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MODULE 1
1.

What is distress traffic?


a. In radiotelegraphy, SOS sent as single character in radiotelephony, the speaking of the word Mayday.
b. Health and welfare messages concerning the immediate protection of property and safety of human life.
c. International recognized communications relating to emergency situations.
d. All messages relative to the immediate assistance required by a ship, aircraft or other vehicles in imminent
danger.

2.

What is an urgency transmission?


a. A radio transmission affecting the security of humans or property.
b. Health and welfare traffic which impacts the protection of on-board personnel.
c. A communications alert that important personal messages must be transmitted.
d. A communications or transmissions concerning the safety of the ship, aircraft or other vehicles or of some
person on board or within sight.

3.

What is a ship earth station?


a. A maritime mobile-satellite station located at a coast station.
b. A mobile satellite station located on board a vessel.
c. A communications system which provides line-of-sight communications between vessels at sea and coast
stations.
d. An automated ship-to-shore distress alerting system.

4.

What is the internationally recognized urgency signal?


a. The letters TTT transmitted three times by radiotelegraphy.
b. Three oral repetitions of the word safety sent before the call.
c. The word PAN-PAN spoken three times before the urgent call.
d. The pronouncement of the word Mayday.

5.

What is a safety transmission?


a. A radiotelephony warning preceded by the word PAN.
b. Health and welfare traffic concerning the protection of human life.
c. A communication or transmission indicating that a station is preparing to transmit an important navigational
or weather warning.
d. A radiotelegraphy alert preceded by the letters XXX sent three times.

6.

What are the highest priority forms of ship communication at sea?


a. All critical message traffic authorized by the ships master.
b. Navigation and meteorological warnings.
c. Distress calls and communication preceded by the international urgency and safety signals.
d. Authorized government communications for which priority rights has been claimed.

7.

Who has ultimate control of radiocommunications service at the ships radio station?
a. The master of the ship.
b. A holder of a First Class Radiotelegraph Certificate with six months service endorsement.
c. The Radio Officer-in-Charge authorized by the captain of the vessel.
d. An appointed licensed radio operator who agrees to comply with all radio Regulations in force.

8.

What is a distress communications?


a. An internationally recognized communications indicating that the sender is threatened by grave and
imminent danger and requests immediate assistance.
b. Communications indicating that the calling stations a very urgent message concerning safety.
c. Radio communications which, if delayed will adversely affect the safety of life or property.
d. An official radio communication notification of approaching navigational or meteorological hazards.

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9.

What is a Class A EPIRB?


a. An alerting device notifying mariners of imminent dangers.
b. A satellite-based maritime distress and safety alerting system.
c. An automatic battery-operated emergency position indicating radio beacon that floats free out of a sinking
ship.
d. A high efficiency audio amplifier.

10.

What is the Automated Mutual Assistance Vessel Rescue System?


a. A voluntary organization of mariners who maintain radio watch on 500 kHz, 2182 kHz and 156.800 MHz
b. An international system operated by the U.S. Coast Guard providing coordination of search and rescue
efforts.
c. A coordinated radio direction finding effort between the Federal Communications Commission and U.S.
Coast Guard to assist ships in distress
d. A satellite-based distress and safety alerting program operated by U.S. Coast Guard.

11.

What is false regarding the INMARSAT L-band EPIRB?


a. Instant alerting
b. Global coverage
c. It will be activated when the ship sinks
d. Minimum battery capacity is 48 hours

12.

Which equipment on the bridge is used for locating a SART?


a. 3 cm (9 GHz) radar
b. 10 cm (3 GHz) radar
c. Radio Direction Finder
d. Radar Direction Finder

13.

The radiotelephone distress message consist of:


a. MAYDAY spoken three times, call sign and name of vessel in distress.
b. Particulars of its position latitude and longitude and other information which might facilitate rescue such as
length, color and type of vessel and number of persons on-board.
c. Nature of distress and kind of assistance desired.
d. All of these.

14.

If a ship sinks what device is designed to float free out of the mother ship, turn on automatically and transmit a
distress signal?
a. EPIRB on 121.5MHz/243MHz or 406.025 MHz
b. EPIRB on 2182 kHz and 4056.025 kHz
c. Bridge to bridge transmitter on 2182 kHz
d. Auto alarm level on any frequency

15.

What is the most important practice that a radio operator must learn?
a. Monitor the channel before transmitting.
b. Operate with lowest power necessary.
c. Test a radiotelephone transmitter daily.
d. Always listen to 121.5 MHz.

16.

What is FALSE regarding the COSPAS/SARSAT EPIRB?


a. Instant alerting.
b. Global coverage.
c. It will be activated if the ship sinks.
d. Minimum battery capacity is 48 hours.

17.

The primary purpose of bridge-to-bridge communications is:


a. Search and rescue emergency calls only.
b. All short range transmission aboard ship.
c. Transmission of Captains order from the bridge.
d. Navigational communications.

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18.

What is the international VHF digital selective calling channel?


a. 2182 kHz
b. 156.35 MHz
c. 156.525 MHz
d. 500 kHz

19.

When attempting to contact other vessels on Channel 16:


a. Limit calling to 30 seconds.
b. If no answer is received, wait 2 minutes before calling vessel again.
c. Channel 16 is used for emergency calls only.
d. Limit calling to 30 seconds and if no answer is received, wait 2 minutes before calling again.

20.

How long should radio station logs be retained when there are no entries relating to distress or disaster situations?
a. For a period of three years from the date of entry unless notified by the FCC.
b. Until authorized by the Commission in writing to destroy them.
c. Indefinitely, or until destruction is specifically authorized by the U.S Coast Guard.
d. For a period of one year from the date of last entry.

21.

What should an operator do to prevent interference?


a. Turn off transmitter when not in use.
b. Monitor channel before transmitting.
c. Transmissions should be as brief as possible.
d.

Monitor channel before transmitting and make transmissions as brief as possible.

22.

A ship as the MMSI 257289000. The first three digits refer to the
a. Type and size of the ship
b. The nationality of the ship
c. Type of communication equipment
d. Official number

23.

How long must the reserve power source be able to power all radio equipment and emergency lighting system?
a. 24 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 8 hours

d. 6 hours
24.

What is the fundamental concept of GMDSS? OK


a.

It is intended
industry.

to automate and improve emergency communications in the maritime

b.
c.
d.

It is intended to automate and improve existing digital selective calling procedures and techniques.
It is intended to provide more effective but lower cost of commercial communications.
It is intended to provide compulsory vessels with a collision avoidance system when they are operating in
waters that are also occupied by non-compulsory vessels.

25.

The primary purpose of the GMDSS is?


a. Allow more effective control of SAR situations by vessels.
b. Provide additional shipboard system for more effective company communications.
c. Automate and improve emergency communications for the worlds shipping industry.
d. Effective and inexpensive communications.

26.

What is the basic concept of GMDSS?


a. Search and rescue authorities ashore can be alerted to a distress situation.
b. Shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in distress will be rapidly alerted.
c. Shore side authorities and vessels can assist in a coordinated SAR operation with minimum delay.
d. All of these.

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27.

What is the responsibility of vessels under GMDSS?


a. Vessel over 300 gross tonnage may be required to render assistance if such assistance does not adversely
affect their port schedule.
b. Only those vessels, regardless of size, closest to a vessel in distress is required to render assistance.

c. Every ship is able to perform those communication functions which are essential for the
safety of the ship itself and of other ships.
d.

28.

Only those vessels operating under GMDSS outside of areas effectively serviced by shore side authorities
operating in sea areas A2 and A4 may be required to render assistance in distress situations.

GMDSS is required for which of the following?


a. All vessels capable of international voyages.
b. Vessels operating outside of the range of VHF coastal radio stations.
c.
d.

SOLAS Convention ships of 300 gross tonnage or more.


Coastal vessels of less than 300 gross tons.

29.

What is the primary equipment for receiving MSI?


a. SART
b. EPIRB
c. NAVTEX
d. INMARSAT-A

30.

Which of the following regions lies outside Sea Areas A1, A2 and A3?
a. Pacific Ocean Region
b. Indian Ocean Region
c. Atlantic Ocean Region

d. Polar Region
31.

What sea area is defined as being within range of a shore-based MF station which provides for continuous DSC
alerting?

a. Sea Area A2
b.
c.
d.
32.

Coastal waters
Sea Area A3
Sea Area A1

What is defined as an area excluding Sea Areas A1 and A2, within the coverage of an INMARSAT geostationary
satellite in which continuous alerting is available?
a. Sea area regions AOR E, AOR-W, POR or IOR
b. Sea area A4

c. Sea Area A3
d.

Coastal and inland waters

33.

What is the equipment carriage requirement for survival craft under GMDSS?
a. At least three approved two-way VHF radiotelephones on every passenger ship and cargo ships of 500
gross tons and upwards.
b. At least two approved two-way VHF radiotelephones on every cargo ship between 300-500 gross tonnage.
c. At least one radar transponder must be carried on every cargo ship of 300-500 gross tons and two
transponder (one for each side) for every passenger ship and every cargo ship 500 gross tons and upward.
d. All of these

34.

A ship operating in Sea Area A1 must have the following provisions for maintenance:
a. Shore maintenance
b. Duplication of equipment
c. At-Sea maintenance
d. Any one of the above

35.

What is the frequency range for Medium Frequency?


a. 30 - 300 kHz

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b.
c.
d.
36.

300 - 3,000 kHz


1,000 - 10,000 kHz
10 MHz - 30 MHz

What is the frequency range for High Frequency?

a. 3 - 30 MHz
b.
c.
d.

300 - 3,000 kHz


30 - 300 MHz
10 MHz - 30 MHz

37.

What is the frequency range for Very High Frequency?


a. 3 - 30 MHz
b. 300 - 3,000 KHz
c. 30 - 300 MHz
d. 10 MHz - 30 MHz

38.

Which of the following frequency bands would most likely provide reliable communications between two stations that
are 100 miles (160 km) apart?
a. The Low Frequency (LF) band
b. The Medium Frequency (MF) band
c. The High Frequency (HF) band
d. The Very High Frequency (VHF) band

39.

Which of the following references should the GMDSS Radio Operator consult for information on the proper operation
of equipment?
a. ITU List of Equipment Operations
b. The manufacturers operator manuals.
c. 47 CFR Part 80
d. Information is available through SafetyNET channels.

40.

What is the meaning of Reserve Source of Energy?


a. The supply of electrical energy sufficient to operate the radio installations for the purpose of conducting
distress and safety communications in the event of failure of the ships main and emergency sources of
electrical power.
b. High caloric value items for life, per SOLAS regulation.
c. Diesel fuel stored for the purpose of operating the powered survival craft a period equal to or exceeding the
U.S.C.G. and SOLAS equipment.
d. None of these.

41.

What is the term which refers to the supply of electrical energy required to supply power to radio installations on
every ship for the purpose of conducting distress and safety radio communications in the event of failure of the ships
main and emergency sources of electrical power?
a. Emergency Power

b. Reserve source of energy


c.
d.
42.

Ships emergency diesel generator


Ships standby generator

What are the characteristics of the Reserve Source of Energy under GMDSS?
a. Supplies independent HF and MF installations at the same time.
b. Can be independent of the propelling power of the ship.
c. Must be incorporated into the ships electrical system.

d. Must be independent of the ships electrical system.

43.

What is the requirement for emergency and reserve power for GMDSS radio installations?
a. An emergency power source for radio communications is not required if the vessel has proper reserve
power (batteries).
b. A reserve power source is not required for radio communications.

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c.
d.

44.

Only one of the above is required if a vessel is equipped with a second 406 EPIRB as a backup means of
sending a distress alert.
All newly constructed ships under GMDSS must have both emergency and reserve power sources for radio
communications.

Under GMDSS a compulsory VHF-DSC radiotelephone installation must be tested at what minimum intervals at
sea?

a. Daily
b.
c.
d.

Annually, by representative of the FCC


At the annual SOLAS inspection
Monthly

45.

Where should the GMDSS radio log be kept on board ship?


a. Captains office
b. Sea cabin
c. At the GMDSS operating station
d. Anywhere on board the vessel

46.

What is the MID?


a. Mobile Identification Number
b. Maritime Identification Digit
c. Marine Indemnity Directory
d. Mobile Interference Digits

47.

Which of the following numbers indicates a ship station MMSI?


a. 003372694
b. 623944326
c. 030356328
d. 3384672

48.

Which of the following numbers indicates a coastal station?


a. 003572946
b. 454813265
c. 041329746
d. 325700142

49.

A valid MMSI number for a DSC call to a specific group of vessels is:
a. 003664523
b. 030327931
c. 338462941
d. 003036483

50.

Which of the following statements concerning MMSI is true?


a. All ship station MMSI must begin with a single zero and include the MID.
b. All group station MMSI must begin with the MID.
c. All Coast Station MMSI must be 9 digits and begin with 2 zeros followed by the MID.
d. None of the above

51.

Which of the following channels and modes should be used when initiating a distress alert transmission?
a. Channel 6 DSC
b. Channel 6 Radiotelephony
c. Channel 13 Radiotelephony and channel 16 DSC
d. Channel 70 DSC

52.

How many total frequencies are available for DSC distress alerting?
a. One
b. Two
c. Five

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d. Seven
53.

You sent a VHF DSC alert. What channel do you use for the follow-on voice transmission?
a. 12
b. 70
c. 13
d. 16

54.

Your ship received a distress relay from another ship on DSC frequency 2187.5 kHz. You would acknowledge by
radio telephony on what frequency?
a. 4207.5 kHz
b. 8290.0 kHz
c. 2182.0 kHz
d. 6312.0 kHz

55.

Your ship received a distress relay on DSC VHF channel 70, on what channel would you reply?
a. 70
b. 06
c. 13
d. 16

56.

Under what conditions would you relay a DSC distress alert?


a. If the mobile unit in distress is incapable of further Distress Alert communications.
b. If no Coast Station/Mobile Unit acknowledgement is observed.
c. A and B are both possible.
d. You should never relay such an alert the Coast Station and RCC will do that.

57.

What action should you take after sending a false distress alert on VHF?
a. Send a DSC cancellation message on Ch-70.
b. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-16.
c. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-13.
d. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-22A.

58.

If the Watch Officer hears PAN-PAN spoken 3 times it means:


a. A navigational or important meteorological warning should follow.
b. The station is preparing to transmit an URGENT message possibly concerning the safety of a mobile unit or
a person.
c. A mobile unit is in need of immediate assistance.
d. None of the above.

59.

When the GMDSS Radio Operator on watch hears SECURITE spoken three times, he can expect to receive the
following information:
a. Messages concerning safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings.
b. Safety of vessel or person is in jeopardy.
c. Vessel in need of immediate assistance.
d. Coast Station Traffic List.

60.

Which of the following situations would normally use the voice designation SECURITE?
a. Messages concerning the Safety of Life At Sea (SOLAS).
b. Messages detailing important navigational warnings.
c. Messages containing information concerning the safety of mobile unit or person.
d. Messages concerning on-scene communications.

61.

Which the following situations would normally use the Safety priority?
a. Loss of 5 containers with lashing gear over the side.
b. Treatment of crewmember breaking a leg in a cargo hold.
c. A fire in the generator flat/spaces.
d. Both A and B.

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62.

Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority?
a. A crewmember over the side.
b. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember.
c. Both A and B.
d. Scenarios concerning the safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings.

63.

The Radiotelephone safety signal is:


a. SECURITE repeated 3 times
b. Safety, Safety, Safety
c. Pan-Pan repeated 3 times
d. SECURITE, SECURITE repeated 3 times

64.

Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority?
a. A crewmember over the side.
b. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember.
c. A scenario concerning an important navigational or meteorological warning.
d. All of the above.

65.

Which of the following frequencies and modes is allocated for distress alerting in GMDSS?
a. 406 MHz via EPIRB
b. 1626.5-1645.5 MHz via INMARSAT
c. Channel 70 DSC plus six (6) MF/HF DSC frequencies
d. All of the above

66.

Which channel is designated for GMDSS Digital Selective Calling?


a. Channel 06 (156.300 MHz)
b. Channel 13 (156.650 MHz)
c. Channel 16 (156.800 MHz)
d. Channel 70 (156.525 MHz)

67.

How many frequencies are available under GMDSS for DSC distress-related calls?
a. Two
b. Four
c. Five
d. Seven

68.

Which of the following steps should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must be abandoned because of a distress
situation?
a. Alert the Coast Guard by using the survival crafts portable INMARSAT unit.
b. Program the SART and EPIRB to transmit the vessels location and situation.
c. Place the SART and EPIRB in the on position and secure them to the survival craft.
d. No additional steps are needed as the SART and EPIRB will both automatically float free and operate
properly.

69.

Which action is the most appropriate for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take in a distress situation where immediate
help is needed, but the vessel is not yet sinking or need to be abandoned?
a. Switch off EPIRB and SART manually.
b. Transmit distress call by HF/MF/VHF DSC or INMARSAT.
c. Notify the RCC (Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF FM on channel 13.
d. Transmit distress call by activating the radiotelegraph automatic alarm signal.

70.

DSC is used primarily to:


a. Receive weather warnings, navigational notices and other marine safety information.
b. Provide routine communications with the ship owner.
c. Transmit and receive distress and safety alerts to and from other ships and shore stations via radio.
d. Report ships position to search-and-rescue authorities via satellite.

71.

What is the purpose of the SARTs audible tone monitor?

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a.
b.
c.
d.

It informs survivors that assistance may be nearby.


It informs survivors when the batterys charge condition has weakened.
It informs survivors when the SART switches to the standby mode.
It informs survivors that a nearby vessel is signaling on DSC.

72.

What indication is given to the personnel of survival craft of the approach of another vessel?
a. The SART will provide a visual or audible indication of interrogation by a 3 cm radar.
b. The satellite EPIRB will emit an audible signal.
c. The VHF portable radio will emit an audible alarm signal on 156.525 MHz
d. The VHF portable will provide a visual indication.

73.

How can a SARTs effective range be maximized?


a. The SART should be placed in water immediately upon activation.
b. The SART should be held as high as possible.
c. Switch the SART into the high power position.
d. If possible, the SART should be mounted horizontally so that its signal matches that of the searching radar
signal.

74.

In a lifeboat or life craft, what is a method of maximizing the effectiveness of an SART?


a. Place the SART into the sea as soon as possible to begin transmitting.
b.
c.
d.

Hold or mount the unit as high as possible .


Extend the length of the transmitting antenna.
Replace the internal battery with the AC power adapter.

75.

At what point does a SART begin transmitting?


a. It immediately begins radiating when placed in the on position.
b. It must be manually activated.
c. If it has been placed in the on position, it will respond when it has been interrogated by a 9 GHz radar
signal.
d. If it has been placed in the on position, it will begin transmitting immediately upon detecting that it is in
water.

76.

What causes the SART to begin a transmission?


a. When activated manually, it begins radiating immediately.
b. It is either manually or water activated before radiating.
c. After being activated, the SART responds to radar interrogation.
d. It begins radiating only when keyed by the operator.

77.

What does a SART signal sound or look like?


a. It will transmit SOS and the vessels name and position in slow speed Morse Code.
b. It will appear on a radar units PPI as a line of dots radiating outward with the innermost dot indicating the
SARTs position.
c. It will appear on a radar units PPI as a line of dots radiating outward with the outermost dot indicating the
SARTs position.
d. None of the above.

78.

How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in the immediate vicinity?
a. The SARTs blips on the PPI will begin arcing and eventually become concentric circles.
b. The DSC unit will react to the SARTs signal and respond with the two-tone auto alarm.
c. The SART can provide an approximate location to within a two nautical miles radius, per IMO standards.
d. The SART signal appears as a target which comes and goes; the effect of heavy swells on a SART.

79.

How can a vessel personnel detect the operation of a SART in its vicinity?
a. A unique radar signal consisting of a blip code outward from a SARTs position along its line of bearing.
b. A unique two tone warbling signal heard on VHF-FM Channel 70.
c. A unique two tone alarm signal heard upon the automatic un-muting of the 2182 kHz radiotelephone
automatic watch receiver.
d. The SART signal appears as a target which comes and goes; the effect of heavy swells on an SART

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80.

How should the signal from a search and rescue radar transponder appear on a radar display?
a. A series of dashes
b. A series of spirals all originating from the range and bearing of the SART
c. A series of 12 equally spaced dots
d. A series of 20 dashes

81.

In which frequency band does a search and rescue transponder operate?


a. 3 GHz
b. 9 GHz
c. S-band
d. 406 MHz

82.

Which statement is NOT true regarding the SART?


a. Responds to interrogations by a vessels X-band radar.
b. Transmits on the 9 GHz band reserved for navigational radar.
c. Operates in conjunction with a vessels S-band radar.
d. Transmits a distinctive code for easy recognition.

83.

Which of the following statements concerning testing and maintenance of SART is true?
a. An at-sea GMDSS maintainer is not liable to test a SART as it is hermetically sealed.
b. Testing a SART should be performed only in controlled environment as a test signal may be misinterpreted
as a genuine distress situation.
c. A SARTs battery must be replaced within ninety (90) days after the expiration date imprinted on the unit.
d. All of the above.

84.

The SART is required to have sufficient battery capacity to operate in the stand-by mode for what period of time?
a. 8 hours
b. 3 days

c. 4 days
d.

48 hours

85.

Which of the following is a function of satellite under COSPAS-SARSAT using satellite EPIRBs?
a. Vessel information recovered from the digital encoded message provide by the satellite EPIRB
b. Doppler shift of EPIRB signal is measured
c. Information received from EPIRBs are time-tagged and transmitted to any Local User Terminal in the
satellites view
d. All of these

86.

Which of the following satellite systems is of particular importance to search and rescue missions under GMDSS?

a. COSPAS/SARSAT
b.
c.
d.

AMSAT
NASA/Arianne
COMSAT

87.

Which of the following statements concerning COSPAS-SARSAT is true?


a. EPRIBs are units that are used as alerting devices.
b. These are satellites in low-earth polar orbit that detect EPIRB beacons on 406 MHz and relay the
information to an earth-side Local User Terminal (LUT).
c. The Doppler frequency measurement concept is used to determine the EPIRBs location.
d. All of the above

88.

Which of the following EPIRBs is most likely to be used to transmit a distress alert signal?
a. S-Band EPIRBs
b. 406 MHz EPIRBs
c. Class A EPIRBs
d. 121.5/243 MHz EPIRBs

89.

Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals?
a. Radio Direction Finder (RDF)

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b.
c.
d.

An EPIRB transmitting on 406 MHz


Survival Craft Transceiver
A SART transmitting on 406 MHz

90.

What may be used as a homing signal by the search and rescue vessel in the immediate vicinity of the ship in
distress?
a. Flare gun
b. Strobe light
c. A 121.5 MHz emergency transmitter in a satellite EPIRB
d. 406 MHz signal from a satellite EPIRB

91.

What part of the satellite EPIRB may function as visual aid to rescue vessel?
a. A 121.5 MHz emergency transmitter in a satellite EPIRB

b. Strobe light
c.
d.

406 MHz signal from a satellite EPIRB


Loud beeping tone emitted by the unit once activated

92.

What is an example of locating signal?


a. SSB phone traffic
b. Ship to shore transmissions
c. Loran C
d. A float-free EPIRB

93.

What information is transmitted by a 406 MHz EPIRB alert?


a. Vessel position and nature of distress
b. A unique Hexadecimal I.D. number
c. Vessel name and identification
d. None of the above

94.

Which of the following channels is designated as the VHF follow-on communication channel and is required in all
portable survival craft equipment?
a. Channel 6
b. Channel 13
c. Channel 16
d. Channel 70

95.

At mid-day, what would be the best choice in attempting to communicate with a shore station 15 miles (24km)
distant?
a. VHF-FM
b. 16 MHz band
c. 12 MHz band
d. 22 MHz band

96.

How is the mutual interference among NAVTEX stations avoided?


a. Stations are limited to daytime operations only.
b. Transmitter power is limited to that necessary for coverage of assigned area.
c. Transmission by stations in each NAVAREA are arranged in a time-sharing basis.
d. Both C and B

97.

When do NAVTEX broadcast typically achieve maximum transmitting range?


a. Local noontime
b. Middle of the night
c. Sunset
d. Post sunrise

98.

Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for international NAVTEX broadcast?
a. 518 kHz
b. 2187.5 kHz

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c.
d.
99.

4209.5 kHz
VHF Channel 16 when vessel is sailing in Sea Area A1 and 2187.5 kHz when in Sea Area A2

What is the transmitting range of most NAVTEX stations?


a. Typically 50-100 nautical miles (90-180 km) from shore
b. Typically upwards of 1000 nautical miles (1800 km) during the day time
c. It is limited to line-of-sight or about 30 nautical miles (54 km)
d. Typically 200-400 nautical miles (360-720 km)

100.

How is a NAVTEX receiver programmed to reject certain messages?


a. The transmitting stations two-digit identification can be entered to de-select reception of its broadcasts
b. By selecting the message categorys single letter (A-Z) identifier
c. By entering the selcall of the transmitting station
d. By pressing 00 in the transmitters ID block

101.

How can reception of certain NAVTEX broadcasts be prevented?


a. Stations are limited to daytime operation only

b. The receiver can be programmed to reject certain stations and message


categories
c.
d.

Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules


Automatic receiver desensitization during night hours

102.

What means are used to prevent the reception of unwanted broadcasts by vessels utilizing the NAVTEX system?
a. Operating the receiver only during daytime hours
b. Programming the receiver to reject unwanted broadcasts
c. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules
d. Automatic receiver de-sensitization during night hours

103.

Which of the following message categories cannot be rejected by the GMDSS Radio Operator?
a. Navigational warnings
b. Meteorological warnings
c. Search and Rescue information
d. All of the above

104.

Where NAVTEX station cannot be feasibly established, what system can be implemented to provide an automated
service in coastal waters to receive MSI?
a. SafetyNET
b. AMVER
c. VHF DSC
d. ARQ SITOR

105.

The specific gravity of a fully charged 12V storage battery is;


a. 1.28
b. 1.20
c. 1.38
d. 1.40

106.

The mechanism that allows a float-free EPIRB is;


a. Hydraulic Release Mechanism
b. Spring Release Mechanism
c. Hydrostatic Release Mechanism
d. Air Release Mechanism

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107.

In radiowave propagation, the distance travelled by a radiowave from one wavetop to another is called:
a. Frequency
b. Wavelength
c. Magnetic field
d. Static duration

108.

What is the term which refers to the supply of electrical energy required to supply radio installations on every ship for
the purpose of conducting distress and safety radio communications in the event of failure of the ships main and
emergency sources of electrical power?
a. Emergency power
b. Reserve source of energy
c. Ships emergency diesel generator
d. Ships standby generator

109.

What may be used as a homing signal by the search and rescue vessels in the immediate vicinity of the ship in
distress?
a. Flare gun
b. Strobe light
c. A121.5 MHz emergency transmitter in a satellite EPIRB
d. 406 MHz signal from a satellite EPIRB

110.

What part of a satellite EPIRB may function as a visual aid to rescue vessels?
a. A 121.5 MHz emergency transmitter in a satellite EPIRB
b. Strobe light
c. 406 MHz signal from a satellite EPIRB
d. Loud beeping tone emitted by the unit once activated

111.

Which type of equipment does not involve satellite detection?


a. Radiotelephone automatic alarm signal transmitter
b. Class A EPIRB
c. L-band EPIRB
d. 121.5/406 MHz EPIRB

112.

What is the joint international satellite-aided SAR system?


a. MARAD
b. IMO
c. COSPAS-SARSAT
d. INMARSAT

113.

What is defined as the area within the radiotelephone coverage of at least one VHF coast station in which continuous
DSC alerting is available as defined by the IMO regulation for GMDSS?
a. Sea Area A1
b. Ocean Area Regions AOR-E, AOR-W, POR or IOR
c. Sea Area A2
d. Coastal and inland waters

114.

What is the defined as an area, excluding Sea Area A1, within the radiotelephone coverage area of at least one MF
coast station, in which continuous DSC is available as defined by the IMO?
a. Sea Area A4
b. Sea Area A3

c. Sea Area A2
d.
115.

Ocean Area Regions AOR-E, AOR-W, POR or IOR

What is defined as an area, excluding sea areas A1 and A2 within the coverage of an INMARSAT geostationary
satellite in which continuous alerting is available?
a. Ocean Area Regions AOR-E, AOR-W, POR or IOR
b. Sea Area A4
c. Sea Area A3
d. Coastal and inland waters

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116.

What is the proper procedure to be followed upon receipt of a distress alert transmitted by use of Digital Selective
Calling techniques?
a. Set watch on the DSC alerting frequency in the band of frequencies the alert was received.
b. Set watch on the radiotelephone distress and safety frequency associated with the distress and safety
calling frequency on which the distress alert was received.
c. Set a continuous watch on VHF-FM Channel 13, 16 and DSC on Channel 70.
d. Ship stations equipped with narrow-band direct-printing equipment should respond to the distress alert as
soon as practicable by this means?

117.

Which channel is designated for GMDSS Digital Selective Calling?


a. Channel 06 (156.300 MHz)
b. Channel 13 (156.650 MHz)
c. Channel 16 (156.800 MHz)
d. Channel 70 (156.525 MHz)

118.

Which frequency is allocated as the GMDSS Digital selective Calling frequency?


a. 156.525 kHz
b. 2182 kHz
c. 156.300 MHz
d. 156.525 MHz

119.

How many MF frequencies are available for DSC distress related calls?
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five

120.

How many HF frequencies are available for DSC distress related calls?
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five

121.

How many VHF frequencies are available under GMDSS for DSC distress related calls?
a. One
b. Two
c. Five
d. Seven

122.

When operating in coastal waters (Sea Area A1) a GMDSS equipped vessel must:
a. Maintain a continuous DSC watch on 8514.5 kHz
b. Maintain a continuous aural watch on 2182 kHz
c. Maintain a continuous DSC watch on VHF channel 16
d. Maintain a continuous DSC watch on VHF channel 70

123.

A GMDSS equipped vessel must carry equipment capable of Medium Frequency (MF) DSC transmission and
reception:
a. When operating outside of VHF DSC range shore
b. When operating in areas of no INMARSAT coverage
c. Only if not equipped with Enhanced Group Call system
d. In all operating ocean areas

124.

DSC is used primarily to:


a. Receive weather warning, navigational notices and other marine safety information
b. Provide routine communications with the ship owner
c. Transmit and receive distress and safety alerts to and from other ships and shore stations via radio
d. Report ships position to search-and-rescue authorities via satellite

125.

Which channel is utilized for the required bridge-to-bridge watch?


a. DSC on channel 70
b. VHF-FM ON CHANNEL 16
c. VHF-FM ON CHANNEL 13
d. The vessels working frequency

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MODULE 2
1.

The HF (High Frequency) band is:


a. 3 30 MHz
b. 3 30 GHz
c. 30 300 MHz
d. 300 3000 MHz

2.

Which GMDSS equipment is not necessary for ships sailing in Sea Area A4?
a. NAVTEX receiver
b. 406 MHz float-free EPIRB
c. VHF DSC watch receiver
d. INMARSAT SES

3.

Which sea areas are covered by MF coast stations?

a. Sea area A1 & A2


b.
c.
d.

Sea area A2 & A3


Sea area A3 & A4
Sea area A4 & A1

4.

SITOR equipment is a full, partial or alternate carriage requirement under GMDSS for vessels operating in which sea
area(s)?
a. A1
b. A1 and A2
c. A3 and A4
d. A1,A2,A3 and A4

5.

Vessels operating in which sea area(s) are required to carry either INMARSAT or HF equipment or a combination
thereof under GDMSS?

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a.
b.
c.
d.

All sea areas


A3
A4
A1

6.

A ship operating in Sea Area A3 must have the following provisions for maintenance:
a. Duplication of Equipment
b. Shore Maintenance
c. At Sea Maintenance
d. Any two of the above

7.

What is the emission designation for MF-HF voice signals?


a. F1B

b. J3E
c.
d.

J2B
F3E

8.

What is the most common type of antenna for GMDSS MF-HF?


a. Horizontally polarized whip antenna
b. Long wire antenna
c. Vertical whip
d. None of the above

9.

The best way to test the MF-HF NBDP system is?


a. Make a radiotelephone call to a Coast Station
b. Initiate an ARQ call to demonstrate that the transmitter and antenna are working
c. Initiate an FEC call to demonstrate that the transmitter and antenna are working
d. Initiate an ARQ call a Coastal Station and wait for the automatic exchange for answerbacks

10.

The best way to test the INMARSAT-C terminal is?


a. Send a message to a shore terminal and wait for confirmation

b. Compose and send a brief message to your own INMARSAT-C terminal


c.
d.

Send a message to another ship terminal


If the send light flashes, proper operation has been confirmed

11.

What number will a ship station use to identify itself using SITOR?
a. Four digits sell-call
b. Five digits sell-call or 9 digits MMSI number
c. 7 digits INMARSAT-A I.D number
d. 9 digits INMARSAT-C I.D number

12.

Which of the following would indicate an INMARSAT-B terminal?


a. A 9 digits number beginning with the MID
b. A 7 digit number
c. A 9 digit number always starting with 3
d. A 9 digit number always starting with 4

13.

You receive a telex with the senders I.D or 433863491. What type of terminal sent this message to your vessel?
a. INMARSAT-C
b. Land telex terminal
c. INMARSAT-B
d. INMARSAT-A

14.

Which of the following would indicate an INMARSAT-C terminal?


a. A 9 digits number beginning with the MID
b. A 7 digit number
c. A 9 digit number always starting with 3

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d.

A 9 digit number always starting with 4

15.

What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take when a DSC distress alert is received?
a. No action is necessary, as the DSC control unit will automatically switch to the NBDP follow-on
communications frequency.
b. The operator should immediately set continuous watch on the radiotelephone frequency that is associated
with frequency band on which the distress alert was received.
c. The operator should immediately set continuous watch on VHF channel 70.
d. The operator should immediately set continuous watch on the NBDP frequency that is associated with
frequency band on which the distress alert was received.

16.

What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio Operator fails to insert updated information when initiating a
DSC distress alert?
a. It will abort the transmission and set off an audible alarm that must be manually reset.
b. It will initiate the DSC distress alert but as no information will be transmitted, rescue personnel will not able
to identify the vessel, its position or its situation.
c. It will initiate the DSC distress alert and default information will automatically be transmitted.
d. It will initiate the DSC distress alert but any station receiving it will have to establish contact with the
distressed vessel to determine its identity position and situation.

17.

DSC relays of distress alerts by vessel:


a. Should be done for all distress alerts.
b. Should be transmitted to ship involved in distress traffic.
c. Should be avoided however after repeated alerts, should be relayed to a Coast Station nearest the distress
incident.
d. Are the best means to provide for a relay of distress communications.

18.

Which of the following is not a DSC watch frequency?


a. 2187.5 kHz
b. 6312 kHz
c. 2189 kHz
d. 12577 kHz

19.

Which of the following are the MF/HF DSC distress watch frequencies?
a. 2177.5, 4210.0, 6314.0, 8416.5 12579.0, 16806.5
b. 2181.0, 4125.0, 6215.0, 8291.0 12290.0, 16420.0
c. 2187.5, 4207.5, 6312.0, 8414.5, 12577.0, 16804.5
d. 2174.5, 4177.5, 6268.0, 8376.5, 12520.0, 16695.0

20.

How many HF DSC distress watch channel must be guarded by a compulsory vessel underway?
a. 1

b. 2
c.
d.
21.

3
4

What is the usually the first step for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take when initiating a distress priority message via
INMARSAT?
a. By dialing the correct code on the telephone remote unit
b. By pressing Distress Button or hot key(s) on the equipment
c. By contacting the CES operator and announcing a distress condition is in existence
d. By contacting the CES operator using the radio telephone distress procedure Mayday. Etc.

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22.

Repetition of a DSC distress call is normally automatic if not acknowledge after a delay of:
a. 1 - 2 minutes
b. 2 - 5 minutes

c. 3.5 - 4.5 minutes


d.

23.

Not all

You send a MF-DSC distress alert. What frequency do you use for the follow-on voice transmission?
a. 2760 kHz
b. 2187 kHz

c. 2182 kHz
d.
24.

2174.5 kHz

You send a HF-DSC alert on 8414.5 kHz. What frequency do you use for the transmission?
a.

8376.5 kHz

b. 8291.0 kHz
c.
d.

8401.5 kHz
8021.0 kHz

25.

What is the proper format of a distress follow on voice transmission? (3x is three times)
a. All Ships 3x This is Ships Name/Call Sign 3x Mayday Position
b. Mayday 3x This is Ships Name /Call Sign 3x Distress Category
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above

26.

What information should be included in a distress follow up voice transmission?


a. Ships Name and Call Sign
b. Ships position
c. Ships MMSI number
d. All of the above

27.

What information should be included in a distress follow up voice transmission?


a. Follow up working frequency
b. ETA at next port
c. None of the above
d. Both of the above

28.

What does the acronym EOS indicate in the received message?


a. Error of sequence
b. End of sequence
c. End of signal
d. Equal operating signals

29.

What action should be taken on receipt of distress alert?


a. Read the display screen and/or printout
b. Silence the alarm
c. Listen for any follow up voice/telex transmission on the appropriate frequency
d. All of the above

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30.

What action should be taken if a distress alert is received on the 12 MHz DSC frequency?
a. Use DSC to acknowledge the alert using the MHz DSC frequency
b. Set the receiver to 12290.0 kHz J3E
c. Do nothing. Ship is too far away to render assistance
d. Set the receiver to 12520.0 kHz F1B

31.

Your ship received a distress relay from another ship on DSC frequency 2187.5 kHz. You would acknowledge by
radio telephony on what frequency?
a. 4207.5 kHz
b. 8290.0 kHz
c. 2182.0 kHz
d. 6312.0 kHz

32.

What action should you take after sending a false distress alert on MF?
a. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on 2187.5 kHz.
b. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on 2174.5 kHz.

c. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on 2182.0 kHz.


d.

Send another DSC alert and follow up with voice on 2182.0 kHz.

33.

What action should you take after sending a false distress alert on 8 MHz?
a. Make an ALL SHIPS call on all 5 HF telex channels cancelling the alert.
b. Make an ALL SHIPS call on 8291.0 kHz cancelling the alert.
c. Make a MAYDAY call on 8414 kHz cancelling the alert.
d. Make an URGENT call on 8614.0 kHz canceling the alert.

34.

What action should you take after sending a false distress alert on 12577.0 kHz?
a. No action is necessary.
b. Make an ALL SHIPS call on all 5 HF telex frequencies cancelling the alert.
c. Make an ALL SHIPS call on the associated 12 MHz J3E frequency cancelling the alert.
d. Send a message to the nearest RCC via INMARSAT cancelling the alert.

35.

What action should you take after sending a false distress alert on INMARSAT-C?
a. Press the Distress ht keys then press the cancel key.
b. Select Transmit menu and send a cancel message via the CES used for the distress alert.
c. Both of the above.
d. None of the above.

36.

What is meant by the term radio silence?


a. Stations not directly involved with the on-going distress communications may not transmit on the distress
frequency or channel.
b. Stations remaining off the air to safeguard proprietary information.
c. Two three-minute silent periods, at 15 and 45 minutes after the hour, that provides a transmitting window
for distressed vessels to transmit distress alert using J3E.
d. Communications on a distress frequency or channel is banned for 24 hours following the cessation of the
distress traffic.

37.

How are normal working conditions restored after radio silence has been imposed?

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(RCC) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a voice message on
the distress frequency stating SEELONCE FEENEE.

a.

The Rescue Coordination Center

b.

The Coast Earth Station (CES) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a voice message on the
distress frequency stating SILENCE FINI
The Public correspondence Station (PCS) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a voice message on
the frequency stating SILENCE FINI
None of the above.

c.
d.

38.

Which of the following situations would normally use the urgency priority?
a. A crew member over the side.
b. A serious medical situation involving a crew member.
c. Both A and B.
d. Scenarios concerning the safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings.

39.

The Urgent Priority should be used for:


a. Messages concerning safety of life at sea (SOLAS).
b. Messages detailing important navigational warnings.

c. Messages containing information concerning the safety of a mobile unit or


person.
d.

Messages concerning onscene communications.

40.

How many MF frequencies are available for DSC distress related calls?
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five

41.

How many HF frequencies are available for DCS distress related cells?
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five

42.

GMDSS vessels equipped for A2, A3 or A4 must maintain a continuous DSC watch on 2187.5 kHz?
a. Only in areas beyond INMARSAT coverage.
b. Only outside of a sea covered by VHF-DSC.
c. When directed to do so by a cognizant authority.
d. At all times when underway.

43.

Which EPIRB transmits a distress alert that is received and relayed by an INMARSAT satellite?
a. Class A EPIRBs
b. Class B EPIRBs

c. L-band EPIRBs
d.

44.

Category I EPIRBs

Which device provides the main means in the GMDSS for locating ships in distress or their survival craft?
a. Radio Direction Finder
b. Satellite EPIRBs

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c.
d.

MF/HF DSC
VHF homing device

45.

Which of the following has been designated for On-scene communication in GMDSS?
a. Channel 24
b. Channel 2182
c. Channel 70
d. Channel 16 on VHF radiotelephone 2174.5 using MF SITOR

46.

Safety NET message can be received by which of the following shipboard equipment?
a. NAVTEX
b. MF and HF NBDP
c. EGC receiver
d. All of these

47.

Which satellite system promulgates Maritime Safety Information?


a. AMVER

b. INMARSAT-C Safety NET


c.
d.

NAVTEX
INMARSAT-M SES

48.

Which HF SITOR mode would be selected to receive MSI broadcast from high seas shore stations:
a. AM
b. FEC
c. RTTY
d. ARQ

49.

Which NAVEREA is associated with the Pacific Ocean north of the equator and east of the International Date Line?
a. NAVAREA IV
b. NAVAREA X
c. NAVAREA XI
d. NAVAREA XII

50.

Which longitude corresponds to the AOR-W satellite for INMARSAT communications?


a. 64.5E
b. 178E
c. 15.5W
d. 54W

51.

Which longitude corresponds to the AOR-E satellite location for INMARSAT communications?
a. 64.5E
b. 178E
c. 15.5W
d. 54W

52.

Which longitude corresponds to the POR satellite location for INMARSAT communications?
a. 64.5E
b. 178E
c. 15.5W
d. 54W

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53.

Which longitude corresponds to the IOR satellite location for INMARSAT communications?
a. 64.5E
b. 178E
c. 15.5W
d. 54W

54.

Which action must be taken to ensure that incoming message traffic of all priority levels will be received though
INMARSAT-C?
a. The system need only to be commissioned and turned on.
b. No additional action is necessary after turning on the receiver and aiming the antenna at the desired
satellite.
c. The GMDSS Radio Operator must log in to the desired satellite.
d. The GMDSS Radio Operator must log in to the desired satellite and received the message reference
number (MRN) from the CES.

55.

When logging in to the INMARSAT system using INMARSAT-C, it is necessary to:


a. Enter your IMN.
b. Enter the CES answer back.
c. Select the ocean region.
d. Call the CES and inform them that you are now operating in the appropriate ocean region.

56.

What is the primary function of an NCS?


a. To monitor and control communications through the INMARSAT satellite for which it is
responsible.
b. To provide direct communications between the INMARSAT, station placing a call and the station receiving
the call.
c. To provide multi-mode communications between the INMARSAT station placing a call and the coast radio
station that will deliver it.
d. To provide multi-mode communications between the INMARSAT station placing a call and the coast radio
station that will receive it.

57.

What is the primary function of the CES?


a. To monitor and control communications through the INMARSAT satellite for which it is responsible.
b. To provide direct communications between the INMARSAT station placing the call and the station receiving
the call.
c. To provide multi mode communications between the INMARSAT station placing a call and the coast radio
station that will deliver it.
d. To determine which satellite is best suited to provide communications between the INMARSAT station
placing a call and the station receiving the call.

58.

Which modes could be selected to receive vessel traffic lists from high seas shore stations:
a. AM and VHF-FM
b. SSB and FEC
c. ARQ and FEC
d. VHF-FM and SSB

59.

To set up the MF/HF Transceiver for a telex call to a coast the operator must:
a. Select J3e mode for proper Suitor operations.
b. Select F1B mode or J2B mode, depending on the equipment manufacturer.
c. Select F1B/J2B modes or J3E mode, depending on weather ARQ or FEC is preferred.
d. None of the above.

60.

To set-up the MF/HF transceiver for a voice call to a coast station the operator must:

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a.
b.
c.
d.

Select J3E mode for proper Suitor Operations.


Select F1B mode or J2B mode, depending on the equipment manufacturer.
Select F1B/J2B modes or J3E mode, depending on weather FEC or ARQ is preferred.
Select J3E mode for proper voice operations.

61.

An ITU simplex channel frequency assignment is defined as:


a. Transmit and received frequencies must be different.
b. Transmit and received frequencies must be identical.
c. Transmit and receive frequencies may be different, depending on whether communications are ship-to-shore
or ship-to-ship.
d. Transmit and received frequencies are different regardless of emission mode.

62.

An ITU duplex channel frequency is defined as:


a. Transmit and receive frequencies may be different, depending on whether communications are ship-to-shore
or ship-to-ship.
b. Transmit and receive frequencies must be identical.
c.
d.

Transmit and receive frequencies must be different.


Transmit and receive frequencies may be different depending on whether communications are ship-shore or
ship to ship.

63.

Which of the following defines ITU Channel 1216?


a. Channel 12 in the 16 MHz band.
b. Channel 1216 in the HF band.
c. Channel 16 in the 12 MHz band.
d. This would indicate the 16th channel in the 12 MHz band but channel 1216 does not yet exist as there are
currently only 15 possible channels.

64.

What is meant by the term ITU Channel?


a. This refers to a vessels sell-call number.
b. This refers to internationally standardized assignment of frequency pairings for common use.
c. This refers to VHF channels 1 - 28 and 60 88.
d. None of the above.

65.

ITU channels are:


a. Frequency assignments specific to US vessels only.
b. VHF-FM frequencies.
c. International traffic Utility frequencies.
d. An international designation of specific frequencies.

66.

What does the term FEC mean in SITOR communications?


a. Field Effect Correction
b. Forward Error Check
c. Forward Error Character
d. None of the above

67.

The acronym SITOR stands for:


a. Simplified Telephony over Radio
b. Simplex Telex Over Radio or Simplex Tele-printer over Radio
c. Simplified Telex Over Radio
d. Simplex Telephony Over Radio

68.

What does the term ARQ mean in SITOR operations?


a. Automation Repeat Request

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b.
c.
d.

69.

Automatic Repeat Request


Automation Request Repeat
Automatic Request Repeat

Which of the following keystroke or character is sent as part of ARQ communications to end the radio link?
a. Four Ns, i.e. NNNN
b. Four Ks i.e. KKKK

c. BRK+
d.

70.

Five periods (..)

Which of the following keystrokes or characters is sent as part of ARQ communications to signal the end of
communications with a land based telex terminal?
a. Four Ns, i.e. NNNN.

b. Four Ks i.e. KKKK


c.
d.

BRK+
Five periods (..)

71.

What characters are transmitted to switch control from a station currently transmitting over to the receiving station
during a TOR communications in the ARQ mode?
a. +?
b. GA+
c. ENTER
d. END

72.

Acknowledgement of a DSC distress alert by use of DSC is normally made by


a. Coast station
b. Any station which heard the distress alert
c. All stations in the maritime service
d. RCC only

73.

The time it takes for a radio wave to move from zero to 360 degrees is called:
a. Wave length
b. Period
c. Modulation
d. Amplitude

74.

An operating method in which transmission is possible simultaneously on both directions of a telecommunications


channel is called:
a. Simplex operation
b. Semi-duplex operation
c. Full duplex operation
d. Multiplex operation

75.

Your ship is participating in the AMVER reporting system. Which of the following report identifier should you use to
report your arrival at your destination?
a. AMVER/SP//
b. AMVER/PR//
c. AMVER/DR//

d. AMVER/FR//
76.

Each of the INMARSAT satellite is placed in geostationary orbit ever ocean regions at an altitude of:
a. 37,000 km

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b.
c.

57,000 km
53,700 km

d. 35,700 km

77.

Your ships INMARSAT-C ID is 425746910. Therefore your ships MID (Maritime Identification Digit) is:

a. 257
b.
c.
d.
78.

425
746
910

The angle between north and the horizontal direction of the satellite as seen from the ship is called:
a. Elevation angel
b. Declination angle
c. Inclination angle

d. Azimuth angle
79.

The height of the INMARSAT satellite over the horizon as seen from the ship is called the:
a. Declination angle
b. Azimuth angle
c. Elevation angle
d. Inclination angle

80.

When an INMARSAT satellite is located west of your ship, its azimuth angle is:
a. 090 degrees
b. 180 degrees
c. 270 degrees
d. 360 degrees

81.

The basic technique used for sending a message via INMARSAT-C is called:
a. Store-and-forward messaging
b. 2-digit code messaging
c. Automatic dial-up telex
d. High-speed data transmission

82.

The INMARSAT-C SES antenna has no moving parts and is described to be:
a. Omni-directional
b. Bi-directional
c. Directional
d. Multi-directional

83.

In EGC system, the reception of MSI is free of charge and is provided by the:
a. Fleet Net service
b. Inter Net service
c. Safety Net service
d. Mari Net service

84.

In TOR communication, the message to be transmitted is divided into as block consists of:
a. 5 characters
b. 3 characters
c. 4 characters
d. 5 characters

85.

HF NBDP equipment is compulsory on board GMDSS ships sailing in:


a. Sea Area A1

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b.
c.

Sea Area A2
Sea Area A3

d. Sea Area A4

86.

When making a ship-to-ship call by INMARSAT telephone, the ocean region code to reach a ship located in the POR
is:
a. 871
b. 872
c. 873
d. 874

87.

When making a ship-to-ship call by INMARSAT, the ocean region code to reach a ship located in the IOR is:
a. 871
b. 872
c. 873
d. 874

88.

When making a ship-to-ship call by INMARSAT, the ocean region code to reach a ship located in the AOR-E is:
a. 871
b. 872
c. 873
d. 874

89.

When making a ship-to-ship call by INMARSAT, the ocean region code to reach a ship located in the AOR-W is:
a. 871
b. 872
c. 873
d. 874

90.

The coverage area (foot prints) of the INMARSAT satellites are from
a. 75 degrees N to 75 degrees S
b. 70 degrees N to 70 degrees S
c. 63 degrees N to 63 degrees S
d. 60 degrees N to 60 degrees S

91.

The charges on INMARSAT-C is computed by:


a. Volume
b. Duration of the call
c. Fixed
d. Annual

92.

One byte is composed of


a. 5 bits
b. 7 bits

c. 8 bits
d.
93.

9 bits

The system used in the operation of an INMARSATL-band EPIRB is:


a. INMARSAT-M
b. INMARSAT-F
c. INMARSAT-B
d. INMARSAT-E

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94.

What character(s) are transmitted to switch control from a station currently transmitting, over to the receiving station
during a TOR communication in the ARQ mode?
a. +?
b. GA+
c. ENTER
d. END

95.

Which characters are sent by the shore station to indicate that is has shifted control to and is awaiting instructions
from the vessel?
a. WRU
b. GA+
c. KKKK+
d. ..

96.

Which characters are sent by the shore station to indicate that is has shifted control to and is awaiting instructions
from the vessel?
a. WKU
b. GA+
c. KKKK+
d. ..

97.

A ship at anchor has been communicating effectively with a shore station approximately 500 miles (805 km) distant
on a frequency in the 16 MHz band periodically throughout the day. Toward the late afternoon and evening, what
effect should be noticed?
a. Communications should be maintained with slight improvement in the signal received from the shore station.
b. The grey line effect will prevent communication after dark.

c. Communications should gradually deteriorate and become impossible in this frequency at


night.
d.

Communications should gradually improve and peak at night and early morning.

98.

A ship anchor has been communicating marginally with a shore station approximately 200 miles (322km) distant on a
frequency in the 4 MHz band periodically throughout the day. Toward the late afternoon and evening, what effect
should be noticed?
a. Communication should be maintained with slight improvement in the signal received from the shore station.
b. Communications should slowly deteriorate but may be continued throughout the night.
c. Communications should gradually deteriorate and become impossible on this frequency by night.
d. Communications should gradually improve and peak at night and early morning.

99.

At mid-day, what would be the best choice in attempting to communicate with a shore station some 75 miles (121 km)
distant?
a. VHF-FM
b. 22 MHz band
c. 16 MHz band
d. MF

100.

The INMARSAT unified ocean code for telephone in all ocean regions since Jan. 2010 is:
a. 874
b. 870
c. 871
d. 872

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MODULE 3

1.

What is the Global Maritime Distress Safety System (GMDSS)?


a. An automated ship-to-shore distress alerting system using satellite and advanced terrestrial communications
systems.
b. An emergency radio service employing analog and manual safety apparatus.
c. An association of radio officers trained in emergency procedures.
d. The international organization changed with the safety of ocean-going vessels.

2.

Which of the following references should the GMDSS Radio Operator consult for information on the proper operation
of equipment?
a. ITU List of Equipment Operations
b. The manufacturers operator manuals
c. 47 CFR Part 80
d. Information is available through Safety Net channels

3.

What is the meaning of Reserve Source of Energy?


a. The supply of electrical energy sufficient to operate the radio installations for the purpose of conducting
distress and safety communications in the event of failure of the ships main and emergency sources of

electrical power.
b.
c.
d.
4.

High caloric value items for lifeboat, per SOLAS regulations


Diesel fuel stored for the purpose of operating the powered survival craft for a period equal to or exceeding
the U.S.C.G and SOLAS requirements
None of these

What is the term which refers to the supply of electrical energy required to supply radio installations on every ship for
the purpose of conducting distress and safety radio communications in the event of failure of the ships main and
emergency sources of electrical power?
a. Emergency power

b. Reserve source of energy


c.
d.
5.

Ships emergency diesel generator


Ships standby generator

What are the characteristics of the Reserve Source of energy under GMDSS?
a. Supplies independent HF and MF installations at the same time
b. Can be independent of the propelling power of the ship
c. Must be incorporated into the ships electrical system

d. Must be independent of the ships electrical system


6.

What is the requirement for emergency and reserve power in GMDSS radio installations?
a. An emergency power source for radio communications is not required if a vessel has proper reserve
power(batteries).
b. A reserve power source is not required for radio communications.
c. Only one of the above is required if a vessel is equipped with a second 406 EPIRB as a back up means of
sending a distress alert.
d. All newly constructed ships under GMDSS must have both emergency and reserve power sources for the
radio communications.

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7.

What is the MID?


a. Mobile Identification Number
b. Maritime Identification Digits
c. Marine Indemnity Directory
d. Mobile Interference Digits

8.

Which of the following numbers indicates a ship station MMSI?


a. 003372694
b. 623944326
c. 030356328
d. 3384672

9.

Which of the following numbers indicates a coastal station?


a. 003572946
b. 454813265
c. 041329746
d. 325700142

10.

Which MMSI number for a DSC call to a specific group of vessels is:
a. 003664523
b. 030327931
c. 338462941
d. 003036483

11.

Which of the following statements concerning MMSI is true?


a. All ship station MMSI must begin with a single zero and include the MID.
b. All group station MMSI must begin with the MID.
c. All Coast Station MMSI must be 9 digits and begin with two zeros followed by the MID.
d. None of the above.

12.

If the Watch Officer hears PAN-PAN spoken 3 times it means:


a. A navigation or important meteorological warning should follow.
b. The station is preparing to transmit an URGENT message possibly concerning the safety of a mobile unit or
person.
c. A mobile unit is in need of immediate assistance.
d. None of the above.

13.

When the GMDSS Radio Operator on watch hears SECURITE spoken three times, he can expect to receive the
following information:
a. Message concerning the safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings.
b. Safety of vessel or person is in jeopardy.
c. Vessel in need of immediate assistance.
d. Coast station Traffic list.

14.

Which of the following situation would normally use the voice designationSECURITE?
a. Messages concerning the Safety of Life at Sea(SOLAS).
b. Messages detailing important navigational warnings
c. Messages containing information concerning the safety of a mobile unit or person.
d. Message concerning on-scene communications.

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15.

Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority?
a. Loss of 5 containers with lashing gear over the side.
b. Treatment of crewmember breaking a leg in a cargo hold.
c. A fire in the generator flat/spaces.
d. Both a and b.

16.

Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority?
a. A crewmember over the side.
b. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember.
c. Both A AND B.
d. Scenarios concerning the Safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings.

17.

The Radio telephone Safety signal is:


a. SECURITE repeated 3 times
b. Safety, Safety, Safety
c. PAN-PAN repeated 3 times
d. SECURITE, SECURITE repeated 3 times

18.

Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority?
a. A crewmember over the side
b. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember

c.

A scenario concerning an important navigational or meteorological warning

d.

All of the above

19.

Which of the following frequencies and modes is allocated for distress alerting in GMDSS?
a. 406 MHz via EPIRB
b. 1626.5-1645.5 via INMARSAT
c. Channel 70 DSC plus six(6) MF/HF DSC frequencies
d. All of the above

20.

How many frequencies are available under GMDSS for DSC distress-related calls?
a. Two
b. Four
c. Five
d. Seven

21.

Which action is the most appropriate action for a GMDSS radio operator to takein a distress situation where
immediate help is needed, but the vessel is not sinking or need to be abandoned?
a. Switch of EPIRB and SART manually.
b. Transmit distress call by HF/MF/VHF DSC or INMARSAT.
c. Notify the RCC(Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF FM on channel 13.
d. Transmit distress call by activating the radiotelegraph automatic alarm signal.

22.

Which of the following EPIRBs is most likely to be used to transmit a distress alert signal?
a. S-Band EPIRBs
b. 406 MHz EPIRBs
c. Class A EPIRBs
d. 121.5/243 MHz EPIRBs

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23.

Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals?
a. Radio Direction Finder (RDF)
b. An EPIRB transmitting on 406 MHz
c. Survival Craft Transceiver
d. A SART transmitting on 406 MHz

24.

What may be used as a horning signals by the search and rescue vessels in the immediate vicinity of the ship in
distress?
a. Flare gun
b. Strobe lights

c. A 121.5 MHz emergency transmitter in a satellite EPIRB


d.

406 MHz signal from a satellite EPIRB

25.

What information is transmitted by a 406 MHz EPIRB alert?


a. Vessel position and nature of distress.
b. A unique hexadecimal I.D number.
c. Vessel name and identification.
d. None of the above.

26.

The specific gravity of a fully charged 12V storage battery is:


a. 1.28
b. 1.20
c. 1.38
d. 1.40

27.

Which characters are sent by the ship station when operating HF TELEX, to indicate a desire to send a message to
AMVER?
a. MSG+
b. DIRTLX

c. AMV+
d.

OPR+

28.

Which characters are sent by the ship station to indicate a desire to send a weather observation message?
a. OBS+
b. MSG+
c. AMV+
d. OPR+

29.

What are characters which are transmitted to indicate the end of a message in SITOR operation?
a.
b. KKKK+
c. END+
d. EOM 33

30.

What is meant by CW?


a. Continuous Working (channel)
b. Continuous Wave (Morse Code)
c. Continuous Watch (I.E shore station)
d. Cohesive Wave

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31.

There are no signals or static heard in the receiver of the SSB transceiver, although a loud noise is heard if the
volume control is advanced all the way up, what is a possible cause?
a. The antenna or feed line has been damaged.
b. The antenna switch has been transferred to the test position.
c. A defective receiver.
d. All of the above.

32.

What is defined as an area outside Sea Area A1, A2 and A3?


a. AOR-E
b. AOR-W
c. Coastal and inland waters

d. A4
33.

Which of the following frequencies have NOT been designated for on scene communications in the global maritime
distress and safety system?
a. VHF-FM channel 16, 156.8 MHz
b. MF radio telephony on 2182 kHz
c. NBDP on 2182.0 kHz
d. None of these

34.

Which of the following frequencies are allocated for alerting in the global maritime distress and safety system?
a. 406 MHz(EPIRB)
b. 1626.5-1645.5(INMARSAT)
c. DSC on 156.525 MHz(channel 70) and various MF/HF frequencies

d. All of these

35.

Which of the following frequencies have been designated for locating signals in the global maritime distress and
safety system?
a. 406 MHz EPIRBs beacon on 121.5 MHz
b. 9 GHz radar transponders
c. Both choices are correct
d. Neither choice is correct

36.

Where are the operational details of the stations transmitting maritime safety information to be found?
a. 47CFR 80.1130
b. IEC Publication 945, Maritime Navigational Equipment
c. ITU List of Radiodetermination and Special Service Stations
d. Frequency Allocation Tables

37.

What are the vessel equipment and personnel requirements of GMDSS?


a. Licensed radio operators
b. Equipment carriage requirements
c. Distress alerting and response
d. All of these

38.

Which equipment may not be utilized to provide locating signals in GMDSS?


a. Float-free EPIRBs
b. 3 GHz signals of radar transponders
c. Satellite EPIRBs
d. 9 GHz SARTs

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39.

Which equipment may NOT be utilized to provide locating signals in GMDSS?


a. SARTs signals from Float-Free transponders
b. 406 EPIRB
c. Loran C or GPS signals
d. Satellite or Float-Free EPIRBs, 9 GHz signals of SARTs

40.

What are the conditions, under GMDSS, whereby a ship is NOT allowed to depart from any port?
a. The vessel is not capable of performing all required distress and safety functions
b. The vessel is carrying more than the required number of qualified GMDSS radio operators
c. The vessel has a temporary waiver of its radio license and Safety Certificate
d. The vessel is not carrying a GMDSS radio maintainer, but has provided for shore side maintenance

41.

Full equipment carriage under GMDSS is:


a. Required on or after January 1, 2001
b. Required to be fitted on all vessels after August 1, 1993
c. No requirement is required on compulsory vessels on international; voyages provided a licensed radio
telegraph station is fitted and a licensed Radio Officer is onboard

d. Mandatory after February 1, 1999.


42.

If a vessel is operating 100 nautical miles from shore within range of shore-based MF station, the vessel is operating
within what area?
a. Coastal waters
b. Navigational lanes
c. Sea Area A2
d. Shipping lanes

43.

If a vessel is operating in an area outside Zones A1, A2, and A3, this vessel is operating within what area for
GMDSS purposes?
a. International voyage
b. Continental shelf waters

c. Sea Area A4
d.

44.

Coastal and inland waters

If a vessel is engaged in local trade, and at no point in its voyage travels outside 25 miles from the Florida coast, in
what GMDSS zones would this vessel be operating?
a. Coastal and international zones
b. Inland and coastal waters
c. Sea Area A1 and A2

d. Sea Area A1
45.

Which equipment is required for all vessels over 300 gross tons and all passengers ships after August 1, 1993?
a. Either INMARSAT Standard-A or Standard-C SES

b. NAVTEX and Satellite EPIRBs


c.
d.

Three VHF-FM transceiver and a radiotelegraph automatic alarm receiver


There are no compulsory equipment carriage requirements for vessels under 300 gross tons

46.

Which statement is true regarding mandatory fitting of GMDSS equipment?


a. After February 1, 1992 all vessels over 300 gross tons must comply.
b. After August 1, 1993 all new ship constructions must comply.
c. All ships built after February 1, 1995 must comply with all GMDSS requirements.
d. All vessels over 300 gross tons must comply in February 1, 1995.

47.

Which statement is true regarding mandatory fitting of GMDSS equipment?


a. After February 1, 1992 all vessels over 300 gross tonnage must comply.

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b.
c.
d.

48.

All vessels over 300 gross tonnage must be in compliance on February 1, 1999.
After August 1, 1993 all new ship construction must comply.
Only those vessels substantially completed before February 1, 1995 must comply with all GMDSS
requirements.

The primary purpose of the GMDSS is?


a. Environmental protection.
b. A common international communications system for all shipping.

c. Automate and improve emergency communications for the worlds shipping


industry.
d.
49.

Effective and inexpensive communications.

What can be defined as radio transmissions intended to facilitate the finding of a mobile unit in distress or the
location of survivors?
a. Homing signals
b. Radio Direction Finder Signals

c. Locating signals
d.

Ranging signals

50.

What is an example of a locating signal?


a. SSB phone patch traffic
b. Ship to shore transmissions
c. Loran C
d. A float-free EPIRB

51.

Vessels operating in which sea area(s) are required to carry either INMARSAT or HF equipment or a combination
therefore under GMDSS?
a. All sea areas
b. A3
c. A4
d. A3 and A4

52.

Which communications functions must all vessels be capable of performing under GMDSS as defined by
International Maritime Organization:
a. Distress, general and bridge-to-bridge radio communications.
b.

Distress alerting to and from vessels, search and rescue coordination, on-scene communications,

c.
d.

signals for locating, maritime safety information, general and bridge-to-bridge


Communication in each of the operational oceans areas.
All communications possible within the International Safety Net service.

communications.

53.

Which action should the GMDSS radio operator take in a distress situation when embarking in survival craft?
a. Switch on EPIRB and SART immediately and leave on.
b. EPIRB and SART switched on manually prior to embarking, remain aboard vessel in distress.
c. Notify RCC (Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF DSC in portable equipment.
d. Communicate via INMARSAT-C from survival craft.

54.

Which action is the most appropriate for a GMDSS radio Operator to take in a distress situation where immediately
help is needed, but the vessel is not sinking nor needs to be abandoned?

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a.

Switch off EPIRB and SART manually.

b. Transmit distress call by HF/MF/VHF DSC or INMARSAT.


c.
d.

Notify the RCC (Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF FM on Channel 13.
Transmit distress call by activating the radiotelegraph automatic alarm signal.

55.

Which system assures communications virtually anywhere on the globe?


a. MF NBDP
b. INMARSAT
c. VHF DSC
d. 2182 kHz radiotelephone

56.

Which system is most likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances?


a. MF/HF radiotelephony
b. VHF DSC
c. INMARSAT Standard C
d. Safety Net

57.

Which system is least likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances?


a. NAVTEX
b. SES
c. MF NBDP
d. HF NBDP

58.

What is the basic concept of GMDSS?


a. Search and rescue authorities ashore can be alerted to a distress situation.
b. Shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in distress will be rapidly alerted.
c. Shore side authorities & vessels can assist in a coordinated SAR operation with minimum delay.
d. All of these

59.

What is the meaning of reserve source of energy?


a. The supply of electrical energy sufficient to operate the radio installations for the purpose of conducting
distress and safety communications in the event of failure of the ships main and emergency sources of
electrical power.
b. High caloric value items for lifeboat, per SOLAS regulations.
c. Diesel fuel stored for the purpose of operating the powered survival craft for a period equal to or exceeding
the U.S.C.G and SOLAS requirements.
d. None of these.

60.

Who may initiate a message indicating that distress traffic has finished?
a. The relay ship or shore station.
b. The Rescue Coordination Center controlling a search and rescue operation.
c. The vessel in distress.
d. No message is required when no distress traffic has been observed for a minimum of fifteen minutes. It may
be assumed that the radio silence imposed has been lifted.

61.

Which stations may transmit on the frequencies in which distress traffic is taking place?
a. All stations which are aware of the distress traffic.
b. Any stations not itself in distress.
c. All stations for which silence was imposed by the Rescue Coordinating Center or station appointed to
coordinate search and rescue activities.
d. Any station in distress.

62.

Which stations may NOT transmit on the frequencies in which distress traffic is taking place?
a. The Rescue Coordinating Center and any station appointed by them to coordinate distress traffic.
b. Any stations in distress.

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c.
d.

Any station taking part in the search and rescue operation under the coordination of the Rescue
Coordination Center or any station appointed by them to coordinate distress traffic.
Any station for which silence was imposed by the Rescue Coordinator during search and rescue operations.

63.

What is the term which refers to the supply of electrical energy required to supply radio installations on every ship for
the purpose of conducting distress and safety radio communications in the event of failure of the ships main and
emergency sources of electrical power?
a. Emergency power
b. Reserve source of energy
c. Ships emergency diesel generator
d. Ships standby generator

64.

What are the characteristics of the reserve source of energy under GMDSS?
a. Supplies independent HF and MF installations at the same time.
b. Can be independent of the propelling power of the ship.
c. Must be incorporated into the ships electrical system.
d. Must be independent of the ships electrical system.

65.

The radio telephone silence periods are required:


a. Twice each hour for 3 minutes duration beginning on the hour and half hour
b. Once each hour, on the hour for 3 minutes duration.
c. Four times each hour for three minutes duration commencing on the hour, 15 minutes, 30 minutes and 45
minutes.
d. To be set by the captain of the vessel at the beginning of the voyage.

66.

The radio telephone silence period is:


a. A time period when the radio telephone watch receiver can be turned off because no traffic is sent
b. Density corresponds closely to the elevation of the sun
c. Used to pass message traffic on a non-interference basis
d. A 3 minute period reserved for transmitting distress, urgency or safety messages.

67.

AMVER satisfies which of the following movement reporting requirements for ships at sea?
a. Most of the requirements for U.S. ships engaged in foreign trade.
b. USCG requirement for advance notice of arrival for ships arriving from the high seas.
c. Both of these are correct.
d. Neither of these is correct. AMVER is a voluntary system operated by the USCG (US Coast Guard) for
search and rescue only.

68.

Which of the following areas would be considered Ocean Area A2?


a. An area within coverage of INMARSAT geostationary satellite.
b. An area within coverage of Medium Frequency (MF) coastal radio stations in which continuous DSC alerting
is available.
c. An area within coverage of VHF coast radio stations in which continuous DSC alerting is available.
d. The extreme polar regions.

69.

GMDSS is applicable to which of the following?


a. All ships capable of international voyages.
b. Vessels outside of the range of VHF coastal radio stations.
c. SOLAS Convention ships of 300 gross tonnage or more.
d. Coastal vessel of less than 300 gross tons.

70.

GMDSS equipped ships will be required to perform which of the following communications functions?
a. Distress alerting and maritime safety information
b. Search and rescue coordination and on-scene communication
c. Bridge-to-bridge and general radio communications
d. All of these

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71.

If operating within Area A1, and outside of NAVTEX coverage, a GMDSS equipped vessel must carry:
a. An INMARSAT-A terminal.
b. A GPS server.
c. Equipment capable of maintaining a continuous DSC watch on 2187.5 kHz.
d. Equipment capable of reception of maritime safety information by the INMARSATEnhanced Group Call
system of HF NBDP.

72.

A radar transponder operating in the 9 GHz band:


a. Must be carried on all GMDSS-equipped ships.
b. Must be carried on all GMDSS-equipped ships operating outside of operational ocean area A1.
c. Must be carried on all GMDSS-equipped ships that do not carry a satellite EPIRB.
d. Must be carried on all GMDSS-equipped ships operating in coastal areas.

73.

A vertical antenna (whip) has a radiation pattern best described by which statement?
a. A figure eight.
b. A cardioid.
c. A circle.
d. An ellipse.

74.

A half wave horizontal dipole antenna has a radiation pattern best described by which statement?
a. A figure eight
b. A cardioid.
c. A circle.
d. An ellipse.

75.

Choose the correct statement regarding the D layer of the ionosphere.

very low and low frequency waves, absorbs medium frequency waves and weakens high
frequency waves through partial absorptions.

a.

It reflects

b.

It is important for high frequency daytime propagation at distance less than 1000 miles, and for medium
frequency nighttime propagation at distances in excess of about 100 miles.
It occasionally reflects high frequency transmission, but usually introduces absorption of these waves.
It is the principal reflecting region for long distance high frequency communication.

c.
d.
76.

Choose the correct statement regarding the E layer of the ionosphere.


a. It reflects very low and low frequency waves, absorbs medium frequency waves and weakens high
frequency waves through partial absorptions.
b. It is important for high frequency daytime propagation at distance less than 1000 miles, and for medium
frequency nighttime propagation at distances in excess of about 100 miles.
c. It occasionally reflects high frequency transmission, but usually introduces absorption of these waves.
d. It is the principal reflecting region for long distance high frequency communication.

77.

Choose the correct statement regarding the F1 layer of the ionosphere.


a. It reflects very low and low frequency waves, absorbs medium frequency waves and weakens high
frequency waves through partial absorptions.
b. It is important for high frequency daytime propagation at distance less than 1000 miles, and for medium
frequency nighttime propagation at distances in excess of about 100 miles.

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c.
d.
78.

Reflects medium frequency.


Density varies diurnally, seasonally and over the sunspot cycle.
This layer exists only during darkness.

Density corresponds closely to the elevation of the


Density varies diurnally, seasonally and over the sunspot cycle.
This layer exists only during darkness.

sun.

Choose the most correct statement about the F1 layer.


a.
b.
c.
d.

82.

the D layer.
This layer existsonly during daylight hours.

Choose the most correct statement about the E layer.


a. This layer exists only during daylight hours
b.
c.
d.

81.

It is the principal reflecting region for long distance high frequency communication.

Choose the most correct statement about


a.
b.
c.
d.

80.

introduces absorption of these


waves.
It is the principal reflecting region for long distance high frequency communication.

Choose the correct statement regarding the F2 layer of the ionosphere.


a. It reflects very low and low frequency waves, absorbs medium frequency waves and weakens high
frequency waves through partial absorptions.
b. It is important for high frequency daytime propagation at distance less than 1000 miles, and for medium
frequency nighttime propagation at distances in excess of about 100 miles.
c. It occasionally reflects high frequency transmission, but usually introduces absorption of these waves.
d.

79.

It occasionally reflects high frequency transmission, but usually

This layer exists only during daylight hours.


Reflects medium frequency.
Density varies diurnally, seasonally and over the sunspot cycle.
This layer exists only during darkness.

Choose the most correct statement about the F2 layer.


a. This layer exists only during daylight hours.
b. Density corresponds closely to the elevation of the sun.
c.
d.

Density varies diurnally, seasonally


This layer exists only during darkness.

and over the sunspot cycle.

83.

Under GMDSS, a compulsory 2182 kHz radiotelephone installation must be tested at what minimum intervals?
a. Weekly.
b. Annually, by a representative of the FCC.
c. At the annual SOLAS inspection.
d. Monthly.

84.

Testing of a two-tone radiotelephone alarm signal should be made


a. On 2182 kHz into an artificial antenna.
b. On any frequency other than 2182 kHz into an artificial antenna.
c. On 2182 kHz and must be heard clearly under normal conditions at a range of 150 nautical miles.
d. This should never be used except under emergency conditions.

85.

What is the meaning of the term SART?


a. The U.S. Coast Guard coordinated Search and Rescue Team.
b. The COSPAS-SARSAT system.
c. The Search and Rescue Team coordinated by a national Rescue Coordination Center (RCC).
d. Search and Rescue Radar Transponder.

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86.

Which device provides the main means in the GMDSS for locating ships in distress, or their survival craft?
a. Radio Direction Finder
b. Satellite EPIRBS
c. SARTs
d. VHF homing device

87.

The SART operates in which frequency band?


a. 3.5 GHz
b. 9 GHz
c. L-band
d. 406 MHz

88.

Signals from the SART are detected on which shipboard equipment?


a. S-band Navigational Radar
b. VHF-FM Channel 70 Watch Receiver
c. X-band Navigational Radar
d. GPS Receiver

89.

What causes a SART to begin a transmission?


a. When activated manually, it begins radiating immediately.
b. It is either manually, it begins radiating immediately.
c. After being activated either manually or automatically the SART responds to radar interrogation.
d. It begins radiating only when keyed by the operator

90.

How does the search vessels GMDSS Radio Operator interrogate a survival craft SART?
a. Activate the IFF interrogation system.
b. The SART responds automatically when it detects the search craft or other vessels X-band radar signal.
c. Maintain watch on VHF-FM Channel 70 for the SARTs unique identifier.
d. The SART responds automatically when it detects the search craft or other vessels 3.5 GHz radar signal.

91.

The SART is required to have sufficient battery capacity to operate in the stand-by mode for what period of time?
a. Eight hours
b. Three days
c. Four days
d. Forty-eight hours

92.

What equipment is used to provide the means of locating survival craft or a mother ship in distress?
a. EPIRB
b. RDF
c. SART
d. EPIRB and SART

93.

Why should functional testing of an SART be minimized?


a. To avoid potential interference with safe navigation.
b. To minimize power consumption on the battery.
c. To avoid the possibility of misinterpretation by other vessel as a distress situation.
d. All of these.

94.

What is the primary purpose of limiting the duration of operational tests of SARTs?
a. Limit battery capacity.
b. Minimizes chance of interference with other vessels navigational radar.
c. Reduced possibility of damage due to overheating when used indoors.
d. Reduced the possibility of damage to own ships radar equipment.

95.

Equipment for radiotelephony used in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what capability?

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Reviewer for GOC as of 06/13/2011


a.
b.
c.
d.

Operation on 156.8 MHz


Operation on 456.535 MHz
Operation on 121.5 MHz
Any of these

96.

Which statement is true regarding the requirement for survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone
equipment?
a. Watertight
b. Internal microphone and loudspeaker
c. Internal transmitter/receiver including antenna and battery
d. All of these.

97.

Which control setting may limit the receiving range of a VHF portable radio?
a. Squelch control set for minimum squelch.
b. Selection of low-power (1 Watt) operation.
c. Squelch control set for maximum squelching action.
d. Squelch control adjusted slightly past the range where noise is heard in the speaker.

98.

What frequency is required in survival craft portable radiotelephony equipment?


a. 121.5 MHz
b. 156.8 MHz
c. 156.3 MHz
d. 156.650 MHz

99.

A distress signal transmitted from which EPIRB is relayed by an INMARSAT satellite to CESs (Coast Earth Stations)?
a. Class A EPIRBs.
b. Class B EPIRBs.
c. L-band EPIRBs on the designated frequency.
d. 406 MHz EPIRBs broadcast to all vessels for relay to a CES.

100.

Which statement is true regarding the COSPAS-SARSAT system?


a. EPIRBs are used as satellite beacons aboard vessels as alerting device.
b. Signals received by low altitude near polar orbiting satellites are relayed to a ground receiving station.
c. Doppler shift is used to locate the beacons.
d. All of these.

ANSWER KEY
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Reviewer for GOC as of 06/13/2011

MODULE 1
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20

D
D
B
C
C
C
A
A
C
B
B
A
D
A
A
A
D
C
D
D

21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40

D
B
D
A
C
D
C
C
C
D
A
C
D
D
B
A
C
B
B
A

41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60

B
D
D
A
C
B
B
A
B
C
D
D
D
C
D
C
B
B
A
B

A
D
A
C
D
D
D
C
B
C
A
A
B
B
C
C
B
A
A
C

61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
80

81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100

B
C
B
C
D
A
D
B
B
C
B
D
B
C
A
D
B
A
D
B

MODULE 2
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25

A
D
A
C
B
D
B
C
D
B
B
C
A
D
B
C
C
C
C
B
B
C
C
B
D

26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50

D
C
B
D
B
C
C
B
C
B
A
A
B
C
A
D
D
C
B
D
C
B
B
D
D

101
102
103
104
105
106
107
108
109
110
111
112
113
114
115
116
117
118
119
120

B
B
D
A
A
C
B
B
C
B
A
C
A
C
C
B
D
D
A
D

121
122
123
124
125

A
D
A
C
C

MODULE 3
51
52
53
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55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75

C
B
A
C
C
A
B
B
B
D
B
C
C
B
D
D
B
B
C
B
A
A
B
C
D

76
77
78
79
80
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100

D
A
D
C
C
A
A
C
B
D
B
C
A
D
A
C
D
A
B
B
C
D
D
B

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25

A
B
A
B
D
D
B
B
A
B
C
B
C
B
A
D
A
C
D
D
B
B
B
C
B

26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50

Excellence and Competency Training Center, Inc.

A
C
A
B
B
D
D
C
D
C
C
D
B
C
A
D
C
C
D
B
C
B
C
C
D

51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75

B
B
A
B
B
A
B
D
A
B
C
D
B
D
A
D
C
B
C
D
D
A
C
A
A

76
77
78
79
80
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100

Page 41 of 41

B
C
C
A
B
A
C
A
B
D
B
B
C
C
B
C
D
D
B
A
D
C
B
C
D