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TRAINEE NAME: ________________________________________________






Flight Instrument Systems

Attitude Instrument Flying
Instrument Navigation



Communication ATC Clearances

Departure Charts and Procedures
En-route and Area Charts
En-route and Holding Procedures



Arrival Charts and Procedures

Approach Charts - Heading
Approach Charts - Plan and Profile
Approach Charts - Minimums



Approach Procedures
VOR and NDB Approaches
ILS Approaches
Airport Charts



Weather Factors
Weather Hazards
Weather Charts Exercises
Reading Material



Emergency Procedures
IFR Emergencies



Weight and Balance



Exam Review

DAY 10

ALsim briefing & Tech Talk


Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate or a graph:
1. What happens to air density if the altitude increases? (Increase/Decrease)
2. What happens to air density if temperature increases? (Increase/Decrease)
3. International standard atmospheric condition is ______ inches mercury, at _____ F or ______ millibars at
_____ C.
4. Name instrument which measures the difference of pressure between dynamic pressure and static
pressure? _______________________.
5. Name one important airspeed which is not shown by any marking or color on the face of an airspeed
indicator? ____________________.
6. The vertical speed indicator provides ________ and ________ information.
7. The only instrument that displays both pitch and bank information is the ______.
8. The tilting or turning of a gyro in response to pressure is known as ___________.
9. A standard rate turns is ______ per second.
10. To maintain a standard rate turn while the airspeed decreases, you must (increase/decrease) the bank
11. The heading indicator senses movement about the _________axis.
12. Answer the following questions by indicating True or False:

_____ Absolute altitude is the actual height of the airplane above ground level.
_____ A green arc on the face of an altimeter indicates normal cruise altitude.
_____ True altitude is the actual height of the airplane above sea level.
_____ An altimeter cannot be used to find pressure altitude.
_____ Magnetic Dip is virtually nonexistent near the North and South poles.
_____ FAR 91.205 includes instrument and equipment requirement for VFR and IFR flight.
_____ The reliability of the heading indicator and the attitude indicator can be affected by low vacuum

13. A pilot changes the altimeter setting from 28.50 to 28.90 while flying at an altitude of 6,500 feet, what will the
altimeter indicate after the change in setting? ___________ ft.
14. To legally operate under IFR in controlled airspace, your aircrafts static system must have been inspected
within the preceding ______ calendar months.

15. The force that keeps a spinning gyro in a fixed position and resistant to external forces is known as

16. It takes ______ seconds to make a standard rate turn to the right from a heading of 030 to a heading of 120
17. The rate of turn varies with changes in true airspeed and _____________.
18. What happens to the radius of turn, if airspeed is increased in a constant banked turn?
19. A good quality magnet will always point to true North when suspended freely _____ (True/False).
20. In the northern hemisphere an aircraft is decelerating while on a Southerly heading, which way will the
compass needle turn? _______________________.
21. Which flight instrument is not required for flight under IFR? ________________.
22. The ball in the inclinometer of a turn coordinator shows the _________ of a turn.
23. The reliability of the heading indicator and the attitude indicator can be affected by low vacuum pressure.
______ (True/False).
24. The only direction seeking instrument in most small aircraft is the____________.
25. The angular distance between the true and magnetic poles is called __________.
26. To correct for magnetic deviation, you should use the _____________________.

27. Acceleration and deceleration errors are most apparent on headings of _______and ________.
28. Turning errors are most apparent when are turning to or from heading of _______ and ________.
29. The three instruments that operate on the principle of differential pressure are the airspeed indicator, vertical
speed indicator and the ____________________.
30. The only pitot-static instrument that uses pitot pressure is the ______________.
31. Match the type of airspeed with the appropriate definition
Mach ___ TAS ___ IAS ___ CAS ___ EAS ___

Ratio of TAS to the Speed of sound.

IAS corrected of installation and instrument errors.
EAS corrected for nonstandard pressure and temperature.
CAS corrected for the compression of air at a particular altitude.
Differential pressure between ram air pressure and static pressure.

32. Match the V-speed abbreviation with the appropriate definition:

VA ___ VFE ___ VLE ___ VLO ___ VNE ___ VNO ___ VSO ___ VSI ___

Never exceed speed.

Design maneuvering speed.
Maximum landing gear operating speed.
Maximum structural cruising speed.
Maximum speed with flaps fully extended.
Maximum speed with landing gear extended.
Stalling speed in a specified configuration.
Stalling speed in landing configuration.

33. Match the type of altitude with the appropriate definition



Absolute altitude




Density altitude
Indicated altitude
Pressure Altitude




True altitude


Pressure Altitude corrected for nonstandard

Actual height above mean sea level.
Height above the earths surface.
What the altimeter reads when it is set to
What the altimeter reads when it is set to
the local altimeter setting.


Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate or a graph:

1. The fundamental instrument flying skill that requires a logical and systematic observation of the instrument
panel is
1) Cross-check.
2) Visualization.
3) Interpretation.
2. A common instrument scanning error that occurs when you stare at a single instrument is
3. Failing to include pertinent instruments in your scan, you are forming the habit of
1) Omission.
2) Deviation.
3) Elimination.
4. The fundamental instrument flying skill that results from proper cross-check and adequate instrument
interpretations is _____________________________.
5. The conditions that determine the pitch attitude required to maintain level flight are
1) Total lift, total drag, and thrust.
2) Airspeed, air density, and aircraft weight.
3) Angle of attack, wind direction, and flight path.
6. In addition to the attitude indicator, the pitch instruments include the
1) Altimeter and airspeed indicator only.
2) Altimeter and vertical speed indicator only.
3) Altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
7. Which is normally considered to be the primary pitch instrument during straight and level flight
1) Altimeter.
2) Attitude indicator.
3) Airspeed indicator.
8. Which instrument is primary for bank control during straight and level flight?
1) Turn coordinator.
2) Magnetic Compass.
3) Heading Indicator.

9. The primary power instrument during straight and level flight is the
1) Tachometer.
2) Airspeed indicator.
3) Manifold pressure gauge.
10. ____ (True, False) Since pitch and power are closely related, adjustment of one usually requires an
appropriate adjustment of the other.
11. The rate of a turn varies with changes in true airspeed and ________________.
12. At any given airspeed, your rate of turn depends on the
1) Centrifugal force.
2) Vertical component of lift.
3) Horizontal component of lift.
13. After reducing power to decrease airspeed in level turn, you must _________ (increase, decrease) the angle
of attack, and/or __________ (increase, decrease) the angle of bank to maintain altitude.
14. As you approach the desired altitude during a climb or descent, the number of feet you should normally use
to lead the level of is approximately _______ % of the vertical speed.
15. When you recover from an unusual attitude without the aid of an attitude indicator, you know you have
passed through a level pitch attitude when the
1) Heading indicator stops moving.
2) Vertical speed indicator shows a zero rate of climb.
3) Altimeter and airspeed needles stop and reverse direction.
16. If the vacuum system fails, leaving you without the attitude indicator and heading indicator, the
_____________ becomes the primary bank instruments.

Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate or a graph:

Refer to the sheet of RMI and HSI presentations provided.

1. Refer to RMI A. The magnetic bearing to the NDB is

1) 310.
2) 240.
3) 050.
2. Refer to RMI B. the airplane is tracking
1) Outbound from an NDB, and is approximately west of the NDB.
2) Outbound from VOR-1, and is on the 045 radial of VOR-2.
3) Inbound to an NDB, and using the VOR to determine position.
3. Refer to RMI C. Which statement could be true?
1) The airplane is approximately south of both VOR stations.
2) The pilot is conducting a VOR accuracy check using a VOT signal.
3) The airplane is established on a DME arc.
4. Refer to RMI D. The airplane is heading
1) Northwest.
2) Southeast.
3) Northeast.
5. Refer to RMI E. The airplane is
1) Abeam the VOR station and/or on a DME arc.
2) Tracking inbound to an NDB on the 210 bearing to the NDB.
3) Heading 030, and on the 120 radial of VOR-2.
6. Refer to RMI F. The airplane is on the
1) 010 radial of VOR-1, and on the 050 radial of VOR-2.
2) 190 bearing to the NDB, and on the 230 bearing to the VOR.
3) 230 radial of VOR-2, and on the 010 bearing to the NDB.
7. Refer to RMI G. The airplane is
1) On a straight-line airway between two different VOR stations.
2) Conducting a VOR check with each needle set to a different VOT signal.
3) Heading north, and established on a DME arc.

8. Refer to RMI H. the airplane is at the intersection of the

1) 270 bearing from an NDB, and the 130 radial of a VOR.
2) 090 radial and 310 radial of two different VOR stations.
3) 130 radial and 270 radial of two different VOR stations.
9. Refer to RMI I. Assume that the airplane is on a DME arc to VOR-1. It could be
1) Northwest of the VOR, correcting for a left crosswind.
2) South of the VOR, correcting for a right crosswind.
3) South of the VOR, with no wind correction indicated.
10. Which RMI shows that the airplane is approximately south of a VOR, and is tracking inbound to that VOR?
1) RMI C.
2) RMI E.
3) RMI G.
11. You have RMI B. Which statement is true?
1) You have not yet reached the 220 radial of the VOR.
2) You are crossing the 220 radial of the VOR.
3) You have already passed the 220 radial of the VOR.
12. You have RMI indication C in Flight. Both (selected) VOR, station is
1) North of your present position.
2) South of your present position.
3) On opposite sides of your present position.
13. You have RMI D. VOR-1 is approximately
1) Southeast of your present position, and VOR-2 is approximately north.
2) North of your present position, and VOR-2 is approximately west.
3) West of your present position, and VOR-2 is approximately northeast.
14. Refer to HSI A. The heading of the airplane is
1) 090.
2) 205.
3) 270.
15. Refer to HSI B. The ambiguity indicator shows
1) 270.
2) TO.
3) FROM.
16. Refer to HSI C. the airplane is
1) Approaching the selected course inbound, and southeast of the VOR.
2) Approaching the selected course inbound, and southwest of the VOR.
3) North of the VOR and heading northwest, to intercept the 360 radial outbound.

17. HSI D shows that the VOR station is

1) South or southwest of the airplane.
2) North or northeast of the airplane.
3) Exactly east of the airplane.
18. HSI F shows that the airplanes is
1) On course and tracking outbound on the selected radial.
2) Crossing the 360 radial.
3) Crossing the 180 radial.
19. Which HSI shows that the airplane has a northwesterly heading?
1) HSI A.
2) HSI B.
3) HSI C.
20. You have HSI C. You have set the HSI to intercept the 180 radial and fly inbound to the VOR. Which
statement is true?
1) You are approaching the set course and, on intercepting it, you should turn right.
2) You are approaching the set course and, on intercepting it, you should turn left.
3) You have passed the set course, and you should turn back to intercept it.
21. You have HSI B. Which statement is true?
1) The VOR station is on your right, and you are getting further away from the course.
2) The VOR station is on your left, and you are getting further away from the course.
3) The VOR station is behind you, and you are flying parallel to the course.
22. Aircraft number 5 is south of the VOR, heading northeast. This airplane could have HSI
1) E.
2) F.
3) C.
23. The pilot of aircraft number 6 wishes to intercept the 180 radial and fly inbound on that radial to the VOR.
He must have HSI.
1) C.
2) E.
3) F.
24. Which Aircraft has HSI A?
1) Aircraft number 1.
2) Aircraft number 2.
3) Aircraft number 5.





Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate or a graph:

1. When ATC issues a clearance, regulations specify that you should not
1) Deviate from it under any circumstances.
2) Deviate from it except in an emergency or unless an amended clearance is received.
3) Comply with it if it does not agree with the information in your flight plan.
2. A TCAS resolution advisory permits you to
1) Deviate from a clearance in response to the TCAS advisory.
2) Deviate from any clearance.
3) Obtain priority over other traffic.
3. ATC gives your aircraft priority because of an emergency, you may be required to
1) Notify the FAA immediately, and following it up with a written report.
2) Submit a report only if the emergency involved your aircraft.
3) Submit a written report within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility.
4. Which type of airborne equipment provides traffic advisories and resolution advisories?
1) TCAS I.
3) TCAD.
5. How does TCAS airborne equipment work?
1) It interrogates transponders of other aircraft nearby.
2) It receives and displays signals from ATC radar facilities on the ground.
3) It receives and displays traffic data relayed from satellites in space.
6. You are flying in VMC condition on an IFR flight plan, and you are in controlled airspace in radar contact.
You are
1) Required to see and avoid all traffic.
2) Required to see and avoid only VFR traffic.
3) Not required to see and avoid Traffic, since ATC is responsible for Separation.
7. When you are climbing to your assigned cruising altitude, ATC expects you
1) Climb at an average rate of 1000 feet per minute.
2) Climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per nautical miles.
3) Maintain a continuous rate of climb of at least 500 feet per minute.


8. When you are climbing to your assigned cruising altitude, you should climb at
1) Best rate to within 500 ft of your assigned altitude.
2) An optimum rate to within 1000 ft of your assigned altitude.
3) Best angle to within 10% of your climb rate below your assigned altitude.
9. When climbing or descending on an airway, you should maintain the
1) Right-hand side of the airway.
2) Centerline of the airway, except when maneuvering to avoid traffic.
3) Centerline of the airway, except when changing course more than 30.
10. You may cancel an IFR flight plan any time you are operating in
1) VFR conditions, if you have the destination airport or preceding traffic in sight.
2) Controlled airspace in radar environment, regardless of weather conditions.
3) VFR conditions outside class A airspace.
11. You must have filed an IFR flight plan and received an ATC clearance prior to
1) Entering controlled airspace in IMC conditions.
2) Entering Class A, B, or C airspace in any weather conditions.
3) Flight in any class of airspace in IMC conditions.
12. The clearance limit in your ATC clearance is not your destination airport, then you
1) Should receive and expect further clearance (EFC) time in the ATC clearance.
2) Must hold at the clearance limit until a further clearance is received.
3) Should refuse the clearance and request an amended clearance to the destination.
13. ATC will issue SID or STAR instructions as part of an ATC clearance
1) Only if the pilot requests them in the IFR flight plan.
2) At all times when the Sid (or STAR) serves the route specified in the clearance.
3) Unless the pilot states No SID/STAR in the flight plan.
14. A CRUISE clearance authorizes you to fly at any altitude from the
1) Minimum IFR altitude up to and including the assigned altitude.
2) Assigned altitude up to and including the maximum IFR altitude.
3) Minimum IFR altitude up to and including the maximum IFR altitude.
15. An example of an ABBREVIATED departure clearance is
1) Cleared to Dallas, V76 Nashville, V258, maintain one six thousand.
2) Cleared to Dallas as filed, maintain one six thousand.
3) Cleared to Dallas, V76 Nashville, V2578.


16. A VFR-ON-TOP clearance issued to a pilot on an IFR flight authorizes that pilot to fly in
1) VMC conditions at an appropriate VFR cruising altitude.
2) VMC at an IFR altitude, and in IMC at a VFR altitude.
3) VMC conditions at an appropriate IFR cruising altitude.
17. A VFR-ON-Top clearance can only be assigned by ATC if
1) ATC considers it appropriate, whether or not the pilot requests it.
2) Broken or overcast sky cover is reported below, but not above, the cruising altitude requested in the
IFR flight plan.
3) It has been requested by the pilot, and suitable conditions exist.
18. You have filed an IFR flight plan. ATC issues you a clearance to climb to VFR ON-TOP in your clearance,
you should expect
1) an ATC request to report reaching your assigned altitude.
2) an ATC request to report reaching VFR-ON-TOP, but no specific altitude assignment.
3) No clearance limit, since ATC expects you to descend and land under VFR.
19. If ATC states CLEARED FOR APPROACH, you are authorized to conduct
1) The approach procedure of your choice at your destination airport.
2) A non precision approach at your destination, but not a precision approach.
3) A visual approach to the active landing runway at your destination.
20. CONTACT approach must be
1) Used in lieu of a visual approach, with the same minimums, when the pilot has the airport, or
preceding traffic in sight.
2) Assigned by ATC, if ground visibility is at least 1 sm.
3) Requested by the pilot and approved by ATC, if ground visibility is at least 1 sm.

21. In order to conduct a VISUAL approach, you must have

1) At least one mile flight visibility, and be able to remain clear of clouds.
2) Radar vectors to your final approach course, and reported weather must be CAVOK.
3) The airport or a preceding aircraft in sight.
22. A COMPOSITE flight plan is a request to operate
1) A flight of two or more legs with intermediate stopovers of less than one hour.
2) One part of a flight under IFR and another part under VFR.
3) Under IFR rules in VMC conditions.
23. A CLEARANCE RELEASE TIME specifies the
1) Time you can expect to receive your ATC clearance.
2) Latest time you may depart.
3) Earliest time you may depart.


24. As good operating procedure, you should read back

1) Every part of each clearance in full.
2) That part of a clearance containing frequencies and transponder code
3) That part of a clearance containing altitude assignments and/or vectors.
25. Recommended clearance shorthand for crossing is
1) C.
2) X.
3) +.



Answer the following questions using the provided plates

1. Assume that the reported weather conditions at the time of departure are 2,000 feet broken, 15 miles
visibility, and the wind is calm. If the climb performance of your airplane is determined to be 200 feet per
nautical mile, you should plan runway _________ for departure.
2. When filing your flight plan, what code should you enter on the flight plan for the Border SIX Departure with
Julian Transition?



3. When departing runway 27, you initially fly a _______ heading until PGY 19 DME.
4. If you have filed for the Border SIX Departure, Imperial Transition, the basic portion of the departure
procedure ends at the


Brows Intersection.
25 mile DME fix on the 069 radial of the POGGI VORTAC.
Imperial VORTAC.

5. The Brows intersection is identified by the


64.0 mile DME on the IMP R-250.

21.0 mile DME on the MZB R-096.
POGGI R-069 and Mission Bay R-096.
11.0 mile DME on the POGGI VOR R-249.

6. The departure frequency for runway 9 at San Diego is _________ Mhz.

7. The minimum altitude for the Julian Transition is _________ feet MSL.
8. The length of the Imperial Transition is

25 n.m.
36 n.m.
64 n.m.
75 n.m.


9. If you choose to fly the departure procedure to the Brows Intersection, what is the appropriate code to enter
in your IFR flight plan?


10. The Border SIX Departure is a pilot NAV procedure, you can expect the initial altitude to be

Assigned by the controller.

7,000 feet at the Brows Intersection.
8,500 feet at the Brows Intersection.
Assigned by the controller, provided a full route clearance is given in the initial clearance.

11. The greatest distance a weather observer or tower personanel can see throughout one-half the horizon is
called ___________________.
12. The visibility determined for a particular runway by a device, called a transmissometer, located near the
runway is called ______________________.
13. What is Runway Visual Range?
14. List two of departure options
1) _____________________________.
2) _____________________________.
15. (True/False) During the IFR departure, you should not contact departure control until advised to do so by the
16. (True/False) Radar Contact is used by ATC to advise you that your aircraft has been identified and radar
flight following will be provided until radar identification has been terminated.
17. (true/false) Resume own navigation is a phrase used by ATC to advise you to assume responsibility for
your own navigation.





Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate or a graph:

1. On the front panel diagram of an enroute chart, a line of Ts represents a

1) National boundary (between countries).
2) Time zone boundary.
3) Terminal area, traffic area or flight information region.
2. On an enroute chart, compass locators are shown
1) By maroon or magenta circles surrounded by concentric dots.
2) With an arrow pointing to true north.
3) Only when the facility provides an enroute function or TWEB information.
3. On an enroute chart, Navaid facility information in a box indicates that the facility
1) Is part of an airway.
2) Is a low or medium frequency facility (eg: an NDB).
3) Has voice capability and/ or weather reporting capability.
4. The width of an airway is
1) 4 n.m. below 18,000ft MSL, and 8 n.m. above that altitude.
2) The width at any given point of an angle of 4.5 degrees from the center of the Navaid.
3) Normally 8 n.m. but can be more at distances more than 51 n.m. from the Navaid.
5. A mileage break point is shown by
1) An X.
2) An open triangle.
3) The letters MBP.
6. An intersection shown with a solid triangle is a
1) Compulsory reporting point.
2) Noncompulsory reporting point.
3) Radar vector fix.
7. At the MEA, adequate communication is
1) Guaranteed.
2) Expected, but not guaranteed.
3) Guaranteed only within 22 n.m. of the communication facility.


8. A MOCA guarantees adequate obstruction clearance

1) and navigation signal coverage for the entire route segment shown.
2) which is 1000 ft above the highest obstacle in mountainous areas.
3) for the entire route segment, but navigation signal coverage only within 22 n.m. of the navigation
9. The acronym MORA means
1) Minimum Obstruction Route Altitude.
2) Minimum Off-route Altitude.
3) Maximum Off-airways Recommended Altitude.
10. The MORA provides obstruction clearance which is
1) 1000 ft in non-mountainous areas, and 2000 ft in mountainous areas.
2) 2000 ft in non-mountainous areas, and 3000 ft in mountainous areas.
3) 1500 ft in all areas.
11. The main reason for having a maximum authorized altitude (MAA) is to avoid
1) Upper airspace where reduced vertical separation rules (RVSM) apply.
2) Possible navigation signal confusion.
3) Flight near the tropopause with its possible turbulence.
12. An MRA is designated where a minimum altitude is needed in order to
1) Maintain obstruction clearance.
2) Identify an intersection.
3) Avoid lower airspace, where restriction may apply.

13. If an MCA is designated at a fix for your direction of flight, then you
1) Can climb on reaching the fix.
2) Are guaranteed 2000 ft of obstacle clearance at the fix.
3) Must climb before the fix so as to arrive at the fix at or above the MCA.
14. The symbol is used to designated a changeover point (COP)
1) Which is not exactly midway between Navaids.
2) Which is exactly midway between Navaids.
3) When DME is not available for navigation.
15. How would you know that a particular Navaid facility provides HIWAS or TWEB?
1) The acronym is placed above the Navaid facility box on the chart.
2) There is a small square in the upper left-hand corner of the chart facility box.
3) The Navaid facility box on the chart has a shadow.


16. Your route of flight crosses a line which looks like this
your flight you can expect to

at or near this point on

1) Change to a different navigation facility frequency.

2) Change to a different enroute or area chart.
3) Change to a different communication frequency.
17. If an airport symbol and its related information is in blue, it means that the airport
1) Is a controlled airport (ie: with an operating control tower).
2) Is a military airport.
3) Has at least one instrument approach procedure.
18. Jeppesen enroute charts show the outlines of Class D and E airspace in the U.S. which surrounds an airport
with a
1) Dashed blue line.
2) Maroon banded line.
3) Thick blue shaded line.
19. The boundary of a restricted area is shown with a
1) Solid blue line.
2) Green hatched line.
3) Maroon hatched line.
20. AREA chart provides
1) Small scale depictions of large area, and are intended for long range flight planning.
2) Large scale depictions of terminal areas.
3) Depictions of approach and departure information, including SID and STAR routes.


Answer each question by using the Jeppesen ME (H/L) 15/16 enroute chart provided.

1. On this chart, a distance of 1.25 inches is equivalent to approximately

1) 16 n.m.
2) 50 n.m.
3) 100 n.m.
2. This chart should be / should have been used for actual flight purposes
1) As soon as it is / was received (until a more recent chart has been issued).
2) 14 Nov 2013.
3) At any time provided current NOTAMs have been consulted.
3. The lower limit of airway within Jeddah FIR outside TMAs is
1) 1,200 feet AGL.
2) 11,500 feet MSL.
3) 18,000 feet MSL.
4. In the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia, flying outside of ATS routes is
1) Permitted.
2) Permitted under VFR rules only.
3) Prohibited.
5. The CHANGES section refers to a Navaids being DECOMMISSIONED This means that those Navaids
1) Have been switched off and are no longer available for navigation purposes.
2) Have Co-located communication facilities.
3) Are probably new, and have been switched on.
6. The lower limit of Class A airspace in the Emirates is
1) 10,500 feet.
2) 14,500 feet.
3) Unlimited (no limit is specified).
7. The frequency for ABHA TOWER when it is in operation is
1) 122.8 MHz
2) 118.1 MHz
3) 112.9 MHz
8. Airspace listed with the letter D indicates
1) Danger Area.
2) That only direct flight between Navaids is allowed.
3) Class D airspace.


9. The vertical height of Prohibited Area OE(P)-1 is

1) 5,000 feet.
2) From the surface to the base of the overlying airspace.
3) Unlimited.
10. Jeddah (King Adulaziz) Airport is located on chart
1) ME(H/L)15, panel 3, section D.
2) ME(H/L)15, section 3, panel C/D.
3) ME(H/L)16, page 3, panel D.


11. The distance between GAS (Gassim) and PMA (Madinah) VOR along airway G674 is
1) 244 n.m.
2) 245 n.m.
3) 170 n.m.
12. Airway G782 from Riyadh to Jeddah is normally used by traffic
1) One way, westbound only.
2) One-way, eastbound only.
3) In both directions.
13. Airway B417, northeast of Jeddah, the distance between TAGNA and BDB is
1) 90 n.m.
2) 216 n.m.
3) 222 n.m.
14. You are northwest of Jeddah, inbound on airway M999 at DEDLI, ATC tells you to hold at IMLER as
published. Your holding pattern entry should be
1) Direct.
2) Teardrop.
3) Parallel.

15. Which statement is true about airway G799 between Madinah (PMA) and Dafinah (DFN)?
1) G799 is a direct (RNAV) route.
2) ITIMU and EKLIL intersection are not part of G799.
3) G799 underlies UL573.


16. The GRID MORA in the vicinity of Taif is

1) 4,848 feet.
2) Between 7000 ft. and 10600 ft, depending on the airway.
3) 11,400 ft.
17. MOBES (Southeast of Jeddah) is
1) A compulsory reporting point.
2) On the 108 radial of BHA.
3) 108 n.m. from BHA.
18. Southwest of Jeddah on airway UM863, GIBAP is
1) 60 n.m. from Jeddah.
2) On the Jeddah FIR/Khartoum FIR boundary.
3) With the special use airspace designated as OE(D)-14B.
19. TAIF airport elevation is
1) 4,848 ft.
2) 4,878 ft.
3) 4,894 ft.



Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate or a graph:


(True, False) When acknowledging a frequency change, you should read it back to the controller.

2. If you are unable to establish communications on a newly assigned frequency, you should
1) Adjust the transponder to code 7600.
2) Return to the previously assigned frequency.
3) Remain on the newly assigned frequency and await further instruction.
3. If you are operating in a non-radar environment on a direct course that is not an established airway, you
must report
1) Every 25 miles along the route.
2) Over the fixes used to define the route.
3) When you are established on a published Victor Airway.
4. What reports are you required making when you are operating on an IFR clearance specifying VFR on top in
a non-radar environment?
1) All normal IFR reports except changes in altitude.
2) All normal IFR reports except changing altitudes and enroute position reports.
3) The same compulsory reports that is required in a non-radar environment for any IFR flight.
5. You must advise ATC whenever you true airspeed changes by _____ knots or _____ %, which is greater.
6. If 30 seconds are required for the inbound leg of a holding pattern at 10,000 feet, you should adjust the next
outbound leg to approximately
1) 60 seconds.
2) 75 seconds.
3) 90 seconds.
7. What is the maximum indicated airspeed allowed a propeller-driven aircraft holding at 14,000 ft MSL?
1) 200 knots.
2) 210 knots.
3) 230 knots.
8. The recommended entry procedure to a holding pattern is determined by the aircrafts
1) True heading.
2) Magnetic course.
3) Magnetic heading.


To answer question 9 through 11, refer to the accompanying HSI illustration and assume you are tracking inbound to
the Wichita VOR. Select the type of holding pattern entry most appropriate for each station.

9. . Hold east of the Wichita VORTAC on the 080 radial

1) Direct only.
2) Parallel only.
3) Teardrop only.
10. . Hold southeast of the Wichita VORTAC on the 125 radial .
1) Direct only.
2) Parallel only.
3) Teardrop only.
11. . Hold west of the Wichita VORTAC on the 270 radial. Left turns .
1) Direct only.
2) Teardrop only.
3) Parallel only.


To answer question 12 through 15, refer to the accompanying illustration and match the VOR indicators to each
airplane position.

12. ___________ .
13. ___________ .
14. ___________ .
15. ___________ .

16. When you are assigned an IFR altitude at or above 18,000 feet MSL on a direct flight not using the airway
structure, you should set the altimeter to
1) 29.92 Before takeoff.
2) The current reported setting for takeoff and climb-out and then to 29.92 when reaching 18,000 feet
3) The current reported setting until you reach the cruising altitude then set it to 29.92.


17. Refer to the accompanying illustration to answer this question. If you arrive over the DME fix on a heading of
350 , which recommended holding pattern entry and procedure complies with the ATC clearance. .
Holding west of the 15 DME fix on the 270 radial of the XYZ VORTAC, five mile legs, left turns ?

1) 1- Direct entry.
2) 2- Direct or teardrop entry.
3) 2- Parallel entry.
18. A clearance for a pilots discretion descent authorizes you to initiate the descent at anytime you choose and
also permits you to
1) Level off at the newly assigned altitude without reporting.
2) Level off temporarily at any intermediate altitude during the descent.
3) Level off temporarily at any altitude and climb back to any previously assigned altitude.



Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate or a graph:

1. The main purpose of STARs is to

1) Provide instrument arrival procedures to airports which have no SIAPs.
2) Simplify clearance delivery procedures.
3) Substitute for feeder routes in high traffic density airspace.
2. A STAR officially begins at
1) The point or place where ATC assigns the STAR.
2) The Navaid or intersection at which each arrival transition begins.
3) The common Navaid or intersection where all arrival transitions come together.
3. A Transition (on a STAR) is a route that
1) Brings traffic from one of several different directions into one STAR.
2) Permits climbing and descending traffic to pass through the transition altitude.
3) Beings at the end of the STAR and ends at an initial approach fix.
4. What information may be included on certain STARs to help jet aircraft flight crew with descent planning?
1) Arrival route headings.
2) Frequencies to use to contact the proper approach controller.
3) Vertical navigation planning information.
5. ATC can assign a STAR to you
1) Only if you request it, and you must have the full STAR (text and plan view).
2) Unless you refuse it when it is verbally issued.
3) Even if you did not request it, unless you specified No STAR on your flight plan.
6. Information about SIAPs in use at an airport may not be provided when
1) ATIS is broadcast by the airport.
2) The reported visibility is 3 s.m. or better, and the ceiling is at or above the highest initial approach
altitude established for any SIAP at that airport.
3) The airport has at least one precision approach procedure, and reported conditions are better than
the highest minimums published for any of these procedures.


7. In order to achieve proper sequencing and separation for arriving traffic, ATC may
1) Assign higher-than-normal airspeeds for piston-engine aircraft.
2) Issue vectors only to IFR traffic, whether or not VMC conditions exist.
3) Assign lower-than-normal descent rate for turbine powered aircraft.
8. The maximum speed limitations specified in FAR 91.117 (aircraft speed) apply
1) At all times.
2) At all times except when speed adjustments are issued by ATC.
3) At all times except for certain operations inside class C or D airspace.
9. On descent into Jeddah from a higher cruise altitude, you should set the QNH when
1) Passing through 13,000 ft.
2) Passing through FL150.
3) First listening to ATIS, then re-set if a different QNH is provided by ATC.



Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate or a graph:

1. JEDDAH ILS DME RWY 34C. The first day this chart can be used for navigation is
1) 4 OCT 1991.
2) 22 Aug 2013.
3) Immediately on receipt.
2. JEDDAH ILS DME RWY 34C. The first communication freq likely to be used is
1) ATIS 116.4
2) Approach 124.0
3) Approach 119.1
3. JEDDAH ILS DME RWY 34C. This DME transmitter is co-located with
1) The VOR.
2) No other Navaid.
3) The ILS.
4. RIYADH ILS DME RWY 33R. The number 2 in the chart index indicates that
1) King Khalid intl. is the second airport serving Riyadh.
2) This is the second ILS procedure for this runway.
3) This procedure requires two Navaids, ILS and DME.
5. RIYADH ILS DME RWY 33R. the order of normal use for communication frequencies is
1) ATIS, Approach Control, Approach Final, Ground Control.
2) LOC, Approach Control, Tower, Ground Control.
3) ATIS, Approach Control, Tower, Ground Control.
6. RIYADH ILS DME RWY 33R. To establish the QFE altimeter setting, you may
1) Add 72 hPa to the reported QNH altimeter setting.
2) Subtract 72 hPa from the reported QNH altimeter setting.
3) Use the QNH altimeter setting, converted to hPa.

7. TAIF ILS DME RWY 35. To use this procedure, the aircraft must be equipped with
1) Both ILS and DME.
2) Either ILS or DME.
3) ILS, but the use of DME is optional.



1) FL150.
2) 13,000 ft MSL.
3) 8,225 ft MSL.
9. TAIF ILS DME RWY 35. The chart index 11-3 indicates that this is the
1) First ILS procedure at the first airport serving Taif.
2) Eleventh SIAP chart published for this airport.
3) Eleventh published version of this approach procedure.
10. RABIGH VORDME-A. The letter -A in the procedure title indicates that
1) The missed approach point is within the airport boundary.
2) This chart is for the first of more than one version of this procedure.
3) Only circling minimums are authorized.
11. RABIGH VORDME-A. The black border on the left side of the chart index outline indicates that
1) This chart is not published by Jeppesen.
2) This is a special chart, modified for the users (i.e.: SAUDIAs) purpose.
3) This chart is for demonstration purposes only, and is not for use in navigation.
12. MADINAH ILS DME RWY 35. The Touchdown Zone Elevation is
1) 44 ft lower than the airport elevation.
2) 44 ft higher than the airport elevation.
3) 75 ft higher than the pattern altitude.
13. MADINAH ILS DME RWY 35. The difference between the final approach course and the (magnetic) landing
runway direction is
1) 3 .
2) Zero.
3) 7 .
14. MADINAH ILS DME RWY 35. If a missed approach is executed, you may make a right turn
1) Immediately.
2) Only at the 16 DME arc.
3) On reaching 3000 feet.
15. AL BAHA VOR DME RWY 25. You are 20 n.m from BHA on the 270 radial, and not on a published route. At
your location, the MSA is
1) 9,000 ft.
2) 10,000 ft.
3) 13,000 ft.


16. AL BAHA VOR DME RWY 25. This procedure is not authorize
1) For non-Saudia Airlines aircraft.
2) Unless the aircraft is equipped with dual VOR receivers.
3) If the Al Baha altimeter setting is not available.
17. RAFHA VOR RWY 11. The MSA is
1) 3,500 ft MSL in all directions up to 25 n.m radius from RAF VOR.
2) 3,500 ft AGL in all directions up to 25 s.m radius from RAF VOR.
3) 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a 3,500 ft radius of RAF VOR.
18. RAFHA VOR RWY 11. The MDA is
1) 541 ft MSL.
2) 541 ft above the Airport Elevation.
3) 541 ft above the Touchdown Zone Elevation.
19. SHARURAH ILS DME Rwy 08. The communication frequency 133.5 MHz is used for FRS. FRS stands for
1) Flight Radio Station.
2) Fire Rescue Service.
3) Facilities Reporting for Saudia.
20. SHARURAH ILS DME Rwy 08. In the chart index, the figure 1 signifies
1) The sixth IAP chart for Sharurah.
2) The sixth airport at Sharurah.
3) An ILS approach.






Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate or a graph:

1. List the four approach segments that an instrument approach may utilize
_______________________________ .
_______________________________ .
_______________________________ .
_______________________________ .
2. The route that provides a transition from the enroute structure to the approach structure is called a
_______________ route.
3. When a Final Approach Fix is NOT designated for a non-precision approach. The FAF is typically the point
where the procedure turn intercepts the _________________ inbound.
4. The missed approach point (MAP) for a precision approach occurs when you reach the ______.
5. The published MSA for each sector provides

The minimum altitude for transition from the enroute to the intial approach segment.
500 ft of obstacle clearance and guarantees acceptable navigation and communication reception.
1000 ft of obstacle clearance and guarantees acceptable navigation and communication reception.
1,000 ft of obstacle clearance but does not guarantee acceptable navigation and communication

Answer the following question, refer to King Abdulaziz Intl ILS DME Rwy 34C

6. The OEJN tower frequency is

1) 121.9
2) 121.6
3) 118.2
7. The elevation of the OEJN airport is
1) 48 ft.
2) 27 ft.
3) 52 ft.
8. The minium fly over altitude over JDW is
1) 3800 ft.
2) 5000 ft.
3) 3200 ft.


9. The ILS localizer is aligned on a magnetic course of ______ and the frequency is _____ MHz.
10. (True/False) The recommended altitude at 2 DME from IJDW is 677 feet.
11. When flying the procedure turn for the ILS Rwy 34C approach. You must remain within ______ n.m from
12. The minimum procedure turn altitude is
1) 5000 ft.
2) 3000 ft.
3) 2500 ft.
13. When you are inbound on the intermediate approach segment, the minum glide slope intercept altitude is
1) 1700 ft.
2) 1600 ft.
3) 1550 ft.
14. The point at which you intercept the glide slope when operating at the minimum glide slope intercept altitude
represents the _________.
15. When you are established inbound with glide slop out, you will cross the altitude of 980 ft at ______ n.m from
16. In case of glide slop out, resutling in LOC approach, the FAF is now located at __________, which is
________ n.m from the end of the runway.
17. If you remain on th glide slope centerline and continue the approach to landing, you will cross the runway
threshold at
1) 27 ft.
2) 52 ft.
3) 48 ft.
18. the difference between the touchdown zone elevation and airport elevation is _______ ft.
19. According to straight-in minimums, the decision height for a CAT C aircraft is ______ ft MSL, or _______ ft
above TDZE.
20. (True/False) The circle to land minimum for a CAT D aircraft executing an ILS procedure is 1,020 ft MSL.
21. If the glide slope is inoprative, the minimum descent altitude is ______ ft MSL.





Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate or a graph:

1. Landing minimums published on instrument approach charts consist of

1) Minimum equipment and minimum visibility requirements.
2) Conversion/rate of descent table, and minimum approach requirements.
3) Minimum visibility and minimum altitude requirements.
2. Aircraft approach categories are based on
1) 1.3 Vso at landing weight.
2) 1.3 Vso at maximum certificated landing weight.
3) 1.3 Vs1 at maximum gross weight.
3. Approach category E applies to
1) All civil aircraft with a computed approach speed of 141 knots or more.
2) Certain military aircraft.
3) All aircraft designated as heavy.
4. Jeppesen approach charts show decision altitude (height), or DA(H) as an
1) MSL altitude, followed by height above touchdown (HAT).
2) AGL height, followed by an MSL altitude.
3) Absolute altitude, followed by a true altitude.
5. When Jeppesen shows an MDA (H) for a circling approach, the H refers to
1) Height above touchdown (HAT).
2) Height above airport (HAT).
3) Heading of the (landing) runway.
6. If RVR landing minimums are prescribed for a SIAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the
intended runway at the time, then
1) A landing is not authorized from that SIAP.
2) One half s.m should be added to the visibility minimum.
3) RVR minimums should be converted and applied as ground visibility.
7. Jeppesen approach charts depict inoperative component landing minimums
1) Directly on the chart, with the normal minimums.
2) In a separate inoperative components table in each chart volume.
3) On the reverse side of the airport chart.


8. If the glide slope becomes inoperative during an ILS procedure

1) The procedure is not authorized, and a missed approach must be executed.
2) Circle-to-land minimums are used.
3) Localizer minimums are used.
9. On Jeppesen charts, circle-to-land minimums may be shown by approach category, or by
1) Landing runway.
2) Maximum speed for circling.
3) Number of engines.
10. When on the glide slope during a precision approach, the MAP is
1) The decision height.
2) Where a 3 angle to the horizontal intersects the designated distance from the runway threshold.
3) Shown by a letter M on a Jeppesen approach chart.
11. JEDDAH straight-in minimums with the approach lights inoperative are
1) MDA (H) 420 ft, RVR 1500m.
2) DA 200 ft, RVR 1200m.
3) DA 272 ft, RVR 1200m.
12. RIYADH the localizer MDA (H) is
1) 387 ft MSL.
2) 2420 ft MSL.
3) 387 ft above airport elevation.
13. RIYADAH RVR is not reported, but all other components are operative for the straight-in procedure, the
visibility minimum is
1) 550 m.
2) 550 m converted to the equivalent ground visibility.
3) 800 m.
14. RIYADH you are performing the straight-in procedure to RWY 15L. The approach lights and the touchdown
zone lights are inoperative. Which statement is true?
1) The RVR or visibility minimum is 1,200 m.
2) The RVR minimum is 1920 m. (i.e.; 720 m + 1,200 m).
3) A landing is not authorized since two specified components are inoperative.


15. GASSIM you are circling to land at 180 knots. Your landing minimums are
1) MDA (H) 2,900 ft, Visibility 3600 m.
2) MDA (H) 2,800 ft, RVR 4000 m.
3) MDA (H) 2,900 ft, RVR or visibility 4,000 m.
16. GASSIM when this chart was published, what had changed from the old chart?
1) Landing minimums changed for the sixth time.
2) Visual navigation information was added, in the landing minimums table.
3) Holding Altitude added and Segment Minimum Altitude added.
17. MADINAH using the VOR procedure, you are circling to land on runway 35 in a Beech A-36 Bonanza, your
MDA is
1) 3,300 ft, and you must circle west of the landing runway.
2) 3,300 ft, and you should circle east of the landing runway.
3) 3,260 ft, and you should circle east of the landing runway.
18. MADINAH regarding this approach procedure, which statement is true
1) Both VOR and ADF are mandatory (required) equipment in the airplane.
2) For a category D airplane, the only difference in straight-in landing minimums between the VOR and
NDB procedures is that the NDB MDA (H) is higher.
3) The touchdown zone elevation of runway 35 is 2,107 ft MSL.
19. HAIL the airport elevation at Hail is
1) 3,331 ft MSL.
2) 3,299 ft MSL.
3) 3,840 ft MSL.
20. HAIL using this procedure for circling-to-land on runway 18, you should circle
1) East of the airport in any airplane.
2) East of the airport if your circling IAS is more than 135 knots.
3) East of the airport if your airspeed on the approach to RWY 18 is more than 135 knots.
21. QAISUMAH you intend land straight-in on runway 16. Your DME is inoperative Vso for your airplane at
maximum landing weight is 94 knots. Your landing minimums are
1) MDA 1760 ft, Visibility 1,600 m.
2) MDA 2000 ft, Visibility 2,000 m.
3) MDA 2000 ft, Visibility 4,000 m.
22. QAISUMAH when using this procedure and circling to land on RWY 34, you should
1) Circle east of the airport and look out for an antenna approximately in front of you.
2) Circle west of the airport and look out for an antenna off your right wing.
3) Circle east of the airport and look out for an antenna which you should pass before you turn on final
for the landing runway.












Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate:

1. Feeder routes provide a transition from

1) One of several fixes to a common point from which a STAR begins.
2) The enroute structure to an IAF or facility from which a course reversal is initiated.
3) One fix to another via a direct route for which area navigation equipment is required.
2. Straight-in landing minimums are used when
1) A course reversal is not published or si not authorized.
2) Radar vectors or DME arc is used to join the final approach course.
3) The final approach course is within 30 degrees of the runway alignment.
3. A straight-in approach means that
1) A procedure turn or course reversal is neither required nor authorized.
2) The final approach course is more than 30 from the runway alignment.
3) The airport has radar in operation and approved for approach control service.
4. Which is provided by a PAR approach, but not by an ASR approach?
1) Azimuth guidance.
2) Range guidance.
3) Elevation Guidance.
5. When Radar vectors are provided during an instrument approach procedure
1) The final vector normal intercept the final approach course at 45 angle.
2) A published course reversal is not required.
3) Minimum altitudes published on the approach chart no longer apply.
6. When you are cleared for an approach while being radar vectored, you must maintain
1) Your last assigned altitude until established on the published approach.
2) The altitude on the segment of the approach which you are being vectored to.
3) The highest of assigned altitude, published altitude or minimum safe altitude.
7. During radar vectoring, controllers will assign altitudes that are at or above the
1) Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA).
2) Minimum safe altitude (MSA).
3) Minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA).


8. Most course reversals require this procedure to be completed within 10 n.m. of the
1) Primary Navaid or fix designated on the approach chart.
2) Center of the airport.
3) Point where the course reversal begins.
9. The maximum speed permitted in a procedure turn is
1) 200 kt IAS.
2) 230 kt IAS.
3) 250 kt IAS.
10. If you are above the altitude designated for a course reversal, you may begin descent
1) Immediately.
2) When you begin the course reversal.
3) As soon as you cross the initial approach fix.
11. Which of these is not a required condition for making timed approaches from a holding fix?
1) If more than one missed approach procedure is available, none require course reversal.
2) The airport control tower must have radar service.
3) A procedure turn is not authorized after you have been cleared for the approach.
12. If you are using the approach lights for visual reference, you may not descend lower than 100 ft above the
touchdown zone elevation unless you can see and identify
1) The red terminating bars or the red side row bars.
2) The threshold lights and / or touchdown zone lights.
3) Any component of the approach light system.
13. Which is not a visual reference as a requirement for descending below the MDA or DA (H)?
1) Touchdown zone lights or markings.
2) VASI or other similar glide path indicator light system.
3) Taxiway or hold line markings or lights.
14. You are executing an ILS approach to a runway which has VASI. You have passed the OM inbound and a
glide slope malfunction occurs. You have the VASI in sight. You should
1) Immediately execute an missed approach.
2) Continue the approach at or above the VASI glide path.
3) Continue the approach on instruments to the localizer MDA, and to the MAP.
15. When landing on a down-sloping runway, you might experience a visual illusion of
1) Pitching up, causing you to fly an approach which is too steep.
2) Less height, causing you to fly an approach which is too high.
3) Greater height, causing you to fly an approach which is too low.


16. For circling to land in a category B aircraft at a category C speed. You should use
1) Category B landing minimums.
2) Category C landing minimums.
3) Category B visibility minimum but Category C MDA.
17. The protected area of obstacle clearance for circling approaches is based on
1) Arcs drawn from each runway end, with arc length dependent on approach category.
2) Arcs drawn from each runway center, with all arc lengths equal.
3) A circle centered at the airport center, with radius dependent on approach category.
18. You have been cleared to make a sidestep on an approach to a parallel runway. You should
1) Commence the sidestep maneuver immediately.
2) Start the sidestep maneuver when the landing runway or its environment is in sight.
3) Use minimums published for the runway you are using for approach, but not landing.
19. If you execute a missed approach before reaching the MAP, you should
1) Follow the missed approach procedure, even if an immediate turn is required.
2) Proceed to the MAP at or above the MDA or DA(H) before making any required turn.
3) Not make any turn at all, whether before or during the missed approach procedure.
20. If you lose visual references while circling to land from an instrument approach, and ATC radar service is not
available, you should
1) Initiate a missed approach, first climbing straight ahead.
2) Continue the approach, but not descend below the circle-to-land MDA.
3) Initiate a missed approach, first making a climbing turn towards the landing runway.
21. One difference between a visual approach and a contact approach is that
1) Your IFR clearance is not canceled if you make a contact approach.
2) A contact approach must be initiated by ATC.
3) The reported ground visibility for a visual approach must be at least 1 s.m.




Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate:
1. The two basic types of VOR and NDB approaches are those which
1) Are precision and nonprecision approach procedures.
2) Use an off-airport facility or an on-airport facility.
3) Are straight-in and those which are circle-to-land.
2. When leaving a DME arc on the turn inbound, you can descend to the lower altitude
1) As you begin the turn inbound.
2) When the CDI needle begins to move from full-scale deflection.
3) When established on the inbound course.
3. What is true of an APPR that contains the name, VOR/DME, in the procedure title
1) Use of DME is required to complete the procedure.
2) Step-down fixes in this procedure are identified with both VOR cross radials and DME values.
3) Use of DME allow you to identify optional step-down fixes and to descend to lower minimums.
4. You are flying a circling maneuver to the favored runway, and the visibility is at or above the required
minimums. You can begin your descent below the MDA
1) When you are in a position from which you can make a normal descent to the runway with adequate
visual reference.
2) After being cleared to land.
3) When you have the airport in sight.
5. JEDDAH VOR DME RWY 34C. For this procedure, DME is
1) Required.
2) Not required.
3) Recommended in order to make use of a lower MDA.
6. JEDDAH VOR DME RWY 34C. Initial contact with JED Approach control should be
1) Made on 114.9 MHz
2) Made on 124.0 MHz
3) Made on 119.1 MHz
7. JEDDAH VOR DME RWY 34C. Which statement is true?
1) The runway touchdown zone elevation is higher than the airport elevation.
2) The runway touchdown zone elevation is lower than the airport elevation.
3) The airport elevation is higher than the touchdown zone by 48 ft.


8. JEDDAH VOR DME RWY 34C. This approach procedure begins

1) At JDW.
2) On joining the 12 DME arc.
3) When ATC clears the aircraft for the approach.
9. JEDDAH VOR DME RWY 34C. On the DME arc, 2500 feet is the
1) Mandatory altitude.
2) Recommended altitude.
3) Minimum altitude.
10. JEDDAH VOR DME RWY 34C. The circle-to-land MDA is
1) 420 ft.
2) 700 ft.
3) Not applicable, since circling-to-land is not authorized.
11. JEDDAH VOR DME RWY 34C. The final approach course is
1) The 352 radial inbound of JDW.
2) 352 m
agnetic course.
3) 340 aligned with the runway centerline.
12. ABHA VOR DME RWY 13. How many Initial Approach fixes are shown?
1) 4.
2) 5.
3) 6.
13. ABHA VOR DME RWY 13. The highest obstacle elevation shown is
1) 6,858 ft.
2) 10,522 ft.
3) 12,000 ft.
14. ABHA VOR DME RWY 13. The missed approach point is
1) 1.6 n.m from ABH VOR.
2) 1.6 n.m from the touchdown zone of runway 13.
3) 0.5 n.m. from ABH VOR.
15. ABHA VOR DME RWY 13. If the Vso is 135 knots for your airplane (at maximum landing weight), what is
the MDA for circle-to-land on runway 31?
1) 7,480 ft.
2) 8,120 ft.
3) 7,700 ft.


16. ABHA VOR DME RWY 13. If you decide to execute a missed approach at the MAP
1) Your initial turn must be to the right.
2) You may turn right immediately. Your holding pattern entry at ABH will be parallel.
3) Your holding pattern entry at ABH will be parallel.
17. RIYADH (King Khalid) VOR RWY 33R. You are holding southeast of KIA VOR, as published, when ATC
clears you for the approach. You must cross the VOR inbound at
1) 3,600 ft.
2) Exactly 3,400 ft.
3) Least (minimum) 3,400 ft.
18. RIYADH VOR RWY 33R. The MDA (H) for a category C aircraft (ALS out) is
1) 2,500 ft, which is 477 ft above TDZE.
2) 2,500 ft, and the RVR minimum is 1,500 m.
3) 1,800 m, and the visibility minimum is 2,000 m.
19. RIYADH (King Khalid) VOR RWY 33R. What is the approximate time from the FAF inbound to the MAP with
a TAS of 120 knots and a 10 knot headwind?
1) 2 min 00 sec.
2) 1 min 52 sec.
3) 2 min 12 sec.
20. RABIGH NDB RWY 33. In the vicinity of Rabigh VOR the MSA is
1) 2,000 ft.
2) 2,700 ft.
3) 2,000 ft, 2,700 ft or 3,600 ft, depending on the sector.
21. RABIGH NDB RWY 33. The correct way to identify the MAP is
1) By timing from the NDB.
2) Visually, when overhead the runway threshold.
3) 2.4 n.m from the NDB.








Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate:

1. What are the normal minimums for an ILS approach with all components operative?
1) s.m and a DH of 100 ft.
2) s.m and a DH of 200 ft.
3) n.m and a DH of 200 ft.
2. The four basic components of an ILS generally consist of a localizer, glide slope, outer marker and
1) Inner marker.
2) Middle marker.
3) Compass locator.
3. The component that provides course guidance to the runway centerline is called the ___________________.
4. The CDI, when used in conjunction with an ILS. Is ___________ (more, less) sensitive than it is for VOR
5. On an ILS approach without DME, you are provided distance information by the
6. When a compass locator is used with an ILS, it usually is located at the __________________.
7. When you fly an ILS with an inoperative glide slope, you must observe the ________ minimums.
8. If you are on the centerlines of the localizer and the glide slope during an ILS approach, but you airspeed is
too high, you should initially adjust __________ (pitch, power).


9. If you are on the glide slope at the IVEYI, the altimeter should indicate
1) 3,000 ft MSL.
2) 2,607 ft MSL.
3) 2,700 ft MSL.
10. During a localizer (GS out) approach to runway 17R, what is the MDA, and how do you determine the
position of the MAP without DME?
1) MDA is 1,482 ft MSL, and the MAP is at the middle marker.
2) MDA is 1,620 ft MSL, and the MAP is just beyond the middle marker.
3) MDA is 1,640 ft MSL, and you determine the MAP by elapsed time after passing the FAF.
11. If you are making the ILS runway 17R approach in a category A aircraft, where is the MAP located?
1) At the runway threshold.
2) 3.4 n.m from the final approach fix.
3) AT the point where your aircraft reaches a decision height of 1,482 ft MSL.
12. At an approach groundspeed of 90 knots, what is the elapsed time from the FAF to the MAP?
1) 3 minutes 28 seconds.
2) 3 minutes 36 seconds.
3) 3 minutes 56 seconds.





Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate:

1. A Jeppesen Airport Chart for a smaller airport is usually located

1) In the lower right-hand corner of each approach chart for the airport.
2) On the reverse side of the first approach chart for the airport.
3) On both sides of a separate page, called the Airport Chart.
2. Which is provided in the heading section of a Jeppesen Airport Chart, but not anywhere on a NOS approach
1) Bearing and distance from nearby VOR station.
2) Latitude and longitude coordinates of the airport.
3) Alternate and departure control communication frequencies.
3. A Jeppesen Airport Chart shows the Airport Reference Point (ARP). This is the
1) Height above sea level of the highest point of usable runway surface.
2) Approximate geometric center of all usable runway surfaces.
3) Location of the rotating beacon or control tower at the airport.
4. On a Jeppesen Airport Chart nonstandard take-off minimums are shown
1) By the symbol T and detailed on a separate nonstandard take-off minimums chart.
2) Directly on the chart.
3) Only for operators of air carrier aircraft with 2 or more engines.
5. You are approaching Jeddah Airport from the west and, after landing, you expect to park at APRON 5. You
would expect to speak to ATC in which order of frequencies?
1) 114.9, 118.2, 121.9
2) 121.6, 118.2, 124.0
3) 124.0, 118,2, 121.6
6. The location of Jeddah Airport is approximately
1) 39 East of the Prime Meridian.
2) 39 East of the Equator.
3) 37 E
ast (ie: 39 East, minus 2 East Variation).
7. (True/False) ACFT parked on Apron 6 not to start engine until been pushed back.


8. At APRON 4, you are cleared to taxi via Uniform, Bravo, Sierra and Foxtrot. Probably, you
1) Are taxiing to the departure end of runway 16R.
2) Are taxiing to the Royal Hanger.
3) Are taxiing to the Hajj Terminal.
9. Which of these runways have the same type of Approach Light System
1) 34L & 16R type ALSFII
2) 34L & 34C type ALSF I
3) 16C & 16L type HIRL
10. How many RVR measuring sites does Jeddah Airport have?
1) 3
2) 8
3) 9
11. The inbound front course to each of the three parallel runways designated 34 is
1) 340
2) 337
3) 158
12. On APRON 6 MAX wing span is
1) 65 m.
2) 63 m.
3) 60 m.
13. Which of these runways has the highest TDZE?
1) 34R.
2) 16L.
3) 34C.
14. After landing on 34C, Ground Control tells you taxi to apron 2, stand 9. You should
1) Taxi via Golf 4 or 5 or 6, and Tango.
2) Taxi via Golf 4 or Golf 5, Foxtrot and Uniform.
3) Taxi via Uniform, past Apron 1, then into Apron 2.
15. Which of these runways at Jeddah is not approved for CAT II operations?
1) 34R
2) 16C
3) 34L


16. Which type of visual approach slope indicator lights does runway 34C have?
1) 2 bar VASI
2) 3 bar VASI
17. From an ILS approach, runway 34R at Jeddah has a usable length for landing of
1) 12,106 ft.
2) 11,004 ft.
3) 11,969 ft.
18. The take-off minimums published on the Jeddah Airport Chart are
1) Standard only, and apply to all aircraft operations.
2) Standard and nonstandard, as shown in the table.
3) Nonstandard, and apply only to air carrier operations
19. Standard take-off minimums at Jeddah for a Boeing 737 is/are
1) RVR at least 5,000 ft or reported visibility at least 1 s.m
2) RVR or reported visibility at least 800 m.
3) RVR or reported visibility at least 1,600 m.
20. Reported visibility at Jeddah is 1,200 m. You have adequate visual reference for take-off. Are you permitted
to depart Jeddah in a Beechcraft A-36 Bonanza?
1) Yes
2) No
3) Yes, but only if the reported RVR for the departure runway is at least 500 m.
21. You are planning an IFR flight from Riyadh to Taif in a privately-operated light twin in which the only glide
slope receiver is inoperative. In order for you to specify Jeddah as an alternate, the minimum conditions
which must apply are a forecast ceiling of at least
1) 800 ft and forecast visibility at least 3,200 m at your Jeddah ETA.
2) 800 ft and forecast visibility at least 2 s.m at your Jeddah ETA.
3) 600 ft and forecast visibility at least 3,200 m at your Taif ETA.










Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate:
1. What percentage of the mass of the atmosphere exists below 53,000 ft?
1) 50%
2) 70%
3) 90%
2. The average height of the tropopause in middle latitudes is
1) 24,000 ft.
2) 36,000 ft.
3) 55,000 ft.
3. The height of the tropopause
1) Varies with the season and location over the globe.
2) Is closer to the earths surface directly over the equator.
3) Is constant (the same) everywhere, and all the time.
4. Which layer of the atmosphere can affect radio signal range and reception?
1) Troposphere.
2) Stratosphere.
3) Ionosphere.
5. Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of a
1) Movement of air.
2) Transfer of heat energy.
3) Change in the weather vapor content of the air.
6. When isobars (on a weather chart) are far apart, wind is likely to be
1) Weak or light.
2) Strong and / or turbulent.
3) Determined only by the extent of the Coriolis force.
7. The main cause of wind is
1) Pressure Difference.
2) Coriolis force.
3) Centrifugal force.


8. A trough is
1) A Center of low pressure surrounded on all sides by higher pressure
2) An area of descending air.
3) An elongated area of low pressure.
9. Coriolis force caused moving air to
1) Be deflected to the left in the north hemisphere.
2) Slow down near the surface.
3) Be cyclonic around a low pressure area in the northern hemisphere.

10. Why is wind direction near the surface often different from wind direction at higher levels?
1) Surface friction weakens the effects of Coriolis force.
2) Land and sea breezes are most powerful close to the surface.
3) Frontal boundaries do not extend vertically to great heights.
11. When water vapor in the air becomes liquid, we call that process
1) Evaporation.
2) Condensation.
3) Deposition.
12. The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on its
1) Dew-point.
2) Temperature.
3) Stability.
13. The temperature at which air becomes saturated is called the
1) Dew-point.
2) Temperature / Dew-point spread.
3) Saturated lapse rate.
14. In terms of what it is and usually how it forms, the difference between cloud and fog is
1) That could require solid particles to act as condensation nuclei for its formation.
2) Nothing except that fog forms at or very close to the surface.
3) That for fog to form the temperature must be below the dew-point but, for cloud to form, the temperature
may be above the dew-point provided that condensation occurs.


15. Moisture in the air in the form of super-cooled water is considered to be a

1) Benefit to flight because it reduces vertical wind velocity and turbulence.
2) Hazard to flight because it evaporates easily, causing fog and / or low visibility.
3) Hazard to flight, because it freezes easily, causing a risk of structural icing.
16. Precipitation is the name we give to
1) The results of deposition or sublimation of moisture, such as dew or frost.
2) Visible moisture which is heavy enough to fall, such as rain or snow.
3) Visible moisture in droplet form, suspended in the air, such as cloud or fog.
17. The main difference between the formation of ice pellet and hail is the hail forms in
1) Clouds with strong vertical currents of air.
2) Smaller sizes than ice pellets
3) Areas where there is freezing rain at higher altitudes.
18. You are flying in wet snow. This indicates that, at your flight altitude
1) The temperature is above freezing.
2) The temperature is below freezing.
3) There is a temperature inversion.
19. When water changes state physically, a heat transfer happens. This heat is known as
1) Radiant heat.
2) Adiabatic heat.
3) Latent heat.
20. Which type of air is least stable (or most unstable)?
1) Warm, Dry air.
2) Warm, moist air.
3) Cold air.
21. When the air is hot, the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is
1) Greater than the dry adiabatic lapse rate.
2) The same as the dry adiabatic lapse rate.
3) Smaller than the dry adiabatic lapse rate.
22. Assuming the average lapse rate, standard temperature at 7,500 ft MSL is
1) 5 C.
2) 0 C
3) -5 C


23. Temperature inversions normally occur in

1) Unstable air with considerable surface heating.
2) Stable conditions in which there is much vertical mixing of air.
3) Stable air with little or no wind and turbulence.
24. A temperature inversion and high humidity near the surface may result in
1) Low-level turbulence and / or wind shear.
2) Poor visibility at or near the surface.
3) Reduced aircraft performance on takeoff.
25. Surface temperature is 25 C, and dew-point is 15 C. You would expect a cloud-base of
1) 4,000 ft AGL
2) 4,000 ft MSL
3) 2,300 ft AGL
26. An airport has an elevation of 2,000 ft. Surface temperature at the airport is 30 C, and dew-point is 10 C. If
could form, you would expect their bases to be approximately
1) 8,000 ft MSL
2) 10,000 ft AGL
3) 10,000 ft MSL
27. Stable air is associated with
1) Stratus clouds, poor visibility and smooth flying conditions.
2) Cumulus clouds, good weather and smooth flying conditions.
3) Thunderstorms, turbulence and showery precipitation.
28. If moist, unstable air is forced to rise, which type of conditions will probably result?
1) Extensive fog over higher ground, drizzle and widespread areas of low visibility.
2) Cumuliform clouds, showery precipitation and turbulence.
3) Clear air with smooth flying condition and light and variable wind.
29. The four families of clouds are high, middle, low and
1) Surface.
2) Indefinite, due to obscuration.
3) Clouds with extensive vertical development.
30. A Cloud name which includes nimb- or -nimbus suggest that the weather will be
1) Wet.
2) Dry and fair.
3) Turbulent below 2,000 to 3,000 ft, but smooth and clear above.


31. The ice crystal in high level clouds such as cirrus

1) Is a serious hazard because of possible structural icing.
2) Are not usually hazardous to flight.
3) Indicate the freezing level.
32. A large body of air with a fairly uniform temperature and moisture content is known as
1) The troposphere.
2) An airmass.
3) A Stationary front.
33. A warm moist airmass moves over a cold surface. The likely result is
1) Thunderstorms.
2) Clear air with good visibility.
3) Low ceiling or fog.
34. An airmass designated as cT is likely to contain air which is
1) Warm and moist.
2) Hot and dry.
3) Cool and moist.
35. A Front is a
1) Boundary between source regions.
2) Boundary between air masses.
3) Change in weather characteristics at the surface.
36. What is always associated with the passage of a frontal system?
1) A change in the wind.
2) A buildup of clouds.
3) Thunderstorms.
37. As (or soon after) you fly through a front, it might be necessary to change your
1) Altimeter setting.
2) Wind correction angle between course (track) and heading.
3) Both of the above (A and B).
38. After the passage of a cold front, you would expect visibility to be
1) Better, outside area of precipitation.
2) Much worse.
3) About the same, since the cold front only results in a temperature change.


39. A warm front is characterized by

1) Warm air moving over the top of cooler air at the surface.
2) Warm air moving under cooler air at the surface.
3) A Wind shift at the surface from SW or SSW to NW or WNW.
40. The typical and usual problems associated with warm fronts are
1) Low ceiling, poor visibility, fog and drizzle.
2) Thunderstorms, turbulence and windshear.
3) Heavy precipitation, hail and even tornadoes.
41. A Stationary front is often a concern to pilots because it
1) Moves rapidly, bringing severe or extreme weather conditions.
2) Has a both cold and warm frontal change within narrow boundaries.
3) May influence local flying condition for several days.
42. What occurs when a fast-moving cold front is warmer than the air ahead of a slow-moving warm front?
1) A cold front occlusion.
2) A frontal cyclone.
3) A warm front occlusion.
43. Frontal waves normally form on
1) Shorelines, where a land or sea breeze exists.
2) Slow-moving cold fronts or stationary fronts.
3) Frontal occlusions (occluded fronts).
44. Jet stream winds are strongest
1) At low-level, and descend from the base of a cumulonimbus cloud.
2) Over tropical and equatorial regions in summer.
3) Near breaks in the tropopause.
45. Typical jet stream wind speeds are
1) Less than 50 knots.
2) Between 60 and 240 knots.
3) Greater than 300 knots



Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate:

1. In addition to a lifting Action, what are two other conditions necessary for thunderstorm formation?
1) Stable conditions and high moisture content.
2) Unstable conditions and high moisture content.
3) Unstable conditions and low atmospheric pressure.
2. Continuous updrafts occur in a thunderstorm during the
1) Mature stage.
2) Cumulus stage.
3) Dissipating stage.
3. Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
1) Mature stage.
2) Cumulus stage.
3) Dissipating stage.
4. What is the term used to describe a narrow band of thunderstorms which normally contains the most severe
types of weather-related hazards?
1) Airmass.
2) Frontal.
3) Squall Line.
5. What hazard is always associated with a thunderstorm?
1) Hail.
2) Tornadoes.
3) Lighting.
6. (true, False) you may encounter hail in clear air several miles from a thunderstorm.
7. The cloud type associated with the most severe turbulence is
1) Cumulus.
2) Cumulonimbus.
3) Standing Lenticular Altocumulus.


8. When using on-board weather radar to avoid thunderstorms, you should avoid intense echoes by at least
1) 10 miles.
2) 20 miles.
3) 30 miles.
9. During an encounter with unexpected turbulence, reduce power and attempt to maintain a
1) Constant altitude.
2) Constant airspeed.
3) Level flight attitude.
10. During a stabilized landing approach, what happens if the wind unexpectedly shifts from a headwind to a
1) Pitch attitude decreases, IAS decreases and the airplane tend to sink below the glide path.
2) Pitch attitude decreases, IAS increases and the airplane tend to sink below the glide path.
3) Pitch attitude increases, IAS decreases and the airplane tend to sink below the glide path.
11. Turbulence which causes changes in altitude or attitude resulting in definite strains against seatbelts in
classified as
1) Light.
2) Moderate.
3) Severe.
12. Wake turbulence is greatest from a large and heavy aircraft which is operating at
1) Low speeds and low angles of attack.
2) Low speeds and high angles of attack.
3) High speeds and low angles of attack.
13. You are cleared to land behind a large heavy aircraft which has just touched down. You should plan to land
________ (before, after) the large aircrafts touchdown point.
14. Fog that typically forms over fairly level land on clear, calm humid nights is called
1) Vapor fog.
2) Radiation fog.
3) Advocating fog.


15. Carburetor icing is most likely when the relative humidity is above 80% and the outside air temperature is
1) -15 C (5 F) and 5 C (41 F
2) -7 C (20 F) and 21 C (70 F).
3) 0 C (32 F) and 15 C (59 F).
16. If you encounter freezing rain it indicates that
1) You are passing through a cold front.
2) You are passing through a warm front.
3) Temperatures are above freezing at a higher altitude.
17. (True, False) airframe icing increases drag and weight and decreases lift and thrust.
18. (True, False) Airframe icing cannot occur when the outside air temperature is above 0 C.
19. When the surface temperature is 53 F, you can estimate the freezing level to be approximately
1) 4,700 ft AGL.
2) 6,000 ft AGL.
3) 10,500 ft AGL.
20. To avoid hydroplaning after landing on a wet runway, you should
1) Apply brakes immediately.
2) Delay the application of brakes.
3) Touch down at a higher than normal speed.




Answer the questions by referring to the two KSA weather chart figures which you have been given. There are two
sections in the exercise, one for each chart.

SECTION A: use figure A (KSA Pressure Level Prog. Chart)

1. The valid local time is _______ and it is _______ hours after the time of issue.
2. This chart is intended for FL300. What is the pressure level approximately equivalent to that flight level?
___________________________ .
3. Comment on the winds at FL300 over OEGN ________________________________.
4. The wind at FL300 over OERK is forecast to be from the _____ at _____ Knots.
5. Flying north from Jeddah at this altitude, you could expect a crosswind from the ______ (left, right), and the wind
speed would be _____ (Increasing/Same/Decreasing).
6. The isotherms show that the temperature ___________ toward the north.
7. A flight from Jeddah to Khartoum, Sudan, can expect a _______ (headwind/tailwind).
8. Interpolate the estimate the temperature over Jeddah at this level _______________.
9. What is the wind speed and direction over Kuwait (OKBK)?
Wind speed: ____________ Wind direction ___________.
10. Larnaca, Cyprus (LCLK) is approximately _____ degrees N, and _____ degrees East.
11. Estimate the wind speed over Cairo (HECA) at this pressure level: ______________.
12. Over Muscat (OOMS) at this pressure level. The wind is from the ____ at ___ knots, and the temperature is
approximately _______ C.



SECTION B: Use Figure "B" (KSA SW PROG Chart)

1. The SW in the chart title means S_______ W_______.

2. This chart is valid at _______ (KSA local time), on _______ (day of the month).
3. The thick solid line over Luxor, Egypt (HELX) indicates a __________. Winds in this area at FL _____ are
forecast to be from _______ the at approximately _______ knots.
4. The flight hazard indicated over Northern Saudi and Kuwait area is ______ of ______ intensity between FL _____
and FL _____.
5. What does the big letter "S" signifies in the marked area in central Saudi? _________.
6. In Eritrea, Ehiopia and Sudan (lower left of chart area), there will be ________________________ with tops at
_________ ft. Other hazards indicated are ________________ and ________________.
7. Comment on the forecast top and base of thunderstorm over Muscat (OOMS):
TOP: __________ BASE: _________.
8. In flight near Muscat, is it likely that you will be able to see thunderstorms easily?
(Yes, No) Explain: _____ ________________________________________________.
9. What is the approximate height of the Tropopasue over Riyadh (OERK)? ________ ft.
10. On a flight from Damascus, Syria OSDI to Dhahran OEDR, you would expect a crosswind from the _____ (left,
right) and you could encounter __________.
11. From south to north how does tropopause height vary? ______________________.
12. While planning a flight from Jeddah (OEJN to Kuwait OKBK in a B-737, do you think that a relatively high or low
cruising altitude is better? Why?




The Jet Steam:
Jet Streams or JETS are very high speed winds (at least 50 knots) which usually flow west to east in narrow bands in middle
latitudes (between 30 and 60 N or S) near the tropopause. The exact causes of jet stream winds are not fully understood, but
they are closely associated with the tropopause, the polar front and low pressure systems.
The tropopasue is the boundary between the troposphere and the stratosphere. It's height varies from about 65,000 ft over the
equator to 20,000 ft or lower over the poles. An abrupt change in temperature lapse rate characterizes the tropopause, and
maximum winds (and often wind shear) occur near it. At mid-latitudes there can be "breaks' in the tropopasue. Jet streams exist
at or near these breaks. Like all weather patterns, jet streams are constantly changing. They develop, strengthen, move, weaken
and die away.

Jet streams are more likely to occur where there are large airmass temperature differences, such as near a cold front or occlusion
aloft. The jet stream is located on the warmer air side.
In the central "CORE" of a jet winds can reach 300 knots, but are typically 100 - 150 knots. Wind speeds decrease very rapidly to
the polar side and more slowly to the tropical side. Although a single jet stream can circle the earth, segments of 1000 - 3000
miles in length are more common. The typical jet stream is only about 5,000 ft thick vertically and 200 miles wide horizontally.
Jets occur all year round but are stronger, closer to the tropics and more likely to be encountered in winter. In winter they may
exist over the northern part of the Arabian peninsula.
Flight in a Jet stream can provide one major benefit (massive tailwind if flying west to east) and two disadvantages (headwind if
flying east to west, and turbulence).
Most jet stream turbulence is CLEAR AIR TURBULENCE (CAT). C.A.T is not usually in the core of the jet, but is common above
and below the core and on its polar side. C.A.T is also more likely where the jet stream is close to a deep (ie: strong) low
pressure center or trough.
if caught in jet stream turbulence, or in a strong jet stream headwind, a pilot should either change course, or altitude, or both.



For a thunderstorm to form, three

conditions are needed:
1. Unstable air.
2. Air with much moisture.
3. A lifting force (something which
makes the air rise).
A thunderstorm begins from a cumuliform
cloud. A cumulonimbus (CB) cloud really
becomes the THUNDERSTORM.

The central part of the thunderstorm is often called a "cell". Thunderstorm development passes through three
1. The CUMLUUS stage. In this stage most of the iar currents are updrafts.
2. The MATURE stage. The storm is a at its strongest. Precipitation reaches the ground.
3. The DISSIPATING stage. In this stage, most of the air currents are downdrafts.
There are different thunderstorm types depending on their conditions of development:
AIR MASS storms develop because of convective action. These are usually isolated, less severe and easy to see
from the air. They usually last less than one hour.
STEADY STATE storms are usually larger, more severe and last longer because the conditions which cause them to
form continue for a longer time; eg: frontal thunderstorms. The most severe steady state thunderstorms can be
found in SQUALL LINE, which is a line or band of thunderstorms. These storms can be very extensive and reach
great heights (eg: 50,000 feet or more). A squall line often develops ahead of a strong, fast-moving cold front.
Thunderstorms are so dangerous because they cause so many hazards for flying. These include:
HAIL and precipitation of severe and extreme intensity. Hail can occur even in hot countries.
LOW CELING and LOW VISIBILITY; often "zero-zero" condition.
LIGHTING. Lighting can damage an airframe and cause electrical equipment problems.
FUNNEL CLOUDS (Tornadoes and Waterspouts). A funnel cloud is a violet, spinning column of air which descends
from the base of a thunderstorm.
An EMBEDDED THUNDERSTROM is a thunderstorm which is difficult to see because it is a surrounded by other
clouds. Flight in or near thunderstorms is not recommended. However, WEATHER RADAR in the aircraft can help
the pilot to locate and avoid the worst cells.



METAR is an acronym for METeorological Aviation Report. A METAR is a coded weather report. METAR's are
usually issued at hourly intervals. The information which can be included in a METAR is explained on the Jeppesen
decoding sheet to which the trainee should refer when studying and decoding METAR's. Here is an example:
EGLL SA 241500 35008KT 3000 HZ SCT030 BKN120 02/M05 Q1024 NOSIG

Four-letter ICAO station identifiers are used. EGLL is for London Heathrow. Stations in
KSA are always OE**; eg: OEJN = Jeddah, OERK = Riyadh.


This identifies the report as a METAR (ie: a Surface Aviation report). The code METAR
(or SPECI) might be substituted for SA.


The weather observation ws made on the 24th day of the month, at 1500Z.


Surface wind is given as a five-digit group. In this case, surface wind is from 350 (true) at
08 knots. Other examples of surface wind groups are
Wind from 160 at 18 knots.
Wind calm.
Wind variable at 5 knots.
Wind 170 at 19 knots with peak gusts to 30 knots.


This is the horizontal surface visibility in meters. Visibility is always give as a four-digits
group. If the visibility is 10km or more, it will be shown as 9999.
Examples of visibility entries:

Visibility 300m
Visibility 6km


Visibility 4700m
Visibility 10km or more

If Visibility is determined by Runway Visual Range (RVR) equipment, the RVR figure will
follow the prevailing visibility figure. For example, R25/1300D means that the RVR for
runway 25 is 1300m and decreasing. If the highest visibility capable of being read on the
RVR equipment was, say, 2000m, and the RVR reading was indicating 2000, it would
appear on the report as R25/P2000; ie: RVR for runway 25 is more than 2000m. If the
lowest visibility capable of being read on the RVR equipment was, say, 150m, and the
RVR reading was indicating 150, it would appear as R25/M0150, meaning that the RVR
for runway 25 is less than 150m.

This is the significant weather code. To decode it, refer to the present weather table on
the METAR decoding sheet. In this case, the present weather is HAZE (HZ).


This is SKY or cloud cover. the main contractions used are SKC (clear), FEW (few), SCT
(scattered), BKN (broken), OVC (overcast). This will come in front of a figure which
represents the height of the base of the clouds in hundreds of feet AGL. In this example,
there are scattered clouds with a base of 3000ft AGL. For greater details and other codes
see the decoding sheet.


If there is more than one cloud layer, further cloud cover codes are given. These are
coded in the same way. In this example there is broken cloud with a base of 12,000ft.


The code CAVOK (pronounced KAV-OH-KAY) is used if all of the following condition are
1. No clouds below 5000ft.
2. Visibility 10km or more.
3. No precipitation, thunderstorms, sandstorms or fog.
When CAVOK is included, the visibility, RVR present weather and cloud cover codes are

Temperature 2C; Dewpoint -05C. (M means minus). Temperatures are normally C.


Altimeter setting (QNH) = 1024 millibars. The prefix A would indicate inches of mercury.
This is usually in the USA; eg: A2992=29.92 in.Hg


This is the trend forecast, or change indicator. NOSIG means NO SIGnificant change is
expected in the next two hours. For details of other changes indicators, see the TAF
decoding sheet. These change indicators include TEMPO and BECMG.



Most METAR's are routine reports. If the code SPECI precedes the report, it is a special report. Essentially, this means
that the weather has changed significantly very recently.
A METAR can include additional reported weather information which is not discussed here; for example recent (not
current) weather, forecast weather and reported windshear conditions. For details, see the decoding sheet and your
There are certain international differences in way information is given (eg: units of measurement). The following table
should be helpful to you:




Wind speed
Altimeter setting

hPa (mb)





METAR OEJN 070700 29010KT CAVOK 35/29 Q1020 NOSIG

SA OERK 122200 00000 9999 FEW030 Q1009
SA OEHL 291100 15025G35 0500 SS 38/20 Q1012 BECMG FM1400 CAVOK
SPECI OEAB 010220 VRB05KT 1000 BCFG 14/13 Q999
METAR OEMA 091000 28020KT 5000 BKN150 28/20 Q1010 WS RWY36
SPECI OETB 030330 36015KT 1500 -SN VV006FT 01/M01 Q998
SA OETF 251200 220V27012G28KT 3000 TSRA BKN015CB 20/15 Q1007



A TAF is a forecast of weather conditions at an airport (aerodrome) for a specified validity period (usually 24 hours).
Codes used in TAF's are similar to those used for METAR's, and can be found on the Jeppesen decoding sheet.
TAF's are scheduled to be issued four times each day.
A TAF begins with codes for type of forecast, location, date and time of issue and validity period. Weather
information will follow in this order (if included): wind, visibility, significant weather, sky cover, remarks on icing and
turbulence, and change indicators. You must remember that this is all FORECAST information. Therefore it is
obvious that information such as reported temperature. Dewpoint and altimeter setting cannot be included in a TAF.
Here is an example of a TAF:
TAF OMDB 172200Z
180024 VRB05KT 6000 HZ NSC PROB40 TEMPO 0104 0500 BCFG


This is a TAF (the code TAF AMD, or FT or FC might be substituted for TAF


this is the ICAO location identifier for Dubai, U.A.E


This forecast was issued on the 17th day of the month at 2200Z


The validity of the forecast period is from midnight on the 17th (00), until midnight on the 18th


Surface wind variable at 5 knots


Visibility 6 kilometers (6000 meters)


Significant weather code for haze


No significant cloud

PROB40 TEMPO 0104 0500 BCFG: these are the change indicators and the predicated changes. In this case there is a 40%
probability of temporary conditions between 0100Z and 0400Z, when visibility will be 500 meters in fog patches.

A second TAF example :

FT EIDW 231100Z
231212 19010KT 9999 BKN030 BECMG 1416 5000 RA BKN007 OVC015
This is a TAF for Dublin, Ireland (EIDW), issues on the 23rd of the (current) month, at 1100Z. It is valid from 1200Z on that day
until 1200Z on the following day.
From 1200Z until 1400Z, forecast weather is: surface wind 190 at 10 knots; visibility more than 10km, broken clouds with bases
at 3000 ft (AGL). From 1400Z to 1600Z, there will be a change to Visibility 5000 meters in rain, with broken clouds at 700 ft and a
higher overcast layer at 1500 ft.



Change indicators are used to indicate a predicated change in the weather over period(s) of time during the forecast
period. A change group begins with one of these codes: FM, PROB, TEMPO, BECMG.


this is uses when a definite and rapid change is expected, and the weather
is not expected to return to what it had been before the change.



This is used to show the chance of a change expected.

PROB30 (30% chance) or PROB40 (40% chance) are used.



This means temporary weather changes lasting less than one hour.



This is code is used when weather condition are forecast to change (more
gradually than a "FM" change).

Actually, only

When change indicator is used, information will be given in the following order:
Change indicator, time or time period (for change), forecast weather.
For example: TEMPO 1822 8000 BKN030 BECMG CAVOK
This is means that between 1800Z and 2200Z, temporary conditions will exist with visibility 8 km and a 3000 ft
ceiling. It is expected to improve after 2200Z, becoming CAVOK.

Why TAF is so important?

TAF is your main and most important source of information regarding the likely weather at your destination when you
expect to arrive there. You must base many important decisions and judgments on this information. For example, if
forecast weather is below minimums, a landing might not be possible, and a diversion to your alternate might be



TAF OEJN 050400Z 050505 VRB05KT CAVOK

FM0700 29010KT 9999 SCT080 SCT150 PROB30 1015 29020KT 5000 BLDU FM1800 CAVOK


FC OERK 200845Z 200924 35018KT 8000 FEW CB

FM1000 340V03015G35KT 3000 PROB40 TEMPO 1114 1500 TSRAGR
FM1600 09020KT 3000 -RASH BKN040



1. Enroute flight advisory service (EFAS) provides enroute aircraft with timely and meaningful weather advisories

pertinent to the type of flight intended, route, and altitude.

2. EFAS is obtained by contacting flight watch, using the name of the ARTCC facility identification in your area, your
aircraft identification, and name of the nearest VOR, on 122.0 MHz below FL180.
3. In-flight aviation weather advisories consisting of AIRMETS, SIGMETS, and convective SIGMETs are forecasts
that advise enroute aircraft of the development of potentially hazardous weather, and information on volcanic
eruptions that are occurring or expected to occur. All in-flight advisories in the contiguous U.S. are issued by the
National Aviation Weather Advisory Unit in Kansas City, MO. All in-flight advisories use the same location identifiers
(either VORs, airports or well-known geographic areas) to describe the hazardous weather areas.
4. Convective SIGMETs contain either an observation and a forecast, or just a forecast, for tornadoes, significant
thunderstorm activity, or hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter.
A Center Weather Advisory (CWA)is an unscheduled advisory issued by an ARTCC to alert pilots of existing or
anticipated adverse weather conditions within the next two hours. ACWA may be issued prior to an AIRMET or
SIGMET when PIREPs suggest AIRMET or SIGMET conditions exist. Even if adverse weather is not sufficiently
intense or widespread for a SIGMET or AIRMET, a CWA may be issued if conditions are expected to affect the safe
flow of air traffic within the ARTCC area of responsibility.
5. A center weather advisory (CWA) is an unscheduled advisory issued by an ARTCC to alert pilots of existing or
anticipated adverse weather condition within the next two hours. A CWA may be issued prior to an AIRMET or
SIGMET when PIREPs suggest AIRMET or SIGMET conditions exists. Even if adverse weather is not sufficiently
intense or widespread for a SIGMET or AIRMET, a CWA may be issued if conditions are expected to affect the safe
flow of air traffic within the ARTCC area of responsibility.
6. AIRMETs and center weather advisories (CWA) provide an enroute pilot with information about moderate icing,
moderate turbulence, winds of 30 knots or more at the surface, and extensive mountain obscurement.
7. Weather advisory broadcasts, including severe weather forecast alerts (AWW), convective SIGMETS, and
SIGMETS, are provided by ARTCCs on all frequencies, except emergency, when any part of the area described is
within 150 miles of the airspace under their jurisdiction.
8. The hazardous in-flight weather advisory service (HIWAS) is a continuous broadcast of in-flight weather advisories
over selected VORs of SIGMETS, convective SIGMETS, AIRMETS, severe weather forecast alerts (AWW), and
center weather advisories (CWA).
9. A transcribed weather broadcast (TWEB) provides specific information concerning expected sky cover, cloud
tops, visibility, weather, and obstructions to vision in a route format. To obtain continuous transcribed information,
including winds aloft and route forecasts for a cross-country flight, you could monitor a TWEB on a low-frequency
radio receiver. TWEB mostly has been replaced by HIWAS.






Responsibility and authority of the pilot-in-command.

Compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.
IFR Operations: two-way radio communications failure.
IFR Operations in controlled airspace: malfunction reports.


Chapter 5, Section 5: Pilot/Controller roles and responsibilities.
Chapter6: Emergency procedures.


An emergency can be either a distress or an urgency situation. Many emergencies involve bad weather, low fuel or fuel
exhaustion, aircraft systems problems, communications failure, poor planning or judgment, or a combination of these factors.


VHF Communications:
Transponder codes

Use the currently assigned frequency before any attempt to use 121.5
7700 Emergency
7600 Communication failure
7500 Air piracy, ie: Hijack

EMERGENCY TRANSMISSIONS: Suggested Information order:

Mayday X 3 / Station name / Call sign / Problem / Intentions / Position and altitude / Fuel / other.

MINIMUM FUEL ADVISORY: Not an emergency, but further delays might cause an emergency.
COMMUNICATIONS FAILURE: Refer again to FAR 91.185 and AIM Chapter 6
Note that a specific lost communications procedure may be included with a SID. In that case the specified procedure must be
followed rather than the provisions of FAR 91.185 if there is a conflict.


Directional guidance (heading) is advised by the controller. Plus when to begin descent to the MDA, range from runway each mile
when on final and arrival at MAP. A surveillance approach may be used at airports for which civil radar instrument approach
minimums are published. (on Jeppesen Approach Charts, look for an "R" next to the approach control frequency in the heading

NO-GYRO APPROACH: a no-gyro vector or approach must be requested by the pilot. Before final: turns at standard rate. On
final: turns at half-standard rate.

MALFUNCTIONS REPORTS: (refer again to FAR 91.187)




Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from a chart :
1. (FAR 91.3) Who is directly responsible for the operation of an aircraft?
1) the aviation authority of the country in which the aircraft is operating.
2) the owner or operator.
3) the pilot in command.

2. (FAR 91.3) In an emergency, a PIC deviates from a rule. This pilot must
1) Send a written report to the Administrator.
2) Not deviate from another rule unless the emergency makes it necessary.
3) Inform ATC immediately that a rule deviation has occurred.

3. (FAR 91.123) A PIC must not deviate from an ATC clearance unless an amended clearance is obtained, or an
emergency exists, or
1) A TCAS resolution advisory makes the deviation necessary.
2) The PIC refuses the clearance.
3) The FAA issues a certificate of deviation (waiver).
4. (FAR 91.123) A pilot may cancel an IFR flight plan if he is operating in
1) Class A airspace.
2) VMC outside Class A airspace.
3) A radar environment in controlled airspace.

5. (FAR 91.123) The PIC may be required to submit a written report to ATC if the
1) PIC breaks a rule under the FAR's.
2) Aircraft is given priority in an emergency.
3) PIC deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS resolution advisory.

6. (FAR 91.185) On an IFR flight, communication failure occurs in cloud but shortly afterwards the aircraft breaks out
of cloud in to VFR conditions. The flight should continue
1) As planned, re-entering cloud/IFR conditions if necessary.
2) Under VFR, and land as soon as practicable.
3) Under VFR to the destination.


Questions 7 to 11 refer to the diagram, flight plan details and ATC clearance given below for an IFR flight. Answer
these questions in accordance with FAR 91.185




ATC CLEARANCE: Baron 123AB is cleared to BRONZE, V1 GOLD, V2. Maintain five thousand feet. Expect
further clearance before SUNNY.
7. After takeoff, and while being radar vectored to SUNNY, radio communications failure occurs at point A in
IFR conditions. The pilot should continue direct to
1) GOLD.
8. If no radar vectors had been provided, and radio communications failure occurred shortly after takeoff in IFR
conditions, the pilot should climb and maintain
1) 3,000 ft to GOLD, then climbing to 5000 ft after GOLD.
2) 3,000 ft initially, then level off and climb again later to cross GOLD at 5,000 ft.
3) 5,000 ft to SUNNY.
9. If communications failure occurred before GOLD in IFR conditions, the pilot should
1) Continue his flight via V2 and V4 destination airport.
2) Continue his flight via V3 and V4.
3) Hold at GOLD.
10. If radio communications failure occurred between GOLD and SUNNY in IFR conditions, the pilot should
cross SUNNY at
1) 5,000 ft, and then immediately climb to 7,000 ft.
2) 5,000 ft, and maintain 5,000 ft.
3) 7,000 ft.


11. Assume that BRONZE is not an IAF for the destination airport and that the aircraft arrives at BRONZE early
(ie: before the ETA at BRONZE). Communications failure occurred before BRONZE in IFR conditions. The
pilot should
1) Hold at BRONZE until the (BRONZE) ETA, and then continue to the destination.
2) Continue to the destination, holding at an IAF if necessary.
3) Continue to the destination without holding, even if arrival is before the ETA.
12. (FAR 91.187) Which one of these malfunctions need not be reported to ATC, if it should occur in flight in IFR
conditions in controlled airspace?
1) Loss of ILS glideslope capability.
2) Autopilot malfunction.
3) DME malfunction.
13. Which is worst (ie: most dangerous)?
1) A distress situation.
2) An urgency situation.
3) A minimum fuel advisory.
14. In the event of an in-flight emergency, your first radio transmission should be made on
1) The frequency you are currently using for communications with ATC.
2) Any ATC frequency.
3) 121.5 MHz
15. If you experience radio communications failure in IFR conditions, you should set your transponder to code
1) 7700 for one minute, then 7600.
2) 7600 and 7700 alternately, for one minute periods.
3) 7600.
16. You are running low on fuel. You have enough fuel to reach you destination safely, but you cannot accept
any delay or holding instructions. You should advise ATC that you
1) Have an emergency, with a MAYDAY or a PAN PAN call.
3) Require priority for landing.
17. A SID chart includes lost communications procedure instructions. If you experience radio communications
failure in IFR conditions while executing this SID, you should follow
1) The procedures specified in FAR 91.185
2) The procedures specified on the SID chart.
3) Instructions from ATC.
18. When on final during a no-gyro approach, turns should be made at
1) Pilots discretion.
2) Standard rate.
3) Half-standard rate.






1. Aeronautical decision making is a systematic approach to the mental process used by aircraft pilots to
consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances.
2. Approximately 75% of all aviation accidents are attributed to human factors-related causes. Studies have
identified five hazardous attitudes which can interfere with a pilots ability to make sound decisions and
exercise authority properly.
3. As pilot in command, you are the final authority in the airplane you are flying. When only one pilot is in the
cockpit, the PIC is obvious, but when two pilots are present, each within the cockpit, one person is pilot in
command, and the other serves to assist the PIC.
4. Resource use is an important part of human factors training. As more and more safety-related technology
becomes affordable for pilots, the amount of resources available in the average cockpit increases steadily.
Advances like GPS, airborne weather radar and TCAD are helpful tools, but only if their proper use is well
understood by the pilot.
5. The focus of Crew Resource Management programs is the effective use of all available resources: human
resources, hardware, and information. CRM training helps flight crews understand the limitations of human
performance, especially under stressful situations, and makes them aware of the importance of crew
coordination to combat error.
6. Readback of ATC clearances is crucial in the IFR environment. Do not assume controller silence after a
readback is verification of your transmission. Ask for a verbal confirmation.
7. When flying with another pilot, it is important to use standard terminology and verify that your meaning is
understood. A breakdown in communication can cause friction and frustration, detracting from important
tasks, or lead to a hazardous situation where one pilot believes the other is controlling the airplane, but in
reality, neither pilot has control.
8. Effective workload management directly impacts safety by ensuring that you are prepared for the busiest
segments of the flight through proper use of down time. Organizing charts in the order of use, setting radio
frequencies, and writing down expected altitudes and route clearances will help you visualize and mentally
prepare for what comes next.


9. Controlled Flight Into Terrain (CFIT) occurs when an aircraft is flown into terrain or water with no prior
awareness on the part of the crew that the crash is imminent.
10. The study of aviation physiology is an important part of human factors training. How you feel, physically, has
a direct impact on how well you fly.
11. When there is a conflict between the information relayed by your central vision and your peripheral vision,
you may suffer from spatial disorientation. When subjected to the various forces of flight, the vestibular
system can send misleading signals to the brain resulting in vestibular disorientation.
12. A rapid acceleration during a missed approach can create the illusion of being in a nose-up attitude, and an
abrupt change from climb to straight-and-level flight can create the illusion of tumbling backwards. To
prevent or overcome spatial disorientation, you must rely on and properly interpret the indications of the flight
13. Nausea, sweating, dizziness, and vomiting are some of the symptoms of motion sickness. To overcome
motion sickness without outside visual references, you should focus on the instrument panel, since it I your
only source of accurate position information.
14. Hypoxia occurs when the tissues in the body do not receive enough oxygen. It can be caused by an
insufficient supply of oxygen, inadequate transportation of oxygen, or the inability of body tissues to use
oxygen. Hypoxic hypoxia occurs when there are not enough molecules of oxygen available at sufficient
pressure to pass between the membranes in your respiratory system.
15. If you are planning a flight with a cruise altitude over 12,500 ft MSL, you should review FAR part 91 for the
requirements regarding supplemental oxygen. Prior to operating a pressurized aircraft with a service ceiling
or maximum operating altitude higher than 25,000ft MSL, you must complete high-altitude training.
16. Hypemic hypoxia occurs when your blood is not able to carry a sufficient amount of oxygen to your bodys
cells. Since it attached itself to the hemoglobin about 200 times more easily than oxygen, carbon monoxide
(CO) prevents the hemoglobin from carrying sufficient oxygen. Even without considering the dangers of
incapacitating the flight crew, carbon monoxide poisoning can be fatal.. Frequent inspections should be
made of aircraft exhaust manifold-type heating systems to minimize the possibility of exhaust gases leading
into the cockpit.
17. Stagnant hypoxia is an oxygen deficiency in the body due to the poor circulation of the blood. It can result
from pulling excessive positive Gs. The inability of the cells to effectively use oxygen is defined as histotoxic
hypoxia. This can be caused by alcohol and other drugs such as narcotics and poisons.


18. Hyperventilation is a physiological disorder that develops when too much carbon dioxide (CO2) has been
eliminated from the body, usually caused by breathing too rapidly or too deeply. To overcome the symptoms
of hyperventilation, you should slow your breathing rate.
19. Decompression sickness (DCS) is a painful condition that can occur if flying too soon after diving. It is very
important that you allow enough time for the body to rid itself of excess nitrogen absorbed during diving.
20. Stress is the bodys reaction to the physical and psychological demands places upon it, and it can adversely
affect your ability to fly safely. When you are fatigued, you are more prone to error in the cockpit. Getting
adequate rest and improving your overall fitness will help you perform at your best.
21. Preflight use of the Im Safe Checklist will help ensure you are fit for flight. Consider illness, and medication
that might affect your safety as a pilot. Factors such as rest, a good breakfast, and issues at work can
interfere with your concentration level in the airplane. If you have any reservations about your ability to make
the flight, save the trip for another time.


1. Accidents involving IFR conditions are roughly 65% fatal. Obtaining your instrument rating and maintaining
IFR currency greatly reduces your risk for these types of accidents.
2. Accidents are rarely attributed to a single cause, but are the result of a series of poor choices.
3. You should consider filing an IFR flight plan for every flight, and close that flight plan only when a safe
landing is assured.
4. Though you work closely with ATC under IFR, you remain the final authority as to the safety of the flight.
You may also need to coordinate responsibility with other pilots that fly with you.
5. Flying with a safety pilot to practice instrument maneuvers will help you maintain currency and proficiency.


6. Developing a personal minimums checklist will assist you in determining the feasibility of a particular flight.
You should take into account your currency and experience when deciding which conditions you feel
comfortable flying in.
7. Five hazardous attitudes affect your decisions and you should examine your choices to ensure that you
make the proper response when on of these attitude affects your flight.


8. To avoid confusion, be sure to read back all important parts of a clearance, and ask for clarification when
there is an instruction you do not understand.
9. Barriers to communication include preconceived notions of upcoming clearances, abbreviated clearances,
and words that have more than one meaning.
10. Effective use of resources occurs when you understand and utilize all the people and equipment available to
you during a flight.
11. Plan for each IFR flight thoroughly before you leave the ground, including fuel requirements, alternates
available, and missed approach instructions. It is also helpful to program any navigation information before
engine start. The more you can rehearse ahead of time, the more prepared you will be in the event of a
12. During a high workload situation, identify the most important tasks and make those a priority. Do not allow
yourself to fixate on an extraneous issue.
13. Visualization techniques can be used to create a mental picture of the flight overall.
14. You can avoid CFIT by maintaining positional awareness: staying abreast of your altitude, the proper
procedure in use, and the terrain surrounding the airport.
15. Loss of situational awareness can occur when pilots are confused by clearances, misunderstand onboard
equipment, or do not communicate properly with others in the cockpit.



Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate:

1. In straight and level, un-accelerated flight, lift is equal to and opposite to _________ and thrust is equal and
opposite to _________.
2. Lift acts perpendicular to the ______________________.
3. When you increase the angle of attack, there is a corresponding
1) increase in dynamic pressure only.
2) increase in dynamic pressure and induced drag.
3) increase in dynamic pressure and a decrease in drag.
4. Indicated stall speed is directly affected by
1) weight, CG location, load factor, and power.
2) density altitude, CG location, load factor, and power.
3) weight, load factor, angle of attack, and density altitude.
5. (true, false) for a given airfoil, a stall will always occur at the same angle of attack, regardless of weight, bank
angle, or pitch attitude.
6. You should never intentionally











7. When you extend trailing edge flaps, the lift coefficient of the wing _______ (increases, decreases) and the
stall speed ________ (increases, decreases).
8. When extended, flaps allow you to increase rate of descent without increasing the _________.
9. Drag that is created by the production of lift is called ___________ drag.
10. Parasite drag is greater at __________ (higher, lower) airspeeds.
11. The speed that allows an airplane to remain aloft for the longest period of time is called __________ speed.
12. The speed that provides the greatest distance for a given amount of fuel is called the __________ speed.
13. The initial tendency of an airplane to return to a state of equilibrium following a displacement from the
condition is known as __________ stability.
14. (true, false) Dynamic stability describes the time required for an airplane to respond to its static stability.
15. the tendency of an airplane to remain stationary about its vertical (yaw) axis is known as


16. When you transition from straight and level flight to a climb, you increase the angle of attack
1) and increase lift.
2) and decrease lift.
3) and increase lift momentarily.
17. For a given weight, the maximum rate of climb depends on
1) excess lift.
2) excess thrust.
3) excess thrust horsepower.
18. For a given weight, the maximum angle of climb occurs at the airspeed with the greatest difference between
thrust available and __________.
19. The altitude at which the best angle of climb and the best rate of climb converge is the
20. In a level, coordinated turn, the vertical component of lift overcomes the weight of the airplane, and the force
that causes the airplane to turn is called the __________ component of lift.
21. During a level, 60 banked turn, the effective weight of a 2,500 pounds airplane is _________ pounds.
22. When you increase the airspeed during a level, coordinated, constant angle of bank turn, the rate of turn will
________ (increase, decrease) and radius of turn will _______ (increase, decrease).
23. During turn entry, rudder in the direction of the turn is necessary to overcome _______ yaw.
24. As you climb out of ground effect, induced drag _______ (increase, decrease) and your airplane will require
_______ (more, less) thrust.
25. _____ (true, false) Recovery from a spin in an airplane with an aft CG may be difficult or even impossible.



Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from a chart:

Use the accompanying V-g diagram to answer question 1 thru 3.

1. The horizontal dashed line from point C to Point E represents the


ultimate load factor.

positive load factor limit.
airspeed range for normal operations.
maximum structural cruise airspeed range.

2. The vertical line from point D to point G is shown on your airplanes's indicator by the

minimum speed limit of the green arc.

Maximum speed limit of the green arc.
Minimum speed limit of the white arc.
maximum speed limit of the yellow arc.

3. The vertical line from point E to point F is represented on the airspeed indicator by the

Red line.
White arc.
Green arc.
Yellow arc.


Use the Wind Component Chart provided next page to answer questions 4 thru 6

4. If the maximum crosswind component of your airplane is 12 knot. which crosswind conditions exceeds this

10 knots at 90 angle.
15 knots at 30 angle.
15 knots at 45 angle.
20 knots at 40 angle.

5. If you are using runway 30, which surface wind conditions would exceed your airplane's crosswind capability
of 0.2 Vso when Vso is 60 knots?

260 at 20 knots.
275 at 25 knots.
315 at 35 knots.
320 at 30 knots.

6. If you are departing on runway 13 and the surface wind is 190 at 15 knots. The head wind component is

5 knots.
7 knots.
13 knots.
15 knots.

7. When density altitude increases, aircraft performance __________ (increases, decreases).

8. On most modern performance charts, computing the density altitude _____ (is, is not) required.
9. With very high relative humidity, an airplane's total takeoff and climb performance can be reduced by


10. A headwind that is 10% of your takeoff airspeed can reduce the takeoff distance by approximately




Use the takeoff distance chart to answer questions 11 and 12.

11. Conditions:
Flaps ................................................................ 20.
Runway........................................... Paved, level, dry.
Pressure altitude .......................................... 2,000 ft.
Temperature .................................................... 25C.
Headwind ........................................................ 10 kts.
Weight ...................................................... 4,100 lbs.
Ground Roll ___________ feet.
Distance to clear 50 ft obstacle __________ feet.

12. Conditions:
Flaps ................................................................ 20.
Runway .......................................... Paved, level, dry.
Pressure altitude .......................................... 5,000 ft.
Temperature .................................................... 5C.
Tail wind ......................................................... 5 kts.
Weight ...................................................... 4,100 lbs.

Distance to clear 50 ft obstacle __________ feet.

Use the time, fuel and distance to climb chart on the next page to answer question 13.



Flaps UP
Gear UP
2700 RPM
37.0 in. Hg (or full power)
Fuel Flow Set for Climb
Cowl Flaps Open
Standard Temperature
1. add 18 pounds of fuel for engine start, taxi and takeoff allowance.
2. Increase time, fuel and distance by 10 for each 10 above standard temperature.
3. Distance shown are based on zero wind.















13. Conditions:
Pressure altitude .......................................... 4,000 ft.
Temperature .............................................. Standard.
Weight ...................................................... 4,100 lbs.
Time to climb to 16,000 feet ___________ minutes.
Fuel used, including engine start, taxi, and takeoff allowance __________ pounds.
Distance to climb __________ n.m


Use the maximum rate of climb chart to answer question 14.


Flaps UP
Gear UP
2700 RPM
37.0 in. Hg (or full power)
Fuel Flow Set for Climb
Cowl Flaps Open
Standard Temperature







- 20C












14. Conditions:
Pressure altitude .......................................................... 6,000 ft.
Temperature .............................................................. Standard.
Weight ...................................................................... 4,100 lbs.
The maximum rate of climb __________ FPM.


Use the cruise performance chart to answer question 15.

15. Conditions:
Pressure altitude .......................................... 6,000 ft.
Temperature ................................................... 13 C.
Power ........................................ 2,500 RPM 24 in Hg.
Fuel Available ............................................... 460 lbs.
The fuel flow __________ PPH.
The maximum available flight time __________ (hours and minutes).


Use the cruise and range performance chart to answer question 16.

16. Conditions:
Cruise altitude ...........................................7,500 feet.
Temperature .............................................. Standard.
Power ....................................... 2,500 RPM 65% BPH.
Fuel available ................................................. 48 gal.
No-wind range _________ s.m
Endurance at 7,500 ft _________ (hours in tenths)
Approximate TAS _________ MPH
Fuel flow _________ GPH


Use the Normal Landing chart provided next page to answer questions 17 and 18.



17. Conditions:
Flaps ............................................................. Down.
Runway .......................................... Paved, level, dry.
Braking .................................................... Maximum.
Temperature .................................................... 60F.
Pressure altitude .......................................... 6,000 ft.
Weight ...................................................... 2,600 lbs.
Headwind ...................................................... 15 kts.
Total landing distance over a 50 ft obstacle _________ feet.
Ground roll _________ feet.
Approach speed _________ knots IAS.
18. Conditions:
Flaps ..............................................................Down.
Runway .......................................... Paved, level, dry.
Braking .................................................... Maximum.
Temperature .................................................... 90F.
Pressure altitude .......................................... 8,000 ft.
Weight ...................................................... 3,400 lbs.
Headwind ........................................................ 6 kts.
Total landing distance over a 50 ft obstacle _________ feet.
Ground roll _________ feet.
Approach speed _________ knots IAS.


Match the operating conditions with effect on the performance of an aircraft and provide reference to your answer.
(some operating conditions may have more than one answer)

Increase takeoff distance.

(B) Decrease landing distance.
(C) Decrease maximum rate of climb.

19. _____ Grass runway.

20. _____ Uphill runway.
21. _____ Hot day.
22. _____ Light loaded weight.
23. _____ Low pressure altitude.
24. _____ (true, false) The stall speed of an airplane is not affected by whether power is ON or OFF.
25. _____ (true, false) Interpolation is often required when you use performance charts with tabular information.





Basic Empty Weight: Weight of the standard airplane, optional equipment, unusable fuel and full oil.
Zero Fuel Weight: Basic empty weight plus pilot plus passengers plus baggage or cargo (fuel not included).
Ramp Weight: Zero fuel weight plus usable fuel.
Takeoff Weight: Ramp weight minus fuel needed for taxi and run-up.
Landing Weight: Takeoff weight minus fuel burned during flight. (Weight on touchdown)
Maximum Certificated or Gross weight: are similar terms to signify maximum allowable weights.
Usable Fuel: Weight or volume of fuel that is available for flight.
Unusable Fuel: Amount of fuel remaining at the bottom of tanks or in fuel lines that will not reach the engine.
Payload: Total weight of people and cargo or baggage.
Useful Load: Difference between Maximum takeoff weight and Basic empty weight. (Weight of Pilot, Passengers, Fuel and

Datum: An imaginary vertical plane from which all the horizontal measurements are taken. (Manufacturer may place it, at the
nose, firewall or leading edge).

Arm: Distance from the datum to the location where the weight is placed. (Arm and station are similar terms).
Moment: Turning force which results from an object's weight acting at a distance from a reference point.
Center of gravity of the airplane (C.G): A point where the entire weight of the airplane is considered to be concentrated.

Conversions Figures:
One U.S gallon of Avgas weight 6 pounds
One U.S gallon of engine oil weight 7.5 pounds
One gallon = Four quarts



Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from a chart :

1. what items is not included in the basic empty weight of the airplane?
1) Usable fuel.
2) Full engine oil.
3) Standard equipment.
2. One gallon of avgas weight __________ Ibs, one gallon of engine oil weights __________ Ibs.
3. Useful load include payload plus ____________ fuel.
4. Where is the most current basic empty weight and moment for an airplane listed?
1) In the owner's manual.
2) On a placard in the cockpit.
3) In the weight and balance records.
5. The arm of a component or object on the airplane is equal to the distance between that component and the
reference ___________ of the airplane.
6. To determine moment, multiply the weight of a component by its __________.
7. Center of gravity is determined by dividing the airplane's total __________ by its total ___________.
8. The proper location of the center of gravity is critical to the airplane's _________.
9. The airplane you are flying has a CG of 45.2 inches. Adding baggage to a compartment with an arm of 38.9
inches will cause the CG to move ___________ (forward, aft).
10. The airplane you are flying has a maximum takeoff weight of 2,800 lbs. After making your weight and
balance computations, you determine the weight of the airplane to be 2,860 lbs. How much fuel must be
unloaded prior to takeoff?
1) 8 gal.
2) 10 gal.
3) 20 gal.


Use the following weight and balance form to answer question 11


















CG= _____________inches

11. Conditions:
Empty weight and moment ...................................................... As shown
Maximum takeoff weight ......................................................... 2,300 lbs
Pilot and front seat passenger ..................................................... 330 lbs
Rear seat passengers ................................................................. 170 lbs
Baggage .................................................................................... 45 lbs
Fuel ....................................................................... Maximum allowable
Usable fuel capacity .................................................................... 65 gal
Fuel load
__________ gal.
Center of gravity __________ in.
12. Assume the center of gravity of the airplane in question 11 is forward of acceptable limits. What is the most
practical method of moving the CG further aft?

Leave the baggage behind.

Leave the near seat passenger behind.
Leave the front seat passenger behind.
Move the front seat passenger to the rear seat.


Use the provided LOADING GRAPH and CENTER OF GRAVITY MOMENT ENVELOPE next page to answer
questions 13 and 14.

13. Conditions:





Usable fuel



Pilot and front Seat Passenger



Rear seat passengers



Baggage area 1



Baggage area 2







Basic empty weight

Ramp weight and moment

Fuel allowance for engine start, taxi and

Takeoff weight __________ lbs.
Takeoff moment __________ lb-in.

14. (true, false) The airplane in question 12 is loaded within acceptable limits for flight in the normal category.





Use the provided MOMENT TABLE next page to answer questions 15 and 16.

15. Conditions:
WEIGHT (lbs)






Pilot and front Seat Passenger (use seat

position 105)



Rear seat passengers (bench type seat)







Basic empty weight

Usable fuel (40 gallons)

Ramp weight and moment

Fuel allowance for engine start, taxi and run-up

Takeoff weight __________ lbs.
Takeoff moment __________ lb-in.
16. The airplane in question 15 __________ (is, is not) loaded within acceptable limits for flight.
17. Conditions:

Loaded airplane weight ..................... 2,500 lbs.

Loaded airplane CG ............................. 55.7 in.
Aft CG limit ........................................ 55.0 in.
ARM of baggage area 1 ........................ 22.0 in.
ARM of baggage area 2 ........................ 92.0 in.
The minimum amount of weight that must be shifted from baggage area 2 into baggage area 1 to bring
the CG within the aft limit is __________ lbs.