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Student ScoreCard
Quantitative Ability

Score:0

Percentile:4

Verbal Ability & Reading Comprehension

Score:0

Percentile:9

Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning

Score:0

Percentile:5

Overall: Overall

Score:0

Percentile:7

Question: 1
Answer the question independently.

1)

32 sq. units

2)

16sq. units

3)

64sq. units

4)

This will not be a closed curve

Explanation:

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Question: 2
Answer the question independently.

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cannot be determined

Explanation:

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Question: 3
Answer the question independently.
Everyday, Deepak rides a bicycle on a road from point A to point B at a constant speed. Buses ply to and fro between points A and B.
Everyday, Deepak, the bus going from A to B and the bus going from B to A meet at a roadside restaurant. Today, Deepak started 30
minutes later than his usual time. As a result, he met the bus going from B to A at a distance 5x short of the restaurant 5 minutes after the
usual time. Similarly, he meets the bus going from A to B at a distance 8x short of the restaurant 10 minutes before the usual time. What is
the ratio of the speeds of Deepak, the bus going from A to B and the bus going from B to A?
1)

1:5:4

2)

2:4:5

3)

1:4:5

4)

2:5:4

Explanation:

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Question: 4

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Answer the question independently.

1)

2.8

2)

3.2

3)

3.4

4)

4.2

Explanation:

Question: 5
Answer the question independently.
In a sequence of numbers with 6000 terms, each term except the first and the last terms is equal to sum of its two neighbouring terms. If
the sum of the first 3 terms of the sequence is 100, what is the sum of the first 3000 terms of the sequence?
Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.
[quizky-text]
1)

2)

3)

4)

More information is needed to answer this question

Explanation:

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Question: 6
Answer the question independently.
In how many ways can six friends be seated in a row having 20 seats such that no two friends occupy adjacent seats?
1)

15P

2)

14P

3)

14P

4)

15P
7

6
6

Explanation:

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Question: 7
Answer the question independently.
Bucket A contains 10 litres of water and bucket B contains 20 litres of alcohol. Initially, 1 litre of water is taken out of bucket A and poured
into bucket B. Then, 1 litre of solution is taken out of bucket B and is poured into bucket A. Which of the following statements is correct?
1)

Quantity of alcohol in bucket A = Quantity of water in bucket B

2)

Quantity of alcohol in bucket B = Quantity of water in bucket A

3)

Quantity of alcohol in bucket A

4)

Quantity of alcohol in bucket A > Quantity of water in bucket B

Explanation:

Question: 8
Answer the question independently.

Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.


[quizky-text]
1)

23

2)

26

3)

77

4)

239

Explanation:

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Question: 9
Answer the question independently.

1)
2)

3)

1+x

4)

Explanation:

Question: 10
Answer the question independently.
If f(x) = x3+ ax2+ bx + c, and f(x) = 0 has two roots, namely x = 1 and x = 2, and f(4) = f(0), then the third root of f(x) = 0 is:

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Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.


[quizky-text]
1)

2)

3)

15

4)

16

Explanation:

Question: 11
Answer the question independently.
A, B, C, D and E are five horses participating in a horse-race. What is the probability that C will be ranked higher than B, who in turn will
be ranked higher than A? (Assume that all horses are equally competent).
1)

2)

3)

4)
Explanation:

Question: 12
Answer the question independently.

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From a circular sheet of paper, the largest possible square is cut out. Squares of side 2 cm are cut out from the four corners of this
square. The remaining sheet is folded to form a rectangular box whose volume is 32 cm 3. What was the area of the circular sheet of
paper?
1)
2)
3)
4)
Explanation:

Question: 13
Answer the question independently.
In a chess tournament, every player plays one match against every other player. Each match can result in a draw or win to one player and
defeat of the other player. Players are awarded 1 point for every win, 0 points for every defeat and 0.5 points for every draw. In all, 4
Russians and more than one American were the only participants in the tournament. Russian players together scored 21 points in the
tournament and all American players scored equal number of non-zero integer number of points. How many points were scored by each
American player?
1)

10

2)

3)

4)

More than one answer possible

Explanation:

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Question: 14
Answer the question independently.
Natural number 'a' is the smallest of 50 consecutive natural numbers. If the sum of these 50 numbersis a perfect square, how many
different values of 'a' are possible?
1)

Zero

2)

One

3)

Two

4)

More than two

Explanation:

Question: 15
Answer the question independently.
If the Cost Price of 2 copies of a book is equal to the Marked Price of one copy of the same book and the Cost Price of 3 copies of the
same book is equal to the Selling Price of 2 copies of the same book, which of the following statements is correct?

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1)

Marked Price of 4 copies of the book is equal to Selling Price of 3 copies of the same book.

2)

Discount of 20% is offered on the Marked Price of the book.

3)

Marked Price of 3 copies of the book is equal to Selling Price of 4 copies of the same book.

4)
Explanation:

Question: 16
Answer the question independently.

1)

2)

3)

4)

None of these

Explanation:

Question: 17
Answer the question independently.
If the sum of four natural numbers in AP is 60 and the sum of their squares is 920, which of the following is the smallest number of the
four?
1)

10

2)

11

3)

12

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4)

13

Explanation:

Question: 18
Answer the question independently.

1)

50!

2)

1275

3)

2550

4)

1250

Explanation:

Question: 19
Answer the question independently.
The present ages of a child and its father are in the ratio 5 : 8 and the present ages of the child and its mother are in the ratio 2 : 3. After
how many years from now will the ratio of the ages of the father and the mother be 11 : 10?
1)

13 years

2)

11 years

3)

10 years

4)

None of these

Explanation:

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Question: 20
Answer the question independently.
In a certain store, Alpesh bought 2 pencils, 7 pens and 3 pouches for Rs. 130. At the same store, it will cost Rs. 162 for 2 pencils, 10 pens
and 1 pouch. How much will it cost for 2 pencils, 1 pen and 7 pouches in that store?
1)

Rs. 44

2)

Rs. 66

3)

Rs. 22

4)

Cannot be determined

Explanation:

Question: 21
Answer the question independently.

1)

Tom will not be able to catch Jerry

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2)

At point C

3)

On path BC at a distance 1.6 metres from C

4)

On path BC at a distance 1 metre from C

Explanation:

Question: 22
Answer the question independently.
What is the product of the first 15 terms of the sequence 7, 14, 28, 56, ... ?
1)
2)
3)
4)
Explanation:

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Question: 23
Answer the question independently.

1)

1:2

2)

1:4

3)

1:3

4)
Explanation:

Question: 24
Answer the question independently.

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1)

The numbers p, q, r and s are in AP with a positive common difference.

2)

The numbers p, q, r and s are in GP with common ratio greater than 1.

3)

The numbers p, q, r and s are equal.

4)

No specific conclusion can be drawn regarding p, q, r and s.

Explanation:

Question: 25
Answer the question independently.
The concentration of orangeade in 72 litres of orangeade-water solution is 40%.Initially, 4 litres of the solution is replaced with water to
form Solution B. Then, 6 litres of solution B is replaced with water to form solution C. What is the concentration of orangeade in solution
C?
1)

34.63%

2)

35%

3)

35.14%

4)

34%

Explanation:

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Question: 26
Answer the question independently.
Integers 1 to 81 are written on the first page of a notebook. Then, all the 81 numbers are divided into 27 groups of 3 numbers each (in no
particular order) such that no two groups have a common number. The average of each group is then written on the second page of the
notebook. After this, the 27 numbers on the second page are divided into 9 groups of 3 numbers each (in no particular order)such that no
two groups have a common number. The average of each group is then written on the third page of the notebook. This exercise is
repeated till only one number is written on a page of the notebook. What would that number be?
1)

40

2)

41

3)

27

4)

Depends on which three numbers are taken in each step

Explanation:

Question: 27
Answer the question independently.

1)

2)

3)

4)

More than two

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Explanation:
We have (ab)8= b + 8a and (ba)8= a + 8b. Therefore, (ab)8+ (ba)8= 9a + 9b, which isdivisible by 9. Maximum values taken by a and b can
be 7 and 6. In order to make the sumof the two a three-digit number, a + b can be either 12 or 13. Therefore, (xyz) 10= 117 or108.
However, x, y and z have to be distinct digits. Therefore, the value of xyz in base 10cannot be 117. Hence, [2].
Question: 28
Answer the question independently.

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cannot be determined

Explanation:

Question: 29
Answer the question independently.
Points P, Q, R and S are the midpoints of sides AB, CD, EF and GH respectively of a regular octagon. What is the ratio of the area of
square PQRS to the area of octagon ABCDEFGH?
1)

2)

3)

4)
Explanation:

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Question: 30
Answer the question independently.

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1)

2)

3)

4)

Explanation:

Question: 31
Answer the question independently.
The game of chess has a board consisting of 64 squares (S 1, S2, S3, ... S64) having equal area such that there are 8 rows consisting of 8
squares each and there are 8 columns consisting of 8 squares each. "Rook" is a piece that can 'kill' any other piece that occupies a
square either in the same row or same column as the row or column in which it is placed. In how many ways can 8 identical rooks be
placed on the chess board such that no rook is in a position to 'kill' any other rook?
1)

8!

2)

3)

864

4)

(8!)2

Explanation:

Question: 32
Answer the question independently.
Triangles T1and T2have sides in the ratio 14 : 48 : 50. C1is the circumcircle of triangle T1, while C2is the incircle of triangle T1, which in turn
is the circumcircle of triangle T2. If the area of triangle T2is 72 square units, what is the area of triangle T 1in square units?
Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.
[quizky-text]
1)

1040

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2)

1250

3)

1296

4)

1756

Explanation:

Question: 33
Answer the question independently.

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1)

2)

3)

4)
Explanation:

Question: 34
Answer the question independently.
How many two-digit natural numbers exist such that when the product of their digits is added to the sum of their digits, the result is 39?
Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.
[quizky-text]
1)

2)

3)

12

4)

16

Explanation:

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Question: 35
Read the short passage given below and answer the question that follows.
Companies work hard to create brands that are recognizable throughout the world. Formany, the quest for international recognition can
even extend beyond just their productsand into their corporate logo. Take Starbucks, for instance. For the company's fortiethanniversary in
2011, it removed all traces of text from its logo. Namely, it got rid of thewords Starbucks Coffee.
How would creating a wordless logo help Starbucks specifically inits quest for international recognition?
1)

The logo would not need to be translated for international markets.

2)

The logo would not necessarily be associated with the Starbucks name.

3)

The logo would be improved, as images are more recognizable than words.

4)

The logo might be more eye-catching and visually pleasing without the text.

Explanation:
Option [2] is a counterproductive measure a logo that is not associated with the Starbucks brand name would be less than useless for
the brand's image. Even if images are more recognizable, there is no suggestion that text in a logo is detrimental to recognizability. So
even if [3] is true, it does not explain why Starbucks felt the need to remove the text; nor does it explain why removing the text would
specifically help the brand gain international recognition. While [4] may be a good reason for redesigning a logo in general, it too does not
relate directly to helping the brand gain international recognition. Only [1] explains this: without the text which would need to be
translated, and therefore be different in each market the logo would be exactly the same all over the world, and thus be more
recognizable. Hence, [1].
Question: 36
Read the short passage given below and answer the question that follows.
It does not make sense for college professors to be given tenure (a contract for lifelongemployment). What does tenure do? It distorts
people's effort so that they face strongincentives early in their career, before they get tenure (and work very hard early on as a
consequence) and very weak incentives forever after, once they have got tenure (and workmuch less hard on average as a
consequence). Because of this, colleges get stuck withProfessors who are doing nothing (at least not doing what they are presumably
being paidto do).
Which of the following is an assumption in this argument?
1)

Giving tenure to professors adversely affects their productivity.

2)

People work diligently only when given incentives to do so.

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3)

People need incentives to work harder later in their career, not at the beginning.

4)

Professors face too much pressure due to the tenure system and burn out later in life.

Explanation:
Option [1] is not an assumption it's something the author states clearly (it's the gist of the thirdsentence). There is no clue given in the
passage as to when people need incentives (as opposed towhen they are given incentives), so [3] is not the right answer either. [4] brings
in a completely new pointabout the pressures faced by professors, which is not mentioned in the paragraph at all. The author'sargument is
that due to the tenure system, professors work hard only early in their careers, when theyare given strong incentives to do so, and stop
working hard later, when there are very weak incentives.So the assumption is that people work hard only when given incentives to do so.
Hence, [2].
Question: 37
Read the short passage given below and answer the question that follows.
About three hundred million years ago, northward-tracking Gondwana collided withLaurentia to form the most recent supercontinent,
Pangaea. One of the most spectaculargeological consequences of this merging of Gondwana and Laurentia was the closing ofthe ancient
sea between North America and Africa, a collision that birthed the AppalachianMountains. Today the Appalachians, stretching from Maine
to Georgia, seem a relativelybenign, well-rounded sort of mountain range. Such gently rolling topography speaks to thepower of erosion,
for three hundred million years ago their jagged still-rising peaks soaredsix or seven miles high, rivalling today's Himalayas as some of the
mightiest mountains inthe history of the world.
Which of the following can be inferred from this paragraph?
1)

Young mountains are likely to be jagged.

2)

The Appalachians were once taller than the Himalayas.

3)

The Himalayas were born at the same time as the Appalachians.

4)

The Appalachians are some of the most ancient mountains in the world.

Explanation:
According to the paragraph, the Appalachians once rivalled today's Himalayas in terms of height, but that doesn't mean that the former
were once taller than the latter, so [2] is incorrect. The reference to 'today's Himalayas' in the last sentence suggests that the Himalayas
are younger than the Appalachians, so [3] is wrong. While the Appalachians are no doubt ancient, as they were born three hundred million
years ago, there is no information in the paragraph that suggests that they are some of the most ancient mountains in the world. Only [1]
can be inferred from the paragraph: when they were born three hundred million years ago, the young Appalachian mountains were
'jagged', but now they are 'well-rounded', due to erosion. Hence, [1].
Question: 38
Three out of the four given sentences, when correctly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Which of the following sentences does not
fit into the context? Enter in the box provided below the number corresponding to the sentence that does not fit.
Note: Your answer should be a single number only.

[quizky-text]

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1)

2)

3)

4)

Explanation:
The first three sentences discuss the development of the concept of 'standard of living'. They can be logically arranged in the sequence
[3]-[1]-[2]: [3] talks of how the idea of 'standard of living' (implicit, though not named) was a radical one before the nineteenth century, [1]
reiterates that the idea was not yet fully developed, and [2] shows how it was developed by the middle of the nineteenth century. [4] is
about a tangential point though it connects to [2] through the mention of the 'consumer society' in the latter, it does not really talk about
the 'standard of living'. Hence, [4].
Question: 39
Three out of the four given sentences, when correctly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Which of the following sentences does not
fit into the context? Enter in thebox provided below the number corresponding to the sentence that does not fit.
Note: Your answer should be a single number only.

[][][][][][][][]
[quizky-text]
1)

2)

3)

4)

Explanation:
Though all four sentences talk about blood groups, [1], [3] and [4] talk about the geographical distribution of blood groups, whereas [2]
talks about which type of groups can donate to which groups. So [2] does not fit into the logical sequence that is formed by [4]-[1]-[3].
Hence, [2].
Question: 40
Three out of the four given sentences, when correctly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Which of the following sentences does not
fit into the context? Enter in thebox provided below the number corresponding to the sentence that does not fit.
Note: Your answer should be a single number only.

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[quizky-text]
1)

2)

3)

4)

Explanation:
A close reading of these sentences shows that the topic of three of them is that of people traversing the Mediterranean Sea. [1]
introduces the topic, [4] mentions the uncertainty regarding it, and [2] mentions some evidence that may provide a clue. On the other
hand, [3], which talks about the rise in the sea level, has no connection to the other three sentences. Hence, [3].
Question: 41
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

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What is this passage about?

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1)

Babies' knowledge of physics and psychology

2)

A mistaken view about the psychology of babies

3)

Studies involving a mistaken view of the psychology of babies

4)

Studies that correct misconceptions about the psychology of babies

Explanation:

Question: 42
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

1)

A basic knowledge of how objects move is present in all humans from birth.

2)

Babies' idea of how objects should move is not noticeably different from that of adults.

3)

Babies look longer at scenes that defy their expectations of how things should behave.

4)

Babies are aware that blocks should not float in air, objects should not disappear, and so on.

Explanation:

Question: 43
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Which of the following statements about babies can be inferred from this passage?
1)

Babies enjoy watching magic tricks.

2)

Babies expect that people's goals remain constant.

3)

Babies are capable of understanding the concepts of right and wrong.

4)

Babies understand that other people have different desires than they do.

Explanation:
Refer to the second paragraph. The fact that babies watched the 'magic tricks' longer wastaken to mean that they were surprised at the
violation of basic physics, but notnecessarily that they were entertained. So [1] cannot be inferred. Babies' understanding ofmorality is not
mentioned in this passage at all, so [3] cannot be inferred either. [4] is notmentioned either, so it too can be ruled out. Only [2] can be

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inferred see paragraph 3,the following sentence: 'They expect someone who reaches for an object to reach for thesame object later'.
Hence, [2].
Question: 44
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
An experiment is conducted in which babies are shown that one item is placed behind a screen, then another item of the same kind is
placed behind the screen, then the screen drops to reveal only one of the items, which surprises the babies. Based on the information
given in this passage, this experiment:
1)
2)
3)

Demonstrates some other ability of babies.

4)

Does not demonstrate anything noteworthy about babies.

Explanation:

Question: 45
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Littleness has been a consistent theme in the folklore of demons and fairies, where it enables puzzling and disturbing events to be
ascribed to actions outside the bounds of human sight. But this kind of subvisible prestidigitation was by no means banished by the
emergence of modern science. James Clerk Maxwell's demon is a testament to that.
The second law of thermodynamics, formulated in 1850, seemed to insist that the universe was moving steadily towards an accumulation
of entropy and a spreading of disorder, culminating in a state of uniform heat wherein nothing could change for the rest of eternity. As a
devout Christian, Maxwell could not accept that God would let this happen. Not only did it compromise eternal life, but the inexorable
second law seemed to undermine free will. How could free will be rescued without violating thermodynamics?
The ancient Roman philosopher Lucretius, while knowing nothing of entropy and thermodynamics, recognized that his atomism posed a
problem of the same order: where, in the movements of these invisibly small particles along preordained paths, might free will enter? In
De rerum natura he solved that problem by animating atoms, permitting them to execute a random and unpredictable 'swerve' in their
trajectories. Maxwell could scarcely attribute such semi-autonomous agency to molecules but nonetheless his solution to the tyranny of
the second law called for a similarly microscopic form of self-determination. His seminal work on the theory of gases convinced him that
the second law is simply statistical. Gases contain molecules with a bell-shaped statistical distribution of speeds, the faster ones being in a
sense 'hotter'. Temperature gradients are washed away because it is far more likely that the faster molecules will mingle with the slower,
rather than by chance congregating into a 'hot' patch. There's nothing in the laws of mechanics to forbid the latter; it's just very unlikely.
But what if we could arrange for that to happen? Then the second law would be undone. We can't manage it in practice, Maxwell knew,
because we can't possibly find out about the velocities of all the individual molecules. But what if there were, as Maxwell put it, a 'finite
being', small enough to 'see' each molecule and able to keep track of it, who could open and shut a trapdoor in a wall dividing a gas-filled
vessel? The 'demon' could let through fast-moving molecules in one direction so as to congregate heat in a single compartment,
separating hot from cold and creating a temperature gradient that could be tapped to do work.
Maxwell laid out this idea in December 1867 in response to a letter from Peter Guthrie Tait, who was drafting a book on the history of
thermodynamics. Maxwell told Tait that his aim was explicitly to 'pick a hole' in the second law to show that it was 'only a statistical
certainty'. The thought experiment offered a loophole that might reinstate free will.
Modern physicists now generally believe that Maxwell's demon (or a tiny mechanical device operating in the same way) cannot after all
evade the second law, since the demon has to dissipate heat, and thus to generate entropy in its surroundings, as part of the process of

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gathering and storing information about the speeds of molecules. It turns out that Maxwell's ingenious but inadequate escape clause goes
to the heart of profound questions about the relationship between information, computation and energy.
Choose a suitable title for this passage.
1)

Maxwell's Demon

2)

Maxwell and Lucretius

3)

The Problem of Free Will

4)

The Second Law of Thermodynamics

Explanation:
Lucretius is mentioned only in two sentences in the third paragraph of the passage; so it unlikely that the passage would be named after
him. While the second law of thermodynamics is an important concept in this passage, the passage as a whole is not about it, but rather
about Maxwell's efforts to find a loophole in it. Thus, [4] can be eliminated. Maxwell does wrestle with the problem of free will which he
resolves by introducing the concept of 'Maxwell's demon' which has the power to bypass the second law of thermodynamics. Thus, [1] is
the most suitable title for the passage. Hence, [1].
Question: 46
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Both Maxwell and Lucretius had trouble reconciling:
1)

Free will with deterministic natural laws.

2)

The second law of thermodynamics with the concept of free will.

3)

The movements of atoms and molecules with the second law of thermodynamics.

4)

All of the above.

Explanation:
According to the first sentence of paragraph 3, Lucretius knew nothing about thermodynamics. So both [2] and [3] are incorrect. But the
same sentence states that Lucretius had trouble reconciling his 'atomism' (which involved the movements of invisibly small particles along
preordained paths) with the concept of free will. And as per the previous paragraph, Maxwell had trouble reconciling the second law of
thermodynamics (which involved the universe moving steadily towards an accumulation of entropy and a spreading of disorder) with free
will. So both these thinkers had trouble reconciling free will with natural laws that seemed to leave no room for free will (which is what
'deterministic' means). Hence, [1].
Question: 47
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
What is Maxwell's demon?
1)

A tiny being who could circumvent the second law of thermodynamics.

2)

A thought experiment involving the invalidation of the second law of thermodynamics.

3)

A tiny mechanical device that can separate the hot molecules in a gas from the cold ones.

4)

A fictional creature that Maxwell made up in order to justify free will.

Explanation:
Refer to the last paragraph, in which 'a tiny mechanical device' is suggested as an alternative to Maxwell's demon. So we can infer that
the latter is not in fact a mechanical device; thus [3] is incorrect. Maxwell's demon is part of his thought experiment involving the second
law of thermodynamics; but it is not the experiment itself. So [2] is not quite right as well. According to the second paragraph, Maxwell
wanted to 'rescue' free will, not 'justify' it, so [4] is not completely correct either. Only [1] correctly describes what Maxwell's demon
supposedly is: refer to its description in paragraph 4. Hence, [1].

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Question: 48
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Which of the following is true as per the passage?
1)

Maxwell formulated the second law of thermodynamics.

2)

Maxwell did important work concerning the theory of gases.

3)

Maxwell's view that the second law of thermodynamics is merely statistical is valid.

4)

Peter Guthrie Tait agreed with Maxwell regarding thermodynamics.

Explanation:
Refer to paragraph 2, which merely states that the second law of thermodynamics was formulated in 1850, but not who formulated it. So
[1] cannot be inferred. According to the last paragraph, Maxwell's ideas for evading the second law of thermodynamics are not valid, so
his idea on which he based them (that the second law of thermodynamics is merely statistical) is probably not valid either. Refer to the
penultimate paragraph: Peter Guthrie Tait is mentioned only as a correspondent of Maxwell's; there is no information as to whether he
agreed with Maxwell's ideas. Only [2] is true: according to paragraph 3, Maxwell did 'seminal work on the theory of gases'. Hence, [2].
Question: 49
In the following questions, there are sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of
sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical consistency). Enter in thebox
provided below the letters corresponding only to the correct sentences.
Note: Your answer should be in alphabetical order.

[quizky-text]
1)

AE

2)

CD

3)

BCE

4)

ABD

Explanation:
In A, the correct word should be 'phenomenon' which is the singular form of 'phenomena'(since the subject is the existence of polar
forests, which is a singular entity). In B, thereis a subject-verb disagreement: the subject of the verb 'make' is 'familiarity'. Since,'familiarity'
is singular, the singular verb 'makes' is to be used. In E, the word 'tracks'(meaning 'paths' or 'traces') does not quite fit; the more suitable
word should be 'tracts',which means 'expanse or area of land'. Only CD are fully correct. Hence, [CD].
Question: 50
In the following questions, there are sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of
sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical consistency). Enter in thebox
provided below the letters corresponding only to the correct sentences.
Note: Your answer should be in alphabetical order.

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[quizky-text]
1)

ABE

2)

BD

3)

CD

4)

ACE

Explanation:
Statement A suffers from a misplaced modifier. The modifier 'Having mission' refers to 'Vavilov', so the latter should be placed next to
the former. This can be done by reframing the sentence thus 'Having accomplished the official part of his mission, Vavilov had a wonderful
opportunity'. In C, the placement of the adverb 'merely' is incorrect it should be placed after 'not', not before it, since it modifies the
adjective 'driven'. There is a pronoun error in E: the antecedent of 'it' in E is 'these species' in D, so the correct pronoun should be 'they'.
Only BD are grammatically correct.Hence, [BD].
Question: 51
The sentences given in the following question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a
letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences, from among the given choices, to construct a coherent paragraph.

1)

DEACB

2)

DAEBC

3)

BECAD

4)

BDEAC

Explanation:
While at first glance, either B or D seems like it could begin the paragraph, a closer look of the entire paragraph shows that it is about
China's monopoly over silk production, so D is a better candidate. C, which talks about the end of this monopoly, therefore makes sense
as the last sentence. Both these criteria are met only by option [2]: DAEBC. Hence, [2].
Question: 52
The sentences given in the following question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a

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letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences, from among the given choices, to construct a coherent paragraph.

1)

CEBDA

2)

CDBEA

3)

CEADB

4)

CADEB

Explanation:
As made obvious by the options, C is the first sentence of the paragraph since it introduces the theme of the paragraph: digital media. The
paragraph can be sorted into two sets of sentences: C and E are about digital media in general, while the rest are about ebooks. So C
should be followed by E. The links among the other three sentences are easy to spot: D and B give reasons for the problem mentioned in
A, with D giving 'one reason' and B giving 'another'. Thus, we get the sequence CEADB. Hence, [3].
Question: 53
A part of the following sentence has been highlighted. Beneath the sentence, four different ways of phrasing the underlined part are
indicated. Choose the best alternative from among the four.
Those intrepid early explorers likely cursed the mountains, awed them and puzzled them in equal measure.
1)

cursed the mountains, awed them and puzzled them

2)

cursed the mountains, awed them and were puzzled by them

3)

cursed the mountains, were awed by them and puzzled them

4)

cursed the mountains, were awed by them and puzzled by them

Explanation:
Explorers i.e. human beings cannot 'awe' or 'puzzle' mountains, since mountains are inanimate entities. However, humans can be
'awed' or 'puzzled' by them. Only [4] has the correct constructions. Hence, [4].
Question: 54
A part of the following sentence has been highlighted. Beneath the sentence, four different ways of phrasing the underlined part are
indicated. Choose the best alternative from among the four.
The Minoan civilization in Crete was the first major Mediterranean civilization, the first wealthy, literate, city-based culture with an artistic
vibrant culture that emerged within the Mediterranean world.
1)

with an artistic vibrant culture that emerged within the Mediterranean world

2)

with an artistic vibrant culture that emerge within the Mediterranean world

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3)

with a vibrant artistic culture to emerged within the Mediterranean world

4)

with a vibrant artistic culture to emerge within the Mediterranean world

Explanation:
The order of the adjectives 'artistic' and 'vibrant' is incorrect in [1] and [2]: it should be 'vibrant artistic', because the adjective 'vibrant'
describes the 'artistic culture'. Either 'that emerged' or 'to emerge' can be the correct form of the verb in the final part of the sentence; but
'to emerged' is grammatically incorrect. Thus [3] is also wrong, and only [4] is fully correct. Hence, [4].
Question: 55
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Raise your hand if you hate libraries.
Yeah, I didn't think so. Who could possibly hate libraries?
Here's one suggestion: book publishers. I am probably wrong on this, but if you care about books, hear me out.
I had lunch recently with a few publishing folks. One of them had just returned from a national librarians' conference, where it was her job
to sell her line of books to as many librarians as possible. She said that there were twenty thousand librarians in attendance; she also said
that if she got one big library system, like Chicago's or New York's, to buy a book, that could mean a sale of as many as a few hundred
copies, since many library branches carry several copies of each book. That sounds great, doesn't it?
Well ... maybe not. Among writers, there is a common lament. Someone comes up to you at a book signing and says, 'Oh, I loved your
book so much, I got it from the library and then told all my friends to go to the library, too!' And the writer thinks, 'Gee, thanks, but why
didn't you buy it?'
The library bought its copy, of course. But let's say fifty people will read that copy over the life of the book. If the library copy hadn't
existed, surely not all fifty of those people would have bought the book. But imagine that even five people would have. That's four
additional book sales lost by the writer and the publisher.
There's another way to look at it, of course. Beyond the copies that libraries buy, you could argue that, in the long run, libraries augment
overall book sales along at least a few channels:
1. Libraries help train young people to be readers; when those readers are older, they buy books.
2. Libraries expose readers to works by authors they wouldn't have otherwise read; readers may then buy other works by the same
author, or even the same book to have in their collection.
3. Libraries help foster a general culture of reading; without it, there would be less discussion, criticism and coverage of books in general,
which would result in fewer book sales.
But here's the point I'm getting to: if there were no such thing today as the public library and someone like Bill Gates proposed to establish
them in cities and towns across the U.S. (much like Andrew Carnegie once did), what would happen?
I am guessing there would be a huge pushback from book publishers. Given the current state of debate about intellectual property, can
you imagine modern publishers being willing to sell one copy of a book and then have the owner let an unlimited number of strangers
borrow it?
I don't think so. Perhaps they'd come up with a licensing agreement: the book costs twenty dollars to own, with an additional two dollars
per year for every year beyond year one it's in circulation. I'm sure there would be a lot of other potential arrangements. And I am just as
sure that, like a lot of systems that evolve over time, the library system is one that, if it were being built from scratch today, wouldn't look
anything like it actually does.
What is the point the author is trying to make in this passage?
1)

Publishers dislike libraries.

2)

Libraries must be saved.

3)

It is surprising that libraries exist.

4)

Libraries are a relic of a different time.

Explanation:
Option [1] is not a point the author is trying to make, it's something he states right at the beginning, and which forms the premise of his
argument and not the conclusion. While the author would likely agree with [2], it is not the point he is trying to make. The existence of
libraries is not surprising in itself just the fact that they still exist in the modern publishing world, which dislikes the principles that libraries

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operate on. So [3] is not the author's point either. His point can be inferred from the last three paragraphs: he suggests that the library
system, as it currently exists, would not have developed in the same way in an environment that included the modern publishing industry,
and that its current form is rooted in history. Hence, [4].
Question: 56
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
The first sentence of the passage is meant to be:
1)

A rhetorical device.

2)

A tongue-in-cheek request.

3)

Deliberately provocative.

4)

Completely sincere.

Explanation:
The author does not mean the first sentence sincerely, as can be ascertained by his next sentence 'Yeah, I didn't think so.' He is not trying
to be provocative either he has no desire to anger anybody. While there is a 'tongue-in-cheek' element to the sentence, it can best be
described as a 'rhetorical device': the author makes a request that he knows will be answered in the negative. Hence, [1].
Question: 57
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
What, according to the passage, is a negative aspect of libraries?
1)

They result in lost revenue for writers and publishers.

2)

They have failed to keep up with modern business practices.

3)

They are antithetical to modern ideas about intellectual property.

4)

There is no real negative aspect greedy publishers are the only ones who dislike them.

Explanation:
Refer to the last two paragraphs. The author does not suggest that libraries have failed to modernize rather, he criticizes the modern
publishing industry and its attitude towards such things as intellectual property. Thus, [2] and [3] are both incorrect. However, [4] is too
extreme. Based on the author's argument in paragraphs 5 and 6, it is clear that he thinks that writers as well as publishers are genuinely
adversely affected by libraries (though this may be ameliorated to some extent by the benefits of libraries) because they lose money from
sales. Hence, [1].
Question: 58
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
What is the most likely source of this passage?
1)

A blog post about libraries

2)

An article on libraries in a scholarly journal

3)

A magazine article about a famous library

4)

A newsletter for the publishing industry

Explanation:
This passage is about libraries in general, not a particular library, so [3] is an improbable source. The passage is aimed at a general
audience, not the publishing industry. So [4] is unlikely to be the source of the passage. The language of the passage is informal and very
conversational, so it is almost certainly not from a scholarly journal. The most likely source is a blog post. Hence, [1].
Question: 59

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The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Pablo Picasso, arguably the most illustrious artist of the twentieth century, paid a visit to the Paleolithic cave paintings in the Lascaux cave
in France in 1941. 'We have learnt nothing!' is reported as his awed, almost indignant comment, implying that the anonymous Stone Age
draughtsmen of Lascaux had miraculously anticipated the representational aims and achievements of art within modern, 'civilized' society.
Picasso's reaction is one that many of us would share. Identifying the precise species of animals in these paintings might be beyond us,
but we have little essential difficulty in seeing what these ancient artists were trying to represent. Instinctively, then, we may want to
'update' the earliest human artists by assuming that they painted for the sheer joy of painting.
This simple acceptance of cave-paintings as art for art's sake has a certain appeal. To think of Lascaux as a gallery or salon allows it to be
a sort of special viewing place where the handiwork of accomplished artists might be displayed. And at Lascaux, the evident care with
which individual animals have been abstracted from any natural background or landscape makes it tempting to suppose that the painters
sought to create, as it were, 'life studies' of their subjects. Plausibly, the people of Palaeolithic Europe had the leisure time for art.
The problems with this explanation, however, are various. In the first place, the proliferation of archaeological discoveries of rock art sites
around the world has served to emphasize a remarkably limited repertoire of subjects. The images that recur are those of animals; and,
commonly, similar types of animal. Human figures are unusual; and when they do make an appearance, they are rarely done with the
same attention to form accorded to the animals. If Palaeolithic artists were simply seeking to represent the beauty of the world around
them, would they not have left a far greater range of pictures of trees and flowers, of the sun and the stars?
A further question to the theory of art for art's sake is posed by the high incidence of Palaeolithic images that appear not be imitative of
any reality whatsoever. These are geometrical shapes or patterns consisting of dots or lines. A good example of this may be seen in the
geologically spectacular grotto of Pech Merle in France. Here we encounter some favourite animals from the Palaeolithic repertoire a
pair of stout-bellied horses. But over and around the horses' outlines are multiple dark spots, daubed in disregard for the otherwise
naturalistic representation of the animals. What does such patterning imitate?
There is also the factor of location. The caverns of Altamira and Lascaux might conceivably qualify as underground galleries, but many
other paintings have been found in recesses totally unsuitable for any kind of viewing tight nooks and crannies that must have been
awkward even for the artists to penetrate, let alone for anyone else wanting to see the art.
Finally, we may doubt the notion that the Upper Palaeolithic was a Garden of Eden in which food came readily, leaving humans ample
time to amuse themselves with art. For Europe it was still the Ice Age. This consideration, combined with the stark iconographic emphasis
upon animals in the cave art, has persuaded some archaeologists that the primary motive behind Palaeolithic images must lie with the
primary activity of Palaeolithic people hunting.
The author begins the passage with a description of Pablo Picasso's reaction to the cave-paintings at Lascaux in order to show that:
1)

Even a great artist like Picasso can be mistaken sometimes.

2)

Picasso was wrong to suggest that the cave-painters of Lascaux painted in modern styles.

3)

It is tempting for modern people to interpret ancient cave-paintings based on modern theories of art.

4)

Picasso was the only one to truly understand what these cave-paintings implied for art as a whole.

Explanation:
The passage isn't about Picasso the author mentions him at the beginning only in order to introduce the topic of the passage. So [1],
which suggests that the author was making some point about Picasso's own abilities, is irrelevant. [4] is a complete misinterpretation of
Picasso's reaction. The author does not suggest that Picasso's identification of the style of the cave-paintings at Lascaux was incorrect,
but rather that his interpretation of it was, so [2] can be eliminated. As the rest of the first paragraph shows, Picasso's reaction to these
paintings is similar to that of most modern people's, in that we tend to ascribe modern theories of art, such as 'art for art's sake' to ancient
paintings. Hence, [3].
Question: 60
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
What is this passage about?
1)

The cave-paintings of Lascaux

2)

The idea of 'art for art's sake'

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3)

The beauty of ancient art

4)

A misconception about ancient art

Explanation:
The passage focuses on the cave-paintings of Lascaux only insofar as they are an example of Palaeolithic art. Other sites of Palaeolithic
art (such as Pech Merle and Altamira) are also mentioned in the passage. So [1] is too limited a subject. While the author does seem to
admire the ancient art he describes, its beauty is not really the focus of the passage, so [3] is ruled out as well. [2] is too general the
author brings up the concept of 'art for art's sake' specifically in the context of Palaeolithic art, and not with regards to all art. In particular,
he goes on to show that applying this concept to ancient art (such as the cave-paintings of Lascaux) is a mistake, because it is unlikely
that Palaeolithic artists had the same priorities or opportunities as modern artists. Thus, the passage is about a misconception about
ancient art. Hence, [4].
Question: 61
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Which of these points about Palaeolithic art is correct, as per the passage?
i] Palaeolithic art usually involved animal imagery, with human figures rarely featuring in it.
ii] Examples of Palaeolithic art, such as cave-paintings, have been found predominantly in Europe.
iii] The animals depicted in Palaeolithic art are highly stylized, often nothing more than geometricalshapes or patterns.
iv] Palaeolithic art was meant to have a sacred or ritualistic meaning, and was not created for aestheticreasons.
1)

[i]

2)

[i] and [ii]

3)

[i], [iii] and [iv]

4)

[ii], [iii] and [iv]

Explanation:
Though the passage talks mainly about Palaeolithic art found in Europe, particularly the Lascaux cave-paintings in France, the third
paragraph also mentions the proliferation of rock art sites around the world, so [ii] is not correct. While it is true that there is a 'high
incidence of Palaeolithic images that appear not be imitative of any reality whatsoever' and that some consist of 'geometrical shapes or
patterns', there are also others that clearly represent realistic animals (such as the animals depicted in Lascaux), so [iii] is too general.
Though the main point of the passage is that Palaeolithic art was not created for aesthetic reasons, there is no suggestion that it had a
'sacred or ritualistic meaning', so [iv] is only partially true. Only [i] is fully correct, as it is stated in paragraph 3. Hence, [1].
Question: 62
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
What is the author's opinion of the cave-paintings of Lascaux?
1)

He thinks that they are comparable to the great works of modern art.

2)

He does not think that they are as good as modern art, such as the works of Picasso.

3)

He finds their lack of variety in terms of subjects off-putting.

4)

None of the above.

Explanation:
The author himself does not compare the cave-paintings of Lascaux to modern art at all other people, such as Picasso, do so. So both
[1] and [2] are incorrect. In the thirdparagraph, the author simply mentions that cave-paintings (such as those at Lascaux)have a limited
repertoire of subjects, but he does not express any opinion regarding thispoint, so [3] is wrong as well. The only opinion that the author
expresses regarding thecave-paintings of Lascaux is his conclusion that they were painted for reasons verydifferent from those for modern
art. Hence, [4].

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Question: 63
The following question has a sentence with one italicized word that does not make sense. Choose the most appropriate replacement for
that word from the options given below the sentence.
Historians are confronted with the puzzle of why the tradition of magic lasted so long and laid roots so deep, when it is manifestly
miplakitent.
1)

prescient

2)

omniscient

3)

omnipotent

4)

impotent

Explanation:
From the sentence, we can infer that the missing word must have a negative meaning, as it is a puzzle that the tradition of magic lasted so
long. So 'prescient' (having knowledge of events before they happen), 'omniscient' (having unlimited knowledge) and 'omnipotent' (having
unlimited power) are all far too positive. Only 'impotent', meaning 'lacking power' or 'ineffective', can correctly replace the italicized word.
Hence, [4].
Question: 64
The following question has a sentence with one italicized word that does not make sense. Choose the most appropriate replacement for
that word from the options given below the sentence.
Children's literature differs from literature published for adults in the avidity with which it embraces developments in technology and new
media, which is reflected in the fact that while the study of writing for adults tends to regard narratives developed for new media and
adaptations of existing texts into different media as humsoxes to the study of literary texts, they are integrated in children's literature
studies.
1)

ancillary

2)

belligerent

3)

congruent

4)

cardinal

Explanation:
According to the sentence, narratives developed for new media and adaptations of existing texts into different media are integrated in
children's literature studies, but not into the study of writing for adults. Thus, the correct option should be something that is opposite to
'essential' or 'important'. 'Belligerent', meaning 'hostile' or 'warlike', does not fit into the context at all. 'Congruent' means 'agreeing' or
'corresponding', so it does not have the required meaning we seek. 'Cardinal', meaning 'of prime importance', is an antonym of the word
we are seeking, and so also wrong. Only 'ancillary', meaning 'subordinate', correctly replaces the italicized word. Hence, [1].
Question: 65
The following question has a sentence with one italicized word that does not make sense. Choose the most appropriate replacement for
that word from the options given below the sentence.
If this book has a larger argument, it is that fiction is both artifice and korfiry, and that there is nothing difficult in holding together these two
possibilities.
1)

erudition

2)

verisimilitude

3)

chicanery

4)

sophistry

Explanation:

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It is implicit in the statement that the missing word should be roughly antonymous to 'artifice', which means a 'crafty or subtle deception'.
So 'chicanery' and 'sophistry', which are near synonyms of 'artifice', can be ruled out at once. 'Erudition', which means 'learning' or
'knowledge', is not connected to 'artifice' at all. Only 'verisimilitude', which means the 'appearance or semblance of truth or reality', fits the
given criteria. Hence, [2].
Question: 66
Four alternative summaries are given below each text. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.
Auto manufacturers have often seen that a car model name that works well in one country must be modified to have success in another.
Ford launched a car in Europe named Kuga, which means 'plague' in Croatian and Serbian. Mitsubishi produced an off-road vehicle called
the Pajero, an offensive term in some Spanish-speaking countries. The Honda Fitta had to be renamed to the Honda Jazz for the Nordic
market because fitta is a profane word in Nordic languages. One car that didn't have to be renamed? The Chevy Nova. Contrary to
popular belief, the word nova is not easily confused with the words no va (doesn't go) in Spanish because they are pronounced differently,
with stress on different syllables. General Motors reported that the Nova actually surpassed its expectations for sales in Spanish-speaking
markets such as Venezuela.
1)

Sometimes cars have names that have unfortunate meanings in other languages, so these have to be changed depending
on the markets, for example, the Chevy Nova.

2)

Unlike many other cars, whose names have to be changed in international markets, the Chevy Nova's name did not have to
be changed, though it is an offensive term in some Spanish-speaking countries.

3)

A number of car names have to be modified in different countries, because they don't translate well into the local
languages, but surprisingly enough, the Chevy Nova is not one of them.

4)

Most cars have to be renamed for the international market, as they have names that have negative connotations in the local
languages for example, a car whose name translates to 'doesn't go' in Spanish.

Explanation:
According to the paragraph, the Chevy Nova is the one car that didn't have to be renamed, even though people expected it would have to
be. So both [1] and [4], which claim that it had to be renamed, are incorrect. [2] provides the incorrect meaning of the Nova's name it
means 'doesn't go', not something offensive (that is mentioned in relation to another car, the Pajero). Only [3] correctly summarizes the
given paragraph. Hence, [3].
Question: 67
Four alternative summaries are given below each text. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.
Fletcher used to type on the thinnest of onion-skin typing paper. As the years wore on, his margins grew smaller and smaller, often
disappearing entirely. Fletcher was an efficiency buff, and his obsession appears to have carried over to his habits as a letter writer. He
sought to extract the maximum use from each sheet of stationery. Around 1913, he switched from double- to single-spacing and began
typing on both sides of the page. Because the paper was thin to the point of transparency, Fletcher's words bled through, causing some of
the missives, though typed, to be practically illegible.
1)

Because Fletcher was obsessed with saving space on each sheet of stationery, he would write in margins and on both
sides of the paper.

2)

Though Fletcher was obsessed with saving paper, this backfired when he started typing on both sides of poor quality paper,
rendering his letters illegible.

3)

Fletcher's obsession with efficiency led him to type letters on both sides of very thin paper so that they became practically
unreadable.

4)

Fletcher's obsession with efficiency was counterproductive, because his letters became almost illegible due to the lack of
spacing and margins.

Explanation:
Option [1] is not an adequate summary, because it fails to mention that Fletcher's obsession was counterproductive, as his letters became

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illegible. [4] wrongly states that the lack of spacing and margins made the letters illegible it was in fact due to Fletcher typing on both
sides of very thin paper. Between [2] and [3], the latter is a better summary, as Fletcher's obsession was more generally about efficiency
('efficiency buff'), and his interest in saving paper seems to be only one manifestation of it ('his obsession appears to have carried over to
his habits as a letter writer'). Hence, [3].
Question: 68
Four alternative summaries are given below each text. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.
Mechanical devices tend to be self-explaining. Their moving parts are visible and can be watched or manipulated. They make natural
sounds that help us understand what is happening, so that even when we are not watching the machinery, we can often infer their state
just from these sounds. Today, however, many of these powerful indicators are hidden from sight and sound, taken over by silent, invisible
electronics. As a result, many devices operate silently, efficiently, and aside from the occasional clicking of a hard drive or the noise of a
fan, they do not reveal much of their internal operations. We are left without much information about the device's internal workings, what is
happening within the device.
1)

Mechanical devices are self-explanatory, but less efficient, while electronic devices are more efficient, but harder to
understand.

2)

Mechanical devices, which are efficient but noisy, have nowadays been replaced by electronic devices that are silent but
less efficient.

3)

In the past, we had mechanical devices that were self-explanatory, but now, they have been replaced by electronic devices
whose internal workings remain a complete mystery.

4)

Mechanical devices are easy to understand because their parts are visible and they make sounds, as opposed to electronic
devices, whose internal workings are invisible and mostly silent.

Explanation:
According to the paragraph, electronic devices are efficient, so [2] is incorrect. In anycase, the efficiency of mechanical and electronic
devices is not compared in theparagraph. Thus, [1], which focuses on this comparison, is incorrect. [3] is anexaggeration: according to the
passage, we do not have much information about what ishappening inside electronic devices, but their internal workings are not a
'completemystery'. Only [4], which compares mechanical and electronic devices in terms of howeasy they are to understand, and how
visible and audible their workings are, correctlysummarizes the paragraph. Hence, [4].
Question: 69
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

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Which of the following statements is correct?


1)

There are exactly 49 wicket keepers who took more than 75 but fewer than 201 catches and played more than 200 but
fewer than 301 one-day internationals.

2)

There is exactly one wicket keeperwho took more than 150 catches and was involved in more than 30 but fewer than 41
stumpings.

3)

There are exactly 14 wicket keepers who played more than 250 but fewer than 301 one-day internationals, were involved in
more than 30 but fewer than 41 stumpings and took more than 100 but fewer than 201 catches.

4)

No wicket keeper who took more than 50 but fewer than 76 catches was involved in any stumping.

Explanation:

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Question: 70
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
What is the number of wicket keepers who played more than 200 one-day internationals, took more than 100 but fewer than 151 catches
and were involved in more than 30 but fewer than 41 stumping?
1)

18

2)

3)

14

4)

33

Explanation:

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Wicket keepers who had number of matches more than 200 are numbered from 47 - 100.
Wicket keepers who had number of catches more than 100 but fewer than 151 are numbered from 50 - 81.
Wicket keepers who had number of stumpings in the range 31 - 40 are numbered from 68 - 82.
Thus, wicket keepers satisfying all three conditions = 14 (i.e. wicket keepers numbered between 68 - 81).
Hence, [3].
Question: 71
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
How many wicket keepers played more than 300 but fewer than 401 one-day internationals and took more than 150 but fewer than 201
catches?
1)

10

2)

11

3)

4)

14

Explanation:

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Question: 72
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
How many wicket keepers played in more than 250 one-day internationals, were involved in more than 30 but fewer than 41 stumpings
and took fewer than 100 catches?
Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.
[quizky-text]
1)

2)

15

3)

17

4)

18

Explanation:

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Wicket keepers who had number of matches more than 250 are numbered from 66 - 100.
Wicket keepers who had number of stumpings in the range 31 - 40 are numbered from 68 - 82.
Thus, wicket keepers satisfying both conditions are numbered from 68 - 82, but all of them took more than 100 catches.Therefore,
required answer is 0.
Question: 73
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Five married couples go out on a date in an Italian restaurant. The restaurant has one table and 10 chairs such that 5 chairs are placed on
either side of the table. There are 4 people from Marketing background, 4 from Finance and 2 from Human Resource (HR). Every couple
has one man and one woman and they sit opposite to each other facing each other. ABCDE are the five men and PQRST are the five
women.
Further information is known about them:
No two people from same background sit next to each other.
There is exactly one couple in which both the partners are from Marketing background and exactly one couple in which both the
partners are from Finance background.
S does not sit in the row where A is sitting and both her neighbors are from Marketing background.
A is married to P and the partners of E and Q do not sit either at the corner or at the centre of any row.
Out of the five women, only two are from Finance background and two are from HR.
The number of Marketing people sitting on either side of the table is equal but the number of Finance people sitting on either side of
the table is not equal.
P has only one neighbor and he does not sit to the right of P.
D is not married to a person from a different background and S is married to a person from the same background.
Either T or Q is from HR background. E and D are not from Finance background.
A is from Marketing background. S and P are from Financebackground.

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Who are the neighbors of S?


1)

D and Q

2)

E and Q

3)

D and E

4)

Cannot be determined

Explanation:

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One of the neighbours of S is E but the other one cannot be determined. Hence, [4].

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Question: 74
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Which of the following is definitely false?
1)

T is from HR background

2)

B's wife is from Finance background

3)

C's wife is from Marketing background

4)

C's wife is from HR background

Explanation:

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Question: 75
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Who sits to the left of P?
1)

2)

3)

4)

Cannot be determined

Explanation:

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From the figure, E sits to the left of P. Hence, [1].

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Question: 76
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
If Q sits to the left of B, then who is married to R?
1)

2)

3)

4)

Cannot be determined

Explanation:

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Question: 77
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

The current requirement is to prepare a metal with at least 25% each of Gold, Silver and Bronze. If one has to use ore from only two of the
five mines to meet the current requirement, in how many ways can one choose the two mines from which the ore is to be selected?
1)

Zero

2)

One

3)

Two

4)

More than two

Explanation:

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Question: 78
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
The current requirement is to prepare a metal with at most 25% each of Gold, Silver and Bronze. If one has to use ore from only two of the
five mines to meet the current requirement, in how many ways can one choose the two mines from which the ore is to be selected?
1)

Zero

2)

One

3)

Two

4)

More than two

Explanation:
At most 25% each of Gold, Silver and Bronze is required. Total 5C2= 10 combinations are possible among the 5 mines [A-B, A-C, A-D, AE, B-C, B-D, B-E, C-D, C-E, D-E]. Out of the 10 combinations, at most 25% gold requirement will never be met in A-E; at most 25% silver
requirement will never be met in C-D; and at most 25% bronze requirement will never be met in A-B, A-D, A-E, B-D, B-E and D-E . Thus
we are left with 3 possible combinations.

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Question: 79
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
If ores from two mines are mixed in equal proportions so as to obtain a metal with maximum percentage of Gold and Silver combined,
what is the minimum percentage of Platinum in the metal so obtained?
Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.
[quizky-text] %
1)

2)

20

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3)

32

4)

45

Explanation:

Therefore, the minimum percentage is 20%.


Question: 80
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
If the prices of Gold, Silver, Bronze and Platinum for 10 gm are Rs. 10,000, Rs. 5,000, Rs.1,000 and Rs. 20,000 respectively, what can be
the price of 10 grams of an alloy containing 25% Gold, 25% Bronze, and 30% Silver if it is known that the alloy is formed by mixing equal
quantities of ores from exactly two mines ?
1)

Rs. 7,750

2)

Rs. 8,250

3)

Rs. 9,750

4)

It is not possible to make such an alloy with ore from only two mines.

Explanation:

Question: 81
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Ten friends play a game where they write their names on a piece of paper and then put their papers in a basket. Once all the ten paper
pieces are put in the basket, one person goes and picks out a piece of paper one by one. The person whose name comes out first is given
position number 1, the second name to come out is given position 2 and so on.
Singh, Banerjee and Shinde are from Kerala. Shetty, Ganguly and Kadam are from Punjab.
Khanna and Menon are from Maharashtra. Chopra and Kamat are from West Bengal.
Further information is known about them:
No Keralite has a position number less than that of any Punjabi.
Position number of Kamat was immediately after that of a Punjabi but immediately before that of a Keralite.
Position number of Shetty is less than that of Menon, whose position number is less than that of Ganguly.

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The difference in the position numbers of Kadam and Shinde is 5.


The difference in the position numbers of Singh and Banerjee is 2, and the position number of only one of them is a perfect square.
The difference in the position numbers of Ganguly and Khanna is two less than that of Chopra and Kadam.
Neither Shinde nor Khanna is between Singh and Banerjee.
What is the position number of Kamat?
1)

2)

3)

4)

Cannot be determined

Explanation:

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Hence, [2].
Question: 82
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
What is the position number of Shinde?
Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.
[quizky-text]
1)

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2)

10

3)

19

4)

Cannot be determined

Explanation:

Therefore, the position number of Shinde is 10.


Question: 83
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Of the given ten people, exact position numbers of how many people can be correctly determined?

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1)

2)

3)

4)

Cannot be determined

Explanation:

Hence, [2].
Question: 84
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

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What is the difference between the position numbers of Ganguly and Chopra?
1)

2)

3)

4)

Cannot be determined

Explanation:

Hence, [4].

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Question: 85
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

What is the total number of girls in the entire batch who are freshers?
Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.
[quizky-text]
1)

66

2)

70

3)

78

4)

85

Explanation:

Therefore, the total number of girls in the entire batch who are freshers is 66.
Question: 86
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
What is the ratio of the number of girls who are engineers to the number of girls who are non-engineers in the entire batch?
1)

15 : 4

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2)

13 : 2

3)

6:1

4)

9:2

Explanation:

Required ratio = (57 + 47) : (9 + 7) = 104 : 16 = 13 : 2. Hence, [2].


Question: 87
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
What is the difference between the number of boys who are both engineers and freshers and the number of girls who are both nonengineers and experienced in the entire batch?
1)

20

2)

40

3)

60

4)

70

Explanation:

Question: 88
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Which among the following represents the lowest value?
1)

Number of non-engineers who are experienced

2)

Number of boys who are non- engineers

3)

Number of boys who are both engineers and experienced

4)

Number of non-engineers who are freshers

Explanation:

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Option 1: Number of non-engineers who are experienced = 17 + 7 = 24


Option 2: Number of boys who are non- engineers = 17 + 17 = 34
Option 3: Number of boys who are both engineers and experienced = 69
Option 4: Number of non-engineers who are freshers = 17 + 9 = 26
Hence, [1].
Question: 89
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Eight friendsA, B, C, D, E, F, G and Hare seated in anticlockwise direction in that order around a circular table, with all of them facing
inwards. They play a game called "Passing the Parcel" where, in every round, the parcel moves 10 positions in clockwise order. At the
end of each round, the person who started the round and the person who receives the parcel last interchange their positions and the next
round starts from the final position of the parcel in the previous round. It is known that H starts the game.
Who is sitting opposite G at the end of the 56th round?
1)

2)

3)

4)

Explanation:

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Question: 90
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Who is sitting to the immediate right of E at the end of the 73 rd round?

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1)

2)

3)

4)

Explanation:

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Question: 91
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Who is sitting 3 places to the left of C at the end of the 125th round?
1)

2)

3)

4)

Explanation:

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Question: 92
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Which of the following statements is false?

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1)

At the end of rounds 93 and 95, the position of G is the same.

2)

At the end of rounds93 and 95, the position of F is the same.

3)

At the end of rounds93 and 95, the position of D is not the same.

4)

At the end of rounds93 and 95, the position of E is the same.

Explanation:

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Question: 93
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

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If Charuta, Gaurav and Anurag are arranged in descending order of their CGPA, which of the following is the correct order?
1)

Anurag, Gaurav, Charuta

2)

Anurag, Charuta, Gaurav

3)

Gaurav, Anurag, Charuta

4)

Charuta, Anurag, Gaurav

Explanation:

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Hence, [1].
Question: 94
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Which of the following statements is correct?
1)

The number of students who qualified for Director's Gold Medal and the number of students who will have to repeat at least
one course are 2 and 1 respectively.

2)

The number of students who qualified for Director's Gold Medal and the number of students who will have to repeat at least
one course are 1 and 2 respectively.

3)

The number of students who qualified for Director's Gold Medal and the number of students who will have to repeat at least
one course are 1 and 1 respectively.

4)

The number of students who qualified for Director's Gold Medal and the number of students who will have to repeat at least
one course are 2 and 2 respectively.

Explanation:

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Hence, [3].
Question: 95
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Which two students scored the same CGPA?
1)

Anurag and Dinesh

2)

Anurag and Hari

3)

Gaurav and Hari

4)

None of these

Explanation:

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Hence, [2].
Question: 96
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
If the credits for courses in Accounting, Economics, Finance, Marketing, Operations and HR are changed to 1.25, 1.50, 2.25, 1.00, 1.50
and 1.50 respectively, how many students will see an improvement in their CGPA vis-a-vis their CGPA in the old system?
1)

Zero

2)

One

3)

Two

4)

More than two

Explanation:

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Question: 97
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

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What was the score of I (in points) in race 4?


Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.
[quizky-text]
1)

2)

3)

15

4)

52

Explanation:

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Therefore, the score of I in race 4 was 7.


Question: 98
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
What was the score of F (in points) in race 1?
1)

2)

3)

4)

Explanation:

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Hence, [1].
Question: 99
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
What was the score of F (in points) in race 5?
1)

2)

3)

4)

Cannot be determined

Explanation:

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Hence, [4].
Question: 100
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
What is the ratio of the points scored by D in race 4 to the points scored by E in race 3?
1)

1:1

2)

2:5

3)

2:7

4)

Either 1 : 1 or 2 : 7

Explanation:

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Hence, [4].

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