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You are on page 1of 26

(Civil Engineering Set-2 Session-7)

Q.1 - Q. 5 Carry one mark each.

12. IF the new number formed by reversing the

digits is greater than the original number by

54, find the original number.

(A) 39

(B) 57

expensive.

(A) wont buy

(B) shant buy

(C) wouldnt buy

(C) 66

Ans. (C)

Wouldnt buy

Ans. (A)

Let the number be xy

What does the underlined phrasal verb mean ?

(A) ignored

(B) appreciated

(C) twisted

sum of digits = x + y = 12

No. formed by reversing the digits

(yx) = 10y+x

(D) returned

Ans. (A)

Igonored

x + y = 12

T

6.

(A) 2% of xy

(B) 2% of (xy/100)

IE

(D) 100% of xy

Ans. (A)

x

xy

x% of y y

ie 1% of xy

100 100

xy

xy

i.e 1% of xy

100 100

(x% of y) (y% x)

IES MASTER

IES/GATE/PSUs

x 3

IES MASTER

fixed annual rates of interest on the amounts

invested with them. The rates of interest offered

by these companies may differ from year to

year. Year-wise annual rates of interest offered

by these companies are shown by the line

graph provided below.

Ans. (C)

Where there is a will, there is a way

y% of x

y 9

(D) Where, their, their

2y = 18

No. is 39

... (2)

x + y = 6

the options given below to complete the

following sentence.

_____ _____ is a will, _____ is a way.

4.

9x + 9y = 54

3.

... (i)

2.

(D) 93

1.

5.

2xy

2% of xy

100

2000

9.5

2001

2002

10

9

8

2003

8

7.5

2004

6.5

2005

2006

and Q, in 2006 are in the ratio 8:9, then the

amounts received after one year s interests

from companies P and Q would be in the

ratio :

(A) 2:3

(B) 3:4

(C) 6:7

(D) 4:3

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(Civil Engineering Set-2 Session-7)

rQ =4%

Ans. (B)

These are facts. Consider Humans a

mammals B Engineers C

for 2006

8x 6

Interest after one year in P =

100

B

A

C

9x 4

Interest after one year in Q =

100

no it.

Ratio of interest = 8x x 6 : 9x 4

9.

= 48 : 36

because of the copious evidence he left behind

in the form of stone carved edicts. Historians

tend to correlate greatness of a king at his

time with the availability of evidence today.

Which of the following can be logically inferred

from the above sentences ?

x2

(C)

0.50x 2

8.

IE

Ans. (D)

Fact 2 : Some humans are engineers.

Fact 3 : Engineers build houses.

If the above statements are facts, which of the

following can be logically inferred ?

I.

II.

III.

(A) II only

(D) I only

IES MASTER

IES MASTER

IES/GATE/PSUs

slant height

x/4

Area of 1 face =

(D) 0.25x 2

x/2

x/2

ensure that later historians with respect

him.

(C) Statues of kings are a reminder of their

greatness.

(B) 0.75x 2

Ans. (D)

It has similar

sculpted evidence are completely forgotten.

(A)

7.

4 : 3 Ans.

the slant height is half of the perimeter. What

is the lateral surface area of the pyramid ?

Ans. (D)

rp = 6%

Height =

10.

1

base height.

2

2

x x

2 8 0.484 x

hours to read a book. Both started reading

copies of the book at the same time. After

how many hours is the number of pages to be

read by Ananth, twice that to be ready by

Bharath? Assume Ananth and Bharath read all

the pages will constant pace.

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

Ans. (C)

1

th of the book

6

1

and in one hour Bharath reads th of the

6

book

Lets say after x hrs:

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(Civil Engineering Set-2 Session-7)

x

6

x

No. of pages to be read by Bharath = 1

4

x

x

x

x

1 2 1 1 2

6

6

2

4

3x x

1 x 3

6 6

End of the Question Paper

= 6 8

3.

f x 0,

in the interval , is

at a road section are 66, 62, 45, 79, 32, 51,

56, 60, 53 and 49. the median speed

(expressed in km/hr) is _____.

(Note : answer with one decimal accuracy)

....

2

3

1

x = 0 gives

3 62

2 66

n 1

(B)

(A)

4 60

5 56

6 53

7 51

8 45

10 32

n2

n1

2

6

1n1 2

n2

12

2

8

(C)

2n 1

n1

Speed 54.5

(D)

n1

IE

V5 V6

56 53

=

2

2

Median speed =

1n1

2n 1

Ans. (C)

f x x 2 4x 2 is

(A) 2 (maximum)

(B) 2 (minimum)

(C) 2 (maximum)

(D) 2 (minimum)

4.

It is known that P(X) = 0.40 and P X Y C

= 0.7. Which one of the following is the value

Ans. (D)

2 (minimum)

of P X Y ?

2

f(x) = x 4x 2

f (x) = 2x 4 0

x 2

IES MASTER

IES MASTER

2 cos x cos3x

.....

4 12

32

d x

1 79

x 0

x, 0 x

Ans.

2.

minima

f(2) 2

1.

and f 2 0

IES/GATE/PSUs

(A) 0.7

(B) 0.5

(C) 0.4

(D) 0.3

Ans. (A)

P(x) = 0.4

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(Civil Engineering Set-2 Session-7)

P (x U yc) = 0.7 = P(X) + P (yc) P(x yc)

0.7 = P(x) +

P(yc)

P(x)

r=3

j=7

kinematic indeterminancy = 2j R

= 2 7 3 = 11

P(yc)

0.6 P(yc) = 0.3

7.

P (yc) = 0.5

1 P(y) = (0.5)

P (y) 0.5

concrete beam, the maximum allowable shear

stress Cmax

x 0

y 0

Ans.

5.

P (x y) 0.7

Ans. (B)

According to IS 4562000

xy

?

x2 y2

8.

end A and supported by an elastic rope C-D at

end C is shown in the figure. The members

may be assumed to be weightless and the

lengths of the respective members are as

shown in the figure.

(A) 1

(B) 1

(C) 0

(D) Limit does not exist

IE

shown in the figures is

L

Rigid arm

Rope

C

L

C as shown, the magnitude of tension

developed in the rope is

(A) 11

(B) 8

(C) 3

(D) 0

Ans. (A)

Ans. (D)

A limit should be same for every function. But

1

here f or y = x, l imit =

and f or

2

2

y = 2x limit =

Doesnt exist

5

6.

depends on the

(A)

3P

2

(B)

P

2

(C)

3P

8

(D)

2P

m = 11

IES MASTER

IES MASTER

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(Civil Engineering Set-2 Session-7)

Ans. (B)

P

2

Wood work

Cooling

3

I

T

T

L

L

2

2

(C) 0 and 0

(D) 81 and 0

(38, 38)

(1, 1)

(0, 0)

1

acceptable compressive strength of any class

of burnt clay bricks in dry state is

(A) 10.0 MPa

(B) 7.5 MPa

11.

Ans. (D)

3.5 MPa is minimum acceptable compressive

strength of burnt clay bricks

activities. The estimated duration (in days)

required to complete each of the activities along

with the corresponding network diagram is

shown below.

Activity

Duration

IE

A

Inauguration

Foundation work

Structural construction-1

30

Structural construction-2

30

25

Plastering

Flooring

25

Electrification

Plumbing

J

7

(77, 77)

10

G

5

(38, 38)

(63, 63)

(81,81)

12

25

(80,80)

L

11

3

1

(70, 70)

path, hence total float of each activity will be

zero (0). option (c) 0 and 0.

A strip footing is resting on the surface of a

purely clayey soil deposit. If the width of the

footing is doubled, the ultimate bearing capacity

of the soil

(A) becomes double

(B) becomes half

10.

12

(70, 70)

F

30

30

9.

(8, 8)

(63, 63)

25

(B) 1 and 1

Ans. (C)

2T P

11

(A) 25 and 1

PL =

11-12 for the project are respectively,

45

10

(D) remains the same

Ans. (D)

remains the same

qnu = CNC, It does not have any factor of width

12.

sand (G) and the hydraulic gradient (i) to initiate

quick condition in the sand layer having porosity

of 30% is

(A) G = 0.7i + 1

(B) G = 1.43i 1

(C) G = 1.43i + 1

(D) G = 0.7i 1

IES MASTER

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IES/GATE/PSUs

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(Civil Engineering Set-2 Session-7)

Ans. (C)

e

icr = i

1m

n

0.3 3

1 n 0.7 7

Floor

3

G 1 = i 1

7

10 m

(B) 1.50

(C) 1.77

(D) 2.00

T

(A) 2.75 m

(B) 1.25 m

(C) 0.8 m

(D) Data not sufficient

Ans. (B)

15.

over an area of 1000 km2. The porosity and

specific retention of the aquifer material are

25% and 5% respectively. The amount of water

(expressed in km3) drained out from the area

is _____.

IE

2

= 60 kN/m

nr = 5% ; n = 25%

c 90

1.5

60

= 0.2 109 m3

Ans. 0.2 km3

16.

IES/GATE/PSUs

nr ny = n

ny = 25 5 = 20%

shown in figure I and an elementary profile

upstream pile only case according to Khoslas

theory is shown in figure II. The uplift pressure

heads at key points Q, R and S are 3.14 m,

2.75 m and 0 m, respectively (refer figure II).

IES MASTER

Figure -II

downstream of the weir (junction of floor and

pile as shown in the figure I)?

= (16 10) 10

OCR =

40 m

= sub 10

R

5m

4m

(A) 0.67

5m

undisturbed soil, sampled at a depth of 10 m

below the ground level are as follows :

Saturated unit weight : 16 kN/m3

Pre-consolidation pressure : 90 kPa

The water table was encountered at the ground

level. Assuming the unit weight of water as 10

kN/m3, the over-consolidation ratio of the soil

is

10 m

25 m

Figure -I

IES MASTER

5m

G 1.43 i 1 Ans.

14.

Weir

3m

G 1

= i

1 e

13.

Gate

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(Civil Engineering Set-2 Session-7)

Shear stress

relationship of different types of fluids, as shown

in the figure.

5

(expressed in m) of the settling tanks is _____.

Ans. (6.909 m)

Discharge through one tank

=

4

2

Area =

yield stress

1500

750 m3 /day

2

discharge

750 m3 /day

37.5 m2

overflow rate

20 m/day

d 6.909 m

19.

Group I

Group II

1. Curve 1

Q.

R.

Plastic fluid

3. Curve 3

S.

Dilatant fluid

4. Curve 4

5. Curve 5

Newtonian fluid

P.

II is

Ans. (385.714)

found to be 420 mg/L as CaCO3. A softener

containing ion exchange resign was installed

to reduce the total hardness to 75 mg/L as

CaCO3 before supplying to 4 households. Each

household gets treated water at a rate of 540

L/day. If the efficiency of the softener is 100%,m

the bypass flow rate (expressed in L/day) is

_____.

Rate of shear

2

d 37.5

4

PUMP

Tank

420 mg/L)

540

540

540

540

Bypass flow

Ans. (C)

surface is

IE

17.

75 mg/L

75 =

420 Q1 Q2 0

Q1 Q2

75 =

420 Q1

2160

(B) the stratosphere

(C) the thermosphere

Q1 385.714

Ans. (D)

18.

20.

1500 m 3/day of water. A settling column

analysis indicates that an overflow rate of 20

m/day will produce satisfactory removal for a

depth of 3.1 m. It is decided to have two circular

IES MASTER

IES MASTER

IES/GATE/PSUs

the faintest sound that a normal healthy

individual can hear is

(A) 0.2

(B) 2

(C) 20

(D) 55

Ans. (C)

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21.

(Civil Engineering Set-2 Session-7)

for rigid pavement design, consider the following

pair of statements.

I : Radius of relative stiffens is directly related modulus of elasticity of concrete

and inversely related to Poissons ratio.

II : Radius of relative stiffness is directly related to thickness of slab and modulus of

subgrade reaction.

(D) both side-lap as well as end-lap

Ans. (D)

During optimal flight planning photogrammetric

survey should be carried out considering both

side-lap as well as end-lap (i.e., longitudinal)

lap

24.

correct ?

N30E. The departure of the line is

(A) 10.00 m

(B) 8.66 m

(C) 7.52 m

(D) 5.00 m

Ans. (D)

AB = 10 m

30

Ans. (B)

1/4

Departure = AB sin 30

as , 1 2 l radius of relative

1

2

= 5.00 m obtion (D)

(C) 1.732 R

Ans. (A)

(D) 30

Ans. (A)

If veh/day ranges 3000 to 6000, min

percentage of traffic to be surveyed is 15%.

(D) 3.464 R

23.

60

tan

(C) 25

straights with a deflection angle of 60. The

tangent length is

(A) 0.577 R

(B) 1.155 R

IE

day ranges from 3000 to 6000, the minimum

percentage of commercial traffic to be surveyed

for axle load is

(A) 15

(B) 20

25.

0.5

77

R

l h3/4

Statement II is also false

1

l 1/4

k

= 10

30

=

related

22.

Eh3

l =

12 (1 2 )k

Statement I is false.

30

60

survey should be carried out considering

(A) only side-lap

(B) only end-lap

IES MASTER

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IES/GATE/PSUs

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(Civil Engineering Set-2 Session-7)

(C) Mean of f(x) and g(s) are different; Variance of f(x) and g(x) are same.

Consider the following linear system.

(D) Mean of f(x) and g(s) are different; Variance of f(x) and g(x) are different.

x 2y 3z a

2x 3y 3z b

Ans. (B)

5x 9y 6z c

28.

the equation

(A) 7a b c = 0

(B) 3a + b c = 0

(A) 0

(B) 30

(C) 45

(D) 90

Ans. (D) 90

(C) 3a b + c = 0

(D) 7a b + c = 0

1 2 3 a

1 2 3 a

R2 2R1 R2

2 3 3 b

R3 5R1R3 0 1 9 2a b

5 9 6 c

0 1 9 5a c

2a b = 5a c

x2 = 4y,

In

functions,

27.

3a b c 0

29.

dy

4

at (0, 0)

dx 2 4x

between them = 90

the straight line y = 8 is _____.

Ans. (85.33)

IE

y =8

x

a : a x 0

x

g x : 0 x a

a

0: otherwise

8

x2

2

8

dx

A = 0

8

x3

64

= 2 8x

2 64

0 85.33

24

3

(A) Mean of f(x) and g(s) are same; Variance

of f(x) and g(x) are same.

(B) Mean of f(x) and g(s) are same; Variance

of f(x) and g(x) are different.

IES MASTER

IES MASTER

IES/GATE/PSUs

dy x

0 at (0, 0)

dx 2

y2 = 4x,

x

a 1: a x 0

f x

x 1: 0 x a

a

90

Ans. (B)

26.

30.

x 3 3x 2 5 at the point x = 0 is

(A)

3x 2 6x 5

(B) 3x 2 5

(C)

3x 2 6x 5

(D) 3x 2 5

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10

(Civil Engineering Set-2 Session-7)

Ans. (B)

f(x) = x3 3x2 5

(x a)

(x a)2

f

f(x) = f(a) f (a)

1!

2!

approximation at x = 0

= f(0) f (0)x f (0)

Ans. (B)

x2

2

x 5

y 5

f (x) = 3x2 6x

f(0) = 0

f (x) 6x 6

(5, )

approximation = 5 0 x ( 6)

=

of stress as shown in the figure. For no change

in the volume to occur, what should be its

Poissons ratio ?

(0, 0)

(5, )

55

(0)2 2

2

10 =

Ans.

(10, 0)

31.

3x2

x2

2

f (0) 6

33.

w

R

subjected to a uniformly distributed vertical load

w (per unit length).

(A) 0.00

(B) 0.25

(C) 0.50

(D) 1.00

L/2

P

Ans. (C)

32.

V 0

2 (1 2) 0

E

E E

IE

V 0

Q is

(A) zero

0.5

figure, the major principal stress is 10 MPa.

5

(B)

wL2

hogging

24

(C)

wL2

hogging

12

(D)

wL2

hogging

8

IES MASTER

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(Civil Engineering Set-2 Session-7)

Ans. (C)

Ans. (A)

This can be treated as simply supported

11

F1

AP

F2

45

MQ 0

(S)

50 2

100 kN

90

S

w

F1

figure under the action of weight W. All the

joints are hinged. The properties of the members

in terms of length (L), area (A) and the modulus

of elasticity (E) are also given in the figure. Let

L, A and E be 1 m, 0.052 and 30106 N/m2,

respectively, and W be 100 kN.

2A, E

45

45

S

90

100 2F 100 2

F 50 2

T

45

R

45

45

F3

IE

correct values of the force, stress and change

in length of the horizontal member QR ?

141.4 kN/m2; Shortening = 0.0118 m

(C) Compressive force = 100 kN; Stress =

1000 kN/m2; Shortening = 0.0417 m

(D) Compressive force = 100 kN; Stress =

1000 kN/m2; Shortening = 0.0417 m

P (l 2)

0.0417 m

2AE

100

1000 kN/m2

Stress =

2 A

Shortening =

35.

beam is simply supported at both ends, a

shown in the figure. The beam is subjected to

a uniformly distributed factored load of intensity

10 kN/m. The design shear force (expressed

in kN) at the section X-X of the beam is _____.

5m

10 kN/m

600 mm

40 kN/m

Effective span = 20 m

Ans. (65)

Vu = 50 kN

Mu = 375 kNm

design shear = Vu

IES MASTER

F4 50 2

50 2

250 kN/m2; Shortening = 0.0118 m

IES/GATE/PSUs

F3 100 kN (compressive)

A, E

IES MASTER

FV 0

45

F3 + 50 2 =0

A, E

F2

F4

A,

E

F1 F2

A, E

90

P

34.

Mu tan

d

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(Civil Engineering Set-2 Session-7)

= 50

36.

375 200

65 kN

0.5 10000

subjected to the concentrated vertical loads

as shown in the figure. Cross section of the

prism is given as 150 mm 150 mm.

Considering linear stress distribution across

the cross-section, the modulus of rupture

(expressed in MPa) _____.

(A)

p 2 2gd

(B) p2 4gd

(C)

p2 4gd

(D) p 4gd

Ans. (C)

(B 2d)t

P2

t > (B d)t

4g

P2

d

4g

11.25 kN 11.25 kN

P2 > 4gd

R

150 mm

38.

150 mm

concentrated load (P) as shown in the figure.

The beam has two different segments having

different plastic moment capacities (MP, 2MP)

as shown.

Q

150 mm

12

Ans.(3)

2L/3

M

Z

Modules of rupture =

=

(150)

6

3 MPa

arrangement of bolt holes are shown in figures

1 and 2. The hole diameter, pitch, and gauge

length are d, p and g, respectively.

IE

37.

11.25 0.15 10

MP

2 MP

beam would collapse (ultimate load) is

(A) 7.5 MP/L

Ans. (A)

First mechanism

P

2MP

MP

Figure 1

2MP

P

2l

4P

3

3

Figure 2

ensured to have higher net tensile capacity of

configuration shown in Figure 2 than that

shown in Figure 1 ?

IES MASTER

IES/GATE/PSUs

2MP

2L

3

2PL

4MP 3MP

2MP MP 2MP MP P

IES MASTER

8.25 MP

l

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(Civil Engineering Set-2 Session-7)

min and the head loss is 5 m. The rate of

seepage (expressed in cm3/s per m length of

the dam) through the earthen dam is _____.

Second mechanims

P

2MP

Ans. (5)

MP

2L

7.5 MP

l

= 5 104 m3 /s/m

q 500 cm3 /s/m

8.25 MP 7.5 MP

,

P = min

l

l

41.

7.5 MP

l

option A

below the ground level. The entire soil mass is

retained by a concrete retaining wall and is in

the active state. The back of the wall is smooth

and vertical The total active earth pressure

(expressed in kN/m2 at point A as per Rankines

theory is _____.

70

W

3

80

10

20

R

4

40

U

3

50

S

4

X

2

Sand

3

4m

V

2

60

is

(C) 15 days

IE

TE = 0

10

TE = 2

P

20

2

R

4

30

40

S

3

TE = 5

c soil

70

5

50

TE = 6

60

Ka2 =

= 79.33

50

T E = 15

a = Ka2 A w 7 2 25 Ka2

a 69.654

is represented by a flow net comprising of 10

equipotential drops and 20 flow channels. The

IES MASTER

IES MASTER

IES/GATE/PSUs

1 sin 24

0.4217

1 sin 24

option (c)

40.

c 25 kN/m2 , 24

Ans. (69654)

W

3

T E = 13

X

80

2

U

3

TE = 6

T E = 10

T

32

(D) 16 days

Ans. (C)

TE calculation by forward path method is:

Q

3

TE = 6

3m

(B) 14 days

(A) 13 days

1m

90

P

2

T

5

30

construction project is shown in the figure. The

duration (expressed in days) of the activities

are mentioned below the arrows.

Q

3

39.

Nf 3 103

52

Nd

60

5MP = P

q = kH

MP

MP

2L/3

13

42.

moisture content and maximum dry density

obtained from standard Proctor compaction

test, respectively. OMC-MP and MDD-MP

Website : www.iesmaster.org E-mail: ies_master@yahoo.co.in

14

(Civil Engineering Set-2 Session-7)

maximum dry density obtained from the

modified Proctor compaction test, respectively.

Which one of the following is correct ?

(A) OMC-SP < OMC-MP and MDD-SP <

MDD-MP

(B) OMC-SP > OMC-MP and MDD-SP <

MDD-MP

600 mm

MDD-MP

option 2

150 mm

h

200 10

5

k1 1 h1

m

4

l1

24

15 60 80 10

minturn content

OMC-MP OMC SP

MDD SP < MOD MP

samples, Soil 1 and Soil 2, having cross

sectional area of 80 cm2 as shown in the figure.

Over a period of 15 minutes, 200 ml of water

was observed to pass through any cross

section. the flow conditions can be assumed

to be steady state. If the coefficient of

permeability of Soil 1 is 0.02 mm/s, the

coefficient of permeability of Soil 2 (expressed

in mm/s) would be _____.

IE

43.

150 mm

q = ki l i A

d SP

Ans. (0.0454)

d MP

Soil 2

Soil 1

Ans. (B)

Modified proctor compaction test we use heavy

load

MDD-MP

300 mm

l1 0.15 m

Now,

K1 h1 = k2 h2 and h1 + h2 = 0.3

K2

K1h1

h2

h2

K2 0.0454 mm/sec

44.

11

120

Ans.

of 1.5 m below the ground surface in a c-

soil as shown in the figure. The water table is

at a depth of 5.5 m below ground surface. The

soil properties are c = 25 kN/m2, 28.63 ,

and

sat 19kN m 3 ,

bulk 17kN m 3

w 9.981 kN m3 . The values of bearing

capacity factors for different are given below..

NC

Nq

15 12.9 4.4

2.5

20 17.7 7.4

5.0

30 37.2 22.5 19.7

IES MASTER

IES MASTER

IES/GATE/PSUs

Website : www.iesmaster.org E-mail: ies_master@yahoo.co.in

(Civil Engineering Set-2 Session-7)

15

water jet

1.5 m

20 mm

4m

5.5 m

Plate

30

Ans. (7.854)

Ans. (298.48)

3

2

= 0.54589 0.36393

3

20

qnu =

30

200 mm

x

F

= Q V sin30

IE

F =

746.2

298.48 kN/m2

Safe Bearing capacity =

2.5

one of its edges using a hinge support as

shown in figure. A water jet of 20 mm diameter

having a velocity of 10 m/s strikes the plate at

its midpoint, at an angle of 30 with the vertical.

Consider g as 9.81 m/s2 and neglect the selfweight of the plate. The force F (expressed in

N) required to keep the plate in its vertical

position is _____.

hinge

= AV 2 sin 30

2C

1

Nc q(Nq 1) B N

3

2

2 35 17.7

1

1.5 17 6.4 4 17 5

=

3

2

= 746.2 kN/m2

45.

a factor of safety Fs = 2.5, the -net safe bearing

capacity (expressed in kN/m2) for local shear

failure of the soil is _____.

200 mm

=

46.

1

A V 2 sin30

2

1

1

1000 0.022 102

2

4

2

at sixty minute interval are 0, 3, 12, 8, 6, 3

and 0 m3/s. A two-hour storm of 4 cm excess

trainfall occurred in the basin from 10 AM.

Considering constant base flow of 20 m3/s,

the flow of the river (expressed in m3/s) at 1

PM is _____.

Ans. (60)

Convert One-hour unit hydrogrph to two hour

unit hydrograph at 1 pm means at 3rs hour

IES MASTER

IES MASTER

IES/GATE/PSUs

Website : www.iesmaster.org E-mail: ies_master@yahoo.co.in

(Civil Engineering Set-2 Session-7)

Ordinate of Lag

1 hr UH

0

1

2

3

4

5

6

0

3

12

8

6

3

0

Addition

Ordinate of 2 hr

unit hydrograph

0

3

15

20

14

9

3

0

0

1.5

7.5

10

7

4.5

1.5

0

0

3

12

8

6

3

0

loss due to friction as 5% of the velocity head

available at the jet. Assume unit weight of water

= 10 kN/m3 and acceleration due to gravity(g)

= 10 m/s2. If the overall efficiency is 80%,

power generated (expressed in kW and rounded

to nearest integer) is _____.

Ans. (6570)

Energy equation

hr. unit hydrograph + base flow

= 4 10 + 20

= 60 m3/s

H=

Energy at upstream = y

V2

2g

(6 3 0.5)2

= 1.3155 m

2 9.81

Energy at downstream = critical energy

= 0.5

1/3

IE

=

=

3

3 q2

yc

2

2 g

T

= 0.8

1.5 0.7415

1.11229 m

6569.74 kW 67570 kW

to Well-2 which are 100 m apart. The elevation

of water surface in Well-2 is 3 m below that in

Well-1. Assuming porosity equal to 15%, the

coefficient of permeability (expressed in m/day)

is

(A) 0.30

(B) 0.45

(C) 1.00

h

3

L 100

V = ki

i =

0.15 =

Option D

IES MASTER

100

1m/day

100

= 0.15 1 =0.15 m/day

is used to supply water from a reservoir to an

impulse turbine. A nozzle of 15 cm diameter is

fixed at the end of the penstock. The elevation

difference between the turbine and water level

IES/GATE/PSUs

(D) 5.00

Seepage velocity =

0.203 m

IES MASTER

2

4

Ans. (D)

48.

2 10 500

97.59 m/s

1.05

1 2

Power generated = 0 v1

2

49.

Ans. (0.203)

V=

V2

V2

0.05

2g

2g

of 6 m3/s. The depth of flow at a section P is

0.5 m. A flat-topped hump is to be placed at

the downstream of the section P. Assume

negligible energy loss between section P and

hump, and consider g as 9.81 m/s2. The

maximum height of the hump (expressed in

m) which will not change the depth of flow at

section P is _____.

47.

500 =

p 0

V2

hL , hL = 5% of velocity head

2g

16

K 3

100

K 5 m/day

K 5 m/day

Website : www.iesmaster.org E-mail: ies_master@yahoo.co.in

(Civil Engineering Set-2 Session-7)

50.

common ions and results are presented in the

form of a bar diagram as shown.

meq/L 0

2.65

2+

Ca

4.10

Mg

Na

3.30

6.85

K

Cl

3.90

6.75

= (prms )60

L as CaCO3) of the sample is

(B) 165

(C) 195

(D) 205

D60

Now,

E

T

Non-carbonate hardness = 205 165

52.

= 40 mg/L of CaCO3

40 mg/L

from a point source recorded 74 dB. The

reading at a distance of 60 m from the point

source would be _____,

IE

biochemical oxygen demand at incubation

temperature of 20C (BOD3day, 20C) is estimated

as 200 mg/L. Taking the value of the first order

BOD reaction rate constant as 0.22 day1, the

five-day BOD (expressed in mg/L) of the

wastewater at incubation temperature of 20C

(BOD5day, 20C) would be _____.

BOD3 = L0 (1 e3k)

1

rms

BOD5 = L0 (1 e5k)

r2

and noise meter

So,

(Pressure)rms

BOD5 =

1

r

74 20 log10

prms30

prms 3

20

74

20 10 20

for 30 meter

IES MASTER

IES MASTER

IES/GATE/PSUs

w 60 67.98 dB Ans.

Ans. (276.2)

Background

Intensity (Pressure)2

(prms )30

2 20

(prms )30

20 log 102

= 20 log10

20

= 74 6.01

= 20 log10

= 4.1 meq/L

Ans.

(prms )60

20

Noise level at 60 m

51.

= 20log10

Ans. (A)

Total hardenss = meq/L of Ca+2 and Mg+2

Option A

(prms )30

2

(A) 40

1

r

(prms ) 60

30

(p ) 30 =

60

rms

SO 24

HCO 3

meq/L 0

6.35

2+

17

prms

20

(BOD)3 (1 e5k )

(1 e

3k

200 (1 e50.22 )

(1 e30.22 )

BOD5 276.16 mg / L

53.

are found to be 0.30, 0.25 and 0.25. The total

time lost in the cycle is 10 s. Pedestrian

crossing at this junction are not significant.

The respective Green times (expressed in

seconds and rounded off to the nearest integer)

for the three phases are

Website : www.iesmaster.org E-mail: ies_master@yahoo.co.in

18

(Civil Engineering Set-2 Session-7)

Ans.

3

1

2

2

f mg mg 10 l 2 m (V1 V2 )

(D) 50, 25 and 25

V 2 V22

3

g 1

fg

100

2

Ans. (A)

Cycle length

l =

C =

1.5 L 5

, L = 10 sec

1 y

V12 V22

3 g

2 fg

100

1.5 10 5

100 sec

1 0.8

Green times

55.

(C L)y A

(100 10) 0.3

GA = y y y

0.8

A

B

c

(C L)yB

(100 10) 0.25

yA yB y

0.8

Option A

needs to take the next exist, which has a

speed limit of 50 km/h. The section of the

roadway before the ramp entry has a downgrade

of 3% and coefficient of friction (f) is 0.35. In

order to enter the ramp at the maximum

allowable speed limit, the braking distance

(expressed in m) from the exist ramp is _____.

rh2

d = Hh

av

d relief displacement

112.5 82.40

30.1mm

IE

54.

34,28,28

= 28.125 28 sec

Ans.

= 33.75 34 sec

CB =

of 700 m above the datum. The radial distance

of the top and bottom of the tower from the

principal points are 112.50 mm and 82.40 mm,

respectively. If the bottom of the tower is at an

elevation 250 m above the datum, then the

height (expressed in m) of the tower is _____.

C=

= 0.8

IES MASTER

IES MASTER

IES/GATE/PSUs

5

5

100 18 50 18

92.173 m

3

2 9.81 0.35

100

y = y A + yB + y c

30.1=

112.5 h2

700 250

h2 = 120.4 m

Height of tower = 120.4 m

Website : www.iesmaster.org E-mail: ies_master@yahoo.co.in

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