civil paper solv

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civil paper solv

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You are on page 1of 45

GATE_2016_CE

01. If I were you, I________ that laptop. Its much too expensive

(a) wont buy

01. Ans:(c)

Sol: In if clause (type2) were is in the past tense so the so main clause should be in the conditional

clause. Therefore C is the best answer

02. He turned a deaf ear to my request. What does the underlined phrasal verb mean?

(a) Ignored

(b) appreciated

(c) twisted

(d) returned

02. Ans:(a)

Sol: turned a deaf ear means ignored

03. Choose the most appropriate set of words from the options given below to complete the following

sentence.

_____ ______ is a will, ______ is a way.

(a) Wear, there, their (b) Were, their, there

03. Ans:(c)

Sol: Where there is a will there is a way. It is a quotation

(a) 2% of xy

(b) 2% of (xy/100)

(d) 100% of xy

Sol: (x% of y) + (y% of x) =

x

y

y

x

100

100

xy xy

100

2xy

100

= 2% of xy

ACE Engineering Academy

Hyderabad |Delhi |Bhopal |Pune |Bhubaneswar |Bengaluru |Lucknow |Patna |Chennai | Vijayawada |Visakhapatnam | Tirupati

:3:

SET_2_Forenoon Session

Hyderabad |Delhi |Bhopal |Pune |Bhubaneswar |Bengaluru |Lucknow |Patna |Chennai | Vijayawada |Visakhapatnam | Tirupati

:4:

GATE_2016_CE

05. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number formed by reversing the digits

is greater than the original number by 54, find the original number.

(a) 39

(b) 57

(c) 66

(d) 93

Sol: The new number formed by reversing the digits is greater than the original number is possible in

options A and B only.

Options a:

Sum of two digits in the number = 3 + 9 = 12

After reversing the two digits number = 93

The difference between the new number formed and original number = 93 39 = 54

option A is correct.

Option b:

original number = 57

After reversing, the number is formed = 75

The difference between these two numbers = 75 57 = 18

It is not.

06. Two finance companies, P and Q, declared fixed annual rates of interest on the amounts invested

with them. The rates of interest offered by these companies may differ from year to year. Year-wise

annual rates of interest offered by these companies are shown by the line graph provided below.

7

6.5

9

8

9.5

8

10 9

8

8

7.5

6.5

4

If the amounts invested in the companies, P and Q, in 2006 are in the ratio 8:9, then the amounts

received after one year as interests from companies P and Q would be in the ratio:

(a) 2:3

(b) 3:4

(c) 6:7

(d) 4:3

Hyderabad |Delhi |Bhopal |Pune |Bhubaneswar |Bengaluru |Lucknow |Patna |Chennai | Vijayawada |Visakhapatnam | Tirupati

:5:

SET_2_Forenoon Session

Sol: The amounts invested in the companies of, P and Q in 2006 = 8 : 9

The rate of interest of company P in 2006 = 6%

The rate of interest of company Q in 2006 = 4%

The amounts received after one year by P and Q companies in 2006 year

P

6% of 8

6

8

100

4

Q

:

:

:

4% of 9

4

9

100

3

07. Today, we consider Ashoka as a great ruler because of the copious evidence he left behind in the

form of stone carved edicts. Historians tend to correlate greatness of a king at his time with the

availability of evidence today.

Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above sentences?

(a) Emperors who do not leave significant sculpted evidence are completely forgotten.

(b) Ashoka produced stone carved edicts to ensure that later historians will respect him.

(c) Statues of kings are reminder of their greatness.

(d) A kings greatness, as we know him today, is interpreted by historians.

07. Ans:(d)

Sol: Today, historians correlate greatness of a king at his time with the availability of evidence. This

statement leads to the best inference option d

08. Fact 1: Humans are mammals.

Fact 2: Some humans are engineers.

Fact 3: Engineers build houses

If the above statements are facts, which of the following can be logically inferred?

I.

II.

(a) II only

ACE Engineering Academy

(d) I only

:6:

GATE_2016_CE

Sol: From given facts, the following venn diagram is possible.

H = Humans

BH

M = Mammals

E = Engineers

BH = Build houses

From above diagram, statement III is true.

09. A square pyramid has a base perimeter x, and the slant height is half of the perimeter. What is the

lateral surface area of the pyramid?

(a) x2

(b) 0.75 x2

Sol: Base perimeter of square pyramid = x = p

x

Slant height l

2

Lateral surface area of pyramid

1

Base perimeter (p) slant height (l)

2

ACE Engineering Academy

(c) 0.50 x2

(d) 0.25 x2

x/2

x/4

x/4

:7:

x

2

SET_2_Forenoon Session

1

pl

2

1

x

x

2

2

2

x

4

= 0.25x2

10. Ananth takes 6 hours and Bharath takes 4 hours to read a book. Both started reading copies of the

book at the same time. After how many hours is the number of pages to be read by Ananth, twice

that to be read by Bharath? Assume Ananth and Bharath read all the pages with constant pace.

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

Sol: Ananth takes 6 hours to read a book

Bharath takes 4 hours to read a book

L.C.M = 12

The number of pages read by Ananth and Bharath must be 12 (or) multiple of 12 only.

If Ananth read 12 number of pages in 6 hrs

1 hr =

12

= 2 pages

6

1 hr =

12

= 3 pages

4

Option a

1 hrs

Ananth

Read

2 pages

Bharath

Not read

10 pages

Read

3 pages

Not read

9 pages

10 : 9

it is not

ACE Engineering Academy

:8:

GATE_2016_CE

Option b

2 hrs

Ananth

Read

4 pages

Bharath

Not read

8 pages

Read

6 pages

Not read

6 pages

8 : 6

4: 3

it is not

Options c

3 hrs

Ananth

Read

6 pages

Bharath

not Read

6 pages

Read

9 pages

not Read

3 pages

2 :1

After 3 hours is the number of pages to be read by Ananth, twice that to be read by Bharath.

:9:

SET_2_Forenoon Session

01. The spot speeds (expressed in km/hr) observed at a road section are 66, 62, 45, 79, 32, 51, 56, 60, 53

and 49. The median speed (expressed in km/hr) is_______

(Note: answer with one decimal accuracy)

01. Ans: 54.5

Sol: Increasing order of spot speeds

32, 45, 49, 51, 53, 56, 60, 62, 66, 79

Median = middle values average

53 56

= 54.5 kmph

2

(a) 2 (maximum)

(c) 2 (maximum)

(b) 2 (minimum)

(d) 2 (minimum)

Sol: f(x) = x2 4x +2

f(x) = 2x 4 = 0 x = 2

f(x) = 2 > 0 minimum at x = 2

min value is f(2) = 4 8 +2 = 2

03. The fourier series of the function,

f(x) = 0, < x 0

= x, 0 < x <

In the interval [,] is

f x

2 cos x cos 3x

.....

....

4 12

2

3

32

1

1

2

2

6

n 1 n

(a)

(b)

n 1

1n 1

n

2

12

(c)

2n 1

n 1

2

8

(d)

1n 1

2n 1

n 1

: 10 :

GATE_2016_CE

Sol: f 0

2 1 1 1

2 2 2 ...

4 1 3 5

f 0 f 0

2

1

1

1 2 2 ....

2

4 3

5

2

1

1

1 2 2 .....

2 4 3

5

1

1

2

1 2 2 ...

8

3

5

2n 1

n 1

: 11 :

SET_2_Forenoon Session

04. X and Y are two random independent events. It is known that P(X) = 0.40 and P(XYC) = 0.7.

Which one of the following is the value of P(XY) ?

(a) 0.7

(b) 0.5

(c) 0.4

(d) 0.3

Sol: Given P(X) = 0.4

P(X Y ) = 0.7

P(X) + P( Y ) P(X Y ) = 0.7

P( Y )

6

3

, P(Y )

9

9

x 0

y0

xy

?

x y2

2

(b) 1

(a) 1

2

0 .4

5

(c) 0

xy

x 0 x y 2

Sol: lt

It is in the form

0

0

Put y = mx

As y 0, mx 0

x 2m

m

lt

x 0 x 2 1 m2

1 m2

For different values of m we get different limits it is not unique therefore limit does not exist.

: 12 :

GATE_2016_CE

06. The kinematic indeterminacy of the plane truss shown in the figure is

(a) 11

(b) 8

(c) 3

(d) 0

Sol: Dk = 2j r ; j = 7; r = 3

Dk = 2 7 3 = 11

07. As per IS 456-2000 for the design of reinforced concrete beam, the maximum allowable shear stress

(c max) depends on the

(a) grade of concrete and grade of soil

(b) grade of concrete only

(c) grade of steel only

(d) grade of concrete and percentage of reinforcement

Sol: max depends on grade of concrete as per IS: 456-2000

: 13 :

SET_2_Forenoon Session

08. An assembly made of a rigid arm A-B-C hinged at end A and supported by an elastic rope C-D at

end C is shown in the figure. The members may be assumed to be weightless and the lengths of the

respective members are as shown in the figure.

A

Rope

Rigid arm

B

C

L

Under the action of a concentrated load P at C as shown, the magnitude of tension developed in the

rope is

(a)

3P

(b)

(c)

3P

8

(d)

2P

VA

Sol: MA = 0

P l TX l TY l = 0

2T

1

2

HA

TY =T sin45o

T

45o

P 2

P

2

2

TX = Tcos45o

09. As per Indian standards for bricks, minimum acceptable compressive strength of any class of burnt

clay bricks in dry state is

(a) 10.0 MPa

Sol: Minimum compressive strength of burnt clay brick = 3.5 MPa

ACE Engineering Academy

: 14 :

GATE_2016_CE

10. A construction project consists of twelve activities. The estimated duration (in days) required to

complete each of the activities along with the corresponding network diagram is shown below.

Activity

Duration

Activity

Duration

(days)

(days)

Inauguration

Flooring

25

Foundation work

Electrification

Structural construction-1

30

Plumbing

Structural construction-2

30

Wood work

25

Coloring

Plastering

A

1

B

2

11 L

10 K

D

G

12

I

9

Total floats (in days) for the activities 5-7 and 11-12 for the project are, respectively,

(a) 25 and 1

(b) 1 and 1

(c) 0 and 0

(d) 81 and 0

Sol:

38

63

38

E(25)

63

F(7)

70

70

J(7)

C(30)

A(1)

B(7)

10

(0)

3

D)30)

11

L(1)

12

I(7)

G(25)

5

38

K(3)

38

7

63

H(7)

63

77

9

70

77

80

80

81

81

70

: 15 :

Path

SET_2_Forenoon Session

Duration

ABCEFJKL

81

ABCDummyGHIKL

81

ABDGHIKL

81

All are critical activities, hence total floats of the activities 57 and 11-12 are 0 and 0 (default)

11. A strip footing is resting on the surface of a purely clayey soil deposit. If the width of the footing is

doubled, the ultimate bearing capacity of the soil.

(a) becomes double

Sol: For pure clays, the bearing capacity is independent of the footing width.

12. The relationship between the specific gravity of sand (G) and the hydraulic gradient (i) to initiate

quick condition in the sand layer having porosity of 30% is

(a) G = 0.7i+1

(b) G = 1.43 i 1

(c) G = 1.43 i + 1

(d) G = 0.7 i 1

Sol: At quick condition, i = ic

i = (G 1) (1 n)

= (G 1) (1 0.3)

= ( G 1) (0.7)

G = 1.43 i + 1

13. The results of a consolidation test on an undistributed soil, sampled at a depth of 10 m below the

ground level are as follows:

Saturated unit weight

: 16 kN/m3

The water table was encountered at the ground level. Assuming the unit weight of water as 10

kN/m3, the over-consolidation ratio of the soil is:

(a) 0.67

ACE Engineering Academy

(b) 1.50

(c) 1.77

(d) 2.00

: 16 :

GATE_2016_CE

Sol: At 10 m depth, = 10

= [16 10] 10 = 60 kPa

c 90

OCR =

1.50

60

14. Profile of a weir on permeable foundation is shown in figure I and an elementary profile of

upstream pile only case according to Khoslas theory is shown in figure II. The uplift pressure

heads at key points Q, R and S are 3.14 m, 2.75 m and 0 m, respectively (refer figure II).

1m

Gate

4m

3m

Weir

Floor

10 m

5m

25 m

R

5m

5m

Figure-I

40 m

Figure-II

What is the uplift pressure head at point P downstream of the weir (junction of floor and pile as

shown in the figure I)?

(a) 2.75 m

(b) 1.25 m

(c) 0.8 m

Sol: hR = h hP

2.75 = 4 hP

hP = 4 2.75 = 1.25 m

: 17 :

SET_2_Forenoon Session

15. Water table of an aquifer drops by 100 cm over an area of 1000 km 2. The porosity and specific

retention of the aquifer material are 25% and 5%, respectively. The amount of water (expressed in

km3) drained out from the area is ______

Sol: Sy = n Sr = 25 5 = 20% = 0.2

Amount of water drained = Sy Thickness of aquifer Surface area

= 0.2

100

1000 = 0.2 Km3

100 1000

16. Group I contains the types of fluids while Group II contains the shear stress-rate of shear relationship

5

4

23

1

Rate of shear

Group-I

Group-II

P. Newtonian fluid

1.

Curve 1

2.

Curve 2

R. Plastic fluid

3.

Curve 3

S. Dilatant fluid

4.

Curve 4

5.

Curve 5

(a) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5

ACE Engineering Academy

: 18 :

GATE_2016_CE

(a) the mesosphere

18. A water supply board is responsible for treating 1500 m3/day of water. A settling column analysis

indicates that an overflow rate of 20 m/day will produce satisfactory removal for a depth of 3.1 m. It

is decided to have two circular settling tanks in parallel. The required diameter (expressed in m) of

the settling tanks is_______

Sol: Q = 1500 m3/day

v0 = 20 m/day

Q

1500

=

= 75 m2

20

vo

75

= 37.5 m2

2

2

d = 37.5

4

d = 6.9 m

Diameter of setting tank d = 6.9 m

19. The hardness of a ground water sample was found to be 420 mg/L as CaCO3. A softener containing

ion exchange resins was installed to reduce the total hardness to 75 mg/L as CaCO3 before supplying

to 4 households. Each household gets treated water at a rate of 540 L/day. If the efficiency of the

softener is 100%, the bypass flow rate (expressed in L/day) is_______

: 19 :

19. Ans: 385.714

75 mg/l

(Q QB) 4540

Cout = 75 mg/l

QB

C Cout

420 75

= in

100

100 =

420

Cin

= 82.142%

CB= C

= 420

= 100%

C mix

75

SET_2_Forenoon Session

Cout = 0

= 100%

Cout = 0

(Q QB)

Cin = 420

(Q Q B )C out Q B C B

Q

(Q Q B ) 0 Q B 420

QB = 385.714 lit/day

2160

20. The sound pressure (expressed in Pa) of the faintest sound that a normal healthy individual can

hear is

(a) 0.2

(b) 2

(c) 20

(d) 55

: 20 :

GATE_2016_CE

21. In the context of the IRC 58-2011 guidelines for rigid pavement design, consider the following pair

of statements.

I.

Radius of relative stiffness is directly related to modulus of elasticity of concrete and inversely

related to Poissons ratio

II.

Radius of relative stiffness is directly related to thickness of slab and modulus of subgrade

reaction.

(a) I: True; II: True

1

Eh 3

4

Sol: Radius of relative stiffness,

2

12k (1 )

Statement -1: False

Directly proportional to modulus of elasticity and also

( As increases l decreases)

Statement-2: False

22. If the total number of commercial vehicles per day ranges from 3000 to 6000, the minimum

percentage of commercial traffic to be surveyed for axle load is

(a) 15

(b) 20

(c) 25

(d) 30

23. Optimal flight planning for a photogrammetric survey should be carried out considering

(a) only side- lap

: 21 :

SET_2_Forenoon Session

24. The reduced bearing of a 10 m long line is N30oE. The departure of the line is

(a) 10.00 m

(b) 8.66 m

(c) 7.52 m

(d) 5.00 m

Sol: Departure = D = l sin = 10 sin30o = 5.0 m

25. A circular curve of radius R connects two straights with a deflection angle of 60. The tangent length

is

(a) 0.577 R

(b) 1.155 R

(c) 1.732 R

(d) 3.464 R

Sol: Tangent = T = R tan

R tan 30 o 0.577 R

2

x+ 2y 3z = a

2x + 3y + 3z = b

5x + 9y 6z = c

This system is consistent if a,b and c satisfy the equation

(a) 7a b c = 0

(b) 3a + b c = 0

(c) 3a b + c = 0

(d) 7a b + c = 0

1 2 3 a

Sol: (AB) 2 3 3 b

5 9 6 c

a

1 2 3

0 1 9 b 2a

0 1 9 c 5a

(R3 R2)

ACE Engineering Academy

: 22 :

GATE_2016_CE

a

1 2 3

0 1 9

b 2a

0 0

0 (c b 3a )

(c b3a) = 0

3a + b c = 0

x

: a x 0

a 1

x

f x 1 : 0 x a

a

: otherwise

0

x

a : a x 0

x

g x

: 0xa

a

: otherwise

0

(a) Mean of f(x) and g(x) are same; Variance of f(x) and g(x) are same.

(b) Mean of f(x) and g(x) are same; Variance of f(x) and g(x) are different.

(c) Mean of f(x) and g(x) are different; Variance of f(x) and g(x) are same.

(d) Mean of f(x) and g(x) are different; Variance of f(x) and g(x) are different.

27. Ans: (b)

Sol: Ef x

xf x dx

a

x2

x2

x dx

= x dx

a

a

a

0

0

: 23 :

0

SET_2_Forenoon Session

x3 x2

x3 x2

=

2 0

3a 2 a 3a

a2 a2 a2 a2

=

3

2

3

2

=0

Egx

x2

x2

dx

a

0 a dx

a

0

x3

x3

=

3a a 3a 0

a2 a2

=

3 3

=0

Vf x E X 2 EX

a

x3

x3

E X x dx

x 2 dx

a

a

a

0

x 4 x3

x 4 x3

=

4a 3 a 4a 3 0

a3 a3 a3 a3

=

4 3 4 3

a3

EX

6

2

Vf x

a3

6

Vg x E X 2 EX

E X2

a

x3

x3

dx dx

a

a

0

0

x4

x4

=

4a a 4a 0

ACE Engineering Academy

: 24 :

GATE_2016_CE

a3 a3

= 0

4 4

=

2a 3 a 3

4

2

a3

2

Vgx

x2 = 4y and y2 = 4x at point (0,0) is

(a) 0o

(b) 30o

(c) 45o

(d) 90o

Sol:

Angle between the curves is angle between the tangents at the point of intersection.

29. The area between the parabola x2 = 8y and the straight line y = 8 is ___________

Sol:

Y

y=8

(-8, 8)

(8, 8)

2

x = 8y

X

8

Area

= 2 8 y dy

0

y

=2 8

85.33

3

2 0

3

2

: 25 :

SET_2_Forenoon Session

: 26 :

GATE_2016_CE

(a) 3x2 6x 5

(b) 3x2 5

(c) 3x2 + 6x 5

(d) 3x2 5

Sol: Quadratic Approximation

2

x 0

= f 0 x 0 f ' 0

f ' ' 0

2!

f x x 3 3x 2 5 f 0 5

f ' x 3x 2 6 x f ' 0 0

f = 6x 6 f (x) = 6

x2

6

Equation is = 5 x 0

2

3 x 2 5

31. An elastic isotropic body is in a hydrostatic state of stress as shown in the figure. For no change in

the volume to occur, what should be its Poissons ratio?

y

x

z

(a) 0.00

(b) 0.25

(c) 0.50

(d) 1.00

Sol: For hydrostatic state = 0.5

: 27 :

SET_2_Forenoon Session

32. For the stress state (in MPa) shown in the figure, the major principal stress is 10 MPa.

5

Sol:

Major principal stress

10 1

x y

2

x y

2xy

2

2

55

55

2

xy

2

2

2

xy = 5 MPa

33. The portal frame shown in figure is subjected to a uniformly distributed vertical load w (per unit

length)

w

Q

L/2

S

(a) Zero

(b)

wL2

hogging

24

(c)

wL2

hogging

12

(d)

wL2

sagging

8

: 28 :

GATE_2016_CE

VQ

MQ = 0

Q MQP

MQP = 0

l/2

MQ = 0

P

HP =0

VP

FBD of member QP

34. Consider the structural system shown in the figure under the action of weight W. All the joints are

hinged. The properties of the members in terms of length (L), area (A) and the modulus of elasticity

(E) are also given in the figure. Let L,A and E be 1 m, 0.05 m2 and 30 106 N/m2, respectively, and

W be 100 kN.

A,E

45o

Q

45o

A,E

90o

2A,E

S

90o

A,EL

45o

45o

A,E

Which one of the following sets gives the correct values of the force, stress and change in length of

the horizontal member QR?

(a) Compressive force = 25 kN; stress =

(b) Compressive force = 14.14 kN; stress = 141.4 kN/m2, Extension = 0.0118 m

(c) Compressive force = 100 kN; stress =

: 29 :

SET_2_Forenoon Session

FQS

F

W

SR

sin 90 sin 45 sin 45

Sol:

FQS

FQS

FSR

45o

45o

FSR

45o

FQS

90o

45o

FSR

Lamis triangle

FQS

sin 45

FQR

FQR

sin 90

FQP

FQP

FQR

sin 45

45

W

2 sin 45

45

FQS

90o

FQP

Lamis triangle

100

2000

kN / m 2

0.05 2

2

1000 kN / m 2

Shortening

W 2 100 10 3 1 2 1000 10 3

= 0.0417 m

AE

2 0.05 30 10 6

30 10 6

35. A haunched (varying depth) reinforced concreted beam is simply supported at both ends, as shown

in the figure. The beam is subjected to a uniformly distributed factored load of intensity 10 kN/m.

The design shear force (expressed in kN) at the section X-X of the beam is _____

5m

10 kN/m

400 m

600 m

X

effective span = 20 m

: 30 :

GATE_2016_CE

35. Ans: 65

wx

w

Sol: BM@ section XX = M =

(x)

2

2

10 20

(5) 10 5 2.5

2

= 375 kN-m

SF @ X =

10 20

5 10 = 50 kN

2

(SF)X = Vu

= 50

Mu

tan()

d

0.2 m

10 m

375 0.2

0.5 10

36. A 450 mm long plain concrete prism is subjected to the concentrated vertical loads as shown in the

figure. Cross section of the prism is given as 150 mm 150 mm. Considering linear stress

distribution across the cross-section the modulus of rupture (expressed in MPa) is _________

11.25 kN

P

150 mm

36. Ans: 3

11.25 kN

S

R

150 mm

150 mm

Sol:

f cr

M 11.25 10 3 150

3MPa

Z

150 150 2

: 31 :

SET_2_Forenoon Session

37. Two bolted plates under tension with alternative arrangement of bolt holes are shown in figure 1

and 2. The hole diameter, pitch, and gauge length are d, p and g respectively.

Figure 1

P

Figure 2

Which one of the following conditions must be ensured to have higher net tensile capacity of

configuration shown in figure 2 than that shown in figure 1?

(a) p 2 2gd

(b) p 2 4gd

(c) p 2 4gd

(d) p 4gd

Sol: The net tensile capacity of the plate Tdn = 0.9 An fu/m1

The net tensile capacity of the plate configuration -1, Tdn1 = 0.9 An1 fu/m1

The net tensile capacity of the plate configuration -1, Tdn2 = 0.9 An2 fu/m1

For same material and size of the plate, the net tensile capacity of the plate depends on Net

effective sectional area of plate (An).

Net effective sectional area of plate configuration 1 An1 = (Bt-dt)

Net effective sectional area of plate configuration 2 An2 = (Bt-2dt +p2t/4g = Bt- dt - dt +p2t/4g)

[Assume width of plate = B, Thickness of plate = t; Diameter of bolt hole = d; staggered pitch

distance = p and Gauge distance = g]

As per Question Tdn2 > Tdn1 => An2 > An1

=> An2 > An1

=> (Bt-dt -dt + p2t/4g) > (Bt-dt)

=> -dt + p2t/4g > 0

=> p2t/4g > d t

=> p2 > 4gd

: 32 :

GATE_2016_CE

38. A fixed-end beam is subjected to a concentrated load (P) as shown in the figure. The beam has two

different segments having different plastic moment capacities (MP, 2Mp) as shown.

P

2L/3

2MP

Mp

L

The minimum value of load (P) at which the beam would collapse (ultimate load) is

(a) 7.5 Mp /L

(b) 5.0 Mp /L

(c) 4.5 Mp /L

(d) 2.5 Mp /L

Sol:

2

4

1

3

3

2l/3 P

4l/3

MP

2MP

P 2M P 2M P 2M P 1 M P 1

2MP

2MP

Mechanism-I

P 4M P 3M P

3

2

= 5.5 Mp

P

8.25M P

2l/3 P

2

1

3

2

5M P

3

7 .5 M P

2MP

P1 = 2 Mp + Mp + Mp + Mp

P

4l/3

MP

MP

MP

Mechanism-II

: 33 :

SET_2_Forenoon Session

39. The activity-on-arrow network of activities for a construction project is shown in figure. The

durations (expressed in days) of the activities are mentioned below the arrows.

Q

3

P

2

10

R

4

20

T

5

30

5

3

X 90

2

80

U

3

50

40

W

3

70

V

2

60

(a) 13 days

(b) 14 days

T(5)

30

Sol:

(c) 15 days

Q(3)

70

(0)

W(3)

U(3)

10 P(2) 20 R(4) 40 (0)

(d) 16 days

80 X(2) 90

50

(0)

60 V(2)

S(3)

Path

Duration

PQTWX

2 + 3 + 5 + 3 + 2 = 15

PQDummyUWX

2+3+0+3+3+2 = 13

PRDummyUWX

2 + 4 + 0 +3+3+2 = 14

PRDummyVX

2 + 4 + 0 +2+2 = 10

PSVX

2+3+2+2=9

: 34 :

GATE_2016_CE

40. The seepage occurring through an earthen dam is represented by a flownet comprising of 10

equipotential drops and 20 flow channels. The coefficient of permeability of the soil is 3 mm/min

and the head loss is 5 m. The rate of seepage (expressed in cm 3/s per m length of the dam) through

the earthen dam is_______.

Sol: Nf = 20, Nd = 10,

hf = 5m

K = 3 mm/min

3

m / sec

1000 60

Q Kh f .

Nf

Nd

3

20

= 5 104 m3/sec/m

5

1000 60

10

= 500 cm3/sec/m

41. The soil profile at a site consists of a 5 m thick sand layer underlain by a c- soil as shown in figure.

The water table is found 1 m below the ground level. The entire soil mass is retained by a concrete

retaining wall and is in the active state. The back of the wall is smooth and vertical. The total active

earth pressure (expressed in kN/m2) at point A as per Rankines theory is _______

bulk=16.5 kN/m3

1m

Sand

4m

3m

C Soil

sat = 18.5 kN/m3, w = 9.81 kN/m3,

c= 25 kN/m2 , =24o

A

ACE Engineering Academy

: 35 :

SET_2_Forenoon Session

Sol: Taking 2 = 24 (at point A)

K a2

1 sin

0.422

1 sin

At point A, = 1 + 4 + 3

v = 1 16.5 + 4 (19 9.81) + 3(18.5 9.81)

= 79.33 kPa

p a K a 2 v 2C 2 K a 2 w h

= 69.67 kPa

42. OMC-SP and MDD-SP denote the optimum moisture content and maximum dry density obtained

from standard Proctor compaction test, respectively. OMC-MP and MDD-MP denote the optimum

moisture content and maximum dry density obtained from the modified Proctor compaction test,

respectively. Which one of the following is correct?

(a) OMC SP < OMC-MP and MDD-SP < MDD-MP

(b) OMC SP > OMC-MP and MDD-SP < MDD-MP

(c) OMC SP < OMC-MP and MDD-SP > MDD-MP

(d) OMC SP > OMC-MP and MDD-SP > MDD-MP

: 36 :

GATE_2016_CE

43. Water flows from P to Q through two soil samples, Soil 1 and Soil 2, having cross sectional area of

80 cm2 as shown in the figure. Over a period of 15 minutes, 200 ml of water was observed to pass

through any cross section. The flow conditions can be assumed to be steady state. If the coefficient

of permeability of Soil 1 is 0.02 mm/s, the coefficient of permeability of Soil 2 (expressed in mm/s)

would be ______

600 mm

300 mm

P

Soil 1

Soil 2

150 mm

150 mm

Sol: 1 ml = 1 cm3

Q

200

cm 3 / sec

15 60

A = 80 cm2,

h = 600 300 = 300 mm

= 30 cm

L = 150 + 150 = 300 mm

= 30 cm

Q = K. i. A

200

h

K .A

15 60

L

K

30

80

30

Where,

K = Equivalent or Average permeability

ACE Engineering Academy

: 37 :

SET_2_Forenoon Session

K = 2.778 102 mm/sec

Z1 Z 2

Z1 Z 2

K1 K 2

2.778 102 =

7500

150 150

150 150

0.02 K 2

150

= 107. 99 102

K2

K2 = 0.0455 mm/sec

44. A 4m wide strip footing is founded at a depth of 1.5 m below the ground surface in a c- soil as

shown in the figure. The water table is at a depth of 5.5 m below ground surface. The soil properties

are: c = 35 kN/m2, = 28.63o, sat = 19 kN/m3, bulk = 17 kN/m3 and w = 9.81 kN/m3. The values of

bearing capacity factors for different are given below:

Nc

Nq

15o

12.9

4.4

2.5

20o

17.7

7.4

5.0

25o

25.1

12.7

9.7

30o

37.2

22.5

19.7

1.5 m

5.5 m

4m

Using Terzaghis bearing capacity equation and a factor of safety Fs = 2.5, the net safe bearing

capacity (expressed in kN/m2) for local shear failure of the soil is _______

ACE Engineering Academy

: 38 :

GATE_2016_CE

Sol: For local shear failure, use Cm and m to compute bearing capacity

2

2

C m .C 35 23.33 kN / m 2

3

3

tan m

2

tan

3

tan m

2

tan 28.63

3

m = 19.998 say 20

For m = 20, N C 17.7

N q 7.4

N 5 (from table given)

q ns

1

C m N C D N q 1 0.5BN

F

1

23.33 17.7 17 1.57.4 1 0.5 17 4 5

2 .5

: 39 :

SET_2_Forenoon Session

45. A square plate is suspended vertically from one of its edges using a hinge support as shown in

figure. A water jet of 20 mm diameter having a velocity of 10 m/s strikes the plate at its mid-point,

at an angle of 30o with the vertical. Consider g as 9.81 m/s2 and neglect the self-weight of the plate.

The force F (expressed in N) required to keep the plate in its vertical position is ________

.

Water jet

30o

Plate

20 mm

200 mm

Sol:

Hinge

O

Plate

100 mm

FH

200 mm

F

F.B.D

F 200 = FH 100

FH AV 2 .sin 30 o

2

2

4

= 15.708 N 15.71 N

46. The ordinates of a one-hour unit hydrograph at sixty minute interval are 0, 3 , 12, 8, 6, 3 and 0 m 3/s.

A two-hour storm of 4 cm excess rainfall occurred in the basin from 10 AM. Considering constant

base flow of 20 m3/s, the flow of the river (expressed in m3/s) at 1 PM is _______.

ACE Engineering Academy

: 40 :

GATE_2016_CE

46. Ans: 60

Sol: Given 1hr UHG

2 hr SHG ord @ 1 PM = ?

By method of super position 1 hr UHG 2 hr UHG

Time

Ist storm

IInd storm

1hr delayed

2hr DRH/2

10 AM

11 AM

12 PM

12

1 PM

12

20

20/2 = 10

Runoff R (excess rainfall) = 4 cm

2hr DRH ord @ 1 PM = 10 4 = 40 m3/sec

(R = 4 cm)

2hr SHG ord @ 1 PM = 40 + 20 = 60 m3/sec

Flow of river@1 PM = 60 m3/sec

47. A 3 m wide rectangular channel carries a flow of 6 m3/s. The depth of flow at a section P is 0.5 m.

A flat-topped hump is to be placed at the downstream of the section P. Assume negligible energy

loss between section P and hump, and consider g as 9.81 m/s2. The maximum height of the hump

(expressed in m) which will not change the depth of flow at section P is___________

47. Ans: 0.203

b=3m

Q = 6 m3/s

yp = 0.5 m

A1 = 3 0.5 = 1.5 m2

: 41 :

V1

SET_2_Forenoon Session

Q

6

4 m/s

A 1 1 .5

E1 = E2 + (z)Max

E 1 y1

V12

42

0 .5

2g

2 9.81

= 1.315 m

1/ 3

Q2

y c 2 2

gb

E2 = Ec =

62

2

9.81 3

1/ 3

= 0.74 m

3

0.74 = 1.112 m

2

(Z)max = 1.315 1.112

= 0.203 m

48. A penstock of 1 m diameter and 5 km length is used to supply water from a reservoir to an impulse

turbine. A nozzle of 15 cm diameter is fixed at the end of the penstock. The elevation difference

between the turbine and water level in the reservoir is 500 m. Consider the head loss due to friction

as 5% of the velocity head available at the jet. Assume unit weight of water = 10 kN/m3 and

acceleration due to gravity (g) = 10 m/s2. If the overall efficiency is 80%, power generated

(expressed in kW and rounded to nearest integer) is ___________.

Sol:

Velocity at the jet = V 2gH

Velocity head at the jet

V2

= 500 m

2g

: 42 :

Head loss due to friction

GATE_2016_CE

5

500 = 25 m

100

Discharge = AV

4

= 0.8 10 1.767 475= 6714.6 kW

49. A tracer takes 100 days to travel from Well-1 to Well-2 which are 100 m apart. The elevation of

water surface in Well-2 is 3 m below that in well-1. Assuming porosity equal to 15%, the

coefficient of permeability (expressed in m/day) is

(a) 0.30

(b) 0.45

(c) 1.00

(d) 5.00

Sol: actual velocity va =

but va =

100

distance

=

= 1 m/day

time

100

v

v = va

but v = Ki

K=

i=

3

100

0.15

0.15 100

v

=

=

= 5 m/day

i

3 /100

3

: 43 :

SET_2_Forenoon Session

50. A sample of water has been analyzed for common ions and results are presented in the form of a bar

diagram as shown.

meq/L

6.35

2+

Ca

Na+

Mg

HCO 3

meq/L 0

4.10

2.65

2+

SO 24

3.30

6.85

+

Cl

3.90

6.75

(a) 40

(b) 165

(c) 195

(d) 205

Sol: Ca = 2.65 m.eq/lit

Mg = 1.45 m.eq/lit

HCO3 = 3.3 m. eq/lit

TA = 3.3 50 = 165 mg/l as CaCO3

TH > TA

CH = TA = 165 mg/l

NCH = TH CH = 205 165 = 40 mg/l as CaCO3

Non carbonacreous hardness = 40 mg/l as CaCO3

51. A noise meter located at a distance of 30 m from a point source recorded 74 dB. The reading at a

distance of 60 m from the point source would be _________

Sol: L60 = L30 20 log10

L60 = 74 20 log10

60

30

60

= 67.979 dB

30

ACE Engineering Academy

: 44 :

GATE_2016_CE

52. For a wastewater sample, the three-day biochemical oxygen demand at incubation temperature of

20oC BOD 3day , 20o c is estimated as 200 mg/L. Taking the value of the first order BOD reaction rate

constant as 0.22 day1, the five-day BOD (expressed in mg/L) of the wastewater at incubation

52. Ans: 276.15

Sol: y 320

L 0 [1 e K 20 3 ]

y 520

L 0 [1 e K 20 5 ]

= 413.95[1e0.22 5] = 276.15 mg/l

53. The critical flow ratios for a three-phase signal are found to be 0.30, 0.25, and 0.25. The total time

lost in the cycle is 10s. Pedestrain crossings at this junction are not significant. The respective

Green times (expressed in seconds and rounded off to the nearest integer) for the three phases are

(a) 34,28 and 28

Sol:

y = y1 + y2 + y3

= 0.3 + 0.25 + 0.25 = 0.8

Lost time, L = 10 sec

Cycle time, C o

1.5L 5 1.5 10 5

= 100s

1 y

1 0 .8

Green times:

y1

(C o L )

y

0 .3

0 .8

0.25

G2

(100 10) 28.125 28

0 .8

G3 = G2 = 28

G1

: 45 :

SET_2_Forenoon Session

54. A motorist traveling at 100 km/h on a highway needs to take the next exit, which has a speed limit

of 50 km/h. The section of the roadway before the ramp entry has a downgrade of 3% and

coefficient of friction (f) is 0.35. In order to enter the ramp at the maximum allowable speed limit

the braking distance (expressed in m) from the exit ramp is________

Sol: Downward gradient, N = 3%

f = 0.35

Sb

But

(vi ) 2 (v f ) 2

2g ( f N )

v i 100

v f 50

Sb

5

27.77 m/s

18

5

= 13.88 m/s

18

27.77 2 13.88 2

3

2 9.81 0.35

100

Sb = 92.14 m

55. A tall tower was photographed from an elevation of 700 m above the datum. The radial distance of

the top and bottom of the tower from the principal points are 112.50 mm and 82.40 mm,

respectively. If the bottom of the tower is at an elevation 250 m above the datum, then the height

(expressed in m) of the tower is __________

55. Ans: 120.4 m

Sol: Relief Displacement = d = r2 ro = 112.50 82.40

= 30.10 m

h2

d (H h 1 ) 30.1(700 250)

r2

112.50

= 120.40 m

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