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CLINICAL BIOCHEMISTRY

Multiple Choice Practice Questions I


Author email: sidharta123@yahoo.com
Total time for test = 60 minutes

Total Marks: 75

QUESTION 1. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Which of the following is an anabolic hormone?
A) glucagon
B) thyroxine
C) growth hormone
D) cortisol
E) insulin
QUESTION 2. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A) 1, 2, & 3 correct
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Foods to be eaten in moderation in diabetes include:
1. green vegetables
2. tomato
3. meat extracts
4. milk
QUESTION 3. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Regarding the mechanism of action of metformin (biguanide), which of the following statements is
incorrect?
A) have no hypoglycaemic effect in normal people
B) increases peripheral glucose uptake
C) stimulates insulin secretion
D) reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis
E) do not cause hypoglycaemia
QUESTION 4. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A 55 year old male patient presents with symptoms of febrile episodes accompanied by regional
adenopathy. On physical examination, an eschar is found with generalized red-brown rash
throughout his trunk. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A) typhoid fever
B) African trypanosomiasisi
C) relapsing fever
D) rat-bite fever
E) dengue fever

QUESTION 5. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Pathological changes typical of NIDDM include all of the following except
A) amyloid deposition in islets
B) reduction in the number of insulin secreting cells
C) islet cell atrophy
D) decreased anabolism
E) atrophy of glucagon secreting cells
QUESTION 6. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Gene implicated for susceptibility towards dengue shock syndrome:
A) major histocompatibility complex class I
B) interleukin-23 receptor
C) interleukin-28B
D) mannose-binding lectin
E) FUT2, fucosyltransferase
QUESTION 7. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A) 1, 2, & 3 correct
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Life-threatening features of acute severe asthma
1. bradycardia
2. tachycardia >120 per min
3. central cyanosis
4. unable to speak in sentences
QUESTION 8. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A) 1, 2, & 3 correct
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Which of the following is a homopolysaccharide?
1. dextrins
2. heparin
3. amylopectin
4. neuraminic acid
QUESTION 9. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Regarding oxygen dissociation curve and oxygen binding to Hb, spot the incorrect statement:
A) fetal hemoglobin has a higher oxygen affinity than adult Hb
B) regulated by H+

C) 2,3-DPG affects oxygen binding to Hb


D) fetal hemoglobin binds 2,3-BPG more tightly
E) regulated by CO2
QUESTION 10. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Regarding NIDDM, which of the following statements is/are correct?
A) increased hepatic glucose production
B) presence of antibodies to bovine serum albumin
C) presence of anti-gliadin antibodies
D) DQ Beta polymorphism responsible for inducing NIDDM
E) undetectable plasma immunoreactive insulin
QUESTION 11. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Which of the following conditions do not precipitate diabetes mellitus?
A) Cushing's syndrome
B) Friedrich's dystrophies
C) growth hormone excess
D) pheochromocytoma
E) phenytoin therapy
QUESTION 12. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Standard reduction potential of the redox pair NAD/NADH is
A) -0.32
B) -0.22
C) +0.82
D) -0.12
E) +0.22
QUESTION 13. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A) 1, 2, & 3 correct
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. phosphorus is important in intermediary metabolism
2. catalase is an zinc containing enzyme
3. Sr competes with calcium for concentration in bones
4. Zinc is important in energy transfer reactions mediated by ATP
QUESTION 14. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Mark the statements True or False regarding normal CSF values:
A) ammonia 55-75 microgm/dL
B) monocyte counts 30-50%
C) total protein (cisternal) 15-50 mg/dL

D) lactate 40-70 mg/dL


E) total protein (lumbar) 15-50 mg/dL
QUESTION 15. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A) 1, 2, & 3 correct
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Which of the following virus family group is entirely mosquito-borne?
1. Type virus Sindbis
2. Bunyaviridae
3. Togaviridae
4. Flaviviridae
QUESTION 16. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Peak expiratory flow (PEF) of _____________ indicates evidence of severe asthma
A) <100 litres/min
B) <250 litres/min
C) <200 litres/min
D) <350 litres/min
E) <300 litres/min
QUESTION 17. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Inhaled steroid used in the management of asthma:
A) sodium cromoglycate
B) ipratropium bromide
C) nedocromil sodium
D) fluticasone propionate
E) salmeterol
QUESTION 18. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
The fate of 5-methyl-FH4
A) PABA
B) S-Adenosylmethionine (SAM)
C) homocysteine
D) methionine
E) folic acid
QUESTION 19. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Which of the following statements regarding hemoglobin transport of oxygen is correct?
A) formation of salt-bridges in oxyhemoglobin when histidine 146 is protonated
B) 2,3-BPG lowers the oxygen affinity of hemoglobin
C) fetal Hb contains two beta chains and two gamma chains
D) exhibits Bohr effect

E) exhibits Haldane effect


QUESTION 20. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
The incubation period of Dengue is
A) 8-14 days
B) 3-6 days
C) 12-14 days
D) 7-10 days
E) 5-6 days
QUESTION 21. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Indications for assisted ventilation in acute severe asthma include all of the following except:
A) coma
B) exhaustion, confusion, drowsiness
C) PaO2 < 8 kPa and falling
D) PaCO2 < 6 kPa and falling
E) respiratory arrest
QUESTION 22. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Biochemical basis of muscle contraction is due to the action of
A) Calcium on sarcomere
B) Calcium on actin
C) Calcium on tropomyosin
D) Calcium onT tubules
E) Calcium on myosin
QUESTION 23. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Congenital dysfunction of the cilia with ciliary dyskinesia is characteristic of
A) Kartagener's syndrome
B) Boerhaave's syndrome
C) Patau syndrome
D) Erb-Duchenne syndrome
E) Di George syndrome
QUESTION 24. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Mark the statements True or False regarding normal serum electrolyte levels:
A) K 5 mEq/L
B) Total iron content 6.5 gm
C) Na 142 mEq/L
D) Calcium 9-11 mg%
E) Cl 127 mEq/L
QUESTION 25. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Which of the following cells are laden with heparin?

A) eosinophils
B) basophils
C) lymphocytes
D) neutrophils
E) monocytes
QUESTION 26. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Regarding immunogenicity of therapeutic preparations of insulin, sopt the correct statements?
A) protamine in insulin preaparation is highly immunogenic
B) acidity decreases immunogenicity
C) porcine insulin is most antigenic
D) newer insulin preparations contain trace amounts of pro-insulin
E) bovine insulin is most antigenic
QUESTION 27. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Regarding the genetic susceptibility to diabetes (IDDM), correct is/are:
A) amino acid substitution at HLA-BQ beta chain
B) high susceptibility for Asp-positive homozygosity
C) amino acid substitution at HLA-DQ alpha chain
D) high susceptibility for Asp-negative homozygosity
E) high susceptibility for Asp-positive heterozygosity
QUESTION 28. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Which of the following contains Zinc as a cofactor?
A) EcoRV endonuclease
B) Vitamin B12
C) cytochrome c oxidoreductase
D) alcohol dehydrogenase
E) nitrogenase
QUESTION 29. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Community acquired pneumonia is most likely due to
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Klebsiella
C) E.coli
D) Staphylococcus aureus
E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
QUESTION 30. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A) 1, 2, & 3 correct
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Cell derived mediators of acute inflammation include:
1. nitric oxide

2. histamine
3. prostacyclin
4. C3a
QUESTION 31. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Energy sources during the initial stages of strenous exercise is from:
A) oxidation of ketone bodies
B) oxidation of glycogen
C) anaerobic glycolysis
D) aerobic glycolysis
E) oxidation of fatty acids
QUESTION 32. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Mark the statements True or False:
A) K+ is essential for development of action potentials in nerve cells
B) Cl is an important anion of intracellular fluids
C) Na is the predominant ionic constituent of blood plasma
D) Na+ is essential for development of resting potentials across membranes
E) Na+ is essential for development of action potentials in nerve cells
QUESTION 33. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Maternal deficiency of which vitamin is associated with neural tube defects of the newborn?
A) folic acid
B) riboflavin
C) thiamine
D) biotin
E) vitamin D
QUESTION 34. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A 35 year old male presents with intermittent fever, headache, pruritus and petechhiae on his left
leg. On laboratory examination, there is leukopenia. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A) malaria
B) dengue
C) typhoid fever
D) rat-bite fever
E) relapsing fever
QUESTION 35. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A) 1, 2, & 3 correct
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Which of the following statements regarding 'insulin preparations' are correct?
1. Duration of action of Hypurin isophane is 12 hrs

2. Isophane insulin is adsorbed on to a foreign protein


3. Modified insulin preparations are cloudy solutions
4. Duration of action of Hypurin protamine is 24 hrs
QUESTION 36. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Chikungunya fever is caused by viruses that belongs to
A) Plebovirus
B) Bunyavirus
C) Reoviridae
D) Togaviridae
E) Flaviviridae
QUESTION 37. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Regarding ketone bodies all is correct except:
A) release hydrogen ion following its dissociation
B) ketone bodies constitute 90% of energy sources at rest
C) ketone bodies increases the osmolality of plasma
D) beta hydroxy-butyric acid and acetone
E) ketone bodies decreases the osmolality of plasma
QUESTION 38. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Spot the correct statements about metabolic actions of the following hormones:
A) glucocorticoids decreases ketogenesis but increases lipolysis
B) growth hormone increases proteolysis
C) growth hormone decreases muscle glucose uptake
D) glucagon induces lipolysis
E) growth hormone induces hepatic gluconeogenesis
QUESTION 39. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
The normal range of acid-phosphatase in the seminal fluid is
A) 100-200 microgm/mL
B) 200-300 microgm/mL
C) 100-150 microgm/mL
D) 50-100 microgm/mL
E) 100-300 microgm/mL
QUESTION 40. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Long acting oral beta-2 adrenoceptor agonist:
A) Formoterol
B) Budesonide
C) Terbutaline SR
D) Salmeterol
E) Fluticasone propionate
QUESTION 41. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A) 1, 2, & 3 correct

B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Short-acting insulin:
1. Hypurin neutral
2. Hypurin protamine
3. Humulin S
4. Humulin Zn
QUESTION 42. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Dengue hemorrhagic fever is cause by a virus which belongs to genus
A) Alphavirus
B) Plebovirus
C) Reovirus
D) Bunyavirus
E) Flavivirus
QUESTION 43. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
S-Adenosylmethionine (SAM) is synthesized from
A) homocysteine and ATP
B) methionine and ATP
C) cysteine and ATP
D) 5-methyltetrahydrofolate and ATP
E) methionine and folic acid
QUESTION 44. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Which of the following is found in lowest concentration in normal seminal fluid?
A) glycerylphosphorylcholine
B) magnesium
C) zinc
D) carnitine
E) acid-phosphatase
QUESTION 45. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Which of the following is involved in energy transfer reactions mediated by ATP?
A) Co
B) Sulphur
C) Mg
D) Zn
E) Cu
QUESTION 46. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Mark the statements True or False:

A) insulin causes extracellular migration of K+


B) hyperkalemia develops in patients with diabetic acidosis treated with insulin
C) insulin is effective in the treatment of hyperkalemia
D) hypokalemia develops in patients with diabetic acidosis treated with insulin
E) insulin is effective in the treatment of hypokalemia
QUESTION 47. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Morbilliform exanthems are characteristic of all of the following conditions except:
A) Rubeola
B) Typhoid fever
C) Dengue
D) West Nile virus infections
E) Scarlet fever
QUESTION 48. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Which of the following is correct about the only plasma enzyme physiologically found in urine?
A) elastase-1
B) glutamate dehydrogenase
C) copper is absolutely required for this enzyme's function
D) cystathionine beta-synthase
E) alpha-amylase
QUESTION 49. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Basic proteins involved in perpetuating chronic asthmatic attack:
A) interleukin-1
B) eosinophil cationic protein
C) monocyte cationic protein
D) phospholipase
E) leukotrienes
QUESTION 50. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Insulin with rapid onset of action:
A) Humulin Zn
B) Humulin S
C) Velosulin
D) Actrapid
E) Hypurin Isophane
QUESTION 51. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A modified depot insulin with prolonged action:
A) Ultratard
B) Velosulin
C) Monotard
D) Humulin S
E) Insulatard

QUESTION 52. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Mark the statements True or False:
A) glipizide has a biological half-life of about 10-12 hrs
B) glibenclamide can induce severe hypoglycemia
C) biguanides have a very low incidence of side effects compared to sulphonylureas
D) tolbutamide can induce disulfiram-like reactions in some patients after taking with alcohol
E) chlorpropamide can induce SIADH
QUESTION 53. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Correct about normal CSF values:
A) CSF volume 150 mL
B) CSF pressure 50-120 mm H2O
C) Lymphocytes 30-50%
D) Ig G 0.5-.7.9 mg/dL
E) albumin 16.6-24.2 mg/dL
QUESTION 54. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Regarding non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) spot the correct statements:
A) hexokinase gene mutation is associated with MODY
B) Coxsackie B4 virus and reo virus type I are implicated in inducing NIDDM
C) HLA-linked polygenic inheritance
D) profound insulin resistance
E) have autoimmune etiopathology
QUESTION 55. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
The basic structure of histone in DNA is rich in
A) histidine and isoleucine
B) glutamine and methionine
C) glycine and alanine
D) arginine and lysine
E) asparagine and proline
QUESTION 56. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Mark the following statements 'true' or 'false':
A) hyaluronic acid is an acidic mucopolysaccharide
B) galactose on oxidation gives mucic acid crystals
C) Indican is an example of aglycone
D) glucose on reduction gives mannitol
E) fructose on reduction gives sorbitol
QUESTION 57. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A) 1, 2, & 3 correct
B) 1, & 3 correct

C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
The energy requirements of muscle at rest is from
1. fatty acids
2. glycogen
3. ketone bodies
4. pyruvate
QUESTION 58. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
The most important laboratory test in the evaluation of male infertility:
A) Semen analysis
B) GnRH simulation test
C) Antisperm antibodies
D) Testosterone concentration
E) FSH measurement
QUESTION 59. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A sulphur containing amino acid that requires folic acid as a cofactor
A) homocystine
B) cysteine
C) histidine
D) homocysteine
E) serine
QUESTION 60. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A) 1, 2, & 3 correct
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Which of the following is a second generation sulphonurea?
1. chlorpropamide
2. glibenclamide
3. tolbutamide
4. glipizide
QUESTION 61. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
The locus of HLA Class II genes associated with diabetes
A) long arm of chromosome 5
B) short arm of chromosome 6
C) short arm of chromosome 8
D) long arm of chromosome 6
E) short arm of chromosome 5
QUESTION 62. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.

A) 1, 2, & 3 correct
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Correct statements about the clinical features of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM):
1. positive family history of diabetes
2. autoantibodies against insulin not detected
3. obesity is a risk factor for IDDM
4. presence of ketonuria
QUESTION 63. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Characteristic pathological features of bronchial asthma include all of the following except:
A) shedding of the epithelium
B) mucus plugging
C) hypertrophy of the bronchial arteries
D) smooth muscle hypertrophy
E) plasma exudation
QUESTION 64. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Which of the following statements regarding Semen analysis is/are incorrect as per WHO one
sided reference values?
A) morphologically normal forms 8%
B) total sperm number 39 million per ejaculate
C) 58% live
D) progressive motility 32%
E) sperm concentration 15 million/mL
QUESTION 65. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Bond dissociation energy of single bond O-H is about
A) 435 kJ/mol
B) 414 kJ/mol
C) 470 kJ/mol
D) 348 kJ/mol
E) 419 kJ/mol
QUESTION 66. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Functions of insulin: Mark the statements True or False
A) increased lipoprotein lipase activity
B) increases fatty acid oxidation
C) decreases cellular potassium uptake
D) increased lipolysis
E) decreases glycogenolysis
QUESTION 67. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.

Relapsing fever causing hemorrhage is due to infection with


A) Bacteria
B) Rickettsiae
C) Spirochaetes
D) Protozoa
E) Viruses
QUESTION 68. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Mark the statements True or False:
A) Carbodiimide is an excellent condesing agent
B) Water content of erythrocytes is 93%
C) Water has a high boiling and melting point with low heat of vaporization
D) Blood plasma has 60% of water
E) Energy required in the formation of C-C bond is -82 KCal
QUESTION 69. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Insulitis is the infiltration of the islets with all of the following except
A) mast cells
B) suppressor T lymphocytes
C) natural killer cells
D) mononuclear cells
E) activated macrophages
QUESTION 70. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Alpha-glucosidase inhibitor used in diabetes:
A) actrapid
B) acarbose
C) acetohexamide
D) metformin
E) glibenclamide
QUESTION 71. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
All of the following viruses are capable of inducing diabetes (IDDM) except:
A) Mengo virus 2T
B) Reo virus type I
C) EMC virus
D) Coxsackie B4 virus
E) Epstein-Barr virus
QUESTION 72. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Which of the following is found in highest concentration in normal seminal fluid?
A) carnitine
B) prostaglandins
C) fructose

D) acid-phosphatase
E) glycerylphosphorylcholine
QUESTION 73. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A) 1, 2, & 3 correct
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Diagnosis of diabetes is certain when there is
1. HbA1 > 7.0%
2. glycosuria
3. ketonuria
4. ketonuria with glycosuria
QUESTION 74. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A) 1, 2, & 3 correct
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Regarding diagnosis of diabetes correct is when:
1. RBS >14 mmol/L
2. RBS >6 mmol/L
3. Urinary glucose conc. >1.11 mmol/L
4. Urinary glucose conc. >0.44 mmol/L
QUESTION 75. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
An example of a modified, delayed onset long acting insulin preparation:
A) Velosulin
B) Humulin S
C) Actrapid
D) Insulatard
E) Hypurin neutral

ANSWERS

QUESTION 1. Correct answer = E


QUESTION 2. Correct answer = D
QUESTION 3. Correct answer = C
QUESTION 4. Correct answer = D
QUESTION 5. Correct answer = E
QUESTION 6. Correct answer = A
QUESTION 7. Correct answer = B
QUESTION 8. Correct answer = B
QUESTION 9. Correct answer = D
QUESTION 10. Correct answer = A
QUESTION 11. Correct answer = B
QUESTION 12. Correct answer = A
QUESTION 13. Correct answer = B
QUESTION 14. Correct answers: A= F, B = T, C = F, D = F, E = T.
QUESTION 15. Correct answer = B
QUESTION 16. Correct answer = C
QUESTION 17. Correct answer = D
QUESTION 18. Correct answer = D
QUESTION 19. Correct answers: A= F, B = T, C = F, D = T, E = F.
QUESTION 20. Correct answer = E
QUESTION 21. Correct answer = D
QUESTION 22. Correct answer = C
QUESTION 23. Correct answer = A
QUESTION 24. Correct answers: A= T, B = F, C = T, D = T, E = F.
QUESTION 25. Correct answer = B
QUESTION 26. Correct answer = E
QUESTION 27. Correct answer = D

QUESTION 28. Correct answer = D


QUESTION 29. Correct answer = A
QUESTION 30. Correct answer = A
QUESTION 31. Correct answer = B
QUESTION 32. Correct answers: A= F, B = F, C = T, D = F, E = T.
QUESTION 33. Correct answer = A
QUESTION 34. Correct answer = B
QUESTION 35. Correct answer = E
QUESTION 36. Correct answer = D
QUESTION 37. Correct answer = E
QUESTION 38. Correct answer = C
QUESTION 39. Correct answer = E
QUESTION 40. Correct answer = C
QUESTION 41. Correct answer = B
QUESTION 42. Correct answer = E
QUESTION 43. Correct answer = B
QUESTION 44. Correct answer = B
QUESTION 45. Correct answer = C
QUESTION 46. Correct answers: A= F, B = F, C = T, D = T, E = F.
QUESTION 47. Correct answer = E
QUESTION 48. Correct answer = E
QUESTION 49. Correct answer = B
QUESTION 50. Correct answer = C
QUESTION 51. Correct answer = A
QUESTION 52. Correct answers: A= F, B = T, C = F, D = F, E = T.
QUESTION 53. Correct answers: A= T, B = F, C = F, D = F, E = F.
QUESTION 54. Correct answer = D
QUESTION 55. Correct answer = D

QUESTION 56. Correct answers: A= F, B = T, C = T, D = F, E = F.


QUESTION 57. Correct answer = B
QUESTION 58. Correct answer = A
QUESTION 59. Correct answer = D
QUESTION 60. Correct answer = C
QUESTION 61. Correct answer = B
QUESTION 62. Correct answer = D
QUESTION 63. Correct answer = C
QUESTION 64. Correct answer = A
QUESTION 65. Correct answer = C
QUESTION 66. Correct answers: A= T, B = F, C = F, D = F, E = T.
QUESTION 67. Correct answer = C
QUESTION 68. Correct answers: A= T, B = F, C = F, D = F, E = T.
QUESTION 69. Correct answer = A
QUESTION 70. Correct answer = B
QUESTION 71. Correct answer = E
QUESTION 72. Correct answer = C
QUESTION 73. Correct answer = D
QUESTION 74. Correct answer = B
QUESTION 75. Correct answer = D