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IPPB India Post Payments Bank Officer

Sc. I Pre Model Question Paper


(2016 Predicted Pattern)
English Language
Q1-7. Directions: Read the passage given below and then answer the
questions given below the passage. Some words may be highlighted for your
attention. Pay careful attention.
A fundamental indicator of gender inequality in India, and arguably, one of the most
powerful, is a preference for sons so strong that it is manifested as limiting the birth and
survival of girls. The 2001 census data for India revealed a sharp decline in the sex ratio
for the population age 0-6, from 945 females in 1991 to 927 females per 1,000 males.
The trend in the sex ratio of the under-seven population based on National Family
Health Survey data for the period 1992-93 to 2005-06 also provides evidence of
continued decline and shows that in 2005-06 the under-seven sex ratio had fallen
further to 918 females per 1,000 males.
The decline over time in the under-seven sex ratio can have one or more of mainly three
possible causes: a decrease in the sex ratio at birth through the use of technologies that
enable sex selection; an increase in the mortality of girl children compared with the
mortality of boy children, suggesting intensification of the already documented
discrimination against the girl child (Miller, 1981; Das Gupta, 1987; Kishor, 1993); or a
systematic undercount of female children, compared with male children under the age
of seven.
Even as the role, if any, of the last of these possible causes is debated, it is commonly
accepted that the other two causes, fueled by strong son preference and the low status of
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women in many regions of India, play a substantial role in reducing the under-seven sex
ratio. Indeed, discrimination against the female child was recognized not just by social
scientists but also by policy makers long before the release of the 2001 Census. This is
evident in various policy initiatives undertaken earlier. For example, the Pre-Natal
Diagnostic Techniques (Regulation and Prevention of Misuse) Act prohibiting the use of
prenatal diagnostic techniques for the purpose of prenatal sex determination was passed
as early as 1994 in recognition of the widespread use of ultrasound and related
technologies to eliminate unwanted female fetuses. Further, the National Population
Policy of 2000 explicitly recognized the problem and suggested policy initiatives
directed toward ending discriminatory practices that adversely affect the health of the
girl child (Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, 2000).
Since the pathways to a lower sex ratio of the population age 0-6 mainly involve a low
sex ratio at birth and/or excess female mortality after birth, this chapter examines the
levels of these and related indicators, including the sex ratio of live births by whether the
mother had an ultrasound test during pregnancy. The chapter focuses on the sex ratio at
birth, providing insight into how this ratio varies for all births and last births. The
overall sex ratio at birth can be directly affected by the use of modern technologies that
allow couples to have only children of a desired sex. In addition, where strong couplelevel gender preferences exist, couples are more likely to stop having children only when
their desired sex combination of children has been achieved. This behavior will not
affect the overall sex ratio at birth, but will affect the sex ratios at birth of last births. For
example, in societies with strong son preference, last births are more likely to be male,
and females are more likely to grow up in large families. Thus, an examination of sex
ratios of last births provides insight into the pervasiveness of son preference.

Q1. What was the sex ratio in 1991? Did it decline or increase as per the
2001 census data?

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1. 941 females to 1000 males; declined


2. 942 females to 1000 males; increased
3. 943 females to 1000 males; declined
4. 944 females to 1000 males; increased
5. 945 females to 1000 males; declined
Q2. What are the three main causes behind a declining sex ratio?
1. Increase in sex ratio at birth; increase in girl children mortality; systematic
undercount of female children.
2. Decrease in sex ratio at birth; decrease in girl children mortality; systematic
undercount of female children.
3. Decrease in sex ratio at birth; increase in girl children mortality; systematic
undercount of female children.
4. Decrease in sex ratio at birth; increase in girl children mortality; systematic over
count of female children.
5. Increase in sex ratio at birth; decrease in girl children mortality; systematic
undercount of female children.
Q3. Which act was passed in 1994 to prohibit the detection and abortion of
female fetuses?
1. Post Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Regulation and Prevention of Misuse) Act.
2. Pre Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Regulation and Prevention of Misuse) Act.
3. Pre Natal Definitive Techniques (Regulation and Prevention of Misuse) Act.
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4. Pre Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Regulation and Post of Misuse) Act.


5. Pre National Diagnostic Techniques (Regulation and Prevention of Misuse) Act.
Q4. What affects a lower sex ratio between ages 0 - 6?
1. Low sex ratio at birth.
2. Excess female mortality after birth.
3. Excess male mortality after birth.
4. Options 1 and/or 2.
5. Options 1 and/or 3.
Q5. What are the direct outcomes in societies with strong son preference?
1. Last births are males.
2. Last births are females.
3. Females are more likely to grow up in large families.
4. Options 1 and 3.
5. Options 2 and 3.
Q6. Which of the following sentences correctly summarizes the key findings
in the paragraph?
1. Gender inequality is highly prevalent in India, and it is represented in the skewed sex
ratio of the country. Strong preferences for sons have often lead to detection and
abortion of female foetuses leading to a highly disturbing sex ratio in the age group of 0
6.

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2. Gender equality is highly prevalent in India, and it is represented in the skewed sex
ratio of the country. Strong preferences for sons have often lead to detection and
abortion of female foetuses leading to a highly disturbing sex ratio in the age group of 0
6.
3. Gender inequality is highly prevalent in India, and it is represented in the skewed sex
ratio of the country. Strong preferences for daughters have often lead to detection and
abortion of female foetuses leading to a highly disturbing sex ratio in the age group of 0
6.
4. Gender inequality is highly prevalent in India, and it is represented in the skewed sex
ratio of the country. Strong preferences for sons have often lead to detection and
abortion of male foetuses leading to a highly disturbing sex ratio in the age group of 0
6.
5. Gender equality is highly prevalent in India, and it is represented in the skewed sex
ratio of the country. Strong preferences for daughters have often lead to detection and
abortion of male foetuses leading to a highly disturbing sex ratio in the age group of 0
6.
Q7. Where are you most likely to find this extract?
1. A book on social issues.
2. A book on economics.
3. A research paper on gender inequality.
4. Both 1 and 2.
5. None of the above.
Q8-15. In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been
numbered. The numbers are printed below the passage and against each
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five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out
the appropriate word in each case.
The caste system in India is a system of social __ (A) __ which has pre-modern origins,
was transformed by the British Raj, and is today the basis of reservation in India. Since
time immemorial our social structure has been based on castes which also decided the
specific profession a person could opt for. The dignity of manual labor is yet to be fully
recognized in the minds of certain classes of people. The higher caste people are still __
(B) __ to perform tasks that involve manual labor. Caste system prevents labor __ (C)
__. It restricts the flow of labor from one profession to another according to their
economic needs. The caste system is based on concept of growth of __ (D) __
independent workers. It made ones ability, personal __ (E) __ or diligence meaningless
to bring about a transformation. The caste system developed a __ (F) __ feeling and
hindered national unity. The lower castes were suppressed and __ (G) __ by the higher
castes. They were ill-treated to this extent that even their shadows were considered __
(H) __ by the higher castes.
Q8. Which of these words appropriately fits blank labelled (A)?
1. Stratification
2. Distinction
3. Demarcation
4. Obstruction
5. Evolution
Q9. Which of these words appropriately fits blank labelled (B)?
1. Engaged
2. Dominated
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3. Dominating
4. Averse
5. Hostile
Q10. Which of these words appropriately fits blank labelled (C)?
1. Organization
2. Mobility
3. Efficiency
4. Selection
5. Migration
Q11. Which of these words appropriately fits blank labelled (D)?
1. Rigid
2. Obstinate
3. Self-reliant
4. Inefficient
5. Predetermined
Q12. Which of these words appropriately fits blank labelled (E)?
1. Choice
2. Rights
3. Seek
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4. Endeavor
5. Venture
Q13. Which of these words appropriately fits blank labelled (F)?
1. Parochial
2. Conventional
3. Short-sighted
4. Illiberal
5. Limited
Q14. Which of these words appropriately fits blank labelled (G)?
1. Obsessed
2. Oppressed
3. Raised
4. Lessened
5. Reduced
Q15. Which of these words appropriately fits blank labelled (H)?
1. Profane
2. Secular
3. Insular
4. Inhumane

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5. Hearken
Q16. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is
the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.
Jon Snow was (1)/ the richer man (2)/ in the town and this was proven (3)/ by his
ownership of the castle (4)/.No error (5).
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
Q17. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is
the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.
He was (1)/ quite surprising (2)/ to see his brother talking (3)/ to the policeman in such
an aggressive manner.(4)/ No error (5)
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
Q18. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is
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the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of


punctuation, if any.
India needs a value education system (1)/ who will inculcate values (2)/ among the
students and (3)/enrich their personalities. (4)/ No error (5)
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
Q19. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is
the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.
Global warming could lead (1)/ to a annual decline of (2)/ 3 million tonne in milk
production (3)/ by 2020 (4)/ No error (5)
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
Q20. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is
the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.
The United States of America was being considered (1)/ to be the most (2)/ advanced
country in (3)/ terms of growth and education. (4)/ No error (5)
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1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
Q21. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is
the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.
These particular students (1)/ due to their rowdy behaviour (2)/ are debarring from (3)/
the semester examinations (4)/ No error (5)
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
Q22. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is
the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.
He did not (1)/ mention (2)/ neither the deposit (3)/ or the rate. (4)/ No error (5)
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
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Q23. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is
the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.
Please help Sara (1)/get acquainted with (2)/ all the other (3)/ students of the class. (4)/
No error (5)
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5

Q24. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is
the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.
He usually goes to (1)/ school by car but (2)/ sometimes he goes by foot (3)/ when he
has no other option. (4)/ No Error (5)
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
Q25. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is
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the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of


punctuation, if any.
I have not (1)/ met him (2)/ when that unfortunate event (3)/ took place in his family.
(4)/ No Error (5)
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
Q26-30. Rearrange the following six sentences/ group of sentences (A), (B),
(C), (D), (E), (F) and in proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph;
then answer the questions given below them.
A. In December 2014, the government of Narendra Modi continued to decline
declassification, dropping the law and order rationale, but raising concerns over
Indian international relations.
B. Subsequent Indian government have declined declassification, arguing that it
would cause "law and order problems" in India, along with a potential "spoiling"
Indian relations with other nations.
C. In April 2015, various declassified files from the Indian government revealed that
Bose's family members were "intensively surveyed" by the authorities from 1948
until 1968.
D. Conspiracy theories began immediately after his death, believing that Bose had
not actually died but lived on instead.
E. Bose's family members was incensed at the revelations, arguing that his family
was tried more akin to that of a terrorist than the freedom fighter that Bose was
and demanded the complete declassification of the Netaji files.
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F. These theorists also demanded the declassification of various top secret files in
the Indian government about his death called the "Netaji files".
Q26. Which of the following would be the LAST sentence after
rearrangement?
1. A
2. C
3. D
4. E
5. F
Q27. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence after
rearrangement?
1. C
2. B
3. D
4. E
5. F
Q28. Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence after
rearrangement?
1. A
2. C
3. D
4. E
5. F
Q29. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence after
rearrangement?
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1. E
2. D
3. A
4. C
5. B
Q30. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence after
rearrangement?
1. B
2. A
3. E
4. F
5. C

Quantitative Ability
Q31. Raman borrows some money out of Rs. 8000 at 8 percent and the rest
at 10 percent annum at simple interest. If the total interest on the whole
amount for 3 years is Rs. 2100, what is the ratio of the two parts of money?
1. 5 : 3
2. 31 : 9
3. 3 : 5
4. 2 : 3
5. 7 : 3

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Q32. The average weight of 12 persons is increased by 1.5 kg when one of


them whose weight is 48 kg is replaced by a new man. The weight of the new
man is:
1. 68 kg
2. 75 kg
3. 66 kg
4. 86 kg
5. 67 kg
Q33. Direction: In the following questions two equations numbered I and II
are given. You have to solve both the equations and find relation between x
and y.
I. 14x 21 = 55 5x
II. + 132 49 = 121
1. if x > y
2. if x y
3. if x < y
4. if x y
5. if x = y or the relationship cannot be established.
Q34. Direction: In the following questions two equations numbered I and II
are given. You have to solve both the equations and find relation between x
and y.

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I. 225x2 4 = 0
II. y 225 + 2 = 0
1. x > y
2. x y
3. x < y
4. x y
5. x = y or the relationship cannot be established.
Q35. Direction: In the following questions two equations numbered I and II
are given. You have to solve both the equations and find relation between x
and y.
I. x2 365 = 364
II. y - 324 = 81
1. x > y
2. x y
3. x < y
4. x y
5. x = y or the relationship cannot be established.

Quantitative Aptitude
Q36. In the following question, one or two equation(s) is/are given. You
have to solve both the equations and find the relation between a and b
and mark correct answer.
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I. a2 + 12a + 32 = 0
II. 2b2 + 15b + 27 = 0
1. a > b
2. a b
3. a < b
4. a b
5. a = b or the relation cannot be determined
Q37. In the following question, one or two equation(s) is/are given. You
have to solve both the equations and find the relation between a and b
and mark correct answer.
I. 9a2 114a + 361 = 0
II. b2 = 36
1. a > b
2. a b
3. a< b
4. a b
5. a = b or the relation cannot be determined
Q38. A train leaves Muzaffarpur for Hazipur at 2:15 p.m. and travels at the
rate of 50 kmph. Another train leaves Hazipur for Muzaffarpur at 1:35 p.m.
and travels at the rate of 60 kmph. If the distance between Hazipur and
Muzaffarpur is 590 km at what distance from Muzaffarpur will the two
trains meet?
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1. 290 km
2. 300 km
3. 250 km
4. 275 km
5. 340 km
Q39. What is the depth of a cylindrical tank whose capacity is 2200 cubic metres and
diameter of the base is 14 m?
1. 10 m
2. 8 m
3. 14 m
4. 15 m
5. 14.28 m
Q40. If the numerator of the same fraction is increased by 3 and the
denominator is increased by 1 the fraction becomes 3/4 and If the
numerator of a fraction is increased by 2 and the denominator is increased
by 1, the fraction becomes 5/8 .What is the original fraction?
1. 4/7
2. 1/7
3. 2/7
4. 3/7
5. Data Inadequate
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Q41. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
question?

+ =?
5

1. 1 9

2. 1 9
5

3. 2 9

4. 1 11
5. None of these
Q42. What should come in place of x in the following question?
(62 2 3) + 27 2 - 33 = x2
1. 9
2. 3
3. 7
4. 33
5. None of these
Q43. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
number series?
14, 12, 21, 59, 231, 1149, ?
1. 6987
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2. 6787
3. 6887
4. 6687
5. 6587
Q44. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
number series?
16, 17, 15, 18, 14, ?
1. 10
2. 17
3. 18
4. 20
5. None of these
Q45. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
number series?
2, 26, 144, 590, 1164, ?
1. 1864
2. 1732
3. 1460
4. 1296
5. None of these
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Q46. In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the
wrong number.
1, 3, 10, 21, 64, 129, 356, 777
1. 21
2. 129
3. 10
4. 356
5. None of these
Q47. In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the
wrong number
898, 906, 933, 996, 1122, 1338, 1681
1. 906
2. 933
3. 1122
4. 1338
5. None of these
Q48. In how many ways can a group of 5 children and 2 women be made out
of a total of 7 children and 3 women?
1. 63
2. 90
3. 126
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4. 45
5. 135
Q49. A group of laborers promise to do a piece of work in 16 day, but 5 of
them do not turn up. If the rest of the groups do the work in 20 days, find
the original number of men.
1. 15
2. 25
3. 35
4. 45
5. None of these
Q50. How much water be added to 14 kilolitres of milk worth Rs. 5.40 a
liltre so that the value of the mixture may be Rs. 4.20 a litre?
1. 7 K.L.
2. 6 K.L.
3. 5 K.L.
4. 4 K.L.
5. 8 K.L.
Q51. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
question?
3

4 8 + 2 4 3 8 =?
1. 1
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2.
3. 3
4. 2
5. None of these
Q52. What will come in place of question mark in the following question?
13% of 258 - ? = 10
1. 29.54
2. 22.33
3. 22.45
4. 23.54
5. None of these
Q53. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
question?
212.8 217.2 213.6 = 21?
1. 13.6
2. 12.6
3. 12.8
4. 13.8
5. None of these

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Q54. Coconuts were purchased at Rs. 150 per hundred and sold at Rs. 2 per
coconut. If 2000 coconuts were sold. What was the total profit made?
1. Rs. 500
2. Rs. 1000
3. Rs. 1500
4. Rs. 2000
5. None of these
Q55-59. Directions: Study the following pie-chart carefully to answer these
questions:
Percentage-wise distribution of players who play five different sports:
Total players are 4200, out of which female players are equal to 2000
Total players = 4200

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Female players = 2000

Q55. What is the average number of players (both male and female) who
play Football and Rugby together?
1. 620
2. 357
3. 230
4. 630
5. None of these
Q56. What is the difference between the number of female players who play
Lawn Tennis and the number of male players who play Rugby?

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1. 94
2. 84
3. 320
4. 240
5. None of these
Q57. What is the ratio of the number of female players who play Cricket to
the number of male players who play Hockey?
1. 20 : 7
2. 4 : 21
3. 20 : 3
4. 3 : 20
5. None of these
Q58. What is the total number of the male players who play Football,
Cricket and Lawn tennis together?
1. 1,724
2. 1,734
3. 1,824
4. 1,964
5. None of these

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Q59. The number of male players who play Rugby is approximately what
percentage of the total number of players who play Lawn Tennis?
1. 33
2. 39
3. 26
4. 21
5. 43
Q60. Samiara, Mahira and Kiara rented a set of DVDs at a rent of Rs. 578. If
they used it for 8 hr, 12 h and 14 h respectively, what is Kiaras share of rent
to be paid?
1. Rs. 238
2. Rs. 204
3. Rs. 192
4. Rs. 215
5. None of these
Q.61-65 Directions: Study the tables carefully to answer the questions that
follow:
Number of candidates (in lakhs) appearing in an entrance examination from six
different cities and the ratio of candidates passing and failing the same
City

Number of Candidates 1.25 3.14 1.08 2.27 1.85 2.73


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Ratio of candidates passing and failing within the city


City Passing Failing
A

Q61. Which city has the higher number of students failing the entrance
exam?
1. F
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. None of these
Q62. What is the ratio of the number of candidates failing the exam from
City D to that of those failing the exam from City A?
1. 289: 42
2. 42: 289
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3. 227: 50
4. 50: 227
5. None of these
Q63. The number of candidates appearing for the exam from City C is what
per cent of the number of candidates appearing for the exam from City B?
(rounded off to the nearest integer)
1. 27
2. 34
3. 42
4. 21
5. 38
Q64. The number of candidates passing in the exam from City F is what
percent of the total number of candidates appearing from all the cities
together? (rounded off to two digits after the decimal)
1. 12.93
2. 14.46
3. 10.84
4. 11.97
5. None of these
Q65. What is the number of candidates passing the exam from City E?
1. 13,000
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2. 11,10,000
3. 1,13,000
4. 11,000
5. None of these

Reasoning Ability
Q66-70. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer
the given questions.
In a certain code language:
All my friends are funny is coded as uh dem tur cade los;
All cartoons on nick are funny is coded as dem ruble ter alohas los cade;
Kenny Sebastian is a funny man is coded as ber los tand qwe kle balam;
Kenny and his friends are watching nick is coded as kle tius for tur bom ruble cade.
Q66. What is the code for word my?
1. dem
2. tur
3. los
4. uh
5. Cant be determined.
Q67. How the word nick is coded in the given coded language?
1. alohas
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2. kle
3. ruble
4. pol
5. bom
Q68. What will be the possible code for Kenny is my friend in the given
code language if the code for 'friend' and 'friends' is same?
1. tand kle dem lo
2. qwe kle tur dem
3. cade dem lo kle
4. ber tur kle uh
5. kle uh lo tur
Q69. What will be the possible code for My friends are cartoons in the
given code language?
1. uh tur cade ter
2. tur uh cade ber
3. uh tur cade alohas
4. Either A or B
5. Either A or C
Q70. In a given language, the code ruble tand qwe balam uh ber stands for?
1. A nick funny is my man
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2. My sebastian is a nick man


3. Sebastian is a funny nick man
4. Either 1 or 2
5. Either 2 or 3
Q71. Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to
be true, find which of the conclusion among given three conclusions is /are
definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
Statements:
L M; N M; N < O; Q > O; Q P
Conclusions:
I. O M
II. Q < N
III. M < Q
1. Only III and I are true.
2. Only I and II are true.
3. Only II and III are true.
4. Only III is true.
5. All are true.
Q72. Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to
be true, find which of the conclusion among given three conclusions is /are
definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
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Statements:
B < H; H U; C U; C < K
Conclusions:
I. C H
II. C B
III. U < K
1. Either I or III is true
2. Only II is true
3. Only I and III are true
4. Only III is true
5. All are true
Q73. Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to
be true, find which of the conclusion among given three conclusions is /are
definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
Statements:
A < B; C B; E = C; D > C
Conclusions:
I. B < D
II. E > A
III. B E
1. Either I or III is true
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2. Only II is true
3. Only I and III are true
4. Only I is true
5. All are true
Q74. Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to
be true, find which of the conclusion among given three conclusions is /are
definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
Statements:
Y>G; G A; E G; R > D; D = G; A < B; R C
Conclusions:
I. G< C
II. Y> B
III. E < C
1. All are true
2. Only I and II are true
3. Either II or III are true
4. Only I and III are true
5. None is true
Q75. Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to
be true, find which of the conclusion among given three conclusions is /are
definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
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Statements:
H> Q; S > R; S = T; Y > T; Q = V;Q R
Conclusions:
I. R V
II. H S
III. Y> R
1. Either I or III is true
2. Only I is true
3. Only III is true
4. Only II and III is true
5. None of these
Q76-78. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer
the given questions.
Seven family members P, U, Q, T, C, G and R are related to each other such that, there
are two couples, each having a child.
The information given regarding them is,
a) C and G are first cousins.
b) P is married to R and likes the movie Transformer.
c) G is Rs niece and both like to watch Battlestar Galactica.
d) Q likes to watch Star Wars like her husband.

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e) U is a grandmother to G and mother of Q, while T is her son in law. U likes classics


Gone with the wind.
f) C likes same movie as his father R.
g) U has 2 children, a girl and a boy.
Q76. Which movie does C likes to watch?
1. Star Wars
2. Battlestar Galactica
3. Transformers
4. Gone with the wind
5. Cannot be determined
Q77. Who are children of U?
1. P and T
2. R and P
3. Q and T
4. Q and R
5. Cannot be determined
Q78. How is P related to U?
1. Son
2. Son in law
3. Daughter
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4. Daughter in law
5. Cannot be determined
Q79. Directions: In the question below are given four statements followed by four
conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions
and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given
statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some cars are jeeps.
All the boxes are jeeps.
All the pens are cars.
No car is bag.
Conclusions:
I. Some cars are boxes.
II. No pen is jeep.
III. Some boxes are bags.
IV. Some bags being jeeps is a possibility.
1. All follows
2. Only I & II follow
3. Only II & IV follow
4. Only IV follows
5. None of these
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Q80. Directions: In the question below are given four statements followed by four
conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions
and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given
statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some rats are cats.
Some cats are dogs.
No dog is cow.
All cows are donkeys.
Conclusions:
I. No cow is cat.
II. Some cats are not cows.
III. Some cats are rats.
IV. Some rats are donkeys.
1. All follows
2. Only II and III follow
3. Only III follows
4. Only I and IV follow
Q81. Directions: In the question below are given four statements followed by four
conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions
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and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given
statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some zips are locks.
Some locks are keys.
No key is a chain.
All chains are latches.
Conclusions:
I. Some zips are chains.
II. Some zips are not keys.
III. Some keys can be latches.
IV. Some locks can be chains.
1. Only I follow
2. Either I or III follows
3. Only II and III follow
4. Only III and IV follow
5. Only IV follows
Q82. Directions: In the question below are given four statements followed by four

conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions
and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given
statements disregarding commonly known facts.
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Statements:
Some sheets are scarves.
No scarves are dresses.
Some dresses are gowns.
Some gowns are clothes.
Conclusions:

I. Some gowns are not scarves.


II. Some sheets are gowns.
III. Some sheets are not gowns.
IV. Some clothes are scarves.
1. Only I follows
2. Either I or II follows
3. Either II or III and I follows
4. Only II &amp; III follow
5. Only III follows
Q83-87. Directions: Study the following information to answer these questions.
Eight people viz, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a straight line facing North. Each
one of them like different colours viz. Green, Blue, Orange, Purple, Red, Yellow, White
and Black but not necessarily in the same order.
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The person who likes Blue sits to the immediate left of D. Neither A nor E is an
immediate neighbor of G. The person who likes Black sits second to the right of G. G sits
third to the right of the person who likes Red. A and E are immediate neighbours of each
other. Neither A nor E either likes Red or likes Black. H sits third to the right of the
person who likes Green. Neither A nor E likes Green. Hs does not like Black. Only two
people sit between E and the person who likes White. Only one person sits between G
and B. C likes Purple. E likes Yellow whereas A likes Orange. Person who likes Red is
sitting at extreme left.
Q83. Which of the following colour does H like?
1. Purple
2. Yellow
3. White
4. Blue
5. Orange
Q84. Who amongst the following sits exactly between G and B?
1. D
2. The person who likes Purple.
3. The person who likes Green.
4. The person who likes Black.
5. A

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Q85. H is related to White in a certain way based on the above arrangement. B is


related to Red following the same pattern. ______ is related to Yellow following the
same pattern.
1. F
2. G
3. A
4. D
5. C
Q86. Which of the following is true regarding D?
1. Only two people sit to the left of D.
2. E and B are immediate neighbors of D.
3. D likes Red.
4. D is sitting second to the right of the person who likes White.
5. None is true.
Q87. How many people sit between D and the person who likes Purple?
1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. Four
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Q88-92. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
Eight members M, N, P, Q, R, S, T and U of a family are sitting around a circular table
with all of them facing outwards. Each one of them has a different brand of car from
Maruti, Ambassador, Toyota, Ford, Tata, Fiat, Mercedes and Renault. There are exactly
3 married couples in the family.
1) Q is the mother of M and R and sits second to the left of R.
2) M who is the father of S and uncle of T sits to the left of person owning Maruti.
3) U is the only sister-in-law of M whereas N owns Fiat and is daughter-in-law of P.
4) The one who owns an Ambassador sits between T and the owner of Tata. T is third to
the left of Q.
5) S is an immediate neighbor of her aunt U who does not sit next to Q.
6) The two youngest members sit next to each other.
7) The Fiat owner sits between Mercedes and Renault owner.
8) Qs husband and son sit next to her. P does not own Renault or Mercedes.
9) T does not have Toyota or Mercedes.
10) Ford is not owned by Ts father
Q88. Which of the following is correct regarding the family?
1. M is the brother of U
2. P is the father of M
3. N is the aunt of S
4. S and T are married couple
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5. None of these
Q89.Who among the following is not a husband wife pair?
1. M and N
2. R and U
3. M and U
4. Q and P
5. None of these
Q90. Who among the following owns Toyota?
1. M
2. R
3. P
4. Q
5. U
Q91. What is the position of Ford owner with respect to the Fiat owner?
1. Third to the left
2. Second to the right
3. Immediate left
4. Third to the right
5. Fourth to the left
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Q92. Who among the following sits between N and owner of Ambassador?
1. M
2. R
3. T
4. Q
5. U
Q93-97. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
3 couples include P, Q, R, S, T and U decide to go for a movie. They like different genres
of movie such that only 2couples out of 3 like to watch the same genre.
Each person at the most like only 2genres.
The different genres are Comedy, Horror, Romcoms and Drama.
Given statements are,
1. P and R like the same genre of movie.
2. P is not married to U or T.
3. Q and S like to watch Horror movies among other things.
4. T alone likes to watch drama.
5. S is neither married to R or Q.
6. T, U and Q like to watch Romcoms.
7. R watches only comedy. S enjoys comedy too.
8. R and their spouse like different genres.
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9. U and their spouse like same genres.


10. Q is not married to T nor S.
Q93. To whom is P possibly married to?
1. R
2. Q
3. S
4. Either a or b
5. Either b or c
Q94. Which of the two couples are likely to like the same genre?
1. P-R and T-U
2. P-S and Q-U
3. P-U and T-S
4. P-R and S-Q
5. P-R and Q-T
Q95. Who is R married to?
1. S
2. T
3. U
4. Q
5. Cant say
Q96. If Q and R are married, who are P and T married to?
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1. S, Q
2. Q, S
3. S, U
4. Each other
5. Cannot be determined
Q97. If R and T are married, who all might like comedy?
1. P, Q, R
2. R and P
3. P, S, R
4. P, S,R,U
5. Cant say for sure.
Q98-99. Directions: Study the information given below carefully and answer the
questions that follow.
Seven villages P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are situated as follows:
T is 2 km to the west Q. U is 2 km to north of P. R is 1 km to west of P.S is 2 km to the
south of V. V is 2 km to the east of R. S is exactly in the middle of Q and T.
Q98. How far is village T from village U?
1. 4 km
2. 20 km
3. 5 km
4. 26 km
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5. None of these
Q99. Which of the two villages are the farthest from one another?
1. R and S
2. T and U
3. U and Q
4. T and V
5. None of these
Q100. Directions: The question below consists of two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are
sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
How is L related to H?
Statements:
I. H is sister of S who is mother of W.
II. L has brothers of which one is W.
1. Data in Statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
2. Data in Statements II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the questions
3. Data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II is sufficient to answer the
question:
4. Data even in both statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer the
questions
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5. Data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer Key to IPPB Officer Sc. I Pre


Model Question Paper

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