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Online Test - 1 (Objective)

All India Aakash Test Series-2017

All India Aakash Test Series-2017


Online Test 1
Time : 3 Hrs.

MM : 720

TOPICS COVERED
PHYSICS

CHEMISTRY :

Physical World and Measurement; Kinematics


Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements and Periodicity
in Properties, Chemical bonding and Molecular Structure

BIOLOGY

Diversity in Living World: What is living? ; Biodiversity; Need for classification; Three domains
of life; Taxonomy and Systematics; Concept of species and taxonomical hierarchy; Binomial
nomenclature; Tools for study of Taxonomy Museums, Zoos, Herbaria, Botanical gardens,
keys, Five kingdom classification; salient features and classification of Monera, Protista and
Fungi into major groups; Lichens; Viruses and Viroids, Salient Features and classification of
animals nonchordate up to phyla level and Chordates up to classes level

[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1.

Charge on an electron was first determined by


(1) Millikan
(2) Thomson
(3) Bohr
(4) Rutherford

2.

Lightning was discovered by


(1) Faraday
(2) Edison
(3) Franklin
(4) Ohm

3.

The range of weak nuclear force is of the order


(1) 1010 m
(2) 108 m
(3) 106 m
(4) 1016 m

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All India Aakash Test Series-2017


4.

Online Test - 1 (Objective)

Unit of surface tension may be expressed as


(1) joule metre
(2) newton metre
(3) joule metre2
(4) newton metre2

5.

The physical quantity that is different from others in some respect


(1) Moment of inertia
(2) Electric current
(3) Pressure energy
(4) Rate of change in velocity

6.

The dimensional formula for shear modulus of rigidity is


(1) MLT2
(2) MLT1
(3) ML2T2
(4) ML1T2

7.

Find the order of magnitude of 0.00701


(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

8.

If x

V0
1 e at . Find the dimensions of V0 and a (X is displacement)
a

(1) M0LT1 and T1


(2) M0LT0 and T1
(3) M0LT1 and LT2
(4) M0LT1 and T
9.

Percentage errors in measurement of mass and speed are 2% and 3% respectively. How much will be the
maximum error in the estimation of KE obtained by measuring mass and speed?
(1) 5%
(2) 1%
(3) 8%
(4) 11%

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10. Given that y = a sint + bt + ct2 cost. Find the expression having same unit as of abc (Y = displacement)
(1) y

(2)

y
t

y
(3)
t

y
(4)
t

11. If E, M, J, G denote energy, mass, angular momentum and gravitational constant, then EJ2/M5G2 has dimensions
of
(1) Time
(2) Angle
(3) Mass
(4) Length
1

2
2
12. An experiment measures quantities a, b and c, then X is calculated as X a 3b . If percentage errors in a, b
c
and c are 1%, 3% and 2% respectively, then the percentage error in X can be

(1) 12.5%
(2) 7%
(3) 1%
(4) 4%
13. The position x of a particle varies with (t) as x = at2 bt3. The acceleration at time t of the particle will be zero,
then t is equal to

(1)

2a
3b

(2)

a
b

(3)

a
3b

(4)

a
b

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Online Test - 1 (Objective)

14. A body covers one third of distance with velocity v1 , the second one third distance with velocity v2 and remaining
distance with a velocity v3. Find the average velocity
(1)

v1 v 2 v 3
3

3v1v 2v 3
(2) v v v v v v
1 2
2 3
1 3
(3)

v1v 2 v 2v 3 v1v 3
3

(4)

v1v 2v 3
3

15. If v2 = 108 9x2, then find acceleration of particle


(1) 9x
(2) 18x
(3)

9x
2

(4) None of these


16. The velocity acquired by a moving body with uniform acceleration is 30 ms1 in 2 s and 60 ms1 in 4 s. Find
the initial velocity
(1) Zero
(2) 2 ms1
(3) 3 ms1
(4) 10 ms1
17. An object accelerates (with constant acceleration) from rest to a velocity 27.5 ms1 in 10 s. Find the distance
covered by the object during next 10 s
(1) 412.5 m
(2) 137.5 m
(3) 550 m
(4) 275 m
18. A body falls freely from rest. It covers as much distance in last second of its motion as covered in first three
seconds. The body has fallen for a time of
(1) 3 s
(2) 5 s
(3) 7 s
(4) 9 s

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19. The x and y coordinates of a particle at any time t are given by x = 7t + 4t2 and y = 5t. Find the acceleration
of the particle at 5 s
(1) Zero
(2) 8 ms2
(3) 20 ms2
(4) 40 ms2
20. For motion of an object along X-axis, the velocity v depends on displacement x as v = 3x2 2x, then what is
the acceleration at x = 2 m?
(1) 48 ms2
(2) 80 ms2
(3) 18 ms2
(4) 10 ms2
21. A ball is thrown upwards with speed v from top of a tower and it reaches the ground with speed 3v. What is
height of tower?
(1)

v2
g

(2)

2v 2
g

(3)

4v 2
g

(4)

8v 2
g

22. A body travels 200 cm in first 2 s and 220 cm in next 4 s with constant deceleration. Find the velocity of body
at end of 7th s
(1) 5 cm s1
(2) 10 cm s1
(3) 15 cm s1
(4) 20 cm s1
23. A ball is released from the top of a tower of height h. It takes time T to reach the ground. What is the position
T
?
(from the ground) of ball after time
3
(1)

h
m
9

(2)

7h
m
9

(3)

8h
m
9

(4)

17h
m
18

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Online Test - 1 (Objective)

24. If x denotes displacement in time t and x = a cost, then acceleration is


(1) a cost
(2) a cost
(3) a sint
(4) a sint
25. The velocity-time relation of an electron starting from rest is given by v = kt where k = 2 ms2. The distance
travelled in first 3 s is
(1) 9 m
(2) 16 m
(3) 27 m
(4) 36 m
26. A body is released from top of a tower of height H. After 2 s it is stopped and then instantaneously released,
what will be height after 2 s?
(1) H 5
(2) H 10
(3) H 20
(4) H 40
27. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower of height h. After 1 s another stone is dropped from the balcony
20 m below the top. Both reach the bottom simultaneously. What is the value of h? [Take g = 10 ms2]
(1) 3125 m
(2) 312.5 m
(3) 31.25 m
(4) 25.31 m
28. The train 100 m long travelling at 40 ms1 starts overtaking another train 200 m long travelling at 30 ms1. The
time taken by first train to pass the second train completely is (Both moving in same direction)
(1) 30 s
(2) 40 s
(3) 50 s
(4) 60 s
29. A person is throwing two balls in air one after another. He throws second ball when first ball is at highest point.
If he is throwing balls every second, how high they rise? (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 5 m
(2) 3.75 m
(3) 2.5 m
(4) 1.25 m

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30. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with certain velocity. While moving upwards it reaches a point A at t1 second
and then reaches the ground at t1 + t2 second. Find the height of point A above point of projection
(1)

1
g t12 t 22
2

(2)

1
g t1 t 2
2

(3) gt1t2
(4)

1
2
g t 2 t1
2

31. A particle moves according to equation t x 3 , when the particle comes to rest for the first time
(1) 3 s
(2) 2.5 s
(3) 3.5 s
(4) None of these
32. A point traversed half the distance with velocity v0. The remaining part of distance was covered with velocity
v1 for half the time and with velocity v2, for the other half of the time. The mean velocity of the point averaged
over the whole time of motion is
(1)

v 0 v1 v 2
v 0v1v 2

(2)

2 v 0 v 1 v 2
2 v 0 v1 v 2

(3)

v 0 v1 v 2
v 0 v1 v 2

(4)

3v 0 2v1 2v 2
3v 0 2v1 2v 2

33. A car has speed v1 for first one metre and v2 for next one metre. What is minimum possible value of average
velocity?

(1)

(2)

(3)

2v 1v 2
v1 v 2
v 1 v2
2
v 1 v2
2

(4) Zero

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Online Test - 1 (Objective)

34. A person travelling on a straight line moves with a uniform velocity v1 for a distance x and with a uniform velocity
v2 for next equal distance. The average velocity v is given by
(1) v

v1 v 2
2

(2) v v1v 2
2 1 1
(3) v v v
1
2
1 1 1
(4) v v v
1
2

35. A particle is released from rest from a tower of height 3h. The ratio of times to fall equal heights h i.e. t1 : t2 :
t3 is
(1)

3 : 2 :1

(2) 3 : 2 : 1
(3) 9 : 4 : 1
(4) 1: 2 1: 3 2

36. A radius vector of point A relative to origin varies with time as r = ati bt2j. Find the equation of trajectory

(1) y

(2) y

b2 2
x
a2

(3) y

(4) y

b 2
x
a2

2b 2
x
a2

2b 2
x
a2

37. A particle is moving in straight line with initial velocity u and uniform acceleration f. If sum of distance travelled
in tth and (t + 1)th seconds is 100 cm, then its velocity after t seconds in cm/s, is
(1) 20
(2) 30
(3) 50
(4) 80

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38. Two trains each 50 m long are travelling in opposite directions with velocities 10 ms1 and 15 ms1. Find the
time after which they will cross each other
(1) 2 s
(2) 4 s
(3) 2 3 s
(4) 4 3 s
39. A man swims to and fro along the bank of a river with velocity v relative to water. If velocity of flow is u, find
the average speed of man
(1) 0
(2)

uv

(3)

u v
2

(4)

v 2 u2
v

40. A particle starts from rest with uniform acceleration and its velocity after n seconds is v. The displacement of
the body in last two seconds is
(1)

v n 1
n

(2)

2v n 1
n

(3)

2v n 1
n

(4)

v n 1
n

41. In a car race, car A takes t0 time less to finish than car B and passes the finishing point with a velocity v0 more
v0
than car B. The cars start from rest and travel with constant accelerations a1 and a2. Then ratio t is equal to
0
a12
(1)
a2

(2)

a1 a2
2

(3)

a1 a2

(4)

a22
a1

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Online Test - 1 (Objective)

42. The velocity of a particle is V = v0 + gt + ft2. If its position is x = 0, at t = 0, then its displacement after unit
time (t = 1) is
(1) v0 + g/2 + f/3
(2) v0 + g + f
(3) v0 + g/2 + f
(4) v0 + 2g + 3f
43. If velocity of a particle v = At2 + Bt3, then distance travelled by it between 1 s and 2 s is
(1)

7 A 15B

3
4

(2)

3A
4B
2

(3)

7 A 7B

3
3

(4)

15 A 15B

4
4

44. A body is moving with 3 m/s towards North. After 10 s its velocity becomes 4 m/s towards East. The average
acceleration of body is
(1) 0.7 m/s2
(2) 0.5 m/s2
(3) 0.1 m/s2
(4) 0.8 m/s2
45. The displacement of particle is given by y = a bt + ct2 dt3. Find initial velocity and initial acceleration of particle
respectively
(1) b, 2c
(2) b, 3d
(3) b, 2c
(4) 2c, 4d

[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. Number of moles in 1 m3 gas at NTP is
(1) 4.46
(2) 44.6
(3) 446
(4) 4460

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47. The total number of atoms of all elements present in one mole of ammonium dichromate is
(1) 19
(2) 6.023 1023
(3) 114.473 1023
(4) 84.322 1023
48. For a reaction A + 2B C, the amount of C formed by starting the reaction with 5 moles of A and
8 moles of B is
(1) 5 moles
(2) 8 moles
(3) 16 moles
(4) 4 moles
49. A 100% pure sample of a divalent metal carbonate weighing 2g on complete thermal decomposition releases
448 cc of carbon dioxide at STP. The equivalent mass of metal is
(1) 40
(2) 20
(3) 28
(4) 12
50. Identify the orbital

(1) 2p
(2) 3p
(3) 4p
(4) 5p
51. d orbital is also called
(1) Degenerate
(2) Dumbbell
(3) Derived
(4) Diffused
52. The energy of electron in the first Bohr orbit of H atom is 13.6 eV. The possible energy value(s) of the excited
state(s) for electron in Bohr orbits of hydrogen is (are)
(1) 3.4 eV
(2) 4.2 eV
(3) 1.5 eV
(4) Both (1) & (3)

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53. In the Bohrs orbit, what is the ratio of total kinetic energy and the total energy of the electron?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) +1
(4) +2
54. The pairs of species of oxygen and their magnetic behaviours are noted below. Which of the following presents
the correct description?
(1) O2, O2
2

Both diamagnetic

(2) O+, O2
2

Both paramagnetic

O+2,

O2

Both paramagnetic

(4) O, O2
2

Both paramagnetic

(3)

55. How many hydrogen bonded water molecule(s) are associated with CuSO45H2O?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
56. The number of d-electrons in Fe2+ (At. No. 26) is not equal to that of
(1) p- electrons in Ne (At. No. = 10)
(2) s - electrons in Mg (At. No. = 12)
(3) d - electrons in Fe atom
(4) p - electons in Cl ion (At. No. = 17)
57. For principal quantum number n = 4, the total number of orbitals having l = 3 is
(1) 3
(2) 7
(3) 5
(4) 9
58. Which of the following statements is not true?
(1) The kinetic energy of an electron is directly proportional to accelerating potential
(2) de-Broglie wavelength associated with a particle is inversely proportional to its mass.
(3) The wavelength associated with an electron is directly proportional to square root of accelerating potential
(4) de-Brogile wavelength is inversely proportional to the velocity of electron
59. How many electrons of s
(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 2

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1
are present in sodium ion?
2

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60. The ratio of sigma bonds present in cation and anion in ionic PCl5 is
(1) 3 : 1
(2) 3 : 2
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 1 : 4
61. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Bond angle in PH+4 islower than that of pH3
(2) Covalency of N in N2O5 is 5
(3) Oxidation state of nitrogen cannot be equal to + 5 in N2O5
(4) There is a coordinate covalent bond formed between NH3 and BF3
62. Which of the following transition in Be3+ gives same frequency, given by n = 4 to n = 2 in He+?
(1) n = 2 to n = 1
(2) n = 6 to n = 3
(3) n = 8 to n = 4
(4) n = 3 to n = 2
63. Which one of the following sets of quantum number is possible ?
(1) n = 3, l = 3, m = 3, s = +

1
2

(2) n = 2, l = 1, m = 2, s =

1
2

(3) n = 1, l = 0, m = 0, s = +

1
2

(4) n = 3, l = 2, m = 3, s = +

1
2

64. The explanation for the presence of three unpaired electrons in the nitrogen atom can be given by
(1) Paulis exclusion principle
(2) Hunds rule
(3) Aufbau principle
(4) Uncertainty principle
65. Hydrogen bonds are formed in many compounds like H2O, HF and NH3. The correct decreasing order of boiling
points of these compounds is
(1) HF > H2O > NH3
(2) H2O > HF > NH3
(3) NH3 > HF > H2O
(4) NH3 > H2O > HF

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66. Considering the elements F, Cl, O and N, the correct order of their chemical reactivity in terms of oxidising
property is
(1) F > Cl > O > N
(2) F > O > Cl > N
(3) Cl > F > O > N
(4) O > F > N > Cl
67. If q1 is the specific charge (e/m) of cathode rays and q2 is that of alpha rays then
(1) q1 = q2
(2) q1 < q2
(3) q1 > q2
(4) None of these
68. Negative electronic energy (negative sign for all values of energy) for hydrogen atom means
(1) The energy of an electron in the atom is lower than the energy of a free electron at infinity which is taken
as zero
(2) When the electron is free from the influence of nucleus it has a negative value which becomes more negative
(3) When the electron is attracted by the nucleus the energy is absorbed which means a negative value
(4) Energy is released by hydrogen atom in ground state
69. If 0 is the threshold wavelength of a metal and is the wavelength of the incident radiation the maximum
velocity of the ejected electrons from the metal would be
1

hc 0 2
(1)

m 0

2hc 0 2
(2)

m 0

(3)

h
0
m

1
2

2
2h
(4)
0
m

70. Which of the following is correct, if for the same element three separate radii 105 nm, 100 nm and
90 nm are reported?
(1) These are van der Waals, metallic and covalent radii respectively
(2) These are metallic, covalent and van der Waals radii respectively
(3) These are covalent, metallic and van der Waals radii respectively
(4) These are metallic, van der Waals and covalent radii respectively

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71. Which of the following hydrocarbons has the lowest dipole moment?
CH 3

(1)
H

CH3
C=C
H

(2) CH3 C C CH3


(3) CH3 CH2 C CH
(4) CH2 = CH C CH
72. In, the reaction,

2Al(s) + 6HCl(aq.) 2Al3+


(aq.) + 6Cl(aq.) + 3H2(g)

(1) 6 L HCl(aq.) is consumed for every 3 L H2(g) produced


(2) 33.6 L H2(g) is produced regardless of temperature and pressure for every mole of Al reacted
(3) 67.2 L H2 (g) at STP is produced for every mole of Al reacted
(4) 11.2 L H2 (g) at STP is produced for every mole of HCl(aq.) consumed
73. Which statement is not correct about NO2?
(1) It is paramagnetic
(2) It forms dimer and paramagnetism is lost
(3) It has one coordinate bond
(4) It has nitrogen oxygen triple bond
74.

A molecule of the type AX5 has square pyramidal shape. Hence, number of lone pairs on A is
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

75. Hybridisation and shape on carbon in short lived species CH22+ is


(1) sp linear
(2) sp2 trignonal
(3) sp3 tetrahedral
(4) None of these
76. Hybridization of nitrogen in following compound CH2 = CH NH2
(1) sp
(2) sp3
(3) sp3d
(4) sp2

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77. The cyanide ion CN and the nitrogen molecule (N2) are isoelectronic. However, in contrast to CN, N2 is
chemically inert due to
(1) Unsymmetrical electron distribution
(2) Low bond energy
(3) Absence of bond polarity
(4) Presence of greater number of electons in bonding
78. Which of the following statements is correct for CsBr3?
(1) It is covalent compound
(2) It contains Cs3+ and Br
(3) It contains Cs+ and Br3
(4) It contains Cs+, Br and lattice Br2 molecule
79. Which has maximum dipole moment?

Cl
(1)

Cl

Cl

Cl
Cl
(2)

Cl
Cl

Cl

(3)

Cl

Cl
(4)

Cl
80. Central O atom in O3 is______hybridized
(1) sp
(2) sp2
(3) sp3
(4) dsp2
81. Which of the following species contain at least one atom that violates the octet rule?
(1) ClO2
(2) F Xe F
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) CCl4

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82. Polarising action of Cd2+ on anions is stronger than that of Ca2+ because
(1) The charges of the ions are same
(2) Their radii are same (Ca2+ = 0.104 nm; Cd2+ = 0.099 nm)
(3) The Ca2+ ion has a noble gas electron configuration, and the Cd2+ ion, has 18 electron configuration of its
outer shell (Fazan rule)
(4) All of these are correct
83. What is the shape of NH3, N(CH3)3 and N[Si(CH3)3] molecules?
(1) Trigonal planar, trigonal pyramidal, square planar respectively
(2) Trigonal pyramidal, trigonal pyramidal, trigonal planar respectively
(3) Tetrahedral, trigonal pyramidal, trigonal pyramidal
(4) Trigonal pyramidal, trigonal planar, octahedral
84. The bond order of the NO bonds in NO3 ion is
(1) 0.33
(2) 1.00
(3) 1.33
(4) 1.50
85. If Aufbau rule is not used, 19th electron in Sc (Z = 21) will have
(1) n = 3, l = 0
(2) n = 3, l = 1
(3) n = 3, l = 2
(4) n = 4, l = 0
86. Number of electrons that F(Z = 9) has in p-orbitals is equal to
(1) Number of electons in s-orbitals in Na
(2) Number of electons in d-orbitals in Fe3+
(3) Number of electons in d-orbitals in Mn
(4) All of these
87. If the carbon atom had electronic configuration 1s6, it would have energy lower than that of normal ground state
configuration 1s2 2s2 2p2, because electrons would be closer to nucleus, yet 1s6 is not observed because it
violates
(1) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
(2) Hunds rule
(3) Paulis exclusion principle
(4) de-Broglie principle
88. Which pair is different from the others?
(1) Li - Mg
(2) Na - K
(3) Ca - Mg
(4) B - Al

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89. Fluorine does not form any polyhalide as other halogens because
(1) It has maximum ionic character
(2) It has low F - F bond energy (38.5 kcal mol1)
(3) Of the absence of d-orbitals in the valence shell of fluorine
(4) It can form H-bonding
90. Most electronegative element out of following is
(1) Tl
(2) In
(3) Ga
(4) Al

[ BIOLOGY]
91. Consider the following three statements (A-C) and select the correct option stating true (T) and false (F).
(A) In animals, growth is seen only upto a certain age and lost cells are not replaced.
(B) Filamentous algae easily multiply by fragmentation.
(C) Reproduction can be an all inclusive defining characteristic of living organisms
A

(1) T

(2) F

(3) F

(4) F

92. Scientific name of wheat is based on agreed principles and criteria which are mentioned in
(1) ICBN
(2) ICZN
(3) ICNB
(4) More than one option is correct
93. Given below are two statements :
Statement-A : The production of progeny possessing features more or less similar to those of parents.
Statement-B : The ability to sense their surroundings or environment and respond to these environmental stimuli.
Which of the following statement explains the most obvious and technically complicated feature of all living
organisms?
(1) Statement A only
(2) Statement B only
(3) Both statements A and B
(4) Neither statement A nor B

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94. Canis, Felis and Homo belong to


(1) Same order
(2) Same class
(3) Same family
(4) Same genus
95. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option.
Column I

Column II

a. Convolvulaceae

(i) Assemblage of families

b. Polymoniales

(ii) Group of related genera

c.

(iii) Related classes are assigned to this category

Mammalia

d. Chordata

(iv) Category includes related orders

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)


(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
96. In taxonomic hierarchy of housefly, which of the following group of taxa will have less number of similarities than
the other ones?
(1) Muscidae
(2) Diptera
(3) Musca
(4) Insecta
97. Read the following statements :
(a) Lower the taxa, less are in characteristics that the members within the taxon share.
(b) Petunia and Datura are placed in same family
(c) Families are characterised on the basis of both vegetative and reproductive features of plant species.
(d) Classification is a single step process.
How many of the given statement/s is/are correct?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
98. How many procedures/techniques are not developed to store and preserve the specimens for further studies.

Flora, Museum, Zoological parks, Botanical gardens, Herbarium, Mammals, Catalogues


(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

19/34

All India Aakash Test Series-2017

Online Test - 1 (Objective)

99. Given below are the taxonomic categories of mango


(i) Family

(b)

(iii) Order

(ii)

(a)

Dicotyledonae
(c)

Choose the option which correctly fills up the given blanks (a) , (b) and (c) .

(1) Solanaceae

Division

Poales

(2) Poaceae

Class

Polymoniales

(3) Convolvulaceae Division


(4) Anacardiaceae

Class

Sapindales
Sapindales

100. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. the taxonomical aid used for identification of plants and animals based on
similarities and dissimilarities.
(1) It is based on the contrasting characters generally in a pair
(2) It represents the choice made between two opposite options
(3) This is not generally analytical in nature
(4) Each character of the statement in this taxonomic aid is called a lead
101. In which of the following, growth and reproduction are linked and mutually exclusive events?
(1) Amoeba
(2) Triticum
(3) Bacteria
(4) More than one option is correct
102. Given below are some criteria for classification :

Development process, Cell structure, External structure, Ecological information, Base sequencing
How many criteria are considered by modern taxonomist for classification?
(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Five
103. All of the following protists prepare their food from CO2 and water by utilising sunlight with the help of
photosynthetic pigments, except
(1) Dinoflagellates
(2) Diatoms
(3) Euglena
(4) Paramoecium

20/34

Online Test - 1 (Objective)

All India Aakash Test Series-2017

104. In case of plants, classes with a few similar characters are assigned to a higher category called
(1) Kingdom
(2) Family
(3) Phylum
(4) Division
105. Which of the following taxonomic aid is related to ex-situ conservation strategies of organisms?
(1) Botanical garden
(2) Museum
(3) Zoological parks
(4) More than one option is correct
106. Choose the incorrect match :
(1) Monograph Information of any one taxon
(2) Flora

Book containing information about plants found in particular area

(3) Catalogue

Alphabetical arrangement of species of a particular place

(4) Manual

Provide information of habitat and distribution of various plants of a given area

107. Consider the features given below :


(i) Lack cell wall
(ii) Lack ATP generating system
(iii) Are facultative anaerobes
(iv) Are sensitive to penicillin
(v) Contain muramic acid in cell wall
Choose the correct option w.r.t. the smallest free living monerans.
(1) All the correct
(2) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(3) (ii), (iv) and (v) are incorrect
(4) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
108. Complete the following analogy :
Prions : Kuru disease : : Viroids : _________
(1) Potato leaf roll disease
(2) Mad cow disease
(3) Scrapie disease in sheep
(4) Potato spindle tuber disease

21/34

All India Aakash Test Series-2017

Online Test - 1 (Objective)

109. Match the column w.r.t. virus and their genetic material.
Column I

Column II

a. Influenza virus

(i) dsRNA

b. Small pox virus

(ii) ssDNA

c.

Reo virus

(iii) ssRNA

d. 174 phage

(iv) dsDNA

(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)


(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
110. Paramoecium was placed along with Chlorella and Chlamydomonas in same kingdom by all, except
(1) Linnaeus in two kingdom system
(2) Haeckel in three kingdom system
(3) Whittaker in five kingdom system
(4) Copeland in four kingdom system
111. Photosynthetic autotrophic organisms with cellular body organisation are included in how many kingdoms in
Whittakers system?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
112. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. respiration in bacteria.
(1) Obligate aerobes

Bacillus subtilis

(2) Faultative anaerobes Pseudomonas


(3) Obligate anaerobes

Clostridium

(4) Facultative aerobes

Halobacterium

113. Ancient bacteria of marshy habitats are


(1) Capable of converting methane into CO2, methanol and formic acid
(2) Chemoheterotroph
(3) Present in gut of several ruminant animals
(4) More than one option is correct

22/34

Online Test - 1 (Objective)

All India Aakash Test Series-2017

114. Consider the following characters:


(a) Gram negative photosynthetic prokaryotes
(b) Most primitive organisms to have oxygenic photosynthesis
(c) Have chlorophyll a similar to green plants
(d) Cell membrane lacks sterols
The given characters are correct for
(1) Nostoc
(2) Mycoplasma
(3) Thermoproteus
(4) Halococcus
115. Which one of the following statements is incorrect for the sole members of kingdom Monera?
(1) Cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan
(2) Membrane bound cell organelles are absent
(3) Ribosome are of 80 S type
(4) Respiratory enzymes are associated with their plasma membrane
116. Choose the correct set which includes disease caused by a bacterium
(1) Mumps, cholera, typhoid
(2) Tetanus, typhoid, measles
(3) Pneumonia, influenza, bunchy top of banana
(4) Citrus canker, cholera, typhoid
117. All of the following are living nature of virus, except
(1) Presence of genetic material
(2) Infectivity and host specificity
(3) Ability to get crystallised
(4) Occurrence of mutations
118. Select the correct statements for lichens
(a) They are perennial
(b) Their growth is slow in polluted air
(c) Dominant partner is sac fungi
(d) Phycobiont is mostly a members of phaeophyceae
(1) (a) & (b) only
(2) (b) & (c) only
(3) (a) & (c) only
(4) (b) & (d) only

23/34

All India Aakash Test Series-2017

Online Test - 1 (Objective)

119. All of the following are holophytic protists with heterokont flagella, except.
(1) Euglena
(2) Diatoms
(3) Gonyaulax
(4) Noctiluca
120. The unicellular organisms which are believed to be primitive relatives of animals possess / have
(1) Heterotrophic mode of nutrition
(2) Silica shell in most forms
(3) Anaerobic respiration in all members
(4) Only flagella for locomotion
121. Which of the following forms a connecting link with plants, animals and fungi?
(1) Protistan fungi
(2) Euglena
(3) Club fungi
(4) Sac fungi
122. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. saprophytic protists
(1) The spore possess true walls
(2) Spores are dispersed by air currents
(3) During unfavourable conditions, the plasmodium differentiates and forms fruiting bodies
(4) Their body moves along decaying twigs and leaves engulfing inorganic material
123. Which of the following does not form the basis for the division of the kingdom fungi into various classes?
(1) Mode of spore formation
(2) Fruiting bodies
(3) Morphology of mycelium
(4) Mode of nutrition
124. Which of the following fungus belongs to the same class to which the fungal partner in case of ectomycorrhiza
belongs?
(1) Rhizopus
(2) Saccharomyces
(3) Ustilago
(4) Colletotrichum

24/34

Online Test - 1 (Objective)

All India Aakash Test Series-2017

125. In which of the following sex organs are absent?


(1) Aspergillus
(2) Claviceps
(3) Agaricus
(4) Neurospora
126. Choose the correct option w.r.t. given fungus A and B
Fungus A : The bread mould.
Fungus B : Fungi causing black rust of wheat.
(1) Fungus A belongs to class ascomycetes while B belongs to class basidiomycetes
(2) Mycelium of fungus A is coenocytic while in fungus B is septate
(3) The other examples of classes to which fungus A and fungus B belong are Ustilago and Neurospora
respectively
(4) Asexual spores are not found in both fungus A and B
127. All of the following are common characters of Penicillium and Agaricus, except
(1) Septate and branched mycelium
(2) Presence of fruiting bodies
(3) Presence of conidia
(4) More than one option is correct
128. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. fungus.
(1) Yeast is used to make bread and beer
(2) Fungi form fruiting bodies in which reduction division occurs
(3) The network of mycelium is known as hyphae
(4) Fungi show great diversity in habitat and morphology of mycelium
129. Consider the organisms mentioned in box.

Albugo, Saccharomyces, Rhizopus, Claviceps, Colletotrichum, Alternaria, Agaricus, Aspergillus


How many of them belong to class ascomycetes of kingdom fungi?
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

25/34

All India Aakash Test Series-2017

Online Test - 1 (Objective)

130. Bacteria reproduce mainly by


(1) Conjugation
(2) Endospore formation
(3) Transformation
(4) Binary fission
131. Sexual reproduction by conjugation produces resting diploid spore in the life cycle of
(1) Anabaena, Puccinia
(2) Rhizopus, Mucor
(3) Ustilago, Puccinia
(4) Claviceps, Nostoc
132. Which one of the following sets in the option (1) to (4) is not correctly categorised with one exception in it?

Fungus

Characters

Exception

(1) Claviceps, Aspergillus,


Albugo

Asexual spores are produced Albugo


exogenously

(2) Neurospora, Puccinia,


Trichoderma

Sexual spores are present

Trichoderma

(3) Mucor, Penicillium,


Alternaria

Septate mycelium

Mucor

(4) Morels, Puff balls,


Mushrooms

Edible fungus

Morels

133. A large number of members of deuteromycetes are


(1) Saprophytes
(2) Parasites
(3) Edible
(4) Decomposers of litters
134. Select the wrong match.
(1) Neurospora

Zoospore

(2) Rust fungi

Basidiospore

(3) Club fungi

Most advanced and commonly seen fungi

(4) Aspergillus

Karyogamy is delayed after plasmogamy

135. Which of the following undergoes rapid multiplication that they make the sea appear red?
(1) Diatoms
(2) Entamoeba
(3) Gonyaulax
(4) Alternaria

26/34

Online Test - 1 (Objective)

All India Aakash Test Series-2017

136. Which of the following is strongly associated with cephalization?


(1) Radial symmetry
(2) Biradial symmetry
(3) Asymmetry
(4) Bilateral symmetry
137. Find out the incorrect statement.
(1) During embryonic development, primary germ layers appear for the first time in gastrula stage
(2) A fixed animal generally possesses radial symmetry
(3) A coelom derived from blastocoel is known as haemocoel
(4) Metamerism is first seen in annelida
138. Identify the deuterostomic animals.
(1) Hydra, Ctenoplana, Fasciola
(2) Dentalium, Octopus, Periplaneta
(3) Dugesia, Leucosolenia, Hormiphora
(4) Ophiothrix, Antedon, Balanoglossus
139. Which one of the following phyla is correctly matched with its two general characteristics?
(1) Echinodermata

Pentamerous radial symmetry and mostly external fertilization

(2) Chordata

Notochord at some stage and dorsal single solid nerve cord

(3) Porifera

Water vascular system with totipotent cells archaeocytes

(4) Mollusca

Normally viviparous and development through a trochophore or veliger larva

140. Match the following


Column I

Column II

a. Ambystoma

(i) Amphiblastula larva

b. Cnidaria

(ii) Doliolaria larva

c.

(iii) Trochophore larva

Scypha

d. Antedon

(iv) Planula larva

e. Polychaeta

(v) Axolotl larva

(1) a(iv), b(v), c(i), d(iii), e(ii)


(2) a(v), b(iv), c(i), d(ii), e(iii)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii), e(iv)
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv), e(v)

27/34

All India Aakash Test Series-2017

Online Test - 1 (Objective)

141. Which one of the following groups of three animals each is correctly matched with their one characteristic
feature?
Animals

Features

(1) Liver fluke, sea cucumber, cockroach

Bilateral symmetry

(2) Millipede, Pheretima, frog

Metameric segmentation

(3) Sepia, Cucumaria, Saccoglossus

Deuterostomic condition

(4) Nereis, leech, Antedon

Schizocoelom

142. What is left after a bath sponge disintegrates and dries?


(1) Calcium carbonate crystals
(2) Silica granules only
(3) Spongin fibres only
(4) Silica granules and spongin fibres
143. Sponge cells that store reserve food material in the form of glycogen are
(1) Archaeocytes
(2) Trophocytes
(3) Thesocytes
(4) Scleroblast
144. Digestion in coelenterata occurs in
(1) Cells only
(2) Gastrovascular cavity only
(3) Gastrovascular cavity and cells both
(4) Pericardial cavity
145. Which one is mismatched?
(1) Aurelia

Sea water

(2) Gorgonia

Sea water

(3) Hydra gangetica

Fresh water

(4) Hydra vulgaris

Sea water

146. Find out incorrect statement :


(1) Shedding of proglottids in tapeworm is called apolysis
(2) Powerful suckers found in tapeworms are meant for attachment and sucking food from host
(3) Dugesia in free living
(4) In Schistosoma, gynaecophoric canal lodges female

28/34

Online Test - 1 (Objective)

All India Aakash Test Series-2017

147. Syncytial epidermis is present in


(1) Ascaris
(2) Periplaneta
(3) Housefly
(4) Nereis
148. The sequence of layers of body wall in Ascaris is
(1) Cuticle - epidermis - circular muscle layer
(2) Cuticle - epidermis - longitudinal muscle layer
(3) Cuticle - epidermis - longitudinal muscle layer - circular muscle layer
(4) Cuticle - epidermis - circular muscle layer - longitudinal muscle layer
149. Which of the following group belongs to monogenetic parasites?
(1) Ascaris, Enterobius, Ancyclostoma
(2) Taenia solium, Fasciola, Plasmodium
(3) Fasciola, Ancyclostoma, Ascaris
(4) Wuchereria, Ancyclostoma, Ascaris
150. Locomotory organs of annelida are
(1) Setae in earthworm
(2) Suckers in leech
(3) Setae and parapodia in Nereis
(4) All of these
151. Which of the following is absent in the coelomic fluid of earthworm?
(1) Cells
(2) Proteins, aminoacids
(3) Salts
(4) Haemoglobin
152. Which of the following features is common in silverfish, cockroach, prawn, scorpion?
(1) Three pairs of legs and segmented body
(2) Jointed appendages and two pairs of antennae
(3) Chitinous exoskeleton and cephalothorax
(4) Chitinous exoskeleton and jointed appendages

29/34

All India Aakash Test Series-2017


153. The pigment haemocyanin is found in
(1) Annelida
(2) Chordata
(3) Class insecta
(4) Mollusca
154. In mollusca, the shell is secreted by
(1) Pericardium
(2) Foot
(3) Mantle
(4) Ctenidium
155. Torsion is the characteristic of
(1) Unio
(2) Mytilus
(3) Pila
(4) Neopilina
156. Which of the following does not have excretory system?
(1) Petromyzon
(2) Sepia
(3) Asterias
(4) Balanoglossus
157. Select the correct statement :
(1) All annelids have parapodia and setae
(2) All molluscs have mantle cavity
(3) All anthropods have at least one pair of antenna
(4) All platyhelminthes are parasites
158. Proboscis gland in Balanoglossus is associated with
(1) Digestion
(2) Respiration
(3) Excretion
(4) Circulation
159. Common characteristic of all vertebrates without exception is
(1) Presence of well developed skull
(2) Exoskeleton
(3) Two pairs of functional appendages
(4) Division of body into head, neck, trunk and tail

30/34

Online Test - 1 (Objective)

Online Test - 1 (Objective)

All India Aakash Test Series-2017

160. Which one of the following is a chordate but not a vertebrate?


(1) Sea mouse
(2) Sea lion
(3) Sea squirt
(4) Sea cow
161. Which of the following statements is not true for Agnatha?
(1) They are without jaws and scales
(2) They have bony endoskeleton
(3) They have notochord throughout their lives
(4) They do not have stomach and pancreas
162. Which one of the following groups is poikilothermous?
(1) Petromyzon, Aptenodytes, Macropus, Rana
(2) Petromyzon, Exocoetus, Pristis, Hemidactylus
(3) Charcharodon, Pristis, Pavo, Ornithorhyncus
(4) Varanus, Apteryx, Elephas, Camelus
163. Presence of claspers is an important character in
(1) Scoliodon
(2) Hippocampus
(3) Echeneis
(4) Exocoetus
164. Cartilagenous fishes have
(A) Scroll valve
(B) Placoid scales
(C) Operculum
(D) Cycloid scales
(E) Cloaca
(F) Clasper in male
(1) (A), (B), (E), (F)
(2) (B), (E), (F)
(3) (A), (B), (F)
(4) (A), (B), (E)

31/34

All India Aakash Test Series-2017


165. Which of the following traits is not a characteristic feature of amphibians?
(1) Cutaneous respiration, mesonephric kidney
(2) Thin skin without scales
(3) Amniotic eggs and megalecithal condition
(4) Requirement of water for reproduction
166. Dermal scales embedded in the skin are present in
(1) Ichthyophis
(2) Necturus
(3) Siren
(4) Proteus
167. Jacobsons organ is related to
(1) Sight
(2) Smell
(3) Touch
(4) Taste
168. Post anal tail is present in
(1) Scorpion
(2) Cobra
(3) Earthworm
(4) Prawn
169. Urinary bladder is absent in
(1) Lizards
(2) Frogs
(3) Mammals
(4) Snakes and crocodiles
170. Which of the following is called living fossil?
(1) Limulus
(2) Neopilina
(3) Neopilina and Limulus
(4) Neopilina, Limulus, Tuatara

32/34

Online Test - 1 (Objective)

Online Test - 1 (Objective)

All India Aakash Test Series-2017

171. Which one of the following is poisonous?


(1) Python
(2) Hemidactylus
(3) Heloderma
(4) Typhlops
172. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(1) Spiny tailed lizard

Uromastix

(2) Draco

Tree lizard

(3) Gila monster

Heloderma

(4) Glass snake

Ophiosaurus

173. Syndactyly, prehensile tail, bifid tongue and viviparity are the unique features of
(1) Chameleon
(2) Macropus
(3) Spider monkey
(4) Rhesus monkey
174. In singing birds, the sound is produced by the
(1) Lungs
(2) Syrinx
(3) Air sacs
(4) Larynx
175. Which of the following characters is exclusive to mammals?
(1) Presence of a four-chambered heart
(2) Presence of diaphragm and mammary gland
(3) Presence of dicondylic skull
(4) Presence of 12 pairs cranial nerves
176. Which character is incorrect regarding prototherian?
(1) Mammals with single opening called cloaca
(2) No external ear pinna
(3) Testis extra abdominal
(4) Uterus absent

33/34

All India Aakash Test Series-2017

Online Test - 1 (Objective)

177. Which of the following characters is not exclusively of mammals?


(1) Only left aortic / systemic arch persists in adult
(2) Corpus callosum connects cerebral hemispheres
(3) Erythrocytes are small, circular and without nucleus
(4) Metanephric kidney
178. Which is not correct for birds?
(1) Pneumatic bones
(2) Amniotes
(3) Lungs with air sacs
(4) Exothermic
179. Feathers seen only in nestlings are
(1) Filoplumes
(2) Down
(3) Quill
(4) Contour
180. The poison glands of snakes are modified
(1) Salivary glands
(2) Mammary glands
(3) Endocrine gland
(4) Exocrine gland

34/34

Online Test - 1 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]

All India Aakash Test Series-2017

ONLINE TEST 1
ANSWERS
1.

(1)

37.

(3)

73.

(4)

109. (3)

145. (4)

2.

(3)

38.

(2)

74.

(4)

110. (1)

146 (2)

3.

(4)

39.

(4)

75.

(1)

111. (2)

147. (1)

4.

(3)

40.

(3)

76.

(4)

112. (4)

148. (2)

5.

(4)

41.

(3)

77.

(3)

113. (3)

149. (1)

6.

(4)

42.

(1)

78.

(3)

114. (1)

150. (4)

7.

(1)

43.

(1)

79.

(1)

115. (3)

151. (4)

8.

(1)

44.

(2)

80.

(2)

116. (4)

152. (4)

9.

(3)

45.

(1)

81.

(3)

117. (3)

153. (4)

10.

(4)

46.

(2)

82.

(3)

118. (3)

154. (3)

11.

(2)

47.

(3)

83.

(2)

119. (2)

155. (3)

12.

(1)

48.

(4)

84.

(3)

120. (1)

156. (3)

13.

(3)

49.

(2)

85.

(3)

121. (1)

157. (2)

14.

(2)

50.

(2)

86.

(4)

122. (4)

158. (3)

15.

(1)

51.

(4)

87.

(3)

123. (4)

159. (1)

16.

(1)

52.

(4)

88.

(1)

124. (3)

160. (3)

17.

(1)

53.

(1)

89.

(3)

125. (3)

161. (2)

18.

(2)

54.

(3)

90.

(1)

126. (2)

162. (2)

19.

(2)

55.

(1)

91.

(4)

127. (3)

163. (1)

20.

(2)

56.

(4)

92.

(1)

128. (3)

164. (1)

21.

(3)

57.

(2)

93.

(2)

129. (2)

165. (3)

22.

(2)

58.

(3)

94.

(2)

130. (4)

166. (1)

23.

(3)

59.

(1)

95.

(1)

131. (2)

167. (2)

24.

(2)

60.

(3)

96.

(4)

132. (4)

168. (2)

25.

(1)

61.

(4)

97.

(2)

133. (4)

169. (4)

26.

(4)

62.

(3)

98.

(3)

134. (1)

170. (4)

27.

(3)

63.

(3)

99.

(4)

135. (3)

171. (3)

28.

(1)

64.

(2)

100. (3)

136. (4)

172. (2)

29.

(1)

65.

(2)

101. (2)

137. (3)

173. (1)

30.

(2)

66.

(2)

102. (3)

138. (4)

174. (2)

31.

(1)

67.

(3)

103. (4)

139. (1)

175. (2)

32.

(2)

68.

(1)

104. (4)

140. (2)

176. (3)

33.

(4)

69.

(2)

105. (4)

141. (2)

177. (4)

34.

(3)

70.

(1)

106. (4)

142. (3)

178. (4)

35.

(4)

71.

(2)

107. (3)

143. (3)

179. (2)

36.

(1)

72.

(4)

108. (4)

144. (3)

180. (1)

1/19

All India Aakash Test Series-2017

Online Test - 1 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]

Hints to Selected Questions


[ PHYSICS ]
1.

Answer (1)
Millikan oil drop experiment is for determination of charge.

2.

Answer (3)
Lightning was discovered by Franklin.

3.

Answer (4)
Range of nuclear force is for order 1016 m

4.

Answer (3)

T
5.

F E
J
2
l
A m

Answer (4)
Rate of change of velocity is acceleration which is vector quantity while others are scalars.

6.

Answer (4)

7.

F / A MLT 2

= ML1T2
L2

Answer (1)
0.00701 = 7.01 103
10 103 = 102

8.

Answer (1)
0

x v 0 M LT
L
1
a

9.

Answer (3)
KE =

1
mv2
2

k
m
v
100
100 2
100 = 2 + 2 3 = 8%
k
m
v

10. Answer (4)


y = a sint + bt + ct2 cost
a=y
b =

y
t

c=

y
t2

abc =

2/19

y3
y
=
3
t
t

Online Test - 1 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]

All India Aakash Test Series-2017

11. Answer (2)

ML2T 2 ML2T 1
E J2

= M0L0T0
1 3 2 2
5
M 5 G2

M M LT
12. Answer (1)
X=

a y2 b2
c3

1 a
b
c
X
100 2
100 3
100
100 =
2 a
b
c
X

1
1+23+32
2

= 12.5%
13. Answer (3)
x = at2 bt3

dx
= 2at2 3bt2
dt
d 2x
= 2a 6bt = 0
dt 2

t=

a
3b

14. Answer (2)

Vav =

3v1 v 2 v 3
s

s
s
s v1 v 2 v 2v 3 v1v 3
3 3 3
v1 v 2 v 2

15. Answer (1)

2v

dv
18 x
dx

a= v

dv
9x
dx

16. Answer (1)


v = u + at
30 = u + 2a
60 = u + 4a
u =0

3/19

All India Aakash Test Series-2017


17. Answer (1)
v u 27.5

2.75 ms2
t
10

a=

In (10 s) s1 = 0 10 +

1
2.75 102 = 137.5 m
2

In (20 s) s2 = 0 20 +

1
2.75 202 = 550 m
2

s2 s1 = 550 137.5 m = 412.5 m.


18. Answer (2)
g
1
g(3)2 =
(2t 1)
2
2

t=5s
19. Answer (2)
ax =

d 2x
= 8,
dt 2

a=

ax2 ay2 = 8 m/s2

ay =

d 2y
=0
dt 2

20. Answer (2)


v = 3x2 2x

dv
= 6x 2
dx
a=v

dv
= (3x2 2x) (6x 2)
dx

= (12 4) (12 2) = 80 ms2


21. Answer (3)
v2 u2 = 2as
(3v)2 (v)2 = 2 gs
s=

4v 2
g

22. Answer (2)


200 = 2u

1
a4
2

u a = 100
200 + 220 = u (2 + 4)
u 3a = 70

...(i)
1
(2 + 4)2 a
2

...(ii)

u = 115 cm s1, a = 15 cm s2
v = u at = 115 5 7 = 10 cm s1

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Online Test - 1 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]

Online Test - 1 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]

All India Aakash Test Series-2017

23. Answer (3)

1 2
gT
2

h=

1 T
h 8h
= h g h
2 3
9
9

24. Answer (2)


x = a cos t
v = a sin t
Acceleration =

dv
a cost
dt

25. Answer (1)


v = 2t
dv
= 2 ms2
dt

a=

s = ut +

1 2
at = 9 m
2

26. Answer (4)


h1 =

1 2
1
gt =
10 22 = 20 m
2
2

in next 2 s h2 = h1 = 20 m
height after next 2 s
= (H 20) 20 = H 40
27. Answer (3)
h=

1 2
1
gt , h 20 = g (t 1)2
2
2

t = 2.5 s and h = 31.25 m


28. Answer (1)
t=

Relative distance
300
=
= 30 s
10
Relative speed

29. Answer (1)

u
=1s
g
u = 10
u2
H=
=5m
2g

5/19

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30. Answer (2)
h = ut1

1 2
gt1
2

2u
= t1 + t2
g
u=

1
g(t + t2)
2 1

h=

1
1
1
g t12 t1 t 2 gt12 g t1 t 2
2
2
2

31. Answer (1)


x 3

t=

x=t3

x = t2 6t + 9
v = 2t 6 = 0
t=3s
32. Answer (2)

x
t
t
t1 = 2v , x1 = v1 2 , x2 = v2 2
2
2
0
x1 + x2 = (v1+ v2)

t2
2

t
x
v1 v 2 2
2
2

x
t2 = v v
1
2

vmean =

2v v v 2
x
x

0 1
x
x
t
2v 0 v1 v 2

2v 0 v1 v 2

33. Answer (4)


Minimum velocity =
34. Answer (3)
vav =

2x
x x

v1 v 2

2 1
1

v v1 v 2

6/19

1 1
=0
t

Online Test - 1 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]

Online Test - 1 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]

All India Aakash Test Series-2017

35. Answer (4)


h=

1 2
g t1
2

1
2
2h = g t1 t 2
2

1
2
3h = g t1 t 2 t3
2

2h
g

t1 =

4h
g

t1 + t2 =

6h
g

t1 + t2 + t3 =

t2 2 1
t3 3 2
t1 : t2 : t3 = 1 : 2 1 : 3 2
36. Answer (1)

r = at i bt2 j

x = at t =

x
a
2

y=

bt2

b 2
x
= b 2 x
a
a

37. Answer (3)


u+

a
a
(2t 1) + u + (2(t + 1) 1) = 100
2
2

2u + 2ft = 100
v = u + ft = 50 cm/s
38. Answer (2)
Total length = 50 + 50 = 100 m
Relative velocity = 10 + 15 = 25 m/s
Time taken =

100
=4s
25

7/19

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Online Test - 1 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]

39. Answer (4)


t=

d
d

v u v u

t=

2dv
v u2
2

vav =

2d
2d
v 2 u2

t
v
2dv
2

v u2

40. Answer (3)


v = 0 + na

a=

v
n

1 2
1
2
1
2v n 1

2
2
s(n) s(n 2) = 0 an 0 a n 2 = a n n 2

2

2

2
n

41. Answer (3)


2s
2s

t0
a2
a1

2 a1 s 2 a2 s

a1 a2
a1a2
1
1

a2
a1

v0

t0

42. Answer (1)


x

dx vdt
x = v0 t

gt 2 ft 3

2
3

at t = 1
x = v0

g f

2 3

43. Answer (1)


x=

A t3 B t4

3
4

x (1) =

A B

3 4

x (2) =

8A
4B
3

x(2) x(1) =

8/19

7 A 15 B

3
4

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All India Aakash Test Series-2017

44. Answer (2)


v = v12 v 22 2 v1v 2 cos90
=

3 2 4 2 0 5m/s

a=

v
5

0.5 m/s2
t
10

45. Answer (1)


v=

dy
b 2ct 3dt 2
dt

u = b
a = 2c 6dt
a(t = 0) = 2c

[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. Answer (2)
1 m3 = 1000 L
Number of moles of a gas =

Vol L at NTP
= 44.6 moles
22.4

47. Answer (3)


Number of atoms in one molecule of (NH4)2Cr2O7 = 19
1 mole = 6.02 1023 molecules
Number of atoms in one mole of (NH4)2Cr2O7
= 6.022 1023 19
= 114.47 1023 atoms
48. Answer (4)
B is Limiting Reagent,
Hence, 4 moles of C is formed.
49. Answer (2)
Let metal is M
Metal carbonate = M CO3
MCO3 CO2
2g

448 ml

If 448 ml of CO2 is produced from 2 g of MCO3 then 224400 ml of CO2 is produced from

2
22400 = 100 g
448

Atomic Mass of Metal = 100 60 = 40


Equivalent mass of metal =

40
{ Metal is divalent}
2

9/19

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Online Test - 1 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]

50. Answer (2)

As orbital is dumbell-shaped as has one radial node. Hence, it is 3p orbital.


51. Answer (4)
Fact.
52. Answer (4)
Energy of an electron in an orbit =

RH Z2
n2

Where RH = 13.6 eV/atom


53. Answer (1)
KE =

1
mv2; PE = mv2
2

Energy =

1
mv2
2

54. Answer (3)


According to molecular orbital theory,
In O2+, there is one unpaired electron in *2p orbital
In O2, there are two unpaired electons in *2p orbitals.
55. Answer (1)

2+

O H

H O

Cu
H O
H

O H

Only one H2O molecule is H-bonded.


56. Answer (4)
Fe : [Ar] 4s2 3d6
Fe2+ : [Ar] 3d6
Six d-electrons
Ne : 1s2 2s2 2p6
Mg : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
Fe : [Ar] 4s2 3d6
Cl : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6

10/19

O
S
O

Online Test - 1 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]

All India Aakash Test Series-2017

57. Answer (2)


n = 4, l = 3 i.e., 4F
Number of orbitals = 2(l) + 1 = 2(3) + 1 = 7 orbitals
58. Answer (3)

But

h
h

mv
mp

...(i)

1
mv2 = KE
2

v=

2KE
m

Equation (i) becomes


h
2mKE

...(ii)

But KE = eV
Where V is potential applied
h
2meV

...(iii)

59. Answer (1)


Fact.
60. Answer (3)
In ionic PCl5, it exists as [PCl4]+ [PCl6]
+

Cl
Cl

Cl

Cl

Cl

Cl

Cl
Cl

Number of bonds =
i.e.,

Cl
Cl
4

61. Answer (4)


(a) Bond angle of PH4+ = 109 28
Bond angle of PH3 < B. Angle of PH4+ due to presence of one lone pair.
(b) Covalency of N cannot be more than 4 hence, it cannot expand its octet because of absence of
d-orbitals.
O

(c)

O
O

Oxidation state of Nitrogen in N2O5 is + 5

F
NH3

(d)

11/19

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Online Test - 1 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]

62. Answer (3)


Be3+
Z=4
R 1
1
2
2 2
HZ n1 n2

h1 =

...(i)

As 1 = 2
Putting value of 2 in eqaution (i)
1
1
3
= (4)2 n2 n2
2
1
4
1
1
3
= n2 n2
1
2
64

n1 = 4
n2 = 8
He+
Z=2
h2 =

R 1
1
2
2 2
HZ n1 n2

1
1
2 = (2)2 2

2
2
4

12 3
1 1
16 4

2 = 4 = 4
=
4 16
64
16 4

63. Answer (3)


For n = 1, l = 0, m = 0
and for each value of m, there can be only two values i.e., +

1
1
and
2
2

64. Answer (2)


Pairing of electrons in case of degenerate orbitals can be done only after when each orbital is singly occupied.
65. Answer (2)
Strength of H-bond : H ||||| F > H ||||| O > H ||||| N. But number of H-bonds formed by H2O per molecule is more
than H-F.
66. Answer (2)
Oxidising property can be explained on the basis of electronegativity.
67. Answer (3)
Mass of positive particle is more than electrons Hence, e/m of cathode rays is more.
68. Answer (1)
Negative sign of energy indicates that energy of electron is less in an atom than that of infinity.

12/19

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All India Aakash Test Series-2017

69. Answer (2)


In photoelectric effect
KE = [E E0]
hc hc
1
mv2 =
0
2

0
1
mv2 = hc
2
0

v2 =

2hc 0
m 0

2hc

v=

m 0

70. Answer (1)


van der Waals Radii > Metallic Radii > Covalent Radii
71. Answer (2)
Dipole moment is a vector quantity

CH 3 C C CH 3
= 0 (Symmetrical molecule).
72. Answer (4)
According to stoichiometry, 3 moles of H2 are produced from 6 moles of HCl. Hence, 11.2 L of H2 at STP are
produced from 1 mole of HCl consumed.
73. Answer (4)

N
O

Paramagnetic
NO2 forms dimer hence of one odd electron.
74. Answer (4)
AX5 has square bipyramidal geometry

x
A

x
Square pyramidal

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75. Answer (1)

1
[V + M C + A]
2

H=

For CH22+

1
[4 + 2 2]
2

H=

= 2 ; sp
76. Answer (4)
Lone pair of N-atom is in resonance.
77. Answer (3)
C N

NN

and

Polar

Non-polar

Bond polarity Reactivity.


78. Answer (3)
Cs can have only +1 oxidation state
Cs+ Br3 .
79. Answer (1)

Cl

Cl

Cl

Cl

(1)

Cl

(2)

Cl

Cl

Cl

Cl

(3)

(4)

Cl

Cl

80. Answer (2)

O
O

H = Number of bonds + lP + dative bond


= 2 + 1 = 3.
81. Answer (3)

(1)

-d

Cl pd

(2)

Xe

14/19

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All India Aakash Test Series-2017

82. Answer (3)


Cd2+ has more polarising power due to poor shielding effect of d-subshell.
83. Answer (2)
In case of NH3, there are three bond pairs and one lone pair is present, threfore, pyramidal.
In case of N(CH3)3, three bond pairs and one lone pair.
Pyramidal.
In case of N[Si(CH 3 ) 3 ], lone pair on the nitrogen is transferred to the empty d-orbitals of silicon
{p-doverlap}.
84. Answer (3)
O
N

O
O

N
O

Thus, N O bond order

Number of bonds between two atoms


= Total number of resonating structures

4
= 1.33
3

85. Answer (3)


If Aufbau rule is not used, then,
1s2 < 2s2 = 2p6 < 3s2 = 3p6 = 3d3
n=3
l=2
86. Answer (4)
F : 1s2 2s2 2p5
Na : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
Fe3+ : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5
Mn : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d5
87. Answer (3)
According to Paulis exclusion principle, only two electrons can accommodate same orbital with opposite spin.
88. Answer (1)
Li and Mg are diagonally related
Whereas all other are same group elements.
89. Answer (3)
Fluorine cannot expand its octet due to absence of d-orbitals.
90. Answer (1)
Fact.

15/19

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[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Answer (4)
In animals, lost cells are replaced.
92. Answer (1)
93. Answer (2)
Consciousness is the most obvious and technically complicated feature of living organisms.
94. Answer (2)
Canis, Felis and Homo belong to class mammalia of phylum chordata.
95. Answer (1)
96. Answer (4)
Lower taxa, more are the characteristics that the members within the taxon share.
97. Answer (2)
Classification is not a single step process.
98. Answer (3)
99. Answer (4)
a - Anacardiaceae, b - Class, c - Sapindales
100. Answer (3)
Key are generally analytical in nature.
101. Answer (2)
In higher plants and animals, growth and reproduction linked and are mutually exclusive events.
102. Answer (3)
Base sequencing is not considered by modern taxonomists for classification.
103. Answer (4)
104. Answer (4)
105. Answer (4)
106. Answer (4)
Manual gives complete listing and description of the plant growing in a particular area.
107. Answer (3)
Smallest free living moneran is Mycoplasma.
108. Answer (4)
109. Answer (3)
110. Answer (1)
In two kingdom classification, protozoans were classified under animal kingdom.
111. Answer (2)
Kingdom protista and kingdom plantae.
112. Answer (4)
113. Answer (3)
Bacteria of marshy habitats are methanogens.

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114. Answer (1)


Most primitive organisms to have oxygenic photosynthesis is Cyanobacteria.
115. Answer (3)
Bacteria are sole members of kingdom monera.
116. Answer (4)
117. Answer (3)
Ability to get crystallised is non living nature of virus.
118. Answer (3)
119. Answer (2)
120. Answer (1)
Protozoans are believed to be primitive relatives of animals.
121. Answer (1)
Slime moulds are protistan fungi.
122. Answer (4)
123. Answer (4)
124. Answer (3)
Fungal partner of ectomycorrhiza belongs to basidiomycetes.
125. Answer (3)
In basidiomycetes, sex organs are absent.
126. Answer (2)
Fungus A - Rhizopus
Fungus B - Puccinia
127. Answer (3)
Conidia are present in Penicillium.
128. Answer (3)
The network of hyphae is known as mycelium.
129. Answer (2)
130. Answer (4)
Binary fission
131. Answer (2)
132. Answer (4)
Morels, truffles are edible fungus.
133. Answer (4)
A large number of members of deuteromycetes are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling.
134. Answer (1)
135. Answer (3)

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136. Answer (4)


137. Answer (3)
A coelom derived from blastocoel is known as pseudocoelom.
138. Answer (4)
Deuterostomic condition is found in echinodermata, hemichordata, chordata.
139. Answer (1)
140. Answer (2)
141. Answer (2)
Metameric segmentation is found in annelida, arthropoda, chordata.
142. Answer (3)
Bath sponge is formed of only spongin fibres.
143. Answer (3)
Thesocytes store reserve food material in the form of glycogen.
144. Answer (3)
The digestion is extracellular as well as intracellular in coelenterata.
145. Answer (4)
Hydra species are present in fresh water.
146 Answer (2)
Suckers in tapeworms are meant for attachment only.
147. Answer (1)
148. Answer (2)
Ascaris has only longitudinal muscles.
149. Answer (1)
Taenia solium, Fasciola, Wuchereria are digenetic.
150. Answer (4)
Setae, parapodia and suckers are locomotary organs in annelida.
151. Answer (4)
Earthworm has closed circulatory system.
152. Answer (4)
153. Answer (4)
Haemocyanin pigment is present in crustacea class of phylum arthropoda and phylum mollusca.
154. Answer (3)
155. Answer (3)
156. Answer (3)
No excretory system in echinodermata.
157. Answer (2)
158. Answer (3)
159. Answer (1)

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160. Answer (3)


Herdmania or sea squirt is a urochordate.
161. Answer (2)
162. Answer (2)
Cyclostomata, pisces, amphibia, reptile classes are poikilothermic
163. Answer (1)
Male cartilaginous fishes have modified pelvic fins as a copulatory organs called claspers.
164. Answer (1)
Cartilaginous fishes have scroll valve in the intestine helping in absorption of food as well as preventing the rapid
passage of food.
165. Answer (3)
Amphibia belongs to anamniota group.
166. Answer (1)
167. Answer (2)
168. Answer (2)
Post anal tail is absent in nonchordata.
169. Answer (4)
Urinary bladder is absent in pisces, snakes, crocodiles and aves
170. Answer (4)
171. Answer (3)
172. Answer (2)
173. Answer (1)
174. Answer (2)
In birds the voice is produced by the dilated lower portion of trachea called syrinx.
175. Answer (2)
176. Answer (3)
In prototheria the testes are intra-abdominal.
177. Answer (4)
Metanephric kidney is present in reptiles, aves and mammals.
178. Answer (4)
179. Answer (2)
Down feathers are present in young ones of birds.
180. Answer (1)
Poison glands are modified parotid glands in poisonous snakes.

19/19