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Mock CAT Test 2007
Questions: 75, Time: 2.5 hours Directions: This test is of two and a half hours duration and is to be done in one sitting. No breaks are to be taken. A student must attempt questions in all sections. Answers must be marked in the appropriate oval in the answer sheet by a HB pencil. There are 75 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each wrong answer, minus one mark will be awarded. There is no mark for question that is not attempted. Attempting different sub-sections is necessary. The student must show competence in each sub-section. Cut off in each section: Minimum 33% of the marks allocated for that section. A student must score a minimum of 33 (net score after negative marking) in each section. The test is designed to help you with the new pattern of the CAT and is modelled on last year’s pattern. This test gives a practice of the changed format but students should be prepared for any changes in the format. It is based by Mastermind Education, Tel: 98880 22329. E-mail: mmchd@indiatimes.com

Section—I

VERBAL ABILITY
No. of questions: 25 Each question carries 4 marks. Negative marks for wrong answers:–1 Directions Q. 1-5: Read the passage given below and answer the questions based on it. Passage 1 Nature is full of surprises. When atoms were first proved to exist (and that was a mere century ago), they were thought to be made only of electrons

and protons. That explained a lot, but it did not quite square with other observations. Then, in 1932, James Chadwick discovered the neutron. Suddenly everything made sense—so much sense that it took only another 13 years to build an atomic bomb. It is no exaggeration to say that biology is now undergoing its “neutron moment”. For more than half a century the fundamental story of living things has been a tale of the interplay between genes, in the form of DNA, and proteins, which the genes encode and which do the donkey work of keeping living organisms living. The past couple of years, however, have seen the rise and rise of a third type of molecule, called RNA. The analogy is not perfect. Unlike the neutron, RNA has been known about for a long time. Until the past couple of years, however, its role had seemed restricted to fetching and carrying for DNA and proteins. Now RNA looks every bit as important as those two masters. It may, indeed, be the main regulator of what goes on in a cell—the cell’s operating system, to draw a computing analogy—as well as the author of many other activities. As important, molecular biologists have gone from thinking that they know roughly what is going on in their subject to suddenly realising that they have barely a clue. That might sound a step backwards; in fact, it is how science works. The analogy with physics is deeper than just that between RNA and the neutron. There is in biology at the moment a sense of barely contained expectations reminiscent of the physical sciences at the beginning of the 20th century. It is a feeling of advancing into the unknown, and that where this advance will lead is both exciting and mysterious. As Samuel Goldwyn so wisely advised, never make predictions—especially about the future. But

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here is one: the analogy between 20th-century physics and 21st-century biology will continue, for both good and ill. Physics gave two things to the 20th century. The most obvious gift was power over nature. That power was not always benign, as the atomic bomb showed. But if the 20th century was distinguished by anything from its predecessors, that distinctive feature was physical technology, from motor cars and aeroplanes to computers and the internet. It is too early to be sure if the distinguishing feature of the 21st century will be biological technology, but there is a good chance that it will be. The driving force of technological change—necessity—is also there. Many of the big problems facing humanity are biological, or are susceptible to biological intervention. The question of how to deal with an ageing population is one example. Climate change, too, is intimately bound up with biology since it is the result of carbon dioxide going into the air faster than plants can remove it. And the risk of a new, lethal infection suddenly becoming pandemic as a result of modern transport links is as biological as it gets. Even the fact that such an infection might itself be the result of synthetic biology only emphasises the biological nature of future risks. Physics gave the 20th century a more subtle boon than mere power. It also brought an understanding of the vastness of the universe and humanity’s insignificant place in it. It allowed people, in William Blake’s phrase, to hold infinity in the palm of a hand, and eternity in an hour. Biology, though, does more than describe humanity’s place in the universe. It describes humanity itself. And here, surprisingly, the rise of RNA may be an important part of that description. Ever since the human-genome project was completed, it has puzzled biologists that animals, be they worms, flies or people, all seem to have about the same number of genes for proteins—around 20,000. Yet flies are more complex than worms, and people are more complex than either. Traditional genes are thus not as important as proponents of human nature had suspected nor as proponents of nurture had feared. Instead, the solution to the puzzle seems to lie in the RNA operating system of the cells. This gets bigger with each advance in complexity. And it is noticeably different in a human from that in the brain of a chimpanzee. If RNA is controlling the complexity of the whole organism, that suggests the operating system of each cell is not only running the cell in question, but is linking up with those of the other cells when a creature is developing. To push the analogy, organs such as the brain are the result of a biological internet. If that is right, the search for the essence of humanity has been looking in the wrong genetic direction. Of course, such results are speculative and primitive. But that is the point. Lord Rutherford, who proved that atoms exist, knew nothing of neutrons. Chadwick knew nothing of quarks, let alone super-

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symmetry. Modern biologists are equally ignorant. But eventually, the truth will out. 1. Drawing a similarity with physics, the author says that the analogy is not perfect. Which of the following would NOT be the reason that the analogy is not perfect? I. RNA has been known for a long time, unlike the neutron. II. The understanding of the RNA is as important as the discovery of the neutron. III. Biology and physics are entirely different subjects. IV. There is in biology at the moment a sense of barely contained expectations. (1) Only I (2) I and II (3) Only II (4) II and III (5) None of these 2. Which of the following is/are true in the context of the passage? I. Never make predictions—especially about the future. II. All advancements in science benefit mankind in some way or the other. III. Scientists are now closer to understanding what goes inside a cell. IV. The challenges mankind faces are all related to biology. (1) I and II (2) II and III (3) III and IV (4) I and IV (5) None of these 3. Listed below are some of the problems that can be addressed by biotechnology, according to the passage. Which of the following would NOT be a problem that biotechnology can help solve? (1) A solution to climate change. (2) Creating an artificial living organism. (3) Creating vaccines to fight lethal infections. (4) A solution to growing more fuel. (5) A solution to the ageing population. 4. Which of the following is the best reason that the author says that living organisms are the result of a biological internet? (1) Messages can be passed from one organ to another in the human body. (2) The brain is like the operating system that controls all the organs. (3) Every development in the body is linked up to everything else. (4) The RNA is the controlling element of the whole organism. (5) The search for the essence of humanity has been looking in the wrong genetic direction. 5. Which of the following best sums up the essence of the passage: (1) Humanity has been looking in the wrong direction in its understanding of life. (2) Modern biologists are ignorant, but now they are closer to the truth. (3) The RNA is the factor that controls the building of life. (4) Biology is now undergoing its “neutron moment” and is poised for new discoveries. (5) Technological change in biotechnology is arising out of the driving force of technology. Directions Q. 6-10: Given below are paragraphs with their last line missing. Select from the given choices the most appropriate line that best completes the given paragraph. 6. Since the IPCC report, the science has tended to confirm the idea that something serious is happening. In the 1990s, satellite data seemed to contradict the terrestrial data that showed temperatures rising. The disparity puzzled scientists and fuelled scepticism. The satellite data, it turned out, were wrong: having been put right, they now agree with terrestrial data that things are hotting up. __________________. (1) Glaciers are melting surprisingly swiftly. (2) Arctic sea ice, for instance, is melting unexpectedly fast, at 9% a decade. (3) Observations about what is happening to the climate have tended to confirm what the models predicted would happen. (4) A range of phenomena, such as hurricane activity, that were previously thought to be unconnected to climate change are now increasingly linked to it. (5) The world is warming up because of human activity, the IPCC report has argued. 7. It is true that the allocation for secondary education has indeed increased by just under Rs 2,000 crore. But it is immediately evident that this is not even a small proportion of the requirement for meeting the growing demand given the population bulge and the need to ensure universal education up to Class VIII and increasing enrolment up to Class X. ______________________. (1) This is despite the fact that the goal of sarva shiksha is nowhere near being reached. (2) So clearly the Central government continues to wash its hands of the financial commitment that will be necessary to ensure universal school education. (3) Since elementary education covers only up to Class V, the resources for Classes VI to VIII have to be met from the secondary education budget. (4) While enrolment at the primary stages has improved the dropout rates remain very high, especially of girls. (5) Even by the end of elementary school (Class V) at least 25 per cent of children in the relevant age group will not complete elementary education. 8. Former Director-General of Council of Scientific and Industrial Research R.A. Mashelkar has brought disgrace upon India's scientific establishment by producing a tawdry, poorly argued, unbalanced and pro-big business report on India’s patents law, at the core of which lies rank plagiarism. Mashelkar has withdrawn the discredited report of the “Technical Expert Group on Patent Law Issues”, which he headed. ____________________. (1) He says he did this to uphold “scientific ethics”. (2) He says: “I stand by the report and its findings, 100 per cent... .” (3) He claims that there was no “plagiarism” and that “it would be wrong to attach motives” to the fact that a critical part of his committee’s report was bodily lifted from a previously published paper. (4) He minimises and trivialises this thoroughly deplorable and indefensible practice as consisting of mere “technical inaccuracies” or a

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“copying error by the sub-committee” that wrote the draft. (5) What is crucial is that the plagiarised portion forms the heart of the Mashelkar Committee’s recommendation. 9. As far as I can recall, the Indian Penal Code, 1860, and the Information Technology Act, 2000, are the only laws dealing with the subject of obscenity in India. Section 292 of the IPC prohibits the sale of obscene books, pamphlet, and so on, and prescribes a sentence of two years and a fine of Rs 2,000 to a first offender. A repeat offender gets five years and a fine of Rs 5,000. Section 293 deals with sale of such material to a person under 20. __________________________. (1) This law has been invoked by the police in several instances of the Net being used to sell pornography. (2) How far can acts of child pornography be brought under these sections will merit a debate. (3) Section 67 of the IT Act deals directly with pornography on the Net. (4) It renders publication or transmission of material that is lascivious or which appeals to the prurient interest of another person an offence punishable with a sentence of five years and a fine of Rs 100,000. (5) Performing obscene acts and reciting obscene songs in public are punishable under Section 294. 10. With all the air-conditioning, the cushioned seats, the more comfortable coaches and all the rest, one needs really to look at the entire process of undertaking a train journey. Is it, one needs to consider, a passenger-friendly experience? This is not merely a matter of comfortable seats and all the other facilities being provided. The purchase of a ticket is where the process of a journey’s passengerfriendliness, or lack of it, begins. __________________. (1) True, it comes with an assurance that it will almost certainly be confirmed on the day of the journey. (2) Most passengers will agree that it is usual to get a wait-listed ticket even a fortnight before the journey. (3) With all the counters, all the electronics, the computers and the now much-touted on-line booking arrangements, the process is as mystifying as it is harrowing. (4) Why is it so difficult to provide a ticket that is confirmed, as in the case of an air journey? (5) And the other great Indian railway mystery: No ticket has the passenger’s name on it— just the letter. Directions Q. 11-15: From the alternatives, choose the one which correctly classifies the four sentences as F: Fact: if it relates to a known matter of direct observation, or an existing reality or something known to be true. J: Judgment: if it is an opinion or an estimate or anticipation of common sense or intention. I: Inference: if it is a logical conclusion or deduction of something, based on the knowledge of facts. 11. A. The capacity to absorb investment is not a stand-alone intrinsic factor of the scientific community; it is actually a function of several factors that depend on the systems and mechanisms that are in (or not in) place for the administration of S&T in the country. B. Investing 2 per cent of the GDP in S&T is indeed a desirable objective if we wish to become a developed nation. C. The President urged that there be a focused action plan to realise this progressively and suggested the constitution of a joint team comprising members from all the scientific departments of the government to work out the growth plan in an integrated way. D. Significantly, he recommended allocating 0.5 per cent of the GDP for basic research as against the present level of around 0.2 per cent. (1) FFFI (2) FIIJ (3) FJFF (4) FIFF (5) IJFF 12. A. The passage of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Bill, 2006, is an important step in the struggle to reverse the historical marginalisation of the tribal people of India. B. The Scheduled Tribes, constituting about 8.4 per cent of the population, have been denied access to benefits from land and forests by both the medieval and the modern State. C. Thus, the displacement of tribal people into forests was not a colonial phenomenon alone, but British imperialism accentuated it by setting up State monopoly over forests. D. As a consequence, a centralised and often autocratic forest management came into force in India. (1) JIFI (2) JIIF (3) FIIJ (4) FIII (5) JIII 13. A. In their ongoing study of wild balsams, researchers of the Edhkwehlynawd Botanical Refuge of Udhagamandalam noticed that some of the native species had become rare. B. It took them three years to locate Impatiens denisonii; they made three annual field trips during August-September, when the balsams are in bloom, and reported the sighting of the species on the third such visit. C. It is likely that this was the first scientific collection of the species since British naturalist Richard Henry Beddome first documented it in 1862. D. The study was the most authoritative text on the subject and was prescribed in universities. (1) IFIJ (2) IJIF (3) IIJF (4) JIIJ (5) IFJI 14. A. Watching Tony Blair’s awkward demeanour alongside George Bush at the White House, it was striking just

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how American a country Britain has become. B. It has long been a cliche that the UK is the 51st State of the union, but it has never seemed a more appropriate description. C. Indeed, there is a case for saying that after effectively living in sin for so long, it’s time to make the “special relationship” legitimate. D. Britain is never going to join the USA, but if it did the Prime Minister would probably have a lot more clout on the other side of the Atlantic than he does now. (1) FIJJ (2) JIIJ (3) IJJJ (4) JIFJ (5) IJJF 15. A. The problem is that in exercising one precious right, we often extinguish that right in others—those who constitute what is called the unorganised sector of society. B. When a political party or a trade union, or a group of trade unions, decides to call a bandh and shut down a State for a day, lakhs of people who are in the unorganised sector, lose their earnings for that day. C. Most of them depend on their daily earnings to manage their households and have to do without the means to feed their families. D. More often than not, bandhs have no effect on public awareness of the reasons they were organised for, except in a vague way. (1) IIIJ (2) JIII (3) IIIF (4) JIIF (5) IIFF Directions Q. 16-25: Read the passages given below and answer the questions based on them. Passage 2 Neanderthal man was a strong, large-brained, skilful big-game hunter who had survived for more than 200,000 years in the harsh European climates of the last Ice Age. But within a few thousand years of the arrival of modern humans in the continent, he was extinct. Why that happened is a matter of abiding interest to anthropologically inclined descendants of those interloping moderns. The extinction of Neanderthal man has been attributed variously to his having lower intelligence than modern humans, to worse language skills, to cruder tools, or even to the lack of a propensity for long-distance trade. The latest proposal, though, is that it is not so much Neanderthal man that was to blame, as modern woman. In existing pre-agricultural societies there is, famously, a division of food-acquiring labour between men, who hunt, and women, who gather. And in a paper published in Current Anthropology, Steven Kuhn and Mary Stiner of the University of Arizona propose that this division of labour happened early in the species’ history, and that it is what enabled modern humans to expand their population at the expense of Neanderthals. As Adam Smith noted, division of labour leads to greater productivity because it allows people to specialise and become very good at what they do. In the vast majority of cases among historically known and present-day foragers, men specialise in hunting big game, while women hunt smaller animals and collect plant food. In colder climes, where long winters make plant-gathering difficult or impossible for much of the year, women often specialise in making clothing and shelters. The archaeological record, however, shows few signs of any specialisation among the Neanderthals from their appearance about 250,000 years ago to their disappearance 30,000 years ago. Instead, they did one thing almost to the exclusion of all else: they hunted big game. There are plenty of collections of bones from animals such as reindeer, horses, bison and mammoths that are associated with Neanderthals, but few remains of rabbits or tortoises. There is also little sign of preserved seeds and nuts, or of the specialised grinding stones that would have been needed to process them. And there are no bone awls or needles that would suggest that Neanderthals were skilled leather workers, despite the abundance of animal skins that their hunting would have provided. Signs of division of labour come only with the arrival of modern humans into Europe around 40,000 years ago. That is when evidence appears of small animals being eaten routinely and plant foods being gathered. It is also when tools designed for sophisticated leather working emerge. Dr Kuhn and Dr Stiner suggest that division of labour actually originated in a warmer part of the world—Africa seems most likely—where plant foods could be gathered profitably all year round. But as humans brought the idea of division of labour north, the female side of the bargain gave the species a significant advantage by providing fallback foods when big game was scarce and allowing more people to inhabit a given piece of land in times of plenty. Modern human populations grew, Neanderthal populations shrank, and the rest is prehistory. Of course, the archaeological record cannot prove which sex was doing what, or even if specialisation was determined by sex at all. But almost all known groups of foragers divide men’s and women’s work the same way, which makes it likely that the same rule applied in the past, and for the same reasons—men tend to be stronger and faster, and women are more likely to be occupied with childcare. That it was division of labour which gave modern humanity its edge over the Neanderthals is not a completely new idea. A study published by Jason Shogren of the University of Wyoming used a mathematical model to suggest it would work, particularly if combined with trade. But Dr Shogren’s thesis was that wimpy, useless hunters were the ones who stayed at home and crafted objects, while the real men went out and killed things. Dr Kuhn and Dr Stiner, by contrast, assign to women the main role in establishing the antecedents of modern economics, and thus launching the process of growth that continues to this day. 16. According to the study, women helped modern man by doing which of the following? A. Providing food

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B. Providing clothing and shelters C. Hunting large animals D. Staying at home and crafting objects (1) Only A (2) A and B (3) B and C (4) A, B and D (5) All of the above 17. The conclusion of the studies to assign to women the main role in establishing the antecedents of modern economics, can be: (1) accepted as true as the evidence is convincing (2) extrapolated with activities of modern women to see that it is right (3) accepted as most probably true as the conclusion is logical (4) accepted with a pinch of salt, at best (5) accepted as somewhat near the truth 18. According to the passage, Neanderthals did all of the following except: A. Long distance trade B. Hunting C. Leather processing D. Farming (1) A and C (2) A, B and C (3) B, C and D (4) C and D (5) A, C and D 19. Which of the following would strengthen the conclusion reached by the researchers? (1) The finding of large number of cooking implements of the Neanderthal man. (2) The evidence of bones of small animals dating back to 2,50,000 years. (3) Cave paintings which show that language was developed by ancient man. (4) Farming and sewing implements that were only 30,000 years old. (5) None of the above 20. It can be inferred from the passage that: (1) Modern man drove Neanderthal man to extinction by killing him (2) Modern man drove Neanderthal man to extinction by enslaving him (3) Modern man drove Neanderthal man to extinction by better specialization (4) Modern man drove Neanderthal man to extinction by cornering resources needed for survival (5) Modern man was often in conflict with the Neanderthal man Passage 3 In the early 1990s, ‘globalisation’ was supposed to be the wave of the future. The writings of globalist thinkers such as Kenichi Ohmae and Robert Reich celebrated the emergence of the so-called borderless world. The process by which relatively autonomous national economies become functionally integrated into one global economy was touted as “irreversible”. And the people who opposed globalisation were disdainfully dismissed as modern-day incarnations of the Luddites. Today, what passes for an international economy remains a collection of national economies. These economies are interdependent no doubt, but domestic factors still largely determine their dynamics. Globalisation, in fact, has reached its high-water mark and is receding. During globalisation’s heyday, we were told that State policies no longer mattered and that corporations would soon dwarf States. In fact, States still do matter. The European Union, the United States government, and the Chinese State are stronger economic actors today than they were a decade ago. In China, for instance, transnational corporations (TNCs) march to the tune of the State rather than the other way around. Moreover, State policies that interfere with the market in order to build up industrial structures or protect employment still make a difference. Indeed, over the last 10 years, interventionist government policies have spelled the difference between development and underdevelopment, prosperity and poverty. Malaysia’s imposition of capital controls during the Asian financial crisis in 1997-98 prevented it from unravelling like Thailand or Indonesia. Strict capital controls also insulated China from the economic collapse engulfing its neighbours. Fifteen years ago, we were told to expect the emergence of a transnational capitalist elite that would manage the world economy. Indeed, globalisation became the “grand strategy” of the USA, which envisioned the U.S. elite being the primus inter pares —first among equals—of a global coalition leading the way to the new, benign world order. Today, this project lies in a shambles. The nationalist faction has overwhelmed the transnational faction of the economic elite. Nationalism-inflected States are now competing sharply with one another, seeking to beggar one another’s economies. The World Trade Organisation (WTO) was born, joining the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund (IMF) as the pillars of the system of international economic governance in the era of globalisation. With a triumphalist air, officials of the three organisations meeting in Singapore during the first ministerial gathering of the WTO in December 1996 saw the remaining task of “global governance” as the achievement of “coherence”, that is, the coordination of the neoliberal policies of the three institutions in order to ensure the smooth, technocratic integration of the global economy. But now Sebastian Mallaby, the influential proglobalisation commentator of The Washington Post, complains that “trade liberalisation has stalled, aid is less coherent than it should be, and the next financial conflagration will be managed by an injured fireman”. In fact, the situation is worse than he describes. The IMF is practically defunct. Knowing how the Fund precipitated and worsened the Asian financial crisis, more and more of the advanced developing countries are refusing to borrow from it or are paying ahead of schedule, with some declaring their intention never to borrow again. These include Thailand, Indonesia, Brazil and Argentina. Since the Fund’s budget greatly depends on debt repayments from these big borrowers, this boycott is translating into what one expert describes as “a huge squeeze on the budget of the organisation”. The World Bank may seem to be in better health than the Fund. But having been central to the debacle of structural adjustment policies that left most developing and transitional economies that implemented them in greater poverty, with greater inequality, and in a state of stagnation, the Bank is also suffering a crisis of legitimacy. This can only be worsened by the recent finding of an official high-

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level experts panel headed by former IMF chief economist Kenneth Rogoff that the Bank has been systematically manipulating its data to advance its pro-globalisation position and conceal globalisation’s adverse effects. Fred Bergsten, the pro-free trade American economist, once compared trade liberalisation and the WTO to a bicycle: they collapse when they are not moving forward. The collapse of an organisation that one of its Director-Generals once described as the “jewel in the crown of multilateralism” may be nearer than it seems. 21. Which of the following, according to the author, is/are the reasons why globalisation in retreat? I. The rise of the nationalist State II. The IMF is practically defunct III. The lack of coordination of the three institutions IV. People getting sick of the effects of globalisation (1) I, II and III (2) II, III and IV (3) I and II only (4) Only I (5) All of the above 22. “Strict capital controls also insulated China from the economic collapse engulfing its neighbours.” What would be the effects of the strict capital controls through which a collapse was avoided? (1) Capital controls would control the power of globalisation and thus prevent collapse (2) Capital flows would impose restrictions on global capital flows and thus insulate the economy. (3) Capital flows would have the effect of bringing in responsibility of individual governments, thus preventing an economic meltdown. (4) Capital controls are what is advocated by the IMF and World Bank and stand in the way of globalisation. (5) Capital flows have the effect of controlling transnational corporations (TNCs) that usually bring about economic collapse. 23. What would be the best meaning of “Luddites” after reading the passage? (1) A person who opposes globalisation. (2) A nationalist person. (3) A person who opposes things for the sake of opposing. (4) A person who opposes technology. (5) A traditional minded person. 24. According to the passage, I. The international finance institutions are facing a financial crunch. II. The international finance institutions are facing questions of legitimacy. III. The days of the international finance institutions are numbered. (1) I (2) II (3) III (4) I and II (5) I, II and III 25. Which of the following would be a consequence of the line, “Nationalism-inflected States are now competing sharply with one another, seeking to beggar one another’s economies”? (1) India and Pakistan are always at loggerheads and their peace talks never succeed. (2) Israel attacking Lebanon and trying to destroy its economy. (3) Conflicts among African States. (4) China dumping goods in a country. (5) India's Infosys competing with Accentre to bag a contract.

Section II

QUANTITATIVE ABILITY
No. of questions: 25 Each question carries 4 marks. Negative marks for wrong answers:–1 Directions Q. 26-50: Each question is independent unless stated. 26. Nine parallel chords are drawn in a circle of diameter 10 cm. If the distance between any two of the adjacent chords is 1 cm, which of the following statements is always true? (1) One of the chords is diameter of circle. (2) At least 2 chords must be of equal length. (3) The difference between the lengths of any two adjacent chords on the same side of diameter is > 1 cm. (4) There is only one way to draw such chords. (5) None of these. 27. Nine mangoes, four apples and six pineapples cost Rs 114. Four mangoes, six apples and nine pineapples cost Rs 114. What is the cost of five mangoes? (1) Rs 30 (2) Rs 40 (3) Rs 45 (4) Rs 50 (5) cannot be determined 28. A, B, C are running in the same direction on a circular track. The track is marked with numbers from 1 to 12, like the dial of a clock. The 12 numbers are uniformly spaced along the track. A overtakes B once at 4 and next time at 8. A overtakes C once at 2 and the next time again at 4. What is ratio of B’s speed to C’s speed? (1) 7 : 4 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 3 : 2 (4) 7 : 1 (5) None of these 29. R and S start simultaneously from a point A on a circular track and run in same direction. The speed of R is nine times speed of S. How many times are they diametrically opposite to each other by the time S completes three complete rounds on the track? (1) 27 (2) 54 (3) 60 (4) 48 (5) 44 30. In an isosceles trapezium ABCD, with and CD = q, which of the following is always true? (1) p < r (2) p = r (3) p > r 2 2 (4) p = r (5) None of these 31. A number, 3N, when divided by D leaves a remainder 13 where N and D are natural numbers. If 4N divided by D leaves a remainder of 9, then what is the remainder when N is divided by D? (1) 17 (2) 21 (3) 25 (4) 27 (5) Cannot be determined 32. The class X of Vidyaniketan School has four sections A, B, C and D. The average weight of students of A, B, C together and A, C, D together are 45 kg and 55 kg while the average weight of students of A, B, D together and B, C, D together are 50 kg and 60 kg. Which of the following could be the average weight of students of all four sections together?

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(1) 47.6 kg (2) 49.9 kg (3) 53.7 kg (4) 56.5 kg (5) 58.5 kg 33. Two students take square of a certain number and express it in box 5 and 6 respectively, where box 5 and box 6 represents the remainders obtained when squares of any number is divided by 5 & 6 respectively. A third student takes two representations made by them and adds up the numbers. Which of the following cannot be the value of units’ digit of sum obtained by third student? (1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 7 (5) 9 34. A class of 30 primary school boys goes out on a camping trip. They have with them a bag containing some marbles. During the night, one boy takes out two thirds of the marbles and places 2 marbles back. He is in turn followed by the other boys, each of whom in turn, performs the same operation. If the 13th boy and the 23rd boy got the same number of marbles, what was the initial number of marbles in the bag? 30 30 30 30 (1) 3 –1 (2) 3 –2 –1 (3) 2 –1 30 (4) 2 (5) None of these 35. In the figure below, AL is perpendicular to BC and CM is perpendicular to AB. If CL = AL = 2BL, find negative integer values of n. f(n) = (–1)Sn+1 + (–1)Sn + f(n –1) where f(0) = 1 and Si = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + ........... + i where i ∈ N. What will be the value of the expression G? [Where G = f(1) + f(2) + f(3) + ............. f(25)] (1) –26 (2) –24 (3) –22 (4) –20 5. None of these 40. A boy wants to write all the possible five digit numbers with distinct digits such that each number is a multiple of each of its five digits. How many of these numbers will be divisible by 5? (1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 2 (4) 1 (5) None of these 41. Out of a total of one hundred dozen employees, one more than twelve dozen are illiterate. Out of a total of thirty dozen female employees 305 are literate. Find the percentage of illiterate males with respect to literate males. (1) 12% (2) 20% (3) 18% (4) 8% (5) None of these 42. A big number of 90 digits is written by writing even consecutive numbers beginning with 2 side by side. What is the 90th digit of the big number? (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8 (5) 9 43. Let x, y and z be three positive numbers such that x + y + z = 30. Then the minimum value of

(1) 2 (4) 5

(2) 3 (3) 4 (5) Cannot be determined

Directions for questions 36 and 37: Read the following information and answer the questions that follow. In a class of 128 students, 100 passed in Mathematics, 96 passed in Physics, 99 passed in Chemistry, 90 passed in Biology, while 40 passed in all the four subjects. 36. What could be the maximum number of students who failed in all four subjects? (1) 25 (2) 28 (3) 13 (4) 12 (5) 10 37. Taking only the basic information into consideration, what could be the maximum number of students who could have passed in exactly two subjects? (1) 29 (2) 39 (3) 49 (4) 19 (5) 9 Directions for questions 38 to 43: Answer the following questions as per the best of your ability. 38. There are a certain number of red, blue and green marbles in the box. The ratio of the number of red marbles to that of blue marbles is the same as ratio of number of blue marbles to that of green marbles. If the sum of the number of red marbles and green marbles is 74, which of the following can be the number of blue marbles in the box? (1) 20 (2) 35 (3) 42 (4) 56 (5) 75 39. Consider a function f(n) defined for non-

(1) 1 (2) 0.9 (3) 0.3 (4) 0.1 (5) None of these 44. When three consecutive numbers are multiplied we get 3360. What is the sum of these three numbers? (1) 42 (2) 45 (3) 48 (4) 51 (5) 52 2005 45. What are the last three digits of (2005) ? (1) 025 (2) 125 (3) 375 (4) 625 (5) None of these 46. There were two different copper alloys, the first containing 40% less copper than the second. When these were melted together, the resulting alloy contained 36% of the copper. Determine the percentage of copper in the first and second alloy, if it is known that there was 6 kg. of copper in the copper in the first alloy and 12 kg. in the second. (1) 35%, 75% (2) 20%, 60% (3) 30%, 70% (4) 15%, 55% (5) None of these Directions for questions 47 and 48: Read the following information and answer the questions that follow. A shopkeeper buys 10 biscuit packets, each packet containing 10 biscuits. Each packet is bought at the same price. He intends to sell n (0 < n < 10) packets, each at a profit of 20% while all the remaining packets are opened and the biscuits therein sold separately, each biscuit being sold at a profit of 50%. In this manner he sells all packets of biscuits. Each biscuit in any packet costs a whole number of rupees and the total revenue obtained after selling all biscuits is Rs 144. 47. What is the C.P. of each packet in rupees? (1) 1 (2) 12 (3) 10 (4) 9 (5) Cannot be determined 48. What is the value of n? (1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 4

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(4) 5 (5) Cannot be determined Directions for questions 49 and 50: Answer the following questions to the best of your ability. 49. E = 4(4!) + 5(5!) + 6(6!) + ........ 19(19!) + 20(20!). What is the remainder when E is divided by 64? (1) 24 (2) 40 (3) 32 (4) 16 (5) 12 50. Anil wrote down all the possible three digit numbers with distinct digits on black board of these numbers. Biswas erased all the numbers whose first and last digits were either both odd or both even. How many numbers are left on the board? (1) 450 (2) 360 (3) 400 (4) 320 (5) 300 53. What is the score of H? (1) 3 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) 6 (5) Indeterminate 54. What is the score of I as a percentage of J’s score? (1) 60% (2) 55.55% (3) 80% (4) 110% (5) 180% 55. Whose score cannot be found? (1) C (2) D (3) H (4) A (5) Everyone’s score can be found 56. Which of the following statements is true? (1) C scores more than A. (2) Combined score of B and C is equal to A. (3) Combined score of I and G is equal to F. (4) D’s score is the average of the score of all friends combined. (5) None of these Directions for questions 57 to 59: Answer these based on the figure which represents the flow of natural gas through pipelines across major cities A, B, C, D and E (in suitable units). Assume that supply equals demand.

Section III

DATA/REASONING ABILITY
No. of questions: 25 Each question carries 4 marks. Negative marks for wrong answers:–1 Directions for questions 51 to 52: Read the information given below and answer the questions given after that. ABC Co decided to have a quality check on its production before the supply is sent to the customers. The system applied is: A set of 20 articles is manufactured and 4 of them are chosen at random. If any one of them is found to be defective then the whole set is put under 100% screening again. If no defectives are found, the whole set is sent to the customers. 51. Find the probability that a container having only one defective article will be sent back for screening?

57. What is the number of units demanded in B? 52. Find the probability that a box containing 3 defective items will be sent to the customers? (1) 400 (2) 350 (3) 450 (4) 500 (5) 550 58. If the number of units demanded in C is 225, what is the value of M? (1) 875 (2) 1075 (3) 775 (4) 850 (5) 950 59. If the total demand in E is 80% of the demand in A, what is the demand in A ? (1) 2400 (2) 2500 (3) 4500 (4) 4750 (5) None of these Directions for questions 60 to 63: Study the table to answer these questions. Table—Number of Cancer Cases over Two Years

Directions for questions 53 to 56: In a race, participants are given scores from 1 to 10. 10 friends participated in a race and every one secured different scores. The following incomplete table gives the ratio of some of their scores. For example B has scored double of A; or A has scored half of B. A B C D E F G H I J A - 1:2 2:1 B 2:1 C 4:1 D 2:1 E F 2:3 G 1:3 H I 4.5 : 3 J -

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Country A B C D E F G H J K L M N P Q R S T U V W X Y Z AA AB AC AD AE AF AG AH AJ for Selected Countries. 2006 (in '00 2006 (Rate cases) per 10,000) 53 0.1 345 2.1 87 1.1 81 33.9 84 0.8 1365 0.9 661 13.0 516 1.9 36 0.2 95 1.8 262 3.9 19 0.0 1862 3.3 47 56.2 49 0.5 337 5.0 61 1.2 17 0.3 896 1.5 39 1.4 31 0.0 501 0.6 217 1.4 31 0.9 39 0.8 46 0.4 48 0.1 71 0.8 162 2.4 655 1.1 21,861 8.9 869 1.4 19 0.0 2007 (in '00 cases) 46 145 39 26 23 209 239 236 16 23 156 18 563 11 18 235 35 12 235 14 5 12 73 22 13 35 21 32 83 241 6445 219 13 cancer in early 2007. (1) I, II and III (2) II and III (3) I and II (4) I, II and IV (5) I, II, III and IV Directions for Questions 64 to 67: There are three coalitions, namely Apple, Banana and Guava, in the national politics of a Socialist Democratic country on this Earth. Apple, which has won 255 seats in the current election, comprises of A, C, D, E, and J. Banana, which has won 232 seats in the current election, comprises of B, F, G, H, I, K, L, M, N, and O. Rest of the parties belong to Guava coalition. The total number of seats contested in the election was 509. Rules of Government Formation: I. If a coalition gets more than half of the total seats, then it can form the national government. II. If no one gets the required majority, then the nation will go for another general election. Part V R1 R2 R3 R4 R5 R6 R7 R8 R9 R10 R11 R12 A 30 13 2 22 11 8 18 1 8 6 19 7 B 2 7 10 16 2 18 38 0 8 24 10 3 C 1 0 0 0 0 12 0 0 0 0 4 26 D 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 35 1 E 0 19 0 0 2 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 F 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 19 0 G 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 16 0 H 0 0 0 0 0 0 12 0 0 0 0 0 I 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 11 0 0 0 J 1 0 0 0 1 3 0 0 0 0 2 3 K 0 0 0 0 0 0 9 0 0 0 0 0 L 0 6 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 M 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 8 0 0 N 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 5 0 O 0 0 0 0 4 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 P 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 Q 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 R 0 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 S 0 4 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 T 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 4 0 Here, R1 implies Region 1, R2 implies Region 2 and so on. 64. Party E comes out of Apple coalition and joins Banana coalition; party J pulls itself out of Apple coalition and joins Guava coalition; party F and G comes out of Banana coalition and joins Apple coalition; and party A in Region 6 splits into two groups of equal representatives, one group remains with the Apple coalition and another joins Guava coalition. In this scenario which coalition will have the required numbers to form the national government? (1) Guava (2) Banana (3) Apple (4) Apple or Guava (5) Nation to go for general election 65. Five seats fell vacant in Region 12 after the untimely death of the sitting members of the current parliament. Two of these seats were formerly won by party C, two by party A, and one by party B. After fresh elections in these five seats, party C retained one of the seat and the other seat went to party A; party A retained one seat and the other went to party B; and party B retained its only seat which went for re-elections. The percentage of seats of party C in region 12 is: (1) 69.5% (2) 65% (3) 62.5% (4) 60% (5) 59.5% 66. It has been seen that the number of seats won by party A in region 1 is directly proportional to

All countries that have reported more than five hundred cancer cases to the WHO in 2007 are listed here. The left column gives the total number of cases reported by each country for 2006, the middle column gives the 2006 rate (cancer cases per 10,000 population) and the last column shows the number of cases reported in early 2007. Most of the 2007 reports were for only the first quarter of the year. Owing to reporting delays of six months or more, cases reported in 2007 actually were diagnosed in 2006. 60. What is the population of AD on the basis of the reported cases of cancer in 2006 (in thousands)? (1) 825,000 (2) 812,500 (3) 810,000 (4) 780,000 (5) None of these 61. Which country has reported the second highest number of cancer cases to WHO during 2006? (1) N (2) AG (3) F (4) U (5) Q 62. The countries which have reported less than 2000 cases both the 2006 and early 2007 are (1) M, J and P (2) V, AJ and W (3) W, M and T (4) M, T and AJ (5) None of these 63. Which of the following are true from the table ? I. The reported cancer cases of M, W and AJ as compared to their population are negligible. II. The 2006 rate is highest for P though the reported cases are only 4700. III. The population of R is 664,000 in 2006. IV. P reported more than 20,000 cases of

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the number of voters who voted in the elections. In the last elections all 10 million listed voters voted in region 1. In the current election there is a ten per cent increase in the list of eligible voters, out of which eighty per cent voted in addition to the 10 million voters who voted last time. Assuming that in the other regions party A has won same number of seats as in the last elections, what will be the approximate number of seats won by party A in the current elections? (1) 148 (2) 147 (3) 145 (4) 144 (5) Cannot be determined 67. Last election in Region 10, out of ten million voters, thirty per cent were very old voters. In the current elections fifty per cent of them died and were removed from the list of eligible voters. At the same time two million new citizens got voting rights. If the number of seats won by party B in region 10 is directly proportional to the number of votes in that region, then approximately how many seats party B will win? (1) 22 (2) 23 (3) 24 (4) 25 (5) Cannot be determined Directions for Questions 68 to 72: Sourav’s Fish Salon serves a special Friday night seafood banquet consisting of seven courses—hilsa, pomfret, Indian shrimp, rahu, kingfish, lobster and bhetki. Diners are free to select the order of the seven courses, according to the following conditions: The kingfish is served sometime after rahu. Exactly one course should be served between the pomfret and the Indian shrimp. (Pomfret before Indian Shrimp) The lobster is served some time before the pomfret. The kingfish is served either fifth or sixth. The hilsa is served second. 68. Which one of the following sequences would make for an acceptable banquet? (1) rahu, hilsa, lobster, bhetki, pomfret, kingfish, Indian shrimp (2) rahu, hilsa, bhetki, pomfret, kingfish, Indian shrimp, lobster (3) lobster, hilsa, pomfret, rahu, kingfish, Indian shrimp, bhetki (4) lobster, hilsa, rahu, kingfish, pomfret, bhetki, Indian shrimp (5) None of these 69. If kingfish is the fifth course served, then which one of the following MUST be true? (1) Pomfret is the third course served (2) Indian shrimp is the fourth course served (3) Bhetki is the seventh course served (4) Lobster is the first course served (5) Cannot be determined 70. Which one of the following would make it possible to determine the EXACT ordering of the courses? (1) Pomfret is the fourth course served (2) Indian shrimp is the fifth course served (3) Kingfish is the sixth course served (4) Lobster is the first course served (5) None of these 71. If kingfish is the sixth course served, then which one of the following CANNOT be true? (1) Rahu is the fifth course served (2) Indian shrimp is the seventh course served (3) Pomfret is the fifth course served (4) Lobster is the third course served (5) None of these 72. If Bhetki is the third course served, which one of the following MUST be true? (1) Pomfret is the fourth course served (2) Kingfish is the fifth course served (3) Rahu is the first course served (4) Indian shrimp is the seventh course served (5) None of these Directions for Questions 73 to 75: During one week, a human resource director conducts five interviews for a new job, one interview per day, Monday through Friday. There are six candidates for the job—Ram, Shyam, Trilochan, Usha, Veena, and Kishore. No more than two candidates are interviewed more than once. Neither Shyam nor Usha nor Veena is interviewed more than once, and no other candidate is interviewed more than twice. The schedule of interviews is subject to the following conditions: If Trilochan is interviewed, then Trilochan must be interviewed on both Monday and Friday. If Shyam is interviewed, then Usha is also interviewed, with Shyam’s interview taking place earlier than Usha’s interview. If Ram is interviewed twice, then Ram's second interview takes place exactly two days after Ram's first interview. (on the third day) If Veena is interviewed, then Kishore is interviewed twice, with Veena’s interview taking place after Kishore’s first interview and before Kishore's second interview. If Usha is interviewed, then Ram is also interviewed, with Usha’s interview taking place on a day either immediately before or immediately after a day on which Ram is interviewed. 73. Which of the following could be a complete and accurate list of candidates the human resources director interviews and the days on which those interviews take place? (1) Monday: Shyam; Tuesday: Usha; Wednesday: Ram; Thursday: Kishore; Friday: Ram. (2) Monday: Shyam; Tuesday: Kishore; Wednesday: Ram; Thursday: Kishore; Friday: Usha. (3) Monday: Trilochan; Tuesday: Ram; Wednesday: Shyam; Thursday: Ram; Friday: Trilochan. (4) Monday: Trilochan; Tuesday: Ram; Wednesday: Kishore; Thursday: Veena; Friday: Trilochan. (5) None of these 74. If Veena is interviewed on Tuesday, then which one of the following MUST be true? (1) Trilochan is interviewed on Friday (2) Usha is interviewed on Thursday (3) Ram is not interviewed (4) Shyam is not interviewed (5) None of these 75. If Kishore is not interviewed, then which one of the following MUST be true? (1) Ram is interviewed on Thursday (2) Shyam is interviewed on Tuesday (3) Trilochan is interviewed on Monday (4) Usha is interviewed on Wednesday (5) None of these

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ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
Section I 1. (4) I is a valid reason for the analogy not being perfect. II is a reason for the analogy being perfect and III is immaterial in this case. IV is clearly mentioned as the analogy being deeper. Hence II and III are not valid reasons for the analogy not being perfect. 2. (5) All the given statements are false. I is contradicted by the author directly; II is false as all findings are not benign; III is false because they have barely a clue and IV is false because all challenges may not be related to biology. 3. (2) Note that (2) is not a problem at all, in fact, it may even be a threat. All others are problems that biotechnology can address. 4. (3) The second last paragraph explains the biological internet. The other choices are too narrow in their description. 5. (4) The essence of the passage is that humanity has been looking at the wrong things but now they have a clue and great things are going to happen in the future. 6. (3) Things are hotting up… the next sentence should confirm these findings, which is happening in (3). 7. (3) The argument is about allocation of secondary education and universal education. Hence the next sentence should be about financing the elementary education, which is part of universal education. No other choice addresses this. 8. (1) The paragraph is about the charges against Mashelkar. It should continue with his justification for making the mistake, which is stated in (1) only. 9. (5) The paragraph is describing punishment. It talks of Section 293, and in the next line it should talk about further penalties, in Section 294, hence (5). 10. (3) The paragraph talks about “is not merely a matter of comfortable seats and all the other facilities being provided. The purchase of a ticket…” hence it should continue with (3) which states that the process is quite mystifying and confusing. 11. (3) Statement A is fact as it states a direct relationship, B is judgment as it mentions a desirable objective, while C and D are direct facts. 12. (5) Statement A is judgment as it states “important step”, B, C and D are inferences from other facts. 13. (1) Statement A is inference from research, B is a direct fact, C is inference as it says “it is likely…” and D is judgment: “most authoritative…” 14. (3) Statement A is inference from watching Tony Blair, all other statements are judgments: B: “appropriate description”, C: “it’s time to…” and D: “will have a lot more clout…” 15. (1) Statement A is inference, “in exercising one right…”, B: “When a political party…”, C is inference from their economic conditions. D is judgment as it says that they “have no effect…” 16. (2) Women are mentioned to do A and B only. C was done only by men and D by wimpy fellows. 17. (3) The arguments are quite logical and the conclusion seems probably true but we cannot say it is convincing, because other reasons are not explored. 18. (5) The passage mentions that they did not do long distance trade, nor evidence has been found for leather processing or farming. 19. (4) The passage states that modern man developed farming and sewing, hence only (4) matches this finding. 20. (3) The passage is about division of labour, hence better specialization has to be the answer. 21. (4) The only reason mentioned in the passage is (I). II is an effect, not the cause while III is too narrow. IV is nowhere mentioned. 22. (2) Note that the reason given is countries unravelling like others. Thus an insulation would prevent them from economic collapse. 23. (4) “…people who opposed globalisation were disdainfully dismissed as modern-day incarnations of the Luddites”—this means that Luddites belonged to the past and thus they would be persons who opposed all technology. 24. (5) The given statements can be inferred from the last few paragraphs. Though one institution is mentioned for financial crunch etc, we can infer that all of them are facing similar problems. 25. (4) The line talks of competition beggaring one another’s economies. In all the choices the consequences are different except in (4) where the economy will suffer. Section II 26. (5) Construct the figure as follows:

The nine parallel chords are shown as above and C5 is diameter. We can now shift these chords by a small distance say 1 cm downward and all conditions of the question are still met. 27. (1) Form the simple equations: 9m + 4a + 6p = 114 … (1) and 4m + 6a + 9p = 114 … (2) (1) × 3 – (2) × 2 gives 19m = 114 m = Rs 6 C.P. = 6 × 5 = Rs 30.

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October 2007

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28. (1) Let speeds of A, B, C be a, b, c. In the time B covers 4 units A cover 12 + 4 = 16 units In the time C covers 2 units A covers 12+2 = 14 units Hence 29. (1) In each round R completes he is diametrically opposite S exactly once. By the time S completes 3 rounds, R completes 27 rounds and hence he is diametrically opposite S on 27. 30. (1) 34. (5) Let us assume that each boy gets at least one marble (>0). Hence after every operation the number of marbles in the bag should decrease. This implies that successive boys should get decreasing number of marbles each. But it is given that 2 boys got the same number of marbles. Hence our initial assumption is not valid. This means each boy gets no or zero marbles. This is possible of only if number of marbles in bag is 3. 35. (2)

An isosceles quadrilateral.

trapezium

is

a

cyclic 36. (3) There are 128 students in a class with 100 + 96 + 99 + 90 passes i.e. 385 passes. Now 40 students have a total of 160 passes, therefore rest 88 students have 225 passes. Now each of these 75 students can get almost 3 passes. Therefore number of students with no passes = 88 – 75 = 13. 37. (2) As calculated above 88 students have to provide for 225 passes. Taking the maximum number of students with two passes still have to take a total of 225 passes. Let x number of students have passed in exactly two of the subjects. This implies the remaining 88 – x must have passed in all the three subjects. Thus the equation will be 3(88 – x) + 2x = 225. Solve and get x = 39. 38. (2) R B G x y x y x = 7, y = 5 39. (5) f(1) = (–1)S2 + (–1)S1 + f(0) = –1, f(2) = (–1)S3 + (–1)S2 + f(1) = –1 S4 S3 f(3) = (–1) + (–1) + f(2) = 1, f(4) = 1, f(5) = –1, f(6) = –1, f(3) = 1, f(8) = 1 The pattern is repeating itself in cycle of four. Sum of four terms is zero. As 25 = 6(4) + (–1) f(1) = –1 40. (4) Since the number has to be a multiple of 5 it can have only 5 in units place and not 0 The number can have only odd digits (since units digit is 5) i.e. 1, 3, 5, 7, 9 But sum of these is not a multiple of 3 hence we cannot have a multiple of 5. No such number can be made. 41. (1) Total employees = 1200. Total illiterates = 145. Female employees = 12 × 30 = 360 Male employees = 840. Female illiterates = 360 – 305 = 55; Male illiterates = 145 – 55 = 90.

31. (2) The equations are: 3N = Dx + 13 (i) and 4N = Dy + 9 (ii) Subtracting (i) from (ii) we get: N = D(y – x) – 4 OR Remainder R = D – 4 (because a –ve remainder means adding the remainder in the divisor) When 3N is divided R becomes 3R i.e. 3D – 12 = 13 3D = 25 or D = 25 (because 25 is not a multiple of 3) Now R = D – 4 = 21. 32. (3) Average of A, B, C = 45. A, C, D = 55. A, B, D = 50. B, C, D = 60. Let a, b, c and d be the no. of students in section A, B, C and D respectively. Total = 150a + 155b + 160c + 165d (Adding a's, b's, c's and d's)

33. (2) We need the remainder of squares when they are divided by 5 and 6. Denoting the sets by S5 and S6 we have R5 = {0, 1, 4} and R6 = {0, 1, 3, 4}.

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October 2007

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42. (2)

48. (1) 49. (2)

43. (3)

50. (2)

44. (2)

51. (2)

52. (1) 45. (2)

53. (2)

54. (5) 57. (1) 46. (2) 58. (2)

59. (2) 47. (3)

60. (5)

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October 2007

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61. (1) 62. (4) Q. 64

64. (3)

70. (2)

65. (1)

71. (1)

72. (4) 66. (2)

67. (4)

73. (2)

74. (4)

68. (1)

75. (3) 69. (3)

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October 2007

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