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(SA) 1.

Analgesia includes:
a) Muscle relaxation
b) Lack of pain sensation
c) Supressed counsiousness d) Lack of tactile sensation
e) Lack of thermal sensation

(SA)2. Anesthesia includes:
a) Selective suppresion of pain sensation
b) Suppressed consiousness
c) Suppression of all types of sensation d) Preserved tactile sensation
e) Preserved thermal sensation

(MA)3. Monitoring during anesthesia includes
a) Puls oxymetry
b) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance
c) Capnometry
d) Cardiac output mesurement
e) Electroencephalography

(MA)4. The common hemodynamic responce to a nociceptive stimulus include:
a) Hypothermia
b) Tachycardia c) Tahyphylaxis
d) Arterial hypertension e) Cardiac arrest

(SA) 5. Capnography means:
a) Cardiac output measurement
b) Registration of the O2 hemoglobin saturation c) Measurement of the global lung
d) Graphycal registration of CO2 concentration in an air sample e) A method of
mesuring body oxygen metabolism

(SA)6. Which statement is not correct
a) Brainstem spinal anesthesia
b) Monocomponent Halotane anesthesia
c) Combined intravenous-inhalation anesthesia d) Combined spinal epidural
e) General anesthesia with muscle relaxation and mechanical ventilation

(MA) 7.Ketamine is resposible for:
a) Minimal depression of the rticular formation
b) Muscle relaxation c) Hallucinations
d) Cardio-vascular depression e) Increase in blood pressure

(SA) 8. In the preoperative assesment the most informative respiratory parameter
a. Vital capacity
b. Functional residual capacity
c. Tiffeneau test (forced vital capacity)
d. Total lung capacity e. Respiratory rate

(SA)9. Morphine/Fentanyl analgesic potency is:
a. 1:10

b. 1:50
c. 1:100
d. 1:200
e. 1:400

(MA) 10. Fentanyl (F) differs from Morphine(M) by:
a. In equianalgesic dooses F. causes less respiratory depression
b. F doese not cause Rigid_Chest Syndrome c. F. causes less histamine release
d. In equianalgesic dooses F. causes more severe cardio-vascular depression e. F is
a more potent analgetic

(SA) 11. In the list below the most potent systemic analgesic is:
a. Morphine
b. Codeine c. Fentanyl
d. Promedolum e. Omnoponum

(MA) 12. Ataractics are used for:
a. Reducing the effect of opioids and hypnotic drugs
b. Preventing of postural hypotension c. Preventing anxiety
d. Inducing calmness/ataraxia e. Sedation

(SA) 13.The physiologic effect of 10 mg I/V Droperidol in a supine position patent
a. Increase in PaCO2.
b. An evident beta-blocking effect c. An evident increase in heart rate
d. Nausea and vomitimg
e. Increase in respiratory rate

Conduction trough autonomic nerves d. Skeletal muscle cell depolarisation is due to: a. Myocardial contactility e. Hypnotic doses causes a transitory pulmonary hypoventilation b. Cause sedation (MA) 15. Increase respiratory minute volume e. Respiratory center (MA)16. Decrease muscular tonus d. Increase in intracellular potasium concentration e. General anesthesia b.(SA) 14. Hypotension . Baroreceptor reflex b. Barbiturates depress: a. Increase in intracellular sodium concentration b. Decrease in intracellular potasium concentration d. Analgesia c. Hypothalamus c. Decrease in intracellular sodium concentration c. Moderate increase in blood pressure d. High doses can lead to miocardium depression c. Intravenous Ketamine produces: a. Which of the followin statements concerning barbiturates is not correct? a. Dicrease in cardiac output e. Decrease in intracellular clorine ion concentration (MA) 17.

Lower tolerance to anesthetic drugs d. Hypercoagulation (MA) 22. Respiratory rate (MA) 19. Muscle relaxation c. Increase in total lung capacity c. Increased glomerular filtration rate e. Findings in local anesthetic Lidocaine overdosage include: a. Sharp abdomenal pain (MA) 20. High doses of Diazepamum will cause: a. Hypnosys c. Anticonvulsant effect d. Sentral nervous system excitation (activation) c. Anxiolysis d. Tissue blood flow (vascularisation) c. Increase in respiratory minute volume (MA) 21. Midazolamum causes: a. Dcreased cardiac output b. Respiratory depression b. Anesthetic concentration d. Cough b. Increased cardiac output . Loss of counsciousness d. Convulsion e. Decreased blood pressure e. Amnesia b. Anticoagulation effect d. Elderly patent shows: a. Tissue uptake (absorbtion) of a local anesthetic depends on: a.(MA) 18. Heart rate e. Tissue solubility b.

Technically is easier to be performed (MA) 27.(SA)23. Better shows the ventricular (QRS) complex c. 100 gr (SA) 24. Does not rquire grounding b. Bupivacaine e.left leg e. Administration of lidocaine în the epidural space e. Can be damaged by the needle for spinal anesthesia . The natural opioid in the list below is: a. Administration of lidocaine în the paravertebral zone (SA) 26. Cocaine d. The following statements concerning the intervertebral disk(s) are correct: a. Lidocainea c. Why for EKG monitoring during anesthesia usually is being used the II-nd lead of EKG? a. Administration of lidocaine în the cerebrospinal fluid d. Better shows the P wave d. Procaine b. 1 gr d. The electrode position is left arm . What is the amount of Lidocaine in 100 milliliters of 1% solution: a. 10 gr e. I/V administration of lidocaine c. Administration of lidocaine via intramuscular way b. 100 mg c. 10 mg b. Epidural anesthesia means: a. Novocaine (SA) 25.

Malignant hyperthermia e. The drug of choice in treating convulsion after a local anesthetic overdose: a. Annulus fibrosus is thicker anteriorly d. Sepsis b. It is binded to dura mater (SA) 29. Can be removed not influencing intervertebral space e. No need for unidirectional valves . Tachycardia d. Between LF and dura mater there is a space of 4 to 8 mm wide d. Ensure a constant intracranial pressure (MA) 28. Conserve heat c. The advantages of a closed anesthesia breathing circuit are: a. Ligamentum flavum (LF) at L-2.b. Nitroglycerin (SA)30. Headache c. Represents about 25% of the vertebral column lengtht c. The most common complication of a lumbar puction is: a. Minimal environment pollution e. The required volum of anesthetic gases is low b. 3 level: a. Conserve humidity of the inhaled gases d. Consists of two converging parts b. Droperidolum b. Its thickness is 9 mm c. Diazepamum c. Fentanyl d. Polyuria (MA) 31. It is 38 mm wide e. Ketamine e.

Increase in the anesthesia block length b. Dillutional hypoxia can happen during inhalation anesthesia with: a. The gas blend exhaled by the anesthetised patient is partially or totally reinhaled in: a.(MA) 32. Local anesthesia can be provided by: a. Epinefrine (adrenaline) is added the local anesthesic solution because provide the following advantages: a. Isoflurane e. Decrease the systemic absorbtion of the anesthetic c. Inhalation of halotane c. Local application of cold . Diethyl Ether b. Open anesthesia circuit b. Semi-closed anesthesia circuit d. Increase anesthesia risk e. Sevoflurane (CM) 35. Semi-open anesthesia circuit c. Halotane c. All listed above (SA) 34. Local/topic application of the anesthetic b. Nitrous Oxyde d. Decrease the hemorhage during the operation d. Closed anesthesia circuit e. I/V morphine d. Facilitate the detection of intravascular injection of the anesthetic (MA) 33. Tissue infiltration with lidocaine e.

Causes hyperpotassemia (SA) 39. Produce postsinaptic membrane hyperpolarization c. Produce postsinaptic membrane depolarization b. Allergic reactions (CM) 37. Arterial hypotension b. Acts for approximately 5 min d. Activate sympathetic nervous system (MA) 38. Arterial hypotension d. Is less potent than Morphine c. Acts for approximately 30 min e. Bradicardia d. The following statements concerning Fentanyl are correct: a. Is more potent than Morphine b. Acts for approximately 5 min (MA) 40. Sodium thiopental can produse: a. Is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent b. Produce muscle pains e. Arterial hypertension c. Is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent c. Tachycardia e.(MA) 36. Induce hyperpotassemia d. Activate parasympathetic nervous system e. Duration of analgesia is 60 minutes . Succinylcholine: a. Respiratory center depression b. Pipercuronium bromide (Arduan): a. The most common complications of epidural anesthesia are: a. Arterial hypertension c.

Can be used as sole anesthetic (monoanesthesia) b. The effect develops slowly c. Decrease in cardiac output e. Hypnosis b. Hallucinations during the weaning from anesthesia c.d. Produce antiemetic effect d. Is used for weaning patient from anesthesia (MA) 41. Cause airways irritation d. Moderate incerease in blood pressure d. Can produce bronchospasm (MA) 43. Is an anxiolytic b. Provide analgesia e. Duration of analgesia is from 20 to 30 minutes e. Ketamine produces: a. Arterial hypotencion e. Is a neuroleptic (antipsychotic) c. Has extrapyramidal side-effects (MA) 42. Sodium Thiopental cause: a. The following statements concerning Nitrous oxide are correct: a. Arterial hypotencion (MA) 44. The following statements concerning Droperidolum are correct: a. Dissociative anesthesia b. Shows analgesic effect e. Respiratory center depression c. Arterial hypertencion d. Provide hypnosys .

„ Laplace” law e. <10 mmHg c. „ Hilton” law (SA)2. „Starling-Pappenheimer-Staverman” law d. Blood volume circulating in the body d. -2 mmHg b. Nitrous oxide e. What CVP value in a hypotensive patient requests volume replacement (correction)? a. 0 mmHg . Blood volume against body surface area e. „ Frank-Starling” law (mechanism) b. Propofol Acute cardiac failure (SA)1.(MA) 45. Blood volume ejected by heart during systole b. <6 mmHg d. Blood volume ejected by heart during 1 minute c. Halotane b. Blood volume against body weight (SA)3. The following anesthetics can be used for anesthesia induction: a. Cardiiac output is: a. Sevoflurane d. „ Otto Frank” law c. Relation “Higher end dyastolic volume – higher stroke (systolic) volume” is known as: a. Isoflurane c.

12-16 mmHg (SA) 8. >25 mmHg (SA)6. By W. Right ventricle filling e. The optimal PCWP (Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure) for a healthy heart is : a.e. In a patient with increased systemic vascular resistance and high blood pressure the drug of choice is: a. 6-10 mmHg e. <6 mmHg d. >20 mmHg (SA)45. Shoemaker. <12 mmHg b. the maximum (accepted) CVP value for a ventricle with normal compliance is: a. 14-16 mmHg b. Left ventricle filling d. Right atrium filling c. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) reflects: a. Pulmonary circulation filling pressure (SA) 7. >20 mmHg c. the optimal CVP value for a ventricle with normal compliance is: a. 8-10 mmHg c. 8-10 mmHg c. Vasodilator . By W. Left atrium filling b. >20 mmHg e. >25 mmHg (SA) 5. <5-6 mmHg d. >20 mmHg e. 14-16 mmHg b. Shoemaker. 18-20 mmHg d.

Anaphylactic shock e. Nitroglycerine (MA)10. Systemic Vascular Resistance is decreased in: a. Neurogenic shock e. Hypovolemic shock c. Norepinefrine b. Hypovolemic shock . In a patient with hypotension and decreased systemic vascular resistance the drug of choice is a: a. Cardiogenic shock b. Acidosis d. Vasopressor c. Acute pancreatitis c. High spinal trauma e. Cirrhirosis of the liver d. Septic shock b. Adrenergic Beta-blocker e. Pain. Adrenal insufficiency c. High systemic vascular resistance can be seen in: a. Adrenergic Beta-blocker e. Septic shock d.b. anxiety (MA) 13. Anaphylactic shock (MA)11. Diuretic d. High systemic vascular resistance can be seen in: a. Fluids (SA)9. Hypovolemic shock b. Dopmine c. Dobutamine d.

Chronic anemia b. Dyastolic acute cardiac failure can develop through following mechanisms: a. Hypertrophic and dilated cardiomyopathy e. The most common causes of global cardiac failure are: a. Aortic valve stenosis (MA) 16. Air embolisation d. Air embolization d. Myocarditis d. Arteriovenous fistula c. Mechanical ventilation with excessive positive pressure (MA) 17. Mitral valve insufficiency e. Acute myocardial infarction d. Acute myocardial infarction b. Aortic valve stenosis b. Amniotic fluid embolization e. Arrhythmia (Ventricular tachycardia . Thrombus pulmonary embolism c. Hypervolemia b. Aortic dissection c. Cardiac failure with an elevated cardiac output can be present in: a. Hypercapnia e. Interventricular interference . 3rd degree AV block) c.(MA) 14. The most coomon causes of left ventricle failure include: a. Cardiac tamponade (MA) 18. Increased myocardium stiffness c. Hyperthyroidism (MA) 15. The most coomon causes of right ventricle failure include: a. External compression b.

Tension pneumothorax c. Massive pleurisy d. Carbon dioxyde partial pressure in arterial blood (PaCO2) c. Compromised pump function of the heart (MA) 19. Hypertrophic and dilated cardiomyopathy e. Mitral valve insufficiency d. Cardiac output is dependent on: a. Hemoglobine level b. Massive myocardial infarction with involvement of interventricular septum b. Artificial lung ventilation with excessive PEEP e. Pulmonary hypertension c. Dyastolic cardiac failure by external compression mechanism can be produced by: a. Hemoglobine saturation with O2 of the arterial blood (SaO2) d. Tricuspidal valve insufficiency (MA) 21. Cardiac output (MA)22. Oxygen partial pressure in arterial blood (PaO2) e. Controlled (artificial) lung ventilation (CM) 20. Pricardial calcification or effusion b. Preload . Oxygen transport is dependent on: a. Dyastolic cardiac failure by ventricular interference can be produced by: a. Massive acute myocardial infarction e.d.

The myocardium sarcomere length at the end of diastole b. End-diastolic ventricular volume d. Contractility e. dependent on volemic status and venous capacity e. Heart rate and rithm d. Is influenced by venous return. The pressure the ventricle must overcome to eject blood e. End -diastolic myocardium wall stress d.b. Myocardium wall tension during systole b. The final value of afterload is influenced by: a. Resistance to the blood flow in the major vessels (MA) 25. Pleural pressure b. In a healthy heart the maximal CO is acheived at a HR of 140 bpm . In clinical conditions the only component which is measured în order to monitor afterload is vascular resistance (systemic or pulmonary) (MA) 26.diastolic ventricular volume c. Partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood e. Afterload is: a. Afterload c. End. End-diastolic myocardium sarcomere length c. Concerning the relation between Heart Rate (HR) and Cardiac Output (CO): a. Impedance and resistance c. Myocardium wall stress during systole (MA) 24. Tidal volume (MA) 23 Preload is: a. Preload with it components d.

Low cardiac output c. CO gradually decrease by a HR of 180 bpm (short ventricular diastole do not let it to fill) c. Respiratory support c. Increased systemic vascular resistance e. antiagregants) (MA) 30. BPmed= 75 mmHg). with a heart rate of 110 bpm. Decreased systemic vascular resistance d. In a healthy heart the maximal CO is acheived at a HR lower than 45 bpm (MA) 27. In a hypotensive patient (BP=100/40 mmHg. 60 mmHg) points on increased stroke volume (MA) 28. warm skin and a short capillary refill there is: a. High pulse pressure (i. Increased cardiac output b. Decreased systemic vascular resistance d. Increased cardiac output b. Low cardiac output c.b. In cardiac failure CO begin to diminish at a HR over 120 bpm e. with a heart rate of 110 bpm. The management of a patient undergoing cardiac surgery includes : a. High stroke volume (MA) 29. Prophylactic medication (antibiotics. Bradycardia requires treatmen when: . Increased systemic vascular resistance e. Analgesia and sedation e. HR over 180 bpm can lead to ventricular fibillation d. Hyperbaric oxygen treatment b. anticoagulants. warm skin and delyed capillary refill there is: a. In a hypotensive patient (BP= 80/65 mmHg. BPmed= 80 mmHg).e. Nutritional support d.

SAP = 100 mmHg c. irrespective to blood pressure (BP) b. HR ≤50 bpm. irrespective to blood pressure (MA) 31. SVR >1600 dyne·s·cm-5/m2 e. HR ≤90 bpm. Hyperthiroidism c. and hypotension e. Cronic beta blockers. The target values for Systolic Arterial Pressure (SAP) and Systemic Vascular Resistance (SVR) will be: a. SVR >2400 dyne·s·cm-5/m2 d. HR ≤60 bpm. Potasium blood level b.a. High systemic vascular resistance (>2400 dyne·s·cm-5/m2) b. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 55 mmHg . HR ≤65 bpm. Hypothiroidism d. Systemic vascular resistance of 1600 dyne·s·cm-5/m2 c. irrespective to BP c. Chronic beta-mimetic therapy e. SAP = 70 mmHg b. and hypotension d. SAP > 140 mmHg (MA) 33. În case of bradicardia the patinet should be re-evalated for: a. calcium channel blockers (MA) 32. Systolic BP of 100 mmHg e. cardiac glycosides. HR ≤35 bpm. Vasodilators are indicated in case of: a. In a patent with cardiac failure with arterial hypotension or low systemic vascular resistance are to be administered vasopressors. Critically ill patent with arterial hypertension (Systolic BP>140 mmHg) d.

< 5 0 0 b.(MA) 34. P a O 2 / F i O 2 r a t i o i n A R D S : a. > 2 0 0 e. V o c a l c o r d s d. C r yc o i d c a r t i l a g e c. < 2 0 0 d. > 3 0 0 . < 3 0 0 c.r e s p i r a t o r y f u n c t i o n s o f t h e l u n g a r e : a. Bloodfilter b.c u n e i p h o r m e c a r t i l a g e s (SA) 2 . T h yr o i d c a r t i l a g e b. Participationtothehydro-ionicbalance d. If high systemic vascular resistance (>2400 dyne·s·cm-5/m2) or arterial hypertension (SAP>140 mmHg or BPmed >100 mmHg) are present. ConversionoftheangiotensineItoangiotensine II e. C o r n i c u l a t e . T h e a n t e r i o r e d g e o f E p i g l o t t i s b i n d s t o : a. A r yt e n o i d c a r t i l a g e e. Alllistedabove (SA) 3. N o n . vasodilators are to be used: a) Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine) b) Nicardipine c) Adrenaline (Epinephrine) d) Sodium Nitroprusside e) Efedrine Acite Respiratory Failure (SA)1 . Participationtotheacid-basebalance c.

A l t e r a t i o n o f n e u r o l o g i c a l s t a t u s c. O 2 c o n t e n t i n a r terialblood d. S h o c k s a t a t e s e. O 2 c o n t e n t i n a r terialblood d. P l e u r i t i s d. F i O 2 i s t h e a c r o n y m f o r : a. P a r t i a l p r e s s u r e o f O 2 i n a r t e r i a l b l o o d c.(SA) 4. Fraction of inspired O2 e. I n c r e a s e i n P a C O 2 b. S k i n H yp e r e m i a e. P n e u m o n i a (SA) 7. O x y g e n s a t u r a t i o n o f t h e a r t e r i a l b l o o d b. C o d i t i o n s t h a t c a n l e a d t o A R D S a r e : a. P a O 2 i s t h e a c r o n i m e f o r : a. Fraction of inspired O2 . A l l l i s t e d a b o v e (SA) 5. S e p s i s c. O x y g e n s a t u r a t i o n o f t h e a r t e r i a l b l o o d b. R e s p i r a t o r y a c i d o s i s d. P a r t i a l p r e s s u r e o f O 2 i n v e n o u s b l o o d (MA) 6. P u l m o n a r y c o n t u s i o n b. Diagnosis of the Hypercapnic Respiratory Failure is based on: a. Pa r t i a l p r e s s u r e o f O 2 i n a r t e r i a l b l o o d c.

Respiratorycompensationmechanisminmetabol icacidosiscaninclude: a. Hypocapnia c. P a r t i a l p r e s s u r e o f O 2 i n v e n o u s b l o o d (MA) 8.8 0 m m H g d. S p i n a l c o r d (SA)11. R e s p i r a t o r y a c i d o s i s c. C e r e b r a l c o r t e x b. B r a i n s t e m e. 75 . < 6 0 m m H g 10. 85 . I n c e r a s e d r e s p i r a t o r y r a t e d.9 0 m m H g c.e. Hypercapnia b. C e r e b e l l u m d. D e c r e a s e d r e s p i r a t o r y r a t e e. D e c r e a s e i n P a C O 2 b.1 0 0 m m H g b. Respiratory acidosis e. In hyperventilation it can be found: a. M e t a b o licacidosis e. 65 . R e s p i r a t o r y a l c a l o s i s d. A l l l i s t e d a b o v e . H yp o t h a l a m u s c. I n c e r a s e i n P a C O 2 c. ( S A ) R e s p i r a t o r y c e n t e r i s l o c a t e d i n : a.NormalrangeforPaO2is: a. 95 . Hypoxemia (SA)9. H yp o c a p n i a b. I n r e a s e d t i d a l v o l u m e (MA)12.Inhypoventilationitcanbefound: a.7 0 m m H g e. Respiratory alcalosis d.

Re d u c e d O 2 c o n c e n t r a t i o n i n t h e i n h a l e d a i r b. A l v e o l a r h yp e r v e n t i l a t i o n b. K e e p i n g O 2 a n d C O 2 v a l u e s i n a r t e r i a l b l o o d i n t h e n o r m a l lrange b. A d v a n t a g e s o f m e c h a n i c a l v e n t i l a t i o n a r e : a.c a p i l l a r y m e m b r a n e e. I n c r e a s e d C O 2 c o n c e n t r a t i o n i n t h e i n h a l e d b l e n d (reinhalation) ( M A ) 14 . T o p e r f o r m e m e c h a n i c a l v e n t i l a t i o n b.p e r f u s i o n m i s m a t c h i n g c.( M A ) 13 . P e r f o r m i n g e x t r a c o r p o r e a l o x y g e n a t i o n d. I n c r e a s e i n d e a d s p a c e d. T o p r e ventairwayobstruction ( M A ) 16 . D e c r a e s e d O 2 c o n s u m p t i o n a t t h e t i s s u e l e v e l . R i g h t t o l e f t b l o o dshunting d. C a u s e s o f h y p o x e m i a a r e : a. D e c r e a s e v e n o u s r e t u r n d. S e c u r i n g a i r w a ys c. D e l i v e r yn g h i g h O 2 c o n c e n t r a t i o n t o t h e p a t i e n t e. O b j e c t i v e s f o r t r a c h e a l i n t u b a t i o n a r e : a. V e n t i l a t i o n . D e c r e a s e O 2 c o n s u m p t i o n e. D e c r e a s e w o r k o f b r e a t h i n g c. I m p a i r e d d i f f u s i o n t r o u h g a l v e o l a r . I n c r e a s e d O 2 c o n c e n t r a t i o n i n b r e a t i n g a i r e. A l v e o l a r h yp o v e n t i l a t i o n c. I n c r e a s e v e n o u s r e t u r n ( M A ) 15 . H y p e r c a p n i a i s a c o n s e q u e n c e o f : a.

Terbutaline b. The drugs used in airway obstruction are: a. Increased lactic acid production c. Hypocapnia b. d. 4 b.induced lung injury (MA) 19. Dopmine (MA) 21. Hypoxemia . Salbutamol d. P a C O 2 > 6 0 m m H g c. Theophilline c.r a y e x a m i n a t i o n (MA) 20. Barotrauma b. Dexamethasone e. e. Respiratory alcalosis d. I m p r o v e m m e n t o n X . Inhibition of the aerobic metabolism b. Metabolic asidosis e. The consequences of hyperventilation are: a. Ventilator-associated pneumonia c. Complications of the mechanical ventilation include: a.(MA)17. Respiratory acidosis c. Polyuria d. P a O 2 > 7 0 m m H g o n F i O 2 < 0 . P a O 2 / F i O 2 > 2 0 0 . Ventilator. Metabolic acidosis e. Criteria for weaning the patient from ventilator include: a. Tissue hypoxia can lead to: a. Metabolic alcalosis d. Convertion to anaerobic metabolism (MA)18. Pulmonary volutrauma e. 4 . S a O 2 > 9 5 % o n F i O 2 < 0 .

History of sever transfusion reactions d. Are usefull for correcting microvascular hemorrhage d. The following statements concerning Dextranes are correct: a. Hystroy of anaphylactic shock (MA)2. Increase the circulating blood volume b.5 g/kg body weight per day (MA)4.5 fold higher than normal b. The following are electrolyte solutions: . Emergency reversal of cumarinic anticoagulants (warfarin) d. History oh hemolytic transfusion reactions b. Fresh frosen plasma is used for: a. IgM defficite e. Volume replacement e. Fluids and Electrolytes (MA)1. The indications for „washed” red cell transfusion include: a. The dose limit is 1. Correction of microvascular hemorrhage if the Prothrombinic Time is 1. Are appropriate for parenteral nutrition c. Can act as an antigen e.Nutrition. Correction of microvascular hemorrhage if the Protrombinic Time is 2 fold higher than normal c. Congenital deffect of IgA c. Correction of hypoalbuminemia (MA)3.

20-30% of daily caloric requirements b. 70-80% of daily caloric requirements (SA)7. Fat emulsions used for parenteral nutrition include: a. Carbohydrates intake should cover: a. 10% Glucose solution (SA)6. Aminoplasmal . 30-40% of daily caloric requirements c. 35-40% of daily caloric requirements d. Intralipid c. Infesol b. 5% Glucose solution e. Aminosteril d. 10% Glucose solution (MA)5. Fresh frosen plasma c. Lipofundin d. Infezol b. 45-50% of daily caloric requirements e. 10-20% of daily caloric requirements b. Hydroxyethyl starch e. For nutritional therapy/parenteral nutrition are appropriate: a. Ringer’s lactate solution (Hartmann’s) c. Aminosteril a. 25-30% of daily caloric requirements c. Ringer’s solution b. 50-60% of daily caloric requirements e.a. Normal Saline d. 55-60% of daily caloric requirements (MA)8. 10-20% of daily caloric requirements d. Fat intake should cover: a.

Intralipid b. Norepinephrine (Noradrenalin) c. Abnormalities indicating for Systemic Inflammatory Responce Syndrom (SIRS) include: a. Epinephrine (Adrenalin) b. Infezol (SA)10. Dobutamine e. Lipofundin e. Heart rate > 90bpm b. Arterial hypotension (systolic BP<90mmhg d. Respiratory rate > 20 breaths/min or PaCO2<32 mmHg c. Aminoacide solutions used for parenteral nutrition include: a. 50-60 ml/kg of body weight Shock states (MA)1. Body temperature > 38 C or < 36 C (SA)2. Aminosteril c. Aminoplasmal d. Vasopresine . 40-50 ml/kg of body weight e. White blood cell count >12000 cells/mm3 or < 4000 cells/mm3 e. The drug of choice for treating the hypotension in septic shock is: a. The daily flud reuiremets in an adult are: a. Mezaton d.(MA) 9. 20-30 ml/kg of body weight c. 30-40 ml/kg of body weight d. 10-20 ml/kg of body weight b.

Nitroglycerine (CS)5. > 100 g/l (SA)6. > 80 g/l d. Resuscitation goals for the first 6hrs of the septic shock resuscitation include: a. 7.10 (MA)7. Sodium bicarbaonate will be used in a septic shock patient if PH is lower than: a. The drug of choice for incereasing myocardial contractility in a septic schock patient with compromised contractility will be: a. Adrenaline (MA)4. Normal saline b. > 90 g/l e. Drugs for Septic shock treatment include: a. 7. CVP 8-12 mmHg b.35 c. Naoradrenaline c. Hydrocortisone e. > 70 g/l c. SvO2 (sperior vena vena cava) or mixed ≥70% c. The target hemoglobin concentration in septic shock treatment should be: a. 7. Izoprenaline e. > 60 g/l b. Dobutamine d.4 b.(SA)3. Noradrenaline d. Mean arterial pressure ≥ 65 mm Hg d. Urine output ≥0.5 ml/kg/hr . Dobutamine c. Mezaton b.2 e.3 d. 7. 7.

Systolic arterial pressure ≥120 mm Hg (SA)8. The drug of choice for the correction of hypotension (SBP < 70-80 mmHg) in cardiogenic shock is: a. Dopamine d. Dopamine e. Cardiogenic schock findings include: a. Noradrenaline (MA)9. Mezaton c. The drug of choice for trating hypotension in anaphylactic shock is: a. Dobutamine e. Adrenaline d. Mezaton c. Findings in anaphylactic shock will include: . Dobutamine (MA)10. Bradycardia d. Dopamine e. Tachycardia b. Arterial hypotension (SA)11. Decreased cardiac output e. Noradrenaline b. For the treatment of cardiogenic shock in a patent with acute myocardial infarction can be used the following drugs a.e. Noradrenaline d. Fentanyl b. Low systemic vascular resistance c. Dobutamine (MA)12. Nitroglycerine c. Adrenaline b.

Noradrenaline d. Mezaton Coma states 1. Treatment of hypovolemic shock will start with: a. Noradrenalina (SA)14. Tratment of neurogenic shock can include: a.(MA) Cerebral edema can by caused by the following conditions: . Normal saline or Ringer’s lactate b. Diazepam c.(SA) Which of the following drugs is used for treatin convulsions caused by a local anesthetic: a. Bronchospasm c. Nitroglycerine d. Ringer’s lactate sol. Propofol 2. Normal saline c. Ketamine e. Dextrane 40 e. Generalized vasoplegia b. Increased capillary permeability d. Fentanyl d. Droperidol b. Adrenalina b. e.a. Hipervolemia e. Adrenaline c. High cardiac output (MA)13.

Transient ischemic attack d.(MA) Glsgow Coma Scale includes: a. Hypoalbuminemia 3. Atropin test 6. Vestibulary response e.(MA) Which of the following can be usefull in brain death diagnosis: a. Sever disturbances of electrolit balance b. Apnea test e. Verbal response c. Hypoglicemia c. Hypercapnia c. Hyperglicemia d. Hypoxia e. Hyperoxia 4. Advanced coma (3 points by GCS) b. Hyperventilation b. Motor response 5. Oculomotor reflex b. Mydriatic pupils d.a.(SA) Which of the conditions listed below can lead to coma: a. Systemic hypertension d. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation b. Hemorrhagic stroke e. Miotic pupils c. Hypoxia .(MA) Causes of an increased Intracranial Pressure can be: a. Cerebral contusion c. Eye response d.

Acidosis 10. Advanced coma d. Systemic blood pressure e. All listed above 8. Hypoxemia c. All listed above 7. Respiratory alcalosis e. PaCO2 d. Hyperventilation b.e. Convulsions d. Hypercapnia e.(MA) Mydriatic pupils are common for: a.(MA) Which of the following decreases Cerebral Blood Flow (CBF) and Intracranial Pressure (ICP): a. Analgesia and sedation b. PaO2 b. Hyperthermia c. Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP) d. Hypothhermia 9.(MA) Which of the following increases Cerebral Blood Flow (CBF) and Intracranial Pressure (ICP): a. Body temperature c. Anoxia states c. Use of mydriatic drugs . (SA) Cerebral blood flow is influenced by: a. Posoning with organophosphates b.

(MA) Druds used for osmotic therapy include: a. Horisontal position of the patient d. Loop diretics 13. High PEEP values 12.e. Immunosuppression c. Normal Saline c. Hyponatriemia . Patient ventilation b. Systemic hypotension e. 3% NaCl solution d. Systemic blood pressure control c. Intravenous perfusion of adrenomimetics 11.(MA) Components of the management of increase Intracranial Pressure (ICP) are: a. Dextrane 70 b. Hypoglicemia b. (MA) Glucocorticoid side effects include: a. Anticonvulsantts e. High gastrointestinal hemorrhage d. Manitolum e.