
industry and we expect its sales to grow at 8% a year."
Commentator: "But how can the stock's price be expected to grow more quickly than the company's underlying sales?"

11. Which of the following facts would best support the stock analyst?

A. The company's expenses will be declining over the next 5 to 10 years.


B. The company just won a patent on a new product.
C. Company A's stock is currently overvalued by a significant amount.
D. The 5 to 7 year time frame is too long for anyone to accurately forecast.
E. Company A's industry peer group is expected to experience stock appreciation
rates of 30% over the same time horizon.

Question 12 is based on this passage.

26

Contrary to the charges made by some of its opponents, the provisions of the new deficit-reduction law for indiscriminate cuts in the federal
budget are justified. Opponents should remember that the New Deal pulled this country out of great economic troubles even though some of its
programs were later found to be unconstitutional.

12. The opponents could effectively defend their position against the
author's strategy by pointing out that

A. the expertise of those opposing the law is outstanding


B. the lack of justification for the new law does not imply that those who drew it
up were either inept or immoral
C. the practical application of the new law will not entail indiscriminate budget
cuts
D. economic troubles present at the time of the New Deal were equal in severity to
those that have led to the present law
E. the fact that certain flawed programs or laws have improved the economy
does not prove that every such program can do so

Questions 13 -18 are based on this passage.


The settlement of the United States has occupied traditional historians since 1893 when Frederick Jackson Turner developed his Frontier
Thesis, a thesis that explained American development in terms of westward expansion. From the perspective of womens history, Turners
exclusively masculine assumptions constitute a major drawback: his defenders and critics alike have reconstructed mens, not womens, lives on
the frontier. However, precisely because of this masculine orientation, revising the Frontier Thesis by focusing on womens experience
introduces new themes into womens historywoman as lawmaker and entrepreneurand, consequently, new interpretations of womens
relationship to capital, labor, and statute.
Turner claimed that the frontier produced the individualism that is the hallmark of American culture, and that this individualism in turn
promoted democratic institutions and economic equality. He argued for the frontier as an agent of social change. Most novelists and historians
writing in the early to midtwentieth century who considered women in the West, when they considered women at all, fell under Turners spell. In
their works these authors tended to glorify womens contributions to frontier life. Western women, in Turnerian tradition, were a fiercely
independent, capable, and durable lot, free from the constraints binding their eastern sisters. This interpretation implied that the West provided a
congenial environment where women could aspire to their own goals, free from constrictive stereotypes and sexist attitudes. In Turnerian
terminology, the frontier had furnished a gate of escape from the bondage of the past.
By the middle of the twentieth century, the Frontier Thesis fell into disfavor among historians. Later, Reactionist writers took the view that
frontier women were lonely, displaced persons in a hostile milieu that intensified the worst aspects of gender relations. The renaissance of the
feminist movement during the 1970s led to the Stasist school, which sidestepped the good bad dichotomy and argued that frontier women lived
lives similar to the live of women in the East. In one now-standard text, Faragher demonstrated the persistence of the cult of true womanhood
and the illusionary quality of change on the westward journey. Recently the Stasist position has been revised but not entirely discounted by new
research.

13. The primary purpose of the passage is to

27

A. provide a framework within which the history of women in nineteenthcentury America can be organized
B. discuss divergent interpretations of womens experience on the western
frontier
C. introduce a new hypothesis about womens experience in nineteenthcentury America
D. advocate an empirical approach to womens experience on the western
frontier
E. resolve ambiguities in several theories about womens experience on the
western frontier

14. Which of the following can be inferred about the novelists and historians
mentioned in paragraph 2?
A. They misunderstood the powerful influence of constrictive stereotypes
on women in the East.
B. They assumed that the frontier had offered more opportunities to
women than had the East.
C. They included accurate information about womens experiences on the
frontier.
D. They underestimated the endurance and fortitude of frontier women.
E. They agreed with some of Turners assumptions about frontier women,
but disagreed with other assumptions that he made.

15. Which of the following, if true, would provide additional evidence for the
Stasists argument as it is described in the passage?
A. Frontier women relied on smaller support groups of relatives and
friends in the West than they had in the East.
B. The urban frontier in the West offered more occupational opportunity
than the agricultural frontier offered.
C. Women participated more fully in the economic decisions of the family
group in the West than they had in the East.
D. Western women received financial compensation for labor that was
comparable to what women received in the East.
E. Western women did not have an effect on divorce laws, but lawmakers
in the West were more responsive to womens concerns than lawmakers
in the East were.

16. According to the passage, Turner makes which of the following connections
in his Frontier Thesis?

28

I.

A connection between American individualism and economic equality

II.

A connection between geographical expansion and social change

III. A connection between social change and financial prosperity


A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. I, II and III

17. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. A current interpretation of a phenomenon is described and then ways in
which it was developed are discussed.
B. Three theories are presented and then a new hypothesis that discounts
those theories is described.
C. An important theory and its effects are discussed and then ways in
which it has been revised are described.
D. A controversial theory is discussed and then viewpoints both for and
against it are described.
E. A phenomenon is described and then theories concerning its correctness
are discussed.

18. Which of the following is true of the Stasist School as it is described in the
passage?
A. It provides new interpretations of womens relationship to work and the
law.
B. It resolves some of the ambiguities inherent in Turnerian and
Reactionist thought.
C. It has recently been discounted by new research gathered on womens
experience.
D. It avoids extreme positions taken by other writers on womens history.
E. It was the first school of thought to suggest substantial revisions to the
Frontier Thesis.

Answer key: 1. C

2. D 3.A

10. C/E/G
17. C

11. A

4. B
12. E

5. E
13. B

6. C
14. B

7. B/E
15. D

8.C/F
16. D

18. D

29

9. B/D

Unit 6 Review & Test

For each of Questions 1-8, select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.

1. In a fit of ----------, Lotta threw away her scale and said, Im tired of trying to
look like the skinny models in all the fashion magazines. Im chubby and I like
myself just the way I am!
A. deprivation
B. decorum
C. respite
D. yen
E. pique

2. The so-called Piltdown Man, supposed to be the fossil of a primitive human,


turned out to be ----------, though who created the hoax is still uncertain.
A. diabolic
B. noxious
C. spurious
D. anonymous
E. unprecedented

3. Lucretias good mood was evident to us all from her ---------- greeting of each of
us with a newly coined, affectionate nickname.
A. unbearable
B. pensive
C. imperative
D. ebullient
E. unprecedented

4. Unlike her sister the Widow Douglass, who ignored Hucks minor offenses, Miss
Watson did nothing but ---------- the boy.
A. chide
B. espouse
C. rejuvenate

30

D. afflict
E. flout

5. Worrying about an exam the night before it is, unfortunately, not a ---------- for
neglecting to study throughout during the semester.
A. fiasco
B. harbinger
C. panacea
D. conjecture
E. respite

6. Many car rental companies will not rent vehicles To customers under the age 0f
25, claiming that these drivers have higher than average rates of accidents,
rendering the risk of loss too great. This argument, however, is (i) ---------; senior
citizens also have higher than average rates of accidents, and yet their rental
privileges are not (ii) ---------.
Blank (i)

(Blank ii)

A. spurious

D. disdained

B. exorbitant

E. demanded

C. unconscious

F. restricted

7. The journalist (i) ---------- the efforts of the drug squad to control drug peddling,
claiming that they had actually (ii) ----------the problem.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

A. demanded

D. exacerbated

B. deplored

E. derided

C. extorted

F. espoused

8. Perugions initial fame brought him considerable wealth and prestige, if not
enduring glory; some years after having been (i) ---------- as the most famous
artist in Italy, his reputation having suffered a decline, Perugion was
(ii) ---------- by the (iii) ---------- Michelangelo as an artistic bumpkin.
Blank (i)

(Blank ii)

(Blank iii)

A. desiccated

D. prohibited

G. flimsy

B. extricated

E. flouted

H. germane

C. commended

F. disdained

I. acrimonious

31

For each of Questions 9- 10, select the two answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the sentence
as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

9. Though high, the remuneration that the artisan received for the sale of his
wares was --------- the skill level and years of experience.
A. integral to
B. proportional to
C. exorbitant for
D. afflicted with
E. stymied by
F. commensurate with

10. The prisoner received a thirty-day reprieve from the execution of his death
sentence to enable his lawyer to investigate further the ---------- call that
purported to offer new evidence.
A. integral
B. nameless
C. rejuvenated
D. preposterous
E. unprecedented
F. anonymous

Question 11 is based on this passage.


Dear Applicant:
Thank you for your application. Unfortunately, we are unable to offer you a position in our local government office for the summer. As you
know, funding for summer jobs is limited, and it is impossible for us to offer jobs to all those who want them. Consequently, we are forced to
reject many highly qualified applicants.

11. Which of the following can be inferred from the letter?

A. The number of applicants for summer jobs in the government office


exceeded the number of summer jobs available.
B. The applicant who received the letter was considered highly qualified.
C. Very little funding was available for summer jobs in the government
office.
D. The application of the person who received the letter was considered
carefully before being rejected.
E. Most of those who applied for summer jobs were considered qualified for
the available positions.

32

Question 12 is based on this passage.


In the effort to fire a Civil Service employee, his or her manager may have to spend up to $100,000 of tax money. Since Civil Service employees
know how hard it is to fire them, they tend to loaf. This explains in large part why the government is so inefficient.
12. It can be properly inferred on the basis of the statements above
that the author believes which of the following?
I.

Too much job security can have a negative influence on workers.

II.

More government workers should be fired.

III. Most government workers are Civil Service employees.


A. I only
B. I and III only
C. II only
D. I, II, and III
E. III only

Question 13 is based on this passage.


Bill: Smoke-detecting fire alarms can save lives. I believe that every apartment in this city should be required by law to be equipped with a
smoke detector.
Joe: I disagree with your proposal. Smoke detectors are just as important for safety in private houses as they are in apartment.

13. From this exchange, it can be inferred that Joe has interpreted Bills
statement to mean that

A. the city should be responsible for providing smoke detectors for


apartments
B. residences outside the city should not be equipped with smoke detectors
C. only apartments should be equipped with smoke detectors
D. the risk of fire is not as great in private houses as it is in apartments
E. the rate of death by fire is unusually high in the city in question

Questions 14-16 are based on this passage.


Whether the languages of the ancient American peoples were used for expressing abstract universal concepts can be clearly answered in
the case of Nahuatl. Nahuatl, like Greek and German, is a language that allows the formation of extensive compounds. By the combination of
radicals or semantic elements, single compound words can express complex conceptual relations, often of an abstract universal character.
The tlamatinime (those who know) were able to use this rich stock of abstract terms to express the nuances of their thought. They also
availed themselves of other forms of expression with metaphorical meaning, some probably original, some derived from Toltec coinages. Of
these forms the most characteristic in Nahuatl is the juxtaposition of two words that, because they are synonyms, associated terms, or even

33

contraries, complement each other to evoke one single idea. Used as metaphor, the juxtaposed terms connote specific or essential traits of the
being they refer to, introducing a mode of poetry as an almost habitual form of expression.

14. A main purpose of the passage is to


A. delineate the function of the tlamatinime in Nahuatl society
B. explain the abstract philosophy of the Nahuatl thinkers
C. argue against a theory of poetic expression by citing evidence about the
Nahuatl
D. explore the rich metaphorical heritage the Nahuatl received from the
Toltecs
E. describe some conceptual and aesthetic resources of the Nahuatl
language

15. According to the passage, some abstract universal ideas can be expressed in
Nahuatl by
A. taking away from a word any reference to particular instances
B. removing a word from its associations with other words
C. giving a word a new and opposite meaning
D. putting various meaningful elements together in one word
E. turning each word of a phrase into a poetic metaphor

16. It can be inferred solely from the information in the passage that
A. there are many languages that, like Greek or German, allow extensive
compounding
B. all abstract universal ideas are ideas of complex relations
C. some record or evidence of the thought of the tlamatinime exists
D. metaphors are always used in Nahuatl to express abstract conceptual
relationships
E. the abstract terms of the Nahuatl language are habitually used in
poetry

Questions 14-16 are based on this passage.


Nearly a century ago, biologists found that if they separated an invertebrate animal embryo into two parts at an early stage of its life, it
would survive and develop as two normal embryos. This led them to believe that the cells in the early embryo are undetermined in the sense that
each cell has the potential to develop in a variety of different ways. Later biologists found that the situation was not so simple. It matters in
which plane the embryo is cut. If it is cut in a plane different from the one used by the early investigators, it will not form two whole embryos.
A debate arose over what exactly was happening. Which embryo cells are determined, just when do they become irreversibly committed to
their fates, and what are the morphogenetic determinants that tell a cell what to become? But the debate could not be resolved because no one
was able to ask the crucial questions in a form in which they could be pursued productively. Recent discoveries in molecular biology, however,

34

have opened up prospects for a resolution of the debate. Now investigators think they know at least some of the molecules that act as
morphogenetic determinants in early development. They have been able to show that, in a sense, cell determination begins even before an egg is
fertilized.
Studying sea urchins biologist Paul Gross found that an unfertilized egg contains substances that function as morphogenetic determinants.
They are located in the cytoplasm of the egg cell; i.e., in that part of the cells protoplasm that lies outside of the nucleus. In the unfertilized egg,
the substances are inactive and are not distributed homogeneously. When the egg is fertilized, the substances become active and, presumably,
govern the behavior of the genes they interact with. Since the substances are unevenly distributed in the egg, when the fertilized egg divides, the
resulting cells are different from the start and so can be qualitatively different in their own gene activity.
The substances that Gross studied are maternal messenger RNAsproducts of certain of the maternal genes. He and other biologists
studying a wide variety of organisms have found that these particular RNAs direct, in large part, the synthesis of histones, a class of proteins
that bind to DNA. Once synthesized, the histones move into the cell nucleus, where section of DNA wrap around them to form a structure that
resembles beads, or knots, on a string. The beads are DNA segments wrapped around the histones; the string is the intervening DNA. And it is
the structure of these beaded DNA strings that guide the fate of the cells in which they are located.

17. The passage is most probably directed at which kind of audience?


A. State legislators deciding about funding levels for a state-funded
biological laboratory
B. Scientists specializing in molecular genetics
C. Readers of an alumni newsletter published by the college that Paul
Gross attended
D. Marine biologists studying the processes that give rise to new species
E. Undergraduate biology majors in a molecular biology course

18. It can be inferred from the passage that the morphogenetic determinants
present in the early embryo are
A. located in the nucleus of the embryo cells
B. evenly distributed unless the embryo is not developing normally
C. inactive until the embryo cells become irreversibly committed to their
final function
D. identical to those that were already present in the unfertilized egg
E. present in larger quantities than is necessary for the development of a single individual

19. The main topic of the passage is


A. the early development of embryos of lower marine organisms
B. the main contribution of modern embryology to molecular biology
C. the role of molecular biology in disproving older theories of embryonic
development
D. cell determination as an issue in the study of embryonic
development

35

E. scientific dogma as a factor in the recent debate over the value of


molecular biology

20. According to the passage, when biologists believed that the cells in the
early embryo were undetermined, they made which of the following
mistakes?
A. They did not attempt to replicate the original experiment of separating
an embryo into two parts.
B. They did not realize that there was a connection between the issue of cell
determination and the outcome of the separation experiment.
C. They assumed that the results of experiments on embryos did not
depend on the particular animal species used for such experiments.
D. They assumed that it was crucial to perform the separation experiment
at an early stage in the embryos life.
E. They assumed that different ways of separating an embryo into two
parts would be equivalent as far as the fate of the two parts was
concerned.
21. It can be inferred from the passage that the initial production of histones
after an egg is fertilized takes place
A. in the cytoplasm
B. in the maternal genes
C. throughout the protoplasm
D. in the beaded portions of the DNA strings
E. in certain sections of the cell nucleus

22. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is dependent
on the fertilization of an egg?
A. Copying of maternal genes to produce maternal messenger RNAs
B. Synthesis of proteins called histones
C. Division of a cell into its nucleus and the cytoplasm
D. Determination of the egg cells potential for division
E. Generation of all of a cells morphogenetic determinants

23. According to the passage, the morphogenetic determinants present in the


unfertilized egg cell are which of the following?
A. Proteins bound to the nucleus
B. Histones
C. Maternal messenger RNAs
D. Cytoplasm

36

E. Nonbeaded intervening DNA

24. The passage suggests that which of the following plays a role in
determining whether an embryo separated into two parts will develop as
two normal embryos?
I.

The stage in the embryos life at which the separation occurs

II.

The instrument with which the separations is accomplished

III. The plane in which the cut is made that separates the embryo
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II, and III

Answer key: 1. E

2. C 3.D

10.B/F
17. E

11. A

4. A

5. C

6. A/F

12. D

13. C

14. E

18. E 19. D 20. E

7. B/D
15. D

21. A 22. B

8.C/F/I

9. B/F

16. C

23. C 24. D

Unit 7 Review & Test

For each of Questions 1-8, select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.
1. At the annual meeting of International Global Ltd., the members of the board and
the top administration were seated around the huge mahogany table in the third
floor conference room. All of the junior staffers were ---------- the folding chairs
along the wall.
A. assimilated into
B. imposed on
C. relegated to
D. reinstated in
E. infringed on

2. The economics professor had a plan to discourage her ---------- students who though
blandishments would get them higher grades: any wheedling student would have
to complete an additional 15-page research paper by the end of the semester.

37

A. insidious
B. incipient
C. subversive
D. facile
E. obsequious

3. Dean always seemed to go along with the group and changed his opinion to
complement those around him, and this ---------- nature often irritated his friend.
A. omnipotent
B. malleable
C. impeccable
D. staunch
E. unilateral

4. The misapprehensions that lemmings commit mass suicide by jumping off cliffs
has been fostered by legends, films, and television commercials; one reason people
believe the myth may be that lemmings are ---------- to Scandinavia, a region with
an unusually high suicide rate.
A. indigenous
B. limitless
C. inherent
D. sympathetic
E. holistic

5. The judge decided to hold sentencing in ---------- until the convicted persons
counsel could arrange for character witnesses.
A. denunciation
B. disparity
C. antipathy
D. premonition
E. abeyance

6. Haile Selasie, the Emperor of Ethiopia for the most of the twentieth century,
blamed the rise of evil on the (i) ---------- of people who, because they were no party
to the events, showed no concern for the (ii) ---------- of the downtrodden.
Blank (i)

(Blank ii)

A. approbation

D. retribution

B. impetus
C. nonchalance

E. plight
F. hunch

38

7. This recent evaluation of two artists whose works even experts find difficult to
distinguish reveals a surprising (i) ---------- in their temperaments: Palmer was
reserved and courteous, Frazer (ii) ---------- and boastful.
Blank (i)

(Blank ii)

A. disparity

D. opportune

B. yardstick

E. proficient

C. ascendancy

F. choleric

8. Herbert was unable to (i)____ the results of the survey; (ii) ---------- entirely
unexpected, the figures were obtained by a market research firm with an
(iii)---------- reputation.
Blank (i)

(Blank ii)

(Blank iii)

A. exude

D. unless

B. deny

E. whereas

H. officious

C. berate

F. although

I. unassuming

G. impeccable

For each of Questions 9- 10, select the two answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the sentence
as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.
9. Even though the auditors ---------- the accountant, his reputation, hitherto
unblemished, was darkened by the allegations of fraud.
A. forestalled
B. exonerated
C. demoted
D. vindicated
E. emancipated
F. adumbrated

10. The courtiers of the time had to be ---------- in order to survive in an atmosphere
where the least sign of rebellion could lead to banishment or worse.
A. omnipotent
B. obedient
C. sympathetic
D. obsequious
E. belligerent
F. officious

Question 11 is based on this passage.

39

Governments have only one response to public criticism of socially necessary services: regulation of the activity of providing those
services. But governments inevitably make the activity more expensive by regulating it, and that is particularly troublesome in these times of
strained financial resources. However, since public criticism of child-care services has undermined all confidence in such services, and since
such services are socially necessary, the government is certain to respond.
11. Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the
passage?
(A) The quality of child care will improve.
(B) The cost of providing child-care services will increase.
(C) The government will use funding to foster advances in child care.
(D) If public criticism of policy is strongly voiced, the government is certain to
respond.
(E) If child-care services are not regulated, the cost of providing child care will not
increase.

Question 12 is based on this passage.


12. Which of the following best completes the passage below?
Established companies concentrate on defending what they already have. Consequently, they tend not to be innovative themselves and tend to
underestimate the effects of the innovations of others. The clearest example of this defensive strategy is the fact that -------.
(A) ballpoint pens and soft-tip markers have eliminated the traditional market for
fountain pens, clearing the way for the marketing of fountain pens as luxury or
prestige items
(B) a highly successful automobile was introduced by the same company that had
earlier introduced a model that had been a dismal failure
(C) a once-successful manufacturer of slide rules reacted to the introduction of
electronic calculators by trying to make better slide rules
(D) one of the first models of modern accounting machines, designed for use in the
banking industry, was purchased by a public library as well as by banks
(E) the inventor of a commonly used anesthetic did not intend the product to be used
by dentists, who currently account for almost the entire market for that drug

Question 13 is based on this passage.


13. Which of the following best completes the argument below?
One effect of the introduction of the electric refrigerator was a collapse in the market for ice. Formerly householders had bought ice to keep their
iceboxes cool and the food stored in the iceboxes fresh. Now the iceboxes cool themselves. Similarly, the introduction of crops genetically
engineered to be resistant to pests will ----------.
(A) increase the size of crop harvests
(B) increase the cost of seeds
(C) reduce demand for chemical pesticides
(D) reduce the value of farmland

40

(E) reduce the number of farmers keeping livestock

Questions 14-16 are based on this passage.


Immediately relevant to game theory are the sex ratios in certain parasitic wasp species that have a large excess of females. In these species,
fertilized eggs develop into females and unfertilized eggs into males. A female stores sperm and can determine the sex of each egg she lays by
fertilizing it or leaving it unfertilized. By Fishers genetic argument that the sex ratio will be favored which maximizes the number of
descendants an individual will have and hence the number of gene copies transmitted, it should pay a female to produce equal numbers of sons
and daughters. Hamilton, noting that the eggs develop within their hostthe larva of another insectand that the newly emerged adult wasps
mate immediately and disperse, offered a remarkably cogent analysis. Since only one female usually lays eggs in a given larva, it would pay her
to produce one male only, because this one male could fertilize all his sisters on emergence. Like Fisher, Hamilton looked for an evolutionarily
stable strategy, but he went a step further in recognizing that he was looking for a strategy.

14. The author suggests that the work of Fisher and Hamilton was similar in that
both scientists
A. conducted their research at approximately the same time
B. sought to manipulate the sex ratios of some of the animals they studied
C. sought an explanation of why certain sex ratios exist and remain stable
D. studied game theory, thereby providing important groundwork for the later
development of strategy theory
E. studied reproduction in the same animal species

For the following question, consider each of the choices separately


and select all that apply.
15. The passage contains information that would answer which of the following
questions about wasps?
A. How many eggs does the female wasp usually lay in a single host larva?
B. Can some species of wasp determine sex ratios among their offspring?
C. What is the approximate sex ratio among the offspring of parasitic wasps?

16. Which of the following is NOT true of the species of parasitic wasps discussed in
the passage?
A. Adult female wasps are capable of storing sperm.
B. Female wasps lay their eggs in the larvae of other insects.
C. The adult female wasp can be fertilized by a male that was hatched in the same
larva as herself.
D. So few male wasps are produced that extinction is almost certain.
E. Male wasps do not emerge from their hosts until they reach sexual maturity.

41

Questions 17-18 are based on this passage.


The dark regions in the starry night sky are not pockets in the universe that are devoid of stars as had long been thought. Rather, they are dark
because of interstellar dust that hides the stars behind it. Although its visual effect is so pronounced, dust is only a minor constituent of the
material, extremely low in density, that lies between the stars. The average density of interstellar material in the vicinity of our Sun is 1,000 to
10,000 times less than the best terrestrial laboratory vacuum. It is only because of the enormous interstellar distances that so little material per
unit of volume becomes so significant. Optical astronomy is most directly affected, for although interstellar gas is perfectly transparent, the dust
is not.

For the following question, consider each of the choices separately


and select all that apply.
17. According to the passage, which of the following is a direct perceptual
consequence of interstellar dust EXCEPT?
A. Some stars are rendered invisible to observers on Earth.
B. Many visible stars are made to seem brighter than they really are.
C. The dust is conspicuously visible against a background of bright stars.

18. It can be inferred from the passage that it is because space is so vast that
A. little of the interstellar material in it seems substantial
B. normal units of volume seem futile for measurements of density
C. stars can be far enough from Earth to be obscured even by very sparsely
distributed matter
D. interstellar gases can, for all practical purposes, be regarded as transparent
E. optical astronomy would be of little use even if no interstellar dust existed

Answer key: 1. C

2. E 3.B

4. A

5. E

11. B

12. C

13. C

10.B/D
17.B/C

6. C/E
14. C

7. A/F

8.B/F/G

9. B/D

15. B 16. D

18. C

Unit 8 Review & Test

For each of Questions 1-8, select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.
1. Despite the fact that the -------- writer had no previous publishing experience, she
still managed to get a contract for her first novel through hard work and
persistence.
A. vehement
B. lucrative

42

C. novice
D. negligible
E. impassive

2. Considering the awful upbringing he sings about in his ferociously bitter lyrics, it
was a total surprise to his fans than Randys autobiography had such a/an --------tone when describing his childhood.
A. heinous
B. turbulent
C. redoubtable
D. impromptu
E. innocuous

3. Lawrence was a/an --------- young man in his mid-twenties who dressed quite
soberly and never acted rudely or aggressively in the company of others.
A. insolent
B. lackluster
C. sedate
D. extenuating
E. derogatory

4. The defense lawyer pleaded with Judge Hogarth to show --------- in sentencing in
that his client was the sole support of two relatives and a former racing
greyhound.
A. clemency
B. adulation
C. quandary
D. synopsis
E. indifference

5. Convinced that Emma thought she was better than anyone else in the class,
Ed --------- her for her arrogance.
A. redeemed
B. rebuked
C. accentuated
D. extolled
E. prevented

6. It was in this period that Barros wrote Dcadas da sia, an epic historical account

43

of Portuguese discoveries and conquests in the Orient to 1538. To (i) -------- the
compilation of his chronicle, Barros used his official position to consult returned
soldiers, merchants, and administrators and (ii) ------- all the official
correspondence, while he himself was personally involved in the dispatch and
return of the annual India fleets.
Blank (i)
A. expedite

Blank (ii)
D. adumbrated

B. scorn

E. perused

C. release

F. facilitated

7. (i) --------- founder and president of the Childrens Defense Fund, Marian Wright
Edelman has ensured that, even though the young cannot vote or make
campaign contributions, they are nevertheless not (ii) --------- in Washington.
Blank (i)
A. With

(Blank ii)
D. dissipated

B. As

E. expiated

C. Due to

F. connived at

8. Adgar Allen Poe is American short-story writer, poet, critic, and editor who is
famous for his cultivation of mystery and the (i) ---------. His tale The Murders in
the Rue Morgue (1841), written with incredible (ii) --------, initiated the modern
detective story, and the atmosphere in his tales of horror is (iii) --------- in
American fiction. His The Raven (1845) numbers among the best-known poems
in the national literature.
Blank (i)

(Blank ii)

(Blank iii)

A. obtrusive

D. dexterity

B. macabre

E. zenith

H. unrivaled

C. insecure

F. adulation

I. disregarded

G. misconstrued

For each of Questions 9- 10, select the two answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the sentence
as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.
9. At a time when biographies that debunk their subjects are all the rage, it is
refreshing to have one idol who not only lives up to her legend but also --------- it.
A. transgresses
B. surpasses
C. persuades
D. outstrips
E. inveigles

44

F. matches

10. His reply is a contradiction in the minds of most people. How could the desert
smell like rain, when deserts are, by definition, places which lack --------- rainfall?
A. substantial
B. impending
C. clandestine
D. meticulous
E. inordinate
F. auspicious

Question 11 is based on this passage.


For every 50 dogs that contract a certain disease, one will die from it. A vaccine exists that is virtually 100 percent effective in preventing this
disease. Since the risk of death from complications of vaccination is one death per 5,000 vaccinations, it is therefore safer for a dog to receive the
vaccine than not to receive it.
11. Which one of the following would it be most helpful to know in order
to evaluate the argument?
(A) the total number of dogs that die each year from all causes taken
together
(B) whether the vaccine is effective against the disease in household pets
other than dogs
(C) the number of dogs that die each year from diseases other than the
disease in question
(D) the likelihood that a dog will contract another disease such as
rabies
(E) the likelihood that an unvaccinated dog will contract the disease in
question

Question 12 is based on this passage.


Most radicals who argue for violent revolution and complete overthrow of our existing society have no clear idea of what will emerge from the
destruction. They just assert that things are so bad now that any change would have to be a change for the better. But surely this is mistaken, for
things might actually turn out to be for the worse.
12. The answer to which of the following questions would be most useful
in evaluating the significance of the experimental data described
above?
A. In which manner the radicals might foment their revolution?
B. What are the economic arguments that the radicals use to persuade people to join

45

in their cause?
C. What loss of life and property is likely to accompany total destruction of society?
D. To what extent are people dissatisfied with the present system?
E. What would some of the specific results of the revolution be?

Question 13 is based on this passage.


In an experiment, two different types of recorded music were played for neonates in adjacent nurseries in a hospital. In nursery A, classical
music was played; in nursery B, rock music was played. After two weeks, it was found that the babies in nursery A cried less, suffered fewer
minor ailments, and gained more weight than did the babies in nursery B.
13. In evaluating the validity of the conclusion suggested by the
experiment above, it would be most important to know which of the
following?
(A) The musical preferences of the parents of the two groups of newborns
(B) Whether the newborns in both nurseries were equally healthy and
happy at the start of the experiment
(C) Whether loud rock music can damage the hearing of newborns
(D) What the average weight of the neonates was before and after the
experiment
(E) Whether the music was played in the nurseries at all times or only at
certain times

Questions 14-16 are based on this passage.


More selective than most chemical pesticides in that they ordinarily destroy only unwanted species, biocontrol agents (such as insects, fungi,
and viruses) eat, infect, or parasitize targeted plant or animal pests. However, biocontrol agents can negatively affect nontarget species by, for
example, competing with them for resources: a biocontrol agent might reduce the benefits conferred by a desirable animal species by consuming
a plant on which the animal prefers to lay its eggs. Another example of indirect negative consequences occurred in England when a virus
introduced to control rabbits reduced the amount of open ground (because large rabbit populations reduce the ground cover), in turn reducing
underground ant nests and triggering the extinction of a blue butterfly that had depended on the nests to shelter its offspring. The paucity of
known extinctions or disruptions resulting from indirect interactions may reflect not the infrequency of such mishaps but rather the failure to
look for or to detect them: most organisms likely to be adversely affected by indirect interactions are of little or no known commercial value and
the events linking a biocontrol agent with an adverse effect are often unclear. Moreover, determining the potential risks of biocontrol agents
before they are used is difficult, especially when a nonnative agent is introduced, because, unlike a chemical pesticide, a biocontrol agent may
adapt in unpredictable ways so that it can feed on or otherwise harm new hosts.

14. The passage is primarily concerned with


(A) explaining why until recently scientists failed to recognize the risks
presented by biocontrol agents

46

(B) emphasizing that biocontrol agents and chemical pesticides have more
similarities than differences
(C) suggesting that only certain biocontrol agents should be used to control plant
or animal pests
(D) arguing that biocontrol agents involve risks, some of which may not be
readily discerned
(E) suggesting that mishaps involving biocontrol agents are relatively
commonplace

15. According to the passage, which of the following is a concern that arises with
biocontrol agents but not with chemical pesticides?
(A) Biocontrol agents are likely to destroy desirable species as well as
undesirable ones.
(B) Biocontrol agents are likely to have indirect as well as direct adverse effects
on nontarget species.
(C) Biocontrol agents may change in unforeseen ways and thus be able to
damage new hosts.
(D) Biocontrol agents may be ineffective in destroying targeted species.
(E) Biocontrol agents may be effective for only a short period of time.

16. The passage suggests which of the following about the blue butterfly
mentioned in the text?
(A) The blue butterfly's survival was indirectly dependent on sustaining a
rabbit population of a particular size.
(B) The blue butterfly's survival was indirectly dependent on sustaining large
amounts of vegetation in its habitat.
(C) The blue butterfly's survival was threatened when the ants began preying
on its offspring.
(D) The blue butterfly was infected by the virus that had been intended to
control rabbit populations.
(E) The blue butterfly was adversely affected by a biocontrol agent that
competed with it for resources.

Questions 17- 20 are based on this passage.


Many theories have been formulated to explain the role of grazers such as zooplankton in controlling the amount of planktonic algae
(phytoplankton) in lakes. The first theories of such grazer control were merely based on observations of negative correlations between algal
and zooplankton numbers. A low number of algal cells in the presence of a high number of grazers suggested, but did not prove, that the
grazers had removed most of the algae. The converse observation, of the absence of grazers in areas of high phytoplankton concentration, led

47

Hardy to propose his principle of animal exclusion, which hypothesized that phytoplankton produced a repellent that excluded grazers from
regions of high phytoplankton concentration. This was the first suggestion of algal defenses against grazing.
Perhaps the fact that many of these first studies considered only algae of a size that could be collected in a net (net phytoplankton), a
practice that overlooked the smaller phytoplankton (nannoplankton) that we now know grazers are most likely to feed on, led to a de-emphasis
of the role of grazers in subsequent research. Increasingly, as in the individual studies of Lund, Round, and Reynolds, researchers began to stress
the importance of environmental factors such as temperature, light, and water movements in controlling algal numbers. These environmental
factors were amenable to field monitoring and to simulation in the laboratory. Grazing was believed to have some effect on algal numbers,
especially after phytoplankton growth rates declined at the end of bloom periods, but grazing was considered a minor component of models that
predicted algal population dynamics.
The potential magnitude of grazing pressure on freshwater phytoplankton has only recently been determined empirically. Studies by
Hargrave and Geen estimated natural community grazing rates by measuring feeding rates of individual zooplankton species in the laboratory
and then computing community grazing rates for field conditions using the known population density of grazers. The high estimates of grazing
pressure postulated by these researchers were not fully accepted, however, until the grazing rates of zooplankton were determined directly in the
field, by means of new experimental techniques.Using a specially prepared feeding chamber, Haney was able to record zooplankton grazing
rates in natural field conditions. In the periods of peak zooplankton abundance, that is, in the late spring and in the summer, Haney recorded
maximum daily community grazing rates, for nutrient-poor lakes and bog lakes, respectively, of 6.6 percent and 114 percent of daily
phytoplankton production. Cladocerans had higher grazing rates than copepods, usually accounting for 80 percent of the community grazing
rate. These rates varied seasonally, reaching the lowest point in the winter and early spring. Haneys thorough research provides convincing field
evidence that grazers can exert significant pressure on phytoplankton population.

17. It can be inferred from the passage that the first theories of grazer control
mentioned in the first paragraph would have been more convincing if
researchers had been able to
(A) observe high phytoplankton numbers under natural lake conditions
(B) discover negative correlations between algae and zooplankton numbers from
their field research
(C) understand the central importance of environmental factors in controlling
the growth rates of phytoplankton
(D) make verifiable correlations of cause and effect between zooplankton and
phytoplankton numbers
(E) invent laboratory techniques that would have allowed them to bypass their
field research concerning grazer

For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and
select all that apply.
18. The author would be likely to agree with which of the following statements
regarding the pressure of grazers on phytoplankton numbers?
A. Grazing pressure can vary according to the individual type of zooplankton.
B. Grazing pressure can be lower in nutrient-poor lakes than in bog lakes.

48

C. Grazing tends to exert about the same pressure as does temperature.

19. It can be inferred from the passage that one way in which many of the early
researchers on grazer control could have improved their data would have
been to
(A) emphasize the effects of temperature, rather than of light, on phytoplankton
(B) disregard nannoplankton in their analysis of phytoplankton numbers
(C) collect phytoplankton of all sizes before analyzing the extent of
phytoplankton concentration
(D) recognize that phytoplankton other than net phytoplankton could be
collected in a net
(E) understand the crucial significance of net phytoplankton in the diet of
zooplankton

20. According to the passage, Hargrave and Geen did which of the following in
their experiments?
(A) They compared the grazing rates of individual zooplankton species in the
laboratory with the natural grazing rates of these species.
(B) The hypothesized about the population density of grazers in natural habitats
by using data concerning the population density of grazers in the laboratory.
(C) They estimated the community grazing rates of zooplankton in the
laboratory by using data concerning the natural community grazing rates of
zooplankton.
(D) They estimated the natural community grazing rates of zooplankton by
using data concerning the known population density of phytoplankton.
(E) They estimated the natural community grazing rates of zooplankton by
using laboratory data concerning the grazing rates of individual zooplankton
species.

Answer key: 1. C

2. E 3. C

10.A/E
17.D

11. E

4. A
12. E

18. A/B

5. B
13. B

19. C

6. A/E
14. D

7. B/F

8.B/D/H

9. B/D

15. C 16. A

20. E

Unit 9 Review & Test

For each of Questions 1-8, select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.

49

1. There was a three-year -------- in Valerie and Emilys friendship, but they picked
right up where they had left off.
A. antithesis
B. hiatus
C. qualm
D. tumult
E. perfidy

2. In the new age of the internet, blogs and chat rooms have become forums for some
normally -------- people to say what the might not otherwise have the intrepidity
to utter out in the real world.
A. abrasive
B. senile
C. bitter
D. docile
E. craven

3. The members of the team were already upset that they were losing, but their
anger escalated when the -------- members of the other team boasted about their
considerable lead in points.
A. egregious
B. imperious
C. onerous
D. impeccable
E. prescient

4. Although the French -------- the inhabitants of England in the eleventh century,
the French language melded with the English language rather than replacing it.
A. bemoaned
B. subjugated
C. foundered
D. incarcerated
E. wrested

5. Although Jeremy continued to have symptoms of his illness, he took comfort in


the fact that the -------- for his recovery was excellent.
A. decree
B. rationale
C. prognosis

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D. approbation
E. yardstick

6. The nations recent ill-starred series of foreign entanglements, which had (i) -------the countrys economy, cautioned the president, a voracious acolyte of historys
lessons, against the danger of taking (ii) -------- action.
Blank (i)
A. incapacitated
B. intercepted
C. repulsed

(Blank ii)
D. vitriolic
E. hardy
F. hasty

7. The discussions between the two leaders got off to a very auspicious start on March
21. The atmosphere of the conference was extremely good, and the (i) -------- was
generally considered a great success. Although some of the details of the decisions
arrived at were not made public, to (ii) -------- rumors that the two presidents had
already made secret agreement, they issue a joint statement that no agreement
would be signed unless the parliament in both countries were first informed of the
progress made thus far.
Blank (i)

(Blank ii)

A. parley

D. divine

B. elocution

E. squelch

C. appointment

F. resuscitate

8. Some critics maintain that fixed poetic forms, which (i) -------- a specific number
of lines and syllables, may actually (ii) -------- creativity and encourage (ii) --------.
When no such restraint exists, the poet can easily spot and eliminate superfluities.
Blank (i)

(Blank ii)

(Blank iii)

A. protect

D. stifle

G. fraud

B. require

E. cajole

H. eloquence

C. revive

F. transfer

I. verbosity

For each of Questions 9- 10, select the two answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the sentence
as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.
9. After decades of stability, the past 15 years have become witness to a remarkably
-------- period for airlines, during which virtually every airline has been part of a
merger, filed for bankruptcy, or both.
A. luxurious
B. unstable
C. fractious

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D. sumptuous
E. volatile
F. disconsolate

10. Miriam had trusted her financial adviser completely, so it was crushing, not
only financially but personally, to learn that his -------- had taken away half of
her life savings.
A. fraud
B. hierarchy
C. accomplice
D. miscreant
E. chicanery
F. culmination

Question 11 is based on this passage.


Some people believe that witnessing violence in movies will discharge aggressive energy. Does watching someone else eat fill ones own
stomach?
11. In which one of the following does the reasoning most closely parallel
that employed in the passage?
A. Some people think appropriating supplies at work for their own personal use is
morally wrong. Isnt shoplifting morally wrong?
B. Some people think nationalism is defensible. Hasnt nationalism been the excuse
for committing abominable crimes?
C. Some people think that boxing is fixed just because wrestling usually is. Are the
two sports managed by the same sort of people?
D. Some people think that economists can control inflation. Can meteorologists make
the sun shine?
E. Some people think workaholics are compensating for a lack of interpersonal skills.
However, arent most doctors workaholics?

Question 12 is based on this passage.


At the beginning of each month, companies report to the federal government their net loss or gain in jobs over the past month. These reports are
then consolidated by the government and reported as the total gain or loss for the past month. Despite accurate reporting by companies and
correct tallying by the government, the number of jobs lost was significantly underestimated in the recent recession.
12. Which one of the following, if true, contributes most to a resolution of
the apparent discrepancy described?
A. More jobs are lost in a recession than in a period of growth.
B. The expenses of collecting and reporting employment data have steadily
increased.

52

C. Many people who lose their jobs start up their own businesses.
D. In the recent recession a large number of failing companies abruptly ceased all
operations.
E. The recent recession contributed to the growing preponderance of service jobs over
manufacturing jobs.

Question 13 is based on this passage.


The governments proposed 8 percent cut in all subsidies to arts groups will be difficult for those groups to absorb. As can be seen, however,
from their response to last years cut, it will not put them out of existence. Last year there was also an 8 percent cut and though private fundraising was very difficult for the arts groups in the current recessionary economy, they did survive.
13. The reasoning in the argument is flawed because the argument
A. relies without warrant on the probability that the economy will improve
B. does not raise the issue of whether there should be any government subsidies to
arts groups at all
C. equates the mere survival of the arts groups with their flourishing
D. does not take into account that the dollar amount of the proposed cut is lower than
the dollar amount of last years cut
E. overlooks the possibility that the cumulative effect of the cuts will be more that
the arts groups can withstand

Question 14 is based on this passage.


Since anyone who supports the new tax plan has no chance of being elected, and anyone who truly understands economics would not support the
tax plan, only someone who truly understands economics would have any chance of being elected.
14. The reasoning in the argument is flawed because the argument ignores
the possibility that some people who
A. truly understand economics do not support the tax plan
B. truly understand economics have no chance of being elected
C. do not support the tax plan have no chance of being elected
D. do not support the tax plan do not truly understand economics
E. have no chance of being elected do not truly understand economics

Questions 15-17 are based on this passage.


For women feminist literary critic, the subjectivity versus objectivity, or critic-as-artist-or-scientist, debate has special political significance,
and her definition will court special risks whichever side of the issue it favors. If she defines feminist criticism as objective and scientific, the
definition precludes the critic-as-artist approach and may impede accomplishment of the utilitarian political objectives of those who seek to
change the academic establishment. If she defines feminist criticism as creative and intuitive, privileged as art, then her work becomes
vulnerable to the prejudices of stereotypic ideas about the ways in which women think, and will be dismissed by much of the academic
establishment.

53

These questions are political in the sense that the debate over them will inevitably be less an exploration of abstract matters in a spirit of
disinterested inquiry than an academic power struggle in which the careers and professional fortunes of many women scholars -- only now
entering the academic profession in substantial numbers -- will be at stake, and with them the chances for a distinctive contribution to humanistic
understanding, a contribution that might be an important influence against sexism in our society.

For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply
15. The author specifically mentions all of the following as difficulties that
particularly affect women who are theoreticians of feminist literary criticism
A. tendency of a predominantly male academic establishment to form
preconceptions about women
B. limitations that are imposed when criticism is defined as objective and scientific
C. likelihood that the work of a woman theoretician who claims the privilege of art
will be viewed with prejudice by some academics

16. Which of the following is presented by the author in support of the suggestion
that there is stereotypic thinking among members of the academic
establishment?
A. A distinctively feminist contribution to humanistic understanding could work
against the influence of sexism among members of the academic establishment.
B. Women who define criticism as artistic may be seen by the academic
establishment as being incapable of critical thinking.
C. The debate over the role of the literary critic is often seen as a political one.
D. Women scholars are only now entering academia in substantial numbers.
E. The woman who is a critic is forced to construct a theory of literary criticism.

17 .It can be inferred that the author would define as " political" questions (in the
second paragraph) that
A. are contested largely through contentions over power
B. are primarily academic in nature and open to abstract analysis
C. are not in themselves important
D. cannot be resolved without extensive debate
E. will be debated by both men and women

Questions 15-17 are based on this passage.


It has long been known that during an El Nino, two conditions exist: (1) unusually warm water extends along the eastern Pacific, principally
along the coasts of Ecuador and Peru, and (2) winds blow from the west into the warmer air rising over the warm water in the east. These winds
tend to create a feedback mechanism by driving the warmer surface water into a "pile" that blocks the normal upwelling of deeper, cold water in
the east and further warms the eastern water, thus strengthening the wind still more. The contribution of the recent model is to show that the

54

winds of an El Nino, which raise sea level in the east, simultaneously send a signal to the west lowering sea level. According to the model, that
signal is generated as a negative Rossby wave, a wave of depressed, or negative, sea level, that moves westward parallel to the equator at 25 to
85 kilometers per day.

18. According to the passage, which of the following features is characteristic of an El


Nino?
A. Cold coastal water near Peru
B. Winds blowing from the west
C. Random occurrence
D. Worldwide effects
E. Short duration

For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply
19. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following would result
fairly immediately from the cessation of the winds of an El Nino?
A. Negative Rossby waves would cease to be generated in the eastern Pacific.
B. The sea level in the eastern Pacific would fall.
C. The surface water in the eastern Pacific would again be cooled by being mixed
with deep water.

Question 20 is based on this passage.


Biologists have long maintained that two groups of pinnipeds, sea lions and walruses, are descended from a terrestrial bearlike animal, whereas
the remaining group, seals, shares an ancestor with weasels. But the recent discovery of detailed similarities in the skeletal structure of the
flippers in all three groups undermines the attempt to explain away (1: to get rid of by or as if by explanation; 2: to minimize the significance of
by or as if by explanation) superficial resemblance as due to convergent evolutionthe independent development of similarities between
unrelated groups in response to similar environmental pressures. Flippers may indeed be a necessary response to aquatic life; turtles, whales, and
dugongs also have them. But the common detailed design found among the pinnipeds probably indicates a common ancestor. Moreover,
walruses and seals drive themselves through the water with thrusts of their hind flippers, but sea lions use their front flippers. If anatomical
similarity in the flippers resulted from similar environmental pressures, as posited by the convergent evolution theory, one would expect
walruses and seals, but not seals and sea lions, to have similar flippers.

20. In presenting the argument in the passage, the author does which of the
following?
A. Contends that key terms in an opposing view have been improperly used.
B. Contends that opponents have purposely obscured important evidence.
C. Shows that two theories thought to be in conflict are actually complementary.
D. Shows that advocates of a theory have not always stated their view in the same
manner.

55

E. Shows that an implication of a theory is contradicted by the facts.

Answer key: 1. B
9. B/E
17. A

2. E 3.B
10. A/E

4. B
11. D

5. C
12. D

6. A/F
13. E

7. A/E
14. D

8.B/D/I

15. A/B/C

16. B

18. B 19. A/B/C 20. E

Unit 10 Final Review

For each of Questions 1-10, select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.

1. The Mayor was so ------- by the long trial that, despite his eventual acquittal, he
admitted his failing health and declined to run for re-election.
A. sedentary
B. exonerated
C. mesmerized
D. debilitated
E. vindicated

2. Superficial differences between the special problems and techniques of the


physical sciences and those of the biological sciences are sometimes cited as
evidence for the ------- of biology and for the claim that the methods of physics are
therefore not adequate to biological inquiry.
A. independence
B. divergence
C. diffusion
D. impassivity
E. irrelevance

3. The blueprints for the new automobile were striking at first glance, but the
designer had been basically too conservative to ------- previous standards of
beauty.
A. flout
B. fortify
C. dispel

56

D. divine
E. incorporate

4. Glendon provides a dark underside to Frederick Jackson Turners frontier thesis


that saw rugged individualism as the essence of American societyan
individualism that Glendon sees as ------- atomism.
A. antagonistic toward
B. skeptical of
C. innocuous for
D. regressing to
E. circumvented by

5. Because the order in which the parts of speech appear in the sentences of a
given language is decided merely by custom, it is (i) ------- to maintain that every
departure from that order constitutes a (ii) ------- of a natural law.
Blank (i)

(Blank ii)

A. orthodox

D. disparity

B. unjustifiable
C. insolent

E. transgression
F. denunciation

6. With his relentless energy but equally diminutive attention span, Garlin (i) ------his talents on several potentially exciting but uncompleted projects, much to the
dismay of his friends who, while venerating his enthusiasm, (ii) ------- his
unfocused nature.
Blank (i)
A. relegated

(Blank ii)
D. squelched

B. predisposed

E. decried

C. squandered

F. restrained

7. Federal efforts to regulate standards on educational achievements have been met


by (i) ------- from the states; local governments feel that government imposition
represents an undue infringement on their (ii) -------.
Blank (i)

(Blank ii)

A. receptivity

D. legislation

B. intransigence

E. autonomy

C. nemesis

F. rationale

8. The harmonious accommodation reached by the warring factions exemplifies the


(i) ------- that (ii) ------- is possible among people of goodwill, even when they have

57

previously held quite (iii) ------- perspectives.


Blank (i)
A. axiom
B. foible
C. premonition

(Blank ii)
D. candor

(Blank iii)
G. unequivocal

E. compromise
F. lethargy

H. indistinguishable
I. antagonistic

9. The grave accusation made by the plaintiff were almost entirely (i) -------the
testimony of two witnesses. Therefore, when the court (ii) ------- the credentials of
those witness, the plaintiffs case disintegrated and the relevant claims were
shown to be (iii) ------- .
Blank (i)

(Blank ii)

(Blank iii)

A. ostracized by

D. repudiated

G. stringent

B. dependent on

E. subjugated

H. strenuous

C. deprived of

F. regressed

I. specious

10. We humans are selfish creatures, continuing to (i) ------- the use of plastic bags,
those (ii) ------- symbols of consumer society. Wherever you travel you see them
clogging drains, polluting beaches and generally (iii) ------- the well-being of the
biosphere.
Blank (i)

(Blank ii)

(Blank iii)

A. sanction

D. exorbitant

G. forsaking

B. berate

E. ostentatious

H. menacing

C. imbue

F. ubiquitous

I. dissipating

For each of Questions 11- 13, select the two answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the
sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

11. The evil of class and race hatred must be eliminated while it is still in ------- state;
otherwise, it may grow to dangerous proportions.
A. an equivocal
B. an onerous
C. a rudimentary
D. a threatening
E. an unassuming
F.

an incipient

12. Paradoxically, the more -------the details the artist chooses, the better able she is
to depict her fantastic, other-worldly landscapes.

58

A. inane
B. prosaic
C. grievous
D. mundane
E. impeccable
F. heinous

13. The reasoning in this editorial is so ------- that we cannot see how anyone can be
deceived by it.
A. flawed
B. coherent
C. astute
D. dispassionate
E. scrupulous
F. specious

Question 14 is based on this passage.


Mr. Janeck: I dont believe Stevenson will win the election for governor. Few voters are willing to elect a businessman with no political
experience to such a responsible public office.
Ms. Siuzdak: Youre wrong. The experience of running a major corporation is a valuable preparation for the task of running a state government.
14. M. Siuzdaks response shows that she has interpreted Mr. Janecks
remark to imply which of the following?
A. Mr. Janeck considers Stevenson unqualified for the office of governor.
B. No candidate without political experience has ever been elected governor of a
state.
C. Mr. Janeck believes that political leadership and business leadership are closely
analogous.
D. A career spent in the pursuit of profit can be an impediment to ones ability to run
a state government fairly.
E. Voters generally overestimate the value of political experience when selecting a
candidate.

Question 15 is based on this passage.


A young man eager to become a master swordsman journeyed to the home of the greatest teacher of swordsmanship in the kingdom. He asked
the teacher, How quickly can you teach me to be a master swordsman? The old teacher replied, It will take ten years. Unsatisfied, the young
man asked, What if I am willing to work night and day, every day of the year? the teacher replied, In that case, it will take twenty years.
15. The teachers main point is that an important quality of a master
swordsman is

59

A. humility
B. willingness to work hard
C. respect for ones elders
D. patience
E. determination

Question 16 is based on this passage.


In many surveys, American consumers have expressed a willingness to spend up to 10 percent more for products that are ecologically sound.
Encouraged by such surveys, Bleach-O Corporation promoted a new laundry detergent, Bleach-O Green, as safer for the environment. Bleach-O
Green cost 5 percent more than typical detergents. After one year, Bleach-O Green had failed to capture a significant share of the detergent
market and was withdrawn from sale.
16. Which of the following questions is LEAST likely to be relevant in
determining the reasons for the failure of Bleach-O Green?
A. How effective as a detergent was Bleach-O Green?
B. How many other detergents on the market were promoted as safe for the
environment?
C. How much more did Bleach-O Green cost to manufacture than ordinary
detergents?
D. To what extent did consumers accept the validity of Bleach-O Green advertised
and promoted to consumers?
E. How effectively was Bleach-O Green advertised and promoted to consumers?

Questions 17- 20 are based on this passage.


Throughout human history there have been many stringent taboos concerning watching other people eat or eating in the presence of others.
There have been attempts to explain these taboos in terms of inappropriate social relationships either between those who are involved and those
who are not simultaneously involved in the satisfaction of a bodily need, or between those already satiated and those who appear to be
shamelessly gorging. Undoubtedly such elements exist in the taboos, but there is an additional element with a much more fundamental
importance. In prehistoric times, when food was so precious and the on-lookers so hungry, not to offer half of the little food one had was
unthinkable, since every glance was a plea for life. Further, during those times, people existed in nuclear or extended family (extended family: ,
and the sharing of food was quite literally supporting ones family or, by extension, preserving ones self.

17. If the argument in the passage is valid, taboos against eating in the presence of
others who are not also eating would be LEAST likely in a society that
A. had always had a plentiful supply of food
B. emphasized the need to share worldly goods
C. had a nomadic rather than an agricultural way of life
D. emphasized the value of privacy
E. discouraged overindulgence

60

18. The authors hypothesis concerning the origin of taboos against watching other
people eat emphasizes the
A. general palatability of food
B. religious significance of food
C. limited availability of food
D. various sources of food
E. nutritional value of food

19. According to the passage, the author believes that past attempts to explain
some taboos concerning eating are
A. unimaginative
B. implausible
C. inelegant
D. incomplete
E. unclear

20. In developing the main idea of the passage, the author does which of the
following?
A. Downplays earlier attempts to explain the origins of a social prohibition.
B. Adapts a scientific theory and applies it to a spiritual relationship.
C. Simplifies a complex biological phenomenon by explaining it in terms of social
needs.
D. Reorganizes a system designed to guide personal behavior.
E. Codifies earlier, unsystematized conjectures about family life.

Questions 17- 20 are based on this passage.


Volcanic rock that forms as fluid lava chills rapidly is called pillow lava. This rapid chilling occurs when lava erupts directly into water (or
beneath ice) or when it flows across a shoreline and into a body of water. While the term pillow lava suggests a definite shape, in fact
geologists disagree. Some geologists argue that pillow lava is characterized by discrete, ellipsoidal masses. Others describe pillow lava as a
tangled mass of cylindrical, interconnected flow lobes. Much of this controversy probably results from unwarranted extrapolations of the
original configuration of pillow flows from two-dimensional cross sections of eroded pillows in land outcroppings. Virtually any cross section
cut through a tangled mass of interconnected flow lobes would give the appearance of a pile of discrete ellipsoidal masses. Adequate threedimensional images of intact pillows are essential for defining the true geometry of pillowed flows and thus ascertaining their mode of origin.
Indeed, the term pillow, itself suggestive of discrete masses, is probably a misnomer.

21. Which of the following is a fact presented in the passage?


A. The shape of the connections between the separate, sacklike masses in pillow lava
is unknown.

61

B. More accurate cross sections of pillow lava would reveal the mode of origin.
C. Water or ice is necessary for the formation of pillow lava.
D. No three-dimensional examples of intact pillows currently exist.
E. The origin of pillow lava is not yet known.

22. In the passage, the author is primarily interested in


A. analyzing the source of a scientific controversy
B. criticizing some geologists methodology
C. pointing out the flaws in a geological study
D. proposing a new theory to explain existing scientific evidence
E. describing a physical phenomenon

For the following question, consider each of the choices separately


and select all that apply.
23. The author of the passage would most probably agree that the geologists
mentioned in line 4 (Some geologists) have made which of the following
errors in reasoning?
A. Generalized unjustifiably from available evidence.
B. Deliberately ignored existing counterevidence.
C. Repeatedly failed to take new evidence into account.

24. The author implies that the controversy (line 6) might be resolved if
A. geologists did not persist in using the term pillow
B. geologists did not rely on potentially misleading information
C. geologists were more willing to confer directly with one another
D. two-dimensional cross sections of eroded pillows were available
E. existing pillows in land outcroppings were not so badly eroded

Question 25 is based on this passage.


Heat pumps circulate a fluid refrigerant that cycles alternatively from its liquid phase to its vapor phase in a closed loop. The refrigerant, starting
as a low- temperature, low-pressure vapor, enters a compressor driven by an electric motor. The refrigerant leaves the compressor as a hot, dense
vapor and flows through a heat exchanger called the condenser, which transfers heat from the refrigerant to a body of air. Now the refrigerant, as
a high-pressure, cooled liquid, confronts a flow restriction which causes the pressure to drop. As the pressure falls, the refrigerant expands and
partially vaporizes, becoming chilled. It then passes through a second heat exchanger, the evaporator, which transfers heat from the air to the
refrigerant, reducing the temperature of this second body of air.

25. According to the passage, the role of the flow restriction in a heat pump is to
A. measure accurately the flow rate of the refrigerant mass at that point

62

B. compress and heat the refrigerant vapor


C. bring about the evaporation and cooling of refrigerant
D. exchange heat between the refrigerant and the air at that point
E. reverse the direction of refrigerant flow when needed

Answer key: 1. D

2. A 3. A

4. D

10.A/F/H

11. C/F

17. A

18. C

5. B/E
12. B/D

19. D

6. C/E
13. A/F

7. B/E 8.A/E/I
14. A

15. D

9. B/D/I
16. C

20. A 21. C 22. A 23. A 24. B 25. C

Bonus Unit 1

Study the following words:

1.

Tenuous (adj.)
weak; flimsy (e.g. tenuous reason/ plan/ link)

2.

Prosaic (adj.)
ordinary; uninteresting; pedestrian ( e.g. prosaic writing style/furniture)

3.

Literal (adj.)
word for word; verbatim ( e.g. literal translation)

4.

Inspired (adj.)
wonderful; impressive; outstanding ( e.g. inspired poems/ leaders/ guess)

5.

Enlightened (adj.)
educated; knowledgeable; informed ( enlightened readers/managers/action)

6.

Mediocre (adj.)
not very good; very ordinary (e.g. mediocre student/ score/ songs)

7.

Coherent (adj.)
organized ( e.g. coherent essay/ speech)

8.

Destitution (n.)
poverty; penury; indigence ( e.g. He died in penury in 1644.)

9.

Abysmal (adj.)
very bad or of bad quality ( abysmal living conditions/business failure)

10.

Innovative (adj.)
an innovative idea or way of doing something is new, different, and better than those
that existed before (e.g. an innovative approach to language teaching)

11. Cautious (adj.)

63

careful; circumspect ( e.g. cautious driver/ predictions)


12.

Credulous (adj.)
always believing what you are told, and therefore easily deceived; gullible (e.g.
credulous investors/ buyers/customers)

13.

Realist (n.)
someone who accepts that things are not always perfect, and deals with problems or
difficult situations in a practical way (e.g. She had always been a realist, not a
dreamer.)

14.

Pragmatist (n.)
someone dealing with problems in a sensible, practical way instead of following a set
of ideas ( an opposite word is IDEALIST) ( e.g. Strauss' being a pragmatist has kept
the company profitable.)

15.

Hard-nosed (adj.)
you use hard-nosed to describe someone who is tough and realistic, and who takes
decisions on practical grounds rather than emotional ones. (e.g. a hard-nose
businessman/negotiator)

Practice

For each of Questions 1-4, select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.

1. Men are said to have certain attributes, for example being supposedly more
aggressive, ----------, and logical. Other attributes, meanwhile, are allotted to
women: sensitivity, a nurturing nature, the ability to build consensus, and
stronger emotions.
A. tenuous
B. hard-nosed
C. pedestrian
D. mediocre
E. literal

2. During the troubles of 1750, the --------- -of Scotland was terrible; many Scots
could afford nothing to eat but oatmeal porridge.
A. anarchy
B. coherence
C. punishment
D. gullibility
E. destitution

64

3. Her first concert appearance was disappointingly perfunctory and derivative


rather than the (i) ------- performance in the (ii) ------- style we had expected.
Blank i

Blank ii

A. inspired

D. abysmal

B. prosaic
C. hard-nosed

E. cautious
F. innovative

4. The popularity of pseudoscience and quack medicines in the nineteenth century


(i) ------- that people were very (ii) -------, but the gullibility of the public today
makes citizens of yesterday look like (iii) ------- skeptics.
Blank i

Blank ii

Blank iii

A. denies

D. circumspect

H. pedestrian

B. concludes

E. enlightened

G. hard-nosed

C. suggests

F. credulous

I. verbatim

For each of Questions 5- 6, select the two answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the sentence
as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

5. ---------- people have only themselves to blame if they fall for scams repeatedly.
As the saying goes, Fool me once, shame on you. Fool me twice, shame on me.
A. Circumspect
B. Credulous
C. Abysmal
D. Mediocre
E. Gullible
F. Cautious

6. The connection between the performance of the stock market and the result of
the yearly Super Bowl game might seem ---------- at best, but there is evidence
of some strange correlation between the two.
A. literal
B. coherent
C. tenuous
D. organized
E. verbatim
F. flimsy

65

Answer key: 1. B 2. E 3. A/F 4. C/F/G 5. B/E 6. C/F

Bonus Unit 2

Study the following:

1. Adherence
The fact of adhering or sticking to a particular rule, agreement or belief
His strict adherence to the constitution and respect for our laws are praiseworthy.

2. Affiliation
If one group has an affiliation with another group, it has a close or official connection with it.
The group has no affiliation to any political party.

3. Go unchecked
if something bad or harmful goes unchecked, it is not controlled or stopped and develops into something worse
This habit, if left unchecked, may cause serious problems later.

4.Comprehensive
including all the necessary facts, details, or problems that need to be dealt with; thorough
We offer our customers a comprehensive range of financial products.

5. Orthodox
orthodox ideas, methods, or behavior are accepted by most people to be correct and right; conventional
orthodox medical treatments

6. Haphazard
happening or done in a way that is not planned or organized
I continued my studies in a rather haphazard way.

7. Upbraid
to tell someone angrily that they have done something wrong; scold
Eleanor upbraid him for things hed left undone.

8. Reinforce
Make strong; strengthen

66

If all goes well, the skills develop interactively as they are supposed to, do complement and reinforce each other.

9. Annihilate
to destroy something or someone completely
Just one of these bombs could annihilate a city the size of New York.

10. Enhance
to improve something
The publicity has enhanced his reputation.

11. Chide
to tell someone that you do not approve of something that they have done or said
Don't be ridiculous! she chided herself.

12. Console
to make someone feel better or cheerful when they are feeling sad or disappointed
No one could console her when Peter died.

13. Applaud
to express strong approval of an idea, plan etc; praise
We applaud the company's efforts to improve safety.

14. Choleric
bad-tempered or angry
He was a choleric, self-important little man.

15. Cherish
to love someone or something very much and take care of them well
He was forced to leave behind all those he cherished.

Practice

For each of Questions 1-4, select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.

1. No work illustrated his disdain for a systematic approach to research better than
his dissertation, which was rejected primarily because his bibliography
constituted, at best, ----- survey of the major texts in his field.
A. an unimaginative

67

B. an orthodox
C. a meticulous
D. a comprehensive
E. a haphazard

2. The passions of love and pride are often found in the same individual, but
having little in common, they mutually -----, no to say destroy each other.
A. reinforce
B. annihilate
C. weaken
D. enhance
E. embrace

3. Punishment for violating moral rules is much more common than reward for
following them: thus, (i) ----- the rules goes almost (ii) ----- in society.
Blank i
A. associations with

Blank ii
D. undefended

B. adherence to

E. unchecked

C. affiliation to

F. unresolved

4. This recent evaluation of two artists whose works even experts find difficult to
(i) -----, reveals a surprising (ii) ----- in their temperaments: Palmer was
reserved and courteous, Frazer (iii) -----and boastful.
Blank i

Blank ii

Blank iii

A. evaluate

D. similarity

H. choleric

B. comprehend

E. difference

G. obedient

C. distinguish

F. feature

I. meticulous

For each of Questions 5- 6, select the two answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the sentence
as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

5. Grandfather liked us children to learn self-discipline, and, unlike many others


of his generation, seldom ----- us even for those actions that we felt deserved
censure.
A. rewarded
B. consoled
C. upbraided
D. applauded

68

E. cherished
F. chided

6. Carrying ----- insurance that will cover scratches and malicious mischief on
your car is rarely recommended for older vehicles.
A. choleric
B. haphazard
C. thorough
D. unorganized
E. comprehensive
F. conventional

Answer key: 1. E

2. C

3. B/E

4. C/E/H

5. C/F

6. C/E

Bonus Unit 3

Study the following words:

1. Altruism
when you care about or help other people, even though this brings no advantage to yourself
Many choose to work in underdeveloped countries out of altruism.

2. Approbation
approval
The would simply do anything without his fathers approbation.

3. Cohesive
connected or related in a reasonable way to form a whole
a cohesive community

4. Cumbersome
a process or system that is cumbersome is slow and difficult
Doctors are complaining that the system is cumbersome and bureaucratic.

5. Cupidity
very strong desire for something, especially money or property; greed

69

They need to figure out how to make a reasonable profit and knock off the cupidity.

6. Dearth
a lack of something; shortage
Unfortunately, there has been a dearth of rain this season.

7. Humdrum
boring and ordinary, and having no variety or interest
Going to night school might improve your chances of getting out of that humdrum job.

8. Laud
praise very much; extol
Honig lauded his wifes charity work.

9. Override
to use your power or authority to change someone elses decision
City council members voted to override the mayors veto.

10. Plausible
reasonable and likely to be true or successful [ implausible]
His story certainly sounds plausible.

11. Redundant
not necessary because something else means or does the same thing
the removal of redundant information

12. Strive
to make a great effort to achieve something; attempt
Toni has been striving to achieve musical recognition for the past ten years.

13. Triviality
something that is not important at all
Dont waste time on trivialities.

14. Venerable
a venerable person or thing is respected because of their great age, experience etc
venerable financial institutions

15. Underplay

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to make something seem less important or less serious than it really is


She underplays her achievements.

START THE TEST

For each of Questions 1-4, select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.

1. Those who fear the influence of television deliberately ----- its persuasive power,
hoping that they might keep knowledge of its potential to effect change from
being widely disseminated.
(A) improve
(B) override
(C) laud
(D) attempt
(E) underplay

2. The naked ------- endemic in our corporate culture was well documented in the
criminal trial of the CEO, who confessed to embezzling employee retirement
funds in order to purchase his third Italian villa.
(A) dearth
(B) cupidity
(C) triviality
(D) altruism
(E) approbation

3. The fact that a theory is (i) ----- does not necessarily (ii) ----- its scientific
truth, which must be established by unbiased controlled studies.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) cumbersome

(D) ensure

(B) humdrum

(E) limit

(C) plausible

(F) praise

4. Joe spoke of superfluous and (i) ----- matters with exactly the same degree of
intensity, (ii) ----- for him serious issues mattered neither more less
than did (iii) -----.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) venerable

(D) unless

(B) redundant

(E) as though

Blank iii
(G) trivialities
(H) approbations

71

(C) significant

(F) whereas

(I) cohesive issues

For each of Questions 5- 6, select the two answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the sentence
as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

5. The -------- of available housing units means that supply went beyond demand and
drove down the price that renters were willing to pay.
(A) insignificance
(B) approbation
(C) shortage
(D) approval
(E) dearth
(F) triviality

6. While health care reform was being debated in the legislature, the opposition
repeatedly ------- to filibuster the bill.
(A) strived
(B) underplayed
(C) attempted
(D) praised
(E) extolled
(F) lauded

Answer key: 1. E 2. B 3.C/D

4. C/E/G

5. C/E

6. A/C

Bonus Unit 4

Study the following.

1. Adventurous
not afraid of taking risks or trying new things
adventurous travelers

2. Celerity
great speed in doing something, especially because you do not have enough time; haste; hurry
The translation work was poor, bearing the signs of inaccuracy and celerity.

72

3. Compromise
To expose to danger of disgrace; endanger
The patient's immune system has been compromised by cancer treatments.

4. Conspicuous
very easy to notice
The notice must be displayed in a conspicuous place.

5. Conscientious
careful to do everything that it is your job or duty to do
A conscientious teacher may feel inclined to take work home.

6. Correlate
if two or more facts, ideas etc correlate or if you correlate them, they are closely connected to each other or one causes the other
Poverty and poor housing correlate with a shorter life expectancy.

7. Empirical
based on scientific testing or practical experience, not on ideas
His theory is inconsistent with the empirical evidence.

8. Enthrall
to make someone very interested and excited, so that they listen or watch something very carefully
The children were enthralled by the story she was telling

9. Epitomize
to be a very typical example of something
This building epitomizes the spirit of the nineteenth century.

10. Glut (n.)


a supply of something, especially a product or crop, that is more than is needed; plethora
When there is a glut of milk more products like yoghurt are made.

11. Guile (n.)


the use of clever but dishonest methods to deceive someone
By guile, bribery or skill the fleeing rebels managed to elude their pursuers.

12. inexplicable
too unusual or strange to be explained or understood; incomprehensible

73

For some inexplicable reason, he felt depressed.

13. Learned
a learned person has a lot of knowledge because they have read and studied a lot
a learned professor

14. Precede
to happen or exist before something or someone, or to come before something else in a series
a type of cloud that precedes rain

15. Timely
done or happening at exactly the right time
The database will provide timely and accurate information on the current status of the business.

START THE TEST

For each of Questions 1-4, select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.

1. Though one cannot say that Michelangelo was an impractical designer, he


was, of all nonprofessional architects known, the most ----- in that he was the
least conserved by tradition and precedent.
A. pragmatic
B. adventurous
C. empirical
D. skilled
E. learned

2. High software prices are frequently said to ----- widespread logical copying,
although the oppositethat high prices are the cause of the copyingis equally
plausible.
A. contribute to
B. correlate with
C. explain
D. precede
E. result from

3. Nothing ----- his irresponsibility better than his ----- delay in sending us the items
he promised weeks ago.

74

Blank i

Blank ii

A. epitomizes

D. timely

B. conceals

E. conscientious

C. enthralls

F. unnecessary

4. The academic education offered to university students is essential and must not
be (i) -----, but that doe not mean university should (ii) ----- the extracurricular,
(iii) ----- important, aspects of university life.
Blank i

Blank ii

Blank iii

A. developed

D. permit

H. yet still

B. compromised

E. neglect

G. as yet

C. concealed

F. examine

I. not yet

For each of Questions 5- 6, select the two answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the sentence
as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

5. Enough though the curator actually spent several months arranging the exhibit,
the paintings seemed as if they had been hung with -------.
A. reluctance
B. haste
C. creativity
D. celerity
E. adherence
F. destitution

6. Because there is now such a ------- of vampire novels on the market, the
excitement they once evoked has been deadened by their sheer number.
A. dearth
B. deception
C. glut
D. lack
E. guile
F. plethora

Answer key: 1. B 2. E 3.A/F

4. B/E/H

5. B/D

6. C/F

75

Bonus Unit 5

Study the following:

1. Acerbic (adj.)
critical and direct; bitter
His lyrics are as acerbic and poignant as they ever have been.

2. Conceited (adj.)
If you say that someone is conceited, you are showing your disapproval of the fact that they are far too proud of their abilities or achievements.
Youre the most conceited, selfish person Ive ever known

3. Defect (n.)
a fault or a lack of something that means that something or someone is not perfect; deficiency
A defect in the braking system caused several accidents before the car was recalled.

4. Disregard (v.)
to ignore something or treat it as unimportant
He ordered the jury to disregard the witnesss last statement

5. Emulate (v.)
great deal you emulate something or someone, you imitate them because you admire them a if
Sons are traditionally expected to emulate their fathers.

6. Finesse (n.)
Skill to do something
Dario played the piano with great finesse.

7. Genuine (adj.)
something genuine really is what it seems to be; real
We need laws that will protect genuine refugees.

8. Graft (n.)
the practice of obtaining money or advantage by the dishonest use of influence or power
Stevens was in court yesterday facing charges of graft and tax evasion.

9. Hearten (v.)
make someone feel happier and more hopeful

76

The good news heartened everyone.

10. Inhibited (adj.)


want embarrassed or nervous to do or say what you too
Many people are inhibited about discussing sexual matters.

11. Precipitous (adj.)


very sudden:
a precipitous decline in stock prices

12. Proclivity (n.)


a tendency to behave in a particular way, or to like a particular thing - used especially about something bad
The student has a proclivity to daydream in class.

13. Shiftless (adj.)


lazy and having no interest in working hard or trying to succeed
She could no longer tolerate her shiftless husband.

14. Subservient (adj.)


always obeying another person and doing everything they want you to do - used when someone seems too weak and powerless
His wife refused to accept a traditional subservient role.

15. Temporal (adj.)


time related to or limited by
Our physical bodies are just a temporal, passing reality.

START THE TEST

For each of Questions 1-4, select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.
1. James had idolized the professor so much that even after lunching with her
several times he remained quite ----- in her presence, and as a result, he could not
really be himself.
A. conceited
B. disregarded
C. heartened
D. relaxed
E. inhibited

77

2. Although frequent air travelers remain unconvinced, researchers have found


that, paradoxically, the ----- disorientation inherent in jet lag also may yield
mental health benefits.
A. temporal
B. acerbic
C. precipitous
D. subservient
E. shiftless

3. However (i) ----- they might be, Roman poets were bound to have some favorite
earlier author whom they would (ii) -----.
Blank i

Blank ii

A. subservient

D. disregard

B. original

E. emulate

C. dishonest

F. admire

4. People who seek advice from (i)____ often find that what they are told can seem
true, because these seekers of information attribute significance to some
predictions and ignore others. The mind seeks to make sense of predictions that, in
themselves, have no (ii)____ value, and thus it becomes difficult to prove that the
forecasts are (iii)____ .
Blank i

Blank ii

A. experts

D. special

H. acerbic

B. philosophers

E. genuine

G. specious

C. clairvoyants

F. legal

Blank iii

I. shiftless

For each of Questions 5- 6, select the two answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the sentence
as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.
5. The poet W.H Auden believed that the greatest poets of his age were almost
necessarily irresponsible, that the possession of great gifts engender the ....... to
abuse them.
A. tendency
B. finesse
C. graft
D. proclivity
E. talent
F. skill

6. Among the many ....... of the project, expense cannot be numbered; the goals of

78

the projects promoters can be achieved with impressive economy.


A. grafts
B. deficiencies
C. assumptions
D. claims
E. defects
F. tendencies

Answer key: 1. E

2. A

3. B/E

4. C/D/G

5. A/D

6. B/E

Bonus Unit 6

1. Annotate (v.)
to add short notes to a book or piece of writing to explain parts of it
an annotated edition of Othello

2. Antedate (v.)
to come from an earlier time in history than something else; predate
The economic troubles antedate the current government.

3. Appreciate (v.)
to understand how good or useful someone or something is; treasure
Her abilities are not fully appreciated by her employer.

4. Devoid of (adj.)
to be completely lacking in something
His face was devoid of any warmth or humor.

5. Elucidate (v.)
to explain something that is difficult to understand by providing more information
The full picture has not yet been elucidated.

6. Finicky (adj.)
too concerned with unimportant details and small things that you like or dislike
Shes very finicky about what she eats.

7. Intensify (v.)

79

to increase in degree or strength, or to make something do this


His mothers death intensified his loneliness.

8. Intimate (adj.)
having an extremely close friendship
Close and intimate friendships are characterized by commitment and vulnerability.

9. Limpid (adj.)
clear or transparent
Black shapes now appear against the limpid sky on the horizons!

10. Obviate (v.)


to prevent or avoid a problem or the need to do something; eliminate
The new treatment obviates the need for surgery.

11. Parsimonious (adj.)


extremely unwilling to spend money; penurious
Shes too parsimonious to give money to charity.

12. Replete with (adj.)


be full of; rife with
Literature is replete with tales of power.

13. Slipshod (adj.)


done too quickly and carelessly - used to show disapproval
The research project was shelved due to slipshod management.

14. Vitiate (v.)


to make something less effective or spoil it; weaken; undermine
Changes at this point may actually vitiate the entire system.

15. Vitriolic (adj.)


vitriolic language, writing etc is very cruel and angry towards someone
She attacked him in a vitriolic seven-page letter to the newspaper.

START THE TEST>

80

For each of Questions 1-4, select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.
1. It is no accident that most people find Davis book disturbing, for its calculated
to ----- a number of beliefs they have long cherished.
A. appreciated
B. absorbed
C. vitiated
D. annotated
E. anticipated

2. One virus stain that may help gene therapists cure genetic brain can enter the
peripheral nervous system and travel to the brain, ----- the need to inject the
therapeutic virus into the brain.
A. suggesting
B. intensifying
C. elucidating
D. satisfying
E. obviating

3. Even those siblings whose childhood was (i) ----- familial feuding and intense
rivalry for their parents affection can nevertheless develop congenital and
even (ii) ----- relationships with each other in their adult lives.
Blank i

Blank ii

A. devoid of

D. intimate

B. replete with

E. vitriolic

C. finicky about

F. parsimonious

4. (i) ----- the book might satisfy Blooms hardcore fans, it is (ii) ----- by its
monotonous citations and its (iii) ----- style.
Blank i
A. Considering the fact that

Blank ii
D. undermined

B. Inasmuch as

E. obviated

C. Although

F. elucidated

Blank iii
G. cruel
H. limpid
I. slipshod

For each of Questions 5- 6, select the two answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the sentence
as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.
5. Given his long history of penny-pinching behavior, we could not help but feel
that his refusal to donate to the charity only reinforced his ----- image.

81

A. vitriolic
B. devoid
C. penurious
D. bitter
E. empty
F. parsimonious

6. Just as the earliest stone tools left by humans may seem nothing more than rock
fragments to a layperson, so a lot of fossils require a trained eye to ----- them.
A. antedate
B. treasure
C. predate
D. annotate
E. appreciate
F. elucidate

Answer key: 1. C

2. E

3. B/D

4. C/D/I

5. C/F

6. B/E

Bonus Unit 7

1. Charismatic
Having charisma (a natural ability to attract and interest other people and make
them admire you)
Martin Luther King was a very charismatic speaker.

2. Chore (n.)
something you have to do that is very boring and unpleasant
I find driving a real chore.

3. Clarity (n.)
the clarity of a piece of writing, law, argument etc is its quality of being expressed clearly
The clarity of Irving's writing style makes his books a pleasure to read.

4. Conceal (v.)
to hide something carefully
Customs officers found a kilogram of cocaine that Smith had concealed inside his suitcase.

82

5. Conjure (v.)
if you conjure something out of nothing, you make it appear as if by magic
Thirteen years ago she found herself having to conjure a career from thin air.

6. Contrive (v.)
to arrange an event or situation in a clever way, especially secretly or by
deceiving people
He contrived a meeting between his mother and her ex- husband.

7. Countermand (v.)
to officially tell people to ignore an order, especially by giving them a different one
Goldstein was expelled for countermanding a direct order from the supervisor.

8. Demystify (v.)
to make a subject that seems difficult or complicated easier to understand
especially by explaining it in simpler language
This book demystifies the male worlds of plumbing and carpentry.

9. Deviation (n.)
a noticeable difference from what is expected or acceptable
No deviation from the normal procedure would be tolerated.

10. Diminish (v.)


to become or make something become smaller or less
The party's share of the electorate has diminished steadily.

11. Dispel (v.)


to make something go away, especially a belief, idea, or feeling:
The Central Bank attempted to dispel rumors of a possible financial crisis.

12. Gravity (n.)


the extreme and worrying seriousness of a situation
The penalties should be proportionate to the gravity of the offence.

13. Pacifist (n.)


someone who believes that wars are wrong and who refuses to use violence
Bergson was imprisoned as a pacifist during the World War I.

83

14. Reiterate (v.)


to repeat a statement or opinion in order to make your meaning as clear as possible
Let me reiterate the most important points.

15. Rigidity (n)


being very strict and difficult to change; inflexibility
Andrews rigidity in his attitudes towards child-rearing surprised even his father who was very strict himself.

START THE TEST>

For each of Questions 1-4, select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.
1. It is difficult to distinguish between the things that charismatic figures do
spontaneously and those that are carefully --------- for effect.
A. countermanded
B. concealed
C. demystified
D. contrived
E. reiterated

2. The valedictory address, as it has developed in American colleges and universities


over the years, has become a very strict form, a literary genre that permits very
little --------- .
A. clarity
B. tradition
C. deviation
D. gravity
E. rigidity

3. The trick for Michael was to (i) ---------his son an illusory orderliness; only alone at
night, when the boy was asleep, could Michael (ii) --------- the chaos he kept hidden
from his son.
Blank i

Blank ii

A. demystify

D. dispel

B. conjure for

E. conceal

C. explore with

F. abandon

4. Contrary to his reputation, the admiral was not a (i) ---------. He (ii) --------- his
order to attack when he saw the white flag raised by the enemy sailors, and was

84

actually relieved that he could bring an end to the (iii) ---------.


Blank i

Blank ii

A. flexible officer

Blank (iii)

D. countermanded

B. a bloodthirsty man

E. reiterated

C. pacifist

G. hostilities
H. formalities

F. forced

I. chores

For each of Questions 5- 6, select the two answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the sentence
as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.
5. The analysts report indicated that Gains Corp. had significantly underreported
its capital depreciation; rather than remaining steady, the companys value had
actually ---------.
A. grown
B. diminished
C. hidden
D. dispelled
E. concealed
F. declined

6. Instead of serving fixed sentences, prisoners there were held until they had earned
a number of marks, or credits, fixed in proportion to the -------- of their offenses. A
prisoner became eligible for release when he had obtained the required number of
credits.
A. strictness
B. clarity
C. gravity
D. deviation
E. seriousness
F. rigidity

Answer key: 1. D

2. C 3. B/E

4. B/D/G

5. B/F

6. C/E

Bonus Unit 8

1.

apocryphal (adj.):

an apocryphal story is well-known but probably not true


I am still not sure whether these stories were apocryphal or not, but the danger was clearly present.

85

2.

calumny (n.):

an untrue and unfair statement about someone that is intended to give people a bad opinion of them
The chairman who was force to resign was the victim of calumny.

3.

demands (n.):

the difficult, annoying, or tiring things that you need to do, or a skill you need to have
Many people find it hard to cope with the demands of modern life.

4.

exceed (v.):

go beyond; surpass
Those drivers who exceed the speed limit are penalized.
5.

expatiate on (v.):

to speak or write in detail about a particular subject


Maybe you can expatiate on his general physical well-being.

6.

extemporize (v.):

to speak or perform without preparation or practice


He completely departed from the text and extemporized in a very energetic fashion.

7. forgo (v.):
if you forego something, you decide to do without it, although you would like it.
Keen skiers are happy to forego a summer holiday to go skiing.

8.

hyperbole (n.):

a way of describing something by saying it is much bigger, smaller, worse etc than it actually is; exaggeration
It was not hyperbole to call the recent storm the worst storm in twenty years.

9.

impending (adj.):

an impending event or situation, especially an unpleasant one, is going to happen very soon
She had a sense of impending disaster.

10. irony (n.):


a situation that is unusual or amusing because something strange happens, or the opposite of what is expected happens or is true
The irony is that some of the poorest countries have the richest natural resources.

11. rapacious (adj.):


always wanting more money, goods etc than you need or have a right to; avaricious; greedy
The oil fields have been depleted by a rapacious exploitation policy.

86

12. replenish (v.):


to put new supplies into something, or to fill something again
More vaccines are needed to replenish our stocks.

13. resemble (v.):


to look like or be similar to someone or something:
It's amazing how closely Brian and Steve resemble each other.

14. substantiate (v.):


to prove the truth of something that someone has said, claimed etc
Katzen offered little evidence to substantiate his claims.

15. unfounded (adj.):


unfounded statements, feelings, opinions etc are wrong because they are not based on facts
Of the 40,000 asylum applications made last year, nine out of 10 were unfounded.

START THE TEST>

For each of Questions 1-4, select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.

1. Every novel invites us to enter a world that is initially strange; our gradual and
selective orientation to its manners ------ infants adjustment to their
environment.
A. replenishes
B. expatiates
C. resembles
D. exceeds
E. forgoes

2. It is true that the seeds of some plants have geminated after two hundred years of
dormancy, but reports that viable seeds have been found in ancient tombs such as
the pyramids are entirely ------.
A. rapacious
B. unfounded
C. irrelevant
D. extemporized
E. substantiated

87

3. Stress is experienced when an individual feels that the (i) ------ of the environment
(ii) ------ that individuals resources for handling them.
Blank i

Blank ii

A. guiles

D. exceed

B. proclivities
C. demands

E. replenish
F. forgo

4. Allowing distinguished figures to (i) ------ on their experiences, lives and wisdom
learned, the memoir genre has given us such significant works as Ulysses S.
Grants Personal Memoirs, an interesting, well-written account of his days as a
general and a president. At the opposite end of the spectrum, the genre also
provides an outlet for anyone who wants to share any (ii) ------ experience, as
evidenced by the (iii) ------

release of a fly-by-night internet celebritys memoir

next month.
Blank i

Blank ii

Blank iii

A. extemporize

D. apocryphal

B. expatiate

E. plausible

H. laudable

F. predatory

I. impending

C. substantiate

G. laughable

For each of Questions 5- 6, select the two answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the sentence
as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

3. He never demonstrated the wisdom I had claimed for him, and my friends quickly
dismissed my estimate of his ability as ------.
A. irony
B. celerity
C. hyperbole
D. paradox
E. exaggeration
F. calumny

6. Aimed at curbing European attempts to seize territory in the Amercias, the


Monroe Doctrine was a warning to ------ foreign powers.
A. plausible
B. cautionary
C. venerable
D. rapacious
E. predatory

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F. remote

Answer key: 1. C

2. B 3. C/D

4. B/D/I

5. C/E

6. D/E

GRE Verbal Section

For each of Questions 1-10, select ONE entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.

1. The sheer bulk of data from the mass media seems to overpower us and drive
us to --------accounts for an easily and readily digestible portion of news.
(A) insular
(B) investigative
(C) synoptic
(D) subjective
(E) sensational

2. During the operas most famous aria, the tempo chosen by the orchestras
conductor seemed

--------, without necessary relation to what had gone before.

(A) ephemeral
(B) melodious
(C) capricious
(D) compelling
(E) cautious

3Ironically, the party leaders encountered no greater -------- their efforts to


build a progressive party than the resistance of the progressives already
elected to the legislature.
(A) advocacy for
(B) precursor to
(C) affiliation to
(D) obstacle to
(E) commendation for

4. While Parker is very outspoken on issues she cares about, she is not --------; she
concedes the validity of opposing arguments when they expose weaknesses

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inherent in her own.


(A) fickle
(B) arrogant
(C) incompatible
(D) congenial
(E) unyielding

5. Although the revelation that one of the contestants was a friend left the judge
open to charges of lack of (i) --------, the judge remained adamant in her
assertion that acquaintance did not necessarily imply (ii) --------.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

discretion

foreknowledge

detachment

impropriety

exoneration

partiality

6. Exposure to sustained noise has been claimed to (i) -------- blood pressure
regulation in human beings and, particularly, to increase hypertension, even
though some researchers have obtained inconclusive results that (ii) -------the relationship.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

impair

buttress

aggravate

obscure

mollify

accede

7. Our new tools of systems analysis, powerful though they may be, lead to
(i) --------theories, especially, and predictably, in economics and political
science, where productive approaches have long been highly (ii) --------.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

explicable

elusive

pragmatic

convergent

simplistic

efficacious

8. Veeder claims that the very notion of the existence of synonyms is (i) -------, as
words depend on (ii) -------, connotation, and linguistic and cultural context for
their (iii) ------- meanings.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

Blank (iii)

veracious

denotation

subjective

fallacious

cogitation

distinct

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maladaptive

mastication

interchangeable

9. As part of Marina Abramovics groundbreaking exhibition at the Museum of


Modern Art in New York City, the artist herself logged 700 hours over the
course of 3 months in a small chair. Visitors were invited to sit across from the
performance artists stolid countenance, for whatever (i) ------- they desired,
the (ii) ------- sitting for only a few moments and the bold sitting for several
hours; the visitors thus became (iii) -------components of the piece, wittingly or
unwittingly.
Blank(i)

Blank(ii)

Blank(iii)

motive

irresolute

integral

tenure

boorish

culpable

approbation

genial

nascent

10. Middlemarch author George Eliot reportedly bemoaned the dearth of (i) ------women, of which her well-educated main character, Dorothea, was a
(ii) -------. Therefore, Eliot scholars have long debated the authors meaning in
marrying Dorothea to the elderly preacher Casaubon and having him exploit
his bride for (iii) ------- needs.
Blank(i)

Blank(ii)

Blank(iii)

captious

paradigm

menial

erudite

misogynist

clerical

venal

chimera

nebulous

For each of Questions 11- 13, select the TWO answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the
sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

11. Longdale and Stern discovered that mitochondria and chloroplasts share a
long, identifiable sequence of DNA; such a coincidence could be______only by
the transfer of DNA between the two systems.
(A) quadrupled
(B) accounted for
(C) pinpointed
(D) justified
(E) disclosed
(F) scrutinized

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12. It was a war the queen and her more prudent counselors wished to -------- if
they could and were determined in any event to postpone as long as possible.
(A) shun
(B) denounce
(C) instigate
(D) curtail
(E) eschew
(F) diminish

13. There is some sort of -------- the fact that the author of a book as sensitive and
informed as Indian Artisans did not develop her interest in Native American
art until adulthood, for she grew up in a region rich in American Indian
culture.
(A) irony in
(B) satisfaction in
(C) ambivalence about
(D) concern about
(E) paradox in
(F) apprehension about

For each of Questions 14-25 select one answer choice unless otherwise directed.

Question 14 is based on this passage.


Some people take their moral cues from governmental codes of law; for them, it is
inconceivable that something that is legally permissible could be immoral.
14. Those whose view is described above hold inconsistent beliefs if they
also believe that
(A) law does not cover all circumstances in which one person morally wrongs
another
(B) a legally impermissible action is never morally excusable
(C) governmental officials sometimes behave illegally
(D) the moral consensus of a society is expressed in its laws
(E) some governmental regulations are so detailed that they are burdensome to the
economy

Question 15 is based on this passage.

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The growing popularity of computer-based activities was widely expected to result in a decline in television viewing, since it had been assumed
that people lack sufficient free time to maintain current television-viewing levels while spending increasing amounts of free time on the
computer. That assumption, however, is evidently false: in a recent mail survey concerning media use, a very large majority of respondents
who report increasing time spent per week using computers report no charge in time spent watching television.
15. Which of the following would it be most useful to determine in order to
evaluate the argument?
(A) Whether a large majority of the survey respondents reported watching
television regularly
(B) Whether the amount of time spent watching television is declining among people
who report that they rarely or never use computers
(C) Whether the type of television programs a person watches tends to change as the
amount of time spent per week using computers increases
(D) Whether a large majority of the computer owners in the survey reported
spending increasing amounts of time per week using computers
(E) Whether the survey respondents reports of time spent using computers included
time spent using computers at work

Question 16 is based on this passage.


Scientists typically do their most creative work before the age of forty. It is commonly thought that this happens because aging by itself brings
about a loss of creative capacity. However, a study has found that almost all scientists who produce highly creative work beyond the age of
forty entered their fields late and less than a dozen years before their creative breakthroughs. Since creative breakthroughs by scientists under
forty also generally occur within a dozen years of the scientists entry into the field, the studys finding strongly suggests that the real reason
why scientists over forty rarely produce highly creative work is not due to age but rather because most have spent too long in their fields.
16. In the argument given, the two portions in boldface play which of the
following roles?
(A) The first is the position that the argument as a whole defends; the second is
evidence that is advanced as part of that defense.
(B) The first and second are both claims that have been advanced in support of a
position that the argument as a whole opposes.
(C) The first is an explanation that the argument challenges; the second provides
evidence in support of a competing explanation that the argument defends.
(D) The first is an explanation that the argument challenges; the second is
evidence that has been used against an alternative explanation that the
argument defends.
(E) The first is an explanation that the argument defends; the second is evidence
that has been used to challenge that explanation.

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Questions 17-20 are based on this passage.


Influenced by the view of some twentieth-century feminists that womens position within the family is one of the central factors determining
womens social position, some historians have underestimated the significance of the woman suffrage movement. These historians contend that
nineteenth-century suffragist was less radical and, hence, less important than, for example, the moral reform movement or domestic feminism
two nineteenth-century movements in which women struggled for more power and autonomy within the family. True, by emphasizing these
struggles, such historians have broadened the conventional view of nineteenth-century feminism, but they do a historical disservice to
suffragism. Nineteenth-century feminists and anti-feminist alike perceived the suffragists demand for enfranchisement as the most radical
element in womens protest, in part because suffragists were demanding power that was not based on the institution of the family, womens
traditional sphere. When evaluating nineteenth-century feminism as a social force, contemporary historians should consider the perceptions of
actual participants in the historical events.

17. The author asserts that the historians discussed in the passage have
(A) influenced feminist theorists who concentrate on the family
(B) honored the perceptions of the women who participated in the women suffrage
movement
(C) treated feminism as a social force rather than as an intellectual tradition
(D) paid little attention to feminist movements
(E) expanded the conventional view of nineteenth-century feminism

18. The author of the passage asserts that some twentieth-century feminists have
influenced some historians view of the
(A) significance of the woman suffrage movement
(B) importance to society of the family as an institution
(C) degree to which feminism changed nineteenth-century society
(D) philosophical traditions on which contemporary feminism is based
(E) public response to domestic feminism in the nineteenth century

19. The author of the passage suggests that which of the following was true of
nineteenth-century feminists?
(A) Those who participated in the moral reform movement were motivated
primarily by a desire to reconcile their private lives with their public positions.
(B) Those who advocated domestic feminism, although less visible than the
suffragists, were in some ways the more radical of the two groups.
(C) Those who participated in the woman suffrage movement sought social roles for
women that were not defined by womens familial roles.
(D) Those who advocated domestic feminism regarded the gaining of more autonomy
within the family as a step toward more participation in public life.
(E) Those who participated in the nineteenth-century moral reform movement stood
midway between the positions of domestic feminism and suffragism.

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20. The author implies that which of the following is true of the historians discussed
in the passage?
(A) They argue that nineteenth-century feminism was not as significant a social
force as twentieth-century feminism has been.
(B) They rely too greatly on the perceptions of the actual participants in the events
they study.
(C) Their assessment of the relative success of nineteenth-century domestic
feminism does not adequately take into account the effects of antifeminist
rhetoric.
(D) Their assessment of the significance of nineteenth-century suffragism differs
considerably from that of nineteenth-century feminists.
(E) They devote too much attention to nineteenth-century suffragism at the expense
of more radical movements that emerged shortly after the turn of the century.

Questions 21- 24 are based on this passage.


An experiment conducted aboard Space Lab in 1983 was the first attempt to grow protein crystals in the low-gravity environment of space.
That experiment is still cited as evidence that growing crystals in microgravity can increase crystal size: the authors reported that they grew
lysozyme protein crystals 1,000 times larger than crystals grown in the same device on Earth. Unfortunately, the authors did not point out that
their crystals were no larger than the average crystal grown using other, more standard techniques in an Earth laboratory.
No research has yet produced results that could justify the enormous costs of producing crystals on a large scale in space. To get an unbiased
view of the usefulness of microgravity crystal growth, crystals grown in space must be compared with the best crystals that have been grown
with standard techniques on Earth. Given the great expense of conducting such experiments with proper controls, and the limited promise of
experiments performed thus far, it is questionable whether further experiments in this area should even be conducted.

21. According to the passage, which of the following is true about the Space Lab
experiment conducted in 1983?
(A) It was the first experiment to take place in the microgravity environment of
space.
(B) It was the first experiment in which researchers in space were able to grow
lysozyme protein crystals greater in size than those grown on Earth.
(C) Its results have been superseded by subsequent research in the field of
microgravity protein crystal growth.
(D) Its results are still considered by some to be evidence for the advantages of
microgravity protein crystal growth.
(E) Its results are considered by many to be invalid because nonstandard techniques
were employed.

95

22. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would find the Space Lab
experiment more impressive if which of the following were true?
(A) The results of the Space Lab experiment could be replicated in producing other
kinds of crystals in addition to lysozyme protein.
(B) The device used in the experiment produced larger crystals on Earth than it did
in space.
(C) The size of the crystals produced in the experiment exceeded the size of crystals
grown in Earth laboratories using standard techniques.
(D) The cost of producing the crystals in space exceeded that of producing them using
standard laboratory techniques.
(E) The standard techniques used in Earth laboratories were modified in the Space
Lab experiment due to the effects of microgravity.

23. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the device used to
grow crystals in the Space Lab experiment?
(A) The device is more expensive to manufacture than are the devices used in
standard techniques in an Earth laboratory.
(B) The device has not been used to grow crystals in space since the Space Lab
experiment of 1983.
(C) Crystals grown in the device on Earth tend to be much smaller than crystals
grown in it in space.
(D) Crystals grown in the device in space have been exceeded in size by crystals
grown in subsequent experiments in space using other devices.
(E) The experiments in which the device was used were conducted with proper
controls.

24. The passage suggests that the author would most probably agree with which of
the following assessments of the results of the Space Lab experiment?
(A) Although the results of the experiment are impressive, the experiment was too
limited in scope to allow for definitive conclusions.
(B) The results of the experiment are impressive on the surface but the report is
misleading.
(C) The results of the experiment convincingly confirm what researchers have long
suspected.
(D) Because of design flaws, the experiment did not yield any results relevant to the
issue under investigation.
(E) The results of the experiment are too contradictory to allow for easy
interpretation.

96

Question 25 is based on this passage.


Paule Marshall's Brown Girl, Brownstones (1959) was a landmark in the depiction of female characters in Black American literature. Marshall
avoided the oppressed and tragic heroine in conflict with White society that had been typical of the protest novels of early twentieth century.
Like her immediate predecessors, Zora Neale Hurston and Gwendolyn Brooks, she focused her novel on an ordinary Black woman's search for
identity within the context of a Black community. But Marshall extended the analysis of Black female characters begun by Hurston and Brooks
by depicting her heroine's development in terms of the relationship between her Barbadian American parents, and by exploring how male and
female roles were defined by their immigrant culture, which in turn was influenced by the materialism of White America. By placing characters
within a wider cultural context, Marshall attacked racial and sexual stereotypes and paved the way for explorations of race, class, and gender in
the novels of the 1970's.

For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.
25. It can be inferred that the author of the passage would describe Brown Girl,
Brownstones as being
(A) highly influenced by novels written in the early twentieth century
(B) important in the late 1950's but dated today
(C) an important influence on novels written in the1970's

. .
. 3 "
.
. 3
.

Sample Verbal Section Key

Answer key: 1. C
10. B/D/H
17. E

2. C 3.D
11. B/D

4. E
12. A/E

5. B/F

6. A/E

13. A/E

14. A

7. C/D 8.B/D/H
15. E

18. A 19. E 20. D 21. D 22. C 23. C 24. A

9. A/D/G

16. C
25. C

End of class work:


Practice Test 1
For each of Questions 1-9, select ONE entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.
1. The techniques now available to livestock breeders will continue to be ------------, but will probably be used by new ones under development.
A. reversed
B. invaded
C. reassessed

97

D. supplemented
E. magnified
2. The disjunction between educational objective that stress independence and individuality and those that emphasize obedience to rules and
cooperation with others reflects a ------------ that arise from the values on which these objectives are based.
A. conflict
B. redundancy
C. gain
D. predictability
E. wisdom
3. Scholars sense of the uniqueness of the central concept of the state at the time when political science became an academic field quite naturally
led to striving for a correspondingly ------------ mode of study.
A. thorough
B. distinctive
C. dependable
D. scientific
E. dynamic
4. As long as nations cannot themselves accumulate enough physical power to dominate all others, they must depend on ------------.
A. allies
B. resources
C. freedom
D. education
E. self-determination
5. During periods of social and cultural stability, many art academies are so firmly controlled by (i) ------------ that all real creative work must be
done by the (ii) ------------.
Blank i

Blank ii

A. dogmatists

B. academicians

C. pundits

D. disenfranchised

E. managers

F. reactionaries

6. Once a duckling has identified a parent, then instinctive bond becomes a powerful (i) ------------ for additional learning since, by (ii) -----------the parent, the duckling can acquire further information that is not genetically transmitted.
Blank i

Blank ii

A. equilibrium

D. surpassing

B. referent

E. acknowledging

C. channel

F. mimicking

7. Although scientists claim that the seemingly (i) ------------ language of their reports is more precise than the figurative language of fiction, the
language of science, like all language, is inherently (ii) ------------.
Blank i

Blank ii

A. ornamental

D. allusive

B. literal

C. unintelligible

D. symbolic

E. sequential

8. If the Titanic had hit the iceberg head on, its watertight compartments might have saved it from
(i) ------------, but the great
liner swerved to (ii) ------------ the iceberg and in the collision so many compartments were opened to the sea that disaster was (iii) ------------.
Blank i

Blank ii

Blank iii

A. adversity

D. avoid

G. averted

B. denouement

E. contract

H. inevitable

C. foundering

F. mollify

I. limited

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9. Allowing distinguished figures to (i) ------------ on their experiences, lives and wisdom learned, the memoir genre has given us such significant
works as Ulysses S. Grants Personal Memoirs, an interesting, well-written account of his days as a general and a president. At the opposite
end of the spectrum, the genre also provides an outlet for anyone who wants to share any (ii) ------------ experience, as evidenced by the (iii)
------------ release of a fly-by-night internet celebritys memoir next month.
Blank i

Blank ii

Blank iii

A. extemporize

D. apocryphal

G. laudable

B. expatiate

E. petty

H. enviable

C. agitate

F. eccentric

I. impending

For each of Questions 10- 12, select the TWO answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the sentence
as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.
10. The evil of class and race hatred must be eliminated while it is still in ------------ state; otherwise, it may grow to dangerous proportions.
A. an amorphous
B. an overt
C. a rudimentary
D. a threatening
E. an independent
F. an embryonic

11. Arriving in New Orleans days after Hurricane Zelda had passed and without an adequate number of vehicles of its own, the armed forces began
to ------------ any working form of transportation they could find, including a bus that had been chartered at great expense by a group of
tourists.
A. repatriate
B. commandeer
C. extradite
D. interdict
E. expurgate
F. appropriate
12. Possessed of an insatiable sweet tooth, Jim enjoyed all kinds of candy, but he had a special ------------ for gumdrops, his absolute favorite.
A. trauma
B. affinity
C. odium
D. nature
E. disregard
F. predilection
Section II. Verbal Reasoning
13. Are you still reading the other newspaper in town? Did you know that the Daily Bugle is owned by an out-of-town business syndicate that
couldnt care less about the people of Gotham City? Read the Daily Clarion, the only real voice of the people of Gotham City!
Which of the following most directly refutes the argument raised in the advertisement above?
(A) Over half of the advertising revenues of the Daily Clarion come from firms whose headquarters are located outside of Gotham City.
(B) The Daily Clarion usually devotes more of its pages to out-of-town news than does the Daily Bugle.
(C) Nearly 40 percent of the readers of the Daily Clarion reside outside the limits of Gotham City.
(D) The editor-in-chief and all the other members of the editorial staff of the Daily Bugle have lived and worked in Gotham City for ten
years or more.
(E) The Daily Bugle has been published in Gotham City for a longer time than has the Daily Clarion.
14. As an experienced labor organizer and the former head of one of the nations most powerful labor unions, Grayson is an excellent choice to
chair the new council on business-labor relations.
Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusion above?
(A) The new council must have the support of the nations labor leaders if it is to succeed.
(B) During his years as a labor leader, Grayson established a record of good relations with business leaders.
(C) The chair of the new council must be a person who can communicate directly with the leaders of the nations largest labor unions.
(D) Most of the other members of the new council will be representatives of business management interests.

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(E) An understanding of the needs and problems of labor is the only qualification necessary for the job of chairing the new council.

Section III. Reading Comprehension


Feelings of hopelessness among medieval workers trapped in the poverty cycle gradually lessened as it became possible for womens labor
to supplement a familys money income by more than pennies. By 1300, women spinners could be found working on their own for wealthy
sponsors, even after the introduction in Italy and France of prohibition against advancing money for supplies to women spinners. Historians have
usually interpreted this prohibition simply as evidence of womens economic subjection, since it obliged them to turn to usurers; however, it was
also almost certainly a response to a trend toward differential reward for womens higher skill. Yarn can be spun irregularly and lumpily, but
perfectly smooth yarn is worth more. Working for merchant entrepreneurs on time rates, women had been paid hardly more than children; working
as entrepreneurs themselves and producing good work by the piece, they could break into (to make entry or entrance into broke into the house
break into show business) the rational system of differential rewards.
15. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) propose and defend a theory about the consequences of a certain historical event
(B) present historical facts and offer a broader interpretation of those facts than has been offered in the past
(C) describe the socioeconomic effects of a widely held attitude during a particular historical period
(D) demonstrate the superiority of using an economic approach to historical analysis
(E) call attention to the influence of the textile industry on society during a particular historical period
16. It can be inferred from the passage that the author views the system of paying all workers equally on time rates as
(A) unfair and not rational
(B) undesirable but unavoidable
(C) efficient and profitable
(D) advantageous to most women workers
(E) evidence of a trend toward a more modern wage system
17. The passage implies which of the following about women spinners in medieval Europe?
(A) Most of them worked independently for wealthy sponsors.
(B) They were not typical of medieval women entrepreneurs.
(C) Some of them were paid for their work after it was done, according to its value.
(D) They would have been able to contribute substantial amounts to their families incomes were it not for the prohibition against advancing
money to them.
(E) They were inevitably disadvantaged in the marketplace because they were obliged to obtain money for their supplies from usurers.
18. The passage implies that feelings of hopelessness among medieval workers
(A) resulted primarily from the lack of a rational system of differential rewards
(B) disappeared completely once medieval textile workers were able to break the cycle of poverty
(C) were more prevalent among female workers than among male workers
(D) came into being in part because of womens limited earning capacity
(E) were particularly common among textile workers in Italy and France
19. The author suggests that historians have done which of the following?
(A) Failed to give adequate consideration to the economic contribution of women during the medieval period.
(B) Overestimated the degree of hopelessness experienced by medieval workers trapped in the poverty cycle.
(C) Ignored the fact that by 1300 many women spinners were working independently rather than for merchant entrepreneurs.
(D) Regard the economic status of women in Italy and France as representative of womens status throughout medieval Europe.
(E) Overlooked part of the significance of a prohibition governing one aspect of yarn production in medieval Europe.
This is the end of Practice Test 1.
Practice Test 2
For each of Questions 1-9, select ONE entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.
1. Unlike other examples of ----------- verse, Milton's Lycidas does more than merely mourn the death of Edward King; it also denounces
corruption in the church in which King was ordained.
A. satiric
B. elegiac
C. explicit
D. didactic
E. pedestrian
2. Poverty can be a function not only of absolute wealth, but also of comparison in a community; in an area with ----------- income levels, those
at the very bottom will suffer cost-of-living increases brought on by those in the middle and top income brackets.

100

A. disparate
B. plain
C. arduous
D. onerous
E. wavering
3. The newest fiber-optic cables that carry telephone calls cross-country are made of glass so ----------- that a piece 100 miles thick is clearer than
a standard windowpane.
A. fragile
B. immaculate
C. iridescent
D. tangible
E. transparent
4. After failing to advance to the fin al round of the state spelling bee for the third year in a row, Heather's mood could only be described as ----------.
A. morose
B. chary
C. contrite
D. impecunious
E. detestable
5. The first forty years of life give us the text; the next thirty supply the -----------.
A. abridgment
B. bibliography
C. commentary
D. epitaph
E. epic
6. The success of the espionage mission depended on the ability of the mole to feign (i) ----------- in order to ingratiate herself within the
company ranks. Otherwise, all the mission plans would be compromised and the spies would have to (ii) ----------- the mission.
Blank i

Blank ii

G. nescience

D. actualize

H. irascibility

E. truncate

I. complaisance

F. demean

7. Just as disloyalty is the mark of the renegade, (i) ----------- is the mark of the (ii) -----------.
Blank i

Blank ii

A. avarice

J. craven

B. cowardice

K. laggard

C. vanity

L. misanthrope

8. Critics of the movie version of The Color Purple (i) -----------its saccharine, overoptimistic tune as out of keeping with the novels more (ii) ----------quality.
Blank i

Blank ii

G. decried

D. cloying

H. acclaimed

I. excessive

J. rectified

K. acerbic

9. One of the most (i) ----------- educators In New York Dr. Shalala (ii) ----------- a controversy in 1984 by calling the city public school a
"rotten barrel " in need of --------- reform.
Blank i

Blank ii

Blank iii

D. mediocre

D. ignited

G. systemic

E. pusillanimous

E. antagonized

H. urbane

F. outspoken

L. connived at

J. mercenary

For each of Questions 10- 12, select the TWO answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the sentence
as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

101

10. Perhaps because something in us instinctively distrusts such displays of natural fluency, some readers approach John Updikes fiction with ---------.
A. wariness
B. impartiality
C. suspicion
D. veneration
E. bewilderment
F. remorse
11. Few other plants can grow beneath the canopy of the sycamore tree, whose leaves and pods produce a natural herbicide that leaches into the
surrounding soil, ------------ other plants that might compete for water and nutrients.
A. inhibiting
B. downplaying
C. nourishing
D. suppressing
E. harvesting
F. fertilizing

12. Contemporary authors are much more at liberty to be candid than were authors of previous centuries, but modern writers nevertheless often
find themselves ------------ portions of their works.
A. emancipating
B. censoring
C. refuting
D. censuring
E. ameliorating
F. bowdlerizing
Section II. Verbal Reasoning
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)a noninvasive diagnostic procedurecan be used to identify blockages in the coronary arteries. In contrast
to angiogramsthe invasive procedure customarily usedMRIs pose no risk to patients. Thus, to guarantee patient safety in the attempt to
diagnose arterial blockages, MRIs should replace angiograms in all attempts at diagnosing coronary blockages.
13. Which of the following, if true, would most support the recommendation above?
(A) Angiograms can be used to diagnose conditions other than blockages in arteries.
(B) MRIs were designed primarily in order to diagnose blockages in the coronary arteries.
(C) Angiograms reveal more information about the nature of a blockage than an MRI can.
(D) An MRI is just as likely as an angiogram to identify an arterial blockage.
(E) Some patients for whom an angiogram presents no risk are unwilling to undergo an MRI.
Many consumers are concerned about the ecological effects of wasteful packaging. This concern probably explains why stores have been quick
to stock new cleaning products that have been produced in a concentrated form. The concentrated form is packaged in smaller containers that use
less plastic and require less transportation space.
14. Which of the following, if true, most seriously undermines the explanation offered above?
(A) Few consumers believe that containers of concentrated cleaning products are merely small packages of regular cleaning products.
(B) The containers in which concentrated cleaning products are packaged are no harder to recycle than those in which regular cleaning
products are packaged.
(C) Those concentrated cleaning products that are intended to be used diluted have clear instructions for dilution printed on their labels.
(D) The smaller containers of concentrated cleaning products enable supermarkets and drugstores to increase their revenues from a given
shelf space.
(E) Consumer pressure has led to the elimination of wasteful cardboard packaging that was used for compact discs.
Section III. Reading Comprehension
In the early 1950s, historians who studied preindustrial Europe (which we may define here as Europe in the period from roughly 1300 to
1800) began, for the first time in large numbers, to investigate more of the preindustrial European population than the 2 or 3 percent who comprised
the political and social elite: the kings, generals, judges, nobles, bishops, and local magnates who had hitherto usually filled history books. One

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difficulty, however, was that few of the remaining 97 percent recorded their thoughts or had them chronicled by contemporaries. Faced with this
situation, many historians based their investigations on the only records that seemed to exist: birth, marriage, and death records. As a result, much
of the early work on the nonelite was aridly statistical in nature; reducing the vast majority of the population to a set of numbers was hardly more
enlightening than ignoring them altogether. Historians still did not know what these people thought or felt.
One way out of this dilemma was to turn to the records of legal courts, for here the voices of the nonelite can most often be heard, as witnesses,
plaintiffs, and defendants. These documents have acted as a point of entry into the mental world of the poor. Historians such as Le Roy Ladurie
have used the documents to extract case histories, which have illuminated the attitudes of different social groups (these attitudes include, but are
not confined to, attitudes toward crime and the law) and have revealed how the authorities administered justice. It has been societies that have had
a developed police system and practiced Roman law, with its written depositions, whose court records have yielded the most data to historians. In
Anglo-Saxon countries hardly any of these benefits obtain, but it has still been possible to glean information from the study of legal documents.
The extraction of case histories is not, however, the only use to which court records may be put. Historians who study preindustrial Europe
have used the records to establish a series of categories of crime and to quantify indictments that were issued over a given number of years. This
use of the records does yield some information about the nonelite, but this information gives us little insight into the mental lives of the nonelite.
We also know that the number of indictments in preindustrial Europe bears little relation to the number of actual criminal acts, and we strongly
suspect that the relationship has varied widely over time. In addition, aggregate population estimates are very shaky, which makes it difficult for
historians to compare rates of crime per thousand in one decade of the preindustrial period with rates in another decade. Given these inadequacies,
it is clear why the case history use of court records is to be preferred.
15. The author suggests that, before the early 1950s, most historians who studied preindustrial Europe did which of the following?
(A) Failed to make distinctions among members of the preindustrial European political and social elite.
(B) Used investigatory methods that were almost exclusively statistical in nature.
(C) Inaccurately estimated the influence of the preindustrial European political and social elite.
(D) Confined their work to a narrow range of the preindustrial European population.
(E) Tended to rely heavily on birth, marriage, and death records.
16. According to the passage, the case histories extracted by historians have
(A) scarcely illuminated the attitudes of the political and social elite
(B) indicated the manner in which those in power apportioned justice
(C) focused almost entirely on the thoughts and feelings of different social groups toward crime and the law
(D) been considered the first kind of historical writing that utilized the records of legal courts
(E) been based for the most part on the trial testimony of police and other legal authorities
17. The author mentions Le Roy Ladurie (paragraph 2) in order to
(A) give an example of a historian who has made one kind of use of court records
(B) cite a historian who has based case histories on the birth, marriage, and death records of the nonelite
(C) identify the author of the quotation cited in the previous sentence
(D) gain authoritative support for the view that the case history approach is the most fruitful approach to court records
(E) point out the first historian to realize the value of court records in illuminating the beliefs and values of the nonelite
18. According to the passage, which of the following is true of indictments for crime in Europe in the preindustrial period?
(A) They have, in terms of their numbers, remained relatively constant over time.
(B) They give the historian important information about the mental lives of those indicted.
(C) They are not a particularly accurate indication of the extent of actual criminal activity.
(D) Their importance to historians of the nonelite has been generally overestimated.
(E) Their problematic relationship to actual crime has not been acknowledged by most historians.

19. It can be inferred from the passage that a historian who wished to compare crime rates per thousand in a European city in one decade of the
fifteenth century with crime rates in another decade of that century would probably be most aided by better information about which of the
following?
(A) The causes of unrest in the city during the two decades
(B) The aggregate number of indictments in the city nearest to the city under investigation during the two decades
(C) The number of people who lived in the city during each of the decades under investigation
(D) The mental attitudes of criminals in the city, including their feelings about authority, during each of the decades under investigation
(E) The possibilities for a member of the citys nonelite to become a member of the political and social elite during the two decades
20. The passage would be most likely to appear as part of
(A) a book review summarizing the achievements of historians of the European aristocracy
(B) an essay describing trends in the practice of writing history
(C) a textbook on the application of statistical methods in the social sciences

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(D) a report to the historical profession on the work of early-twentieth-century historians


(E) an article urging the adoption of historical methods by the legal profession

This is the end of Practice Test 2.

Practice Test 3
For each of Questions 1-9, select ONE entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.
1. The losing animal in a struggle saves itself from destruction by an act of --------, an act usually recognized and accepted by the winner.
(A) submission
(B) presumption
(C) truculence
(D) retribution
(E) fallacy
2. Since many casual smokers develop lung cancer and many chronic smokers do not, scientists believe that individuals differ in their -------- the
cancer-causing agents known to be present in cigarette smoke.
(A) susceptibility to
(B) concern about
(C) proximity to
(D) reliance upon
(E) exposure to
3. If animal parents were judged by human standards, the cuckoo would be one of natures more -------- creatures, blithely laying its eggs in the
nests of other birds, and leaving the incubating and nurturing to them.
(A) mettlesome
(B) industrious
(C) compliant
(D) lackluster
(E) feckless

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4. The current penchant for touting a product by denigrating a rival, named in the advertisement by brand name, seems somewhat --------:
suppose the consumer remembers only the rivals name?
(A) retrograde
(B) foolhardy
(C) insipid
(D) cumbersome
(E) gullible
5. There has been a tendency among art historians not so much to revise as to eliminate the concept of the Renaissanceto -------- not only its
uniqueness, but its very existence.
(A) constitute
(B) extol
(C) transmute
(D) regret
(E) contest

6. Despite an affected (i) -------- that convinced casual observers that he was indifferent about his painting and cared only for frivolity, Warhol
cared deeply about his art and labored at it (ii) -------- .
Blank i

Blank ii

M. gloom

D. intermittently

N. fervor

E. ambivalently

O. nonchalance

F. diligently

7. The intentions of the restaurant critic were (i) -------- ; he accepted the assignment to review the new bistro not as (ii) -------- journalist, but as
a private citizen seeking revenge against the owner, who h ad wronged him in a business deal years before.
Blank i

C.

Blank ii

A. incompatible

D. discerning

B. malevolent

E. fallible

C. tenable

F. stoical

8. After having worked in the soup kitchen feeding the homeless, the volunteer began to see her own good fortune as (i) -------- and her
difference from the destitute as chance rather than (ii) --------.
Blank i

Blank ii

A. a fluke

D. resolution

B. an omen

E. destiny

C. a chore

F. extravagance

9. The question of when, if even, history can be considered (i) -------- is contentious, to say the least. One could argue, for example, that any
evaluation of the 180-year-old presidency of Andrew Jackson would likely be (ii) -------- the controversies that define evaluations of more
contemporaneous political leaders, and yet a plethora of passionately held views continues to polarize. The (iii) -------- of any one judgment
is perhaps the one certainty surrounding the issue.
Blank i

Blank ii

Blank iii

G. tendentious

D. free from

G. subjectivity

H. apolitical

E. characteristic of

H. conformity

I. derivative

F. mired in

K.endorsement

For each of Questions 10- 12, select the TWO answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the
sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.
10. The other students in the dining hall quickly learned to avoid any table where Fred was sitting because he constantly interjected -------remarks into every conversation going on nearby.
A. puerile
B. crude
C. limpid
D. inimical

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E.
F.

jejune
insidious

11. While blood and human sacrifices performed to mollify the gods were ubiquitous in ancient cultures, the Mayans propensity for sacrificing
prisoners from neighboring tribes -------- all the other tribes.
A. incarcerated
B. patronized
C. disquieted
D. undermined
E. condoned
F. affronted
12. Under no delusions about his actual financial situation, the mans desire to present a frugal picture to his friends and avoid being labeled -------- caused him to go to such an extreme that he ended up being called a scrooge.
A. a spendthrift
B. a prodigal
C. a miser
D. a hedonist
E. a skinflint
F. a epicure
Section II. Verbal Reasoning
Like a number of other articles, Ian Raghnalls article relied on a recent survey in which over half the couples applying for divorces listed money
as a major problem in their marriages. Raghnalls conclusion from the survey data is that financial problems are the major problem in marriages
and an important factor contributing to high divorce rate. Yet couples often express other types of marital frustrations in financial terms. Despite
appearances, the survey data do not establish that financial problems are the major problem in contemporary marriages.
13. Which one of the following sentences best expresses the main point of the passage?
(A) Financial problems are not an important factor contributing to the divorce rate.
(B) Marital problems are more easily solved by marriage counselors than by married couples on their own.
(C) The conclusion drawn in Raghnalls article is inadequately justified.
(D) Over half the couples applying for divorces listed money as a major problem in their marriages.
(E) Many articles wrongly claim that financial problems are the major factor contributing to the divorce rate.
14. In the passage, the author does which one of the following?
(A) undermines a conclusion drawn from statistical data by offering a specific counterexample
(B) undermines a conclusion drawn from statistical data by offering an alternative explanation for some of the data
(C) undermines a conclusion drawn from statistical data by showing that one cannot prove the presence of an emotion by using statistical
methods
(D) undermines a conclusion drawn from statistical data by criticizing the survey for which the data was gathered
(E) undermines a conclusion by showing that couples cannot accurately describe their own problems

The public is well aware that high blood cholesterol levels raise the risk of stroke caused by blood clots. But a recent report concludes that people
with low blood cholesterol levels are at increased risk of the other lethal type of strokecerebral hemorrhage, caused when a brain artery bursts.
The report suggests that because blood cholesterol plays a vital role in maintaining cell membranes, low blood cholesterol weakens artery walls,
making them prone to rupture. The conclusion thus supports a long-standing contention by Japanese researchers that Western diets better protect
against cerebral hemorrhage than do non-Western diets.
15. The argument is based on which one of the following assumptions?
(A) Western diets are healthier than non-Western diets.
(B) Western diets result in higher blood cholesterol levels than do non-Western diets.
(C) High blood cholesterol levels preclude the weakening of artery walls.

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(D) Cerebral hemorrhages are more dangerous than strokes caused by blood clots.
(E) People who have low blood pressure are at increased risk of cerebral hemorrhage.
Section III. Reading Comprehension
Volcanic rock that forms as fluid lava chills rapidly is called pillow lava. This rapid chilling occurs when lava erupts directly into water (or
beneath ice) or when it flows across a shoreline and into a body of water. While the term pillow lava suggests a definite shape, in fact geologists
disagree. Some geologists argue that pillow lava is characterized by discrete, ellipsoidal masses. Others describe pillow lava as a tangled mass of
cylindrical, interconnected flow lobes. Much of this controversy probably results from unwarranted extrapolations of the original configuration of
pillow flows from two-dimensional cross sections of eroded pillows in land outcroppings. Virtually any cross section cut through a tangled mass
of interconnected flow lobes would give the appearance of a pile of discrete ellipsoidal masses. Adequate three-dimensional images of intact
pillows are essential for defining the true geometry of pillowed flows and thus ascertaining their mode of origin. Indeed, the term pillow, itself
suggestive of discrete masses, is probably a misnomer.
16. Which of the following is a fact presented in the passage?
(A) The shape of the connections between the separate, sacklike masses in pillow lava is unknown.
(B) More accurate cross sections of pillow lava would reveal the mode of origin.
(C) Water or ice is necessary for the formation of pillow lava.
(D) No three-dimensional examples of intact pillows currently exist.
(E) The origin of pillow lava is not yet known.
17. In the passage, the author is primarily interested in
(A) analyzing the source of a scientific controversy
(B) criticizing some geologists methodology
(C) pointing out the flaws in a geological study
(D) proposing a new theory to explain existing scientific evidence
(E) describing a physical phenomenon
18. The author of the passage would most probably agree that the geologists mentioned in line 6 (Some geologists) have made which of the
following errors in reasoning?
I. Generalized unjustifiably from available evidence.
II. Deliberately ignored existing counterevidence.
III. Repeatedly failed to take new evidence into account.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) II and III only
A serious critic has to comprehend the particular content, unique structure, and special meaning of a work of art. And here she faces a dilemma.
The critic must recognize the artistic element of uniqueness that requires subjective reaction; yet she must not be unduly prejudiced by such
reactions. Her likes and dislikes are less important than what the work itself communicates, and her preferences may blind her to certain qualities
of the work and thereby prevent an adequate understanding of it. Hence, it is necessary that a critic develop a sensibility informed by familiarity
with the history of art and aesthetic theory. On the other hand, it is insufficient to treat the artwork solely historically, in relation to a fixed set of
ideas or values. The critics knowledge and training are, rather, a preparation of the cognitive and emotional abilities needed for an adequate
personal response to an artworks own particular qualities.
19. According to the author, a serious art critic may avoid being prejudiced by her subjective reactions if she
(A) treats an artwork in relation to a fixed set of ideas and values
(B) brings to her observation a knowledge of art history and aesthetic theory
(C) allows more time for the observation of each artwork
(D) takes into account the preferences of other art critics
(E) limits herself to that art with which she has adequate familiarity
20. The authors argument is developed primarily by the use of
(A) an attack on sentimentality
(B) an example of successful art criticism
(C) a critique of artists training
(D) a warning against extremes in art criticism
(E) an analogy between art criticism and art production

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This is the end of Practice Test 3.

Practice test 4
For each of Questions 1-8, select ONE entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.
1. The sheer bulk of data from the mass media seems to overpower us and drive us to --------accounts for an easily and readily digestible portion
of news.
(A) insular
(B) investigative
(C) synoptic
(D) subjective
(E) sensational
2. During the operas most famous aria, the tempo chosen by the orchestras conductor seemed
gone before.
(A) ephemeral
(B) melodious
(C) capricious
(D) compelling
(E) cautious

--------, without necessary relation to what had

3 Ironically, the party leaders encountered no greater -------- their efforts to build a progressive party than the resistance of the progressives
already elected to the legislature.
(A) advocacy for
(B) precursor to
(C) affiliation to
(D) obstacle to
(E) commendation for
4. While Parker is very outspoken on issues she cares about, she is not --------; she concedes the validity of opposing arguments when they
expose weaknesses inherent in her own.
(A) fickle
(B) arrogant
(C) incompatible
(D) congenial

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(E) unyielding
5. Although the revelation that one of the contestants was a friend left the judge open to charges of lack of (i) ------, the judge remained
adamant in her assertion that acquaintance did not necessarily imply (ii) --------.
Blank(i)

Blank(ii)

discretion

foreknowledge

detachment

impropriety

exoneration

partiality

6. Exposure to sustained noise has been claimed to (i) -------- blood pressure regulation in human beings and, particularly, to increase
hypertension, even though some researchers have obtained inconclusive results that (ii) -------- the relationship.
Blank(i)

Blank(ii)

impair

buttress

aggravate

obscure

mollify

accede

7. Our new tools of systems analysis, powerful though they may be, lead to (i) --------theories, especially, and predictably, in economics and
political science, where productive approaches have long been highly (ii) --------.
Blank(i)

Blank(ii)

explicable

elusive

pragmatic

convergent

simplistic

efficacious

8. Veeder claims that the very notion of the existence of synonyms is (i) -------, as words depend on (ii) -------, connotation, and linguistic and
cultural context for their (iii) ------- meanings.
Blank(i)

Blank(ii)

Blank(iii)

veracious

denotation

subjective

fallacious

cogitation

distinct

maladaptive

mastication

interchangeable

9. As part of Marina Abramovics groundbreaking exhibition at the Museum of Modern Art in New York City, the artist herself logged 700 hours
over the course of 3 months in a small chair. Visitors were invited to sit across from the performance artists stolid countenance, for
whatever (i) ------- they desired, the (ii) ------- sitting for only a few moments and the bold sitting for several hours; the visitors thus became
(iii) -------components of the piece, wittingly or unwittingly.
Blank(i)

Blank(ii)

Blank(iii)

motive

irresolute

integral

tenure

boorish

culpable

approbation

genial

nascent

10. Middlemarch author George Eliot reportedly bemoaned the dearth of (i) ------- women, of which her well-educated main character, Dorothea,
was a (ii) -------. Therefore, Eliot scholars have long debated the authors meaning in marrying Dorothea to the elderly preacher Casaubon
and having him exploit his bride for (iii) ------- needs.
Blank(i)

Blank(ii)

Blank(iii)

captious

paradigm

menial

erudite

misogynist

clerical

venal

chimera

nebulous

For each of Questions 9- 10, select the TWO answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the
sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

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11. Longdale and Stern discovered that mitochondria and chloroplasts share a long, identifiable sequence of DNA; such a coincidence could
be______only by the transfer of DNA between the two systems.
(A) quadrupled
(B) accounted for
(C) pinpointed
(D) justified
(E) disclosed
(F) scrutinized
12. It was a war the queen and her more prudent counselors wished to -------- if they could and were determined in any event to postpone as long
as possible.
(A) shun
(B) denounce
(C) instigate
(D) curtail
(E) eschew
(F) diminish
13. There is some sort of -------- the fact that the author of a book as sensitive and informed as Indian Artisans did not develop her interest in
Native American art until adulthood, for she grew up in a region rich in American Indian culture.
(A) irony in
(B) satisfaction in
(C) ambivalence about
(D) concern about
(E) paradox in
(F) apprehension about

For each of Questions 14-25 select one answer choice unless otherwise directed.
Question 14 is based on this passage.
Some people take their moral cues from governmental codes of law; for them, it is inconceivable that something that is legally permissible could
be immoral.
14. Those whose view is described above hold inconsistent beliefs if they also believe that
(A) law does not cover all circumstances in which one person morally wrongs another
(B) a legally impermissible action is never morally excusable
(C) governmental officials sometimes behave illegally
(D) the moral consensus of a society is expressed in its laws
(E) some governmental regulations are so detailed that they are burdensome to the economy

Question 15 is based on this passage.


The growing popularity of computer-based activities was widely expected to result in a decline in television viewing, since it had been assumed
that people lack sufficient free time to maintain current television-viewing levels while spending increasing amounts of free time on the
computer. That assumption, however, is evidently false: in a recent mail survey concerning media use, a very large majority of respondents who
report increasing time spent per week using computers report no charge in time spent watching television.
15. Which of the following would it be most useful to determine in order to evaluate the
argument?
(A) Whether a large majority of the survey respondents reported watching television regularly
(B) Whether the amount of time spent watching television is declining among people who report that they rarely or never use computers
(C) Whether the type of television programs a person watches tends to change as the amount of time spent per week using computers increases
(D) Whether a large majority of the computer owners in the survey reported spending increasing amounts of time per week using computers
(E) Whether the survey respondents reports of time spent using computers included time spent using computers at work
Question 16 is based on this passage.

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Scientists typically do their most creative work before the age of forty. It is commonly thought that this happens because aging by itself brings
about a loss of creative capacity. However, a study has found that almost all scientists who produce highly creative work beyond the age of
forty entered their fields late and less than a dozen years before their creative breakthroughs. Since creative breakthroughs by scientists under
forty also generally occur within a dozen years of the scientists entry into the field, the studys finding strongly suggests that the real reason
why scientists over forty rarely produce highly creative work is not due to age but rather because most have spent too long in their fields.
16. In the argument given, the two portions in boldface play which of the following roles?
(A) The first is the position that the argument as a whole defends; the second is evidence that is advanced as part of that defense.
(B) The first and second are both claims that have been advanced in support of a position that the argument as a whole opposes.
(C) The first is an explanation that the argument challenges; the second provides evidence in support of a competing explanation that the
argument defends.
(D) The first is an explanation that the argument challenges; the second is evidence that has been used against an alternative explanation that the
argument defends.
(E) The first is an explanation that the argument defends; the second is evidence that has been used to challenge that explanation.

Questions 17-20 are based on this passage.


Influenced by the view of some twentieth-century feminists that womens position within the family is one of the central factors determining
womens social position, some historians have underestimated the significance of the woman suffrage movement. These historians contend that
nineteenth-century suffragist was less radical and, hence, less important than, for example, the moral reform movement or domestic feminism
two nineteenth-century movements in which women struggled for more power and autonomy within the family. True, by emphasizing these
struggles, such historians have broadened the conventional view of nineteenth-century feminism, but they do a historical disservice to suffragism.
Nineteenth-century feminists and anti-feminist alike perceived the suffragists demand for enfranchisement as the most radical element in womens
protest, in part because suffragists were demanding power that was not based on the institution of the family, womens traditional sphere. When
evaluating nineteenth-century feminism as a social force, contemporary historians should consider the perceptions of actual participants in the
historical events.
17. The author asserts that the historians discussed in the passage have
(A) influenced feminist theorists who concentrate on the family
(B) honored the perceptions of the women who participated in the women suffrage movement
(C) treated feminism as a social force rather than as an intellectual tradition
(D) paid little attention to feminist movements
(E) expanded the conventional view of nineteenth-century feminism
18. The author of the passage asserts that some twentieth-century feminists have influenced some historians view of the
(A) significance of the woman suffrage movement
(B) importance to society of the family as an institution
(C) degree to which feminism changed nineteenth-century society
(D) philosophical traditions on which contemporary feminism is based
(E) public response to domestic feminism in the nineteenth century
19. The author of the passage suggests that which of the following was true of nineteenth-century feminists?
(A) Those who participated in the moral reform movement were motivated primarily by a desire to reconcile their private lives with their
public positions.
(B) Those who advocated domestic feminism, although less visible than the suffragists, were in some ways the more radical of the two
groups.
(C) Those who participated in the woman suffrage movement sought social roles for women that were not defined by womens familial
roles.
(D) Those who advocated domestic feminism regarded the gaining of more autonomy within the family as a step toward more
participation in public life.
(E) Those who participated in the nineteenth-century moral reform movement stood midway between the positions of domestic feminism
and suffragism.
20. The author implies that which of the following is true of the historians discussed in the passage?
(A) They argue that nineteenth-century feminism was not as significant a social force as twentieth-century feminism has been.
(B) They rely too greatly on the perceptions of the actual participants in the events they study.

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(C) Their assessment of the relative success of nineteenth-century domestic feminism does not adequately take into account the effects of
antifeminist rhetoric.
(D) Their assessment of the significance of nineteenth-century suffragism differs considerably from that of nineteenth-century feminists.
(E) They devote too much attention to nineteenth-century suffragism at the expense of more radical movements that emerged shortly after
the turn of the century.

Questions 21- 24 are based on this passage.


An experiment conducted aboard Space Lab in 1983 was the first attempt to grow protein crystals in the low-gravity environment of space.
That experiment is still cited as evidence that growing crystals in microgravity can increase crystal size: the authors reported that they grew
lysozyme protein crystals 1,000 times larger than crystals grown in the same device on Earth. Unfortunately, the authors did not point out that their
crystals were no larger than the average crystal grown using other, more standard techniques in an Earth laboratory.
No research has yet produced results that could justify the enormous costs of producing crystals on a large scale in space. To get an unbiased
view of the usefulness of microgravity crystal growth, crystals grown in space must be compared with the best crystals that have been grown with
standard techniques on Earth. Given the great expense of conducting such experiments with proper controls, and the limited promise of experiments
performed thus far, it is questionable whether further experiments in this area should even be conducted.
21. According to the passage, which of the following is true about the Space Lab experiment conducted in 1983?
(A) It was the first experiment to take place in the microgravity environment of space.
(B) It was the first experiment in which researchers in space were able to grow lysozyme protein crystals greater in size than those grown
on Earth.
(C) Its results have been superseded by subsequent research in the field of microgravity protein crystal growth.
(D) Its results are still considered by some to be evidence for the advantages of microgravity protein crystal growth.
(E) Its results are considered by many to be invalid because nonstandard techniques were employed.
22. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would find the Space Lab experiment more impressive if which of the following were
true?
(A) The results of the Space Lab experiment could be replicated in producing other kinds of crystals in addition to lysozyme protein.
(B) The device used in the experiment produced larger crystals on Earth than it did in space.
(C) The size of the crystals produced in the experiment exceeded the size of crystals grown in Earth laboratories using standard techniques.
(D) The cost of producing the crystals in space exceeded that of producing them using standard laboratory techniques.
(E) The standard techniques used in Earth laboratories were modified in the Space Lab experiment due to the effects of microgravity.
23. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the device used to grow crystals in the Space Lab experiment?
(A) The device is more expensive to manufacture than are the devices used in standard techniques in an Earth laboratory.
(B) The device has not been used to grow crystals in space since the Space Lab experiment of 1983.
(C) Crystals grown in the device on Earth tend to be much smaller than crystals grown in it in space.
(D) Crystals grown in the device in space have been exceeded in size by crystals grown in subsequent experiments in space using other
devices.
(E) The experiments in which the device was used were conducted with proper controls.
24. The passage suggests that the author would most probably agree with which of the following assessments of the results of the Space Lab
experiment?
(A) Although the results of the experiment are impressive, the experiment was too limited in scope to allow for definitive conclusions.
(B) The results of the experiment are impressive on the surface but the report is misleading.
(C) The results of the experiment convincingly confirm what researchers have long suspected.
(D) Because of design flaws, the experiment did not yield any results relevant to the issue under investigation.
(E) The results of the experiment are too contradictory to allow for easy interpretation.
Question 25 is based on this passage.
Paule Marshall's Brown Girl, Brownstones (1959) was a landmark in the depiction of female characters in Black American literature. Marshall
avoided the oppressed and tragic heroine in conflict with White society that had been typical of the protest novels of early twentieth century. Like
her immediate predecessors, Zora Neale Hurston and Gwendolyn Brooks, she focused her novel on an ordinary Black woman's search for identity
within the context of a Black community. But Marshall extended the analysis of Black female characters begun by Hurston and Brooks by depicting
her heroine's development in terms of the relationship between her Barbadian American parents, and by exploring how male and female roles were
defined by their immigrant culture, which in turn was influenced by the materialism of White America. By placing characters within a wider
cultural context, Marshall attacked racial and sexual stereotypes and paved the way for explorations of race, class, and gender in the novels of the
1970's.
For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply
25. It can be inferred that the author of the passage would describe Brown Girl, Brownstones as being
(A) highly influenced by novels written in the early twentieth century
(B) important in the late 1950's but dated today

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(C) an important influence on novels written in the1970's

This is the end of Practice Test 4.

Practice Test 5
For each of Questions 1-8, select ONE entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.
1. When an oppressed group revolts against a society, one must look for the underlying forces that led to the groups -------- that society.
(A) acknowledgment of
(B) predilection for
(C) convergence with
(D) vigilance of
(E) alienation from
2. The title Rage of a Privileged Class seems --------, for such a privileged group would seem on the surface to have no reason sustained anger
with anyone.
(A) incongruous
(B) indecorous
(C) elusive
(D) torrid
(E) witty
3. Scientists are hard-line --------; only after failing to debunk a controversial theory do they accept the evidence.
(A) lobbyists
(B) sycophants
(C) martinets
(D) innovators
(E) cynics

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4. This new government is faced not only with offsetting its economy but also with implementing new rural development programs to -------the flow of farm workers to the city.
(A) sullying
(B) harness
(C) bolstering
(D) calibrating
(E) precipitating
5. A prudent, thrifty New Englander, DeWitt was naturally (i) -------- of investing money in junk bonds, which he looked on as (ii) -------ventures.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

evocative

ethereal

chary

auspicious

indicative

volatile

6. Ambrose Blerces biographers agree that the Civil War was the central experience of his life, the event to which he constantly returned and the
(i) -------- that brought some (ii) -------- to the hitherto random pattern of his youth.
Blank(i)

Blank(ii)

ordeal

divergence

stratum

coherence

deficit

seclusion

7. People who dont outgrow their colleges often dont grow in other ways; there remained in Forsters life and imagination a (i) -------- of the
undergraduate, clever but (ii) --------.
Blank(i)

Blank(ii)

diagnosis

immature

resort

coherence

streak

seclusion

8. The value of Davis' sociological research is (i) --------- by his unscrupulous tendency to use Materials (ii) -------- in order to substantiate his
own claims, while (iii) -------- information that points to other possible conclusions.
Blank(i)

Blank(ii)

Blank(iii)

exacerbated

uproariously

galvanizing

reimbursed

arbitrarily

sequestering

compromised

initially

emphasizing

9. Wearing the latest fashions was exclusively the (i) ------- of the wealthy until the 1850's, when mass production, aggressive (ii) --------, and the
availability of the sewing machine made them (iii) ------- the middle class.
Blank(i)

Blank(ii)

Blank(iii)

prerogative

entrepreneurs

lucrative for

prolixity

pedants

superfluous for

paroxysm

nonentities

accessible to

10. (i) -------- James Baldwin, who wrote of black Americans as being in a perpetual state of (ii) --------, Mr. Cater asserts that few human
beings could (iii) -------- the psychic toll of uninterrupted anger.
Blank(i)

Blank(ii)

Blank(iii)

Annotating

temerity

survive

Challenging

schism

defray

Quoting

rage

flee

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For each of Questions 9- 10, select the TWO answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the
sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.
11. The influence of the Titnaeus among early philosophical thinkers was -------, if only because it was the sole dialogue available in Europe for
almost 1,000 years.
(A) estimable
(B) formidable
(C) pervasive
(D) ubiquitous
(E) rapacious
(F) edacious
12. It is a great advantage to be able to transfer useful genes with as little extra gene material as possible, because the donors genome may
contain, in addition to desirable genes, many genes with -------- effects.
(A) reciprocal
(B) pernicious
(C) antagonistic
(D) inviolable
(E) deleterious
(F) uncanny
13. Written in an amiable style, the book provides a comprehensive overview of European poetry that should prove engaging to both the virtual -------- and the experienced connoisseur.
(A) neophyte
(B) impersonator
(C) novice
(D) stowaway
(E) impressionist
(F) benefactor
For each of Questions 14-25 select one answer choice unless otherwise directed.
Question 14 is based on this passage.
Educational television is a contradiction in terms. While a classroom encourages social interaction, television encourages solitude. School is
centered on the development of language, but television depends upon constantly changing visual images. And in a classroom, fun is merely a
means to an end, but on television it is the end in itself.
14. Upon which one of the following assumptions does the author rely in the passage?
(A) The classroom should not be a place where anyone has fun.
(B) Only experiences that closely resemble what takes place in the school environment can be educational.
(C) Television programs reinforce some of the values of the school environment.
(D) Educational television programs are better than most other television programs.
(E) The potential of television as a powerful learning tool has not yet been realized.

Question 15 is based on this passage.


Advertisement: Most power hedge trimmers on the market do an adequate job of trimming hedges. But many power hedge trimmers are dangerous
to operate and can cause serious injury when used by untrained operators. Bolter Industries hedge trimmer has been tested by National
Laboratories, the most trusted name in safety testing. So you know, if you buy a Bolters, you are buying a power hedge trimmer whose safety is
assured.
15. The answer to which one of the following questions would be most useful in evaluating the truth of the conclusion drawn in the advertisement?
(A) Has National Laboratories performed safety tests on other machines made by Bolter Industries?
(B) How important to the average buyer of a power hedge trimmer is safety of operation?
(C) What were the results of National Laboratories tests of Bolter Industries hedge trimmer?
(D) Are there safer ways of trimming a hedge than using a power hedge trimmer?
(E) Does any other power hedge trimmer on the market do a better job of trimming hedges than does Bolter Industries hedge trimmer?

Question 16 is based on this passage.


The fire that destroyed the Municipal Building started before dawn this morning, and the last fire fighters did not leave until late this afternoon.
No one could have been anywhere in the vicinity of a fire like that one and fail to notice it. Thomas must have seen it, whatever he now says to

115

the contrary. He admits that, as usual, he went from his apartment to the library this morning, and there is no way for him to get from his apartment
to the library without going past the Municipal Building.
16. The main conclusion of the argument is that
(A) Thomas was in the vicinity of the fire this morning
(B) Thomas claimed not to have seen the fire
(C) Thomas saw the fire this morning
(D) Thomas went directly from his apartment to the library this morning
(E) Thomas went by the Municipal Building this morning
Questions 17- 23 are based on this passage.
The determination of the sources of copper ore used in the manufacture of copper and bronze artifacts of Bronze Age civilizations would add
greatly to our knowledge of cultural contacts and trade in that era. Researchers have analyzed artifacts and ores for their concentrations of elements,
but for a variety of reasons, these studies have generally failed to provide evidence of the sources of the copper used in the objects. Elemental
composition can vary within the same copper-ore lode, usually because of varying admixtures of other elements, especially iron, lead, zinc, and
arsenic. And high concentrations of cobalt or zinc, noticed in some artifacts, appear in a variety of copper-ore sources. Moreover, the processing
of ores introduced poorly controlled changes in the concentrations of minor and trace elements in the resulting metal. Some elements evaporate
during smelting and roasting; different temperatures and processes produce different degrees of loss. Finally, flux, which is sometimes added
during smelting to remove waste material from the ore, could add quantities of elements to the final product.
An elemental property that is unchanged through these chemical processes is the isotopic composition of each metallic element in the ore.
Isotopic composition, the percentages of the different isotopes of an element in a given sample of the element, is therefore particularly suitable as
an indicator of the sources of the ore. Of course, for this purpose it is necessary to find an element whose isotopic composition is more or less
constant throughout a given ore body, but varies from one copper ore body to another or, at least, from one geographic region to another.
The ideal choice, when isotopic composition is used to investigate the source of copper ore, would seem to be copper itself. It has been shown
that small but measurable variations occur naturally in the isotopic composition of copper. However, the variations are large enough only in rare
ores; between samples of the common ore minerals of copper, isotopic variations greater than the measurement error have not been found. An
alternative choice is lead, which occurs in most copper and bronze artifacts of the Bronze Age in amounts consistent with the lead being derived
from the copper ores and possibly from the fluxes. The isotopic composition of lead often varies from one source of common copper ore to another,
with variations exceeding the measurement error; and preliminary studies indicate virtually uniform isotopic composition of the lead from a single
copper-ore source. While some of the lead found in an artifact may have been introduced from flux or when other metals were added to the copper
ore, lead so added in Bronze Age processing would usually have the same isotopic composition as the lead in the copper ore. Lead isotope studies
may thus prove useful for interpreting the archaeological record of the Bronze Age.
17. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) discuss the techniques of analyzing lead isotope composition
(B) propose a way to determine the origin of the copper in certain artifacts
(C) resolve a dispute concerning the analysis of copper ore
(D) describe the deficiencies of a currently used method of chemical analysis of certain metals
(E) offer an interpretation of the archaeological record of the Bronze Age

18. The author first mentions the addition of flux during smelting (lines 18-21) in order to
(A) give a reason for the failure of elemental composition studies to determine ore sources
(B) illustrate differences between various Bronze Age civilizations
(C) show the need for using high smelting temperatures
(D) illustrate the uniformity of lead isotope composition
(E) explain the success of copper isotope composition analysis
19. The author suggests which of the following about a Bronze Age artifact containing high concentrations of cobalt or zinc?
(A) It could not be reliably tested for its elemental composition.
(B) It could not be reliably tested for its copper isotope composition.
(C) It could not be reliably tested for its lead isotope composition.
(D) It could have been manufactured from ore from any one of a variety of sources.
(E) It could have been produced by the addition of other metals during the processing of the copper ore.
For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply
20. According to the passage, possible sources of the lead found in a copper or bronze artifact include which of the following?
(A) The copper ore used to manufacture the artifact
(B) Flux added during processing of the copper ore
(C) Other metal added during processing of the copper ore

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21. The author rejects copper as the ideal choice mentioned in line 33 because
(A) the concentration of copper in Bronze Age artifacts varies
(B) elements other than copper may be introduced during smelting
(C) the isotopic composition of copper changes during smelting
(D) among common copper ores, differences in copper isotope composition are too small
(E) within a single source of copper ore, copper isotope composition can vary substantially
22. The author makes which of the following statements about lead isotope composition?
(A) It often varies from one copper-ore source to another.
(B) It sometimes varies over short distances in a single copper-ore source.
(C) It can vary during the testing of artifacts, producing a measurement error.
(D) It frequently changes during smelting and roasting.
(E) It may change when artifacts are buried for thousands of years.
23. It can be inferred from the passage that the use of flux in processing copper ore can alter the lead isotope composition of the resulting metal
EXCEPT when
(A) there is a smaller concentration of lead in the flux than in the copper ore
(B) the concentration of lead in the flux is equivalent to that of the lead in the ore
(C) some of the lead in the flux evaporates during processing
(D) any lead in the flux has the same isotopic composition as the lead in the ore
(E) other metals are added during processing

Questions 24- 25 are based on this passage.


Zooplankton, tiny animals adapted to an existence in the ocean, have evolved clever mechanisms for obtaining their food, miniscule
phytoplankton (plant plankton). A very specialized feeding adaptation in zooplankton is that of the tadpolelike appendicularian who lives in a
walnut-sized (or smaller) balloon of mucus equipped with filters that capture and concentrate phytoplankton. The balloon, a transparent structure
that varies in design according to the type of appendicularian in habiting it, also protects the animal and helps to keep it afloat. Water containing
phytoplankton is pumped by the appendicularians muscular tail into the balloons incurrent filters, passes through the feeding filter where the
appendicularian sucks the food into its mouth, and then goes through an exit passage. Found in all the oceans of the world, including the Arctic
Ocean, appendicularians tend to remain near the waters surface where the density of phytoplankton is greatest.
24. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is true of appendicularians?
(A) They are exclusively carnivorous.
(B) They have more than one method of obtaining food.
(C) They can tolerate frigid water.
(D) They can disguise themselves by secreting mucus.
(E) They are more sensitive to light than are other zooplankton.
For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply
25. According to the passage, which of the following is/are descriptive of appendicularians?
(A) Tailed
(B) Vegetarian
(C) Single-celled

This is the end of Practice Test 5.

117

118

Answer key 1:
1. D
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. A/D
6. C/F
7. B/D
8. C/D/H
9. B/E/I
10. C/F
11. B/F
12. B/F
13. D
14. E
15. B
16. A
17. C
18. D
19. E

Answer key 2:
1. B
2. E
3. E
4. A
5. C
6. C/E
7. B/D
8. A/E
9. C/D/G
10. A/C
11. A/D
12. B/F
13. D
14. D
15. D
16. B
17. A
18. C
19. C
20. B

Answer key 3:
1. A
2. A
3. E

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4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

B
E
C/F
B/D
A/E
B/F/G
A/E
C/F
A/B
C
B
B
C
A
A
B
D

Answer key 4:
1. C
2. C
3.D
4. E
5. B/F
6. A/E
7. C/D
8.B/D/H
9. A/D/G
10. B/D/H
11. B/D
12. A/E
13. A/E
14. A
15. E
16. C
17. E
18. A
19. E
20. D
21. D
22. C
23. C
24. A
25. C

Answer key 5:
1. E

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2. A
3. E
4. B
5. B/F
6. A/E
7. C/D
8. C/E/I
9. A/D/I
10. B/F/G
11. C/D
12. B/E
13. A/C
14. B
15. C
16. C
17. B
18. A
19. D
20. A/B/C
21. D
22. A
23. D
24. C
25. A/B

Study & Test 1

Study the following words:

1.

approbation (n.): approval

2.

censure (n.): harsh criticism

3.

clarify (v.): make clear: explain

4.

cogitation (n.): thought

5.

confrontation (n.): conflict; opposition

6.

contentious (adj.): controversial

7.

conventional (adj.): traditional

8.

covet (v.): desire; like to have

9.

deficient (adj.): not enough; insufficient

121

10. deliberation (n.): consideration


11. falter (v.): fail
12. fragmented (adj.): divided into parts
13. muddle (v.): confuse
14. personable (adj.): attractive
15. probe (v.): study
16. refute (v.): reject; refuse
17. render (v.): describe
18. resent (v.): get upset with
19. reverse (v.): to change something, such as a decision, judgment, or process so that it is the opposite of what it was
before

20. speculation (n.): guess; conjecture

Answer the following questions.


1. Perhaps because scientists have been so intrigued by Dogs superior senses of smell and
hearing, researchers have long ---- their eyesight, assuming that they inhabit a drab, blackand-white world, devoid of color.
(A) probed

(B) coveted (C) appreciated

(D) resented

(E) underestimated

2. Despite a string of dismal earnings reports, the two-year-old strategy to return the company
to profitability is beginning to ----.
(A) falter

(B) disappoint

(C) compete

(D) work

E) circulate

Select two answer choices.


3. The President reached a decision only after lengthy ------, painstakingly weighing
the divergent opinions expressed by cabinet members.
(A) deliberation
(D) speculation

(B) confrontation
(E) cogitation

(C) approbation
(F) censure

122

4. Although just barely (i) ---- as a writer of lucid prose, Jones was an extremely (ii) ---editor who worked superbly with other writers in helping them improve the clarity of
their writing.
Blank I

Blank ii

(A) deficient

(D) muddling

(B) adequate

(E) contentious

(C) personable

(F) capable

5. Once Renaissance painters discovered how to (i) ---- volume and depth, they were able to
(ii) ---- the medieval convention of symbolic, two-dimensional space with the more (iii) ---illusion of actual space.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

Blank (iii)

(A) reverse

(D) replace

(G) conventional

(B) render

(E) clarify

(H) fragmented

(C) refute

(F) attain

Answers: 1. E 2. D 3. A/E

4. A/F

(I) realistic

5. B/D/I

Study & Test 2

Study the following words:

1.

antagonism (n.): hostility; enmity

2.

compelling (adj.): ( of reasons) convincing; persuasive

3.

comprehensive (adj.): covering many things or a wide area; thorough

4.

conflagration: (n.): a huge fire

5.

contentious (adj.): (of people) tending to argue or disagree

6.

crucial (adj.): important

7.

deluge (n.): flood

8.

dispassionate (adj.): not influenced by emotion and or personal feelings;


unbiased

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9.

drought (n.): a period of dry weather

10. famine (n.): a severe shortage of food resulting in hunger


11. heated (adj.): (of arguments) full of angry and excited feelings
12. hidebound (adj.): unwilling to consider new ideas; narrow-minded; fanatical
13. inane (adj.): foolish
14. indisputable (adj.): unquestionable; certain
15. insightful (adj.): wise
16. intelligible (adj.): understandable
17. pedantic (adj.): caring too much about unimportant details; fussy
18. simplistic (adj.): too simple; childish
19. thaw (n.): a period of warm weather during which snow and ice melt
20. trivial (adj.): unimportant
21. unfathomable (adj.): incomprehensible
22. voluble (adj.): talking a lot or talking quickly; talkative

Answer the following questions.

1. The scientist found it puzzling that his theory encountered opposition despite widespread
agreement that it was -----------.
(A) crucial

(B) simplistic

(D) indisputable

(C) unfathomable

(E) comprehensive

2. The rate at which soil can absorb water decreases with continuous wetting, so the longer
a ----------- lasts, or the greater the rate of precipitation, the higher the
percentage of water that will flow across the ground as runoff and enter stream
channels.
(A) deluge
(D) rainstorm

(B) drought

(C) famine

(E) thaw

Select two answer choices.


3. The ideas expressed in the art historians book are more ----------- than one would
expect on the basis of her rather recondite treatment of her subject in the opening
pages.

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(A) compelling

(B) accessible

(C) hidebound

(D) intelligible

(E) insightful

(F) dispassionate

4. He had an annoyingly (i) ---------- way of correcting her most minute faults,
while he could commit a gross offense without fearing (ii) -----------.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) trivial

(D) conflagration

(B) imperious

(E) antagonism

(C) pedantic

(F) censure

5. The meeting on environmental issues produced (i) ----------- discussion but no


commitment on a plan of action: the many uncertainties surrounding global
climatic change and the huge cost of efforts to (ii) ----------- it made the
policymakers (iii) -----------.
Blank i

Blank ii

Blank iii

(A) little

(D) limit

(B) heated

(E) enhance

(C) inane

(F) pay

Answers: 1. D 2. D 3. B/D 4. C/F

(G) voluble
(H) contentious
(I) businesslike

5. B/D/H

Study & Test 3

Study the following words:

1. aggressive (adj.): ready to attack; hostile


2. apathy (n.): the feeling of not being interested in something, and not
willing to make any effort to change or improve things;
indifference
3. avarice(n.): an unreasonable desire to obtain and keep money; cupidity
4. circumspect (adj.): careful; cautious

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5. cloak (n.): (1) a warm piece of clothing like a coat without sleeves that
hangs loosely from your shoulders (2) something intended to
hide the truth about something
6. compatible with (adj.): in harmony with
7. complementary (adj.): complementary things make a good
combination, although they are usually
different
8. detestation (n.): hatred
9. dictate (v.): determine
10. disseminate (v.): distribute
11. emulate (v.): imitate; copy
12. esteem (n.): respect
13. indolence (n.): laziness
14. institutionalize (v.): to make something a normal, accepted part of a
social system or organization
15. intimidate (v.): threaten
16. mollify (v.): please
17. opulence (n.): luxury
18. provoke (v.): make angry
19. reconcile (v.): bring together; make peace
20. scrutiny (n.): precise examination
21. solace (n.): comfort; relief
22. sporadic (adj.): irregular; happening on and off but not regularly
23. supersede (v.): replace
24. suspect (adj.): questionable
25. wrath (n.): anger

Answer the following questions.

1. Ethnologists are convinced that many animals survive through learning_but


learning that is -------- their genetic programming, learning as thoroughly
stereotyped as the most instinctive of behavioral responses.
(A) superseded by

126

(B) compatible with


(C) complementary to
(D) disseminated by
(E) dictated by

2. Marshalls confrontational style could alienate almost anyone: he even


antagonized a board of directors that included a number of his supporters and
that had a reputation for not being easily --------.
(A) intimidated
(B) mollified
(C) reconciled
(D) provoked
(E) emulated

Select two answer choices.


3. Those who are paragons of virtue dont desire --------; if this is not self-evident,
enlighten yourself by asking whether you can whet the appetite of a satiated
man.
(A) avarice
(B) wrath
(C) opulence
(D) solace
(E) cupidity
(F) esteem

4. As the creation of new knowledge through science has become (i) --------,
resistance to innovation has become less (ii) --------, taking the form of inertia
rather than direct attack.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) controversial

(D) circumspect

(B) institutionalized

(E) sporadic

(C) suspect

(F) aggressive

5. The surest way to forsake identity is to become (i) -------- ;the compelling

127

benefits of the status, along with the pressures of public (ii) -------- force you to
put on the (iii) --------.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) successful

(D) empathy

(B) pretentious

(E) scrutiny

(C) famous

(F) indolence

Answers: 1. E 2. D 3. A/E 4. B/F

Blank iii
(G) attitude
(H) detestation
(I) cloak

5. C/E/I

Study & Test 4

Study the following words:

1.

atrocity (n.): an extremely cruel and violent action, especially during


a war

2.

perfidy (n.): when someone is not loyal to another person who trusts
them

3.

integrity (n.): honesty

4.

blasphemy (n.): something you say or do that is insulting to God or


peoples religious beliefs

5.

bask in (v.): (1) to enjoy sitting or lying in the heat of the sun or a fire
(2) to enjoy the approval or attention that you are getting
from other people

6.

give out (v.): distribute

7.

vacillation (n.): doubt: ambivalence

8.

despair of (v.): to feel that there is no hope at all; get disappointed with

9.

gloat over (v.): enjoy

10. shrug off (v.): dismiss or reject something as unimportant


11. eschew (v.): avoid
12. decry (n.): to state publicly that you do not approve of something;
criticize
13. condemn (v.): decry

128

14. elevate (v.): increase; enhance


15. champion (v.): support
16. milestone (n.): a very important event in the development of
something
17. regression (n.): the act of returning to an earlier condition that is
worse or less developed
18. calamity (n.): disaster; tragedy
19. aberrant (adj.): unusual; abnormal
20. diverse (adj.): very different from each other; varied
21. sophisticated (adj.): complex, advanced and very up-to-date
22. pacifist (n.): someone believing that wars are wrong and who refuses to
use violence
23. philanthropist (n.): a person who free gives money and help to needy
people
24. countermand (v.): to officially tell people to ignore an order, especially
by giving them a different one
25. commandeer (v.): to take something from its owner for official or
military purposes
26. found (v.): establish
27. truce (n.): a temporary ceasefire between two warring parties
28. hiatus (n.): a break or interruption in an activity; pause; break
29. reiterate (v.): repeat
30. buttress (n.): support

Answer the following questions.

1. What he seemed to hold against them primarily was their disloyalty


amounting to -------- they had not stuck it out as real revolutionaries had to.
(A) atrocity
(B) perfidy
(C) integrity
(D) blasphemy
(E) vacillation

129

2. Cynics believe that people who -------- compliments do so in order to be praised


twice.
(A) bask in
(B) give out
(C) despair of
(D) gloat over
(E) shrug off

Select two answer choices.


3. An obvious style, easily identified by some superficial critic, is properly -------as a mere mannerism, whereas a complex and subtle style resists reduction to a
formula.
(A) buttressed
(B) decried
(C) condemned
(D) championed
(E) elevated
(F) eschewed

4. The transition from the Paleolithic to the Neolithic era is viewed by most art
historians as a (i) --------; because instead of an interestingly (ii) -------- pictorial
art, we find degeneration.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) milestone

(D) sophisticated

(B) regression

(E) diverse

(D) calamity

(F) aberrant

5. Contrary to his reputation, the admiral was not a (i) --------. He (ii) -------- his
order to attack when he saw the white flag raised by the enemy sailors, and was
actually relieved that he could bring an end to the (iii) --------.
Blank i
(A) bloodthirsty man
(B) pacifist

Blank ii
(D) countermanded
(E) reiterated

Blank iii
(G) truce
(H) hiatus

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(D) philanthropist

(F) founded

Answers: 1. B 2. E 3. B/D 4. B/D

(I) hostilities

5. A/D/I

Study & Test 5

Study the following words:

1. accelerate (v.): if a process accelerates or if something accelerates it, it happens


faster than usual or sooner than you expect
2. alter (v.): to change
3. alternative (n.): choice; option
4. antidote (n.): a substance that stops the effects of a poison
5. apex (n.): the highest point of something
6. callousness (n.): mercilessness; cruelty
7. constitute (v.): if several people or things constitute something, they are the
parts that form it
8. demise (n.): the end of something that used to exist; death
9. deterrent (n.): A deterrent is something that prevents people from doing
something by making them afraid of what will happen to them if
they do it
10. divergence (n.): difference
11. enact (v.): to make a proposal into a law
12. forestall (v.): prevent; impede
13. hasten (v.): to make something happen faster or sooner
14. hypocrisy (n.): when someone pretends to have certain beliefs or opinions that
they do not really have _ used to show disapproval
15. impede (v.): to make it difficult for someone or something to move forward or
make progress; block
16. in the meantime (adv.): in the period of time between now and a future

131

event, or between two events in the past


17. inappropriate (adj.): unsuitable
18. incentive (n.): something that encourages you to work harder, start a new
activity etc
19. indispensable (adj.): necessary
20. integrity (n.): honesty
21. interplay (n.): the way in which two people or things affect each other;
interaction
22. intervention (n.): the act of becoming involved in an argument, fight, or
other difficult situation in order to change what happens;
interference
23. intolerance (n.): unwillingness to let other people act in a different way or
hold different opinions from you
24. neutrality (n.): the state of not supporting either side in an argument or war
25. pragmatic (adj.): dealing with problems in a sensible, practical way instead of
strictly following a set of ideas; practical
26. remedy (n.): cure
27. shortcoming (n.): a fault or weakness in somebody's character or in a system
or organization
28. strengthen (v.): make strong
29. transform (v.): to change completely
30. usher in (v.): lead to

Answer the following questions.

1. Imposing steep fines on employers for on-the-job injuries to workers could be


an effective

-------- to creating a safer workplace, especially in the case of

employers with poor safety records


(A) antidote
(B) alternative
(C) remedy
(D) deterrent
(E) incentive

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2. Considering the imperfections of humans, she felt --------- is acceptable


especially when candid utterances have only aggravated problems
everywhere.
(A) integrity
(B) callousness
(C) hypocrisy
(D) neutrality
(E) intolerance

Choose two answer choices.


3. Although nothing could be further from the truth, freight railroads have
been accused of -------- the nations shift from oil to coal by charging
exorbitant fees to transport coal.
(A) impeding
(B) accelerating
(C) forestalling
(D) ushering in
(E) hastening
(F) strengthening

4. The (i) -------- of the traditional academic curriculum in high school resulted, in
part, from the progressive rhetoric that approved the study of subjects
previously thought (ii) -------- as part of school learning
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) apex

(D) inappropriate

(B) demise

(F) indispensable

(C) shortcoming

(G) pragmatic

5. Neither the ideas of the philosophers nor the practices of ordinary people can,
by themselves, (i) -------- reality; what (ii) -------- changes reality and kindles
revolution is the (iii) -------- of the two.
Blank i
(A) constitute
(B) enact

Blank ii
(D) moreover
(E) in fact

Blank iii
(G) divergence
(H) intervention

133

(C) transform

(F) in the meantime

Answer key: 1. E

2. C

3. A/C

4. A/F

(I) interplay

5. C/E/I

Study & Test 6

Study the following words:

1. quixotic (adj.): motivated by an idealism that ignore practical considerations;


impractical
2. distinctive (adj.): having a special quality, character, or appearance that is
different and easy to recognize
3. sanguine (adj.): hopeful; optimistic
4. colossal (adj.): used to emphasize that something is extremely large; huge;
massive
5. diligent (adj.): hardworking
6. charm (v.): attract very much; captivate
7. assail (v.): attack
8. exhilarate (v.): to make someone feel very excited and happy
9. convict (v.): to prove or officially announce that someone is guilty of a crime
after a trial in a law court
10. pervade (v.): if a feeling, idea, or smell pervades a place, it is present in every
part of it
11. censure (v.): to criticize
12. elude (v.): escape from
13. undertake (v.): to accept that you are responsible for a piece of work, and start
to do it
14. denounce (v.): to express strong disapproval of someone or something,
especially in public; condemn
15. shun (v.): to avoid

134

16. concede (v.): to admit that something is true or correct, although you wish it
were not true
17. passion (n.): intense or overpowering emotion such as love, joy, hatred, or
anger
18. veracity (n.): the fact of being true or correct; truth
19. truism (n.): a statement that is clearly true, so that there is no need to say it
20. illiterate (adj.): unable to read and write
21. meddlesome (adj.): a meddlesome person becomes involved in situations that
do not concern them, in a way that annoys people; nosy
22. fidgety (adj.): unable to stay still, especially because of being bored or nervous
23. orator (n.): someone who is good at making speeches and persuading people
24. impostor (n.): someone who pretends to be someone else in order to trick
people; charlatan
25. sensible (adj.): reasonable
26. fickle (adj.): subject to constant change; changeable; unstable
27. conspicuous (adj.): very easy to notice; easily or clearly visible
28. obligatory (adj.): something that is obligatory must be done because of a law,
rule etc ; compulsory; mandatory
29. effortless (adj.): something that is effortless is done in a very skilful way that
makes it seem easy
30. facade (n.): the front of a building, especially a large and important one

Answer the following questions.

1. Scholars sense of the uniqueness of the central concept of the state at the time
when political science became an academic field quite naturally led to striving
for a correspondingly -------- mode of study.
(A) quixotic
(B) distinctive
(C) sanguine
(D) colossal
(E) diligent

2. The fortresslike faade of the Museum of Cartoon Art seems calculated to

135

remind visitors that the comic strip is an art form that has often been -------- by
critics.
(A) charmed
(B) assailed
(C) convicted
(D) exhilarated
(E) pervaded

Select two answer choices.


3. In small farming communities, accident victims rarely sue or demand
compensation: transforming a personal injury into a claim against someone else
is viewed as an attempt to -------- responsibility for ones own actions.
(A) censure
(B) elude
(C) undertake
(D) denounce
(E) shun
(F) concede

4. In spite of the (i) -------- of the ministers sermon, when it was finished, most of
the congregation was (ii) --------.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) passion

(D) illiterate

(B) veracity

(E) meddlesome

(C) truism

(F) fidgety

5. Though dealers insist that professional art dealers can make money in the art
market, even an (i) -------- knowledge is not enough: the art world is erratic, so
(ii) -------- that stock-market prices are (iii) -------- by comparison.
Blank i

Blank ii

Blank iii

(A) orators

(D) sensible

(G) predictable

(B) experts

(E) fickle

(H) obligatory

(C) impostors

(F) conspicuous

(I) effortless

136

Answer key: 1. B 2. B

3. B/E

4. A/F

5. B/E/G

Study & Test 7

Study the following words:

1. convoluted (adj.): complicated and difficult to understand


2. vestigial (adj.): a vestigial part of the body has never developed completely or
has almost disappeared
3. dormant (adj.): not active or not growing at the present time but able to be
active later
4. extinct (adj.): an extinct type of animal or plant does not exist any more
5. flawless (adj.): having no mistakes or marks, or not lacking anything; perfect
6. repudiate (v.): to refuse to accept or continue with something; reject
7. contradict (v.): to show that something is not true or the opposite is true
8. necessitate (v.): to make it necessary for you to do something
9. renounce (v.): if you renounce an official position, title, right etc, you publicly
say that you will not keep it any more; give up
10. bespeak (v.): to be a sign of something ;reveal
11. turpitude (n.): very immoral behavior
12. ebullience (n.): the state of being very happy and lively
13. weariness (n.): boredom
14. tedium (n.): boredom
15. abomination (n.): hatred; revulsion
16. loquacity (n.): a persons loquacity is his tendency to talk a lot; talkativeness
17. transparent (adj.): clear; easy to understand
18. ephemeral (n.): existing or popular for only a short time
19. immutable (adj.): unchangeable
20. arbitrary (adj.): decided or arranged without any reason or plan, often

137

unfairly; unreasonable
21. superfluous (adj.): more than needed; extra
22. sensitive (adj.): able to measure small differences; capable of detecting minute
changes in levels, conditions, or amounts
23. substantiate (v.): prove; confirm
24. dampen (v.): to make something such as a feeling or activity less strong;
reduce
25. sensible (adj.): reasonable
26. elucidate (v.): to explain something that is difficult to understand by
providing more information; clarify
27. stop short of (v.): to almost do something but then decide not to do it
28. run out of (v.): to use all of something and not have any more left; finish
29. close in on (v.): surround
30. plentitude (n.): a large amount of something

Answer the following questions.

1. Where water supplies at depth are available when the surface soil becomes dry,
maintenance or

even promotion of root elongation in drying soil has a clear

competitive benefit when neighbors, whose root growth ceases, are forced to
become --------- or die
(A) convoluted
(B) flawless
(C) vestigial
(D) dormant
(E) extinct

2. Although his contemporaries tended to fixate on the politicians supposed


avarice, his personal correspondence --------- a surprising largesse.
(A) repudiates
(B) contradicts
(C) necessitates

138

(D) renounces
(E) bespeaks

Select two answer choices.


3. The fluctuating moods of the poem seems more impressive if taken as the
alternation of --------- and fascination in the same person.
(A) turpitude
(B) ebullience
(C) weariness
(D) loquacity
(E) abomination
(F) tedium

4. Changes of fashion and public taste are often (i) --------- and resistant to analysis,
and yet they are among the most (ii) --------- gauges of the state of the public's
collective consciences.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) transparent

(D) arbitrary

(B) ephemeral

(E) superfluous

(C) immutable

(F) sensitive

5. While the delegate clearly sought to (i) --------- the optimism that has emerged
recently, she (ii) --------- suggesting that the conference was near collapse and
might produce nothing of (iii) ---------.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) substantiate

Blank iii

(D) stopped short of

(G) threat

(B) dampen

(E) ran out of

(H) significance

(C) elucidate

(F) close in on

(I) plentitude

Answer key: 1.D

2.E

3.C/F 4. B/F

5. B/D/H

Study & Test 8

139

Study the following words:

1. affinity (n.): interest


2. compromise (v.): expose somebody or something to danger; endanger
3. contrition (n.): feeling guilty and sorry for something bad that you
have done ; regret
4. cumbersome (adj.): a process or system that is cumbersome is slow and
difficult
5. dissipation (n.): the act of wasting money, time, energy etc
6. foolhardy (adj.): foolish and unwise
7. grudging (adj.): unwilling; reluctant
8. gullible (adj.): too ready to believe what other people tell you, so that
you are easily tricked
9. harrowing (adj.): very frightening or shocking and making you feel
very upset
10. ignominious (adj.):making you feel ashamed or embarrassed;
humiliating
11. imminent (adj.): an event that is imminent, especially an unpleasant
one, will happen very soon
12. imprudent (adj.): unwise
13. indecision (n.): the state of being unable to decide what to do;
hesitation
14. inefficacious (adj.): not effective
15. ineluctable (adj.): unavoidable; inescapable
16. insipid (adj.): not interesting, exciting, or attractive
17. lionize (v.): to treat someone as being very important or famous; make
celebrity of
18. orthodox (adj.): orthodox ideas, methods, or behavior are accepted by
most people to be correct and right; conventional
19. ostracize (v.): if a group of people ostracize someone, they refuse to
accept them as a member of the group
20. perspicacious (adj.): good at judging and understanding people and
situations; astute

140

21. redundant (adj.): not or no longer needed or wanted; superfluous


22. reinforce (v.): to make stronger
23. replicate (v.): if you replicate someone's work, a scientific study etc,
you do it again, or try to get the same result again
24. resuscitate (v.): to make someone breathe again or become conscious
after they have almost died
25. slander (v.): to say false things about someone in order to damage other
people's good opinion of them
26. squander (v.): waste
27. temerity (n.): when someone says or does something in a way that
shows a lack of respect for other people and is likely to
offend them
28. timorousness (n.): fearfulness
29. undermine (v.): weaken
30. validate (v.): to prove that something is true or correct; confirm

Answer the following questions.

1. Noting that few employees showed any enthusiasm for complying with the
corporation's new safety regulation policies, Peterson was forced to conclude that
the acceptance of the regulations would be ---------, at best.
(A) ineluctable
(B) redundant
(C) orthodox
(D) imminent
(E) grudging

2. Scientist's pristine reputation as devotees of the disinterested pursuit of truth


has been --------- by recent evidence that some scientists have deliberately
fabricated experimental results to further their own careers.
(A) reinforced
(B) validated
(C) replicated

141

(D) compromised
(E) resuscitated

Select two answer choices.


3. The current penchant for touting a product by denigrating a rival, named in
the advertisement by brand name, seems somewhat ---------: suppose the
consumer remembers only the rival's name?
(A) inefficacious
(B) foolhardy
(C) insipid
(D) imprudent
(E) cumbersome
(F) gullible

4. Ever prey to vagrant impulses that impelled him to (i) ---------his talents on a
host of unworthy projects, his very (ii) --------- nonetheless enhanced his
reputation, for the sheer energy of his extravagance dazzled observers.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) undermine

(D) indecision

(B) ostracize

(E) dissipation

(C) squander

(F) affinity

5. Since he lacks the (i) --------- to take on venerated public figures, the author, no
matter how (ii) --------- his social critiques are, will never be (iii) --------- as a
great satirist.
Blank i

Blank ii

Blank iii

(A) timorousness

(D) ignominious

(G) lionized

(B) contrition

(E) harrowing

(H) disseminated

(C) temerity

(F) perspicacious

(I) slandered

Answer key: 1.E 2.D

3.B/D

4. C/E

5. C/F/G

142

Study & Test 9

Study the following words:

1. accomplice (n.): a person who helps someone to commit a crime


2. adjunct (n.): something that is an adjunct to something larger or more
important is connected with it or helps to perform the same task
3. anathema (v.): if something t is anathema to you, you strongly dislike
4. antipathy (n.):hatred; hostility
5. arcane (adj.): secret and known or understood by only a few people; mysterious
6. banish (v.): to send someone away permanently from their country or the area
where they live, especially as an official punishment ; exile
7. banter (n.): friendly conversation in which people make a lot of jokes with and
amusing remarks about each other
8. collusion (n.): a secret agreement that two or more people make in order to do
something dishonest
9. commend (v.): to praise
10. dilettante (n.): someone who is not serious about what they are doing or does
not study a subject thoroughly
11. elusive (adj.): (of someone or something) hard to capture or understand
12. endearing (adj.): producing feelings of affection and fondness
13. eradicate (v.): to completely get rid of something such as a disease or a social
problem
14. esoteric (adj.): known and understood by only a few people who have special
knowledge about something
15. inquisitiveness (n.): interest in a lot of different things and wanting to find
out more about them; curiosity
16. insinuate (v.): to say something indirectly; imply
17. insouciant (adj.): indifferent; apathetic
18. intercede (v.): if you intercede with someone, you try to persuade them to
forgive someone or end their disagreement with them

143

19. larceny (n.): act of stealing


20. lassitude (n.): tiredness and lack of energy or interest; weariness
21. misanthrope (n.): someone who does not like other people and prefers to be
alone
22. mundane (adj.): ordinary and not interesting or exciting
23. obliterate (v.): to destroy something completely so that nothing remains
24. opponent (n.): someone who you try to defeat in a competition, game, fight, or
argument
25. ratify (v.): approve
26. reassuring (adj.): making you feel less worried or frightened
27. restitution (n.): the act of giving back something that was lost or stolen to its
owner, or of paying for damage; compensation
28. trepidation (n.): a feeling of anxiety or fear about something that is going to
happen
29. vitiate (v.): to weaken; undermine
30. vivid (adj.): vivid memories, dreams, descriptions etc are so clear that they
seem real; clear

Answer the following questions.

1. In 1950s, integration was --------- to Americans; now, however, most Americans


accept it as desirable.
(A) an accomplice
(B) an anathema
(C) a restitution
(D) a larceny
(E) an adjunct

2. She writes across generational lines, making the past so --------- that our belief that
the present is the true locus of experience is undermined.
(A) elusive
(B) esoteric
(C) vivid

144

(D) arcane
(E) mundane

3. The technical know-how, if not the political commitment, appears already at


hand to feed the world's exploding population and so to --------- at last the ancient
scourges of malnutrition and famine.
(A) vitiate
(B) obliterate
(C) banish
(D) commend
(E) eradicate
(F) inveigle

4. Salazar's presence in the group was so (i) --------- the others that they lost most of
their earlier (ii) ---------; failure, for them, became all but unthinkable.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) reassuring to

(D) trepidation

(B) endearing to

(E) inquisitiveness

(C) insouciant to

(F) banter

5. Lets face the awful truth that we played very poorly; and please stop (i) --------that our defeat in the game was the result of (ii) --------- between the goalkeeper
and our (iii) ----------.
Blank i

Blank ii

Blank i

(A) interceding

(D) collusion

(G) dilettantes

(B) ratifying

(E) lassitude

(H) opponents

(C) insinuating

(F) antipathy

(I) misanthropes

Answer key: 1.B

2. C

3.B/E

4. A/D

5. C/D/H

Study & Test 10

145

Answer the following questions.

1. aesthetic (adj.): connected with beauty and the study of beauty


2. chronological (adj.): arranged according to when things happened or were
made
3. vicarious (adj.): experienced by watching or reading about someone else doing
something, rather than by doing it yourself
4. empirical (adj.): based on scientific testing or practical experience, not on ideas
5. equable (adj.): calm, and not easily disturbed
6. foil (v.): to prevent something bad that someone is planning to do
7. supplant (v.): to replace
8. spur (v.): to make an improvement or change happen faster; encourage
9. spin (v.): to turn around and around very quickly, or to make something do this
10. goad (v.): to make someone do something by annoying or encouraging them
until they do it
11. platitudinous (adj.): a trite remark, idea etc is boring, not new, or very
commonplace
12. abstruse (adj.): unnecessarily complicated and difficult to understand
13. banal (adj.): ordinary and not interesting, because of a lack of new or different
ideas
14. impartial (adj.): not involved in a particular situation, and therefore able to
give a fair opinion or piece of advice; neutral
15. labyrinthine (adj.): extremely complicated and therefore difficult to
understand
16. contiguous (adj.): next to something, or next to each other
17. acerbic (adj.): criticizing someone or something in a clever but cruel way;
bitter
18. ineffable (adj.): too great to be described in words
19. scatter (v.): If a group of people scatter or if you scatter them, they suddenly
separate and move in different directions
20. propitiate (v.): to make someone who has been unfriendly or angry with you
feel more friendly by doing something to please them; satisfy
21. discomfit (v.): to disturb or embarrass
22. quash (v.): to suppress or press down something such as a rebellion or political

146

protest completely by means of force


23. recast (v.): to change the form of something; reshape
24. brook (v.): tolerate
25. rake (n.): a man who has many sexual relationships, drinks too much alcohol
etc
26. subordinate (n.): someone who has a lower position and less authority than
someone else in an organization
27. forefathers (n.): the people, especially men, who were part of your family a
long time ago in the past; ancestors
28. intimate (v.): to make people understand what you mean without saying it
directly
29. elicit (v.): to succeed in getting information or a reaction from someone,
especially when this is difficult
30. expedite (v.): make something happen faster; speed up

Answer the following questions.

1.Unlike philosophers who constructed theoretically ideal states, she built a theory
based on experience; thus, although her constructs may have been inelegant, they
were -------- sound.
(A) aesthetically
(B) chronologically
(C) vicariously
(D) empirically
(E) equably

2. Some economists are predicting that demand will catch up with productivity
shortly, -------- an enormous boom in job growth.
(A) foiling
(B) supplanting
(C) spurring

147

(D) spinning
(E) goading

Select two answer choices.


3. As Juanita argued, this new code of conduct is laughable; its principles are either
--------, offering no wisdom but the obvious, or are so devoid of specific advice as to
make almost any action justifiable.
(A) irresolute
(B) abstruse
(C) platitudinous
(D) impartial
(E) labyrinthine
(F) banal

4. Not even the most (i) -------- remark from the gathering manage to (ii) -------him, and he continued with his speech with the same fervor.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) contiguous

(D) scatter

(B) acerbic

(E) propitiate

(C) ineffable

(F) discomfit

5. That the directors intransigence in making decisions (i) -------- no open


disagreement from any quarter was well known; thus, clever (ii) -------- learned
the art of (iii) -------- their opinions in casual remarks.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) quashing

(D) rakes

(B) recasting

(E) subordinates

(C) brooked

(F) forefathers

Answer key: 1.D

2.C

3.C/F

4. B/F

Blank iii
(G) intimating
(H) eliciting
(I) expediting

5. C/E/G

148

Review Test 1-10

For each of questions 1-3, select TWO entries for each blank.
1. Few other plants can grow beneath the canopy of the sycamore tree, whose
leaves and pods produce a natural herbicide that leaches into the surrounding
soil, ----------- other plants that might compete for water and nutrients.
(A) elevating
(B) suppressing
(C) refuting
(D) squashing
(E) superseding
(F) reinforcing

2. The young clerk was soon promoted when his employers realized how ----------- he
was.
(A) contentious
(B) indispensable
(C) hardworking
(D) pragmatic
(E) diligent
(F) conventional

3. The young man always had to have the last word; he would rather be disliked
than -----------.
(A) condemned
(B) provoked
(C) conceded
(D) commended
(E) mollified
(F) praised

For each of questions 4-7, select ONE entry for each blank.
4. Richard Wagner was infrequently intolerant; moreover, his strange behavior

149

caused most of his acquaintances to ----------- the composer whenever possible.


(A) shun
(B) muddle
(C) bespeak of
(D) usher in
(E) scatter

5. It would be irresponsible of our leader, given their responsibilities as


democratically elected officials, to neglect to do everything they could to ----------an entirely avoidable problem.
(A) convict
(B) propitiate
(C) forestall
(D) reiterate
(E) intercede

6. At first a still-life painting can appear quite -----------, its focus on such everyday
object as flowers or fruits apparently uninspired. In the hands of an adept painter,
however, careful attention to slight shift of color and texture can lead to a truly
excellent and exemplary painting.
(A) fickle
(B) sanguine
(C) unfathomable
(D) pedantic
(E) banal

7. Unfortunately, the ----------- in service should last two or three monthsuntil the
cable lines are repaired.
(A) conflagration
(B) deluge
(C) perfidy
(D) restitution
(E) hiatus

150

For each of questions 8-10, select ONE entry for each blank.
8. Critics of the movie version of The Color Purple (i) ----------- it saccharine,
overoptimistic tone as out of keeping with the novels more (ii) ----------- quality.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) emulate

(D) acerbic

(B) ratify

(E) effortless

(C) decry

(F) indisputable

9. Although the topic of the speech delivered by the (i)----------- was an ordinary one,
he managed to engender (ii) ----------- in the audience already bored by a lengthy
talk.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) rake

(D) divergence

(B) orator

(E) ebullience

(C) accomplice

(F) indolence

10. Despite an affected (i) ----------- that convinced casual observers that he was
(ii) ----------- about his painting and care only for frivolity, Warhol care deeply
about his art and labored at it (iii) -----------.
Blank i

Blank ii

Blank iii

(A) apathy

(D) obligatory

(G) sporadically

(B) avarice

(E) vestigial

(H) diligently

(C) antipathy

(F) indifferent

Answer key: 1. B/D 2. C/E 3.D/F 4. A 5. C 6. E 7.E

(I) impartially

8. C/D

Study & Test 11

Study the following words:

151

9. B/E 10. A/F/H

1. acme (n.): the time when a situation is at its best; highest point; summit
2. anomalous (adj.): abnormal; atypical; unusual
3. bemoan (v.): to complain about
4. cabal (n.): a small group of people who make secret plans, especially in order to
have political power
5. cognizant of (adj.): aware
6. contemporary (n.): someone who lived or was in a particular place at the same
time as someone else
7. decimate (v.): to decimate something such as a group of people or animals
means to destroy a very large number of them
8. deleterious (adj.): harmful
9. devoid of (adj.): empty of
10. eschew (v.): to avoid
11. evanescent (adj.): something that is evanescent does not last very long
12. guile (n.): the use of clever but dishonest methods to deceive someone; deception
13. harbinger (n.): a sign that something is going to happen soon
14. incongruous (adj.): strange, unexpected, or unsuitable in a particular
situation; unusual
15. nadir (n.): the time when a situation is at its worst; lowest point
16. oblivious to (adj.): not knowing about or not noticing something that is
happening around you; unaware of
17. onset (n.): beginning
18. paragon (n.): someone who is perfect or is extremely brave, good etc
19. plethora (n.): a very large number of something, usually more than you need
20. quixotic (adj.): quixotic ideas or plans are not practical and are based on
unreasonable hopes of improving the world
21. replete with (adj.): full of
22. rhetoric (n.): the art of speaking or writing to persuade or influence people
23. salient (adj.): the salient points or features of something are the most
important or most noticeable parts of it
24. savant (n.): someone who knows a lot about a subject
25. schism (n.): when there is a schism, a group or organization divides into two
groups as a result of differences in thinking and beliefs

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26. skein (n.): a complicated series of things that are related to each other; web
27. subjugate (v.): to defeat a person or group and make them obey you
28. travesty (n.): if you describe something as a travesty of another thing, you
mean that it is a very bad representation of that other thing
29. vitiate (v.): to weaken; undermine
30. wary of (adj.): careful; cautious

Answer the following questions.

1. Melodramas, which presented stark oppositions between innocence and


criminality, virtue and corruption, good and evil, were popular precisely
because they offered the audience a world ----------- of neutrality.
(A) oblivious to
(B) cognizant of
(C) wary of
(D) replete with
(E) devoid of

2. A university training enables a graduate to see things as they are, to go right to


the point, to disentangle a -----------of thought.
(A) cabal
(B) plethora
(C) harbinger
(D) schism
(E) skein

Select two answer choices.


3. Usually the first to spot data that were inconsistent with other findings, in this
particular experiment, she let a number of ----------- results slip by.
(A) evanescent
(B) incongruous
(C) quixotic
(D) deleterious

153

(E) salient
(F) anomalous

4. Johnson was such an outstanding orator, that his (i) ----------- were too dazzled
by his (ii) ----------- to question his fundamental philosophy.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) contemporaries

(D) guile

(B) paragons

(E) travesty

(C) savants

(F) rhetoric

5. At the (i) ----------- of his power, Alexander the Great, having (ii) ----------- all the
surrounding countries, (iii) ----------- the fact that there were no more worlds to
conquer.
Blank i

Blank ii

Blank iii

(A) nadir

(D) subjugated

(B) onset

(E) decimated

(H) bemoaned

(C) acme

(F) relinquished

(I) vitiated

Answer key: 1.E 2.E 3.B/F 4. A/F

(G) eschewed

5. C/D/H

Study & Test 12

Study the following words:

1. cogent (adj.): if a statement, argument or reason is cogent, it seems reasonable


and correct
2. hackneyed (adj.): a hackneyed phrase is boring and does not have much
meaning because it has been used so often
3. meritorious (adj.): very good and deserving praise

154

4. specious (adj.): seeming to be true or correct, but actually false


5. destitute (n.): having no money, no food, no home etc ; poor
6. nullify (v.): to make something lose its effect or value; cancel something out
7. accentuate (v.): to make something more noticeable
8. traduce (v.): to deliberately say things that are untrue or unpleasant; slander
9. alleviate (v.): to make something less painful or difficult to deal with
10. merit (v.): to be good, important, or serious enough for praise or attention
11. exude (v.): if you exude a particular quality, it is easy to see that you have a lot
of it
12. conceal (v.): to hide
13. envision (v.): to imagine something that you think might happen in the
future, especially something that you think will be good
14. deserve (v.): if you say that a person or thing deserves something, you mean
that they should have it or receive it because of their actions or
qualities
15. waive (v.): delay something fro some time
16. disregard (v.): ignore
17. reverie (n.): a state of imagining or thinking about pleasant things, that is like
dreaming
18. mayhem (n.): an extremely confused situation in which people are very
frightened or excited
19. colloquy (n.): a conversation
20. epitaph (n.): a short piece of writing on the stone over someones grave
21. pleasantry (n., usually plural): things that you say to someone in order to be
polite, but which are not very important
22. invective (n.): rude and insulting words that someone says when they are very
angry
23. amnesty (n.): an official order by a government that allows a particular group
of prisoners to go free
24. cataclysm (n.): a violent or sudden event or change, such as a serious flood or
earthquake
25. effrontery (n.): rude behavior that shocks you because it is so confident;
temerity
26. probity (n.): honesty

155

27. calumny (n.): an untrue and unfair statement about someone that is intended
to give people a bad opinion of them
28. chicanery (n.): the use of clever plans or actions to deceive people; guile
29. perspicacity (n.): the quality of good at judging and understanding people and
situations
30. defection (n.): leaving your own country or group in order to go to or join an
opposing one

Answer the following questions.

1. We were not fooled by his ----------- arguments; his plan was obviously
impractical.
(A) cogent
(B) hackneyed
(C) meritorious
(D) specious
(E) destitute

2. The aspiring candidates performance in the debate all but ----------- any hope he
may have had in winning the election.
(A) nullifies
(B) exudes
(C) accentuates
(D) traduces
(E) alleviates

Select two answer choices.


3. Edward was understandably upset that he had lost the position, but he was
comforted by the conviction that he had done nothing to ----------- the dismissal.
(A) merit
(B) disregard
(C) conceal
(D) envision
(E) deserve

156

(F) waive

4. The parliamentary session degenerated into (i) ----------- with politicians hurling
(ii) -----------at each other and refusing to come to order.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) reverie

(D) epitaphs

(B) mayhem

(E) pleasantries

(C) colloquy

(F) invectives

5. His (i) ----------- in the face of evidence indicating his deliberate fraud failed to
reassure supporters of his essential (ii) -----------; instead, it suggested a talent for
(iii) ----------- that they had never suspected.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) imperturbability

(D) effrontery

Blank iii
(G) chicanery

(B) amnesty

(E) probity

(H) perspicacity

(C) cataclysm

(F) calumny

(I) defection

Answer key: 1.D

2.A 3.A/E

4. B/F

5. A/E/G

Study & Test 13

Study the following words:

1. affront (v.): to offend or insult someone, especially by not showing respect


2. accumulate (v.): to collect or obtain a large amount of something over a period
of time
3. stifle (v.): to stop something from happening or developing; to suppress
4. flout (v.): to deliberately disobey a law, rule etc, without trying to hide what

157

you are doing


5. perpetrate (v.): to do something that is morally wrong or illegal; to commit
6. intertwine (v.): if two or more things are intertwined or intertwine, they are
closely connected with each other in many ways
7. protract (v.): to make something last longer
8. enigmatic (adj.): mysterious and difficult to understand
9. decorous (adj.): conforming to what is acceptable or expected in formal or
solemn settings, especially in dress or behavior; proper
10. momentary (adj.): continuing for a very short time; brief
11. placid (adj.): calm
12. caustic (adj.): caustic remark criticizes someone in a way that is unkind but
often cleverly humorous
13. carnivorous (adj.): meat-eating
14. serene (adj.): someone or something that is serene is calm and quiet
15. frantic (adj.): extremely worried and frightened about a situation, so that you
cannot control your feelings
16. bellicose (adj.): behaving in a way that is likely to start an argument or fight;
aggressive
17. compromise (n.): to endanger
18. stipulate (v.): if an agreement, law, or rule stipulates something, it must be
done; specify
19. sanction (v.): to officially accept or allow something
20. recompense (n.): something that you give to someone for trouble or losses that
you have caused them
21. cupidity (n.): very strong desire for something, especially money or property;
greed
22. impetus (n.): something that gives a process impetus or an impetus makes it
happen or progress more quickly
23. espouse (v.): to support an idea, belief etc, especially a political one
24. peruse (v.): to read carefully
25. evocative of (adj.): making people remember something by producing a feeling
or memory in them
26. incompatible with (n.): two things that are incompatible are of different
types and so cannot be used together

158

27. conducive to (adj.): if one thing is conducive to another thing, it makes the
other thing likely to happen.
28. entail (v.): if one thing entails another, it involves it or causes it
29. forgo (v.): to not do or have something pleasant or enjoyable; do without
30. despise (v.): to dislike and have a low opinion of someone or something

Answer the following questions.

1. The intellectual flexibility inherent in a multicultural nation has been ----------in classrooms where emphasis on British-American literature has not reflected
the cultural diversity of our country.
(A) affronted
(B) accumulated
(C) stifled
(D) flouted
(E) perpetrated

2. The functions of the hands, eyes, and brain are so ----------- that using the hands
during early childhood helps to promote the childs entire perceptual
development.
(A) intertwined
(B) protracted
(C) enigmatic
(D) decorous
(E) momentary

Select two answer choices.


3. Scientific experiments demonstrate that the ready availability of food and the
lack of stimulation over a prolonged period of time can lead to even predators
transforming into ----------- creatures.
(A) placid
(B) caustic
(C) carnivorous

159

(D) serene
(E) frantic
(F) bellicose

4. Borrowing a copyrighted book from a library amounts to a form of theft


(i) ----------- by entrenched custom: the copyright owners property, the book, is
used repeatedly without

(ii) -----------for such use.

Blank i

Blank ii

(A) compromised

(D) recompense

(B) stipulated

(E) cupidity

(C) sanctioned

(F) impetus

5. A war, even if fought for individual liberty and democratic rights, usually
requires that these principles be (i) -----------, for they are (ii) ----------- the
regimentation and discipline necessary military efficiency (iii) -----------.
Blank i

Blank ii

Blank iii

(A) espoused

(D) evocative of

(B) perused

(E) incompatible with

(C) suspended

(F) conducive to

Answer key: 1.C

2.A 3.A/D

4. C/D

(G) entails
(H) forgoes
(I) despises

5. C/E/G

Study & Test 14

Study the following words:

1. wield (v.): to carry and use a weapon, tool, or piece of equipment


2. mediocre (adj.): not very good
3. abominate (v.): to hate
4. abrogate (v.): to officially end a legal agreement, practice etc

160

5. accede to (v.): to agree to a demand, proposal etc, especially after first


disagreeing with it
6. adulterate (v.): to make food or drink less pure by adding another substance of
lower quality to it
7. ameliorate (v.): to make a bad situation better or less harmful; improve
8. antithetical (adj.): exactly opposite to something
9. cherish (v.): to love someone or something very much and take care of them
well; value
10. concoct (v.): to invent a clever story, excuse, or plan, especially in order to
deceive someone
11. conspire with (v.): to secretly plan with someone else to do something illegal
12. corpulent (adj.): fat; obese
13. decamp (v.): to leave a place quickly
14. defunct (adj.): not existing any more, or not useful any more
15. dejected (adj.): unhappy, disappointed, or sad
16. despondent (adj.): extremely unhappy and without hope
17. douse (v.): to stop a fire from burning by pouring water on it
18. enervate (v.): to make tired or exhausted
19. gratuitous (v.): said or done without a good reason, in a way that offends
someone; unnecessary
20. ignite (v.): to start a dangerous situation, angry argument etc
21. inept (adj.): not good at doing something; unskillful
22. lithe (adj.): a lithe person is able to move and bend their body easily and
gracefully
23. obsequious (adj.): very eager to please or agree with people who are powerful used in order to show disapproval
24. outspoken (adj.): expressing your opinions honestly and directly, even when
doing this might annoy some people
25. posthumous (adj.): happening, printed etc after someone's death
26. profligate (adj.): wasting money or other things in a careless way; wasteful
27. rapacious (adj.): always wanting more money, goods etc than you need or
have a right to
28. redoubtable (adj.): someone who is redoubtable is a person you respect or fear
29. refrain from (v.): to not do something that you want to do

161

30. systemic (adj.): affecting the whole of something

Answer the following questions.

1. The subtle shades of meaning, and still subtler echoes of association, make
language an instrument which scarcely anything short of genius can ---------with definiteness and certainty.
(A) ameliorate
(B) wield
(C) adulterate
(D) decamp
(E) abrogate

2. The natures of social history and lyric poetry are ____, social history always
recounting the evanescent and lyric poetry speaking for unchanged human
nature, that timeless essence beyond fashion and economics.
(A) gratuitous
(B) antithetical
(C) defunct
(D) mediocre
(E) redoubtable

Select two answer choices.


3. His one vice was gluttony and so it is not surprising that as he aged he became
increasingly ----------.
(A) despondent
(B) corpulent
(C) dejected
(D) lithe
(E) inept
(F) obese

4. Human nature and the long distances have made exceeding speed limit a

162

(i) ---------- tradition in the state, so legislators, surprised no one when,


(ii) ---------- public practice, they rejected plans to increase the penalties for
speeding.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) cherished

(D) refraining from

(B) abominated

(E) conspiring with

(C) enervated

(F) acceding to

5. On of the most (i) ---------- educators in New York, Dr. Shalala (ii) ----------- a
controversy in 1984 by calling the city public school a rotten barrel in need
of (iii) ----------- reform.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) profligate

(D) doused

(B) obsequious

(E) ignited

(C) outspoken

(F) concocted

Answer key: 1.B

2.B

3.B/F 4. A/F

Blank iii
(G) systemic
(H) rapacious
(I) posthumous

5. C/E/G

Study & Test 15

Study the following words:

1. elated (adj.): extremely happy and excited


2. irreproachable (adj.): something, such as someone's behavior, that is
irreproachable is so good that you cannot criticize it
3. grandiose (adj.): grandiose plans sound very important or impressive, but are
not practical
4. impertinent (adj.): rude and not respectful, especially to someone who is older
or more important
5. loath (adj.): reluctant; unwilling

163

6. deference (n.): polite respect, especially putting another persons interests first
7. pledge (n.): a serious promise or agreement, especially one made publicly or
officially
8. ennui (n.): a feeling of being tired, bored, and unsatisfied with your life;
lassitude
9. obstacle (n.): something that makes it difficult to achieve something; barrier
10. precursor to (n.): somebody or something that comes before, and is often
considered to lead to the development of, another person or
thing
11. antagonism (n.): hatred; hostility
12. hauteur (n.): a proud, very unfriendly manner
13. lethargy (n.): the feeling of having no energy and no interest in doing
anything
14. proclivity (n.): a tendency to behave in a particular way, or to like a
particular thing - used especially about something bad
15. penchant (n.): if you have a penchant for something, you like that thing very
much and try to do it or have it often
16. resentment (n.): a feeling of anger because something has happened that you
think is unfair
17. infatuation (n.): a strong feeling of love for someone or interest in something,
especially a feeling that is unreasonable and does not
continue for a long time
18. drawback (n.): a disadvantage of a situation, plan, product etc
19. concession (n.): something that you allow someone to have in order to end an
argument or a disagreement; privilege
20. daunt (v.): to make someone feel afraid or less confident about something
21. disentangle (v.): if you disentangle something or someone from an undesirable
thing or situation, you separate it from that thing or remove
it from that situation
22. subvert (v.): to try to destroy the power and influence of a government or the
established system
23. inestimable (adj.): too much or too great to be calculated
24. indomitable (adj.): having great determination or courage
25. stun (v.): to surprise, upset or amaze someone so much that they do not react

164

immediately
26. futile (adj.): actions that are futile are useless because they have no chance of
being successful
27. invulnerable (adj.): someone or something that is invulnerable cannot be
harmed or damaged if you attack or criticize them
28. salvage (v.): to save something from an accident or bad situation in which
other things have already been damaged, destroyed, or lost
29. negate (v.) to state that something does not exist or is untrue; deny
30. admonish (v.): to tell someone severely that they have done something wrong;
blame

Answer the following questions.

1. The author is ---------- to identify any particular principle as fundamental,


insisting instead that it is only when viewed within specific contexts that
principles can be justified
(A) elated
(B) irreproachable
(C) grandiose
(D) impertinent
(E) loath

2. Ironically, the party leaders encountered no greater ---------- their efforts to


build a progressive party than the resistance of the progressives already elected
to the legislature.
(A) deference to
(B) pledge of
(C) ennui of
(D) obstacle to
(E) precursor to

Select two answer choices.


3. His characteristically hidebound views on examination methods at university
level have aroused ---------- in those who want to introduce innovative and

165

flexible patterns of assessment.


(A) antagonism
(B) hauteur
(C) lethargy
(D) proclivity
(E) penchant
(F) resentment

4. One (i) ---------- the new scheme is that it might actually (ii) ---------- just those
applicants that it was intended to encourage.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) infatuation with

(D) daunt

(B) drawback of

(E) disentangle

(C) concession of

(F) subvert

5. The economists were (i) ---------- to find that the theory that they had considered
(ii) ---------- crumbled when modern techniques for economic modeling made it
possible to make new kinds of observation that (iii) ---------- its fundamental
assumptions.
Blank i

Blank ii

Blank iii

(A) inestimable

(D) inept

(G) salvaged

(B) indomitable

(E) futile

(H) negated

(C) stunned

(F) invulnerable

Answer key: 1.E 2.D

3.A/F

4. B/D

(I) admonished

5. C/F/H

Study & Test 16

Study the following words:

166

1. infinitesimal (adj.): extremely small


2. definitive (adj.): something that is definitive provides a firm conclusion that
cannot be questioned
3. tepid (adj.): a feeling, reaction etc that is tepid shows a lack of excitement or
interest
4. defect (n.): a fault or a lack of something that means that something or someone
is not perfect
5. defray (costs, expenses, etc) (v.): to give someone back the money that they
have spent on something
6. dehumanize (v.): to treat people so badly that they lose their good human
qualities
7. disheveled (adj.): if someone's appearance or their clothes, hair etc is
disheveled, they look very untidy
8. emancipate (v.): to liberate; to free
9. enigma (n.): someone or something that is strange and difficult to understand;
mystery
10. epitome (n.): the best possible example of something
11. ignorant of (adj.): not knowing facts or information that you ought to know
12. inflate (v.): to exaggerate
13. invalidate (v.): to show that something such as a belief or explanation is wrong
14. obnoxious (adj.): very offensive, unpleasant, or rude
15. obstinate (adj.): determined not to change your ideas, behavior, opinions etc,
even when other people think you are being unreasonable;
stubborn
16. overlook (v.): if you overlook a fact or problem, you do not notice it, or do not
realize how important it is
17. pervasive (adj.): existing everywhere; ubiquitous
18. polarity (n.): a state in which people, opinions, or ideas are completely different
or opposite to each other; difference
19. precocious (adj.): precocious child shows intelligence or skill at a very young
age, or behaves in an adult way
20. preoccupy (v.): if something preoccupies someone, they think or worry about it
a lot
21. presage (v.): to be a sign that something is going to happen, especially

167

something bad
22. proffer (v.) to offer ( foods, drinks, advice, etc)
23. profuse (adj.): produced or existing in large quantities
24. propitious (adj.): appropriate; suitable
25. rejuvenate (v.): to make something work much better or become much better
again
26. rife with (adj.): full of
27. sedentary (adj.): something that you allow someone to have in order to end an
argument or a disagreement; privilege
28. slake (v.): to satisfy , thirst, a desire etc
29. ubiquity (n.): state of being everywhere
30. vindicate (v.): to prove that someone who was blamed for something is in fact
not guilty

Answer the following questions.

1. Vaillant, who has been particularly interested in the means by which people
attain mental health , seems to be looking for --------- answer: a way to close the
book on at least a few questions about human nature.
(A) infinitesimal
(B) definitive
(C) tepid
(D) profuse
(E) precocious

2. The state of a nation's science determines its prosperity and political power, and
scientists should not --------- this relationship even if their own interest in
science is of a less practical nature.
(A) inflate
(B) slake
(C) defray
(D) overlook
(E) presage

168

Select two answer choices.


3. In spite of the increasing --------- of their opinions, the group knew they had to
arrive at a consensus so that the award could be presented.
(A) ubiquity
(B) divergence
(C) defect
(D) enigma
(E) polarity
(F) epitome

4. A (i) --------- theme in the author's account of slavery is the degrading and
(ii) --------- effect of the living conditions slaves were forced to endure.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) propitious

(D) emancipating

(B) sedentary

(E) dehumanizing

(C) pervasive

(F) vindicating

5. Because the most recent research has (i) --------- earlier criticism of her work,
one has to conclude that scientists who persist in dismissing her contribution
are either 9ii) --------- the latest findings or simply (iii) ---------.
Blank i

Blank ii

Blank iii

(A) invalidated

(D) ignorant of

(G) disheveled

(B) rejuvenated

(E) rife with

(H) obstinate

(C) proffered

Answer key: 1.B

(F) preoccupied by

2.D 3.B/E

4. C/E

(I) obnoxious

5. A/D/H

Study & Test 17

Study the following words:

169

1. accost (v.): to go towards someone you do not know and speak to them in an
unpleasant or threatening way
2. alacrity (n.): quickness and eagerness
3. arbitrate (v.): to officially judge how an argument between two opposing sides
should be settled
4. blight (v.): to spoil or damage something, especially by preventing people from
doing what they want to do
5. complacency (n.): a feeling of satisfaction with a situation or with what you
have achieved, so that you stop trying to improve or change
things - used to show disapproval
6. cynicism (n.): the belief that people always act selfishly
7. disinfectant (n.): a chemical or a cleaning product that destroys bacteria
8. discern (v.): to notice or understand something by thinking about it carefully
9. dramatize (v.): to make something more noticeable; highlight
10. egalitarianism (n.): the belief that all people are equal and should have the
same rights and opportunities, and to actions that are
based on this belief
11. embellish (v.): decorate; adorn
12. embrace (v.): include; incorporate
13. escapism (n.): activities or entertainment that help you forget about bad or
boring things for a short time
14. favoritism (n.): when you treat one person or group better than others, in an
unfair way
15. habitat (n.): the natural home of a plant or animal
16. impugn (v.): to express doubts about someone's honesty, courage, ability etc
17. indecorous (adj.): impolite
18. incursion (n.): a sudden attack into an area that belongs to other people
19. nepotism (n.): the practice of unfairly giving the best jobs to members of your
family when you are in a position of power
20. opprobrium (n.): strong criticism or disapproval, especially expressed publicly
21. ostensible (adj.): seeming to be the reason for or the purpose of something, but
usually hiding the real reason or purpose; apparent
22. pathogen (n.): something that causes disease in your body

170

23. petulant (adj.): angry and upset in a childish way


24. promulgate (v.): to spread an idea or belief to as many people as possible
25. recalcitrance (n.) refusing to do what you are told to do, even after you have
been punished; stubbornness
26. simulate (v.): if you simulate an action or a feeling, you pretend that you are
doing it or feeling it
27. stymie (v.): to prevent someone from doing what they have planned or want
to do
28. sycophancy (n.): praises powerful people too much because they want to get
something from them - used in order to show disapproval
29. tawdry (adj.): cheaply and badly made
30. ungainly (adj.): if you describe a person, animal, or vehicle as ungainly, you
mean that they look awkward or clumsy, often because they
are big

Answer the following questions.

1. In sharp contrast to the intense idealism of the young republic, with its utopian
faith in democracy and hopes for eternal human progress , recent
developments suggest a mood of almost unrelieved --------.
(A) cynicism
(B) escapism
(C) favoritism
(D) nepotism
(E) egalitarianism

2. The accusations we bring against others should be warnings to ourselves; they


should not justify -------- and easy judgments on our part concerning our own
moral conduct.
(A) alacrity
(B) opprobrium
(C) sycophancy

171

(D) complacency
(E) recalcitrance

Select two answer choices.


3. Science advances in widening spiral in that each new conceptual scheme -------the phenomena explained by its predecessors and adds to those explanations.
(A) incorporates
(B) embellishes
(C) embraces
(D) dramatizes
(E) impugns
(F) accosts

4. Far from undermining the impression of permanent decline, the (i) -------statue, seemed emblematic of its (ii) -------- surroundings.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) indecorous

(D) petulant

(B) ungainly

(E) blighted

(C) tawdry

(F) ostensible

5. Researchers have decoded the DNA of the honeybee. They discovered that bees
keen sense of smell enables them to (i) -------- kin from foe. Genes that regulate
vulnerability to (ii) --------, however, are surprisingly deficient. Scientists
speculate that the observed extensive grooming among hive mates (iii) -------from various diseases, thus protecting the colony.
Blank i
(A) promulgate

Blank ii

Blank iii

(D) habitats

(G) minimizes incursions

(B) discern

(E) pathogens

(C) arbitrate

(F) disinfectants

Answer key: 1.A

2.D 3.A/C

4. C/E

(H) simulates action


(I) stymies freedom

5. B/E/G

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Study & Test 18

Study the following words:

1. abjure (v.): to state publicly that you will give up a particular belief or way of
behaving
2. acquiesce to (v.): if you acquiesce in something, you agree to do what someone
wants or to accept what they do
3. adhere to (v.): to stick firmly to something
4. affluent (adj.): having plenty of money, nice houses, expensive things etc;
wealthy
5. anachronism (n.): someone or something that seems to belong to the past, not
the present
6. antedate (v.): to come from an earlier time in history than something else
7. append (v.): to add something to a piece of writing
8. apposite (adj.): appropriate; apt
9. assimilate (v.): to completely understand and begin to use new ideas,
information etc
10. comely (adj.): (of women) attractive
11. decadence (n.): a process of decline or decay in a society, especially in its morals
12. demise (n.): the end of something that used to exist
13. digression (n.): an act or instance of departing from the central topic or line of
argument while speaking or writing, usually temporarily
14. dissuade (v.): to persuade someone not to do something
15. expostulate (v.): to express strong disapproval, disagreement, or annoyance
with someone
16. facile (adj.): a facile remark, argument etc is too simple and shows a lack of
careful thought or understanding
17. feckless (adj.): if you describe someone as feckless, you mean that they lack
determination or strength, and are unable to do anything
properly
18. improvisation (n.): the act of doing something without any preparation,
because you are forced to do this by unexpected events

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19. infraction (n.): an act of breaking a rule or law


20. innocuous (adj.): not offensive, dangerous, or harmful
21. invigorate (v.): if something invigorates you, it makes you feel healthier,
stronger and have more energy
22. literal (adj.): the literal meaning of a word or expression is its basic or original
meaning
23. palliate (v.): to reduce the effects of illness, pain etc without curing them
24. parlance (n.): the style of speech or writing used by people in a particular
context or profession
26. predate (v.): to happen or exist earlier in history than something else
27. rapacious (adj.): always wanting more money, goods etc than you need or
have a right to; greedy
28. studious (adj.): spending a lot of time studying and reading
29. tacit (adj.): if you refer to someones tacit agreement or approval, you mean
they are agreeing to something or approving it without actually
saying so, often because they are unwilling to admit to doing so
30. trenchant (adj.): you can use trenchant to describe something such as a
criticism or comment that is very clear, effective, and
forceful

Answer the following questions.

1. The candidates writers showed poor judgment in embroidering the speech with
the apocryphal anecdote, it was certainly not an appropriate ------- and thus was
as gratuitous as it was artificial.
(A) infraction
(B) anachronism
(C) improvisation
(D) decadence
(E) digression

2. Although scientists claim that the seemingly ------- language of their reports is
more precise than the figurative language of fiction, the language of science, like

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all language, is inherently allusive.


(A) studious
(B) tacit
(C) facile
(D) literal
(E) trenchant

Select two answer choices.


3. Though feminist in its implication, Yvonne Rainers 1974 film ------- the
filmmakers active involvement in feminist politics.
(A) invigorated
(B) transcended
(C) dissuaded
(D) antedated
(E) palliated
(F) predated

4. Experienced employers recognize that business students who can (i) ------- different
points of view are ultimately more effective as managers than are the brilliant
and original students who (ii) ------- dogmatically to their own formulations.
Blank i
(A) expostulate

Blank ii
(D) append

(B) abjure
(C) assimilate

(E) adhere
(F) acquiesce

5. The (i) ------- of rigorous academic curriculum in high school resulted, in part,
from the (ii) ------- rhetoric that sanctioned the study of subjects previously
thought not (iii) ------- as
part of school learning.
Blank i

Blank ii

Blank iii

(A) demise

(D) progressive

(G) feckless

(B) affluence

(E) comely

(H) rapacious

(C) parlance

(F) innocuous

(I) apposite

175

Answer key: 1.E 2.D

3.D/F

4. C/E

5. A/D/I

Study & Test 19

Study the following words:

1.

Alienation (n.): lack of interest in or sympathy with someone or

something

2.

Appraise (v.): to officially judge how successful, effective, or valuable something is; evaluate

3.

Aspiration (n.): a strong desire to have or achieve something; ambition

3.

Capricious (adj.): likely to change your mind suddenly or behave in an unexpected way; unpredictable

5.

Confidential (adj.): spoken or written in secret and intended to be kept secret

6.

Consternation (n.): a feeling of worry, shock, or fear

7.

Contempt (n.): if you have contempt for someone or something, you have no respect for them or think that they are
unimportant

8.

Deplete (v.): to reduce the amount of something that is present or available; exhaust

8.

Disinterested (adj.): able to judge a situation fairly because you are not concerned with gaining any personal
advantage from it; unbiased; impartial

10. Dispel (v.): to make something go away, especially a belief, idea, or feeling
11. Endorse (v.): to approve

176

12. Envious (adj.): you are envious of someone, you want something that they have; jealous
13. Glean (v.): if you glean something such as information or knowledge, you learn or collect it slowly and patiently, and
perhaps indirectly

14. Guideline (n.): rules or instructions about the best way to do something

14. Impetuous (adj.): tending to do things very quickly, without thinking carefully first, or showing this quality; hasty;
rash

14. 16. Ineffectual (adj.): if someone or something is ineffectual, they fail to do what they are expected to do or are trying
to do

14. 17. Infest (v.): if insects, rats etc infest a place, there are a lot of them and they usually cause damage

18. Insatiable (adj.): always wanting more and more of something


19. Itinerant (adj.): traveling from place to place, especially to work
20. Lukewarm (adj.): not showing much interest or excitement
21. Manipulate (v.): to make someone or something work the way you want them to
22. Melodious (adj.): something that sounds melodious sounds like music or has a pleasant tune

23. Ordeal (n.): a terrible or painful experience that continues for a period of time

23. Passionate (adj.): A passionate person has very strong feelings about something or a strong belief in something

23. Pensive (adj.): thinking a lot about something, especially because you are worried or sad

26. Quest (n.): a long search for something that is difficult to find
27. Rancor (n.): hatred

177

28. Replenish (v.): to put new supplies into something, or to fill something again
29. Slothful (adj.): lazy: indolent
30. Tedious (adj.): something that is tedious continues for a long time and is not interesting

Answer the following questions.

1. During the operas most famous aria the tempo chosen by the orchestras
conductor seemed --------, without necessary relation to what had been before.
(A) tedious
(B) melodious
(C) capricious
(D) itinerant
(E) pensive

2. Because the painter Albert Pinkham Ryder was obsessed with his -------perfection, he was rarely satisfied with a painting, creating endless variations
of a scene on one canvas, one on top of another.
(A) quest for
(B) rancor towards
(C) contempt for
(D) alienation from
(E) consternation of

Select two answer choices.


3. Surprisingly, given the dearth of rain that fell on the corn crop, the yield of the
harvest was encouraging; consequently, the corn reserves of the country have
not been --------.
(A) replenished
(B) depleted
(C) infested

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(D) appraised
(E) exhausted
(F) gleaned

4.Though science is often imagined as a (i) -------- exploration of external reality,


scientists are no different from anyone else; they are (ii) -------- human beings
enmeshed in a web of personal and social circumstances.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) disinterested

(D) insatiable

(B) lukewarm

(E) passionate

(C) envious

(F) slothful

5. Under ethical (i) -------- recently adopted by the National Institutes of Health,
human genes are to be (ii) -------- only to correct diseases for which most
treatments are (iii) --------.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) aspirations

(D) manipulated

Blank iii
(G) impetuous

(B) ordeals

(E) endorsed

(H) confidential

(C) guidelines

(F) dispelled

(I) ineffectual

Answer key: 1.C

2.A 3.B/E

4. A/E

5. C/D/I

Study & Test 20

Study the following words:

1. accordingly (adv.): therefore


2. adulation (n.): praise and admiration for someone that is more than
they really deserve
3. allusion to (n.): reference to
4. ameliorate (v.): improve

179

5. ascribe (v.): if you ascribe an event or condition to a particular cause,


you say or consider that it was caused by that thing
6. awe (n.): a feeling of great respect and liking for someone or something
7. consign (v.): to consign something or someone to a place where they will
be forgotten about, or to an unpleasant situation or place,
means to put them there
8. conspiracy (n.): a secret plan made by two or more people to do
something that is harmful or illegal
9. convivial (adj.): friendly and pleasantly cheerful
10. defiance (n.): defiance is behavior or an attitude which shows that you
are not willing to obey someone
11. entrench (v.): make something established
12. feckless (adj.): lacking determination, and not achieving anything in
your life; irresponsible
13. gamut (n.): the complete range of possibilities
14. in the meantime (adv.): in the period of time between now and a future
event, or between two events in the past
15. incendiary (adj.): designed to cause a fire
16. mindless (adj.): stupid; foolish
17. nameless (adj.): unknown; anonymous
18. precursor (n.): something that happened or existed before something
else and influenced its development
19. predilection (n.): if you have a predilection for something, especially
something unusual, you like it very much
20. recourse to (n.): option; alternative
21. remit (v.): send a payment
22. repugnance (n.): a strong feeling of dislike for something
23. salutary (adj.): a salutary experience is unpleasant but teaches you
something
24. sardonic (adj.): if you describe someone as sardonic, you mean their
attitude to people or things is humorous but rather
critical
25. self-doubt (n.): the feeling that you and your abilities are not good
enough

180

26. self-possession (n.): state of remaining calm, confident, and in control of


your feelings, even in difficult or unexpected
situations - used to show approval
27. supercilious (adj.): arrogant; self-important
28. surmount (v.): to succeed in dealing with a problem or difficulty;
overcome
29. witless (adj.): not very intelligent or sensible; stupid
30. yearning for (n.): a strong desire for

Answer the following questions.

1. William James lacked the usual ------- death; writing to his dying father, he spoke
without inhibition about the old mans impending death.
(A) yearning for
(B) awe of
(C) gamut of
(D) precursor of
(E) predilection for

2. Just as astrology was for centuries underground faith, countering the strength of
established churches, so today believing in astrology is an act of ------- the
professional sciences.
(A) conspiracy against
(B) recourse to
(C) defiance against
(D) repugnance towards
(E) allusion to

Select two answer choices.


3. One theory about intelligence sees language as the logical structure underlying
thinking and insists that since animals are mute, they must be ------- as well.

181

(A) convivial
(B) supercilious
(C) mindless
(D) feckless
(E) witless
(F) nameless

4. It is ironic that a critic of such overwhelming vanity now suffers from a measure
of the oblivion to which he was forever (i) ------- others; in the end, all his (ii) ------has only worked against him.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) ascribing

(D) self-doubt

(B) remitting

(E) self-adulation

(C) consigning

(F) self-possession

5. While it is assumed that the mechanization of work has a (i) ------- effect on the
lives of workers, there is evidence available to suggest that ,(ii) -------,
mechanization has served to (iii) ------- some of the traditional roles of women.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) salutary

(D) accordingly

(B) sardonic

(E) on the contrary

(C) incendiary

Answer key: 1.B

Blank iii

(F) in the meantime

2.C

3.C/E

4. C/E

(G) surmount
(H) ameliorate
(I) entrench

5. A/E/I

Study & Test 21

Study the following words:

1. adamant (adj.): determined not to change your opinion or a decision that you

182

have made; stubborn


2. augment (v.): to increase the value, amount, effectiveness etc of something
3. bastion (n.): a place where a country or army has strong military defenses
4. bequest (n.): money or property which you arrange to give to someone after
your death
5. brand (v.): to describe someone or something as a very bad type of person or
thing, often unfairly; label
6. chart (v.): to make a map of an area of land, sea, or stars, or to draw lines on a
map to show where you have traveled
7. deface (v.): to spoil the surface or appearance of something, especially by writing
on it or breaking it
8. despoil (v.): spoil
9. devolve (v.): if you devolve responsibility, power etc to a person or group at a
lower level, or if it devolves on them, it is given to them
10. disheveled (adj.): if someone's appearance or their clothes, hair etc is
disheveled, they look very untidy
11. dolorous (adj.): sad
12. efface (v.): to destroy or remove something
13. emaciated (adj.): extremely thin from lack of food or illness
14. foment (v.): to cause trouble and make people start fighting each other or
opposing the government
15. genuine (adj.): something genuine really is what it seems to be; real
16. inedible (adj.): not fit for eating; uneatable
17. Inexhaustible (adj.): something that is inexhaustible exists in such large
amounts that it can never be finished or used up
18. infinite (adj.): very great in amount or degree
19. influx (n.): the arrival of large numbers of people or large amounts of money,
goods etc, especially suddenly
20. inscrutable (adj.): someone who is inscrutable shows no emotion or reaction in
the expression on their face so that it is impossible to know
what they are feeling or thinking
21. mandate (v.): to require or order something officially or formally
22. ossify (v.): to become inflexible
23. overhaul (n.): comprehensive repair

183

24. panorama (n.): an impressive view of a wide area of land


25. regale (v.): to entertain
26. sanctity (n.): the quality that makes life, marriage etc so important that it
must be respected and preserved
27. shield (v.) : to protect
28. streamline (v.): to make something such as a business, organization etc work
more simply and effectively
29. usurp (v.): to take someone else's power, position, job etc when you do not have
the right to
30. zest (n.): eager interest and enjoyment

Answer the following questions.

1. Inspired interim responses to hitherto unknown problems, New Deal economic


stratagems became ............ as a result of bureaucratization, their flexibility
and adaptability destroyed by their transformation into rigid policies.
A. fomented
B. usurped
C. ossified
D. mandated
E. streamlined

2. The startling finding that variations in the rate of the Earth's rotation depend
to an unexpected degree on the weather has necessitated a complete ............ of
the world's time-keeping method.
A. overhaul
B. bequest
C. sanctity
D. outset
E. zest

Select two answer choices.

184

3. The sheer diversity of tropical plants represents a seemingly ............ source of


raw materials, of which only a few have been utilized.
(A) emaciated
(B) infinite
(C) inedible
(D) Inexhaustible
(E) disheveled
(F) inscrutable

4. The villagers fortified the town hall, hoping this improvised (i) ............ could
(ii) ............ them from the guerrilla raids.
Blank i

Blank ii

A. panorama

D. despoil

B. influx

E. deface

C. bastion

F. shield

5. A map purporting to show that Vikings (i)............ North America long before
Columbus, (ii) ............ as a fraud in 1974, could turn out to be (iii)
............ after all, according to California scientists.
Blank ii

Blank ii

Blank ii

A. effaced

D. branded

G. genuine

B. charted

E. regaled

H. dolorous

C. augmented

F. devolved

I. adamant

Answer key: 1. C 2. A

3. B/D

4. C/F

5. B/D/G

Study & Test 22

185

Study the following words:

1. Anthology (n.): a set of stories, poems, songs etc by different people collected
together in one book
2. Condiment (n.): a powder or liquid, such as salt or ketchup that you use to
give a special taste to food
3. Confound (v.): to confuse and surprise people by being unexpected
4. Coterie (n.): a small group of people who enjoy doing the same things
together, and do not like including others
5. Dearth (n.): a lack of something
6. Deplore (v.): to disapprove of something very strongly and criticize it
severely, especially publicly
7. Dichotomy (n.): the difference between two things or ideas that are
completely opposite
8. Enduring (adj.): continuing for a very long time
9. Entice (v.): to persuade someone to do something or go somewhere, usually by
offering them something that they want
10. Fetid (adj.): having a strong bad smell
11. Fortuitous (adj.): happening by chance, especially in a way that has a good
result
12. Gorge yourself (on something) (v.): to eat until you are too full to eat any
more
13. Hallucination (n.): something which you imagine you can see or hear, but
which is not really there, or the experience of this
14. Idiosyncrasy (n.): an unusual or unexpected feature that something or
someone has
15. Incongruity (n.): the fact that something is strange, unusual, or unsuitable
in a particular situation; discrepancy; disparity
16. Innuendo (n.): an indirect reference to something rude or unpleasant
17. Intangible (adj.): an intangible quality or feeling is difficult to describe
exactly
18. Lethargic (adj.): feeling as if you have no energy and no interest in doing
anything
19. Nomenclature (n.): a system of naming things, especially in science

186

20. Parody (n.): a piece of writing, music etc or an action that copies someone or
something in an amusing way
21. Privation (n.): a lack or loss of the things that everyone needs, such as food,
warmth,and shelter; deprivation
22. Queasy (adj.): feeling that you are going to vomit
23. Reciprocity (n.): a situation in which two people, groups, or countries give
each other similar kinds of help or special rights
24. Renounce (v.): if you renounce a claim, rank, or title, you officially give it
up
25. Subdue (v.): to prevent your emotions from showing or being too strong;
control
26. Subterfuge (n.): a secret trick or slightly dishonest way of doing something,
or the use of this
27. Treachery (n.): behavior in which someone is not loyal to a person who
trusts them, especially when this behavior helps that
person's enemies
28. Tremulous (adj.): shaking slightly, especially because you are nervous
29. Truism (n.): a statement that is clearly true, so that there is no need to say
it
30. Vanquish (v.): to defeat someone or something completely

Answer the following questions.

1. As waves rose and ship tossed, many of the passengers felt ----------.
A. tremulous
B. subdued
C. lethargic
D. queasy
E. fetid

2. A leading chemist believes that many scientists have difficulty with


stereochemistry because much of relevant ---------- is imprecise in that it combines

187

concepts that should be kept discrete


A. truism
B. anthology
C. innuendo
D. hallucination
E. nomenclature

Select two answer choices.


3. Despite assorted effusions to the contrary, there is no necessary link between
scientific skill and humanism, and, quite possibly, there may be something of a
---------- between them.
A. parody
B. treachery
C. incongruity
D. dichotomy
E. reciprocity
F. disparity

4. From Neolithic pottery to twentieth-century posters, the extent and variety of the
arts in China (i) ---------- those who search for continuity; nonetheless, certain
(ii) ---------- values are reflected in China's artistic traditions.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

A. renounce

D. enduring

B. confound

E. intangible

C. entice

F. fortuitous

5. After suffering great (i) ---------- on account of the (ii) --------- of food, Eskimos often
satiated their voracious hunger by (iii) ---------- themselves on caribou meat.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

Blank (iii)

A. idiosyncrasies

D. dearth

G. gorging

B. privations

E. coterie

H. deploring

C. condiments

F. subterfuge

I. vanquishing

188

Answer key: 1. D 2. E 3. D/F

4. B/D

5. B/D/G

Study & Test 23

Study the following words:

1. Adventurous (adj.): not afraid of taking risks or trying new things


2. Ascetic (adj.): living without any physical pleasures or comforts, especially for
religious reasons; plain; austere
3. Attest to (v.): to show or prove that something is true
4. Attribute something to something (v.): to believe or say that a situation or
event is caused by something
5. Broaden (v.): to increase something such as your knowledge, experience, or
range of activities; widen
6. Diminish (v.): to become or make something become smaller or less; curtail
7. Enthrall (v.): to make someone very interested and excited, so that they listen
or watch something very carefully
8. Envious (adj.): wanting something that someone else has; jealous
9. Exhaustive (adj.): extremely thorough and complete
10. Expel (v.): to officially force someone to leave a school or organization
11. Flippancy (n.): state of not being serious about something that other people
think you should be serious about
12. Gregarious (adj.): sociable; outgoing
13. Hearty (adj.): a hearty meal is very large
14. Hilarious (adj.): extremely funny
15. Impulsive (adj.): someone who is impulsive does things without considering
the possible dangers or problems first; hasty; rash
16. Infinitesimal (adj.): extremely small
17. Jaded (adj.): someone who is jaded is no longer interested in or excited by
something, usually because they have experienced too much of it
18. Manor (n.): a big old house with a large area of land around it

189

19. Obfuscate (v.): to deliberately make something unclear or difficult to


understand
20. Prohibitive (adj.): prohibitive costs are so high that they prevent people from
buying or doing something
21. Proliferate (v.): if something proliferates, it increases quickly and spreads to
many different places
22. Putrid (adj.): dead animals, plants etc that are putrid are decaying and smell
very bad
23. Restlessness (n.): state of being bored, impatient, or dissatisfied, and you want
to do something else
24. Revert (v.): to change back to a situation that existed in the past
25. Sedition (n.): speech, writing, or actions intended to encourage people to
disobey a government
26. Stamina (n.): physical or mental strength that lets you continue doing
something for a long time without getting tired
27. Terrain (n.): a particular type of land
28. Turbid (adj.): turbid water or liquid is dirty and muddy
29. Vain (adj.): useless; fruitless
30. Vie with (v.): to compete with

Answer the following questions.


1. Although Georgia O'Keeffe is best known for her affinity with the desert landscape,
her paintings of urban subjects _____ her longtime residency in New York City.
A. enthrall
B. obfuscate
C. attest to
D. expel
E. vie with

2. Though _____ in her personal life, Edna St. Vincent Millay was nonetheless
disciplined about her work, usually producing several pages of complicated
rhyme in a day.
A. jaded

190

B. ascetic
C. vain
D. impulsive
E. hilarious

Select two answer choices.


3. By equating scientific rigor with a quantitative approach, researchers in the
social sciences may often have _____ their scope to those narrowly circumscribed
topics that are well suited to quantitative methods.
A. diminished
B. proliferated
C. attributed
D. curtailed
E. broadened
F. reverted

4. Intellectual (i) _____ and flight from boredom have caused him to rush pell-mell
into situations that less (ii) _____ spirits might hesitate to approach.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

A. sedition

D. prohibitive

B. flippancy

E. adventurous

C. restlessness

F. envious

5. Despite the surrounding hilly (i) _____ that we have to deal with in order to get to
it, Orvilles Diner is a popular hangout for us college students. It is close to campus
and open 24 hours a day. But we college students arent the only ones who flock to
Orvilles. Throughout the day and night, (ii) _____ factory workers, night owls,
old folks, and travelers eat at Orvilles. There, they have the option of ordering all
kinds of (iii) _____ meals, including chicken, pot roast, meatloaf, spaghetti, and
pizza.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

Blank (iii)

A. terrain

D. infinitesimal

G. putrid

B. stamina

E. exhaustive

H. hearty

191

C. manor

F. gregarious

Answer key: 1. C 2. D 3. A/D

4. C/E

I. turbid

5. A/F/H

Study & Test 24

Study the following words:

1. Supremacy (n.): If one group of people has supremacy over another group, they
have more political or military power than the other group
2. Constraint (n.): something that limits your freedom to do what you want;
limitation
3. Accountability (n.): responsibility
4. Deviation (n.): a noticeable difference from what is expected or acceptable
5. Conflagration (n.): a very large fire that destroys a lot of buildings, forests etc
6. Equitable (adj.): treating all people in a fair and equal way; fair
7. Haphazard (adj.): happening or done in a way that is not planned or organized
8. Fleeting (adj.): lasting for only a short time
9. Unwarranted (adj.): done without good reason, and therefore annoying;
unjustified
10. Wholehearted (adj.): enthusiastic
11. Slovenly (adj.): lazy, untidy, and careless
12. Altruistic (adj.): altruistic behavior shows that you care about and will help
other people, even though this brings no advantage for
yourself; philanthropic
13. Perceptive (adj.): someone who is perceptive notices things quickly and
understands situations, people's feelings etc well; discerning
14. Philanthropic (adj.): a philanthropic person or institution gives money and
help to people who are poor or in trouble
15. Extricate (v.): to remove someone from a place in which they are trapped;
release
16. Concur with (v.): agree with

192

17. Diagnose (v.): to find out what illness someone has, or what the cause of a fault
is, after doing tests, examinations etc
18. Counter (v.): to do something in opposition to what somebody else is doing, so as
to make it less effective
19. Divine (v.): to discover or guess something
20. Precipitate (v.): to make something happen faster; speed up
21. Revoke (v.): to officially state that a law, decision, or agreement is no longer
effective
22. Foster (v.): to help a skill, feeling, idea etc develop over a period of time
23. Allay (v.): to make someone feel less afraid, worried etc
24. Elegy (n.): a sad poem or song, especially about someone who has died
25. Felony (n.): a serious crime such as murder
26. Boom (n.): a quick increase of business activity
27. Docile (adj.): quiet and easily controlled
28. Solid (adj.): strong and reliable
29. Stoical (adj.): not showing emotion or not complaining when bad things happen
to you
30. Intermittent (adj.): stopping and starting often and for short periods; sporadic

Answer the following questions.


1. According to one political theorist, a regime that has as its goal absolute
autonomy, without any _____ law or principle, has declared war on justice.
A. supremacy over
B. constraint on
C. accountability to
D. deviation from
E. conflagration of

2. We first became aware that her support for the new program was less than _____
when she declined to make a speech in its favor.
A. equitable
B. haphazard

193

C. fleeting
D. unwarranted
E. wholehearted

Select two answer choices.


3. Ability to select is the test of the _____ historian: a history, after all, consists not
only of what the historian has included, but also, in some sense, of what has been
left out.
A. slovenly
B. altruistic
C. perceptive
D. intermittent
E. discerning
F. philanthropic

4. When a person suddenly looses consciousness, a bystander is not expected to


(i) _____ the problem but to attempt to (ii) _____ its effects by starting vital
functions if they are absent.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

A. extricate

D. counter

B. concur with

E. divine

C. diagnose

F. precipitate

5. Economic policy is primarily reactionary, designed solely to avoid downturns


rather than (i) _____ upturns. As a result, economic policies tend to be responses
the previous crisis, rather than focusing on prudent management of the current
(ii) _____. As a result, unrestrained financial growth leads to rampant
speculation, and soon even seemingly (iii) _____ investments collapse as another
recession begins.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

Blank (iii)

A. revoke

D. elegy

G. docile

B. foster

E. felony

H. solid

194

C. allay

F. boom

Answer key: 1. C 2. E 3. C/E 4. C/D

I. stoical

5. B/F/H

Study & Test 25

Study the following words:

1.

Aesthetics (n.): a branch of philosophy concerned with the study of the idea of beauty

2.

Aggravate (v.): to make a bad situation, an illness, or an injury worse

3.

Analogous (adj.): similar to another situation or thing so that a comparison can be made

4.

Authoritative (adj.): an authoritative book, account etc is respected because the person who
wrote it knows a lot about the subject

5.

Circumvent (v.): if someone circumvents a rule or restriction, they avoid having to obey the rule
or restriction, in a clever and perhaps dishonest way

6.

Commensurate (adj.): matching something in size, quality, or length of time; proportional

7.

Contrive (v.): when someone has done something dishonestly, you can say that they have
contrived to do it

8.

Corroborate (v.): to prove; to confirm; to verify

9.

Defer (v.): to postpone: to put off

10. Desist (v.): if you desist from doing something, you stop doing it
11. Detractor (n.): the detractors of a person or thing are people who criticize that person or thing
12. Forbear (v.): if you forbear to do something, you do not do it although you have the opportunity
or the right to do it
13. Forsake (v.): to leave someone, especially when you should stay because they need you
14. Fragmentary (adj.): something that is fragmentary is made up of small or unconnected pieces
15. Gourmet (n.): someone who enjoys good food, and who knows a lot about it
16. Heresy (n.): a belief or action that most people think is wrong, because it disagrees with beliefs
that are generally accepted
17. Identical (adj.): exactly the same, or very similar
18. Incontrovertible (adj.): definitely true and impossible to be proved false; indisputable

195

19. Indubitable (adj.): you use indubitable to describe something when you want to emphasize that
it is definite and cannot be doubted
20. Inimical (adj.): conditions that are inimical to something make it difficult for that thing to exist or
do well
21. Jargon (n.): words and expressions used in a particular profession or by a particular group of
people, which are difficult for other people to understand
22. Maniac (n.): someone who behaves in a stupid or dangerous way; lunatic
23. Martinet (n.): if you say that someone is a martinet, you are criticizing them because they are
very strict and demand that people obey their rules and orders
24. Mimic (n.): a mimic is a person who is able to mimic people or animals
25. Moribund (adj.): a moribund organization, industry, etc is no longer active or effective and may
be coming to an end
26. Peripheral (adj.): not as important as other things or people in a particular activity, idea, or
situation
27. Prodigal (adj.): spending money, wasting time etc in a careless way; extravagant
28. Ruse (n.): a clever trick used to deceive someone
29. Verse (n.): words arranged in the form of poetry
30. Zenith (n.): the most successful point in the development of something; peak

Answer the following questions.

1. Some activists believe that because the health-care system has become increasingly
unresponsive to those it serves, individuals must _____ bureaucratic impediments in
order to develop and promote new therapies.
A. aggravate
B. circumvent
C. corroborate
D. defer
E. forsake

2. Although the records of colonial New England are sketchy in comparison with those
available in France or England, the records of other English colonies in America are even

196

more _____ .
A. indubitable
B. incontrovertible
C. authoritative
D. fragmentary
E. moribund

Select two answer choices.


3. Although the mental process that creates a fresh and original poem or drama is doubtlessly
_____ that which originates and elaborates scientific discoveries, there is clearly a
discernible difference between the creators.
A. peripheral to
B. inimical to
C. commensurate with
D. analogous to
E. prodigal of
F. identical to

4. Although Simpson was ingenious at (i) _____ to appear innovative and spontaneous,
beneath the (ii) _____ he remained uninspired and rigid in his approach to problemsolving.

Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

A. forbearing

D. jargon

B. contriving

E. zenith

C. desisting from

F. ruse

5. While T.S. Eliot maintained that poets themselves were the best (i) _______ of
(ii) _______, C.S. Lewis opposed this view, declaring that one did not have to be a trained
chef to be a discriminating (iii) _______.

Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

Blank (iii)

197

A. detractors

D. heresy

G. maniac

B. critics

E. verse

H. martinet

C. mimics

F. aesthetics

I. gourmet

Answer key: 1. B 2. D 3. D/F

4. B/F

5. B/E/I

Study & Test Review Quiz 1

For each of Questions 1-4, select ONE entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.

1. Considering how long she had yearned to see Italy, her first reaction was curiously
_______.
A. vivid
B. tepid
C. personable
D. deficient
E. envious

2. Usually the first to spot data that were inconsistent with other findings, in this
particular experiment she let a number of _______ results slip by.
A. insipid
B. verifiable
C. redundant
D. impertinent
E. anomalous

3. Changes of fashion and public taste are often (i) _______ and resistant to analysis,
and yet they are among the most (ii) _______ gauges of the state of the public's
collective consciousness.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

A. chronological

D. sensitive

B. confidential

E. sardonic

198

C. ephemeral

F. useless

4. The teacher accused me of plagiarism because my essay was so (i) _______ to


that of another student. Once I was able to (ii) _______ myself, the teacher
viewed the other students denials with more (iii) _______.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

Blank (iii)

A. endearing

D. emulate

G. skepticism

B. conducive

E. vindicate

C. similar

F. palliate

H. passion
I. perfidy

For each of Questions 5- 6, select the TWO answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning
of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

5. Unfortunately, his damaging attacks on the ramifications of the economic policy


have been _______ by his wholehearted acceptance of that policys underlying
assumptions
A. traduced
B. undermined
C. slandered
D. ameliorated
E. vitiated
F. concealed

6. Unwilling to admit that they had been in error, the researchers tried to _______
the case with more data obtained from dubious sources
A. sanction
B. buttress
C. refute
D. reinforce
E. reiterate
F. peruse

199

Answer key: 1. B 2. E 3. C/D 4. C/E/G 5.B/E 6. B/D

Study & Test Review Quiz 2

For each of Questions 1-4, select ONE entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.

1. She carries around ______ works of philosophy, not because she understands them
but because she wants her friends to think she does.
A. vicarious
B. petulant
C. abstruse
D. antithetical
E. ignominious

2. Although retiring, almost self-effacing in his private life, he displays in his plays
and essays a strong ______ publicity and controversy.
A. abomination for
B. concession to
C. indecision about
D. sycophancy towards
E. penchant for

3. That his recalcitrance in making decisions (i) ______ no open disagreement from
any quarter was well known; thus, clever subordinates learned the art of (ii)
______ their opinions in casual remarks.
Blank (i)
A. assailed
B. ratified
C. elicited

Blank (ii)
D. quashing
E. ameliorating
F. accentuating

200

4. The Battle of Thermopylae has been one the least (i) ______ battle in history, and
has become so surrounded in anecdotes and (ii) ______ that it is often difficult to
tell what is history and what is recreated; nevertheless, its cultural impact on
the western world cannot be (iii) ______.
Blank (i)
A. simulated
B. suspected
C. scrutinized

Blank (ii)

Blank (iii)

D. harbingers

G. salvaged

E. exaggerations

H. brooked

F. resentments

I. impugned

For each of Questions 5- 6, select the TWO answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning
of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

5. Known for his ______, the store manager only offered his salespeople a nominal
commission and kept the rest as personal profit.
A. calumny
B. avarice
C. vacillation
D. cupidity
E. ambivalence
F. slander

6. An excessively ______ speaker suffers from logorrhea: he runs off at the mouth a
lot!
A. redoubtable
B. sanguine
C. profuse
D. voluble
E. quixotic
F. talkative

Answer key: 1. C 2. E

3. C/D

4. C/E/I

5.B/D 6. D/F

201

Study & Test Review Quiz 3

For each of Questions 1-4, select ONE entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.

1. The doctors reassuring remarks ____ Junes fears for the baby; though hed been
born prematurely, he was rapidly gaining weight and could go home in a couple of
weeks.
A. spurred
B. hastened
C. enacted
D. endorsed
E. alleviated

2. In radio control ____ this is called the frame rate and determines how rapidly and
smoothly the servo position can be updated.
A. travesty
B. parlance
C. allusion
D. loquacity
E. nepotism

3. (i)____ action at this time would be inadvisable; we have not yet accumulated
sufficient expertise to warrant anything other than a (ii)____ approach.
Blank(i)

Blank(ii)

A. ignominious

D. pensive

B. imminent

E. precocious

C. impetuous

F. circumspect

202

4. The new systematic nomenclature was so (i)____ that many chemists preferred
to (ii)____ the older trivial names that were at least shorter. At least, that is the
ostensible reason. Actually, tradition seems to carry more weight than (iii)____
with some scientists.
Blank(i)
A. lukewarm
B. cumbersome
C. studious

Blank(ii)

Blank(iii)

D. regress to

G. chronology

E. supplant

H. solace

F. bemoan

I. system

For each of Questions 5- 6, select the TWO answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning
of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

5. A man of ____, William made a point of never placating his enemies with lies or
empty promises.
A. deference
B. insouciance
C. integrity
D. pacifism
E. probity
F. complacency

6. Because human nature can be as ____ as Mother Nature, its no wonder we have
so many words that mean change and that suggest different degrees of changeability.
A. fickle
B. acerbic
C. capricious
D. aggressive
E. incompatible
F. incongruous

203

Answer key: 1. E 2. B

3. C/F

4. B/D/I

5.C/E 6. A/C

Study & Test Review Quiz 4

For each of Questions 1-4, select ONE entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.

1. Gwendolyns --------- at her sister was so intense that she agreed to go to her party
but refused to wish her a happy birthday.
(A) conspiracy against
(B) subversion of
(C) rancor at
(D) guile of
(E) contrition for

2. Their air of cheerful self-sacrifice and endless complaisance won them undeserved
praise, for their seeming gallantry was wholly motivated by a sincere wish to
--------- conflict of any sort.
(A) enervate
(B) emancipate
(C) flout
(D) ignite
(E) shun

3. The reasoning in the editorial is so (i) --------- that we cannot see how anyone can
be (ii) -------- by it.
Blank(i)

Blank(ii)

A. specious

D. disentangled

B. aesthetic

E. affronted

C. meddlesome

F. deceived

4. Despite an affected (i) ---------- that convinced casual observers that he was
(ii) --------- about his painting and care only for frivolity, Warhol cared deeply

204

about his art and labored at it (iii) ---------.


Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

Blank (iii)

A. enigma

D. mediocre

G. diligently

B. loquacity

E. ostensible

H. precociously

C. insouciance

F. nonchalant

I. tediously

For each of Questions 5- 6, select the TWO answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning
of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

5. One theory about intelligence sees language as the logical structure underlying
thinking and insists that since animals are mute, they must be --------- as well.
(A) antedated
(B) inane
(C) arbitrary
(D) dehumanized
(E) mindless
(F) supercilious

6. As serious as she is about the bullfight, she does not allow respect to --------- her
sense of whimsy when painting it.
(A) mollify
(B) entail
(C) necessitate
(D) quash
(E) recalcitrance
(F) suppress

Answer key: 1. C 2. E

3. A/F

4. C/F/G

5. B/E

6. D/F

Study & Test Review Quiz 5

205

For each of Questions 1-4, select ONE entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.

1. As long as nations cannot themselves ------------ enough physical power to


dominate all others, they must depend on allies.
(A) emancipate
(B) accumulate
(C) entail
(D) remit
(E) deplete

2. Salazars presence in the group was so reassuring the others that they lost most
of their earlier ------------; failure, for them, became all but unthinkable.
(A) trepidation
(B) detestation
(C) regression
(D) improvisation
(E) dissipation

3. Because vast organizations are an (i) ------------ element in modern life, it is


Blank(i)

Blank(ii)

A. effortless

D. esoteric

B. ineluctable

E. gullible

C. elusive

F. futile

4. The senators joy was (i) -------- when his reputation (ii) --------- by false
allegations of misconduct, emerged from the (iii) ----------- intact.
Blank(i)

Blank(ii)

Blank(iii)

A. ineffable

D. promulgated

G. ordeal

B. feckless

E. reiterated

H. resentment

C. perspicacious

F. impugned

I. hauteur

206

(ii) ------------ to aim at their abolition.

For each of Questions 5- 6, select the TWO answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning
of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

5. Borrowing a copyrighted book from a library amounts to a form of -----------perpetrated by entrenched custom: the copyright owners property, the book, is
used repeatedly without permission for such use.
(A) favoritism
(B) larceny
(C) atrocity
(D) guideline
(E) theft
(F) incentive

6. Oliver Twist had the ------------ to ask for some more porridge when he knew the
directors of the orphanage were determined to feed the boys as little as possible.
(A) temerity
(B) intolerance
(C) penchant
(D) effrontery
(E) sycophancy
(F) veracity

Answer key: 1. B 2. A

3. C/F

4. A/F/G

5.B/E 6. A/D

Study & Test 26

Study the following words:

207

1.

Environs (n.): the area surrounding a place

2.

Tribulation (n.): serious trouble or a serious problem

3.

Preconception (n.): a belief or opinion that you have already formed before

you know the actual facts, and that may

be wrong
4.

Projectile (n.): an object that is thrown at someone or is fired from a gun or other weapon, such as a bullet, stone, or
shell

5.

Epigram (n.): a short sentence that expresses an idea in a clever or amusing way

6.

Euphoric (adj.): feeling very happy and excited

7.

Disconsolate (adj.): extremely sad and hopeless

8.

Lugubrious (adj.): very sad and serious

9.

Dilapidated (adj.): a dilapidated building, vehicle etc is old and in very bad

condition

10. Inhibited (adj.): too embarrassed or nervous to do or say what you want
11. Impartiality (n.): not being directly involved in a particular situation, and being therefore able to give a fair opinion or
decision about it; neutrality
12. Discrepancy (n.): a difference between two amounts, details, reports etc that should be the same
13. Judiciousness (n.): state of being sensible; reasonability
14. Incisiveness (n.): state of showing intelligence and a clear understanding of something; perspicacity
15. Polarity (n.): if there is a polarity between two people or things, they are completely different from each other in some
way
16. Acrimony (n.): bitter and angry words or quarrels
17. Disdain to do something (v.): refuse to do something
18. Speculate (v.): to guess about the possible causes or effects of something, without knowing all the facts or details
19. Solicit (v.): to ask someone for money, help, or information
20. Disgusting (adj.): shocking and unacceptable

208

21. Rudimentary (adj.): a rudimentary knowledge or understanding of a subject is very simple and basic
22. Transcendent (adj.): going far beyond ordinary limits
23. Repeal (v.): if a government repeals a law, it officially ends that law
24. Validate (v.): to prove that something is true or correct
25. Disparage (v.): to criticize someone or something in a way that shows you do not think they are very good or
important
26. Rejoice (v.): to feel or show that you are very happy
27. Persist (v.): to continue to do something, although this is difficult, or other people oppose it
28. Feign (v.): to pretend to have a particular feeling or to be ill, asleep etc
29. Truculent (adj.): bad-tempered and always willing to argue with people
30. Indigent (adj.): poor

Answer the following questions.


1. The success of science is due in great part to its emphasis on objectivity : the reliance on
evidence rather than _____ and the willingness to draw conclusion even when they
conflict with traditional beliefs.
A. environs
B. tribulations
C. preconceptions
D. projectiles
E. epigrams

2. James had idolized the professor so much for so long that even after lunching with her
several times he remained quite _____ in her presence, and as a result, he could not really
be himself.
A. euphoric
B. disconsolate
C. lugubrious

209

D. dilapidated
E. inhibited

Select two answer choices.


3. In spite of the increasing_______ of their opinions, the group knew they had to arrive at a
consensus so that the award could be presented.
A. impartiality
B. discrepancy
C. judiciousness
D. incisiveness
E. polarity
F. acrimony

4. Some artists immodestly idealize or exaggerate the significance of their work; yet others
(i) ________ to exalt the role of the artist, reject a (ii) ________ view of art.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

A. disdaining

D. disgusting

B. speculating

E. rudimentary

C. soliciting

F. transcendent

5. Because the most recent research has (i) _______ earlier criticism of her work, one has to
conclude that scientists who (ii) _______ in dismissing her contribution are either
ignorant of the latest findings or simply (iii) _______.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

Blank (iii)

A. repealed

D. rejoice

G. truculent

B. validated

E. persist

H. obstinate

C. disparaged

F. feign

I. indigent

Answer key: 1. C 2. E 3. B/E 4. A/F

5. B/E/H

210

Study & Test 27

Study the following words:

1.

Absolve (v.): to say publicly that someone is not guilty or responsible for something

2.

Augury (n.): a sign of what will happen in the future

3.

Bolster (v.): to strengthen something or somebody through support or encouragement

4.

Brevity (n.): the quality of expressing something in very few words

5.

Buttress (v.): to support a system, idea, argument etc, especially by providing money

6.

Culminate in (v.): if a process culminates in or with a particular event, it ends with that event

7.

Debunk (v.): to show that an idea or belief is false; disprove

8.

Dispute (v.): if you dispute a fact, statement, or theory, you say that it is incorrect or untrue

9.

Downside (n.): disadvantage; drawback; shortcoming

10. Eclectic (adj.): including a mixture of many different things or people, especially so that you can use the best of all of
them
11. Emancipate (v.): o give someone the political or legal rights that they did not have before
12. Encroach on (v.): to gradually take more of someone's time, possessions, rights etc than you should
13. Flair (n.): a natural ability to do something very well
14. Idiosyncratic (adj.): if you describe someone's actions or characteristics as idiosyncratic, you mean that they are rather
unusual
15. Infamy (n.): the state of being well-known because something bad
16. Intact (adj.): not broken, damaged, or spoiled
17. Lax (adj.): not strict or careful enough about standards of behavior, work, safety etc
18. Meager (adj.): a meager amount of food, money etc is too small and is much less than you need

211

19. Medley (n.): a mixture of different types of the same thing which produces an interesting or unusual effect
20. Paltry (adj.): a paltry amount of something is too small to be useful or important
21. Placate (v.): to make someone stop feeling angry; appease
22. Primacy (n.): if someone or something has primacy, they are the best or most important person or thing
23. Prosaic (adj.): boring or ordinary
24. Raucous (adj.): impolite, noisy, and violent
25. Sagacious (adj.): able to understand and judge things very well; wise
26. Slake (v.): to satisfy a desire for something
27. Subscribe to (v.): if you subscribe to an idea, you agree with it or support it
28. Unstudied (adj.): lacking knowledge gained by study often in a particular field
29. Vivacity (n.): liveliness and high-spiritedness
30. Voluble (ad.): talking too much; talkative

Answer the following questions.


1. Although the Impressionists painters appeared to earlier art historians to be _____ in their
methods, recent analysis of their brush work suggest the contrarythat, in fact, their
technique was quite sophisticated.
A. idiosyncratic
B. unstudied
C. eclectic
D. intact
E. lax

2. It is widely understood by educational researchers that preexisting cognitive organization


can interfere with student learning; even if students appear to comprehend contemporary
trends and concepts as they progress, earlier ways of understanding often reassert their
_____ as soon as the students leave the classroom. (A) vivacity
(B) infamy

212

(C) primary
(D) medley
(E) brevity

Select two answer choices.


3. Unwilling to admit that they had been in error, the researchers tried to _____their case
with more data obtained from dubious sources.
A. emancipate
B. buttress
C. debunk
D. absolve
E. bolster
F. dispute

4. Archaeology is a poor profession; only (i) _____sums are available for excavating sites and
even more (ii) _____ amounts for preserving the excavations.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

A. sagacious

D. voluble

B. prosaic

E. raucous

C. paltry

F. meager

5. One (i) _____ of the new scheme, which has made many not (ii) _____ it, is that it might
actually (iii) _____ just those applicants that it was intended to encourage.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

Blank (iii)

A. downside

D. subscribe to

G. placate

B. augury

E. culminate in

H. slake

C. flair

F. encroach on

I. daunt

Answer key: 1. B 2. C 3. B/E

4. C/F

5. A/D/I

Study & Test 28

213

Study the following words:

1. Amble (v.): to walk slowly in a relaxed way


2. Annul (v.): to officially state that a marriage or legal agreement no longer exists
3. Armory (n.): a place where weapons are stored
4. Bereft of (adj.): empty of; devoid of
5. Cleanse (v.): if you cleanse your skin or a wound, you clean it
6. Confine (v.): limit; restrict
7. Dally (v.): to waste time, or do something very slowly
8. Divulge (v.): to give someone information that should be secret; reveal
9. Edge (v.): to move gradually with several small movements, or to make something do this
10. Enfranchise (v.): to give a group of people the right to vote
11. Entangle (v.): if something entangles you in problems or difficulties, it causes you to
become involved in problems or difficulties from which it is hard to escape
12. Fetter (v.): to restrict someone's freedom and prevent them from doing what they want
13. Heedless (adj.): not paying attention to something; inattentive; oblivious
14. Longevity (n.): long life or the long time that something lasts; long life
15. Meander (v.): to walk somewhere in a slow relaxed way rather than take the most direct
way possible
16. Mortify (v.): to cause someone to feel extremely embarrassed or ashamed
17. Neologism (v.): a new word or expression, or a word used with a new meaning
18. Plague (v.): a very infectious disease that produces high fever and swollen places on the
body, and often leads to death
19. Rage (v.): you say that something powerful or unpleasant rages when it continues with
great force or violence
20. Regale (v.): to entertain someone by telling them about something ( e.g. stories, joke,
etc.)
21. Respite (v.): a short time when something bad stops happening, so that the situation is
temporarily better
22. Ruminate (v.): to think carefully and deeply about something
23. Solitude (n.): when you are alone, especially when this is what you enjoy; loneliness
24. Squelch (v.): to stop something from continuing to develop or spread
25. Teem with someone/something (v.): to be very full of people or animals, all moving

214

about
26. Tenure (v.): the period of time when someone has an important job
27. Trudge (v.): to walk with slow heavy steps, especially because you are tired or it is
difficult to walk
28. Unanimity (n.): when there is unanimity among a group of people, they all agree about
something or all vote for the same thing
29. Vibrant (adj.): full of activity or energy in a way that is exciting and attractive; lively
30. Vindicate (v.): to prove that someone who was blamed for something is in fact not guilty

Answer the following questions.


1. The revolution in art has not lost its steam; it ____ on as fiercely as ever.
A. trudges
B. meanders
C. edges
D. ambles
E. rages

2. Many people at that time believed that spices help preserve food; however, Hall found that
many marketed spices were ____ bacteria, moulds and yeasts.
A. cleansed by
B. teeming with
C. vibrant with
D. bereft of
E. heedless of

Select two answer choices.


3. The peasants were the least free of all people, bound by tradition and ____ by
superstitions.
A. fettered
B. enfranchised
C. mortified
D. annulled
E. vindicated

215

F. confined

4. The intellectual flexibility inherent in a multicultural nation has been (i) ____ in
classrooms where emphasis on British-American literature has not reflected the cultural
(ii) ____ of our country.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

A. squelched

D. unanimity

B. entangled

E. longevity

C. divulged

F. variety

5. Newton is famous primarily for his laws describing motion. When the (i) ____ forced
Cambridge University to shut down temporarily, Newton left the university and stayed
for a time at his mother's farm. Instead of (ii) ____, however, Newton used this (iii) ____
from his formal education to study and think. It was during this period that Newton
formulated the three laws of motion that bear his name.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

Blank (iii)

A. armory

D. ruminating

G. solitude

B. plague

E. regaling

H. respite

C. neologism

F. dallying

I. tenure

Answer key: 1. E 2. B 3. A/F 4. A/E

5. B/F/H

Study & Test 29

Study the following words:

1. Adage (n.): a short, wise saying; proverb


2. Affectation (n.): if you say that someone's attitude or behavior is an affectation, you
disapprove of the fact that it is not genuine or natural, but is intended to
impress other people

216

3. Apprise (v.): to tell or give someone information about something; inform


4. Assiduous (adj.): very careful to make sure that something is done properly or
completely
5. Candor (n.): honesty
6. Demonstrative (adj.): someone who is demonstrative shows affection freely and openly
7. Duplicity (n.): dishonest behavior that is intended to deceive someone; deception
8. Entrance (v.): if something that you see or hear enchants you, you like it very much;
fascinate
9. Evoke (v.): to evoke a particular memory, idea, emotion, or response means to cause it to
occur
10. Finesse (v.): skill; dexterity
11. Frankness (n.): state of being honest and truthful
12. Immaterial (adj.): not important or not relevant
13. Impermissible (adj.): something that is impermissible cannot be allowed
14. Imposture (n.): the act of pretending to be somebody else in order to trick people, or an
occasion on which this is done
15. Inception (n.): beginning
16. Incorrigible (adj.): someone who is incorrigible is bad in a way that cannot be changed
or improved
17. Indefatigable (adj.): determined and never giving up
18. Inedible (adj.): if something is inedible, you cannot eat it because it tastes bad or is
poisonous
19. Inequitable (adj.): not equally fair to everyone
20. Lucrative (adj.): profitable
21. Mlange (n): a mixture of different things
22. Menial (adj.): menial work is boring, needs no skill, and is not important
23. Opulent (adj.): very rich and spending a lot of money
24. Perfunctory (adj.): a perfunctory action is done quickly and carelessly, and shows a
lack of interest in what you are doing
25. Plentiful (adj.): more than enough in quantity
26. Preemptive (adj.): a pre-emptive action is done to prevent something from happening,
especially something that will harm you
27. Rampant (adj.): if you describe something bad, such as a crime or disease, as rampant,
you mean that it is very common and is increasing in an uncontrolled

217

way
28. Surreptitious (adj.): done secretly or quickly because you do not want other people to
notice
29. Willfulness (n.): someone marked with willfulness is one determined to do what one
wants to do, even if it is not sensible
30. Zephyr (n.): gentle breeze

Answer the following questions.

1. Although Johnson feigned great enthusiasm for his employees' project, in reality his
interest in the project was so ----------- as to be almost nonexistent.
A. menial
B. inequitable
C. preemptive
D. perfunctory
E. indefatigable

7. In the seventeenth century, direct flouting of a generally accepted system of values was
regarded as -----------, even as a sign of madness.
A. indelible
B. rampant
C. surreptitious
D. impermissible
E. demonstrative

Select two answer choices.


3. The "imposter syndrome" often afflicts those who fear that true self-disclosure will lower
them in others' esteem; rightly handled, however, ----------- may actually enhance one's
standing.
A. willfulness
B. imposture
C. affectation

218

D. candor
E. duplicity
F. frankness

4. Because many of the minerals found on the ocean floor are still (i) ----------- on land,
where mining is relatively inexpensive, mining the ocean floor has yet to become a/an
(ii) ----------- enterprise.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

A. immaterial

D. lucrative

B. plentiful

E. assiduous

C. opulent

F. incorrigible

5. Are you curious about the future, agog about the possibility of record winter snowfalls,
(i) ----------- by world-record holders, or thoughtful about what happened on a certain
day one hundred years ago? The Old Farmer's Almanac may be exactly the reading
material you have been looking for. The oldest continuing periodical in the United
States, it was begun in 1792 by Robert B. Thomas of Massachusetts. Since its
(ii) ----------- , it has fascinated people with its homespun (iii) ----------- of fact, fun, and
folklore.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

Blank (iii)

A. entranced

D. finesse

G. zephyr

B. apprised

E. inception

H. mlange

C. evoked

F. counterpart

I. adage

Answer key: 1. D 2. D 3. D/F 4. B/D

5. A/E/H

Study & Test 30

Study the following words:

219

1. Accomplished (adj.): an accomplished writer, painter, singer etc is very skilful


2. Amnesty (n.): an official order by a government that allows a particular group of
prisoners to go free
3. Apocryphal (adj.): an apocryphal story is well-known but probably not true
4. Barrier (n.): something such as a rule, law, or policy that makes it difficult or impossible
for something to happen or be achieved
5. Coerce (v.): to force someone to do something they do not want to do by threatening them
6. Complacency (adj.): a feeling of satisfaction with a situation or with what you have
achieved, so that you stop trying to improve or change things - used
to show disapproval
7. Compunction (n.): feeling that you should not do something because it is bad or wrong
8. Contingency (n.): an event or situation that might happen in the future, especially one
that could cause problems
9. Devolve (v.): if you devolve responsibility, power etc to a person or group at a lower level,
or if it devolves on them, it is given to them
10. Empathy (n.): the ability to understand other people's feelings and problems; sympathy
11. Eschew (v.): to deliberately avoid doing or using something
12. Fabricate (v.): to invent a story, piece of information etc in order to deceive someone
13. Fatuous (adj.): very silly or stupid
14. Fervent (adj.): a fervent person has or shows strong feelings about something, and is
very sincere and enthusiastic about it
15. Incense (v.): to make someone very angry
16. Inviolable (adj.): an inviolable right, law, principle etc is extremely important and
should be treated with respect and not broken or removed
17. Itinerant (adj.): travelling from place to place, especially to work
18. Jeopardize (v.): put in danger; endanger
19. Marginal (adj.): marginal people or groups not are considered powerful or important
20. Novice (adj.): having no experience in a skill, subject, or activity
21. Obeisance (n.): obeisance to someone or something is great respect shown for them
22. Obviate (v.): to prevent or avoid a problem or the need to do something; eliminate
23. Odious (adj.): extremely unpleasant
24. Partisan (adj.): someone who is partisan strongly supports a particular person or cause,
often without thinking carefully about the matter

220

25. Perfidious (adj.): someone who is perfidious is not loyal and cannot be trusted;
treacherous
26. Petrify (v.): to terrify; to frighten
27. Portend (v.): to be a sign that something is going to happen, especially something bad
28. Satiate (v.): if something such as food or pleasure satiates you, you have all that you
need or all that you want of it, often so much that you become tired of it
29. Storm (v.): to suddenly attack and enter a place using a lot of force
30. Vigilant (adj.): someone who is vigilant gives careful attention to a particular problem
or situation and concentrates on noticing any danger or trouble that
there might be

Answer the following questions.

1. The new specialization of knowledge has created --------- people: everyone believes that his
or her subject cannot and possibly should not be understood by others.
A. barriers between
B. empathy between
C. complacency in
D. compunction in
E. amnesty for

2. One virus strain that may help gene therapists cure genetic brain diseases can enter the
peripheral nervous system and travel to the brain, --------- the need to inject the
therapeutic virus directly into the brain.
A. fabricating
B. satiating
C. jeopardizing
D. eschewing
E. obviating

Select two answer choices.


2. Given the failure of independent laboratories to replicate the results of Dr. Johnson's
experiment, only the most --------- supporters of her hypothesis would be foolish enough to

221

claim that it had been adequately verified.


A. odious
B. partisan
C. vigilant
D. inviolable
E. fervent
F. perfidious

4. Although the young violinist's steady performance with the orchestra demonstrated his
technical competence, his uninspired style and lack of interpretive maturity labeled him
as a (i) --------- musician rather than as a truly (ii) --------- performer.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

A. itinerant

D. apocryphal

B. fatuous

E. accomplished

C. novice

F. marginal

5. According to the conventional version of history, the peasants of three cantons (states) in
central Switzerland, (i) --------- over their brutal repression by the Hapsburg rulers,
(ii) --------- and destroyed the mighty 10 castles of the Austrians in 1291. Their impetus
came from William Tell, who refused to make (iii) --------- to a governor's hat that was
displayed publicly as the symbol of Austrian authority.
Blank (i)

Blank (ii)

Blank (iii)

A. petrified

D. stormed

G. compensation

B. incensed

E. portended

H. obeisance

C. devolved

F. coerced

I. contingency

Answer key: 1. A 2. E 3. B/E 4. C/E

5. B/D/H

Review Test (1) 1 - 30

222

For each of Questions 1-7, select ONE entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.

1. When an oppressed group revolts against a society, one must look for the underlying forces
that led to the groups _______ that society.
(A) acknowledgment of
(B) dependence on
(C) redistribution within
(D) interference with
(E) alienation from

2. Some biologists argue that each specifically human trait must have arisen gradually and
erratically, and that it is therefore difficult to isolate definite _______ in the evolution of
the species.
(A) fluctuations
(B) generations
(C) predispositions
(D) milestones
(E) manifestations

3. Many welfare reformers would substitute a single, federally financed income support
system for the existing _______ of overlapping programs.
(A) paucity
(B) core
(C) functionalism
(D) participation
(E) plethora

4. Though many medieval women possessed devotional books that had belonged to their
mothers, formal written evidence of women bequeathing books to their daughters is scarce,
which suggests that such _______ were customary and required no documentation.
(A) barriers
(B) bequests
(C) contingencies

223

(D) hallucinations
(E) defections

5. The transition from the Paleolithic to the Neolithic era is viewed by most art historians as a
(i) _______ , because, instead of an increasingly (ii) _______ pictorial art, we find
degeneration.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) compunction

(D) pragmatic

(B) regression

(E) sophisticated

(C) vacillation

(F) fragmented

6. In the absence of any (i) _______ caused by danger, hardship, or even cultural difference,
most utopian communities deteriorate into (ii) _______ but enervating backwaters.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) subterfuge

(D) propitious

(B) restitution

(E) quixotic

(C) stimulation

(F) placid

7. By (i) ______ and explaining the details of her personal finances before they could be used
against her, the council member (ii) ______ her opponents attacks during the campaign.
Rather than waiting to react to the inevitable criticism should her opponent find
something questionable, her campaign manager thought this strategy would be more
(iii) ______.
Blank i

Blank ii

Blank iii

(A) entangling

(D) stymied

(H) pragmatic

(B) divulging

(E) slaked

(G) aberrant

(C) decrying

(F) cleansed

(I) aggressive

For each of Questions 8- 10, select the TWO answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the
meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

8. Always _______, she was reluctant to make judgments, but once arriving at a
conclusion, she was intransigent in its defense.

224

(A) circumspect
(B) personable
(C) suspect
(D) contentious
(E) hidebound
(F) vigilant

9. Paradoxically, the more _______ the details the artist chooses, the better able she is to
depict her fantastic, other-worldly landscapes.
(A) ephemeral
(B) realistic
(C) unfathomable
(D) mundane
(E) extravagant
(F) indispensible

10. The stock market having plunged drastically, the investors _______ mood on the
trading floor seemed incongruous.
(A) prodigal
(B) sanguine
(C) analogous
(D) identical
(E) optimistic
(F) sagacious

Answer key: 1. E 2. D 3. E

4. B 5.B/E

6. C/F

7. C/D/H

8. A/F 9. B/D 10. B/E

Review Test (1) 21-30

For each of Questions 1-4, select ONE entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.

225

1. The "impostor syndrome" often afflicts those who fear that true self-disclosure will lower
them in others' esteem; rightly handled, however, _____ may actually enhance one's
standing.
(A) complacency
(B) privation
(C) stamina
(D) candor
(E) brevity

2. Nothing epitomized his lack of _____ better than his unnecessary delay in sending us the
items he promised weeks ago.
(A) hallucination
(B) compunction
(C) contingency
(D) impartiality
(E) accountability

3. Although Ms. Brown found some of her duties to be (i) ______, her supervision of forty
workers was a considerable responsibility, a job that she performed with (ii) ______.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) incorrigible

(D) finesse

(B) prohibitive

(E) subterfuge

(C) menial

(F) unanimity

4. (i) _____ the failure of independent laboratories to replicate the results of Dr. Johnson's
experiment, only the most (ii) _____ supporters of her hypothesis would be foolish enough
to claim that it had been adequately (iii) _____.
Blank i

Blank ii

Blank iii

(A) Just as

(D) vigilant

(G) diagnosed

(B) Regardless of

(E) partisan

(H) verified

(C) Given

(F) stoical

(I) fabricated

For each of Questions 5- 6, select the TWO answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning
of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

226

5. In spite of the increasing _____ of their opinions, the group knew they had to arrive at a
consensus so that the award could be presented
(A) empathy
(B) discrepancy
(C) treachery
(D) vivacity
(E) polarity
(F) supremacy

6. It is disappointing to note that the latest edition of the bibliography belies its longstanding reputation for _____ by omitting some significant references to recent
publications.
(A) thoroughness
(B) anthology
(C) exhaustiveness
(D) mlange
(E) incisiveness
(F) incongruity

Answer key: 1. D 2. E

3. C/D

4. C/E/H

5. B/E 6. A/C

Review Test (2) 1-30

For each of Questions 1-7, select ONE entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.

1. The harmonious accommodation reached by the warring factions exemplifies the axiom
that compromise is possible among people of goodwill, even when they have previously
held quite _______ perspectives.
(A) capricious
(B) compatible

227

(C) deficient
(D) antagonistic
(E) fortuitous

2. This final essay, its prevailing kindliness marred by occasional flashes of savage irony,
_______the dichotomous character of the author.
(A) bespeaks
(B) regresses
(C) supersedes
(D) vanquishes
(E) countermands

3. The fortress-like _______ of the Museum of Cartoon Art seems calculated to remind
visitors that the comic strip is an art form that has often been assailed by critics.
(A) polarity
(B) opulence
(C) flippancy
(D) projectile
(E) facade

4. For many young people during the Roaring Twenties, a disgust with the excesses of
American culture combined with a wanderlust to _______ an exodus abroad.
(A) decry
(B) intimidate
(C) enact
(D) clarify
(E) provoke

5. The author of this book purposely (i) _______ or minimizes some of the problems and
shortcomings in otherwise highly successful foreign industries in order to emphasize the
points on which they excel and on which we might try to (ii) _______ them.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) elevates

(D) proffer

(B) resents

(E) emulate

228

(C) overlooks

(F) simulate

6. He felt it would be (i) _______, in view of the intense (ii) _______ that would likely
follow, to make the sacrifice required in order to gain such little advantage.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) exhaustive

(D) ratification

(B) unrealistic

(E) denunciation

(C) incontrovertible

(F) destitution

7. Professional photographers generally regard inadvertent surrealism in a photograph as a


curse (i) _______ a blessing; magazine photographers, in particular, consider themselves
(ii) _______ to the extent that they can (iii) _______ its presence in their photographs.
Blank i
(A) rather than

Blank ii
(D) fortunate

Blank iii
(H) enhance

(B) as well as

(E) inadequate

(G) demonstrate

(C) except

(F) unconventional

(I) minimize

For each of Questions 8- 10, select the TWO answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the
meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

8. In order to _______ her theory that the reactions are different the scientist conducted
many experiments, all of which showed that the heat of the first reaction is more than
twice that of the second.
(A) mollify
(B) reconcile
(C) buttress
(D) reverse
(E) render
(F) reinforce

9. Although ordinarily skeptical about the purity of Robinsons _______, in this instance
Jenkin did not consider Robinsons generosity to be lacking in consideration of personal
gain.

229

(A) vacillations
(B) incentives
(C) shortcomings
(D) trepidations
(E) motives
(F) deviations

10. The pressure of population on available resources is the key to understanding history;
consequently, any historical writing that takes no cognizance of demographic facts is _______ flawed.
(A) intrinsically
(B) propitiously
(C) intelligibly
(D) inherently
(D) philosophically
(E) demonstratively

Answer key: 1. D 2. A

3. E

4. E

5.C/E

6. B/E

7. A/D/I

8. C/F 9. B/E 10. A/D

Review Test (2) 21-30

For each of Questions 1-4, select ONE entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.

1. It was her view that the country's problems had been ------ by foreign technocrats, so that to
invite them to come back would be counterproductive.
(A) foreseen
(B) attacked
(C) ascertained
(D) aggravated
(E) analyzed

2. Although skeptics say financial problems will probably prevent our establishing a base

230

on the Moon. Supporters of the project remain sanguine, saying that human curiosity
should overcome such pragmatic ---------.
(A) constraints
(B) contingencies
(C) truisms
(D) polarities
(E) innuendos

3. Due to the widespread fuel shortage caused by impulsive decisions made be (i) ------financial officers , the price of gasoline was so (ii) ------- that suppliers were generally
thought to be gouging the consumer.
Blank i
(A) novice

Blank ii
(D) tremulous

(B) dilapidated

(E) perfidious

(C) wholehearted

(F) prohibitive

4. The preliminary review concludes that Dr. Stuart has (i)____ his argument with
(ii) -------- experimental data. Hence, even in its current state his thesis is convincing
enough to be deemed (iii) --------.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) evoked

(D) plentiful

(B) contrived

(E) preemptive

(C) proliferated

(F) stoical

Blank iii
(G) incontrovertible
(H) demonstrative
(I) inexhaustible

For each of Questions 5- 6, select the TWO answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning
of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

5. Because the lawyer's methods were found to be unscrupulous, the disciplinary


committee --------- his privileges.
(A) bolstered
(B) annulled
(C) jeopardized
(D) repealed

231

(E) obfuscated
(F) renounced

6. As late as 1891 a speaker assured his audience that since -------- farming was the result of
natural ability rather than learning, an education in agriculture was useless.
(A) marginal
(B) unwarranted
(C) eclectic
(D) unstudied
(E) profitable
(F) lucrative

Answer key: 1. D 2. A

3. A/F

4. B/D/G

5. B/D 6. E/F

Review Test (3) 21-30

For each of Questions 1-5, select ONE entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices.
1. For someone as laconic as she, who preferred to speak only when absolutely necessary, his
______ chatter was completely maddening.
(A) assiduous
(B) relentless
(C) rampant
(D) prodigal
(E) gregarious

2. No work illustrated his disdain for a systematic approach to research better than his
dissertation, which was rejected primarily because his bibliography constituted, at best,
______ survey of the major texts in his field.
(A) an surreptitious
(B) an odious
(C) a judicious

232

(D) an exhaustive
(E) a haphazard

3. Although Simpson was ingenious at (i) ______ to appear innovative and spontaneous,
beneath the (ii) ______ he remained uninspired and rigid in his approach to problemsolving.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) evoking

(D) empathy

(B) contriving

(E) heresy

(C) disdaining

(F) ruse

4. Old beliefs die hard: even when jobs became (i) ______ the long-standing fear that
unemployment could return at a moments notice (ii) ______.
Blank i

Blank ii

(A) incontrovertible

(D) plagued

(B) prohibitive

(E) precipitated

(C) plentiful

(F) persisted

5. Laws do not ensure social order since laws can always be (i) ______, which makes them
(ii) ______ unless the authorities have the will and the power to detect and (iii)______
the root causes of wrongdoing.
Blank i
(A) disparaged
(B) circumvented
(C) subscribed to

Blank ii

Blank iii

(D) heedless
(E) ascetic

(G) efface
(H) petrify

(F) ineffective

(I) usurped

For Question 6, select the TWO answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the
sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.
6. As Juanita argued, this new code of conduct is laughable; its principles are either
platitudinous, offering no wisdom but the obvious, or are so ______ specific advice as to
make almost any action justifiable.
(A) bereft of
(B) perfidious to

233

(C) analogous to
(D) devoid of
(E) lax about
(F) commensurate with

Answer key: 1. B 2. E 3. B/F 4. C/F

5. B/F/G 6. A/D

All-Skills GRE Test 1

When literary periods are defined on the basis of mens writing, womens writing must be forcibly assimilated into an
irrelevant grid: a Renaissance that is not a renaissance for women, a Romantic period in which women played very little part, a
modernism with which women conflict. Simultaneously, the history of womens writing has been suppressed, leaving large,
mysterious gaps in accounts of the development of various genres. Feminist criticism is beginning to correct this situation.
Margaret Anne Doody, for example, suggests that during the period between the death of Richardson and the appearance of the
novels of Scott and Austen, which has been regarded as a dead period, late-eighteenth-century women writers actually
developed the paradigm for womens fiction of the nineteenth centurysomething hardly less than the paradigm of the
nineteenth-century novel itself. Feminist critics have also pointed out that the twentieth-century writer Virginia Woolf belonged
to a tradition other than modernism and that this tradition surfaces in her work precisely where criticism has hitherto found
obscurities, evasions, implausibilities, and imperfections.

1.

It can be inferred from the passage that the author views the division of
literature into periods based on mens writing as an approach that
(A) makes distinctions among literary periods ambiguous
(B) is appropriate for evaluating only premodern literature
(C) was misunderstood until the advent of feminist criticism
(D) provides a valuable basis from which feminist criticism has evolved
(E) obscures womens contributions to literature

2.

The passage suggests which of the following about Virginia Woolfs work?
I.

Nonfeminist criticism of it has been flawed.

II.

Critics have treated it as part of modernism.

III. It is based on the work of late-eighteenth-century women writers.

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(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III

3.

The author quotes Doody most probably in order to illustrate


(A) a contribution that feminist criticism can make to literary criticism
(B) a modernist approach that conflicts with womens writing
(C) writing by a woman which had previously been ignored
(D) the hitherto overlooked significance of Scotts and Austens novels
(E) a standard system of defining literary periods

4.

The passage provides information that answers which of the following


questions?
(A) In what tradition do feminist critics usually place Virginia Woolf?
(B) What are the main themes of womens fiction of the nineteenth
century?
(C) What events motivated the feminist reinterpretation of literary
history?
(D) How has the period between Richardsons death and Scotts and
Austens novels traditionally been regarded by critics?
(E) How was the development of the nineteenth-century novel affected by
womens fiction in the same century?

Answer key: 1. E 2. C 3. A 4. D

All-Skills GRE Test 2

The recent, apparently successful, prediction by mathematical models of an appearance of El Ninothe warm ocean current
that periodically develops along the Pacific coast of South Americahas excited researchers. Jacob Bjerknes pointed out over 20

235

years ago how winds might create either abnormally warm or abnormally cold water in the eastern equatorial Pacific.
Nonetheless, until the development of the models no one could explain why conditions should regularly shift from one to the
other, as happens in the periodic oscillations between appearances of the warm El Nino and the cold so-called anti-El Nino. The
answer, at least if the current model that links the behavior of the ocean to that of the atmosphere is correct, is to be found in the
ocean.
It has long been known that during an El Nino, two conditions exist: (1) unusually warm water extends along the eastern
Pacific, principally along the coasts of Ecuador and Peru, and (2) winds blow from the west into the warmer air rising over the
warm water in the east. These winds tend to create a feedback mechanism by driving the warmer surface water into a pile that
blocks the normal upwelling of deeper, cold water in the east and further warms the eastern water, thus strengthening the wind
still more. The contribution of the model is to show that the winds of an El Nino, which raise sea level in the east, simultaneously
send a signal to the west lowering sea level. According to the model, that signal is generated as a negative Rossby wave, a wave
of depressed, or negative, sea level, that moves westward parallel to the equator at 25 to 85 kilometers per day. Taking months to
traverse the Pacific, Rossby waves march to the western boundary of the Pacific basin, which is modeled as a smooth wall but in
reality consists of quite irregular island chains, such as the Philippines and Indonesia.
When the waves meet the western boundary, they are reflected, and the model predicts that Rossby waves will be broken
into numerous coastal Kelvin waves carrying the same negative sea-level signal. These eventually shoot toward the equator, and
then head eastward along the equator propelled by the rotation of the Earth at a speed of about 250 kilometers per day. When
enough Kelvin waves of sufficient amplitude arrive from the western Pacific, their negative sea-level signal overcomes the
feedback mechanism tending to raise the sea level, and they begin to drive the system into the opposite cold mode. This produces
a gradual shift in winds, one that will eventually send positive sea-level Rossby waves westward, waves that will eventually
return as cold cycle-ending positive Kelvin waves, beginning another warming cycle.

1.

The primary function of the passage as a whole is to


(A) introduce a new explanation of a physical phenomenon
(B) explain the difference between two related physical phenomena
(C) illustrate the limitations of applying mathematics to complicated
physical phenomena
(D) indicate the direction that research into a particular physical
phenomenon should take
(E) clarify the differences between an old explanation of a physical
phenomenon and a new model of it

2.

Which of the following best describes the organization of the first


paragraph?

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(A) A theory is presented and criticized.


(B) A model is described and evaluated.
(C) A result is reported and its importance explained.
(D) A phenomenon is noted and its significance debated.
(E) A hypothesis is introduced and contrary evidence presented.

3.

According to the passage, which of the following features is characteristic of


an El Nino?
(A) Cold coastal water near Peru
(B) Winds blowing from the west
(C) Random occurrence
(D) Worldwide effects
(E) Short duration

4.

According to the model presented in the passage, which of the following


normally signals the disappearance of an El Nino?
(A) The arrival in the eastern Pacific of negative sea-level Kelvin waves.
(B) A shift in the direction of the winds produced by the start of an anti-El
Nino elsewhere in the Pacific.
(C) The reflection of Kelvin waves after they reach the eastern boundary of
the Pacific, along Ecuador and Peru.
(D) An increase in the speed at which negative Rossby waves cross the
Pacific.
(E) The creation of a reservoir of colder, deep ocean water trapped under
the pile of warmer, surface ocean water.

5.

It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following would result
fairly immediately from the cessation of the winds of an El Nino?
I.

Negative Rossby waves would cease to be generated in the eastern


Pacific.

II.

The sea level in the eastern Pacific would fall.

III.

The surface water in the eastern Pacific would again be cooled by


being mixed with deep water.

(A) I only

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(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III

Answer key: 1. A

2. C 3. B

4. A

5. E

All-Skills GRE Test 3

Extraordinary creative activity has been characterized as revolutionary, flying in the face of what is established and producing
not what is acceptable but what will become accepted. According to this formulation, highly creative activity transcends the
limits of an existing form and establishes a new principle of organization. However, the idea that extraordinary creativity
transcends established limits is misleading when it is applied to the arts, even though it may be valid for the sciences. Differences
between highly creative art and highly creative science arise in part from a difference in their goals. For the sciences, a new
theory is the goal and end result of the creative act. Innovative science produces new propositions in terms of which diverse
phenomena can be related to one another in more coherent ways. Such phenomena as a brilliant diamond or a nesting bird are
relegated to the role of data, serving as the means for formulating or testing a new theory. The goal of highly creative art is very
different: the phenomenon itself becomes the direct product of the creative act. Shakespeares Hamlet is not a tract about the
behavior of indecisive princes or the uses of political power; nor is Picassos painting Guernica primarily a propositional
statement about the Spanish Civil War or the evils of fascism. What highly creative artistic activity produces is not a new
generalization that transcends established limits, but rather an aesthetic particular. Aesthetic particulars produced by the highly
creative artist extend or exploit, in an innovative way, the limits of an existing form, rather than transcend that form.
This is not to deny that a highly creative artist sometimes establishes a new principle of organization in the history of an
artistic field; the composer Monteverdi, who created music of the highest aesthetic value, comes to mind. More generally,
however, whether or not a composition establishes a new principle in the history of music has little bearing on its aesthetic worth.
Because they embody a new principle of organization, some musical works, such as the operas of the Florentine Camerata, are of
signal historical importance, but few listeners or musicologists would include these among the great works of music. On the other
hand, Mozarts The Marriage of Figaro is surely among the masterpieces of music even though its modest innovations are
confined to extending existing means. It has been said of Beethoven that he toppled the rules and freed music from the stifling
confines of convention. But a close study of his compositions reveals that Beethoven overturned no fundamental rules. Rather, he

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was an incomparable strategist who exploited limitsthe rules, forms, and conventions that he inherited from predecessors such
as Haydn and Mozart, Handel and Bachin strikingly original ways.

1. The author considers a new theory that coherently relates diverse


phenomena to one another to be the
(A) basis for reaffirming a well-established scientific formulation
(B) byproduct of an aesthetic experience
(C) tool used by a scientist to discover a new particular
(D) synthesis underlying a great work of art
(E) result of highly creative scientific activity

2. The author implies that Beethovens music was strikingly original because
Beethoven
(A) strove to outdo his predecessors by becoming the first composer to
exploit limits
(B) fundamentally changed the musical forms of his predecessors by
adopting a richly inventive strategy
(C) embellished and interwove the melodies of several of the great
composers who preceded him
(D) manipulated the established conventions of musical composition in a
highly innovative fashion
(E) attempted to create the illusion of having transcended the musical
forms of his predecessors

3. The passage states that the operas of the Florentine Camerata are
(A) unjustifiably ignored by musicologists
(B) not generally considered to be of high aesthetic value even though they
are important in the history of music
(C) among those works in which popular historical themes were portrayed
in a musical production
(D) often inappropriately cited as examples of musical works in which a
new principle of organization was introduced
(E) minor exceptions to the well-established generalization that the
aesthetic worth of a composition determines its importance in the

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history of music

For the following question, consider each of the choices


separately and select all that apply
4. The passage supplies information for answering all of the following
questions EXCEPT:
(A) Did Beethoven work within a musical tradition that also included
Handel and Bach?
(B) Is Mozarts The Marriage of Figaro an example of a creative work that
transcended limits?
(C) Who besides Monteverdi wrote music that the author would consider
to embody new principles of organization and to be of high aesthetic
value?

5. The author regards the idea that all highly creative artistic activity
transcends limits with
(A) deep skepticism
(B) strong indignation
(C) marked indifference
(D) moderate amusement
(E) sharp derision

6.

The author implies that an innovative scientific contribution is one that


(A) is cited with high frequency in the publications of other scientists
(B) is accepted immediately by the scientific community
(C) does not relegate particulars to the role of data
(D) presents the discovery of a new scientific fact
(E) introduces a new valid generalization

7. Which of the following statements would most logically concluded the last
paragraph of the passage?
(A) Unlike Beethoven, however, even the greatest of modern composers,
such as Stravinsky, did not transcend existing musical forms.
(B) In similar fashion, existing musical forms were even further exploited

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by the next generation of great European composers.


(C) Thus, many of the great composers displayed the same combination of
talents exhibited by Monteverdi.
(D) By contrast, the view that creativity in the arts exploits but does not
transcend limits is supported in the field of literature.
(E) Actually, Beethovens most original works were largely unappreciated
at the time that they were first performed.

Answer key: 1. E 2. D

3. B

4. D

5. A

6E

7. B

All-Skills GRE Test 4

Immediately relevant to game theory are the sex ratios in certain parasitic wasp species that have a large excess of females. In these
species, fertilized eggs develop into females and unfertilized eggs into males. A female stores sperm and can determine the sex of
each egg she lays by fertilizing it or leaving it unfertilized. By Fishers genetic argument that the sex ratio will be favored which
maximizes the number of descendants an individual will have and hence the number of gene copies transmitted, it should pay a
female to produce equal numbers of sons and daughters. Hamilton, noting that the eggs develop within their hostthe larva of
another insect and that the newly emerged adult wasps mate immediately and disperse, offered a remarkably cogent analysis. Since
only one female usually lays eggs in a given larva, it would pay her to produce one male only, because this one male could fertilize
all his sisters on emergence. Like Fisher, Hamilton looked for an evolutionarily stable strategy, but he went a step further in
recognizing that he was looking for a strategy.

1. The author suggests that the work of Fisher and Hamilton was similar in that
both scientists
(A) conducted their research at approximately the same time
(B) sought to manipulate the sex ratios of some of the animals they studied
(C) sought an explanation of why certain sex ratios exist and remain stable
(D) studied game theory, thereby providing important groundwork for the later development of strategy theory
(E) studied reproduction in the same animal species

For the following question, consider each of the choices separately

241

and select all that apply


2. The passage contains information that would answer which of the following
questions about wasps?
(A) How many eggs does the female wasp usually lay in a single host larva?
(B) Can some species of wasp determine sex ratios among their offspring?
(C) What is the approximate sex ratio among the offspring of parasitic wasps?

3. Which of the following is NOT true of the species of parasitic wasps discussed in the
passage?
(A) Adult female wasps are capable of storing sperm.
(B) Female wasps lay their eggs in the larvae of other insects.
(C) The adult female wasp can be fertilized by a male that was hatched in the same larva as herself.
(D) So few male wasps are produced that extinction is almost certain.
(E) Male wasps do not emerge from their hosts until they reach sexual maturity.

Answer key: 1. C

2. B

3. D

All_Skills GRE Test 5

The evolution of intelligence among early large mammals of the grasslands was due in great measure to the interaction
between two ecologically synchronized groups of these animals, the hunting carnivores and the herbivores that they hunted. The
interaction resulting from the differences between predator and prey led to a general improvement in brain functions; however,
certain components of intelligence were improved far more than others.
The kind of intelligence favored by the interplay of increasingly smarter catchers and increasingly keener escapers is
defined by attentionthat aspect of mind carrying consciousness forward from one moment to the next. It ranges from a passive,
free-floating awareness to a highly focused, active fixation. The range through these states is mediated by the arousal system, a
network of tracts converging from sensory systems to integrating centers in the brain stem. From the more relaxed to the more
vigorous levels, sensitivity to novelty is increased. The organism is more awake, more vigilant; this increased vigilance results in
the apprehension of ever more subtle signals as the organism becomes more sensitive to its surroundings. The processes of
arousal and concentration give attention its direction. Arousal is at first general, with a flooding of impulses in the brain stem;
then gradually the activation is channeled. Thus begins concentration, the holding of consistent images. One meaning of
intelligence is the way in which these images and other alertly searched information are used in the context of previous

242

experience. Consciousness links past attention to the present and permits the integration of details with perceived ends and
purposes.
The elements of intelligence and consciousness come together marvelously to produce different styles in predator and prey.
Herbivores and carnivores develop different kinds of attention related to escaping or chasing. Although in both kinds of animal,
arousal stimulates the production of adrenaline and norepinephrine by the adrenal glands, the effect in herbivores is primarily
fear, whereas in carnivores the effect is primarily aggression. For both, arousal attunes the animal to what is ahead. Perhaps it
does not experience forethought as we know it, but the animal does experience something like it. The predator is searchingly
aggressive, inner-directed, tuned by the nervous system and the adrenal hormones, but aware in a sense closer to human
consciousness than, say, a hungry lizards instinctive snap at a passing beetle. Using past events as a framework, the large
mammal predator is working out a relationship between movement and food, sensitive to possibilities in cold trails and distant
soundsand yesterdays unforgotten lessons. The herbivore prey is of a different mind. Its mood of wariness rather than
searching and its attitude of general expectancy instead of anticipating are silk-thin veils of tranquility over an explosive
endocrine system.

1. The author refers to a hungry lizard (paragraph 3) primarily in order to


(A) demonstrate the similarity between the hunting methods of mammals and
those of nonmammals
(B) broaden the application of his argument by including an insectivore as an
example
(C) make a distinction between higher and lower levels of consciousness
(D) provide an additional illustration of the brutality characteristic of predators
(E) offer an objection to suggestions that all animals lack consciousness

2. It can be inferred from the passage that in animals less intelligent than the
mammals discussed in the passage
(A) past experience is less helpful in ensuring survival
(B) attention is more highly focused
(C) muscular coordination is less highly developed
(D) there is less need for competition among species
(E) environment is more important in establishing the proper ratio of prey to
predator

For the following question consider each of the choices separately


and select all that apply.

243

3. The author provides information that would answer which of the following
questions?
(A) Why is an aroused herbivore usually fearful?
(B) What are some of the degrees of attention in large mammals?
(C) What occurs when the stimulus that causes arousal of a mammal is removed?

4. According to the passage, as the process of arousal in an organism continues, all of


the following may occur EXCEPT
(A) the production of adrenaline
(B) the production of norepinephrine
(C) a heightening of sensitivity to stimuli
(D) an increase in selectivity with respect to stimuli
(E) an expansion of the range of states mediated by the brain stem

Answer key: 1. C 2. A 3. A/B 4. E

All-Skills GRE Test 6

Many critics of Emily Brontes novel Wuthering Heights see its second part as a counterpoint that comments on, if it does not
reverse, the first part, where romantic reading receives more confirmation. Seeing the two parts as a whole is encouraged by
the novels sophisticated structure, revealed in its complex use of narrators and time shifts. Granted that the presence of these
elements need not argue an authorial awareness of novelistic construction comparable to that of Henry James, their presence does
encourage attempts to unify the novels heterogeneous parts. However, any interpretation that seeks to unify all of the novels
diverse elements is bound to be somewhat unconvincing. This is not because such an interpretation necessarily stiffens into a
thesis (although rigidity in any interpretation of this or of any novel is always a danger), but because Wuthering Heights has
recalcitrant elements of undeniable power that, ultimately, resist inclusion in an all-encompassing interpretation. In this respect,
Wuthering Heights shares a feature of Hamlet.

1. According to the passage, which of the following is a true statement about the
first and second parts of Wuthering Heights?
(A) The second part has received more attention from critics.
(B) The second part has little relation to the first part.

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(C) The second part annuls the force of the first part.
(D) The second part provides less substantiation for a romantic reading.
(E) The second part is better because it is more realistic.

2. Which of the following inferences about Henry Jamess awareness of novelistic


construction is best supported by the passage?
(A) James, more than any other novelist, was aware of the difficulties of
novelistic construction.
(B) James was very aware of the details of novelistic construction.
(C) Jamess awareness of novelistic construction derived from his reading of
Bronte.
(D) Jamess awareness of novelistic construction has led most commentators to
see unity in his individual novels.
(E) Jamess awareness of novelistic construction precluded him from violating
the unity of his novels.

3. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree that an interpretation of
a novel should
(A) not try to unite heterogeneous elements in the novel
(B) not be inflexible in its treatment of the elements in the novel
(C) not argue that the complex use of narrators or of time shifts indicates a
sophisticated structure
(D) concentrate on those recalcitrant elements of the novel that are outside the
novels main structure
(E) primarily consider those elements of novelistic construction of which the
author of the novel was aware

For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and
select all that apply
4. The author of the passage suggests which of the following about Hamlet?
(A) Hamlet has usually attracted critical interpretations that tend to stiffen into
theses.
(B) Hamlet has elements that are not amenable to an all-encompassing critical
interpretation.

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(C) Hamlet is less open to an all-encompassing critical interpretation than is


Wuthering Heights.

Answer key: 1. D 2. B 3. B 4.B

All-Skills GRE Test 7

In the eighteenth century, Japans feudal overlords, from the shogun to the humblest samurai, found themselves under
financial stress. In part, this stress can be attributed to the overlords failure to adjust to a rapidly expanding economy, but the
stress was also due to factors beyond the overlords control. Concentration of the samurai in castle-towns had acted as a stimulus
to trade. Commercial efficiency, in turn, had put temptations in the way of buyers. Since most samurai had been reduced to
idleness by years of peace, encouraged to engage in scholarship and martial exercises or to perform administrative tasks that took
little time, it is not surprising that their tastes and habits grew expensive. Overlords income, despite the increase in rice
production among their tenant farmers, failed to keep pace with their expenses. Although shortfalls in overlords income resulted
almost as much from laxity among their tax collectors (the nearly inevitable outcome of hereditary office-holding) as from their
higher standards of living, a misfortune like a fire or flood, bringing an increase in expenses or a drop in revenue, could put a
domain in debt to the city rice-brokers who handled its finances. Once in debt, neither the individual samurai nor the shogun
himself found it easy to recover.
It was difficult for individual samurai overlords to increase their income because the amount of rice that farmers could be
made to pay in taxes was not unlimited, and since the income of Japans central government consisted in part of taxes collected
by the shogun from his huge domain, the government too was constrained. Therefore, the Tokugawa shoguns began to look to
other sources for revenue. Cash profits from government-owned mines were already on the decline because the most easily
worked deposits of silver and gold had been exhausted, although debasement of the coinage had compensated for the loss.
Opening up new farmland was a possibility, but most of what was suitable had already been exploited and further reclamation
was technically unfeasible. Direct taxation of the samurai themselves would be politically dangerous. This left the shoguns only
commerce as a potential source of government income.
Most of the countrys wealth, or so it seemed, was finding its way into the hands of city merchants. It appeared reasonable
that they should contribute part of that revenue to ease the shoguns burden of financing the state. A means of obtaining such
revenue was soon found by levying forced loans, known as goyo-kin; although these were not taxes in the strict sense, since they
were irregular in timing and arbitrary in amount, they were high in yield. Unfortunately, they pushed up prices. Thus, regrettably,
the Tokugawa shoguns search for solvency for the government made it increasingly difficult for individual Japanese who lived
on fixed stipends to make ends meet.

246

1. The passage is most probably an excerpt from


(A) an economic history of Japan
(B) the memoirs of a samurai warrior
(C) a modern novel about eighteenth-century Japan
(D) an essay contrasting Japanese feudalism with its Western counterpart
(E) an introduction to a collection of Japanese folktales

2. Which of the following financial situations is most analogous to the


financial situation in which Japans Tokugawa shoguns found themselves in
the eighteenth century?
(A) A small business borrows heavily to invest in new equipment, but is
able to pay off its debt early when it is awarded a lucrative
government contract.
(B) Fire destroys a small business, but insurance covers the cost of
rebuilding.
(C) A small business is turned down for a loan at a local bank because the
owners have no credit history.
(D) A small business has to struggle to meet operating expenses when its
profits decrease.
(E) A small business is able to cut back sharply on spending through
greater commercial efficiency and thereby compensate for a loss of
revenue.

3. Which of the following best describes the attitude of the author toward the
samurai discussed in paragraph 1?
(A) Warmly approving
(B) Mildly sympathetic
(C) Bitterly disappointed
(D) Harshly disdainful
(E) Profoundly shocked

4. According to the passage, the major reason for the financial problems
experienced by Japans feudal overlords in the eighteenth century was that

247

(A) spending had outdistanced income


(B) trade had fallen off
(C) profits from mining had declined
(D) the coinage had been sharply debased
(E) the samurai had concentrated in castle-towns

5. The passage implies that individual samurai did not find it easy to recover
from debt for which of the following reasons?
(A) Agricultural production had increased.
(B) Taxes were irregular in timing and arbitrary in amount.
(C) The Japanese government had failed to adjust to the needs of a
changing economy.
(D) The domains of samurai overlords were becoming smaller and poorer
as government revenues increased.
(E) There was a limit to the amount in taxes that farmers could be made to
pay.

6. The passage suggests that, in eighteenth-century Japan, the office of tax


collector
(A) was a source of personal profit to the officeholder
(B) was regarded with derision by many Japanese
(C) remained within families
(D) existed only in castle-towns
(E) took up most of the officeholders time

7. Which of the following could best be substituted for the word This in
paragraph 3 without changing the meaning of the passage?
(A) The search of Japans Tokugawa shoguns for solvency
(B) The importance of commerce in feudal Japan
(C) The unfairness of the tax structure in eighteenth century Japan
(D) The difficulty of increasing government income by other means
(E) The difficulty experienced by both individual samurai and the shogun
himself in extricating themselves from debt

248

8. The passage implies that which of the following was the primary reason
why the Tokugawa shoguns turned to city merchants for help in
financing the state?
(A) A series of costly wars had depleted the national treasury.
(B) Most of the countrys wealth appeared to be in city merchants hands.
(C) Japan had suffered a series of economic reversals due to natural
disasters such as floods.
(D) The merchants were already heavily indebted to the shoguns.
(E) Further reclamation of land would not have been economically
advantageous.

9. According to the passage, the actions of the Tokugawa shoguns in their


search for solvency for the government were regrettable because those
actions
(A) raised the cost of living by pushing up prices
(B) resulted in the exhaustion of the most easily worked deposits of silver
and gold
(C) were far lower in yield than had originally been anticipated
(D) did not succeed in reducing government spending
(E) acted as a deterrent to trade

Answer key: 1. A

2. D

3. B

4. A

5. E

6. C

7. D

8. B

9.A

All-Skills GRE Test 8

Few areas of neurobehavioral research seemed more promising in the early sixties than that investigating the relationship
between protein synthesis and learning. The conceptual framework for this research was derived directly from molecular biology,
which had shown that genetic information is stored in nucleic acids and expressed in proteins. Why not acquired information as
well?
The first step toward establishing a connection between protein synthesis and learning seemed to be block memory (cause
amnesia) by interrupting the production of protein. We were fortunate in finding a nonlethal dosage of puromycin that could, it
first appeared, thoroughly inhibit brain protein synthesis as well as reliably produce amnesia.

249

Before the actual connection between protein synthesis and learning could be established, however, we began to have doubts
about whether inhibition of protein synthesis was in fact the method by which puromycin produced amnesia. First, other drugs,
glutarimidesthemselves potent protein-synthesis inhibitorseither failed to cause amnesia in some situations where it could
easily be induced by puromycin or produced an amnesia with a different time course from that of puromycin. Second, puromycin
was found to inhibit protein synthesis by breaking certain amino-acid chains, and the resulting fragments were suspected of being
the actual cause of amnesia in some cases. Third, puromycin was reported to cause abnormalities in the brain, including seizures
Thus, not only were decreased protein synthesis and amnesia dissociated, but alternative mechanisms for the amnestic action of
puromycin were readily suggested.
So, puromycin turned out to be a disappointment. It came to be regarded as a poor agent for amnesia studies, although, of
course, it was poor only in the context of our original paradigm of protein-synthesis inhibition. In our frustration, our initial
response was simply to change drugs rather than our conceptual orientation. After many such disappointments, however, it now
appears unlikely that we will make a firm connection between protein synthesis and learning merely by pursuing the approaches
of the past. Our experience with drugs has shown that all the amnestic agents often interfere with memory in ways that seem
unrelated to their inhibition of protein synthesis. More importantly, the notion that the interruption or intensification of protein
production in the brain can be related in cause-and-effect fashion to learning now seems simplistic and unproductive. Remove the
battery from a car and the car will not go. Drive the car a long distance at high speed and the battery will become more highly
charged. Neither of these facts proves that the battery powers the car; only a knowledge of the overall automotive system will
reveal its mechanism of the locomotion and the role of the battery within that system.

1. This passage was most likely excerpted from


(A) a diary kept by a practicing neurobehavioral researcher
(B) a newspaper article on recent advances in the biochemistry of learning
(C) a technical article on experimental techniques in the field of molecular
biology
(D) an article summarizing a series of scientific investigations in
neurobehavioral research
(E) a book review in a leading journal devoted to genetic research

2. The primary purpose of the passage is to show that extensive


experimentation has
(A) demonstrated the importance of amino-acid fragmentation in the
induction of amnesia
(B) cast doubt on the value of puromycin in the neurobehavioral
investigation of learning

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(C) revealed the importance of amnesia in the neurobehavioral study of


learning
(D) not yet demonstrated the applicability of molecular biology to
neurobehavioral research
(E) not supported the hypothesis that learning is directly dependent on
protein synthesis

3.

According to the passage, neurobehaviorists initially based their belief that


protein synthesis was related to learning on which of the following?
(A) Traditional theories about learning
(B) New techniques in protein synthesis
(C) Previous discoveries in molecular biology
(D) Specific research into learning and amnesia
(E) Historic experiments on the effects of puromycin

For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply
4. The passage mentions which of the following as effects of puromycin?
(A) brain seizures
(B) inhibition of protein synthesis
(C) fragmentation of amino-acid chains

5. It can be inferred from the passage that, after puromycin was perceived to
be a disappointment, researchers did which of the following?
(A) They ceased to experiment with puromycin and shifted to other
promising protein-synthesis inhibitors.
(B) They ceased to experiment with puromycin, and reexamined through
experiments the relationship between genetic information and
acquired information.
(C) The continued to experiment with puromycin, but applied their results
to other facets of memory research.
(D) They continued to experiment with puromycin, but also tried other
protein-synthesis inhibitors.
(E) They continued to experiment with puromycin until a new
neuroanatomical framework was developed.

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6. In the example of the car (paragraph 4), the battery is meant to represent
which of the following elements in the neurobehavioral research program?
(A) Puromycin
(B) Amnesia
(C) Glutarimides
(D) Protein synthesis
(E) Acquired information

7. Which of the following statements could be most likely to come after the last
sentence of the passage?
(A) The failures of the past, however, must not impede further research
into the amnestic action of protein-synthesis inhibitors.
(B) It is a legacy of this research, therefore, that molecular biologys
genetic models have led to disagreements among neurobehaviorists.
(C) The ambivalent status of current research, however, should not deter
neurobehaviorists from exploring the deeper connections between
protein production and learning.
(D) It is important in the future, therefore, for behavioral biochemists to
emphasize more strongly the place of their specific findings within the
overall protein-synthesis model of learning.
(E) It is important in the future, therefore, for behavioral biochemists to
focus on the several components of the total learning system.

Answer key: 1. D 2. E 3. C

4. A/B/C

5. A

6. D

7. E

All-Skills GRE Test 9

Theorists are divided concerning the origin of the Moon. Some hypothesize that the Moon was formed in the same way as
were the planets in the inner solar system (Mercury, Venus, Mars, and Earth)from planet-forming materials in the

252

presolar nebula. But, unlike the cores of the inner planets, the Moons core contains little or no iron, while the typical
planet-forming materials were quite rich in iron. Other theorists propose that the Moon was ripped out of the Earths rocky
mantle by the Earths collision with another large celestial body after much of the Earths iron fell to its core. One problem
with the collision hypothesis is the question of how a satellite formed in this way could have settled into the nearly circular
orbit that the Moon has today. Fortunately, the collision hypothesis is testable. If it is true, the mantlerocks of the Moon
and the Earth should be the same geochemically.

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to


(A) present two hypotheses concerning the origin of the Moon
(B) discuss the strengths and weaknesses of the collision hypothesis
concerning the origin of the Moon
(C) propose that hypotheses concerning the Moons origin be tested
(D) argue that the Moon could not have been formed out of the typical
planet-forming materials of the presolar nebula
(E) describe one reason why the Moons geochemical makeup should
resemble that of the Earth

For the following question, consider each of the choices


separately and select all that apply
2. According to the passage, Mars and the Earth are similar in which of the
following ways?
(A) Their satellites were formed by collisions with other celestial bodies.
(B) Their cores contain iron.
(C) They were formed from the presolar nebula.

3. The author implies that a nearly circular orbit is unlikely for a satellite
that
(A) circles one of the inner planets
(B) is deficient in iron
(C) is different from its planet geochemically
(D) was formed by a collision between two celestial bodies
(E) was formed out of the planet-forming materials in the presolar nebula

4. Which of the following, if true, would be most likely to make it difficult to

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verify the collision hypothesis in the manner suggested by the author?


(A) The Moons core and mantlerock are almost inactive geologically.
(B) The mantlerock of the Earth has changed in composition since the
formation of the Moon, while the mantlerock of the Moon has remained
chemically inert.
(C) Much of the Earths iron fell to the Earths core long before the
formation of the Moon, after which the Earths mantlerock remained
unchanged.
(D) Certain of the Earths elements, such as platinum, gold, and iridium,
followed iron to the Earths core.
(E) The mantlerock of the Moon contains elements such as platinum, gold,
and iridium.

Answer key: 1. A 2. B/C 3. D

4. B

All-Skills GRE Test 10

The extent of a nations power over its coastal ecosystems and the natural resources in its coastal waters has been
defined by two international law doctrines: freedom of the seas and adjacent state sovereignty. Until the mid-twentieth century,
most nations favored application of broad open-seas freedoms and limited sovereign rights over coastal waters. A nation had the
right to include within its territorial dominion only a very narrow band of coastal waters (generally extending three miles from
the shoreline), within which it had the authority but not the responsibility, to regulate all activities. But, because this area of
territorial dominion was so limited, most nations did not establish rules for management or protection of their territorial waters.
Regardless of whether or not nations enforced regulations in their territorial waters, large ocean areas remained free of
controls or restrictions. The citizens of all nations had the right to use these unrestricted ocean areas for any innocent purpose,
including navigation and fishing. Except for controls over its own citizens, no nation had the responsibility, let alone the
unilateral authority, to control such activities in international waters. And, since there were few standards of conduct that applied
on the open seas, there were few jurisdictional conflicts between nations.
The lack of standards is traceable to popular perceptions held before the middle of this century. By and large, marine
pollution was not perceived as a significant problem, in partbecause the adverse effect of coastal activities on ocean ecosystems
was not widely recognized, and pollution caused by human activities was generally believed to be limited to that caused by

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navigation. Moreover, the freedom to fish, or overfish, was an essential element of the traditional legal doctrine of freedom of the
seas that no maritime (of, relating to, or bordering on the sea a maritime province) country wished to see limited. And finally,
the technology that later allowed exploitation of other ocean resources, such as oil, did not yet exist.
To date, controlling pollution and regulating ocean resources have still not been comprehensively addressed by law,
but international lawestablished through the customs and practices of nationsdoes not preclude such efforts. And two recent
developments may actually lead to future international rules providing for ecosystem management. First, the establishment of
extensive fishery zones extending territorial authority as far as 200 miles out from a countrys coast, has provided the opportunity
for nations individually to manage larger ecosystems. This opportunity, combined with national self-interest in maintaining fish
populations, could lead nations to reevaluate policies for management of their fisheries and to address the problem of pollution in
territorial waters. Second, the international community is beginning to understand the importance of preserving the resources and
ecology of international waters and to show signs of accepting responsibility for doing so. As an international consensus
regarding the need for comprehensive management of ocean resources develops, it will become more likely that international
standards and policies for broader regulation of human activities that affect ocean ecosystems will be adopted and implemented.

1. According to the passage, until the mid-twentieth century there were few
jurisdictional disputes over international waters because.
(A) the nearest coastal nation regulated activities
(B) few controls or restrictions applied to ocean areas
(C) the ocean areas were used for only innocent purposes
(D) the freedom of the seas doctrine settled all claims concerning
navigation and fishing
(E) broad authority over international waters was shared equally among
all nations

2. According to the international law doctrines applicable before the midtwentieth century, if commercial activity within a particular nations
territorial waters threatened all marine life in those waters, the nation would
have been
(A) formally censured by an international organization for not properly
regulating marine activities
(B) called upon by other nations to establish rules to protect its territorial
waters
(C) able but not required to place legal limits on such commercial
activities

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(D) allowed to resolve the problem at it own discretion providing it could


contain the threat to its own territorial waters
(E) permitted to hold the commercial offenders liable only if they were
citizens of that particular nation

3. The author suggests that, before the mid-twentieth century, most nations
actions with respect to territorial and international waters indicated that
(A) managing ecosystems in either territorial or international waters was
given low priority
(B) unlimited resources in international waters resulted in little interest in
territorial waters
(C) nations considered it their responsibility to protect territorial but not
international waters
(D) a nations authority over its citizenry ended at territorial lines
(E) although nations could extend their territorial dominion beyond three
miles from their shoreline, most chose not to do so

4. The author cites which one of the following as an effect of the extension of
territorial waters beyond the three-mile limit?
(A) increased political pressure on individual nations to establish
comprehensive laws regulating ocean resources
(B) a greater number of jurisdictional disputes among nations over the
regulation of fishing on the open seas
(C) the opportunity for some nations to manage large ocean ecosystems
(D) a new awareness of the need to minimize pollution caused by
navigation
(E) a political incentive for smaller nations to solve the problems of
pollution in their coastal waters

5. According to the passage, before the middle of the twentieth century,


nations failed to establish rules protecting their territorial waters because
(A) the waters appeared to be unpolluted and to contain unlimited
resources
(B) the fishing industry would be adversely affected by such rules

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(C) the size of the area that would be subject to such rules was insignificant
(D) the technology needed for pollution control and resource management
did not exist
(E) there were few jurisdictional conflicts over nations territorial waters

6.

The passage as a whole can best be described as


(A) a chronology of the events that have led up to present-day crisis
(B) a legal inquiry into the abuse of existing laws and the likelihood of
reform
(C) a political analysis of the problems inherent in directing national
attention to an international issue
(D) a historical analysis of a problem that requires international attention
(E) a proposal for adopting and implementing international standards to
solve an ecological problem

Answer key: 1. B 2. C 3. A 4.C

5. C

6. D

All_Skills GRE Test 11

Many argue that recent developments in electronic technology such as computers and videotape have enabled artists to vary
their forms of expression. For example, video art can now achieve images whose effect is produced by digitalization: breaking
up the picture using computerized information processing. Such new technologies create new ways of seeing and hearing by
adding different dimensions to older forms, rather than replacing those forms. Consider Locale, a film about a modern dance
company. The camera operator wore a SteadicamTM, an uncomplicated device that allows a camera to be mounted on a person
so that the camera remains steady no matter how the operator moves. The SteadicamTM captures the dance in ways impossible
with traditional mounts. Such new equipment also allows for the preservation of previously unrecordable aspects of
performances, thus enriching archives.
By Contrast, others claim that technology subverts the artistic enterprise: that artistic efforts achieved with machines
preempt human creativity, rather than being inspired by it. The originality of musical performance, for example, might suffer, as
musicians would be deprived of the opportunity to spontaneously change pieces of music before live audiences. Some even
worry that technology will eliminate live performance altogether; performances will be recorded for home viewing, abolishing
the relationship between performer and audience. But these negative views assume both that technology poses an unprecedented

257

challenge to the arts and that we are not committed enough to the artistic enterprise to preserve the live performance, assumptions
that seem unnecessarily cynical. In fact, technology has traditionally assisted our capacity for creative expression and can refine
our notions of any give art form.
For example, the portable camera and the snapshot were developed at the same time as the rise of impressionist painting in
the nineteenth century. These photographic technologies encouraged a new appreciation. In addition, impressionist artists like
Degas studied the elements of light and movement captured by instantaneous photography and used their new understanding of
the way our perceptions distort reality to try to more accurately capture realty in their work. Since photos can capture the
moments of a movement, such as a hand partially raised in a gesture of greeting, Impressionist artists were inspired to paint
such moments in order to more effectively convey the quality of spontaneous human action. Photography freed artists from the
preconception that a subject should be painted in a static, artificial entirety, and inspired them to capture the random and
fragmentary qualities of our world. Finally, since photography preempted painting as the means of obtaining portraits, painters
had more freedom to vary their subject matter, thus giving rise to the abstract creations characteristic of modern art.

1. Which one of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the
passage?
(A) The progress of art relies primarily on technology.
(B) Technological innovation can be beneficial to art.
(C) There are risks associated with using technology to create art.
(D) Technology will transform the way the public responds to art.
(E) The relationship between art and technology has a lengthy history.

2. It can be inferred from the passage that the author shares which one of the
following opinions with the opponents of the use of new technology in art?
(A) The live performance is an important aspect of the artistic enterprise.
(B) The publics commitment to the artistic enterprise is questionable.
(C) Recent technological innovations present an entirely new sort of
challenge to art.
(D) Technological innovations of the past have been very useful to artists.
(E) The performing arts are especially vulnerable to technological
innovation.

3. Which one of the following, if true, would most undermine the position held
by opponents of the use of new technology in art concerning the effect of
technology on live performance?

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(A) Surveys show that when recordings of performances are made


available for home viewing, the public becomes far more
knowledgeable about different performing artists.
(B) Surveys show that some people feel comfortable responding
spontaneously to artistic performances when they are viewing
recordings of those performances at home.
(C) After a live performance, sales of recordings for home viewing of the
particular performing artist generally increase.
(D) The distribution of recordings of artists performances has begun to
attract many new audience members to their live performances.
(E) Musicians are less apt to make creative changes in musical pieces
during recorded performances than during live performances.

4. The author uses the example of the SteadicamTM primarily in order to


suggest that
(A) the filming of performances should not be limited by inadequate
equipment
(B) new technologies do not need to be very complex in order to benefit art
(C) the interaction of a traditional art form with a new technology will
change attitudes toward technology in general
(D) the replacement of a traditional technology with a new technology will
transform definitions of a traditional art form
(E) new technology does not so much preempt as enhance a traditional art
form

5. According to the passage, proponents of the use of new electronic technology


in the arts claim that which one of the following is true?
(A) Most people who reject the use of electronic technology in art forget
that machines require a person to operate them.
(B) Electronic technology allows for the expansion of archives because
longer performances can be recorded.
(C) Electronic technology assists artists in finding new ways to present
their material.
(D) Electronic technology makes the practice of any art form more efficient

259

by speeding up the creative process.


(E) Modern dance is the art form that will probably benefit most from the
use of electronic technology.

6. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would agree with which
one of the following statements regarding changes in painting since the
nineteenth century?
(A) The artistic experiments of the nineteenth century led painters to use
a variety of methods in creating portraits, which they then applied to
other subject matter.
(B) The nineteenth-century knowledge of light and movement provided by
photography inspired the abstract works characteristic of modern art.
(C) Once painters no longer felt that they had to paint conventional
portraits, they turned exclusively to abstract portraiture.
(D) Once painters were less limited to the impressionist style, they were
able to experiment with a variety of styles of abstract art.
(E) Once painters painted fewer conventional portraits, they had greater
opportunity to move beyond the literal depiction of objects.

Answer key: 1. B 2.A

3. D 4. E 5. C

6. E

All-Skills GRE Test 12

In 1977 the prestigious Ewha Womens University in Seoul, Korea, announced the opening of the first womens studies
program in Asia. Few academic programs have ever received such public attention. In broadcast debates, critics dismissed the
program as a betrayal of national identity, an imitation of Western ideas, and a distraction from the real task of national
unification and economic development. Even supporters underestimated the program; they thought it would be merely another of
the many Western ideas that had already proved useful in Asian culture, akin to airlines, electricity, and the assembly line. The
founders of the program, however, realized that neither view was correct. They had some reservations about the applicability of
Western feminist theories to the role of women in Asia and felt that such theories should be closely examined. Their approach has
thus far yielded important critiques of Western theory, informed by the special experience of Asian women.

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For instance, like the Western feminist critique of the Freudian model of the human psyche, the Korean critique finds
Freudian theory culture-bound, but in ways different from those cited by Western theorists. The Korean theorists claim that
Freudian theory assumes the universality of the Western nuclear, male-headed family and focuses on the personality formation of
the individual, independent of society. An analysis based on such assumptions could be valid for a highly competitive,
individualistic society. In the Freudian family drama, family members are assumed to be engaged in a Darwinian struggle against
each otherfather against son and sibling against sibling. Such a concept projects the competitive model of Western society onto
human personalities. But in the Asian concept of personality there is no ideal attached to individualism or to the independent self.
The Western model of personality development does not explain major characteristics of the Korean personality, which is social
and group-centered. The self is a social being defined by and acting in a group, and the well-being of both men and women is
determined by the equilibrium of the group, not by individual self-assertion. The ideal is one of interdependency.
In such a context, what is recognized as dependency in Western psychiatric terms is not, in Korean terms, an admission of
weakness or failure. All this bears directly on the Asian perception of mens and womens psychology because men are also
dependent. In Korean culture, men cry and otherwise easily show their emotions, something that might be considered a
betrayal of masculinity in Western culture. In the kinship-based society of Korea, four generations may live in the same house,
which means that people can be sons and daughters all their lives, whereas in Western culture, the roles of husband and son, wife
and daughter, are often incompatible.

1. Which of the following best summarizes the content of the passage?


(A) A critique of a particular womens studies program
(B) A report of work in social theory done by a particular womens studies
program
(C) An argument against womens studies programs in Asia
(D) An analysis of the philosophy underlying womens studies programs
(E) An abbreviated history of Korean womens studies programs

2. It can be inferred from the passage that Korean scholars in the field of
womens studies undertook an analysis of Freudian theory as a response
to which of the following?
(A) Attacks by critics of the Ewha womens studies program
(B) The superficiality of earlier critiques of Freudian theory
(C) The popularity of Freud in Korean psychiatric circles
(D) Their desire to encourage Korean scholars to adopt the Freudian model
(E) Their assessment of the relevance and limitations of Western feminist
theory with respect to Korean culture

261

3. Which of the following conclusions about the introduction of Western ideas


to Korean society can be supported by information contained in the passage?
(A) Except for technological innovations, few Western ideas have been
successfully transplanted into Korean society.
(B) The introduction of Western ideas to Korean society is viewed by some
Koreans as a challenge to Korean identity.
(C) The development of the Korean economy depends heavily on the
development of new academic programs modeled after Western
programs.
(D) The extent to which Western ideas must be adapted for acceptance by
Korean society is minimal.
(E) The introduction of Western ideas to Korean society accelerated after
1977.

4. It can be inferred from the passage that the broadcast media in Korea
considered the establishment of the Ewha womens studies program
(A) praiseworthy
(B) insignificant
(C) newsworthy
(D) imitative
(E) incomprehensible

5. It can be inferred from the passage that the position taken by some of the
supporters of the Ewha womens studies program was problematic to the
founders of the program because those supporters
(A) assumed that the program would be based on the uncritical adoption of
Western theory
(B) failed to show concern for the issues of national unification and
economic development
(C) were unfamiliar with Western feminist theory
(D) were not themselves scholars in the field of womens studies
(E) accepted the universality of Freudian theory

262

6. Which of the following statements is most consistent with the view of


personality development held by the Ewha womens studies group?
(A) Personality development occurs in identifiable stages, beginning with
dependency in childhood and ending with independence in adulthood.
(B) Any theory of personality development, in order to be valid, must be
universal.
(C) Personality development is influenced by the characteristics of the
society in which a person lives.
(D) Personality development is hindered if a person is not permitted to be
independent.
(E) No theory of personality development can account for the differences
between Korean and Western culture.

7. Which of the following statements about the Western feminist critique of


Freudian theory can be supported by information contained in the passage?
(A) It recognizes the influence of Western culture on Freudian theory.
(B) It was written after 1977.
(C) It acknowledges the universality of the nuclear, male-headed family.
(D) It challenges Freuds analysis of the role of daughters in Western
society.
(E) It fails to address the issue of competitiveness in Western society.

8. According to the passage, critics of the Ewha womens studies program cited
the program as a threat to which of the following?
I.

National identity

II.

National unification

III.

Economic development

IV.

Family integrity

(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I, II, and III only
(D) II, III, and IV only
(E) I, II, III, and IV

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Answer key: 1. B 2. E 3. B 4. C 5.A 6. C 7. A 8. C

All-Skills GRE Test 13

Quantum mechanics is a highly successful theory: it supplies methods for accurately calculating the results of diverse
experiments, especially with minute particles. The predictions of quantum mechanics, however, give only the probability of an
event, not a deterministic statement of whether or not the event will occur. Because of this probabilism, Einstein remained
strongly dissatisfied with the theory throughout his life, though he did not maintain that quantum mechanics is wrong. Rather, he
held that it is incomplete: in quantum mechanics the motion of a particle must be described in terms of probabilities, he argued,
only because some parameters that determine the motion have not been specified. If these hypothetical hidden parameters were
known, a fully deterministic trajectory could be defined. Significantly, this hidden-parameter quantum theory leads to
experimental predictions different from those of traditional quantum mechanics. Einsteins ideas have been tested by experiments
performed since his death, and as most of these experiments support traditional quantum mechanics, Einsteins approach is
almost certainly erroneous.

1. The author regards the idea that traditional quantum mechanics is


incomplete with
(A) approval
(B) surprise
(C) indifference
(D) apprehension
(E) skepticism

2. It can be inferred from the passage that the authors conclusion that
Einsteins approach is erroneous (line 13) might have to be modified
because
(A) it is theoretically possible to generate plausible theories with hidden
parameters within them
(B) some experimental tests of Einsteins theory do not disconfirm the
hidden-parameter theory of quantum mechanics
(C) it is possible for a theory to have hidden parameters and yet be
probabilistic

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(D) traditional quantum mechanics has not yet been used to analyze all of
the phenomena to which it could be applied
(E) there are too many possible hidden parameters to develop meaningful
tests of hidden-parameter theories

3. According to the passage, Einstein posed objections to the


(A) existence of hidden parameters in quantum theory
(B) probabilistic nature of quantum mechanics
(C) idea that quantum mechanics is incomplete
(D) results of experiments testing quantum theory
(E) importance accorded quantum mechanics in physics

4. The passage suggests that which of the following would have resulted if the
experiments mentioned in lines 11-12 had not supported the predictions of
traditional quantum mechanics?
(A) Einstein, had he been alive, would have revised his approach to
quantum mechanics.
(B) Hidden-parameter theories would have been considered inaccurate
descriptions of real-world phenomena.
(C) A deterministic description of the motion of a particle might still be
considered possible.
(D) Quantum mechanics would have ceased to attract the attention of
physicists.
(E) Einstein, had he been alive, would have abandoned attempts to specify
the hidden parameters that describe motion.

Answer key: 1. E 2. B 3. B 4. C

All-Skills GRE Test 14

The more that is discovered about the intricate organization of the nervous system, the more it seems remarkable that genes
can successfully specify the development of that system. Human genes contain too little information even to specify which

265

hemisphere of the brain each of a humans 1011neurons should occupy, let alone the hundreds of connections that each neuron
makes. For such reasons, we can assume that there must be an important random factor in neural development, and in particular,
that errors must and do occur in the development of all normal brains.
The most vivid expression of such errors occurs in genetically identical (isogenic) organisms. Even when reared under the same
conditions, isogenic organisms are rarely exact copies of one another, and their differences have revealed much about the random
variations that result from an organisms limited supply of genetic information. In isogenic Daphniae, for example, even though
the position, size, and branching pattern of each optic neuron are remarkably constant, there is some variability in connectivity,
and the number of synapses varies greatly. This variability is probably the result of random scatter beyond the resolution of
genetic control and is best termed imprecision, since its converse, the degree of clustering about a mean, is conventionally,
called precision.
Imprecision should be distinguished from developmental mistakes: wrongly migrated neurons, incorrect connections, and the
like. To use a computer analogy, minor rounding-off errors occur universally and are analogous to imprecision, but occasionally
a binary digit is incorrectly transmitted, perhaps ruining a calculation, and this incorrect transmission is analogous to a
developmental mistake. Thus, imprecision is a form of inaccuracy inherent within the limits of design, but mistakes are forms of
gross fallibility.
Both imprecision and gross fallibility can plausibly be blamed on the insufficiency of genetic information, since either could
be reduced by adding more information. It is universally accepted among information theorists that codes and languages can be
made mistake-resistant by incorporating redundancy. However, since the amount of space available in any information system is
limited, increased redundancy results in decreased precision. For example, when written incorrectly in English, three point oen
four two, can be understood correctly even though a typographical error has occurred. More precision could be gained, however,
if those 24 spaces were filled with Arabic numerals then could be expressed to 23 significant digits (one of the digits of a
number beginning with the digit farthest to the left that is not zero and ending with the last digit farthest to the right that is not
zero or is a zero considered to be exact called also significant figure), although any error would significantly change the meaning.
There exists a trade-off the more precisely a system is specified, using a given limited amount of information, the greater the
danger of gross mistakes. The overall scheme by which genetic information is rationed out in organisms, therefore, must involve
a compromise between two conflicting priorities: precision and the avoidance of gross mistakes.

1.

Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(A) Although studies of isogenic organisms have shown that all organisms
are subject to developmental variations, there is still scientific debate
over the exact causes of these variations.
(B) Because of limitations on the amount of information contained in the
genes of organisms, developing nervous systems are subject to two
basic kinds of error, the likelihood of one of which is reduced only when

266

the likelihood of the other is increased.


(C) The complexity of an organisms genetic information means that much
of the unusual variation that occurs among organisms can best be
explained as the result of developmental mistakes.
(D) New findings about the nature of the genetic control of neural
development support the work of some scientists who argue that the
computer is an extremely useful model for understanding the nervous
system.
(E) The major discovery made by scientists studying the genetic control of
neural development is that both imprecision and gross developmental
error can be traced to specific types of mutations in specific genes.

2. According to the passage, one of the reasons it has been assumed that there
is an important random element in human neural development is that
(A) genes cannot specify certain types of developmental processes as well
as they can others
(B) the intricacy of the nervous system allows small developmental errors
to occur without harmful effects
(C) the amount of information contained in the genes is less than the
amount necessary to specify the location of the neurons
(D) the number of neurons in the human brain varies greatly from
individual to individual
(E) it is theoretically impossible for an organism to protect itself
completely from gross developmental mistakes

3. The author suggests which of the following about the findings of


information theorists?
(A) Their findings provocatively challenge the standard explanation of
redundancy in genes.
(B) Their findings provide useful insights into understanding the rationing
of genetic information.
(C) Their findings help to explain why imprecision can occur in neural
development but not why gross mistakes can occur.
(D) Their findings suggest that genes may be able to specify neural

267

development more accurately than had previously been thought.


(E) Their findings support the work of those who use computer operations
as models for understanding genetic control.

4. According to the passage, of the following aspects of the optic neurons of


isogenic Daphniae, which varies the most?
(A) Size
(B) Connectivity
(C) Position
(D) Branching pattern
(E) Number of synapses

5. Which of the following best describes the organization of the first


paragraph?
(A) A specific case is presented, its details are analyzed, and a conclusion is
drawn from it.
(B) A discovery is announced, its most significant application is discussed,
and possibilities for the future are suggested.
(C) A generalization is made, specific situations in which it is applicable
are noted, and problems with it are suggested.
(D) An observation is made, specifics are provided to support it, and a
generalization is derived.
(E) A hypothesis is presented, its implications are clarified, and
applications of it are discussed.

For the following question consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.
6. The author uses all of the following to clarify the distinction between
imprecision and gross mistake in neural development EXCEPT
(A) classification of borderline phenomena
(B) a description of the relationship between the phenomena denoted by
each term
(C) specific examples of the phenomena denoted by each term

7. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the genetic

268

information of Daphniae?
For the following question consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.
(A) There is probably some degree of redundancy in the information
controlling neural development.
(B) Most of the information for neural development stored in the genes is
used to specify the positions of the optic neurons.
(C) There is sufficient information to preclude the occurrence of gross
mistakes during neural development.

Answer key: 1. B 2. C

3.B 4. E

5. D

6. A

7. A

All-Skills GRE Test 15

All of Francoise Duparcs surviving paintings blend portraiture and genre. Her subjects appear to be acquaintances whom she has
asked to pose; she has captured both their self-consciousness and the spontaneity of their everyday activities, the depiction of
which characterizes genre painting. But genre painting, especially when it portrayed members of the humblest classes, was never
popular in eighteenth-century France. The Le Nain brothers and Georges de La Tour, who also chose such themes, were largely
ignored. Their present high standing is due to a different, more democratic political climate and to different aesthetic values: we
no longer require artists to provide ideal images of humanity for our moral edification but rather regard such idealization as a
falsification of the truth. Duparc gives no improving message and discreetly refrains from judging her subjects. In brief, her
works neither elevate nor instruct. This restraint largely explains her lack of popular success during her lifetime, even if her talent
did not go completely unrecognized by her eighteenth-century French contemporaries.

1. According to the passage, modern viewers are not likely to value which of the
following qualities in a painting?
(A) The technical elements of the painting
(B) The spontaneity of the painting
(C) The moral lesson imparted by the painting
(D) The degree to which the painting realistically depicts its subject
(E) The degree to which the artists personality is revealed in the painting

269

2. If the history of Duparcs artistic reputation were to follow that of the Le Nain
brothers and Georges de La Tour, present-day assessments of her work would be
likely to contain which of the following?
(A) An evaluation that accords high status to her work
(B) Acknowledgement of her technical expertise but dismissal of her subject matter
as trivial
(C) Agreement with assessments made in her own time but acknowledgements of the
exceptional quality of a few of her paintings
(D) Placement of her among the foremost artists of her century
(E) A reclassification of her work as portraiture rather than genre painting

3. It can be inferred from the passage that the term genre painting would most
likely apply to which of the following?
(A) A painting depicting a glorious moment of victory following a battle
(B) A painting illustrating a narrative from the Bible
(C) A portrayal of a mythological Greek goddess
(D) A portrayal of a servant engaged in his work
(E) A formal portrait of an eighteenth-century king

4. The argument of the passage best supports which of the following contentions
concerning judgments of artistic work?
(A) Aesthetic judgments can be influenced by the political beliefs of those making
the judgment.
(B) Judgments of the value of an artists work made by his or her contemporaries
must be discounted before a true judgment can be made.
(C) Modern aesthetic taste is once again moving in the direction of regarding
idealistic painting as the most desirable form of painting.
(D) In order to be highly regarded, an artist cannot be solely identified with one
particular kind of painting.
(E) Spontaneity is the most valuable quality a portrait painter can have.

Answer key: 1. C 2.A 3.D 4. A

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All-Skills GRE Test 16

It is well known that biological changes at the molecular level have morphogenetic consequences, consequences affecting the
formation and differentiation of tissues and organs. It is superfluous to point out that gene mutations and disturbances of the biosynthetic processes in the embryo may result in abnormalities in the morphology (structure) of an organism. However, whereas
much is known about causes and consequences at the molecular level, and in spite of an enormous accumulation of chemical and
morphological data on embryos of various kinds, our understanding of how genes control morphogenesis is still far from
complete. Perhaps one reason for this is that molecular biologists and morphologists speak different languages. Whereas the
former speak about messenger-RNA and conformational changes of protein molecules, the latter speak of ectoderms, hypoblasts,
and neural crests.
One solution to this predicament is to try to find some phenomena relevant to morphogenesis which both the molecular
biologist and the morphologist can understand and discuss. As morphogenesis must be basically the result of changes in behavior
of the individual cells, it seems logical to ask morphologists to describe the morphogenetic events observed in terms of changes
in cellular contact, changes in the rate of proliferation of cells, or similar phenomena. Once this is done, it may be appropriate to
ask questions about the molecular background for these changes. One may, for instance, ask whether variations in cell contact
reflect alterations in the populations of molecules at the cell surface, or one may inquire about the molecular basis for the
increased cell mobility involved in cell dispersion.
Studies of this kind have been carried out with cells released from tissues in various ways and then allowed to reveal their
behavior after being spread out into a thin layer. In many cases, such cells show the ability to reaggregate, after which different
cell types may sort themselves out into different layers and even take part in still more intricate morphogenetic events. But in
most cases, the behavior of cells in the intact embryo is difficult to study because of the thickness and opacity of the cell masses.
The sea urchin embryo, however, has the advantage that it is so transparent that each cell can be easily observed throughout
development. Thus, by recording the development of a sea urchin embryo with time-lapse photography, the research scientist
might discover previously unknown features of cellular behavior. Perhaps the study of the sea urchin in this manner can provide a
medium by which the molecular biologist and the morphologist can begin communicating with each other more effectively about
the way in which genes control morphogenesis.

1.

The authors primary purpose is to


(A) outline a procedure and discuss possible applications
(B) evaluate an experiment in terms of its applicability to medical
research
(C) propose a method for curing specific genetic disorders
(D) explain a problem and suggest a solution for it

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(E) reveal the shortcomings of several attitudes toward genetic research

2.

The author states that research into the genetic control of morphogenesis
has been impeded by
(A) an incomplete understanding of biomolecular reactions that are
highly complex
(B) a lack of communication between scientists whose work could be
complementary
(C) a reluctance on the part of morphologists to share data with molecular
biologists
(D) a lack of research in the area of morphology
(E) the unavailability of suitable research equipment

3. The phrase the latter in paragraph about (line 9) refers to ------------.


(A) languages
(B) morphologists
(C) molecular biologist
(D) ectoderms, hypoblasts, and neural crests
(E) conformational changes of protein molecules

4.

The major objective of the authors proposal is to


(A) devise a technique for proving that abnormalities in morphology
result from gene mutations
(B) improve the procedures for organizing chemical and morphological
data
(C) increase the accuracy of measurements of cell populations and cell
mobility
(D) reduce the margin of error in the study of conformational changes of
protein molecules
(E) provide a plan for increasing knowledge about the influence of genes on
morphogenesis

5.

It can be inferred from the passage that some cells that have been isolated
from an organism have the ability to

272

(A) control morphogenesis


(B) reform to make higher organisms
(C) reorganize to form clusters of cells
(D) regulate the transmission of light through the cell wall
(E) regulate the rate of tissue formation

For the following question consider each of the choices separately


and select all that apply.
6.

It can be inferred from the passage that the study of the effects of genes on
morphogenesis is best accomplished by observing
(A) intact developing embryos
(B) isolated living cells
(C) a sea urchin in its initial stage of development

7.

According to the passage, it is difficult to study cells in most intact embryos


because
(A) morphogenetic events cannot be isolated
(B) embryos die quickly
(C) embryos are difficult to obtain
(D) individual cells reaggregate too quickly
(E) individual cells are difficult to see

8.

Which of the following sequences best describes the authors suggestion for
future research on morphogenesis?
(A) Accumulation of data, simplification of language, explanation of
morphogenesis
(B) Dispersion of cells, evaluation of cell activity, development of an
explanatory hypothesis
(C) Classification of cell types, separation of cell, observation of cell
activity
(D) Observation of cell development, description of cell behavior,
explanation at the molecular level
(E) Differentiation of cell types, description of cell structure, analysis of
molecular components

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9.

The tone of the authors discussion of the difference in the language used by
morphologists and that used by molecular biologists is one of
(A) indifference
(B) neutrality
(C) derision
(D) approbation
(E) indignation

Answer key: 1. D 2. B

3. B

4. E

5. C

6. A/C

7. E

8. D

9. B

All-Skills GRE Test 17

The making of classifications by literary historians can be a somewhat risky enterprise. When Black poets are discussed
separately as a group, for instance, the extent to which their work reflects the development of poetry in general should not be
forgotten, or a distortion of literary history may result. This caution is particularly relevant in an assessment of the differences
between Black poets at the turn of the century (1900-1909) and those of the generation of the 1920s. These differences include
the bolder and more forthright speech of the later generation and its technical inventiveness. It should be remembered, though,
that comparable differences also existed for similar generations of White poets.
When poets of the 1910s and 1920s are considered together, however, the distinctions that literary historians might make
between conservative and experimental would be of little significance in a discussion of Black poets, although these remain
helpful classifications for White poets of these decades. Certainly differences can be noted between conservative Black poets
such as Counter Cullen and Claude McKay and experimental ones such as Jean Toomer and Langston Hughes. But Black poets
were not battling over old or new styles; rather, one accomplished Black poet was ready to welcome another, whatever his or her
style, for what mattered was racial pride.
However, in the 1920s Black poets did debate whether they should deal with specifically racial subjects. They asked whether
they should only write about Black experience for a Black audience or whether such demands were restrictive. It may be said,
though, that virtually all these poets wrote their best poems when they spoke out of racial feeling, race being, as James Weldon
Johnson rightly put it, perforce the thing the Negro poet knows best.
At the turn of the century, by contrast, most Black poets generally wrote in the conventional manner of the age and expressed
noble, if vague, emotions in their poetry. These poets were not unusually gifted, though Roscoe Jamison and G. M. McClellen
may be mentioned as exceptions. They chose not to write in dialect, which, as Sterling Brown has suggested, meant a rejection

274

of stereotypes of Negro life, and they refused to write only about racial subjects. This refusal had both a positive and a negative
consequence. As Brown observes, Valuably insisting that Negro poets should not be confined to issues of race, these poets
committed [an] error they refused to look into their hearts and write. These are important insights, but one must stress that this
refusal to look within was also typical of most White poets of the United States at the time. They, too, often turned from their
own experience and consequently produced not very memorable poems about vague topics, such as the peace of nature.

1. According to the passage, most turn-of-the-century Black poets generally did


which of the following?
(A) Wrote in ways that did not challenge accepted literary practice.
(B) Described scenes from their own lives.
(C) Aroused patriotic feelings by expressing devotion to the land.
(D) Expressed complex feelings in the words of ordinary people.
(E) Interpreted the frustrations of Blacks to an audience of Whites.

2. According to the passage, an issue facing Black poets in the 1920s was
whether they should
(A) seek a consensus on new techniques of poetry
(B) write exclusively about and for Blacks
(C) withdraw their support from a repressive society
(D) turn away from social questions to recollect the tranquility of nature
(E) identify themselves with an international movement of Black writers

3. It can be inferred from the passage that classifying a poet as either


conservative or experimental would be of little significance (paragraph 2)
when discussing Black poets of the 1910s and the 1920s because
(A) these poets wrote in very similar styles
(B) these poets all wrote about nature in the same way
(C) these poets were fundamentally united by a sense of racial
achievement despite differences in poetic style
(D) such a method of classification would fail to take account of the
influence of general poetic practice
(E) such a method of classification would be relevant only in a discussion of
poets separated in time by more than three decades

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4. The author quotes Sterling Brown inparagraph 4 in order to


(A) present an interpretation of some black poets that contradicts the
authors own assertion about their acceptance of various poetic styles
(B) introduce a distinction between Black poets who used dialect and White
poets who did not
(C) disprove James Weldon Johnsons claim that race is what the Negro
poet knows best
(D) suggest what were the effects of some Black poets decision not to write
only about racial subjects
(E) prove that Black poets at the turn of the century wrote less
conventionally than did their White counterparts

5. It can be inferred from the passage that the author finds the work of the
majority of the Black poets at the turn of the century to be
(A) unexciting
(B) calming
(C) confusing
(D) delightful
(E) inspiring

6. The author would be most likely to agree that poets tend to produce better
poems when they
(A) express a love of nature
(B) declaim noble emotions
(C) avoid technical questions about style
(D) emulate the best work of their predecessors
(E) write from personal experience

7. Which of the following best describes the attitude of the author toward
classification as a technique in literary history?
(A) Enthusiastic
(B) Indifferent
(C) Wary
(D) Derisive

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(E) Defensive

Answer key: 1. A 2. B

3. C

4D

5. A

6. E

7. C

All-Skills GRE Test 18

As the works of dozens of women writers have been rescued from what E.P. Thompson calls "the enormous condescension
of posterity," and considered in relation to each other, the lost continent of the female tradition has risen like Atlantis from the sea
of English literature. It is now becoming clear that, contrary to Mill's theory, women have had a literature of their own all along.
The woman novelist, according to Vineta Colby was "really neither single nor anomalous," but she was also more than a "register
and spokesman for her age." She was part of a tradition that had its origins before her age, and has carried on through her own.
Many literary historians have begun to reinterpret and revise the study of women writers. Ellen Moers sees women's literature
as an international movement, "apart from, but hardly subordinate to the mainstream: an undercurrent, rapid and powerful. This
'movement' began in the late eighteenth century, was multinational, and produced some of the greatest literary works of two
centuries, as well as most of the lucrative potboilers." Patricia Meyer Spacks, in The Female Imagination, finds that "for readily
discernible historical reasons women have characteristically concerned themselves with matters more or less peripheral to male
concerns, or at least slightly skewed from them. The differences between traditional female preoccupations and roles and male
ones make a difference in female writing." Many other critics are beginning to agree that when we look at women writers
collectively we can see an imaginative continuum, the recurrence of certain patterns, themes, problems, and images from
generation to generation.

1. In the second paragraph of the passage the author's aptitude toward the literary
critics cited can best be described as one of
(A) irony
(B) ambivalence
(C) disparagement
(D) receptiveness
(E) awe

For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all
that apply

277

2. The passage supplies information for answering which of the following questions?
(A) Does the author believe the female literary tradition to be richer in depth than
its masculine counterpart?
(B) Which literary historian maintains that the female literary tradition transcends
national boundaries?
(C) Did Mill acknowledge the existence of a separate female literary tradition?

3. In the first paragraph, the author makes use of all the following techniques
EXCEPT
(A) extended metaphor
(B) enumeration and classification
(C) classical allusion
(D) direct quotation
(E) comparison and contrast

Answer key: 1. D 2. B/C

3. B

All-Skills GRE Test 19

Recently some scientists have concluded that meteorites found on Earth and long believed to have a Martian origin might
actually have been blasted free of Marss gravity by the impact on Mars of other meteorites. This conclusion has led to another
question: whether meteorite impacts on Earth have similarly driven rocks from this planet to Mars.
According to astronomer S. A. Phinney, kicking a rock hard enough to free it from Earths gravity would require a meteorite
capable of making a crater more than 60 miles across. Moreover, even if Earth rocks were freed by meteorite impact, Marss orbit
is much larger than Earths, so Phinney estimates that the probability of these rocks hitting Mars is about one-tenth as great as
that of Marss rocks hitting Earth. To demonstrate this estimate, Phinney used a computer to calculate where 1,000 hypothetical
particles would go if ejected from Earth in random directions. He found that 17 of the 1,000 particles would hit Mars.

1.

The passage is primarily concerned with

278

(A) presenting an argument to support a particular hypothesis


(B) suggesting an answer to a theoretical question
(C) questioning the assumptions of a research project
(D) criticizing experimental results
(E) explaining the origin of certain scientific data

2. According to the passage, which of the following events may have initiated
the process that led to the presence on Earth of meteorites from Mars?
(A) A meteorite struck the Earth with tremendous velocity.
(B) A meteorite collided with Mars.
(C) Approximately 1,000 rocks were ejected from Mars.
(D) The orbits of Earth and Mars brought the planets to their closest points.
(E) Rocks from a meteorite impact broke free of Earths gravity.

3. The passage suggests that which of the following is true concerning the
probability that a rock, if ejected from Mars, will hit the Earth?
(A) The probability is increased when particles are ejected from Mars in
random directions.
(B) The probability is increased by the presence of large craters on the
surface of Mars.
(C) The probability is decreased when Marss orbit brings the planet close
to Earth.
(D) The probability is greater than the probability that a rock from Earth
will hit Mars.
(E) The probability is less than the probability that a rock from Earth will
escape Earths gravity.

4. Which of the following, if true, would cast most doubt on Phinneys estimate
of the probability of Earth rocks hitting Mars?
(A) Rather than going in random directions, about 25 percent of all
particles ejected from Earth go in the same direction into space.
(B) Approximately 100 meteorites large enough to make a noticeable
crater hit the Earth each year.
(C) No rocks of Earth origin have been detected on Mars.

279

(D) The velocity of rocks escaping from Earths gravity is lower than the
velocity of meteorites hitting the Earth.
(E) No craters more than 60 miles across have been found on Mars.

Answer key: 1. B 2. B 3. D
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All-Skills GRE Test 20

Initially the Vinaver theory that Malorys eight romances, once thought to be fundamentally unified, were in fact eight
independent works produced both a sense of relief and an unpleasant shock. Vinavers theory comfortably explained away the
apparent contradictions of chronology and made each romance independently satisfying. It was, however, disagreeable to find
that what had been thought of as one book was now eight books. Part of this response was the natural reaction to the disturbance
of set ideas. Nevertheless, even now, after lengthy consideration of the theorys refined but legitimate observations, one cannot
avoid the conclusion that the eight romances are only one work. It is not quite a matter of disagreeing with the theory of

280

independence, but of rejecting its implications: that the romances may be taken in any or no particular order, that they have no
cumulative effect, and that they are as separate as the works of a modern novelist.

1.

The primary purpose of the passage is to


(A) discuss the validity of a hypothesis
(B) summarize a system of general principles
(C) propose guidelines for future argument
(D) stipulate conditions for acceptance of an interpretation
(E) deny accusations about an apparent contradiction

For the following question consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.
2. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes which of the following
about Malorys works?
A. There are meaningful links between and among the romances.
B. The subtleties of the romances are obscured when they are taken as one work.
C. Any contradictions in chronology among the romances are less important than their overall unity.

3. The author of the passage concedes which of the following about the Vinaver
theory?
(A) It gives a clearer understanding of the unity of Malorys romances.
(B) It demonstrates the irrationality of considering Malorys romances to be
unified.
(C) It establishes acceptable links between Malorys romances and modern novels.
(D) It unifies earlier and later theories concerning the chronology of Malorys
romances.
(E) It makes valid and subtle comments about Malorys romances.

4. It can be inferred from the passage that, in evaluating the Vinaver theory, some
critics were
(A) frequently misled by the inconsistencies in Malorys work
(B) initially biased by previous interpretations of Malorys work
(C) conceptually displeased by the general interpretation that Vinaver rejected
(D) generally in agreement with Vinavers comparisons between Malory and
modern novelists

281

(E) originally skeptical about Vinavers early conclusions with respect to modern
novels

Answer key: 1.A 2. A/C

3. E 4. B

All-Skills GRE Test 21

All of the cells in a particular plant start out with the same complement of genes. How then can these cells differentiate and
form structures as different as roots, stems, leaves, and fruits? The answer is that only a small subset of the genes in a particular
kind of cell are expressed, or turned on, at a given time. This is accomplished by a complex system of chemical messengers that
in plants include hormones and other regulatory molecules. Five major hormones have been identified: auxin, abscisic acid ,
cytokinin, ethylene, and gibberellin. Studies of plants have now identified a new class of regulatory molecules called
oligosaccharins.
Unlike the oligosaccharins, the five well-known plant hormones are pleiotropic rather than specific; that is, each has more
than one effect on the growth and development of plants. The five has so many simultaneous effects that they are not very useful
in artificially controlling the growth of crops. Auxin, for instance, stimulates the rate of cell elongation, causes shoots to grow up
and roots to grow down, and inhibits the growth of lateral shoots. Auxin also causes the plant to develop a vascular system, to
form lateral roots, and to produce ethylene.
The pleiotropy of the five well-studied plant hormones is somewhat analogous to that of certain hormones in animal. For
example, hormones from the hypothalamus in the brain stimulate the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland to synthesize and release
many different hormones, one of which stimulates the release of hormones from the adrenal cortex . These hormones have
specific effects on target organs all over the body. One hormone stimulates the thyroid gland, for example, another the ovarian
follicle cells, and so forth. In other words, there is a hierarchy of hormones. Such a hierarchy may also exist in plants.
Oligosaccharins are fragments of the cell wall released by enzymes: different enzymes release different oligosaccharins. There
are indications that pleiotropic plant hormones may actually function by activating the enzymes that release these other, more
specific chemical messengers from the cell wall.

1. According to the passage, the five well-known plant hormones are not useful in
controlling the growth of crops because
(A) it is not known exactly what functions the hormones perform
(B) each hormone has various effects on plants
(C) none of the hormones can function without the others

282

(D) each hormone has different effects on different kinds of plants


(E) each hormone works on only a small subset of a cells genes at any particular
time

2. The passage suggests that the place of hypothalamic hormones in the hormonal
hierarchies of animals is similar to the place of which of the following in plants?
(A) Plant cell walls
(B) The complement of genes in each plant cell
(C) A subset of a plant cells gene complement
(D) The five major hormones
(E) The oligosaccharins

3. The passage suggests that which of the following is a function likely to be performed
by an oligosaccharin?
(A) To stimulate a particular plant cell to become part of a plants root system
(B) To stimulate the walls of a particular cell to produce other oligosaccharins
(C) To activate enzymes that release specific chemical messengers from plant cell
walls
(D) To duplicate the gene complement in a particular plant cell
(E) To produce multiple effects on a particular subsystem of plant cells

4. The author mentions specific effects that auxin has on plant development in order to
illustrate the
(A) point that some of the effects of plant hormones can be harmful
(B) way in which hormones are produced by plants
(C) hierarchical nature of the functioning of plant hormones
(D) differences among the best-known plant hormones
(E) concept of pleiotropy as it is exhibited by plant hormones

5. According to the passage, which of the following best describes a function performed
by oligosaccharins?
(A) Regulating the daily functioning of a plants cells
(B) Interacting with one another to produce different chemicals
(C) Releasing specific chemical messengers from a plants cell walls

283

(D) Producing the hormones that cause plant cells to differentiate to perform
different functions
(E) Influencing the development of a plants cells by controlling the expression of
the cells genes

6. The passage suggests that, unlike the pleiotropic hormones, oligosaccharins could be
used effectively to
(A) trace the passage of chemicals through the walls of cells
(B) pinpoint functions of other plant hormones
(C) artificially control specific aspects of the development of crops
(D) alter the complement of genes in the cells of plants
(E) alter the effects of the five major hormones on plant development

7.

The author discusses animal hormones primarily in order to


(A) introduce the idea of a hierarchy of hormones
(B) explain the effects that auxin has on plant cells
(C) contrast the functioning of plant hormones and animals hormones
(D) illustrate the way in which particular hormones affect animals
(E) explain the distinction between hormones and regulatory molecules

Answer key: 1. B 2. D

3. A 4. E 5. E

6. C

7. A

All-Skills GRE Test 22

Whether the languages of the ancient American peoples were used for expressing abstract universal concepts can be clearly
answered in the case of Nahuatl. Nahuatl, like Greek and German, is a language that allows the formation of extensive
compounds. By the combination of radicals or semantic elements, single compound words can express complex conceptual
relations, often of an abstract universal character.
The tlamatinime (those who know) were able to use this rich stock of abstract terms to express the nuances of their thought.
They also availed themselves of other forms of expression with metaphorical meaning, some probably original, some derived
from Toltec coinages. Of these forms the most characteristic in Nahuatl is the juxtaposition of two words that, because they are
synonyms, associated terms, or even contraries, complement each other to evoke one single idea. Used as metaphor, the

284

juxtaposed terms connote specific or essential traits of the being they refer to, introducing a mode of poetry as an almost habitual
form of expression.

1.

A main purpose of the passage is to


(A) delineate the function of the tlamatinime in Nahuatl society
(B) explain the abstract philosophy of the Nahuatl thinkers
(C) argue against a theory of poetic expression by citing evidence about the
Nahuatl
(D) explore the rich metaphorical heritage the Nahuatl received from the Toltecs
(E) describe some conceptual and aesthetic resources of the Nahuatl language

2.

According to the passage, some abstract universal ideas can be expressed in Nahuatl
by
(A) taking away from a word any reference to particular instances
(B) removing a word from its associations with other words
(C) giving a word a new and opposite meaning
(D) putting various meaningful elements together in one word
(E) turning each word of a phrase into a poetic metaphor

For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and
select all that apply
3.

It can be inferred solely from the information in the passage EXCEPT that
(A) all abstract universal ideas are ideas of complex relations
(B) some record or evidence of the thought of the tlamatinime exists
(C) metaphors are always used in Nahuatl to express abstract conceptual
relationships

Answer key: 1. E 2. D 3. C

All-Skills GRE Test 23

285

While there is no blueprint (a detailed plan or program of action a blueprint for victory) for transforming a largely
government-controlled economy into a free one, the experience of the United Kingdom since 1979 clearly shows one approach
that works: privatization, in which state-owned industries are sold to private companies. By 1979, the total borrowings and losses
of state-owned industries were running at about 3 billion a year. By selling many of these industries, the government has
decreased these borrowings and losses, gained over 34 billion from the sales, and now receives tax revenues from the newly
privatized companies. Along with a dramatically improved overall economy, the government has been able to repay 12.5 percent
of the net national debt over a two-year period.
In fact, privatization has not only rescued individual industries and a whole economy headed for disaster, but has also raised
the level of performance in every area. At British Airways and British Gas, for example, productivity per employee has risen by
20 percent. At Associated British Ports, labor disruptions common in the 1970s and early 1980s have now virtually
disappeared. At British Telecom, there is no longer a waiting listas there always was before privatizationto have a telephone
installed.
Part of this improved productivity has come about because the employees of privatized industries were given the
opportunity to buy shares in their own companies. They responded enthusiastically to the offer of shares; at British Aerospace, 89
percent of the eligible work force bought shares; at Associated British Ports, 90 percent; and at British Telecom, 92 percent.
When people have a personal stake in something, they think about it, care about it, work to make it prosper. At the National
Freight Consortium, the new employee-owners grew so concerned about their companys profits that during wage negotiations
they actually pressed their union to lower its wage demands.
Some economists have suggested that giving away free shares would provide a needed acceleration of the privatization
process. Yet they miss Thomas Paines point that what we obtain too cheap we esteem too lightly. In order for the far-ranging
benefits of individual ownership to be achieved by owners, companies, and countries, employees and other individuals must
make their own decisions to buy, and they must commit some of their own resources to the choice.

For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply
1. According to the passage, which of the following was/were benefits of privatizing
state-owned industries in the United Kingdom?
(A) Privatized industries paid taxes to the government.
(B) The government repaid some of its national debt.
(C) Profits from industries that were still state-owned increased.

2. According to the passage, which of the following resulted in increased productivity


in companies that have been privatized?
(A) A large number of employees chose to purchase shares in their companies.
(B) Free shares were widely distributed to individual shareholders.

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(C) The government ceased to regulate major industries.


(D) Unions conducted wage negotiations for employees.
(E) Employee-owners agreed to have their wages lowered.

3.

It can be inferred from the passage that the author considers labor disruptions to be
(A) an inevitable problem in a weak national economy
(B) a positive sign of employee concern about a company
(C) a predictor of employee reactions to a companys offer to sell shares to them
(D) a phenomenon found more often in state-owned industries than in private
companies
(E) a deterrence to high performance levels in an industry

4. The passage supports which of the following statements about employees buying
shares in their own companies?
(A) At three different companies, approximately nine out of ten of the workers
were eligible to buy shares in their companies.
(B) Approximately 90% of the eligible workers at three different companies chose
to buy shares in their companies.
(C) The opportunity to buy shares was discouraged by at least some labor unions.
(D) Companies that demonstrated the highest productivity were the first to allow
their employees the opportunity to buy shares.
(E) Eligibility to buy shares was contingent on employees agreeing to increased
work loads.

5. Which of the following statements is most consistent with the principle described in
paragraph 3?
(A) A democratic government that decides it is inappropriate to own a particular
industry has in no way abdicated its responsibilities as guardian of the public
interest.
(B) The ideal way for a government to protect employee interests is to force
companies to maintain their share of a competitive market without
government subsidies.
(C) The failure to harness the power of self-interest is an important reason that
state-owned industries perform poorly.

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(D) Governments that want to implement privatization programs must try to


eliminate all resistance to the free-market system.
(E) The individual shareholder will reap only a minute share of the gains from
whatever sacrifices he or she makes to achieve these gains.

6.

The quotation in paragraph 4 is most probably used to


(A) counter a position that the author of the passage believes is incorrect
(B) state a solution to a problem described in the previous sentence
(C) show how opponents of the viewpoint of the author of the passage have
supported their arguments
(D) point out a paradox contained in a controversial viewpoint
(E) present a historical maxim to challenge the principle introduced in the third
paragraph

Answer key: 1. A/B 2. A

3. E 4. B 5. C 6. A

ll-Skills GRE Test 24

Although the development of new infrastructure (such public facilities as power plants, schools, and bridges) is usually
determined by governmental planning, sometimes this development can be planned more flexibly and realistically by private
investors who anticipate profit from the collection of user fees. Such profits can contribute to the financing of more infrastructure
if demand proves great enough, whereas the reluctance of developers to invest in such projects can signal that additional
infrastructure is not needed. During the economic boom of the 1980s, for example, the state of Virginia authorized private
developers to build a $300 million toll road . These developers obtained the needed right-of-way from property owners, but by
1993 they still had not raised the necessary financing. The unwillingness of investors to finance this project does not negate the
viability of privately financed roads; rather, it illustrates a virtue of private financing. If a road appears unlikely to attract enough
future traffic to pay for the road, then it should not be built.

1.

The primary purpose of the passage is to


(A) build a case for increasing the development of new infrastructure
(B) advocate an alternative to government financing of infrastructure
(C) explain the failure of a privately financed venture

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(D) suggest the types of infrastructure most appropriate for private financing
(E) argue against government restrictions on developing new infrastructure

2. The passage implies that the governmental planning mentioned in line 2 may
lead to which of the following problems?
(A) Improper use of profits derived from user fees
(B) Unduly slow development of necessary new infrastructure
(C) Unrealistic decisions about developing new infrastructure
(D) Incorrect predictions about profits to be gained from user fees
(E) Obstruction of private financing for the development of new infrastructure

3. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the toll road mentioned in
line 8?
(A) After it was built, it attracted too little traffic to pay for its construction.
(B) It was partially financed by the state of Virginia.
(C) Its development was authorized during an economic boom.
(D) Its construction was controversial among local residents.
(E) Its developers were discouraged by governmental restrictions on acquiring the
necessary land.

4. The passage suggests that which of the following would occur if a privately financed
bridge that proved to be profitable failed after a number of years to meet the demands
of traffic?
(A) Private developers who financed the bridge would rely on governmental
authorities to develop new infrastructure.
(B) User fees would be increased so that usage would become more costly.
(C) Governmental authorities would be reluctant to rely on private contractors to
develop a new bridge.
(D) The success of the project would be jeopardized by public dissatisfaction with
the projects adequacy.
(E) Profits generated by user fees would be used to help finance the construction of
new infrastructure to alleviate the traffic problem.

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Answer key: 1. B 2. C 3. C 4. E

All-Skills GRE Test 25

Excess inventory, a massive problem for many businesses, has several causes, some of which are unavoidable. Overstocks
may accumulate through production overruns or errors. Certain styles and colors prove unpopular. With some products
computers and software, toys, and bookslast years models are difficult to move even at huge discounts. Occasionally the
competition introduces a better product. But in many cases the publics buying tastes simply change, leaving a manufacturer or
distributor with thousands (or millions) of items that the fickle public no longer wants.
One common way to dispose of this merchandise is to sell it to a liquidator, who buys as cheaply as possible and then resells
the merchandise through catalogs, discount stores, and other outlets .However, liquidators may pay less for the merchandise than
it cost to make it. Another way to dispose of excess inventory is to dump it. The corporation takes a straight cost write-off on its
taxes and hauls the merchandise to a landfill. Although it is hard to believe, there is a sort of convoluted logic to this approach. It
is perfectly legal, requires little time or preparation on the companys part, and solves the problem quickly. The drawback is the
remote possibility of getting caught by the news media. Dumping perfectly useful products can turn into a public relations
nightmare. Children living in poverty are freezing and XYZ Company has just sent 500 new snowsuits to the local dump. Parents
of young children are barely getting by and QRS Company dumps 1,000 cases of disposable diapers because they have slight
imperfections.
The managers of these companies are not deliberately wasteful; they are simply unaware of all their alternatives. In 1976 the
Internal Revenue Service provided a tangible incentive for businesses to contribute their products to charity. The new tax law
allowed corporations to deduct the cost of the product donated plus half the difference between cost and fair market selling price,
with the proviso that deductions cannot exceed twice cost. Thus, the federal government sanctionsindeed, encouragesan
above-cost federal tax deduction for companies that donate inventory to charity.

For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and
select all that apply
1. Which of the following does the author mentions each as a cause of excess inventory?
(A) production of too much merchandise
(B) inaccurate forecasting of buyers preferences
(C) unrealistic pricing policies

2. The passage provides information that supports which of the following statements?
(A) Excess inventory results most often from insufficient market analysis by the

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manufacturer.
(B) Products with slight manufacturing defects may contribute to excess
inventory.
(C) Few manufacturers have taken advantage of the changes in the federal tax
laws.
(D) Manufacturers who dump their excess inventory are often caught and exposed
by the news media.
(E) Most products available in discount stores have come from manufacturers
excess-inventory stock.

3. The author cites the examples in paragraph 2 most probably in order to illustrate
(A) the fiscal irresponsibility of dumping as a policy for dealing with excess
inventory
(B) the waste-management problems that dumping new products creates
(C) the advantages to the manufacturer of dumping as a policy
(D) alternatives to dumping explored by different companies
(E) how the news media could portray dumping to the detriment of the
manufacturers reputation

4. By asserting that manufacturers are simply unaware (paragraph 3), the author
suggests which of the following?
(A) Manufacturers might donate excess inventory to charity rather than dump it
if they knew about the provision in the federal tax code.
(B) The federal government has failed to provide sufficient encouragement to
manufacturers to make use of advantageous tax policies.
(C) Manufacturers who choose to dump excess inventory are not aware of the
possible effects on their reputation of media coverage of such dumping.
(D) The manufacturers of products disposed of by dumping are unaware of the
needs of those people who would find the products useful.
(E) The manufacturers who dump their excess inventory are not familiar with the
employment of liquidators to dispose of overstock.

5. The information in the passage suggests that which of the following, if true, would
make donating excess inventory to charity less attractive to manufacturers than

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dumping?
(A) The costs of getting the inventory to the charitable destination are greater
than the above-cost tax deduction.
(B) The news media give manufacturers charitable contributions the same
amount of coverage that they give dumping.
(C) No straight-cost tax benefit can be claimed for items that are dumped.
(D) The fair-market value of an item in excess inventory is 5 times its cost.
(E) Items end up as excess inventory because of a change in the publics
preferences.

6. Information in the passage suggests that one reason manufacturers might take
advantage of the tax provision mentioned in the last paragraph is that
(A) there are many kinds of products that cannot be legally dumped in a landfill
(B) liquidators often refuse to handle products with slight imperfections
(C) the law allows a deduction in excess of the cost of manufacturing the product
(D) media coverage of contributions of excess-inventory products to charity is
widespread and favorable
(E) no tax deduction is available for products dumped or sold to a liquidator

Answer key: 1. A/B

2. B

3. E

4. A

5.A

6. C

All-Skills GRE Test 26

Geologists Harris and Gass hypothesized that the Red Sea rift developed along the line of a suture (a splice in the Earths
crust) formed during the late Proterozoic era, and that significant observable differences in the composition of the upper layers of
rocks deposited on either side of the suture give clues to the different natures of the underlying igneous rocks.
Other geologists argued that neither the upper rock layer nor the underlying igneous rocks on the one side of the rift differ
fundamentally from the corresponding layers on the other side. These geologists believe, therefore, that there is inadequate
evidence to conclude that a suture underlies the rift.

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In response, Harris and Gass asserted that the upper rock layers on the two sides of the rift had not been shown to be of
similar age, structure, or geochemical content. Furthermore, they cited new evidence that the underlying igneous rocks on either
side of the rift contain significantly different kinds of rare metals.

1. Part of the Harris and Gass hypothesis about the Red Sea rift would be weakened if it
could be demonstrated that the composition of upper rock layers
(A) cannot cause a suture to develop
(B) has no effect on where a suture will occur
(C) cannot provide information about the nature of underlying rocks
(D) is similar on the two sides of a rift unless a suture divides the two sides
(E) is usually different from the composition of underlying rocks

2. It can be inferred from the passage that the Other geologists (line 5) would be most
likely to agree with which of the following statements?
(A) Similar geological features along both sides of a possible suture imply the
existence of that suture.
(B) Sutures can be discovered only where they are not obscured by superimposed
geological features.
(C) The composition of igneous rocks permits prediction of the likelihood of a rift
developing through them.
(D) It is possible to date igneous rocks by carefully studying the different kinds of
rare metals contained in them and by observing their similarity to the layer of
rock that lies above them.
(E) The existence of rock layers on one side of a rift that are similar in composition
to rock layers on the other side suggests that no suture exists between the two
sides.

3. It can be inferred from the passage that Harris and Gass have done which of the
following?
(A) Drawn detailed diagrams of the Red Sea rift.
(B) Based their conclusions on the way in which sutures develop in the Earths
crust.
(C) Rejected other geologists objections to their hypothesis about the Red Sea rift.
(D) Suggested that the presence of rare metals in rocks indicates an underlying

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suture.
(E) Asserted that rifts usually occur along the lines of sutures.

4. According to the passage, Harris and Gass have mentioned all of the following
properties of rocks along the Red Sea rift EXCEPT:
(A) age of the upper layers of rock
(B) structure of the upper layers of rocks
(C) geochemical content of the upper layers of rocks
(D) metallic content of the underlying igneous rocks
(E) age of the underlying igneous rocks

Answer key: 1. C 2. E 3. C 4. E

All-Skills GRE Test 27

Since the late 1970s, in the face of a severe loss of market share in dozens of industries, manufacturers in the United States
have been trying to improve productivityand therefore enhance their international competitivenessthrough cost-cutting
programs. (Cost-cutting here is defined as raising labor output while holding the amount of labor constant.) However, from 1978
through 1982, productivitythe value of goods manufactured divided by the amount of labor inputdid not improve; and while
the results were better in the business upturn of the three years following, they ran 25 percent lower than productivity
improvements during earlier, post-1945 upturns. At the same time, it became clear that the harder manufactures worked to
implement cost-cutting, the more they lost their competitive edge.
With this paradox in mind, I recently visited 25 companies; it became clear to me that the cost-cutting approach to
increasing productivity is fundamentally flawed. Manufacturing regularly observes a 40, 40, 20 rule. Roughly 40 percent of
any manufacturing-based competitive advantage derives from long-term changes in manufacturing structure (decisions about the
number, size, location, and capacity of facilities) and in approaches to materials. Another 40 percent comes from major changes
in equipment and process technology. The final 20 percent rests on implementing conventional cost-cutting. This rule does not
imply that cost-cutting should not be tried. The well-known tools of this approachincluding simplifying jobs and retraining
employees to work smarter, not harderdo produce results. But the tools quickly reach the limits of what they can contribute.
Another problem is that the cost-cutting approach hinders innovation and discourages creative people. As Abernathys study
of automobile manufacturers has shown, an industry can easily become prisoner of its own investments in cost-cutting

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techniques, reducing its ability to develop new products. And managers under pressure to maximize cost-cutting will resist
innovation because they know that more fundamental changes in processes or systems will wreak havoc with the results on which
they are measured. Production managers have always seen their job as one of minimizing costs and maximizing output. This
dimension of performance has until recently sufficed as a basis of evaluation, but it has created a penny-pinching, mechanistic
culture in most factories that has kept away creative managers.
Every company I know that has freed itself from the paradox has done so, in part, by developing and implementing a
manufacturing strategy. Such a strategy focuses on the manufacturing structure and on equipment and process technology. In one
company a manufacturing strategy that allowed different areas of the factory to specialize in different markets replaced the
conventional cost-cutting approach; within three years the company regained its competitive advantage. Together with such
strategies, successful companies are also encouraging managers to focus on a wider set of objectives besides cutting costs. There
is hope for manufacturing, but it clearly rests on a different way of managing.

1. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with


(A) summarizing a thesis
(B) recommending a different approach
(C) comparing points of view
(D) making a series of predictions
(E) describing a number of paradoxes

2. It can be inferred from the passage that the manufacturers mentioned in line 2
expected that the measures they implemented would
(A) encourage innovation
(B) keep labor output constant
(C) increase their competitive advantage
(D) permit business upturns to be more easily predicted
(E) cause managers to focus on a wider set of objectives

3.

The primary function of the first paragraph of the passage is to


(A) outline in brief the authors argument
(B) anticipate challenges to the prescriptions that follow
(C) clarify some disputed definitions of economic terms
(D) summarize a number of long-accepted explanations
(E) present a historical context for the authors observations

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4. The author refers to Abernathys study (paragraph 3) most probably in order to


(A) qualify an observation about one rule governing manufacturing
(B) address possible objections to a recommendation about improving
manufacturing competitiveness
(C) support an earlier assertion about one method of increasing productivity
(D) suggest the centrality in the United States economy of a particular
manufacturing industry
(E) given an example of research that has questioned the wisdom of revising a
manufacturing strategy

5. The authors attitude toward the culture in most factories is best described as
(A) cautious
(B) critical
(C) disinterested
(D) respectful
(E) adulatory

For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and
select all that apply
6. Which of the following does the author mention in the passage?
(A) personal observation
(B) a definition of productivity
(C) an example of a successful company

7. The author suggests that implementing conventional cost-cutting as a way of


increasing manufacturing competitiveness is a strategy that is
(A) flawed and ruinous
(B) shortsighted and difficult to sustain
(C) popular and easily accomplished
(D) useful but inadequate
(E) misunderstood but promising

Answer key: 1. B 2. C 3. E 4. C

5. B 6. A/B/C

7. D

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All-Skills GRE Test 28

Because of its accuracy in outlining the Earths subsurface, the seismic-reflection method remains the most important tool in the
search for petroleum reserves. In field practice, a subsurface is mapped by arranging a series of wave-train sources, such as small
dynamite explosions, in a grid pattern. As each source is activated, it generates a wave train that moves downward at a speed
determined uniquely by the rocks elastic characteristics. As rock interfaces are crossed, the elastic characteristics encountered
generally change abruptly, which causes part of the energy to be reflected back to the surface, where it is recorded by seismic
instruments. The seismic records must be processed to correct for positional differences between the source and the receiver, for
unrelated wave trains, and for multiple reflections from the rock interfaces. Then the data acquired at each of the specific source
locations are combined to generate a physical profile of the subsurface, which can eventually be used to select targets for drilling.

1.

The passage is primarily concerned with


(A) describing an important technique
(B) discussing a new method
(C) investigating a controversial procedure
(D) announcing a significant discovery
(E) promoting a novel application

2. According to the passage, in the seismic-reflection method all of the following have a
significant effect on the signal detected by the seismic instruments EXCEPT the
(A) presence of unrelated wave trains
(B) placement of the seismic instruments
(C) number of sources in the grid pattern
(D) nature of the reflectivity of the rock interfaces
(E) properties of rocks through which the wave train has traveled

3. It can be inferred from the passage that the seismic-reflection method would be likely
to yield an inaccurate physical profile of the subsurface in which of the following
circumstances?
(A) If the speed at which the wave train moved downward changed
(B) If the receiver were not positioned directly at the wave-train source
(C) If the rock on one side of a rock interface had similar elastic characteristics to
those of the rock on the other side

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(D) If the seismic records obtained for the different sources in a grid were highly
similar to each other
(E) If there were no petroleum deposits beneath the area defined by the grid of
wave-train sources

4.

Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?


(A) A method is criticized, and an alternative is suggested.
(B) An illustration is examined, and some errors are exposed.
(C) An assertion is made, and a procedure is outlined.
(D) A series of examples is presented, and a conclusion is drawn.
(E) A hypothesis is advanced, and supporting evidence is supplied.

Answer key: 1. A 2. C

3. C 4. C

All-Skills GRE Test 29

Virtually everything astronomers known about objects outside the solar system is based on the detection of photonsquanta
of electromagnetic radiation. Yet there is another form of radiation that permeates the universe: neutrinos. With (as its name
implies) no electric charge, and negligible mass, the neutrino interacts with other particles so rarely that a neutrino can cross the
entire universe, even traversing substantial aggregations of matter, without being absorbed or even deflected. Neutrinos can thus
escape from regions of space where light and other kinds of electromagnetic radiation are blocked by matter. Furthermore,
neutrinos carry with them information about the site and circumstances of their production: therefore, the detection of cosmic
neutrinos could provide new information about a wide variety of cosmic phenomena and about the history of the universe.
But how can scientists detect a particle that interacts so infrequently with other matter? Twenty-five years passed between
Paulis hypothesis that the neutrino existed and its actual detection: since then virtually all research with neutrinos has been with
neutrinos created artificially in large particle accelerators and studied under neutrino microscopes. But a neutrino telescope,
capable of detecting cosmic neutrinos, is difficult to construct. No apparatus can detect neutrinos unless it is extremely massive,
because great mass is synonymous with huge numbers of nucleons (neutrons and protons), and the more massive the detector, the
greater the probability of one of its nucleons reacting with a neutrino. In addition, the apparatus must be sufficiently shielded
from the interfering effects of other particles.
Fortunately, a group of astrophysicists has proposed a means of detecting cosmic neutrinos by harnessing the mass of the
ocean. Named DUMAND, for Deep Underwater Muon and Neutrino Detector, the project calls for placing an array of light

298

sensors at a depth of five kilometers under the ocean surface. The detecting medium is the seawater itself: when a neutrino
interacts with a particle in an atom of seawater, the result is a cascade of electrically charged particles and a flash of light that can
be detected by the sensors. The five kilometers of seawater above the sensors will shield them from the interfering effects of
other high-energy particles raining down through the atmosphere.
The strongest motivation for the DUMAND project is that it will exploit an important source of information about the
universe. The extension of astronomy from visible light to radio waves to x-rays and gamma rays never failed to lead to the
discovery of unusual objects such as radio galaxies, quasars, and pulsars. Each of these discoveries came as a surprise. Neutrino
astronomy will doubtless bring its own share of surprises.

1.

Which of the following titles best summarizes the passage as a whole?


(A) At the Threshold of Neutrino Astronomy
(B) Neutrinos and the History of the Universe
(C) The Creation and Study of Neutrinos
(D) The DUMAND System and How It Works
(E) The Properties of the Neutrino

2. With which of the following statements regarding neutrino astronomy would the
author be most likely to agree?
(A) Neutrino astronomy will supersede all present forms of astronomy.
(B) Neutrino astronomy will be abandoned if the DUMAND project fails.
(C) Neutrino astronomy can be expected to lead to major breakthroughs in
astronomy.
(D) Neutrino astronomy will disclose phenomena that will be more surprising
than past discoveries.
(E) Neutrino astronomy will always be characterized by a large time lag between
hypothesis and experimental confirmation.

3. In the last paragraph, the author describes the development of astronomy in order
to
(A) suggest that the potential findings of neutrino astronomy can be seen as part of
a series of astronomical successes
(B) illustrate the role of surprise in scientific discovery
(C) demonstrate the effectiveness of the DUMAND apparatus in detecting
neutrinos

299

(D) name some cosmic phenomena that neutrino astronomy will illuminate
(E) contrast the motivation of earlier astronomers with that of the astrophysicists
working on the DUMAND project

4. According to the passage, one advantage that neutrinos have for studies in
astronomy is that they
(A) have been detected for the last twenty-five years
(B) possess a variable electric charge
(C) are usually extremely massive
(D) carry information about their history with them
(E) are very similar to other electromagnetic particles

5. According to the passage, the primary use of the apparatus mentioned in paragraph
2 would be to
(A) increase the mass of a neutrino
(B) interpret the information neutrinos carry with them
(C) study the internal structure of a neutrino
(D) see neutrinos in distant regions of space
(E) detect the presence of cosmic neutrinos

6.

The passage states that interactions between neutrinos and other matter are
(A) rare
(B) artificial
(C) undetectable
(D) unpredictable
(E) hazardous

7. The passage mentions which of the following as a reason that neutrinos are hard to
detect?
(A) Their pervasiveness in the universe
(B) Their ability to escape from different regions of space
(C) Their inability to penetrate dense matter
(D) The similarity of their structure to that of nucleons
(E) The infrequency of their interaction with other matter

300

8. According to the passage, the interaction of a neutrino with other matter can
produce
(A) particles that are neutral and massive
(B) a form of radiation that permeates the universe
(C) inaccurate information about the site and circumstances of the neutrinos
production
(D) charged particles and light
(E) a situation in which light and other forms of electromagnetic radiation are
blocked

9. According to the passage, one of the methods used to establish the properties of
neutrinos was
(A) detection of photons
(B) observation of the interaction of neutrinos with gamma rays
(C) observation of neutrinos that were artificially created
(D) measurement of neutrinos that interacted with particles of seawater
(E) experiments with electromagnetic radiation

Answer key: 1. A 2. C 3. A 4. D

5. E

6. A 7. E

8. D

9. C

All-Skills GRE Test 30

Some observers have attributed the dramatic growth in temporary employment that occurred in the United States during the
1980s to increased participation in the workforce by certain groups, such as first-time or reentering workers, who supposedly
prefer such arrangements. However, statistical analyses reveal that demographic changes in the workforce did not correlate with
variations in the total number of temporary workers. Instead, these analyses suggest that factors affecting employers account for
the rise in temporary employment. One factor is product demand: temporary employment is favored by employers who are
adapting to fluctuating demand for products while at the same time seeking to reduce overall labor costs. Another factor is labors
reduced bargaining strength, which allows employers more control over the terms of employment. Given the analyses, which
reveal that growth in temporary employment now far exceeds the level explainable by recent workforce entry rates of groups said

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to prefer temporary jobs, firms should be discouraged from creating excessive numbers of temporary positions. Government
policymakers should consider mandating benefit coverage for temporary employees, promoting pay equity between temporary
and permanent workers, assisting labor unions in organizing temporary workers, and encouraging firms to assign temporary jobs
primarily to employees who explicitly indicate that preference.

1.

The primary purpose of the passage is to


(A) present the results of statistical analyses and propose further studies.
(B) explain a recent development and predict its eventual consequences.
(C) identify the reasons for a trend and recommend measures to address it.
(D) outline several theories about a phenomenon and advocate one of them.
(E) describe the potential consequences of implementing a new policy and argue in
favor of that policy.

2.

According to the passage, which of the following is true of the factors affecting
employers that are mentioned in line 6?
(A) Most experts cite them as having initiated the growth in temporary
employment that occurred during the 1980s.
(B) They may account for the increase in the total number of temporary workers
during the 1980s.
(C) They were less important than demographic change in accounting for the
increase of temporary employment during the 1980s.
(D) They included a sharp increase in the cost of labor during the 1980s.
(E) They are more difficult to account for than at other factors involved in the
growth of temporary employment during the 1980s.

3.

The passage suggests which of the following about the use of temporary
employment by firms during the 1980s?
(A) It enabled firms to deal with fluctuating product demand far more efficiently
than they before the 1980s.
(B) It increased as a result of increased participation in the workforce by certain
demography groups.
(C) It was discouraged by government-mandated policies.
(D) It was a response to preferences indicated by certain employees for more
flexible working arrangements.

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(E) It increased partly as a result of workers reduced ability to control the terms of
their employment.

4.

The passage suggests which of the following about the workers who took temporary
jobs during the 1980s?
(A) Their jobs frequently led to permanent positions within firms.
(B) They constituted a less demographically diverse group than has been
suggested.
(C) They were occasionally involved in actions organized by labor unions.
(D) Their pay declined during the decade in comparison with the pay of
permanent employees.
(E) They did not necessarily prefer temporary employment to permanent
employment.

5.

In the context of the passage, the word excessive (line 13) most closely corresponds
to which of the following phrases?
(A) Far more than can be justified by worker preferences.
(B) Far more than can be explained by fluctuations in product demand.
(C) Far more than can be beneficial to the success of the firms themselves.
(D) Far more than can be accounted for by an expanding national economy.
(E) Far more than can be attributed to increases in the total number of people in
the workforce.

For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and
select all that apply
6.

Which of the each of the following does the passage mention as an appropriate kind
of governmental action?
(A) Getting firms to offer temporary employment primarily to a certain group of
people
(B) Encouraging equitable pay for temporary and permanent employees
(C) Facilitating the organization of temporary workers by labor unions

Answer key: 1. C 2. B 3. E

4. E

5. A

6. B,C

303

All-Skills GRE Test 31

Two recent publications offer different assessment of the career of the famous British nurse Florence Nightingale. A book by
Anne Summers seeks to debunk the idealizations and present a reality at odds with Nightingales heroic reputation. According to
Summers, Nightingales importance during the Crimean War has been exaggerated: not until near the wars end did she become
supervisor of the female nurses. Additionally, Summers writes that the contribution of the nurses to the relief of the wounded was
at best marginal. The prevailing problems of military medicine were caused by army organizational practices, and the addition of
a few nurses to the medical staff could be no more than symbolic. Nightingales place in the national pantheon, Summers asserts,
is largely due to the propagandistic efforts of contemporary newspaper reporters.
By contrast, the editors of a new volume of Nightingales letters view Nightingale as a person who significantly influenced
not only her own age but also subsequent generations. They highlight her ongoing efforts to reform sanitary conditions after the
war. For example, when she learned that peacetime living conditions in British barracks were so horrible that the death rate of
enlisted men far exceeded that of neighboring civilian populations, she succeeded in persuading the government to establish a
Royal Commission on the Health of the Army. She used sums raised through public contributions to found a nurses training
hospital in London. Even in administrative matters, the editors assert, her practical intelligence was formidable: as recently as
1947 the British Armys medical services were still using the cost-accounting system she had devised in the 1860s.
I believe that the evidence of her letters supports continued respect for Nightingales brilliance and creativity. When
counseling a village schoolmaster to encourage children to use their faculties of observation, she sounds like a modern educator.
Her insistence on classifying the problems of the needy in order to devise appropriate treatments is similar to the approach of
modern social workers. In sum, although Nightingale may not have achieved all of her goals during the Crimean War, her
breadth of vision and ability to realize ambitious projects have earned her an eminent place among the ranks of social pioneers.

1. The passage is primarily concerned with evaluating


(A) the importance of Florence Nightingales innovations in the field of nursing
(B) contrasting approaches to the writing of historical biography
(C) contradictory accounts of Florence Nightingales historical significance
(D) the quality of health care in nineteenth-century England
(E) the effect of the Crimean War on developments in the field of health care

2. According to the passage, the editors of Nightingales letters credit her with contributing
to which of the following?
(A) Improving of the survival rate for soldiers in British Army hospitals during the Crimean
War

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(B) The development of a nurses training curriculum that was far in advance of its day
(C) The increase in the number of women doctors practicing in British Army hospitals
(D) Establishment of the first facility for training nurses at a major British university
(E) The creation of an organization for monitoring the peacetime living conditions of British
soldiers

3. The passage suggests which of the following about Nightingales relationship with the
British public of her day?
(A) She was highly respected, her projects receiving popular and governmental support.
(B) She encountered resistance both from the army establishment and the general public.
(C) She was supported by the working classes and opposed by the wealthier classes.
(D) She was supported by the military establishment but had to fight the governmental
bureaucracy.
(E) After initially being received with enthusiasm, she was quickly forgotten.

4. The passage suggests which of the following about sanitary conditions in Britain after the
Crimean War?
(A) While not ideal, they were superior to those in other parts of the world.
(B) Compared with conditions before the war, they had deteriorated.
(C) They were more advanced in rural areas than in the urban centers.
(D) They were worse in military camps than in the neighboring civilian populations.
(E) They were uniformly crude and unsatisfactory throughout England.

5. Which of the following statements regarding the differing interpretations of Nightingales


importance would the author most likely agree?
(A) Summers misunderstood both the importance of Nightingales achievements during the
Crimean War and her subsequent influence on British policy.
(B) The editors of Nightingales letters made some valid points about her practical
achievements, but they still exaggerated her influence on subsequent generations.
(C) Although Summers account of Nightingales role in the Crimean War may be accurate,
she ignored evidence of Nightingales subsequent achievement that suggests that her
reputation as an eminent social reformer is well deserved.
(D) The editors of Nightingales letters mistakenly propagated the outdated idealization of
Nightingale that only impedes attempts to arrive at a balance assessment of her true

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role.
(E) The evidence of Nightingales letters supports Summers conclusions both about
Nightingales activities and about her influence.

6. Which of the following is an assumption underlying the authors assessment of


Nightingales creativity?
(A) Educational philosophy in Nightingales day did not normally emphasize developing
childrens ability to observe.
(B) Nightingale was the first to notice the poor living conditions in British military barracks
in peacetime.
(C) No educator before Nightingale had thought to enlist the help of village schoolmasters in
introducing new teaching techniques.
(D) Until Nightingale began her work, there was no concept of organized help for the needy in
nineteenth-century Britain.
(E) The British Armys medical services had no cost-accounting system until Nightingale
devised one in the 1860s.

7. In the last paragraph, the author is primarily concerned with


(A) summarizing the arguments about Nightingale presented in the first two paragraphs
(B) refuting the view of Nightingales career presented in the preceding paragraph
(C) analyzing the weaknesses of the evidence presented elsewhere in the passage
(D) citing evidence to support a view of Nightingales career
(E) correcting a factual error occurring in one of the works under review

Answer key: 1. C

2. E

3. A

4. D

5. C

6. A

7. D

All-Skills GRE Test 32

Echolocating bats emit sounds in patternscharacteristic of each speciesthat contain both frequency-modulated (FM) and
constant-frequency (CF) signals. The broadband FM signals and the narrowband CF signals travel out to a target, reflect from it,

306

and return to the hunting bat. In this process of transmission and reflection, the sounds are changed, and the changes in the echoes
enable the bat to perceive features of the target.
The FM signals report information about target characteristics that modify the timing and the fine frequency structure, or
spectrum, of echoesfor example, the targets size, shape, texture, surface structure, and direction in space. Because of their
narrow bandwidth, CF signals portray only the targets presence and, in the case of some bat species, its motion relative to the
bats. Responding to changes in the CF echos frequency, bats of some species correct in flight for the direction and velocity of
their moving prey.

1. According to the passage, the information provided to the bat by CF echoes differs from
that provided by FM echoes in which of the following ways?
(A) Only CF echoes alert the bat to moving targets.
(B) Only CF echoes identify the range of widely spaced targets.
(C) Only CF echoes report the targets presence to the bat.
(D) In some species, CF echoes enable the bat to judge whether it is closing in on its target.
(E) In some species, CF echoes enable the bat to discriminate the size of its target and the
direction in which the target is moving.

2. According to the passage, the configuration of the target is reported to the echolocating bat
by changes in the
(A) echo spectrum of CF signals
(B) echo spectrum of FM signals
(C) direction and velocity of the FM echoes
(D) delay between transmission and reflection of the CF signals
(E) relative frequencies of the FM and the CF echoes

3. The author presents the information concerning bat sonar in a manner that could be best
described as
(A) argumentative
(B) commendatory
(C) critical
(D) disbelieving
(E) objective

4. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?

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(A) A fact is stated, a process is outlined, and specific details of the process are described.
(B) A fact is stated, and examples suggesting that a distinction needs correction are
considered.
(C) A fact is stated, a theory is presented to explain that fact, and additional facts are
introduced to validate the theory.
(D) A fact is stated, and two theories are compared in light of their explanations of this fact.
(E) A fact is stated, a process is described, and examples of still another process are illustrated
in detail.

Answer key: 1. D 2. B

3. E

4. A

All-Skills GRE Test 33

Eight percent of the Earths crust is aluminum, and there are hundreds of aluminum-bearing minerals and vast quantities of the
rocks that contain them. The best aluminum ore is bauxite, defined as aggregates of aluminous minerals, more or less impure, in
which aluminum is present as hydrated oxides. Bauxite is the richest of all those aluminous rocks that occur in large quantities,
and it yields alumina, the intermediate product required for the production of aluminum. Alumina also occurs naturally as the
mineral corundum, but corundum is not found in large deposits of high purity, and therefore it is an impractical source for
making aluminum. Most of the many abundant nonbauxite aluminous minerals are silicates, and, like all silicate minerals, they
are refractory, resistant to analysis, and extremely difficult to process. The aluminum silicates are therefore generally unsuitable
alternatives to bauxite because considerably more energy is required to extract alumina from them.

1. The author implies that a mineral must either be or readily supply which of the following
in order to be classified as an aluminum ore?
(A) An aggregate
(B) Bauxite
(C) Alumina
(D) Corundum
(E) An aluminum silicate

2. The passage supplies information for answering all of the following questions regarding
aluminous minerals EXCEPT:

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(A) What percentage of the aluminum in the Earths crust is in the form of bauxite?
(B) Are aluminum-bearing nonbauxite minerals plentiful?
(C) Do the aluminous minerals found in bauxite contain hydrated oxides?
(D) Are aluminous hydrated oxides found in rocks?
(E) Do large quantities of bauxite exist?

3. The author implies that corundum would be used to produce aluminum if


(A) corundum could be found that is not contaminated by silicates
(B) the production of alumina could be eliminated as an intermediate step in manufacturing
aluminum
(C) many large deposits of very high quality corundum were to be discovered
(D) new technologies were to make it possible to convert corundum to a silicate
(E) manufacturers were to realize that the worlds supply of bauxite is not unlimited

Answer key: 1. C 2. A

3. C

All-Skills GRE Test 34

Upwards of a billion stars in our galaxy have burnt up their internal energy sources, and so can no longer produce the heat a
star needs to oppose the inward force of gravity. These stars, of more than a few solar masses, evolve, in general, much more
rapidly than does a star like the Sun. Moreover, it is just these more massive stars whose collapse does not halt at intermediate
stages (that is, as white dwarfs or neutron stars). Instead, the collapse continues until a singularity (an infinitely dense
concentration of matter) is reached.
It would be wonderful to observe a singularity and obtain direct evidence of the undoubtedly bizarre phenomena that occur
near one. Unfortunately in most cases a distant observer cannot see the singularity; outgoing light rays are dragged back by
gravity so forcefully that even if they could start out within a few kilometers of the singularity, they would end up in the
singularity itself.

1. The authors primary purpose in the passage is to


(A) describe the formation and nature of singularities
(B) explain why large numbers of stars become singularities

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(C) compare the characteristics of singularities with those of stars


(D) explain what happens during the stages of a singularitys formation
(E) imply that singularities could be more easily studied if observers could get closer to them

2. The passage suggests which of the following about the Sun?


I.

The Sun could evolve to a stage of collapse that is less dense than a singularity.

II.

In the Sun, the inward force of gravity is balanced by the generation of heat.

III.

The Sun emits more observable light than does a white dwarf or a neutron star.

(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

3. Which of the following sentences would most probably follow the last sentence of the
passage?
(A) Thus, a physicist interested in studying phenomena near singularities would necessarily
hope to find a singularity with a measurable gravitational field.
(B) Accordingly, physicists to date have been unable to observe directly any singularity.
(C) It is specifically this startling phenomenon that has allowed us to codify the scant
information currently available about singularities.
(D) Moreover, the existence of this extraordinary phenomenon is implied in the extensive
reports of several physicists.
(E) Although unanticipated, phenomena such as these are consistent with the structure of a
singularity.

Answer key: 1. A

2. C

3. B

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 1

310

Contrary to the charges made by some of its opponents, the provisions of the new deficit-reduction law for indiscriminate cuts in
the federal budget are justified. Opponents should remember that the New Deal pulled this country out of great economic troubles
even though some of its programs were later found to be unconstitutional.
1. The authors method of attacking the charges of certain opponents of the
new deficit-reduction law is to
(A) attack the character of the opponents rather than their claim
(B) imply an analogy between the law and some New Deal programs
(C) point out that the opponents claims imply a dilemma
(D) show that the opponents reasoning leads to an absurd conclusion
(E) show that the New Deal also called for indiscriminate cuts in the federal budget

Kernland imposes a high tariff on the export of unprocessed cashew nuts in order to ensure that the nuts are sold to domestic
processing plants. If the tariff were lifted and unprocessed cashews were sold at world market prices, more farmers could profit
by growing cashews. However, since all the processing plants are in urban areas, removing the tariff would seriously hamper the
governments effort to reduce urban unemployment over the next five years.
2. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?
(A) Some of the by-products of processing cashews are used for manufacturing paints
and plastics.
(B) Other countries in which cashews are processed subsidize their processing plants.
(C) More people in Kernland are engaged in farming cashews than in processing
them.
(D) Buying unprocessed cashews at lower than world market prices enables cashew
processors in Kernland to sell processed nuts at competitive prices.
(E) A lack of profitable crops is driving an increasing number of small farmers in
Kernland off their land and into the cities.

A sudden increase in the production of elephant ivory artifacts on the Mediterranean coast of North Africa occurred in the tenth
century. Historians explain this increase as the result of an area opening up as a new source of ivory and argue on this basis that
the important medieval trade between North Africa and East Africa began at this period.
3. Each of following, if true, provides some support for the historians

311

account described above EXCEPT:


(A) In East Africa gold coins from Mediterranean North Africa have been found at a
tenth-century site but at no earlier sites.
(B) The many surviving letters of pre-tenth-century North African merchants
include no mention of business transactions involving East Africa.
(C) Excavations in East Africa reveal a tenth-century change in architectural style
to reflect North African patterns.
(D) Documents from Mediterranean Europe and North Africa that date back earlier
than the tenth century show knowledge of East African animals.
(E) East African carvings in a style characteristic of the tenth century depict
seagoing vessels very different from those used by local sailors but of a type
common in the Mediterranean.

Answer key: 1. B 2. E 3. D

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 2

In 1981, for the first time in over two decades, the average scores of high school students on standardized math and
English tests did not decline. During the same year, millions of American students enjoyed their first exposure to the new
world of the microcomputer, whether in schools, video arcades, or other settings. The conclusion is clear: far from
stultifying the intellectual capacities of students, exposure to computers can actually enhance them.
1. The most serious weakness of the argument above is its failure to
(A) discuss the underlying causes of the twenty-year decline in students
test scores
(B) cite specific figures documenting the increases in test scores
(C) distinguish among the various types of computer being used by high
school students
(D) define the intellectual capacities tested by the standardized math and
English tests referred to
(E) explain exactly how high school students abilities on math and English
tests could have been enhanced by exposure to computers

312

Since the passage of the states Clean Air Act ten years ago, the level of industrial pollutants in the air has fallen by an
average of 18 percent. This suggests that the restrictions on industry embodied in the act have worked effectively.
However, during the same period the state has also suffered through a period of economic decline. The number of
businesses in the state has fallen by 10 percent, and the number of workers employed has fallen by 12 percent. It is probable
that the business decline, rather than the regulations in the act, is responsible for at least half of the decline in the pollution.
2. Which of following is an assumption made in the passage above?
(A) Most businesses in the state have obeyed the regulations embodied in
the Clean Air Act.
(B) The economic decline of the state can be attributed, in part, to the
effects of the Clean Air Act.
(C) The amount of air pollution in a given area is likely to be proportional
to the number of businesses and workers active in that area.
(D) The restrictions on business activity in other states are less stringent
than are those embodied in the Clean Air Act.
(E) The Clean Air Act has been only very slightly successful in achieving
the goal of reduced air pollution.

3. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the


conclusion drawn in the passage above?
(A) During the last ten years, economic conditions in the nation as a whole
have been worse than those within the state.
(B) Amendments to the Clean Air Act that were enacted six years ago have
substantially strengthened its restrictions on industrial air pollution.
(C) Of the businesses that ceased operating in the state during the last ten
years, only 5 percent were engaged in air-polluting industries.
(D) Several large corporations left the state during the last ten years
partly in order to avoid compliance with the Clean Air Act.
(E) Due to its small budget, the state office charged with enforcement of the
Clean Air Act has prosecuted only two violators of the law since its
passage.

313

Civic Leader: The high cancer rate among our citizens is the result of hazardous material produced at your plant.
Board of Directors: Our statistics show that rates of cancer are high throughout the valley in which the plant is situated
because local wells that supply drinking water are polluted, not because of the plant.
4. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the boards
claims?
(A) The statistics do not differentiate between types of cancer.
(B) Nearby communities have not changed the sources of their drinking
water.
(C) Cancer-causing chemicals used at the plant are discharged into a
nearby river and find their way into local wells.
(D) The plant both uses and produces chemicals that have been shown to
cause cancer.
(E) Some of the pollutants cited by the board as contaminating the local
wells have been present in the wells for decades.

Answer key: 1.E 2. C 3. C 4. C

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 3

Tony: A short story is little more than a novelists sketch pad. Only novels have narrative structures that allow writers to
depict human lives accurately by portraying characters whose personalities gradually develop through life experience.
Raoul: Life consists not of a linear process of personality development, but rather of a series of completely disjointed
vignettes, from many of which the discerning observer may catch glimpses of character. Thus, the short story depicts
human lives more faithfully than does the novel.
1. The dialogue most supports the claim that Tony and Raoul disagree
about whether
(A) human lives are best understood as series of completely disjointed
vignettes
(B) novels and short stories employ the same strategies to depict human
lives
(C) novels usually depict gradual changes in characters personalities
(D) only short stories are used as novelists sketch pads

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(E) short stories provide glimpses of facts of character that are usually kept
hidden

Most land-dwelling vertebrates have rotating limbs terminating in digits, a characteristic useful for land movement.
Biologists who assume that this characteristic evolved only after animals abandoned aquatic environments must consider
the Acanthostega, a newly discovered ancestor of all land vertebrates. It possessed rotating limbs terminating in digits, but
its skeleton was too feeble for land movement. It also breathed using only internal gills, indicating that it and its
predecessors were exclusively aquatic.
2. The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of
the following?
(A) Many anatomical characteristics common to most land animals
represent a disadvantage for survival underwater.
(B) None of the anatomical characteristics common to most aquatic
animals represent an advantage for survival on land.
(C) Acanthostega originated as a land-dwelling species; but evolved gills
only after moving to an underwater environment.
(D) All anatomical characteristics not useful for land movement but
common to most land animals represent an advantage for survival
underwater.
(E) Certain anatomical characteristics common to some aquatic animals
represent an advantage for survival on land.

Political scientist: As a political system, democracy does not promote political freedom. There are historical examples of
democracies that ultimately resulted in some of the most oppressive societies. Likewise, there have been enlightened
despotisms and oligarchies that have provided a remarkable level of political freedom to their subjects.
3. The reasoning in the political scientists argument is flawed because
it
(A) confuses the conditions necessary for political freedom with the
conditions sufficient to bring it about
(B) fail to consider that a substantial increase in the level of political
freedom might cause a society to become more democratic
(C) appeals to historical examples that are irrelevant to the causal claim

315

being made
(D) overlooks the possibility that democracy promotes political freedom
without being necessary or sufficient by itself to produce it
(E) bases its historical case on a personal point of view

Answer key: 1. A 2. E 3. D

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 4

Of those person who became teachers in 1968 and who later left the profession, 30 percent today earn salaries above $35,000 a
year: of those who became teachers in 1968 and have remained in the profession, only 15 percent today earn salaries above
$35,000 a year. These figures indicate how underpaid teachers are today.
1. The argument above depends on which of the following assumptions
about the persons for whom statistics are cited?
(A) At least one-third of the group of persons who have remained in
teaching would today be earning more than $35,000 a year if they
had left teaching.
(B) The group of persons who left teaching and the group who did not are
comparable in terms of factors that determine how much people
outside the teaching profession are paid.
(C) Most of those persons who left teaching did so entirely because of the
low salaries teachers earn.
(D) As a group, those persons who have remained in teaching are abler and
more dedicated than the group of persons who left teaching.
(E) The group of persons who left teaching and who today earn more than
$35,000 a year were more capable teachers than the group who
remained in the profession.

Some analysts maintain that an embargo by country Litora on the export of a strategic metal to country Zenda, if imposed, would
drive up the price of the metal in Zenda at least tenfold. They note that few other countries export the metal and that, with an
embargo, Zenda might have to depend on as-yet-unexploited domestic sources of the metal.

316

2. Which of the following, if true, constitutes the most serious objection


to the analysis above?
(A) Litoras economy depends heavily on foreign currency earned by the
export of the strategic metal to other countries.
(B) There are foreign-policy steps that Zenda could take to appease Litora
and avoid being subjected to an embargo on the metal.
(C) Geologists believe that additional deposits of the metal could possibly be
found within the territory of Litora.
(D) Only a small proportion of Zendas import expenditures is devoted to
the import of the metal from Litora.
(E) In case of an embargo, Zenda could buy the metal indirectly from
Litora on the world market at a less than one-third increase in cost.

In an effort to go beyond resumes as tools in its search for executives, one leading company has resorted to interviewing the top
candidates for a position all together in a single group. This technique is supposed to afford a direct comparison of the candidates
with respect to some personal qualities that cannot be gleaned from a resume.
3. Which of the following, if true, casts the most serious doubt on the
value of the simultaneous interview technique?
(A) Resumes do sometimes allow reliable inferences to be made about a
candidates personal qualities.
(B) The simultaneous interview could become cumbersome if there were a
great many candidates for a position.
(C) The more perceptive the interviewer, the more revealing the
simultaneous interview is apt to be.
(D) There are certain personal qualities that only an extended
simultaneous interview can bring out.
(E) The simultaneous interview distorts each candidates response style by
inducing stresses unlike any an executive position induces.

Answer key: 1. B 2. E 3. E

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 5

317

On completing both the course in experimental design and the developmental psychology course, Angela will have earned a degree
in psychology. Since experimental design, which must be completed before taking developmental psychology, will not be offered
until next term, it will be at least two terms before Angela gets her psychology degree.
1. If the statements above are all true, which one of the following must also
be true?
(A) The developmental psychology course Angela needs to take requires
two terms to complete.
(B) The course in experimental design is an easier course than the course
in developmental psychology.
(C) There are no prerequisites for the course in experimental design.
(D) Anyone who earns a degree in psychology form the university Angela
attends will have completed the course in experimental design.
(E) Once Angela completes the developmental psychology course, she will
have earned a degree in psychology.

According to government official involved in overseeing airplane safety during the last year, over 75 percent of the voice-recorder
tapes taken from small airplanes involved in relatively minor accidents record the whistling of the pilot during the fifteen minutes
immediately preceding the accident. Even such minor accidents pose some safety risk. Therefore, if passengers hear the pilot start
to whistle they should take safety precautions, whether instructed by the pilot to do so or not.
2. The argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it
(A) accepts the reliability of the cited statistics on the authority of an
unidentified government official
(B) ignores the fact that in nearly one quarter of these accidents following
the recommendation would not have improved passenger safety
(C) does not indicate the criteria by which an accident is classified as
relatively minor
(D) provides no information about the percentage of all small airplane
flights during which the pilot whistles at some time during that flight
(E) fails to specify the percentage of all small airplane flights that involve
relatively minor accidents

318

When permits for the discharge of chemicals into a waterway are issued, they are issued in terms of the number of pounds of each
chemical that can be discharged into the waterway per day. These figures, calculated separately for each chemical for which a
permit is issued, are based on an estimate of the effect of the dilution of the chemical by the amount of water flowing through the
waterway. The waterway is therefore protected against being adversely affected by chemicals discharged under the permits.
3. The argument depends on the assumption that
(A) relatively harmless chemicals do not interact with each other in the
water to form harmful compounds
(B) there is a swift flow of water in the waterway that ensures rapid
dispersion of chemicals discharged
(C) there are no chemicals for which discharge into waterways is entirely
prohibited
(D) those who receive the permits do not always discharge the entire
quantity of chemicals that the permits allow
(E) the danger of chemical pollution of waterways is to be evaluated in
terms of human health only and not in terms of the health of both
human beings and wildlife

Answer key: 1. E

2. D

3. A

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 6

In the past century, North America has shifted its main energy source first from wood to coal, then from coal to oil and natural
gas. With each transition, the newly dominant fuel has had less carbon and more hydrogen than its predecessor had. It is logical
to conclude that in the future the main energy source will be pure hydrogen.
1. Which one of the following expresses a general principle that could
underlie the argument?
(A) If series of transitions from one state of a system to another state of that system is allowed to continue without
interference, the initial state of the series will eventually recur.
(B) If each of two desirable attributes belongs to a useful substance, then the most useful form of that substance will
have those two attributes in equal amounts.
(C) If the second stage of a process has been completed more quickly than the first stage, the third stage of that
process will be completed more quickly than the second stage.

319

(D) If each step in a series of changes involves a decrease of one attribute of the thing undergoing the change and an
increase of another, the series will terminate with the first attribute eliminated and only the second attribute present.
(E) If one substance is better for a certain purpose than another substance is, then the best substance for that purpose
is one that includes among its attributes all of the attributes of the first substance and none of the attributes of the
second substance.

The foreign minister of Zeria announced today that her country was severing diplomatic relations with Nandalo because of
Nandalos flagrant violations of human rights. But Zeria continues to maintain diplomatic relations with many countries that the
minister knows to have far worse human-rights records than Nandalo does. Therefore, despite the foreign ministers claim, this
latest diplomatic move cannot be explained exclusively by Zerias commitment to upholding human rights.
2. Which one of the following, if true, provides the most support for the
argument in the passage?
(A) The country that currently buys most of Zerias exports recently suggested that it might severely restrict its
imports from Zeria unless Zeria broke off Diplomatic relations with Nandalo.
(B) Two weeks after the Zerian ministers announcement, several other countries cited human-rights violations as a
reason for severing diplomatic relations with Nandalo.
(C) More countries have expressed concern over reported human-rights violations in Nandalo than have expressed
concern over human-rights violations in Zeria.
(D) Nandalo has considered accusing Zeria of violating the human rights of Nandalo citizens living in Zeria.
(E) The opposition party in Zeria has long advocated severing trade relations with countries that systematically
violate human rights but has opposed severing diplomatic relations.

3. The argumentative structure of which one of the following most


closely parallels that of the argument in the passage?
(A) Henrys parents insist that he eat breakfast before leaving for school because not doing so would be bad for his
health. But his parents themselves almost never eat breakfast, so their insistence cannot be completely explained by
their concern for his health.
(B) Professor Walsh says that only typed term papers will be accepted because most handwriting is difficult to read.
But since she lectures from handwritten notes, her policy cannot be exclusively explained by any difficulty she has
with handwritten material.

320

(C) James claims that he stole only because he was hungry. But although hunger could account for stealing if food
could not be readily obtained in any other way, in this case food was otherwise readily available, and so James theft
cannot be completely explained by his hunger.
(D) Armand declined Helens invitation to dinner on the grounds that socializing with coworkers is imprudent. But
since Armand went to a movie with another coworker, Maria, that same evening, his expressed concern for
prudence cannot fully explain his refusal.
(E) It is often asserted that there are fewer good teachers than there used to be because teachers salaries have
reached a new low. But teachers have always been poorly paid, so low salaries cannot fully explain this perceived
decline in the effectiveness of teachers.

Answer key: 1. D 2. A 3. D

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 7

In Asia, where palm trees are non-native, the trees flowers have traditionally been pollinated by hand, which has kept palm fruit
productivity unnaturally low. When weevils known to be efficient pollinators of palm flowers were introduced into Asia in 1980,
palm fruit productivity increasedby up to fifty percent in some areasbut then decreased sharply in 1984.
1. Which of the following statements, if true, would best explain the 1984
decrease in productivity?
(A) Prices for palm fruit fell between 1980 and 1984 following the rise in
production and a concurrent fall in demand.
(B) Imported trees are often more productive than native trees because the
imported ones have left behind their pests and diseases in their native
lands.
(C) Rapid increases in productivity tend to deplete trees of nutrients
needed for the development of the fruit-producing female flowers.
(D) The weevil population in Asia remained at approximately the same
level between 1980 and 1984.
(E) Prior to 1980 another species of insect pollinated the Asian palm trees,
but not as efficiently as the species of weevil that was introduced in

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1980.

In the aftermath of a worldwide stock-market crash, Country T claimed that the severity of the stock-market crash it experienced
resulted from the accelerated process of denationalization many of its industries underwent shortly before the crash.
2. Which of the following, if it could be carried out, would be most useful
in an evaluation of Country Ts assessment of the causes of the
severity of its stock-market crash?
(A) Calculating the average loss experienced by individual traders in
Country T during the crash
(B) Using economic theory to predict the most likely date of the next crash
in Country T
(C) Comparing the total number of shares sold during the worst days of the
crash in Country T to the total number of shares sold in Country T just
prior to the crash
(D) Comparing the severity of the crash in Country T to the severity of the
crash in countries otherwise economically similar to Country T that
have not experienced recent denationalization
(E) Comparing the long-term effects of the crash on the purchasing power
of the currency of Country T to the immediate, more severe short-term
effects of the crash on the purchasing power of the currency of
Country T

Airline: Newly developed collision-avoidance systems, although not fully tested to discover potential malfunctions, must be
installed immediately in passenger planes. Their mechanical warnings enable pilots to avoid crashes.
Pilots: Pilots will not fly in planes with collision-avoidance systems that are not fully tested. Malfunctioning systems could
mislead pilots, causing crashes.
3. The pilots objection is most strengthened if which of the following is
true?
(A) It is always possible for mechanical devices to malfunction.
(B) Jet engines, although not fully tested when first put into use, have
achieved exemplary performance and safety records.
(C) Although collision-avoidance systems will enable pilots to avoid some

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crashes, the likely malfunctions of the not-fully-tested systems will


cause even more crashes.
(D) Many airline collisions are caused in part by the exhaustion of
overworked pilots.
(E) Collision-avoidance systems, at this stage of development, appear to
have worked better in passenger planes than in cargo planes during
experimental flights made over a six-month period.

Answer key: 1. C

2. D

3. C

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 8

Hanifah: A recent survey shows that there are fewer people who drive only on weekends than there are people who drive to work
each weekday. As a result, weekend-only drives are involved in fewer accidents. Therefore, insurance rates should be adjusted so
that rates would be significantly higher for the regular commuters.
Katsu: I cant agree with your conclusion. The same study also showed that, although weekend-only drives are involved in fewer
accidents, when considered on the basis of accidents-per-mile-driven their records are worse than those of regular commuters.
Therefore, insurance rates should be adjusted to increase the rates of weekend-only drivers over those of regular commuters.
1. In the conversation above, Katsu does which one of the following?
(A) Katsu disagrees with each of the premises of the argument that
Hanifah offers.
(B) Katsu cites additional evidence stating that weekend-only drivers are
actually involved in a greater number of accidents than regular
commuters.
(C) Katsu accuses Hanifah of using inaccurate statistical information.
(D) Katsu proves that Hanifah didnt read the entire report that was cited.
(E) Katsu disagrees with Hanifah over how accident records are to be evaluated for insurance rates.

Some people say that the scarcity of food is a function of the finite limits of the earths resources, coupled with a relentless rate of
population growth. This analysis fails to recognize, however, that much of the worlds agricultural resources are used to feed

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livestock instead of people. In the United States, for example, almost one-half of the agricultural acreage is devoted to crops fed
to livestock. A steer reduces twenty-one pounds of inexpensive grain to one pound of expensive meat. Thus, the scarcity of food
is not merely a function of limited resources and population growth.
2. Which one of the following is an assumption that would allow the
conclusion in the argument to be properly drawn?
(A) People prefer eating meat to eating grain.
(B) Meat is twenty-one times more expensive than grain.
(C) The limits of the earths agricultural resources are not finite.
(D) More than one-half of the agricultural acreage in the United States is
devoted to crops fed to humans.
(E) Growing crops for human consumption on the acreage currently
devoted to crops for livestock will yield more food for more people.

Mr. West: Well, Ms. Smith, by how much do you plan to increase your donation to the cultural society this year? You know how
many worthwhile projects we do.
Ms. Smith: Im not so sure of that. I was very upset about the statue you purchased last month. I think Ill give no more money to
your cause.
Mr. West: Thats all right: well just put you down for the same amount that you gave last year.
3. Which one of the following words or phrases has been misinterpreted in
the conversation?
(A) increase
(B) you know
(C) worthwhile
(D) no more
(E) same amount

Answer key: 1. E

2. E

3. D

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 9

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Senator Strongwood reported that, contrary to a study cited by the administration, a thorough study by his own party concluded
that a reduction in the capital gains tax would lead to an increase in the federal deficit. Hooray for common sense, he said.
Everyone knows that when you cut taxes you lose revenue. He concluded that the administrations plan for reducing the capital
gains tax was now dead, because he could not imagine any senator voting to increase the deficit.
1. Which one of the following accurately describes something Senator
Strongwood does in advancing his argument?
(A) He implies that increasing the capital gains tax would decrease the
federal deficit.
(B) He assumes senators will believe his partys report instead of the
administrations.
(C) He resorts to name-calling by expressly stating that his opponents lack
common sense.
(D) He assumes that senators will rarely vote for unpopular legislation.
(E) He assumes that a study commissioned by his party must be more
objective than one commissioned by the administration.

The Baysville Chamber of Commerce recently met to discuss a proposal to beautify the Baysville areas freeways by relocating
power lines, adding landscaping and removing billboards. At the meeting Mary Simms, who was representing an outdoor
advertising company, declared, Billboards are the basis of our business. If they are torn down, our ability to earn a living will be
severely damaged. I dont agree, said Jack Jordan, a local merchant, The basis of our business is an attractive community.
People who might shop in Baysville dont want to see ugly billboards on their way into town. Billboards are hurting our ability to
earn a living.
2. Jack Jordan a remarks suggest that he is misinterpreting which one of
the following words used by Mary Simms?
(A) billboards
(B) basis
(C) our
(D) ability
(E) damaged

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Studies of brain lateralization in animals have purported to show that, whereas most human beings are right-handed, about half of
any given group of animals will be left-handed (i.e. showing a preference for their left limbs) and half will be right-handed.
This finding is suspect, however; it has long been noted that dogs will almost always shake hands with the right paw.
3. Which one of the following, if true, is the strongest defense against the
counterexample of dogs that shake hands?
(A) Dogs are observed to scratch themselves with the left leg as well as
with the right leg.
(B) People who observe dog shaking hands are observing a behavior that
dogs perform only with a front paw.
(C) Left-handed people sometimes feel inconvenienced or even stigmatized
in a right-handed world, but dogs face no analogous difficulties.
(D) Dogs that have lost a limb are able to compensate for the loss,
regardless of whether the limb was lost from the right or left side.
(E) In learning to perform tricks, dogs are influenced by the behavior of
their trainers.

Answer key: 1. B 2. C 3. E

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 10

Approximately 7.6 million women who earn incomes have preschool-age children, and approximately 6.4 million women
are the sole income earners for their families. These figures indicate that there are comparatively few income-earning
women who have preschool-age children but are not the sole income earners for their families.
1. A major flaw in the reasoning is that it
(A) relies in figures that are too imprecise to support the conclusion drawn
(B) overlooks the possibility that there is little or no overlap between the
two populations of women cited
(C) fails to indicate whether the difference between the two figures cited
will tend to remain stable over time
(D) ignores the possibility, that families with preschool-age children might
also have older children

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(E) provides no information on families in which men are the sole income
earners

Being articulate has been equated with having a large vocabulary. Actually, however, people with large vocabularies have
no incentive for, and tend not to engage in, the kind of creative linguistic self-expression that is required when no available
words seem adequate. Thus a large vocabulary is a hindrance to using language in a truly articulate way.
2. Which one of the following is an assumption made in the argument?
(A) When people are truly articulate, they have the capacity to express
themselves in situations in which their vocabularies seem inadequate.
(B) People who are able to express themselves creatively in new situations
have little incentive to acquire large vocabularies.
(C) The most articulate people are people who have large vocabularies but
also are able to express themselves creatively when the situation
demands it.
(D) In educating people to be more articulate, it would be futile to try to
increase the size of their vocabularies.
(E) In unfamiliar situations, even people with large Vocabularies often do
not have specifically suitable words available.

If you have a large amount of money in the bank, your spending power is great. If your spending power is great, you are
happy. So if you have a large amount of money in the bank, you are happy.
3. Which one of the following most closely parallels the reasoning in
the argument above?
(A) If you have good health, you can earn a lot. If you can earn a lot, you
can buy an expensive house. So if you have good health, you can have
a comfortable life.
(B) If you eat too much chocolate, you will feel sick. If you too much
chocolate, you will have no money left. So if you have no money left,
you will feel sick.
(C) If you swim energetically, your heart rate increases. If your heart rate
increases, you are overexcited. So if you swim energetically, you are
overexcited.

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(D) If you take a great deal of exercise, you are physically fit. If you take a
great deal of exercise, you are exhausted. So if you are physically fit,
you are exhausted.
(E) If you have a large amount of money in the bank, you are confident
about the future. If you are optimistic by nature, you are confident
about the future. So if you have a large amount of money in the bank,
you are optimistic by nature.

Answer key: 1. B 2. A

3. C

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 11

When the Pinecrest Animal Shelter, a charitable organization, was in danger of closing because it could not pay for
important repairs, its directors appealed to the townspeople to donate money that would be earmarked to pay for those
repairs. Since more funds were ultimately donated than were used for the repairs the directors plan to donate the surplus
funds to other animal shelters. But before doing so, the directors should obtain permission from those who made the
donations.
1. Which one of the following principles, if valid, most helps to justify
the position advocated above and yet places the least restriction on
the allocation of funds by directors of charitable organizations?
(A) The directors of charitable organizations cannot allocate publicly
solicited funds to any purposes for which the directors had not
specifically earmarked the funds in advance.
(B) People who solicit charitable donations from the public for a specific
cause should spend the funds only on that cause or, if that becomes
impossible, should dispose of the funds according to the express wishes
of the donors.
(C) Directors of charitable organizations who solicit money from the public
must return all the money it received from an appeal if more money is
received than can practicably be used for the purposes specified in the
appeal.
(D) Donors of money to charitable organizations cannot delegate to the

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directors of those organizations the responsibility of allocating the


funds received to various purposes consonant with the purposes of the
organization as the directors of the organization see fit.
(E) People who contribute money to charitable organizations should be
considered to be placing their trust in the directors of those
organizations to use the money wisely according to whatever
circumstance might arise.

The amount of electricity consumed in Millville on any day in August is directly proportional to peak humidity on that day.
Since the average peak humidity this August was three points higher than the average peak humidity last August, it follows
that more energy was consumed in Millville this August than last August.
2. Which one of the following arguments has a pattern of reasoning
most similar to the one in the argument above?
(A) The amount of art supplies used in any of the Aesthetic Institutes 25
classes is directly proportional to the number of students in that class.
Since in these classes the institute enrolled 20 percent more students
overall last year than in the previous year, more art supplies were
used in the institutes classes last year than in the previous year.
(B) The number of courses in painting offered by the Aesthetic Institute in
any term is directly proportional to the number of students enrolled in
the institute in that term. But the institute offers the same number of
courses in sculpture each term. Hence, the institute usually offers
more courses in painting than in sculpture each term.
(C) The number of new students enrolled at the Aesthetic Institute in any
given year is directly proportional to the amount of advertising the
institute has done in the previous year. Hence, if the institute seeks to
increase its student body it must increase the amount it spends on
advertising.
(D) The fees paid by a student at the Aesthetic Institute are directly
proportional to the number of classes in which that student enrolls.
Since the number of students at the Aesthetic Institute is increasing, it
follows that the institute is collecting a greater amount in fees paid by
students than it used to.

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(E) The number of instructors employed by the Aesthetic Institute in any


term is directly proportional to the number of classes offered in that
term and also directly proportional to the number of students enrolled
at the institute. Thus, the number of classes offered by the institute in
any term is directly proportional to the number of students enrolled in
that term.

Letter to the editor: After Baertons factory closed, there was a sharp increase in the number of claims filed for job-related
injury compensation by the factorys former employees, Hence there is reason to believe that most of those who filed for
compensation after the factory closed were just out to gain benefits they did not deserve, and filed only to help them weather
their job loss.
3. Each of the following, if true, weakens the argument above EXCEPT:
(A) Workers cannot file for compensation for many job-related injuries,
such as hearings loss from factory noise, until they have left the job.
(B) In the years before the factory closed, the factorys managers dismissed
several employees who had filed injury claims.
(C) Most workers who receive an injury on the job file for compensation on
the day they suffer the injury.
(D) Workers who incur partial disabilities due to injuries on the job often do
not file for compensation because they would have to stop working to
receive compensation but cannot afford to live on that compensation
alone.
(E) Workers who are aware that they will soon be laid off from a job often
become depressed, making them more prone to job-related injuries.

Answer key: 1. B

2. A

3. C

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 12

330

Some years ago, an editorial defended Unite States government restrictions on academic freedom, arguing that scientists
who receive public funding cannot rightly detach themselves from the governments policies on national security. Yet the
same editorial criticized the Soviet government for not allowing scientists to detach themselves from politics. If there is a
significant difference between the principles involved in each case, the editorial should have explained what that difference
is.
1. The author of the passage criticizes the editorial by
(A) disputing certain factual claims made in the editorial
(B) pointing out an apparent inconsistency in the editorial
(C) describing an alleged exception to a general claim made in the editorial
(D) refuting an assumption on which the argument of the editorial appears
to have been based
(E) drawing conclusions from the editorial different from the conclusion
drawn by the writer of the editorial

Ph.D. programs are valuable only if they inculcate good scholarship and expedite the students full participation in the field.
Hence, doctoral dissertations should not be required in the humanities. Undertaking a quality book-length dissertation
demands an accumulation of knowledge virtually impossible for those relatively new to their disciplines. The student
consequently either seeks to compensate for poor quality with quantity or ends up spending years producing a work of
quality. Either way, the dissertation is counterproductive and frustrates the appropriate goals of the doctoral program.
2. The claim that doctoral dissertations should not be required in the
humanities play which one of the following roles in the argument?
(A) It provides essential support for the conclusion.
(B) It is an example illustrative of a general principle concerning the goals
of Ph.D. programs.
(C) It is what the argument is attempting to establish.
(D) It provides evidence for the assumption that requirements for degrees
in the humanities differ from requirements for degrees in other
disciplines.
(E) It confirms the observation that the requirement for a dissertation can
frustrate the goals of a doctoral program.

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In many languages other than English there is a word for mothers brother which is different from the word for fathers
brother, whereas English uses the word uncle for both. Thus, speakers of these languages evidence a more finely
discriminated kinship system than English speakers do. The number of basic words for colors also varies widely from
language to language. Therefore, speakers of languages that have fewer basic words for colors than English has must be
perceptually unable to distinguish as many colors as speakers of English can distinguish.
3. Which one of the following, if true, undermines the conclusion
concerning words for colors?
(A) Speakers of English are able to distinguish between lighter and darker
shades of the color they call blue for which Russian has two different
basic words.
(B) Almost every language distinguishes red from the other colors.
(C) Khmer uses a basic word corresponding to English blue for most
leaves, but uses its basic word corresponding to English green for
unripe bananas.
(D) The word orange in English has the same origin as the equivalent
word in Spanish.
(E) Most languages do not have a basic word that distinguishes gray from
other colors, although gray is commonly found in nature.

Answer key: 1. B 2. C 3. A

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 13

In Millington, a city of 50,000 people, Mercedes Pedrosa, a realtor, calculated that a family with Millingtons median family
income, $28,000 a year, could afford to buy Millingtons median-priced $77,000 house. This calculation was based on an
11.2 percent mortgage interest rate and on the realtors assumption that a family could only afford to pay up to 25 percent of
its income for housing.
1. Which of the following corrections of a figure appearing in the
passage above, if it were the only correction that needed to be made,
would yield a new calculation showing that even incomes below the
median family income would enable families in Millington to afford
Millingtons median-priced house?

332

(A) Millingtons total population was 45,000 people.


(B) Millingtons median annual family income was $27,000.
(C) Millingtons median-priced house cost $80,000.
(D) The rate at which people in Millington had to pay mortgage interest was only 10 percent.
(E) Families in Millington could only afford to pay up to 22 percent of their annual income for housing.

2. Some observers have concluded that the rise in the price of pepper means
that the switch by some growers from pepper to cocoa left those growers no
better off than if none of them had switched; this conclusion, however, is
unwarranted because it can be inferred to be likely that
(A) those growers could not have foreseen how high the price of pepper
would go
(B) the initial cost involved in switching from pepper to cocoa is
substantial
(C) supplies of pepper would not be as low as they are if those growers had
not switched crops
(D) cocoa crops are as susceptible to being reduced by bad weather as are
pepper crops
(E) as more growers turn to growing cocoa, cocoa supplies will increase and
the price of cocoa will fall precipitously

Much of the best scientific research of today shows that many of the results of earlier scientific work that was regarded in its
time as good are in fact mistaken. Yet despite the fact that scientists are above all concerned to discover the truth, it is
valuable for todays scientists to study firsthand accounts of earlier scientific work.
3. Which one of the following, if true, would best reconcile the two
statements above?
(A) Many firsthand accounts of earlier, flawed scientific work are not
generally known to be mistaken.
(B) Lessons in scientific methodology can be learned by seeing how earlier
scientific work was carried out, sometimes especially when the results
of that work are known to be incorrect.
(C) Scientists can make valuable contributions to the scientific work of

333

their time even if the results of their work will later be shown to be
mistaken.
(D) There are many scientists today who are not thoroughly familiar with
earlier scientific research.
(E) Some of the better scientific research of today does not directly address
earlier scientific work.

Answer key: 1. D

2. C

3. B

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 14

Since the routine use of antibiotics can give rise to resistant bacteria capable of surviving antibiotic environments, the presence of
resistant bacteria in people could be due to the human use of prescription antibiotics. Some scientists, however, believe that most
resistant bacteria in people derive from human consumption of bacterially infected meat.
1. Which of the following statements, if true, would most significantly
strengthen the hypothesis of the scientists?
(A) Antibiotics are routinely included in livestock feed so that livestock
producers can increase the rate of growth of their animals.
(B) Most people who develop food poisoning from bacterially infected meat
are treated with prescription antibiotics.
(C) The incidence of resistant bacteria in people has tended to be much
higher in urban areas than in rural areas where meat is of comparable
quality.
(D) People who have never taken prescription antibiotics are those least
likely to develop resistant bacteria.
(E) Livestock producers claim that resistant bacteria in animals cannot be
transmitted to people through infected meat.

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The recent decline in the value of the dollar was triggered by a prediction of slower economic growth in the coming year. But that
prediction would not have adversely affected the dollar had it not been for the governments huge budget deficit, which must
therefore be decreased to prevent future currency declines.
2. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the
conclusion about how to prevent future currency declines?
(A) The government has made little attempt to reduce the budget deficit.
(B) The budget deficit has not caused a slowdown in economic growth.
(C) The value of the dollar declined several times in the year prior to the
recent prediction of slower economic growth.
(D) Before there was a large budget deficit, predictions of slower economic
growth frequently caused declines in the dollars value.
(E) When there is a large budget deficit, other events in addition to
predictions of slower economic growth sometimes trigger declines in
currency value.

It is not known whether bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE), a disease of cattle invariably deadly to them, can be
transmitted directly from one infected animal to another at all stages of the infection. If it can be, there is now a reservoir of
infected cattle incubating the disease. There are no diagnostic tests to identify infected animals before the animals show overt
symptoms. Therefore, if such direct transmission occurs, the disease cannot be eradicated by______.
3. Which one of the following best completes the argument?
(A) removing from the herd and destroying any diseased animal as soon as
it shows the typical symptoms of advanced BSE
(B) developing a drug that kills the agent that cause BSE, and then
treating with that drug all cattle that might have the disease
(C) destroying all cattle in areas where BSE occurs and raising cattle only
in areas to which BSE is known not to have spread
(D) developing a vaccine that confers lifelong immunity against BSE and
giving it to all cattle, destroying in due course all those animals for
which the vaccine protection came too late
(E) developing a diagnostic test that does identify any infected animal and
destroying all animals found to be infected

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Answer key: 1. A

2. D

3. A

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 15

Faced with a financial crisis, Upland Universitys board of trustees reduced the budget for the universitys computer center from
last years $4 million to $1.5 million for the coming year. However, the center cannot operate on less than $2.5 million. Since the
board cannot divert funds from other programs to the computer center, there is no way that the center can be kept operating for
the coming year.
1. The conclusion of the argument is properly drawn if which one of the
following is assumed?
(A) The computer center did not use all of the $4 million that was budgeted to it
last year.
(B) The budgets of other programs at the university were also reduced.
(C) The computer center has no source of funds other than those budgeted to it for
the coming year by the universitys board of trustees.
(D) No funds from any program at the university can be diverted to other
programs.
(E) The board of trustees at the university value other programs at the university
more highly than they do the computer center.

Muriel: I admire Favillas novels, but she does not deserve to be considered a great writer. The point is that, no matter how
distinctive her style may be, her subject matter is simply not varied enough.
John: I think you are wrong to use that criterion. A great writer does not need any diversity in subject matter; however, a great
writer must at least have the ability to explore a particular theme deeply.
2. Which one of the following is a point at issue between Muriel and John?
(A) whether Favilla has treated a wide variety of subjects in her novels
(B) whether Favilla should be considered a great writer because her style is
distinctive
(C) whether treating a variety of subjects should be prerequisite for someone to be
considered a great writer
(D) whether the number of novels that a novelist has written should be a factor in

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judging whether that novelist is great


(E) whether there are many novelists who are considered to be great but do not
deserve to be so considered

Astronaut: Any moon, by definition, orbits some planet in a solar system. So, the moons in solar system S4 all orbit the planet
Alpha.
3. The astronauts conclusion follows logically if which one of the following is
assumed?
(A) There is only one moon in S4.
(B) Every moon in S4 orbits the same planet.
(C) Alpha is the only planet in S4.
(D) Every planet in S4 is orbited by more than one moon.
(E) There is at least one moon that orbits Alpha.

Answer key: 1. C 2. C

3. C

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 16

Railroad spokesperson: Of course it is a difficult task to maintain quality of service at the same time that the amount of subsidy
the taxpayers give the railroad network is reduced. Over recent years, however, the number of passengers has increased in spite
of subsidy reductions. This fact leads to the conclusion that our quality of service has been satisfactory.
1. The spokespersons argument is based on which one of the following
assumptions?
(A) Taxpayers do not wish to have their taxes raised to subsidize the railroads.
(B) Some people refuse to travel by train if they are dissatisfied with the quality of
service.
(C) The quality of service on the trains must have improved in spite of subsidy
reductions.
(D) It is impossible to reduce subsidies to the railroad network without some effect
on the quality of service.

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(E) The increase in the number of passengers will increase revenue sufficiently to
offset the subsidy reductions.

Gallery owner: Because this painting appears in no catalog of van Goghs work, we cannot guarantee that he painted it. But
consider the subject is one he painted often, and experts agree that in his later paintings van Gogh invariably used just such broad
brushstrokes and distinctive combinations of colors as we find here. Internal evidence, therefore, makes it virtually certain that
this is a previously uncataloged, late van Gogh, and as such, a bargain at its price.
2. The reasoning used by the gallery owner is flawed because it
(A) ignores the fact that there can be general agreement that something is the
case without its being the case
(B) neglects to cite expert authority to substantiate the claim about the subject
matter of the painting
(C) assumes without sufficient warrant that the only reason anyone would want
to acquire a painting is to make a profit
(D) provides no evidence that the painting is more likely to be an uncataloged van
Gogh than to be a painting by someone else who painted that particular
subject in van Goghs style
(E) attempts to establish a particular conclusion because doing so is in the
reasoners self-interest rather than because of any genuine concern for the
truth of the matter

In a yearlong study, half of the participants were given a simple kit to use at home for measuring the cholesterol level of their
blood. They reduced their cholesterol levels on average 15 percent more than did participants without the kit. Participants were
selected at random from among people with dangerously high cholesterol levels.
3. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to explain the studys finding?
(A) The lower a blood-cholesterol level is, the less accurate are measurements
made by the kit.
(B) Participants with the kit were more likely to avoid foods that lower cholesterol
level.
(C) Participants with the kit used it more frequently during the first two months

338

of the study.
(D) All the participants in the study showed some lowering of cholesterol levels,
the most striking decreases having been achieved in the first three months.
(E) Participants using the kit reported that each reading reinforced their efforts to
reduce their cholesterol levels.

Answer key: 1. B 2. D 3. E

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 17

In their native habit, amaryllis plants go dormant when the soil in which they are growing dries out during the dry season.
Therefore, if amaryllis plants kept as houseplants are to thrive, water should be withheld from them during part of the year so that
the plants go dormant.
1. Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?
(A) Most kinds of plants go dormant at some time or other during the year.
(B) Amaryllis are more difficult keep as houseplants than other kinds of plants are.
(C) Water should be withheld from amaryllis plants kept as houseplants during
the exact time of year that corresponds to the dry season in their native
habitat.
(D) Any amaryllis plant that fails to thrive is likely to have been dormant for too
short a time.
(E) Going dormant benefits amaryllis plants in their native habitat in some way
other than simply preventing death during overly dry periods.

Ten thousand years ago many communities in western Asia stopped procuring food by hunting and gathering and began instead
to cultivate food. Archaeological evidence reveals that compared to their hunter-gatherer forebears, the early agricultural peoples
ate a poorly balanced diet and had diet-related health problems, yet these peoples never returned to hunting and gathering.
2. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to explain why the agricultural
peoples of western Asia never returned to hunting and gathering?
(A) The plants and animals that the agricultural peoples began to cultivate

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continued to exist in the wild.


(B) Both hunter-gatherers and agriculturalists sometimes depended on stored and
preserved foods instead of fresh foods.
(C) An increase in population density at the time required a higher food
production rate than hunting and gathering could provide.
(D) Thousands of years ago similar shifts from hunting and gathering to
agriculture occurred in many other parts of the world.
(E) The physical labor involved in agriculture burns more calories than does that
needed for hunting and gathering.

Would it be right for the government to abandon efforts to determine at what levels to allow toxic substances in our food supply?
Only if it can reasonably be argued that the only acceptable level of toxic substances in food is zero. However, virtually all foods
contain perfectly natural substances that are toxic but cause no harm because they do not occur in food in toxic concentrations.
Furthermore, we can never be certain of having reduced the concentration of any substance to zero; all we can ever know is that it
has been reduced to below the threshold of detection of current analytical methods.
3. The main conclusion of the argument is that
(A) the government should continue trying to determine acceptable levels for
toxic substances in our food supply
(B) the only acceptable level of toxic substances in food is zero
(C) naturally occurring toxic substances in food present little danger because they
rarely occur in toxic concentrations
(D) the government will never be able to determine with certainty that a food
contains no toxic substances
(E) the government needs to refine its methods of detecting toxic substances in our
food supply

Answer key: 1. E

2. C

3. A

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 18

340

Environmentalist: The commissioner of the Fish and Game Authority would have the public believe that increases in the number
of marine fish caught demonstrate that this resource is no longer endangered. This is a specious argument, as unsound as it would
be to assert that the ever-increasing rate at which rain forests are being cut down demonstrates a lack of danger to that resource.
The real cause of the increased fish-catch is a greater efficiency in using technologies that deplete resources.
1. Which of the following strategies is used in the presentation of the
environmentalists position?
(A) Questioning the motives of an opponent
(B) Showing that an opposing position is self-contradictory
(C) Attacking an argument through the use of an analogy
(D) Demonstrating the inaccuracy of certain data
(E) Pointing out adverse consequences of a proposal

Although computers can enhance peoples ability to communicate, computer games are a cause of underdeveloped
communication skills in children. After-school hours spent playing computer games are hours not spent talking with people.
Therefore, children who spend all their spare time playing these games have less experience in interpersonal communication than
other children have.
2. The argument depends on which of the following assumptions?
(A) Passive activities such as watching television and listening to music do not
hinder the development of communication skills in children.
(B) Most children have other opportunities, in addition to after-school hours, in
which they can choose whether to play computer games or to interact with
other people.
(C) Children who do not spend all of their after-school hours playing computer
games spend at least some of that time talking with other people.
(D) Formal instruction contributes little or nothing to childrens acquisition of
communication skills.
(E) The mental skills developed through playing computer games do not
contribute significantly to childrens intellectual development.

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The reason much refrigerated food spoils is that it ends up out of sight at the back of the shelf. So why not have round shelves
that rotate? Because such rotating shelves would have just the same sort of drawback, since things would fall off the shelves
edges into the rear corners.
3. Which of the following is presupposed in the argument against introducing
rotating shelves?
(A) Refrigerators would not be made so that their interior space is cylindrical.
(B) Refrigerators would not be made to have a window in front for easy viewing of
their contents without opening the door.
(C) The problem of spoilage of refrigerated food is not amenable to any solution
based on design changes.
(D) Refrigerators are so well designed that there are bound to be drawbacks to any
design change.
(E) Rotating shelves would be designed to rotate only while the refrigerator door
was open.

Answer key: 1. C

2. C

3. A

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 19

At an enormous research cost, a leading chemical company has developed a manufacturing process for converting wood fibers
into a plastic. According to the company, this new plastic can be used for, among other things, the hulls of small sailboats. But
what does the company think sailboat hulls used to be made of? Surely the mania for high technology can scarcely go further
than this.
1. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the authors
conclusion?
(A) The plastic produced by the process is considerably lighter, stronger, and more
watertight than wood.
(B) The wood used in producing the plastic is itself in increasingly short supply.
(C) The cost of the manufacturing process of the plastic increases the cost of
producing a sailboat hull by 10 to 15 percent.
(D) Much of the cost of the research that developed the new process will be written
off for tax purposes by the chemical company.

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(E) The development of the new plastic is expected to help make the chemical
company an important supplier of boat-building materials.

Male bowerbirds construct elaborately decorated nests, or bowers. Basing their judgment on the fact that different local
populations of bowerbirds of the same species build bowers that exhibit different building and decorative styles, researchers have
concluded that the bowerbirds building styles are a culturally acquired, rather than a genetically transmitted, trait.
2. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusion drawn by
the researchers?
(A) There are more common characteristics than there are differences among the
bower-building styles of the local bowerbird population that has been studied
most extensively.
(B) Young male bowerbirds are inept at bower-building and apparently spend
years watching their elders before becoming accomplished in the local bower
style.
(C) The bowers of one species of bowerbird lack the towers and ornamentation
characteristic of the bowers of most other species of bowerbird.
(D) Bowerbirds are found only in New Guinea and Australia, where local
populations of the birds apparently seldom have contact with one another.
(E) It is well known that the song dialects of some songbirds are learned rather
than transmitted genetically.

Industrialists from the country Distopia were accused of promoting the Distopian intervention in the Arcadian civil war merely to
insure that the industrialists facilities in Arcadia made substantial profits during the war. Yet this cannot be the motive since, as
the Distopians foresaw, Distopias federal expenses for the intervention were eight billion dollars, whereas, during the war,
profits from the Distopian industrialists facilities in Arcadia totaled only four billion dollars.
3. Which of the following, if true, exposes a serious flaw in the argument made in
the second sentence above?
(A) During the Arcadian war, many Distopian industrialists with facilities located
in Arcadia experienced a significant rise in productivity in their facilities
located in Distopia.
(B) The largest proportion of Distopias federal expenses is borne by those who
receive no significant industrial profits.

343

(C) Most Distopian industrialists facilities located in Arcadia are expected to


maintain the level of profits they achieved during the war.
(D) Distopian industrialists facilities in Arcadia made substantial profits before
the events that triggered the civil war.
(E) Many Distopians expressed concern over the suffering that Arcadians
underwent during the civil war.

Answer key: 1. A 2. B 3. B

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 20

Since a rhinoceros that has no horn is worthless to poachers, the Wildlife Protection Committee plans to protect selected
rhinoceroses from being killed by poachers by cutting off the rhinos horns.
1. The Wildlife Protection Committees plan assumes that
(A) poachers do not kill rhinos that are worthless to them
(B) hornless rhinos pose less of a threat to humans, including poachers, than do
rhinos that have horns
(C) rhinos are the only animals poachers kill for their horns
(D) hornless rhinos can successfully defend their young against nonhuman
predators
(E) imposing more stringent penalties on poachers will not decrease the number of
rhinos killed by poachers

Crops can be traded on the futures market before they are harvested. If a poor corn harvest is predicted, prices of corn futures
rise; if a bountiful corn harvest is predicted, prices of corn futures fall. This morning meteorologists are predicting much-needed
rain for the corn-growing region starting tomorrow. Therefore, since adequate moisture is essential for the current crops survival,
prices of corn futures will fall sharply today.
2. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument above?
(A) Corn that does not receive adequate moisture during its critical pollination
stage will not produce a bountiful harvest.

344

(B) Futures prices for corn have been fluctuating more dramatically this season
than last season.
(C) The rain that meteorologists predicted for tomorrow is expected to extend well
beyond the corn-growing region.
(D) Agriculture experts announced today that a disease that has devastated some
of the corn crop will spread widely before the end of the growing season.
(E) Most people who trade in corn futures rarely take physical possession of the
corn they trade.

A discount retailer of basic household necessities employs thousands of people and pays most of them at the minimum wage rate.
Yet following a federally mandated increase of the minimum wage rate that increased the retailers operating costs considerably,
the retailers profits increased markedly.
3. Which of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent paradox?
(A) Over half of the retailers operating costs consist of payroll expenditures; yet
only a small percentage of those expenditures go to pay management salaries.
(B) The retailers customer base is made up primarily of people who earn, or who
depend on the earnings of others who earn, the minimum wage.
(C) The retailers operating costs, other than wages, increased substantially after
the increase in the minimum wage rate went into effect.
(D) When the increase in the minimum wage rate went into effect, the retailer
also raised the wage rate for employees who had been earning just above
minimum wage.
(E) The majority of the retailers employees work as cashiers, and most cashiers
are paid the minimum wage.

Answer key: 1. A

2. D

3. B

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 21

345

Opponents of laws that require automobile drivers and passengers to wear seat belts argue that in a free society people have the
right to take risks as long as the people do not harm others as a result of taking the risks. As a result, they conclude that it should
be each persons decision whether or not to wear a seat belt.
1. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the conclusion drawn
above?
(A) Many new cars are built with seat belts that automatically fasten when
someone sits in the front seat.
(B) Automobile insurance rates for all automobile owners are higher because of the
need to pay for the increased injuries or deaths of people not wearing seat belts.
(C) Passengers in airplanes are required to wear seat belts during takeoffs and
landings.
(D) The rate of automobile fatalities in states that do not have mandatory seat-belt
laws is greater than the rate of fatalities in states that do have such laws.
(E) In automobile accidents, a greater number of passengers who do not wear seat
belts are injured than are passengers who do wear seat belts.

The cost of producing radios in Country Q is ten percent less than the cost of producing radios in Country Y. Even after
transportation fees and tariff charges are added, it is still cheaper for a company to import radios from Country Q to Country Y
than to produce radios in Country Y.
2. The statements above, if true, best support which of the following assertions?
(A) Labor costs in Country Q are ten percent below those in Country Y.
(B) Importing radios from Country Q to Country Y will eliminate ten percent of
the manufacturing jobs in Country Y.
(C) The tariff on a radio imported from Country Q to Country Y is less than ten
percent of the cost of manufacturing the radio in Country Y.
(D) The fee for transporting a radio from Country Q to Country Y is more than ten
percent of the cost of manufacturing the radio in Country Q.
(E) It takes ten percent less time to manufacture a radio in Country Q than it does
in Country Y.

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During the Second World War, about 375,000 civilians died in the United States and about 408,000 members of the United States
armed forces died overseas. On the basis of those figures, it can be concluded that it was not much more dangerous to be overseas
in the armed forces during the Second World War than it was to stay at home as a civilian.
3. Which of the following would reveal most clearly the absurdity of the
conclusion drawn above?
(A) Counting deaths among members of the armed forces who served in the United
States in addition to deaths among members of the armed forces serving
overseas
(B) Expressing the difference between the numbers of deaths among civilians and
members of the armed forces as a percentage of the total number of deaths
(C) Separating deaths caused by accidents during service in the armed forces from
deaths caused by combat injuries
(D) Comparing death rates per thousand members of each group rather than
comparing total numbers of deaths
(E) Comparing deaths caused by accidents in the United States to deaths caused by
combat in the armed forces

Answer key: 1. B 2. C 3. D

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 22

A report of a government survey concluded that Center City was among the ten cities in the nation with the highest dropout rate
from its schools. The survey data were obtained by asking all city residents over the age of 19 whether they were high school
graduates and computing the proportion who were not. A city school official objected that the result did not seem accurate
according to the schools figures.
1. The school official can most properly criticize the reasoning by which the
survey report reached its result for failure to do which one of the following?
(A) take into account instances of respondents dropping out that occurred before
the respondents reached high school
(B) ask residents whether they had completed their high school work in fewer than
the usual number of years
(C) distinguish between residents who had attended the citys schools and those

347

who had received their schooling elsewhere


(D) predict the effect of the information contained in the report on future high
school dropout rates for the city
(E) consider whether a diploma from the citys high schools signaled the same
level of achievement over time

Whittaker: There can be no such thing as the number of medical school students who drop out before their second year, because
if they drop out, they never have a second year.
Hudson: By your reasoning I cannot help but become rich, because there is similarly no such thing as my dying before my first
million dollars is in the bank.
2. Hudson responds to Whittaker by
(A) showing that a relevantly analogous argument leads to an untenable
conclusion
(B) citing a specific example to counter Whittakers general claim
(C) pointing out that Whittaker mistakes a necessary situation for a possible
situation
(D) claiming that what Whittaker says cannot be true because Whittaker acts as if
it were false
(E) showing that Whittakers argument relies on analyzing an extreme and
unrepresentative case

The symptoms of mental disorders are behavioral, cognitive, or emotional problems. Some patients with mental disorders can be
effectively treated with psychotherapy. But it is now known that in some patients mental disorders result from chemical
imbalances affecting the brain. Thus these patients can be effectively treated only with medication that will reduce or correct the
imbalance.
3. The argument depends on assuming which one of the following?
(A) Treatment by psychotherapy can produce no effective reduction in or
correction of chemical imbalances that cause mental disorders.
(B) Treatment with medication always shows faster results for patients with
mental disorders than does treatment with psychotherapy.

348

(C) Most mental disorders are not the result of chemical imbalances affecting the
brain.
(D) Medication is always more effective in treating patients with mental disorders
than is psychotherapy.
(E) Treatment with psychotherapy has no effect on mental disorders other than a
reduction of the symptoms.

Answer key: 1.C 2. A 3. A

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 23

At one time, European and Japanese companies tried to imitate their American rivals. Today, American appliance
manufacturers import European scientists to lead their research staffs; American automakers design cars that mimic the
styling of German, Italian, and French imports; and American electronics firms boast in their advertising of Japanese-style
devotion to quality and reliability. In the world of high technology, America has lost the battle for international prestige.
1. Each of the following statements, if true, would help to support the claim
above EXCEPT:
(A) An American camera company claims in its promotional literature to produce
cameras as fine as the best Swiss imports.
(B) An American maker of stereo components designs its products to resemble
those of a popular Japanese firm.
(C) An American manufacturer of video games uses a brand name chosen because
it sounds like a Japanese word.
(D) An American maker of televisions studies German-made televisions in order to
adopt German manufacturing techniques.
(E) An American maker of frozen foods advertises its dinners as Real Europeanstyle entrees prepared by fine French and Italian chefs.

Current farm policy is institutionalized penalization of consumers. It increases food prices for middle- and low-income
families and costs the taxpayer billions of dollars a year.
2. Which of the following statements, if true, would provide support for the

349

authors claims above?


I. Farm subsidies amount to roughly $20 billion a year in federal payouts and
$12 billion more in higher food prices.
II. According to a study by the Department of Agriculture, each $1 of benefits
provided to farmers for ethanol production costs consumers and taxpayers $4.
III. The average full-time farmers have an average net worth of over $300,000.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) I, II, and III

No nation can long survive unless its people are united by a common tongue. For proof, we need only consider Canada,
which is being torn asunder by conflicts between French-speaking Quebec and the other provinces, which are dominated by
English speakers.
3. Which of the following, if true, most effectively challenges the authors
conclusion?
(A) Conflicts over language have led to violent clashes between the Basquespeaking minority in Spain and the Spanish-speaking majority.
(B) Proposals to declare English the official language of the United States have met
with resistance from members of Hispanic and other minority groups.
(C) Economic and political differences, along with linguistic ones, have
contributed to the provincial conflicts in Canada.
(D) The public of India, in existence sine 1948, has a population that speaks
hundreds of different, though related, languages.
(E) Switzerland has survived for nearly a thousand years as a home for speakers of
three different languages.

Answer key: 1. E 2. D 3. E

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 24

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Among the more effective kinds of publicity that publishers can get for a new book is to have excerpts of it published in a highcirculation magazine soon before the book is published. The benefits of such excerption include not only a sure increase in sales
but also a fee paid by the magazine to the books publisher.
1. Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the information
above?
(A) The number of people for whom seeing an excerpt of a book in a magazine
provides an adequate substitute for reading the whole book is smaller than the
number for whom the excerpt stimulates a desire to read the book.
(B) Because the financial advantage of excerpting a new book in a magazine
usually accrues to the books publisher, magazine editors are unwilling to
publish excerpts from new books.
(C) In calculating the total number of copies that a book has sold, publishers
include sales of copies of magazines that featured an excerpt of the book.
(D) The effectiveness of having excerpts of a book published in a magazine,
measured in terms of increased sales of a book, is proportional to the circulation
of the magazine in which the excerpts are published.
(E) Books that are suitable for excerpting in high-circulation magazines sell more
copies than books that are not suitable for excerpting.

In Swartkans territory, archaeologists discovered charred bone fragments dating back 1 million years. Analysis of the fragments,
which came from a variety of animals, showed that they had been heated to temperatures no higher than those produced in
experimental campfires made from branches of white stinkwood, the most common tree around Swartkans.
2. Which of the following, if true, would, together with the information above,
provide the best basis for the claim that the charred bone fragments are
evidence of the use of fire by early hominids?
(A) The white stinkwood tree is used for building material by the present-day
inhabitants of Swartkans.
(B) Forest fires can heat wood to a range of temperatures that occur in campfires.
(C) The bone fragments were fitted together by the archaeologists to form the
complete skeletons of several animals.
(D) Apart from the Swartkans discovery, there is reliable evidence that early

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hominids used fire as many as 500 thousand years ago.


(E) The bone fragments were found in several distinct layers of limestone that
contained primitive cutting tools known to have been used by early hominids.

Reviewer: The book Arts Decline argues that European painters today lack skills that were common among European painters of
preceding centuries. In this the book must be right, since its analysis of 100 paintings, 50 old and 50 contemporary, demonstrates
convincingly that none of the contemporary paintings are executed as skillfully as the older paintings.
3. Which of the following points to the most serious logical flaw in the
reviewers argument?
(A) The paintings chosen by the books author for analysis could be those that most
support the books thesis.
(B) There could be criteria other than the technical skill of the artist by which to
evaluate a painting.
(C) The title of the book could cause readers to accept the books thesis even before
they read the analysis of the paintings that supports it.
(D) The particular methods currently used by European painters could require
less artistic skill than do methods used by painters in other parts of the world.
(E) A reader who was not familiar with the language of art criticism might not be
convinced by the books analysis of the 100 paintings.

Answer key: 1. A 2. E 3. A

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 25

The people who are least likely to be audited by the Internal Revenue Service this year are those who have been audited since
1985 and who were found to have made no mistakes in filing their returns during that audit.
1. Of the following people, who is MOST likely to be audited by the IRS?
(A) A person who was audited in 1986 but was not found to have made any
mistakes in filing his return.
(B) A person who was audited in 1986 and whose lawyercorrected several

352

mistakes in the tax return prior to the filing deadline.


(C) A person whose spouse was convicted of tax fraud in 1987, who was then
audited and found to have made no mistakes.
(D) A person who was last audited in 1984, and had no mistakes uncovered by the
IRS during that audit.
(E) A person who was audited in each of the past five years, but was found to have
made no mistakes in any of the filings.

A mail order company recently had a big jump in clothing sales after hiring a copywriter and a graphic artist to give its clothing
catalog a magazinelike format designed to appeal to a more upscale clientele. The company is now planning to launch a
housewares catalog using the same concept.
2. The companys plan assumes that
(A) other housewares catalogs with magazinelike formats do not already exist
(B) an upscale clientele would be interested in a housewares catalog
(C) the same copywriter and graphic artist could be employed for both the clothing
and housewares catalogs
(D) a magazinelike format requires a copywriter and a graphic artist
(E) customers to whom the old clothing catalog appealed would continue to make
purchases from catalogs with the new format

Television programming experts maintain that with each 1% increase in the prime-time ratings of a television station there is a
3.5% increase in the number of people who watch its evening news program. However, in the last ten years at Channel NTR,
there was only one year of extremely high prime-time ratings and during that year, fewer people than ever watched Channel
NTRs evening news program.
3. Which of the following conclusions can properly be drawn from the statements
above?
(A) When a news program has good ratings, the channel as a whole will have good
ratings.
(B) The programming experts neglected to consider daytime news programs.
(C) The year of high ratings at NTR was a result of two hit shows which were
subsequently canceled because of contractual problems.
(D) The ten-year period in question is not representative of normal viewing

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patterns.
(E) Prime-time ratings are not the only factor affecting how many people watch an
evening news program.

Answer key: 1. D 2. B

3. E

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 26

Reva: Using extraneous incentives to get teenagers to change their attitude toward school and schoolwork wont work. Take the
program in West Virginia, for instance, where they tried to reduce their dropout rate by revoking the driving licenses of kids who
left school. The program failed miserably.
Anne: Its true that the West Virginia program failed, but many schools have devised incentive programs that have been very
successful in improving attendance and reducing discipline problems.
1. According to Anne, the weak point in Revas claim is that it
(A) fails to consider the possibility that the majority of potential dropouts in West Virginia do
not have driving licenses
(B) doesnt provide any exact figures for the dropout rate in West Virginia before and during
the program
(C) ignores a substantial body of evidence showing that parents and employers have been
using extrinsic incentives with positive results for years
(D) assumes that a positive incentivea prize or a rewardwill be no more effective than a
negative incentive, like the revoking of a driving license
(E) is based on a single example, the incentive program in West Virginia, which may not be
typical

The U.S. census is not perfect: thousands of Americans probably go uncounted. However, the basic statistical portrait of the
nation painted by the census is accurate. Certainly some of the poor go uncounted, particularly the homeless; but some of the rich
go uncounted as well, because they are often abroad or traveling between one residence and another.
2. Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument above depends?
(A) Both the rich and the poor have personal and economic reasons to avoid being counted by
the census.

354

(B) All Americans may reasonably be classified as either poor or rich.


(C) The percentage of poor Americans uncounted by the census is close to the percentage of
rich Americans uncounted.
(D) The number of homeless Americans is approximately equal to the number of rich
Americans
(E) The primary purpose of the census is to analyze the economic status of the American
population.

Mainline Airways was bought by its employees six years ago. Three years ago, Mainline hired QualiCo Advertising Agency to
handle its promotions and advertising division. Today Mainlines profits are over 20 percent higher than they were five years ago
and 10 percent higher than they were three years ago. Employee ownership and a good advertising agency have combined to
make Mainline more profitable.
3. Which of the following best describes the weak point in the argument above?
(A) It fails to establish a causal connection between the change in ownership at Mainline
Airways and the hiring of QualiCo, on the one hand, and the rise in Mainlines profits, on
the other.
(B) It presents no evidence showing that employee-owned airlines are any more profitable
than other airlines.
(C) It assumes that the profits of Mainline Airways will continue to rise.
(D) It gives no exact figures for the current profits of Mainline Airways.
(E) It fails to explain how the profits of Mainline Airways are calculated.

Answer key: 1. E 2. C 3. A

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 27

At an enormous research cost, a leading chemical company has developed a manufacturing process for converting wood fibers
into a plastic. According to the company, this new plastic can be used for, among other things, the hulls of small sailboats. But
what does the company think sailboat hulls used to be made of? Surely the mania for high technology can scarcely go further
than this.
1. The authors opinion of the manufacturing process described in the passage is

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based primarily on the fact that


(A) plastic is unlikely to be durable enough for high-quality sailboat hulls
(B) the research costs of developing the process outweigh any savings possible from the use of
the plastic
(C) a small sailboat is not normally regarded as a high-tech product
(D) hulls for small sailboats can be made from wood without converting it into plastic
(E) many other spheres of human activity are in far greater need of technological research

2. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the authors
conclusion?
(A) The plastic produced by the process is considerably lighter, stronger, and more watertight
than wood.
(B) The wood used in producing the plastic is itself in increasingly short supply.
(C) The cost of the manufacturing process of the plastic increases the cost of producing a
sailboat hull by 10 to 15 percent.
(D) Much of the cost of the research that developed the new process will be written off for tax
purposes by the chemical company.
(E) The development of the new plastic is expected to help make the chemical company an
important supplier of boat-building materials.

3. Which of the following best completes the passage below?


Monarch butterflies, whose average life span is nine months, migrate from the midwestern United States to selected forests
outside Mexico City. It takes at least three generations of monarchs to make the journey, so the great-great-grandchildren who
finally arrive in the Mexican forests have never been there before. Yet they return to the same trees their forebears left. Scientists
theorize that monarchs, like homing pigeons, map their routes according to the earths electromagnetic fields. As a first step in
testing this theory, lepidopterists plan to install a low-voltage transmitter inside one grove of butterfly trees in the Mexican
forests. If the butterflies are either especially attracted to the grove with the transmitter or especially repelled by it, lepidopterists
will have evidence that______.
(A) monarch butterflies have brains, however minuscule
(B) monarch butterflies are sensitive to electricity
(C) low-voltage electricity can affect butterflies, whether positively or adversely
(D) monarchs map their routes according to the earths electromagnetic fields
(E) monarchs communicate in intergenerationally via electromagnetic fields

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Since the invention of digital readout, machine designers have rushed to replace conventional dials and gauges with digital units.
Yet the digital gauge has drawbacks in some situations. Since it presents an exact numeric value, it must be decoded and
analyzed by a human operator; its meaning cannot be read in an instantaneous scanning. An analog dial or gauge can be marked
with red to alert the operator when a value is entering a danger zone; a digital gauge cannot. And it is difficult to tell whether a
digital readout is increasing or decreasing over time, while the up or down movement of a pointer on an analog gauge can be
quickly and easily observed.
4. The author of the passage above would probably recommend the use of digital
gauge in cases when
I.

warning of a sudden rise or fall in value is needed

II.

an operator must read and interpret several gauges within a few seconds

III.

a precise numeric value is essential

(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

Answer key: 1. D 2. A

3. B

4. B

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 28

Roses always provide a stunning display of color, but only those flowers that smell sweet are worth growing in a garden. Some
roses have no scent.
1. Which one the following conclusions can be properly drawn from the passage?
(A) Some flowers which provide a stunning display of color are not worth growing in a
garden.
(B) All flowers with no scent provide a stunning display of color.
(C) Some flowers which are worth growing in a garden have no scent.
(D) Some roses which smell sweet are not worth growing in a garden.
(E) No sweet-smelling flower is worth growing in a garden unless it provides a stunning

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display of color.

Book Review: When I read a novel set in a city I know well, I must see that the writer knows the city as well as I do if I am to
take that writer seriously. If the writer is faking, I know immediately and do not trust the writer. When a novelist demonstrates
the required knowledge, I trust the story teller, so I trust the tale. This trust increases my enjoyment of a good novel. Peter Lees
second novel is set in San Francisco, in this novel, as in his first, Lee passes my test with flying colors.
2. Which one of the following can be properly inferred from the passage?
(A) The book reviewer enjoys virtually any novel written by a novelist whom she trusts.
(B) If the book reviewer trusts the novelist as a storyteller, the novel in question must be set
in a city the book reviewer knows well.
(C) Peter Lees first novel was set in San Francisco.
(D) The book reviewer does not trust any novel set in a city that she does not know well.
(E) The book reviewer does not believe that she knows San Francisco better than Peter Lee
does.

Someones benefiting from having done harm to another person is morally justifiable only if the person who was harmed knew
that what was done could cause that harm but consented to its being done anyway.
3. Which of the following judgments most closely conforms to the principle above?
(A) Attempting to avoid being kept after school as punishment for breaking a window, Sonia
falsely claimed that her brother had broken it; Sonias action was morally unjustifiable
since it resulted in both children being kept after school for something only Sonia had
done.
(B) Since Ned would not have won the prize for best model airplane if Pennys brother had not
inadvertently damaged her entry while playing with it. Ned is morally unjustified in
accepting his prize.
(C) Wesley, a doctor, persuade Max to take part in a medical experiment in which a new drug
was being tested: since Wesley failed to warn Max about the serious side effects of the drug
and the drug proved to have no other effects, Wesley was morally unjustified in using the
results obtained from Max in his report.
(D) Because Rogers mother suffered severe complications as a result of donating a kidney to
him for lifesaving kidney transplant, it was morally unjustifiable for Roger to receive the
transplant, even though his mother, herself a doctor, had been eager for the transplant to

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be performed.
(E) For James, who was convicted of having defrauded a large number of people out of their
savings and wrote a book about his scheme while in prison, to be denied the profits from
his book would be morally unjustifiable since he was already been punished for his crime.

Answer key: 1. A 2. E 3. C

All-Skills Verbal Reasoning Test 29

Some commentators complain that a litigation explosion in the past decade has led to unreasonably high costs for U.S.
businesses by encouraging more product liability suits against manufacturers. However, these complaints are based mainly on
myth. Statistics show that the number of successful product liability suits has remained almost the same, and the average sum
awarded in damages has grown no faster than the inflation rate.
1. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument above?
(A) The number of unsuccessful suits has skyrocketed, imposing huge new legal expenses on
businesses.
(B) Several of the largest awards ever made in product liability cases occurred within the last
two years.
(C) The rise of the consumer movement has encouraged citizens to seek legal redress for
product flaws.
(D) Lawyers often undertake product liability cases on a contingency basis, so their payment
is based on the size of the damages awarded.
(E) Juries often award damages in product liability suits out of emotional sympathy for an
injured consumer.

In the industrialized nations, the last century has witnessed a shortening of the average workday from twelve hours or longer to
less than eight hours. Mindful of this enormous increase in leisure time over the past century, many people assume that the same
trend has obtained throughout history, and that, therefore, prehistoric humans must have labored incessantly for their very
survival.
We cannot, of course, directly test this assumption. However, a study of primitive peoples of today suggests a different
conclusion. The Mbuti of central Africa, for instance, spend only a few hours each day in hunting, gathering, and tending to other

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economic necessities. The rest of their time is spent as they choose. The implication is that the short workday is not peculiar to
industrialized societies. Rather, both the extended workday of 1880 and the shorter workday of today are products of different
stages of the continuing process of industrialization.
2. Which of the following inferences about industrialization is best supported by
the passage above?
(A) People in advanced industrialized societies have more leisure time than those in
nonindustrialized societies.
(B) An average workday of twelve hours or more is peculiar to economies in the early stages
of industrialization.
(C) Industrialization involves a trade-off between tedious, monotonous jobs and the benefits of
increased leisure.
(D) It is likely that the extended workday of an industrializing country will eventually be
shortened.
(E) As industrialization progresses, people tend to look for self-fulfillment in leisure rather
than work.

Determining the authenticity of purported pre-Columbian artifacts is never easy. Carbon-14 dating of these artifacts is often
impossible due to contamination by radioactive palladium (which occurs naturally in the soils of Central and South America).
However, historians and anthropologists have evolved two reliable criteria, which, utilized in combination, have proven effective
for dating these artifacts. First, because authentic pre-Columbian artifacts characteristically occur in a coarse, granular matrix that
is shifted by major earthquakes, they often exhibit the unique scratch patterns known as gridding. In addition, true pre-Columbian
artifacts show a darkening in surface color that is caused by centuries of exposure to the minute amounts of magnesium in the soil
of the Americas.
3. The criteria above would be LEAST useful in judging the authenticity of which of
the following?
(A) An ax head of black obsidian, unearthed from a kitchen midden
(B) A pottery bowl with a red ocher design, found in the ruins of a temple
(C) A set of gold ear weights, ornamented with jasper pendants
(D) A black feather cape from a kings burial vault
(E) A multicolored woven sash found near the gravesite of a slave

Answer key: 1. A 2. D 3. D

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All-skills Verbal Reasoning Test 30

Gloria: Those who advocate tuition tax credits for parents whose children attend private schools maintain that people making no
use of a government service should not be forced to pay for it. Yet those who choose to buy bottled water rather than drink water
from the local supply are not therefore exempt from paying taxes to maintain the local water supply.
Roger: Your argument is illogical. Children are required by law to attend school. Since school attendance is a matter not of
choice, but of legal requirement, it is unfair for the government to force some parents to pay for it twice.
1. Which of the following responses by Gloria would best refute Rogers charge that
her argument is illogical?
(A) Although drinking water is not required by law, it is necessary for all people, and
therefore my analogy is appropriate.
(B) Those who can afford the tuition at a high-priced private school can well bear the same
tax burden as those whose children attend public schools.
(C) If tuition tax credits are granted, the tax burden on parents who choose public schools will
rise to an intolerable level.
(D) The law does not say that parents must send their children to private schools, only that
the children must attend some kind of school, whether public or private.
(E) Both bottled water and private schools are luxury items, and it is unfair that some
citizens should be able to afford them while others cannot.

Investing in real estate would be a profitable venture at this time. A survey in House magazine revealed that 85% of the
magazines readers are planning to buy a second home over the next few years. A study of the real estate industry, however,
revealed that the current supply of homes could only provide for 65% of that demand each year.
2. Which of the following, if true, reveals a weakness in the evidence cited above?
(A) Real estate is a highly labor-intensive business.
(B) Home builders are not evenly distributed across the country.
(C) The number of people who want second homes has been increasing each year for the past
ten years.
(D) Readers of House magazine are more likely than most people to want second homes.
(E) House magazine includes articles about owning a second home as well as articles about

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building a second home.


3. Which of the following, if true, would undermine the validity of the investment
advice in the paragraph above?
(A) Some home owners are satisfied with only one home.
(B) About half of the people who buy homes are investing in their first home.
(C) About half of the people who buy homes have to take out a mortgage to do so.
(D) Only a quarter of the homes that are built are sold within the first two weeks.
(E) Only a quarter of those who claim that they want a second home actually end up
purchasing one.

A newly discovered disease is thought to be caused by a certain bacterium. However, recently released data notes that the
bacterium thrives in the presence of a certain virus, implying that it is actually the virus that causes the new disease.
4. Which of the following pieces of evidence would most support the datas
implication?
(A) In the absence of the virus, the disease has been observed to follow infection by the
bacterium.
(B) The virus has been shown to aid the growth of bacterium, a process which often leads to
the onset of the disease.
(C) The virus alone has been observed in many cases of the disease.
(D) In cases where the disease does not develop, infection by the bacterium is usually preceded
by infection by the virus.
(E) Onset of the disease usually follows infection by both the virus and the bacterium.

Answer key: 1. A 2. D

3. E

4. C

Review 71 -80

IDIOM REMINDER

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The following are the idioms presented in idiom lessons 71 80.

1. Cook the books


2. Eyes like a hawk
3. Agree to differ
4. Neither here nor there
5. The tip of the iceberg
6. Have an ax to grind with
7. See red
8. Caught red
9. Down to earth
10. Zero tolerance

Quick Quiz
Choose the answer choice that best completes the blank in each of the following.

1. Bill was sitting and daydreaming so his mother told him to come --------- and to do
his homework.
A. to the tip of the iceberg
B. down to earth
C. to agree to differ

2. Whenever anyone teased John about his weight, he ---------.


A. saw read
B. was caught red
C. cooked the book

3. When they dont seem to have irreconcilable attitudes, they can go along well as
they always ---------.
A. have an ax to grind with each other
B. cook the books
C. agree to differ

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4. She cant stand people entering her room with their shoes on. On she has a
------------ attitude.
A. down-to-earth
B. zero tolerance
C. eyes like a hawk

5. The general manager was ----------- and misleading the board of directors.
A. agreeing to differ
B. cooking the books
C. caught red

6. Teacher to the student: Perhaps you did stay up late finishing your homework.
That's ------------. You still must come to school on time.
A. the tip of the iceberg
B. zero tolerance
C. neither here nor there

7. The criminal was ----------- while holding up the neighborhood bank at gunpoint.
A. caught red
B. down to earth
C. cooking the books

8. We never got away with anything in Mrs. Podell's classshe ------------.


A. was neither here nor there
B. agreed to differ
C. had eyes like a hawk

Answer key: 1. B 2. A
5. B

3. C

6. C 7. A

4. B
8. C

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Practice 1

(a) quantity in column A is greater


(b) quantity in column B is greater
(c) both quantities are equal
(d) the relationship cannot be determined from the information given

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(a) quantity in column A is greater


(b) quantity in column B is greater
(c) both quantities are equal
(d) the relationship cannot be determined from the information given

Answer key:

366

Practice 2

1. In the coordinate plane, for which of the following values of x would the graph of the equation y = x3 - x2 - 6x touch the x axis?
(A) 2
(B) 3

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(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) 6

2. Points P, Q and R lie in the coordinate plane. If P = (1, 5), Q = (1, 1), and R = (7, y), how
many different integer values for y could be chosen to form triangle PQR, where none of the
angles in PQR is greater than 90?
(A) 0
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 7
(E) It cannot be determined from the information given.

3.

Polygon ABCD is a square.


Quantity A

Quantity B

0.6x

The length of side BD

(A) quantity in column A is greater


(B) quantity in column B is greater
(C) both quantities are equal
(D) the relationship cannot be determined from the information given

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Answer key:

Practice 4

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Answer key:

4. D: Parallelogram ABCD is comprised of two congruent right triangles, ABD and BCD. The length of diagonal BD is 4, as can
be determined from the Pythagorean Theorem or the 3-4-5 triangle rule. Thus, the area of each of the right triangles is 1/2 X 3 X
4 = 6, and the area of ABCD is 12.

5. D. In the figure, x = z (alternate exterior angles of a transversl) and y + z = 180 (supplementary angles). Combining, y + z =
180 so that y = 180 - x. The comparison is therefore between y - z = (180 - x) x.Depending on the value of x, either 180
- 2x or x may be greater, or the two quantities may be equal. We do not have enough information to determine which is the
case.

6. E: The x-intercept of a line is the value of x at which the line crosses the x-axis. When a line crosses the x-axis, the value
of y equals zero. Thus the x-intercept can be determined by setting y equal to zero in the equation for the line:2x + 0 = 7, so x =
3.5.

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Practice 1

(A) quantity in column A is greater


(B) quantity in column B is greater
(C) both quantities are equal
(D) the relationship cannot be determined from the information given

Answer key:

371

Practice 2

1. A number line is divided by 10 evenly spaced tick marks. The length between each tick mark
equals p, and p is a prime number.
Indicate all the possible lengths of the number line described above:
(A) 10
(B) 18
(C) 22
(D) 24
(E) 27

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(F) 30
(G) 36
(H) 117
(I) 130

2.

X/100 is an integer.
Quantity A
X3

Quantity B
X2 + 100

(A) quantity in column A is greater


(B) quantity in column B is greater
(C) both quantities are equal
(D) the relationship cannot be determined from the information given

3. Let X represent a number line such that -1 < x < 5. Let Y represent a number line such that
6 y 10. If X were shifted by 5 in the positive direction and Y were shifted by 2 in the
positive direction, how many common integers would the new X and in the new Y share?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

Answer key:

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Practice 3

1. If a is a positive integer, then which of the following must be true of (a - l)(a)(a + 1)?
Indicate all that apply.
A. It is always positive.
B. It is always odd.
C. It is always divisible by 3.
D. It is always divisible by 4.
E. It is non-prime.

2.

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Quantity A

Quantity B

68 5 3 42

69 5 3 49

___________

___________

36 8 2

38 2 8

3. If 32a 11b= 274x332x, then x must equal which of the following?


A. 2a
B. 2b
C. 7a- 2b
D. a/7
E. b/2

Answer key:

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Lesson 1

1. Five stand-by passengers are waiting for three open seats on an airplane flight. In
how many different ways can three passengers be arranged in these seats?
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 20
(0) 60
(E) 125

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2. When two fair dice are rolled, what is the probability that at least one of the
numbers will be even?
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/3
(C) 1/2
(D) 2/3
(E) 3/4

3.
60% of the students in a classroom are girls.
Quantity A

Quantity B

The ratio of boys to girls in the classroom 5

3/5

(A) quantity in column A is greater


(B) quantity in column B is greater
(C) both quantities are equal
(D) the relationship cannot be determined from the information given

4.
A pancake recipe calls for 1/5 cup sugar for every cup of flour.
Quantity A
Number of cups of sugar in 2 cups of sugar/flour mix

Quantity B
3/5

(A) quantity in column A is greater


(B) quantity in column B is greater
(C) both quantities are equal
(D) the relationship cannot be determined from the information given

5. A printer can print 12 pages per minute. At that rate, how many seconds will the
printer require to print 30 pages?
(A) 2.5
(B) 30
(C) 42
(0) 150
(E) 360

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Answer key:

378

Issue Sample 1

Issue Sample 1

379

Issue:

"In order to improve the quality of instruction at the college and university level, all faculty should be required to spend time
working outside the academic world in professions relevant to the courses they teach."

Essay Outline

I. The teachers in some disciplines such as mathematics, literature, history,

philosophy, etc., may find it difficult to combine their teaching with relevant

professional fields.

II. Working experience in relevant professions enables college and university

faculty to offer practical instruction to students.

A. First, faculty who are actively engaged in their fields come to class with fresh insights

and contagious excitement about the issue at hand.

B. Secondly, by keeping abreast with the changing demands of work as a professional,

professors can help students who are serious about pursuing a career in that field to make

more informed career decisions.

C. Thirdly, experience in the field can help a professor ferret out cutting-edge and

controversial issueswhich might be appropriate subjects for research and publication.

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Sample Essay

Whether college faculty should also work outside academia, in professional work related to their academic fields, depends
primarily on the specific academic area. With respect to fields in which outside work is appropriate, I strongly agree with the
statement; students and faculty all stand to gain in a variety of respects when a professor complements academic duties with realworld experience.

As a threshold matter, the statement requires qualification in two respects. First, in certain academic areas there is no
profession to speak of outside academia. This is especially true in the humanities; after all, what work outside academia is there
for professors of literature or philosophy? Secondly, the statement fails to consider that in certain other academic areas a
professor's academic duties typically involve practical work of the sort that occurs outside academia. This is especially true in the
fine and performing arts, where faculty actively engage in the craft by demonstrating techniques and styles for their students.

Aside from these two qualifications, I strongly agree that it is worthwhile for college faculty to work outside academia in
professional positions related to their field. There are three clear benefits of doing so. First, in my experience as a student, faculty
who are actively engaged in their fields come to class with fresh insights and a contagious excitement about the subject at hand.
Moreover, they bring to their students practical, real-world examples of the principles and theories discussed in textbooks,
thereby sparking interest, and even motivating some students to pursue the field as a career.

Secondly, by keeping abreast with the changing demands of work as a professional, professors can help students who are
serious about pursuing a career in that field to make more informed career decisions. The professor with field experience is
better able to impart useful, up-to-date information about what work in the field entails, and even about the current job market.

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After all, college career-planning staff are neither equipped nor sufficiently experienced to provide such specific advice to
students.

A third benefit has to do with faculty research and publication in their areas of specialty. Experience in the field can help a
professor ferret out cutting-edge and controversial issues-which might be appropriate subjects for research and publication.
Moreover, practical experience can boost a professor's credibility as an expert in the field. For example, each year a certain
sociology professor at my college combined teaching with undercover work investigating various cults. Not only did the students
benefit from the many interesting stories this professor had to tell about his experiences, the professor's publications about cults
catapulted him to international prominence as an expert on the subject, and justifiably so.

In sum, aside from certain academic areas in which outside work is either unavailable or unnecessary, students and faculty
alike stand everything to gain when faculty enrich their carees by interspersing field work with academic work.

Issue Sample 2

Issue:
"One can best understand the most important characteristics of a society by studying its major cities."

Outline
It is no longer true the major cities are characteristic of a society.
1. Major cities can be used to find out about economy and technology
2. However, due to the influence of globalization, major cities throughout the world look more
or less the same.
3. By contrast, the rural areas of a society maintain more of its cultural tradition.

Sample Essay

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The most important characteristics of the societies are diversified into two categories, economical development and cultural
perseverance. Thus by only analyzing major cities we cannot recognize the most important characteristics of a society. A detailed
analysis of major cities as well as small towns would attribute to understand the peculiarities of the society. Thus, I partially
agree with the issue statement.
First of all let us consider the role of major cities in defining societys major characteristics. While accounting for economic
or industrial development, metro cities certainly exhibit the important characteristics of the society. They are supposed to be heart
of the country, like New York in the U.S., Paris in France or London in Britain. The advancement in the technology, as well as
the new trends of living styles can be depicted through the major cities. Thus, the major characteristics of society that embraces
technical or economic advances can be easily understood by studying the major cities.
However, the societies of any nation cannot reveal much about cultural aspects. Hence, just considering the major cities
would not reveal the true characteristics of that society. Due to globalization, the major cities are more like cosmopolitan; where
people from different countries abide. Thus, in major cities mostly a mixed culture emerges. Therefore, from cultural point of
view, major cities hardly denote important characteristics of the societies. Therefore careful study of small towns is important to
understand the complete characteristics of the society.
As was stated above, important characteristics of the society can also be delineated through its culture and art which can be
best analyzed in suburbs or in rural areas. Any nations cultural traditions such as folk art, traditional songs, crafts, customs and
ceremonies burgeon in small towns and rural areas. Thus, nations distinct cultural traditions can flourish in small towns rather
than in big cities. Hence, study of small town along with major cities reveals the actual individuality of any society. For
examples, local clothes of people in different parts of a country can only practically observed when one travels to such places
inside each country.
In sum, the major characteristics of the society can be understood by studying major cities as well as the rural areas. One
depicts the economic advancement of the nation and the other portraits the cultural traditions of that nation, respectively.

Issue Sample 3

Issue:
Claim: Nations should suspend government funding for the arts when significant numbers of their citizens are hungry or
unemployed.
Reason: It is inappropriateand, perhaps, even cruelto use public resources to fund the arts when people's basic needs are not
being met.
Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the claim and the reason on which
that claim is based.

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Essay Outline
Claim:
-

The implicit rationale behind the writers statement seems to be that cultural
enrichment pales in importance compared to food, clothing, and shelter.

It might also be tempting to agree with the writer on the basis that arts patronage is
neither an appropriate nor a necessary function of government.

Reason
-

On the other hand are compelling arguments that public support for the art is
desirable, whether or not unemployment and hunger have been eliminated. One such
argument is that by allocating public resources to the arts, we actually help

A second argument against the writers position has to do with the function and
ultimate objectives of art.

Sample Essay

The writer of the issue claims that using public resources to support the arts should be stopped in a society where some people
go without food, jobs, and basic survival skills. He further reasons that if public resources are used to patronize arts, the action
carried out is anything but fair. In what follows I will fist discuss my response to the claim and then explain what I think of the
reason on which the claim stands.
I dont think that the claim is acceptable on two grounds. First, the implicit rationale behind the writer's statement seems to
be that cultural enrichment pales in importance compared to food, clothing, and shelter. That the latter needs are more
fundamental is indisputable; after all, what starving person would prefer a good painting to even a bad meal? Accordingly,
concede that when it comes to the use of public resources it is entirely appropriate to assign a lower priority to the arts than to
these other pressing social problems. Yet, to postpone public arts funding until we completely eliminate unemployment and
hunger would be to postpone arts funding forever; any informed person who believes otherwise is envisioning a pure socialist
state where the government provides for all of its citizens' needs a vision which amounts to fantasy.
The second reason why I think the claim is tenuous that it assumes arts patronage is a necessary function of government.
This is wrong in three respects. First, it seems ill-conceived to relegate decision and choices about arts funding to a handful of
bureaucrats, who are likely to decide based on their own quirky notions about art, and whose decisions might be susceptible to
influence-peddling. Second, private charity and philanthropy appear to be alive and well today. For example, year after year the
Public Broadcasting System is able to survive, and even thrive, on donations from private foundations and individuals.
As far as the reason is concerned, I think public support of arts is not cruel; actually I believe there are two compelling
arguments that public support for the arts is desirable, whether or not unemployment and hunger have been eliminated. One such

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argument is that by allocating public resources to the arts we actually help to solve these social problems. Consider Canada's film
industry, which is heavily subsidized by the Canadian government, and which provides countless jobs for film-industry workers
as a result. The Canadian government also provides various incentives for American production companies to film and produce
their movies in Canada. These incentives have sparked a boon for the Canadian economy, thereby stimulating job growth and
wealth that can be applied toward education, job training, and social programs. The Canadian example is proof that public arts
support can help solve the kinds of social problems with which the writer is concerned.
A second argument against the writer's position has to do with the function and ultimate objectives of art. Art serves to lift
the human spirit and to put us more in touch with our feelings, foibles, and fate-in short, with our own humanity. With a
heightened sensitivity to the human condition, we become more others-oriented, less self-centered, more giving of ourselves. In
other words, we become a more charitable society-more willing to give to those less fortunate than ourselves in the ways with
which the writer is concerned. The writer might argue, of course, that we do a disservice to others when we lend a helping handby enabling them to depend on us to survive. However, at the heart of this specious argument lies a certain coldness and lack of
compassion that, in my view, any society should seek to discourage. Besides, the argument leads inexorably to certain political,
philosophical, and moral issues that this brief essay cannot begin to address.
In the final analysis, the beneficiaries of public arts funding are not limited to the elitists who stroll through big city
museums and attend symphonies and gallery openings, as the writer might have us believe. Public resources allocated to the arts
create jobs for artists and others whose livelihood depends on a vibrant, rich culture just the sort of culture that breeds charitable
concern for the hungry, the helpless, and the hapless.

Sample Issue 4

Issue:
" People work more productively in teams than individually. Teamwork requires cooperation,
which motivates people much more than individual competition does."

Issue Outline
Position: The authprs contention is an overstatement. There are are jobs in which teawork is essential for prodcutivy and there are
others in which what is important is individual endeavors. However, it should not be forgotten that in almost most jobs a
comibnation of both is necessary
Para 1: There are jobs in which teamwork make a great contribution to prodcutivity.

Para 2: There are also occupations or positions which can be better done based on personal

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motivation and competition with others.

Para 3: However, as stated in the intorudctory paragraph, in almost all jobs a combination of teamwork and individual
competition can guarantee success.

Sample Essay

The writer of the issue asserts that because teamwork requires cooperative effort, people are more motivated and therefore
more productive working in teams than working individually as competitors. My view is that this assertion is true only in some
cases. If one examines the business world, for example, it becomes clear that which approach is more effective in motivating
people and in achieving productivity depends on the specific job.
In some jobs productivity clearly depends on the ability of coworkers to cooperate as members of a team. For businesses
involved in the production of products through complex processes, all departments and divisions must work in lock-step fashion
toward product roll-out. Cooperative interaction is even essential in jobs performed in relative isolation and in jobs in which
technical knowledge or ability, not the ability to work with others,would seem to be most important. For example, scientists,
researchers,and even computer programmers must collaborate to establish common goals, coordinate efforts, and meet time lines.
Moreover, the kinds of people attracted to these jobs in the first place are likely to be motivated by a sense of common purpose
rather than by individual ambition.
In other types of jobs individual competition, tenacity, and ambition are the keys to productivity. For example, a
commissioned salesperson's compensation, and sometimes tenure and potential for promotion as well, is based on comparative
sales performance of coworkers.Working as competitors a fitm's individual salespeople maximize productivity-in terms of profitboth for themselves and for their firm. Key leadership positions also call, above all,for a certain tenacity and competitive spirit.
(A) firm's founding entrepreneur must maintain this spirit in order for the firm to survive, let alone to maximize productivity.
Moreover, in my observation the kinds of people inclined toward entrepreneurship and sales in the first place are those who are
competitive by nature, not those who are motivated primarily by a sense of common purpose.
On balance, however, my view is that cooperation is more crucial for an organization's long-term productivity than
individual competition. Even in jobs where individual competitiveness is part-and-parcel of the job, the importance of
cooperation should not be underestimated. Competition among sales people can quickly grow into jealousy, back-stabbing, and
unethical behavior-all of which are counterproductive. And even the most successful entrepreneurs would no doubt admit that
without the cooperative efforts of their subordinates, partners, and colleagues, their personal visions would never become reality.
In sum, individual competitiveness and ambition are essential motivating forces for certain types of jobs, while in other jobs
it is a common sense of mission that motivates workers to achieve maximum productivity. In the final analysis, however, the
overall productivity of almost every organization depends ultimately on the ability of its members to cooperate as a team.

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Argument Sample 1

Error Types
V.D: vague data
I.I: incomplete information
U.C: unrelated concepts
C.S: changing scopes
F.A: false analogy
I.C: incomplete comparison
F.D: false dilemma
I.T: incomplete thought
NCR: non causal relationship
I.E: insufficient evidence
U.A: unwarranted assumption
Adv:disadv: failing to weigh the advantage and disadvantage thoroughly
PF/ PC/ CF/CP: inferring future (current/past) condition from past (current)
condition

Argument
The following appeared in a letter to the editor of the Clearview newspaper.

"In the next mayoral election, residents of Clearview should vote for Ann Green who is a member of the Good Earth
Coalition, rather than for Frank Braun, a member of the Clearview town council (3), because the current members are not
protecting our environment. For example, during the past year the number of factories in Clearview has doubled (1), air pollution
levels have increased, and the local hospital has treated 25 percent more patients with respiratory illnesses (2) . If we elect Ann
Green, the environmental problems Clearview will certainly be solved.(4,5)"
Write a reponse in which you examine the stated and/or unstated assumptions of the argument. Be sure to explain how the
argument depends on these assumptions and what the implications are for the argument if the assumptions prove
unwarranted.

Outline

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1.

The argument unfairly assumes that last year's increase in the number of factories was due to the city council's
decisionsrather than to some other phenomenonand that this increase poses environmental problems for
Clearview. (NCR)

2.

The argument also assumes unfairly that last year's increase in the number of patients reporting respiratory problems
indicates worsening environmental problems in Clearview.(NCR)

3.

The editorial provides no evidence to substantiate the assumption that Braun was a factor in the city councils
decisions. (I.I)

4.

The mere fact that Green is a member of the Good Earth Coalition hardly suffices to prove her willingness and ability
to help solve Clearview's environmental problems. (I.E)

5.

The author provides no firm evidence that electing Green is necessary to solve those problems, or that electing Green
would suffice. (necessity and sufficiency of

the solution )

Sample Argument Essay

This editorial recommends that Clearview residents vote to replace city-council member Frank Braun with Ann Green, a
member of the Good Earth Coalition. To support this recommendation the editorial cites a significant increase during the last year
in the number of Clearview factories and in the number of Clearview hospital patients treated for respiratory illnesses. On the
basis of this evidence the author infers that the current council members are not protecting the city's environment and that
electing Green will solve the city's environmental problems. This argument is logically flawed in several critical respects.
To begin with , the argument unfairly assumes that last year's increase in the number of factories was due to the city council's
decisions-rather than to some other phenomenon-and that this increase poses environmental problems for Clearview. The
editorial provides no evidence to substantiate these assumptions. Lacking such evidence it is entirely possible that the council
actually opposed the increase but lacked adequate authority to prevent it, or that the new factories do not in fact harm Clearview's
environment.
The argument also assumes unfairly that last year's increase in the number of patients reporting respiratory problems
indicates worsening environmental problems in Clearview. Perhaps the actual incidence of such health problems has not
increased, and the reported increase is due to increasing awareness among Clearview residents of respiratory problems. Even if
the incidence of respiratory problems has in fact increased, the increase might be due to an influx of people with preexisting such

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problems, or to more effective cigarette marketing. Since the editorial fails to rule out these and other possible explanations for
the increase, I cannot accept any conclusions about Clearview's environment-let alone about who voters should elect to city
council-based on last year's hospital records.
Even if the two cited increases do indicate a worsening of Clearview's environment due to the city council's decisions, the
argument rests on the further assumption that Braun was a factor in those decisions. But, since the editorial provides no evidence
to substantiate this assumption it is equally possible that Braun actually opposed the decisions that were responsible for these
increases. Thus, without better evidence that Braun contributed to key decisions adversely effecting Clearview's environment, the
editorial remains unconvincing.
Even assuming that Braun was at least partially responsible for the two increases, and that those increases indicate a
worsening environment, the editorial provides no clear evidence that Green would be effective in reversing that trend-let alone
more effective than Braun. The mere fact that Green is a member of the Good Earth Coalition hardly suffices to prove her
willingness and ability to help solve Clearview's environmental problems, at least not without more information about that
coalition and Green's involvement in it.
Finally, even if Green would in fact be more effective than Braun in solving Clearview's environmental problems, the author
provides no firm evidence that electing Green is necessary to solve those problems, or that electing Green would suffice. Perhaps
another candidate, or another course of action, would be more effective. Even if Green does everything in her power as city
council member to solve these problems, perhaps additional measures-such as replacing other council members, state legislators,
or even the state's governor-would also be required in order to achieve Clearview's environmental objectives.
In sum, the editorial's author cannot justify his or her voting recommendation on the basis of the scant evidence provided in
the editorial. To bolster the recommendation the author must provide better evidence that (1) Clearview has environmental
problems to begin with, (2) Green would be more effective than either Braun or any other candidate in solving those problems,
and (3) electing Green would suffice to solve those problems. To better assess the argument I would need to know the scope of
the city council's authority respecting environmental decisions. I would also need to know Braun's voting record on
environmental issues, Green's experience and position on those issues, and the voters' other choices-besides Green and Braun.

Argument Sample 2

Error Types
V.D: vague data
I.I: incomplete information
U.C: unrelated concepts
C.S: changing scopes

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F.A: false analogy


I.C: incomplete comparison
F.D: false dilemma
I.T: incomplete thought
NCR: non causal relationship
I.E: insufficient evidence
U.A: unwarranted assumption
Adv:disadv: failing to weigh the advantage and disadvantage thoroughly
PF/ PC/ CF/CP: inferring future (current/past) condition from past (current)
condition

Argument
The following appeared in a memo from a vice president of Alta Manufacturing.
"During the past year, Alta Manufacturing had thirty percent more on-the-job accidents(2,4) than nearby Panoply Industries,
where the work shifts are one hour shorter than ours(5). Experts believe that a significant contributing factor in many on-the-job
accidents is fatigue and sleep deprivation among workers. Therefore, to reduce the number of on-the-job accidents at Alta(6) and
thereby increase productivity(1), we should shorten each of our three work shifts by one hour so that our employees will get
adequate amounts of sleep(3)."

Write a response in which you examine the stated and/or unstated assumptions of the argument. Be sure to explain how
the argument depends on these assumptions and what the implications are for the argument if the assumptions prove
unwarranted.

Outline
1. The president provides no evidence that overall worker productivity is attributable in
part to the number of on-the-job accidents. (NCR)
2. The president assumes that some accidents at Alta are caused by fatigue or sleep
deprivation. (U.A)
3. The assumption that Alta's workers would use the additional hour of free time to sleep
or rest is open to doubt. (U.A)
4. The president fails to consider that the per-worker accident rate might reveal that
Alta is actually safer than Panoply, depending on the total number of workers at each
company. (V.D)
5. The president fails to consider possible differences between Alta and Panoply which

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render them incomparable. (F.A)


6. Merely shortening the work shifts might not suffice to reduce the number of on-the-job
accidents. (sufficiency of the solution)

Sample Essay
This editorial recommends that Alta Manufacturing reduce its work shifts by one hour each in order to reduce its on-the-job
accident rate and thereby increase Alta's productivity.To support this recommendation the author points out that last year the
number of accidents at Alta was 30% greater than at Panoply Industries, where work shifts were one hour shorter.The author also
cites certain experts who believe that many on-the-job accidents are caused by fatigue and sleep deprivation. I find this the
argument unconvincing for several reasons.
First and foremost, the author provides absolutely no evidence that overall worker productivity is attributable in part to the
number of on-the-job accidents. Although common sense informs me that such a relationship exists, the author must provide
some evidence of this cause-and effect relationship before I can accept the author's final conclusion that the proposed course of
action would in fact increase Alta's productivity.
Secondly, the author assumes that some accidents at Alta are caused by fatigue or sleep deprivation. However, the author
overlooks other possible causes, such as inadequate equipment maintenance or worker training, or the inherent hazards of Alta's
manufacturing processes. By the same token, Panoply's comparatively low accident rate might be attributable not to the length of
its work shifts but rather to other factors, such as superior equipment maintenance or worker training. In other words, without
ruling out alternative causes of on-the-job accidents at both companies, the author cannot justifiably conclude that merely by
emulating Panoply's work-shift policy Alta would reduce the number of such accidents.
Thirdly, even assuming that Alta's workers are fatigued or sleep deprived, and that this is the cause of some of Alta's on-thejob accidents, in order to accept the author's solution to this problem we must assume that Alta's workers would use the additional
hour of free time to sleep or rest. However, the author provides no evidence that they would use the time in this manner. It is
entirely possible that Alta's workers would use that extra hour to engage in some other fatiguing activity. Without ruling out this
possibility the author cannot convincingly conclude that reducing Alta's work shifts by one hour would reduce Alta's accident
rate.
Finally, a series of problems with the argument arise from the scant statistical information on which it relies. In comparing the
number of accidents at Alta and Panoply, the author fails to consider that the per-worker accident rate might reveal that Alta is
actually safer than Panoply, depending on the total number of workers at each company. Second, perhaps accident rates at the
two companies last year were aberrations, and during other years Altals accident rate was no greater, or even lower, than
Panoply's rate. Or perhaps Panoply is not representative of industrial companies generally, and that other companies with shorter
work shifts have even higher accident rates. In short, since the argument relies on very limited statistical information I cannot
take the author's recommendation seriously.

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In conclusion, the recommendation for emulating Panoply's work-shift policy is not well supported. To convince me that
shorter work shifts would reduce Altals on-the-job accident rate, the author must provide clear evidence that work-shift length is
responsible for some of Aka's accidents. The author must also supply evidence to support her final conclusion that a lower
accident rate would in fact increase overall worker productivity.

Argument Sample 3

Error Types
V.D: vague data
I.I: incomplete information
U.C: unrelated concepts
C.S: changing scopes
F.A: false analogy
I.C: incomplete comparison
F.D: false dilemma
I.T: incomplete thought
NCR: non causal relationship
I.E: insufficient evidence
U.A: unwarranted assumption
Adv:disadv: failing to weigh the advantage and disadvantage thoroughly
PF/ PC/ CF/CP: inferring future (current/past) condition from past (current)
condition

Argument

The following appeared in a memorandum issued by the strategic planning department at Omni Inc.
"Mesa Foods, a manufacturer of snack foods that currently markets its products within a relatively small region of the country,
has strong growth potential. Mesa enjoyed a 20 percent increase in profits last year(3,4), and its best-selling product, Diabolique
Salsa, has had increased sales over each of the past three years(2). Since Omni Inc. is interested in reaching 14-to-25 year olds,
the age group that consumes the most snack food(1), we should buy Mesa Foods(5), and concentrate in particular on marketing
Diabolique Salsa throughout the country."

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Write a response in which you examine the stated and/or unstated assumptions of the argument. Be sure to explain how
the argument depends on these assumptions and what the implications are for the argument if the assumptions prove
unwarranted.

Outline
1. The assumption that Mesa's snack foods appeal to 14-to-25-year olds is open to doubt.
(U.A)
2. The increased sales of Diabolique Salsa in the region where it is sold does not indicate that
it will also gain success nationwide. (C.S)
3. We do not know how large is the snack food market in the region where Mesas products
are sold, thus the 20% increase may be insignificant. (V.D)
4. Last year's 20% increase in Mesa's profits may be an aberration, no evidence could
indicate that this trend will continue in the future. (PF)
5. We do not know the profitability of other food products of Mesa Food, thus could not
evaluate if Omni should buy the entire company. (I.I/necessity of the solution)

Essay Sample

This Omni, Inc. memorandum recommends that Omni buy snack-food manufacturer Mesa Foods and aggressively promote
its brand of salsa nationwide. T o support this recommendation the memo relies on the exceptional profitability of Mesa's salsa
during the last three years, along with the fact that Mesa's overall profits were up last year. However, the recommendation relies
on a series of unsubstantiated assumptions, which render it unconvincing as it stands.
First of all, the memo indicates that Omni is interested in selling to 14-to-25-yearolds. Accordingly, the argument rests on the
assumption that Mesa's snack foods appeal to this age group. Yet, we are not informed what types of snack foods Mesa
manufactures, aside from its salsa. It is entirely possible that Mesa's foods, including its salsa, appeal primarily to other age
groups. If this is the case, the recommended acquisition would not serve Omni's goal.
Secondly, the argument rests on the assumption that in the region where Mesa's products are sold the preferences of
consumers between the ages of 14 and 25 typify nationwide preferences among this age group. If this is not the case, then it is
entirely possible that Omni would not sell enough Mesa snack foods, including its salsa, to earn a profit from its Mesa operation.
Thus, without more marketing information about the snack-food tastes of 14-to-25-year-olds nationwide it is difficult to assess
the merit of the memo's recommendation.
Even if the memo's author can substantiate the foregoing assumptions, the author overlooks the possibility that last year's
20% increase in Mesa's profits was an aberration, and that in most other years Mesa has not been profitable. Also, the 20%

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increase might have been due entirely to sales of Mesa's salsa, and aside from the profit from salsa sales Mesa's profitability is
actually declining. If either is the case, and if Mesa's salsa does not turn out to be popular among 14-to-25-year-olds across the
nation, then Omni is unlikely to profit from the recommended course of action.
In conclusion, the recommendation is not well supported. To convince me that the Mesa Foods acquisition would be
profitable Omni would need to provide clear statistical evidence that Mesa's snack foods, and its salsa in particular, would appeal
to 14-to-25-year-olds nationwide. To better evaluate the recommendation, I would need more information about Mesa's
profitability over a longer time period, and about the extent to which Mesa's salsa accounts for any such profitability.

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