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GATE 2016 Solved Paper

ECE Set A (30th January 2016 Forenoon Session)

General Aptitude
Q.1Q.5 carry one mark each.
1. Which of the following is CORRECT with respect to grammar and
usage? Mount Everest is ____________.
(A) the highest peak in the world
(B) highest peak in the world
(C) one of highest peak in the world
(D) one of the highest peak in the world
Ans: (A)
Solution: The sentence is stating the highest peak in the world. Since
it is a specific thing, we need to use the definite article the before it.
Also the sentence is using the superlative degree and so we say the
highest peak in the world making option 1 the correct answer. There
cannot be many highest peaks in the world and so options 3 and 4
are incorrect.

2. The policeman asked the victim of a theft, What did you


(A) loose
(B) lose
(C) loss
(D) louse
Ans: (B)
Solution: The context of the sentence is asking a person who has been
deprived of something because of a theft. The word to be used to fill
the blank is lose which means to be deprived of something. Loose

means something that is not fitted. Louse is the singular form of the
word lice that is a parasite that lives in the skin of mammals and
birds. Loss is a noun that means the process of losing someone or
something. Eg: He suffered tremendous loss in his business.

3. Despite the new medicines ______________ in treating diabetes, it is not


_____________widely.
(A) effectiveness --- prescribed
(B) availability --- used
(C) prescription --- available
(D) acceptance --- proscribed
Ans: (A)
Solution: The sentence is looking for a contrast as it is joined by the
conjunction despite. The best pair of words that can fit the context
of the sentence is effectivenessprescribed. Though the medicine is
effective in treating diabetes, it is not being prescribed widely. A
new medicine cannot have a prescription or availability for treating
a disease. Proscribed means forbidden by law. In case we use
acceptanceproscribed the sentence will not make any sense
because it will mean that though the medicine is accepted widely, it is
not forbidden by law.

4. In a huge pile of apples and oranges, both ripe and unripe mixed
together, 15% are unripe fruits. Of the unripe fruits, 45% are apples.
Of the ripe ones, 66% are oranges. If the pile contains a total of
5692000 fruits, how many of them are apples?
(A) 2029198
(B) 2467482
(C) 2789080
(D) 3577422
Ans: (A)

Solution: Let T = total no of fruits = 5692000


R = Ripe fruits
U = Unripe fruits
A = Apple
O = Oranges
Given U = 15% of T :

15
100

5692000= 853800

R = T U= 4838200
A(U) = 45% of U:

45
100

853800 = 384210

A(R) = (100-66)% of R:

34
100

4838200 = 1644988

A(U) + A(R) = 2029198

5. Michael lives 10 km away from where I live. Ahmed lives 5 km away


and Susan lives 7 km away from where I live. Arun is farther away
than Ahmed but closer than Susan from where I live. From the
information provided here, what is one possible distance (in km) at
which I live from Aruns place?
(A) 3.00
(B) 4.99
(C) 6.02
(D) 7.01
Ans: (C)
Solution:

In question it is given that Ahmed is 5Km away and Susan is 7Km


away from where I live. Further it is given that Arun is farther away
than Ahmed from where I live and not as far as Susan. That means
Arun must be living at distance more than 5Km but less than 7Km
from my house which is according to given options can be 6.02Km.
Note: Information about Michal is unnecessary and just given to
confuse.

Q.6Q.10 carry two marks each.


6. A person moving through a tuberculosis prone zone has a 50%
probability of becoming infected. However, only 30% of infected
people develop the disease. What percentage of people moving
through a tuberculosis prone zone remains infected but does not
show symptoms of disease?
(A) 15
(B) 33
(C) 35
(D) 37
Ans: (C)
Solution:
Percentage probability of being infected = P(A) = 50%
Percentage probability of infected person developing disease is having
system,
= P(B) = 30%
Percentage probability of infected person not showing symptoms =
P(B) = 70%
Percentage probability of person moving though a TB prone zone
remaining infected but not showing symptoms = P(A). P(B) =
70
100

= 35%

50
100

7. In a world filled with uncertainty, he was glad to have many good


friends. He had always assisted them in times of need and was
confident that they would reciprocate. However, the events of the last
week proved him wrong. Which of the following inference(s) is/are
logically valid and can be inferred from the above passage?
(i) His friends were always asking him to help them.
(ii) He felt that when in need of help, his friends would let him down.
(iii) He was sure that his friends would help him when in need.
(iv) His friends did not help him last week.
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iii) only
(D) (iv) only
Ans: (B)
Solution: Solution: The paragraph states that the subject was very
confident about his good friends helping him in his times of need
because he had always helped them before in their time. Thus,
inference iii follows.
Since the events of the last week proved him wrong, this means that
his confidence was broken and his friends had not helped him. Thus
inference iv also follows.

8. Leela is older than her cousin Pavithra. Pavithras brother Shiva is


older than Leela. When Pavithra and Shiva are visiting Leela, all three
like to play chess. Pavithra wins more often than Leela does. Which
one of the following statements must be TRUE based on the above?
(A) When Shiva plays chess with Leela and Pavithra, he often loses.
(B) Leela is the oldest of the three.
(C) Shiva is a better chess player than Pavithra.
(D) Pavithra is the youngest of the three.

Ans: (D)
Solution:
According to given information the points we got are
a) Shiva is brother of Pavithra
b) Shiva and Pavithra are cousins of Leela
c) According to their ages Shiva > Leela > Pavithra
d) They all live play chess
e) Pavithra wins more often than Leela but information about
winning cases of Shiva is not given.
So from the given options statement which is clearly true is that
Pavithra is the youngest of all.

9. If = and = and = , the value of abc is _______


(A) (rqs)-1
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) r+q+s+
Ans: (C)
Solution:
1
qa = ; r b =
r

1
s

and s c =

1
q

qa = r ; r b = s and s c = q
a log q = log r -------(1)
And b log r = log s ------(2)
And c log s = log q ------(3)
Multiplying equations (1),(2) and (3)
abc (log q) (log r)(log s) = (log r)(log s)(log q)
abc = 1

10.
P, Q, R and S are working on a project. Q can finish the task in
25 days, working alone for 12 hours a day. R can finish the task in 50
days, working alone for 12 hours per day. Q worked 12 hours a day
but took sick leave in the beginning for two days. R worked 18 hours
a day on all days. What is the ratio of work done by Q and R after 7
days from the start of the project?
(A) 10:11
(B) 11:10
(C) 20:21
(D) 21:20
Ans: (C)
Solution:
Person

Days

Hours

Man
hours/piece
of work

P
Q

25

12

2512

50

12

5012

Work done
per hour
1
25 12
1
25 12

S
After 7 days from start of project:
Q took sick leave on first 2 days
Man hours by Q = 512
work done by Q = 5 12

1
2512

1
5

Man hours by R = 718


work done by R =

1
5012

7 18 =

21
100
1

ratio of work done by Q to work done by R = :

21

5 100

100
521

20
21

Technical
Q.1Q.25 carry one mark each.
1. Let M4 = I, (where I denotes the identity matrix) and M I, M2 I
and M3 I. Then, for any natural number k, M1 equals:
(A) M4k + 1
(B) M4k + 2
(C) M4k + 3
(D) M4k
Ans: (C)
Solution:
Given M 4 = I
Multiply both sides with M-1 we get
M 1 . M 4 = M 1
M 1 = M 3 = M 0+3 = M 4k+3 for k = 0
M 1 = M 4k+3

2. The second moment of a Poisson-distributed random variable is 2.


The mean of the random variable is _______
Ans: 1
Solution:
For Poisson Distribution Mean = Variance = 2
But we know variance 2 = m2 m12
Where m2 = 2nd central moment
m1 = mean
from (1) we get
= 2 2

_____________(1)

2 + 2 = 0 ( + 2) ( 1) = 0
= 2 (or) 1
as variance () is always positive = 1

3. Given the following statements about a function : , select the


right option:
P: If f(x) is continuous at = 0, then it is also differentiable at = 0.
Q: If f(x) is continuous at = 0, then it may not be differentiable at
= 0.
R: If f(x) is differentiable at = 0, then it is also continuous at = 0.
(A) P is true, Q is false, R is false
(B) P is false, Q is true, R is true
(C) P is false, Q is true, R is false
(D) P is true, Q is false, R is true
Ans: (B)
Solution: If the function is differentiable then always it is continuous
but vice versa is not true. If the function is continuous then it may
(or) may not differentiable.

4. Which one of the following is a property of the solutions to the


Laplace equation: 2 = 0?
(A) The solutions have neither maxima nor minima anywhere except
at the boundaries.
(B) The solutions are not separable in the coordinates.
(C) The solutions are not continuous.
(D) The solutions are not dependent on the boundary conditions
Ans: (A)
Solution:
The solution of Laplace function are called harmonic function and have
the following properties. The properties are true irrespective of the

number of dimensions (one, two or three) in which you solve the


equation for 2 f = 0
i) f(x, y, z) is the average of f values over a spherical surface of radius
R centered at (x, y, z)
f(x, y, z) =

1
4R2

fda
sphere

This is for the case of three dimensional solution. In case of one


dimension f(x) is the average of f(x + a) and f(x a) for any a, f(x) =
1
[f(x + a) + f(x a)]. Similarly. For two dimension, the value f(x, y)
2

will the average of values of f on any circle of radius R centered at the


point (x, y).
ii) Laplaces equation tolerates no local minima or maxima; extreme
values of f must occur at end points or boundary in general. Thus,
seeing this we see only option a is true

5. Consider the plot of () versus as shown below.

Suppose () = 5 () Which one of the following is a graph of


()?
A)

B)

C)

D)

(C)
Ans: (A)
Solution: Finally we need to find the integration of given wave form.

As we know (ramp) = parabolic and constant = ramp signal


From the options we can observe that option (a) is the exact
integration wave form for given input.
From the options we can observe that option (C) is the exact
integration wave form for given input.
6. Which one of the following is an eigen function of the class of all
continuous-time, linear, time invariant systems (() denotes the unitstep function)?
(A) 0()
(B) cos(0)

(C) 0
(D) sin(0)
Ans: (C)
Solution:
Complex exponentials are Eigen function of linear time invariant
system. Eigen function of any system are a class of function which
when applied to the system gives the same function as output together
with a constant. We know this property for LTI systems is true for
complex exponential. Thus ejo t is the required eigen function.
Suppose if we take input x(t) = ej0 t then output y(t) = Kej0t , where
K is a constant.

7. A continuous-time function x(t) is periodic with period T. The


function is sampled uniformly with a sampling period . In which
one of the following cases is the sampled signal periodic?
(A) = 2
(B) = 1.2
(C) Always
(D) Never
Ans: (C)
Solution: When a periodic signal (here x(t)) is sampled by a periodic
sampling signal the resulting signal is always periodic.

8. Consider the sequence [] = [] + [], where [] denotes the


unit-step sequence and 0 < || < || < 1. The region of convergence
(ROC) of the z-transform of [] is
(A) || > ||
(B) || > ||
(C) || < ||
(D) || < || < ||

Ans: (B)
Solution: Given x(n) = an u(n) + bn u(n)
z
z
X(z) =
+
za zb
ROC: |z| > a and |z| > b
But given that 0< |a| < |b| < 1

Overall ROC is |z| > b

9. Consider a two-port network with the transmission matrix: =



(
). If the network is reciprocal, then

(A) 1 =
(B) 2 =
(C) Determinant (T) = 0
(D) Determinant (T) = 1
Ans: (D)
Solution:
Given T = [

A B
]
C D

The two port network is symmetric if A = D and reciprocal if AD BC


=1
Determinant (T) = 1

10.
A continuous-time sinusoid of frequency 33 Hz is multiplied
with a periodic Dirac impulse train of frequency 46 Hz. The resulting
signal is passed through an ideal analog low-pass filter with a cutoff
frequency of 23 Hz. The fundamental frequency (in Hz) of the output
is _________
Ans: 13
Solution:
The input sinusoid (Let x(t)) spectrum is X()

When this sinusoid is sampled using a Delta impulse train frequency


46Hz, the sinusoid spectrum shift to left and right by multiples of
46Hz. So, the spectrum of sampled signal xp (t) is Xp () as shown
below

After passing Xp () through a filter with cutoff 23Hz we have


Xp ()(LPF) is given by

Thus, fundamental frequency ofXp ()(LPF) is 13Hz

11.
A small percentage of impurity is added to an intrinsic
semiconductor at 300 K. Which one of the following statements is
true for the energy band diagram shown in the following figure?

(A) Intrinsic semiconductor doped with pentavalent atoms to form ntype semiconductor
(B) Intrinsic semiconductor doped with trivalent atoms to form ntype semiconductor
(C) Intrinsic semiconductor doped with pentavalent atoms to form ptype semiconductor
(D) Intrinsic semiconductor doped with trivalent atoms to form ptype semiconductor
Ans: (A)
Solution: As we see that the new Fermi level is above the mid band
energy level. So, the impurity added must be n type. Hence, a
pentavalent impurity and the resulting semiconductor is n type.

12.
Consider the following statements for a metal oxide
semiconductor field effect transistor
(MOSFET):
P: As channel length reduces, OFF-state current increases.
Q: As channel length reduces, output resistance increases.
R: As channel length reduces, threshold voltage remains constant.
S: As channel length reduces, ON current increases.
Which of the above statements are INCORRECT?
(A) P and Q
(B) P and S

(C) Q and R
(D) R and S
Ans: (C)
Solution:
We have MOSFET current ID given by
1
W
ID = n x (Vus VTH )2
2
L
So as channel length increase ID decreases. So statement S is true. Now
as channel length reduces the depletion regions under source and
drain come closer and interact more, increasing the OFF state current.
Thus, statement P is true. Also as channel length reduces output
impedance decrease. So, statement Q is incorrect. Also the channel
length affects the threshold voltage. So, statement R is incorrect.
Overall Q and R are incorrect statement and option C is the correct
option

13.
Consider the constant current source shown in the figure
below. Let represent the current gain of the transistor.

The load current 0 through RL is


+1

(A) 0 = (
(B) 0 = (

)
+1

+1

(C) 0 = (

(D) 0 = (

)
+1

Ans: (B)
Solution:

Voltage at non inverting terminal= inverting terminal= (Vcc


Vref )
IE =

Vcc (Vcc Vref ) Vref


=
R
R

collector current IE =
Ic = Io = (

(1+)Ic

Vref
)
1+ R

14.
The following signal Vi of peak voltage 8 V is applied to the
non-inverting terminal of an ideal opamp. The transistor has VBE =
0.7 V, = 100; VLED = 1.5 V, VCC = 10 V and VCC = 10 V.

The number of times the LED glows is ________


Ans: 3
Solution:
Voltage at inverting terminal V =

10(2)
2+8

=2

Whenever V+ > V then BJT is ON which turns ON LED


So when Vin > 2V then LED turns ON and its turn off when Vin < 2V.

So from the given wave form we can say that the LED turns ON for 3
times.

15.
Consider the oscillator circuit shown in the figure. The function
of the network (shown in dotted lines) consisting of the 100 k
resistor in series with the two diodes connected back-to-back is to:

(A) introduce amplitude stabilization by preventing the op amp from


saturating and thus producing sinusoidal oscillations of fixed
amplitude
(B) introduce amplitude stabilization by forcing the opamp to swing
between positive and negative saturation and thus producing square
wave oscillations of fixed amplitude
(C) introduce frequency stabilization by forcing the circuit to
oscillate at a single frequency
(D) enable the loop gain to take on a value that produces square
wave oscillations
Ans: (A)
Solution: In the combination of two Diode circuit at a time only one
Diode will turn ON.
When Vo = + Vsat then D1 is ON and D2 is OFF when Vo = Vsat
then D2 is ON and D1 is OFF.
So the given circuit introduce amplitude stabilization by preventing
the Op Amp from saturating and thus producing sinusoidal
oscillations of fixed amplitude

16.
The block diagram of a frequency synthesizer consisting of a
Phase Locked Loop (PLL) and a divide-by- counter (comprising
2, 4, 8, 16 outputs) is sketched below. The synthesizer is
excited with a 5 kHz signal (Input 1). The free-running frequency of
the PLL is set to 20 kHz. Assume that the commutator switch makes
contacts repeatedly in the order 1-2-3-4.

The corresponding frequencies synthesized are:


(A) 10 kHz, 20 kHz, 40 kHz, 80 kHz
(B) 20 kHz, 40 kHz, 80 kHz, 160 kHz
(C) 80 kHz, 40 kHz, 20 kHz, 10 kHz
(D) 160 kHz, 80 kHz, 40 kHz, 20 kHz

17.

The output of the combinational circuit given below is

(A) A+B+C
(B) A(B+C)
(C) B(C+A)
(D) C(A+B)
Ans: (C)
Solution:

)
Y = ABC (AB BC) = (ABC)(AB BC) + (AB BC)(ABC
)(BC
)
Consider AB BC = (AB)(BC) + (AB
+B
B
C + B
)(B
+ C) = ABC + A
+B
+A
C
= ABC + (A
C + B
C + (B + B
C + AC + B
=A
)(AC + B
) = A

= ABC + A
C
+ AC + B
) = ABC
(ABC)(AB BC) = (ABC)(A
(AB BC) = AB(BC
) +
+ C) +
Consider ABC
AB(BC) = AB(B
+B
BC + ABC
)BC = A
(A
BC + ABC = BC + ABC
= B(C + CA)
Y = ABC + A
= B(C + C)(C + A) = B(C + A)

18.

What is the voltage Vout in the following circuit?

(A) 0 V
(B) (|VT of PMOS| + VT of NMOS) / 2
(C) Switching threshold of inverter
(D) VDD
Ans: (C)

19.
Match the inferences X, Y, and Z, about a system, to the
corresponding properties of the elements of first column in Rouths
Table of the system characteristic equation.
X: The system is stable
Y: The system is unstable
Z: The test breaks down
P: when all elements are positive
Q: when any one element is zero
R: when there is a change in sign of coefficients
(A) XP, YQ, ZR
(B) XQ, YP, ZR
(C) XR, YQ, ZP
(D) XP, YR, ZQ
Ans: (D)

Solution:
i) If the elements present in the first column of RH table has same
sign then we can say that system is stable;
ii) If there is any change in the sign of first column then we can say
that system is Unstable and number of sign changes indicates the
Number of poles present in the right side of S plane
iii) If any element is zero in the first column then it says the test
breaks down.

20.
A closed-loop control system is stable if the Nyquist plot of the
corresponding open-loop transfer function
(A) encircles the s-plane point (1 + j0) in the counterclockwise
direction as many times as the number of right-half s-plane poles.
(B) encircles the s-plane point (0 j1) in the clockwise direction as
many times as the number of right-half s-plane poles.
(C) encircles the s-plane point (1 + j0) in the counterclockwise
direction as many times as the number of left-half s-plane poles.
(D) encircles the s-plane point (1 + j0) in the counterclockwise
direction as many times as the number of right-half s-plane zeros.
Ans: (A)
Solution:
From the principal of argument theorem the number of encirclements
about (-1, 0) is N = P Z
Where P = Number of open loop poles on Right Half of s plane
Z = Number of Closed Loop Poles on Right Half of s plane
Given that closed loop system is stable means z = 0 N = P
So the Nyquist encircles the s plane point (-1 +j0) in the counter
clockwise direction as many times as the number of right half s plane
poles

21.
Consider binary data transmission at a rate of 56 kbps using
baseband binary pulse amplitude modulation (PAM) that is designed
to have a raised-cosine spectrum. The transmission bandwidth (in
kHz) required for a roll-off factor of 0.25 is ________
Ans: 35
Solution:
Birarate =

2(transmission Bandwidth)
(1 + )

Where = Roll off factor


56 =

2(BW)
BW = 28 1.25 = 35KHz
1 + 0.25

22.
A super heterodyne receiver operates in the frequency range of
58 MHz 68 MHz. The intermediate frequency and local
oscillator frequency are chosen such that . It is required
that the image frequencies fall outside the 5 8 M Hz 68 MHz band.
The minimum required (in MHz) is ________
Ans: 0.5
Solution:
The relation between image frequency and intermediate frequency is
given by
Fsi = fs + 2IF
Fsi1 = 58 + 2IF and Fsi2 = 68 + 2IF
If image frequency is 69 MHz then
69 = 68 + 2IF2
69 = 58 + 2IF1 ,
|
IF2 = 0.5 MHz
IF1 = 5.5MHz
Minimum value of Intermediate frequency IF = 0.5 MHz

23.
The amplitude of a sinusoidal carrier is modulated by a single
sinusoid to obtain the amplitude modulated signal () = 5 cos 1600
+ 20 cos 1800 + 5 cos 2000. The value of the modulation index
is __________
Ans: 0.5
0.25
Solution:
The general ATT modulated signal expression is s(t) = Ac (1 +
cos m t) cos c t
Ac
[2 cos m t cos c t]
s(t) = Ac cosc t +
2
Ac
[cos(n + c )t cos(c m )t]
= Ac cos c t +
2
Ac
Ac
s(t) = Ac cosc t +
cos(m + c )t +
cos(c m )t
2
2
Thus, we see that two terms have same amplitudes. Comparing with
s(t) = 5 cos 1600t + 20 cos 1800t + 5 cos 2000t
We have
And

Ac
2

Ac

20
Ac =
= 20

Ac = 40

=5=

25
40
20

= = 0.5
0.25
42

24.
Concentric spherical shells of radii 2 m, 4 m, and 8 m carry
uniform surface charge densities of 20 nC/m2, 4 nC/m2 and s,
respectively. The value of s (nC/m2) required to ensure that the
at radius 10 m is _________
=0
electric flux density
Ans: 0.25
Solution:
For the flus density to be zero at radius r = 10m, total charge enclosed
must be zero. Total change enclosed on sphere of radius 2m is
4(r 2 )20

nC
m2

= 320 nC

Change on 4 m radius sphere is 4(r 2 ) 4


Charge on 8 m radius sphere us 4(r 2 ) s

nC

m2
nC

m2

= 256 nC
= 256s nC

The total charge enclosed should be zero. So, 320 256 +


256s = 0
s = 0.25 nC/m2

25.
The propagation constant of a lossy transmission line is (2 +
5) m1 and its characteristic impedance is (50 + 0) at = 106
rad s1. The values of the line constants L, C,R, G are, respectively,
(A) L = 200 H/m, C = 0.1 F/m, R = 50 /m, G = 0.02 S/m
(B) L = 250 H/m, C = 0.1 F/m, R = 100 /m, G = 0.04 S/m
(C) L = 200 H/m, C = 0.2 F/m, R = 100 /m, G = 0.02 S/m
(D) L = 250 H/m, C = 0.2 F/m, R = 50 /m, G = 0.04 S/m
Ans: (B)
Solution:
Since the characteristic impedance is purely real and propagation
constant is complex, the transmission line is distortionless. Thus, =
R

RG and = LC. and Zo = G


Zo = R
Zo R = 2 50 = 100 /m
G=

R
Z20

100
2500

= 0.04

S
m

. We see only option b fits these two

requirements. Confirming from option b we see,


LC = 106 250 106 0.1 106
= 106 106 5
=5=
Thus, option B is true

Q.26Q.55 carry two marks each.


26.

The integral

1
2

( + + 10) , , where denotes the

disc: 2 + 2 4, evaluates to_____

Ans: 20
Solution:
Given that I =

1
2

D(x + y + 10) dxdy and x 2 + y 2 4

Put x = rcos , y = rsin , dxdy = rdrd


2

2
1
I=
(rcos + rsin + 10)rdrd
2
r=0
=0
2

1
r3
r3
=
( cos + sin + 5r 2 ) d
2
3
3
0
=0

1
8
8
1
=
= 20
[ ( cos + sin + 20) d] =
2
3
3
2[0 + 0 + 20(2)]
=0

27.

A sequence x[n] is specified as [

[]
]=
[ 1]

1 1 1
] [ ] , 2.
1 0 0
The initial conditions are x[0] = 1, x[1] = 1, and x[n] = 0 for n < 0.
The value of x[12] is _____
[

Ans: 12
Solution:
x(n)
1 1n 1
Given that [
] [ ]
]=[
x(n 1)
1 0 0
Put n = 2 we get
x(2)
1 1 1
][
[
]=[
x(1)
1 0 1

1 1
2 1 1
2
][ ] = [
][ ] = [ ]
0 0
1 1 0
1

Put n = 3 we get
x(3)
1 13 1
2 1 1 1 1
3 2 1
3
] [ ]=[
][
][ ] = [
][ ] = [ ]
[
]=[
x(2)
1 0 0
1 1 1 0 0
2 1 0
2

Similar if we put n = 12 we get


1 12 1
12
] [ ]=[ ]
0
0
11

x(12)
1
[
]=[
x(11)
1
x(12) = 12

28.
In the following integral, the contour C encloses the points 2j
and 2j
1
sin

2 ( 2)3

The value of the integral is ________


Ans: 133.8
Solution:
sinz

, dz = 2i (sum of residues)
(z 2j)3
Pole is at z = 2 j
1 d2
(sinz)|
[Residue] =
2! dz 2
z2j
1
d
1
1
= .
= sinz = sin2i
2 dz(cosz)
2
2
1
i e2 e2
= + isin h(2) = (+ ) [
] = + i (133.8)
2
2
2
(sin i = i sin h & sin hi = i sin

29.

1
sin
1

.
dz
=
2i (+133.8)i = + 133.8
2 (z 2j)3
2

The region specified by {( , , ): 3 5,

,3

4.5} in cylindrical coordinates has volume of _______

Ans: 9.424
Solution:
Volume = (d) (id). dz = d. d . dz

1 2 5
= ( )3 . ()4 (z)4.5
3
2
8

1

3
16 ( ) (4.5 3) = 8 = 3 = 9.424
2
4 8
4 2

30.
The Laplace transform of the causal periodic square wave of
period T shown in the figure below is

(A) () =
(B) () =
(C) () =
(D) () =

1+ 2
1

(1+ 2 )

1
(1 )
1
1

Ans: (B)
Solution:
Laplace transform for periodic signal is given as
T

1
F(s) =
f(t)est dt
1 esT
0

T
2

1
1
est 2
st
=
(1). e dt + 0 =
[
]
1 esT
1 esT s 0
0
[
]
sT
1
1

2]=(
=
.
.

e
[1
(1 esT ) s

F(s) =

sT

1 e 2

s (1 + e

sT
2 ) (1

ST )

e 2)

1
ST

s (1 + e 2 )

31.
A network consisting of a finite number of linear resistor (R),
inductor (L), and capacitor (C) elements, connected all in series or all
in parallel, is excited with a source of the form
3=1 cos(0 ) , where ak 0, 0 0
The source has nonzero impedance. Which one of the following is a
possible form of the output measured across a resistor in the
network?
(A) 3=1 cos(0 + ) , where bk ak ,
(B) 4=1 cos(0 + ) , where bk 0,
(C) 3=1 cos(0 + )
(D) 3=1 cos(0 + )
Ans: (A)
Solution:
Given input x(t) = 3k=1 ak cos(ko t)
Suppose R = 1, L = 1, C = 1 and they are connected in series then
transfer function of system
H(s) = R + sL + 1/sC
1
1 s2 + s + 1
H(s) = R + sL + = 1 + s + =
sC
s
s
At = ko H(j) = M

y(t) = 3k=1 ak . M. cos(ko t + ) = 3k=1 bk . cos(ko t + )Where


bk a k

32.
A first-order low-pass filter of time constant T is excited with
different input signals (with zero initial conditions up to t = 0).
Match the excitation signals X, Y, Z with the corresponding time
responses for t 0:
X: Impulse P: 1 /
Y: Unit step Q: t T(1 /)
Z: Ramp
R: /
(A) XR, YQ, ZP
(B) XQ, YP, ZR
(C) XR, YP, ZQ
(D) XP, YR, ZQ
Ans: (C)
Solution:
Let open loop transfer function G(s) =
Closed loop transfer function H(s) =

1
ST
1

1+sT

(assume unity negative

feedback)
Y(s) = X(s). H(s)
Case i :
if input = impulse X(s) = 1
1
1 1
. [
]
1 + sT T 1 + s
T
1 t
y(t) = eT
T
Y(s) =

Case ii:
If input = unit step X(s) =

1
s

Y(s) =

1
1 1
T
1
1
. = +
=
1 + sT s s (1 + sT) s 1 + s
T
t

y(t) = 1 eT
Case iii:
If input = Ramp x(s) =

1
s2

(T)
1
1
1
T2
Y(s) =
. 2= 2+
+
(1 + sT)
1 + sT s
s
s
t

y(t) = t + Tet/T T = t T (1 eT )

33.
An AC voltage source V = 10 sin(t) volts is applied to the
following network. Assume that R1 = 3 k, R2= 6 k and R3 = 9 k,
and that the diode is ideal.

RMS current Irms (in mA) through the diode is ________


Ans: 1.414
Solution:
Current through R1 =

Irms
3
1 Irms

Current through R 2 = .
2

Irms
6

Current through R 3 =

Irms
6

Irms
6

Irms
3

Apply KVL we get


Irms
Irms
Irms
(6) +
(9) = 0
. (3) +
3
6
3

Vrms +

Irms [1 + 1 + 3] = 52 Irms = 2(mA)

34.
In the circuit shown in the figure, the maximum power (in
watt) delivered to the resistor R is __________

Ans: 800
Solution:
V0 =

5(2)

= 2V

2+3

Thevenin voltage Vth = 100

V0 (40)
40+10

= 80Vo = 160V

Thevenin resistance is calculated by shorting 5V source which gives


Vo = 0V
R Th =

40(10)

Pmax =

50
V2Th
4Rth

=8

160160
48

= 800 watt

35.
Consider the signal
[] = 6 [ + 2] + 3[ + 1] + 8[] + 7[ 1] + 4[ 2] .

If () is the discrete-time Fourier transform of x[n],

then ( ) sin2 (2) is equal to _________

Ans: 8
Solution:

1
X(ej ) sin2 (2) d

We have
sin2 (2) =

1cos 4
2

Thus,
1

X(ej )

(1cos4)

1
1
=
X(ej )d
X(ej )cos4d
2
2

We have

1
X(ej )d = x[0] = 8
2

And from the cos 4 term

X(ej ) (
2

ej4 +ej4
2

) d

1 1
1
= [
X(ej )ej4 d +
X(ej )ej4 d]
2 2
2

= [x[4] + x[4]] = [0 + 0] = 0
2
2
Thus,

X(ej ) sin2 (2)d = 8 0 = 8


36.
Consider a silicon p-n junction with a uniform acceptor doping
concentration of 1017 cm3 on the p side and a uniform donor doping
concentration of 1016 cm3 on the n-side. No external voltage is
applied to the diode. Given:
kT/q = 26 mV, ni =1.5 1010 cm3, Si = 120, 0 = 8.85 1014 F/m,
and q = 1.6 1019 C.

The charge per unit junction area (nC cm2) in the depletion region
on the p-side is ___________
Ans: -55.52
Solution:
We have
1

2
2si . Vbi Nd
1
xp = {
[ ][
]}
9
Na Na + Nd

Now Vbi =

KT
4

ln (

Na Nd
n2i

)
1016 1017

Vbi = 26 103 ln (

11.51010

) = 0.757 V

Now,
14

16

1
2

2 12 8.85 10
10
xp = {
}
(1.6 1019 )(1017 )(1016 + 1017 )
14

16

1
2

2 12 8.85 10
10
={
}
(1.6 1019 )(1017 ) 11 1016
xp = 3.47 106 cm
Now charge per unit volume in depletion region is
eNa = (1.6 1019 ) 1017 C/cm3
eNa = 1.6 102 C/cm3
Charge per unit area Q in depletion region on p-side is eNa . xp
Q = 1.6 102 3.47 106
Q = 55.52 nC/cm2

37.
Consider an n-channel metal oxide semiconductor field effect
transistor (MOSFET) with a gate-to source voltage of 1.8 V. Assume
that / = 4, N = 70 106 AV2, the threshold voltage is 0.3V,
and the channel length modulation parameter is 0.09 V1. In the
saturation region, the drain conductance (in micro seimens) is
________
Ans: 28.35

Solution:
The equation of current in saturation is given by
1

ID = n cox

(VGS VT )2 (1 + VDS )

Drain Conductance =

ID
VDS

= n cox

. (VGs VT )2 .

= 70 106 4 (1.8 0.3)2 0.09


= 28.35 106 seimens = 28.35 seimens

38.
The figure below shows the doping distribution in a p-type
semiconductor in log scale.

The magnitude of the electric field (in kV/cm) in the semiconductor


due to non-uniform doping is _________

39.
Consider a silicon sample at T = 300 K, with a uniform donor
density = 5 1016
cm3, illuminated uniformly such that the optical generation rate is
= 1.5 1020 cm31 throughout the sample. The incident
radiation is turned off at = 0. Assume low-level injection to be valid
and ignore surface effects. The carrier lifetimes are 0= 0.1 s and
0 = 0.5 s.

The hole concentration at = 0 and the hole concentration at = 0.3


s, respectively, are

(A) 1.5 1013 cm3 and 7.47 1011 cm3


(B) 1.5 1013 cm3 and 8.23 1011 cm3
(C) 7.5 1013 cm3 and 3.73 1011 cm3
(D) 7.5 1013 cm3 and 4.12 1011 cm3
Ans: (A)
Solution:
We have
1

2
2si . Vbi Nd
1
xp = {
[ ][
]}
9
Na Na + Nd

Now Vbi =

KT
4

ln (

Na Nd
n2i

)
1016 1017

Vbi = 26 103 ln (

11.51010

) = 0.757 V

Now,
14

16

1
2

2 12 8.85 10
10
xp = {
}
(1.6 1019 )(1017 )(1016 + 1017 )
1

2 12 8.85 1014 1016 2


={
}
(1.6 1019 )(1017 ) 11 1016
xp = 3.47 106 cm
Now charge per unit volume in depletion region is
eNa = (1.6 1019 ) 1017 C/cm3
eNa = 1.6 102 C/cm3
Charge per unit area Q in depletion region on p-side is eNa . xp
Q = 1.6 102 3.47 106
Q = 55.52 nC/cm2

40.
An ideal opamp has voltage sources V1, V3, V5, , VN-1 connected
to the non-inverting input and V2,V4, V6, , VN connected to the
inverting input as shown in the figure below (+VCC = 15 volt, VCC =
15 volt). The voltages V1, V2, V3, V4, V5, V6, are 1, 1/2, 1/3, 1/4,
1/5, 1/6, volt, respectively. As N approaches infinity, the output
voltage (in volt) is ___________

Ans: -1.142
Solution:
If only V1 is present and remaining are OFF. Then voltage at non
inverting terminal = 0 V (because parallel connection of infinite
resistances leads to be short circuit)
So even if all V1 , V3 Vn1 are present, the voltage at Non
inverting terminal = 0 V
By using virtual ground concept voltage at inverting terminal = 0 V
Apply nodal at inverting terminal we get
O V2 O V4 O V6
O V0
+
+
.+
=0
10
10
10
10
Vo = (V2 + V4 + V6 + . VN )
1 1 1
V0 = ( + + + . )
2 4 6
1
1 1 1
= (1 + + + + . . . ) = 1.142 V
2
2 3 4

41.
A p-i-n photodiode of responsivity 0.8A/W is connected to the
inverting input of an ideal opamp as shown in the figure, +Vcc = 15 V,
Vcc = 15V, Load resistor RL = 10 k. If 10 W of power is incident
on the photodiode, then the value of the photocurrent (in A)
through the load is ________

Ans: 800
Solution:
By Virtual Ground concept voltage at inverting = Non inverting = 0
V
Responsibility =

Ip
P0

Photodiode current Ip = 0.8 10 106 = 8 A


Ip =

42.

0 V0
8
= 4 = 800A
1 M
10

Identify the circuit below.

(A) Binary to Gray code converter

(B) Binary to XS3 converter


(C) Gray to Binary converter
(D) XS3 to Binary converter
Ans: (C)
Solution:
Assume X2 X1 X0 = (1 1 1)2 = 710
Then output of first decoder = Op7 which is connected to Ip5 of
encoder ((5)10 = (101)2 )
output of encoder Y2 Y1 Y0 = 1 0 1
input to the circuit = 1 1 1 and output = 1 0 1
Consider Gray to Binary converter if input if input = 111 then output
is 101.

So the given circuit acts like Gray to Binary converter

43.

The functionality implemented by the circuit below is

(A) 2-to-1 multiplexer


(B) 4-to-1 multiplexer
(C) 7-to-1 multiplexer
(D) 6-to-1 multiplexer
Ans: (B)
Solution:
When
C1 = 0 and C0 = 0 then O0 is high Y = P
C1 = 0 and C0 = 1 then O1is high Y = Q
C1 = 1 and C0 = 0 then O2is high Y = R
C1 = 0 and C0 = 1 then O3is high Y = S
so the given circuit acts like 4 : 1 multiplexer with inputs P, Q, R and
S and selection inputs C1 and C0

44.
In an 8085 system, a PUSH operation requires more clock
cycles than a POP operation. Which one of the following options is
the correct reason for this?

(A) For POP, the data transceivers remain in the same direction as for
instruction fetch (memory to processor), whereas for PUSH their
direction has to be reversed.
(B) Memory write operations are slower than memory read
operations in an 8085 based system.
(C) The stack pointer needs to be pre-decremented before writing
registers in a PUSH, whereas a POP operation uses the address
already in the stack pointer.
(D) Order of registers has to be interchanged for a PUSH operation,
whereas POP uses their natural order.
Ans:
Solution:
PUSH is pre decremented operation
Since it is 16 bit operation it takes 6 clock cycles for Fetch and
decoding operation.
For PUSH operation:
T1
6 clock cycles
Fetch and Decode

T2
3 clock cycles
Write operation

T3
3 clock cycles
Write operation

Total no of clock cycles = 6+3+3= 12 clock cycles


Whereas POP is a post incremented operation and it takes only 4
clock cycles in fetch and decode operation.
For POP:
T1
4 clock cycles
Fetch and Decode

T2
3 clock cycles
Write operation

T3
3 clock cycles
Write operation

Total no of clock cycles = 4+3+3= 10 clock cycles

45.
The open-loop transfer function of a unity-feedback control
system is


2 + 5 + 5
The value of K at the breakaway point of the feedback control
systems root-locus plot is _______
() =

Ans: 1.25
Solution:
Given open loop transfer function G(s) =
1 + G(s)H(s) 1 +

K
(s2 +55+5)

K
=0
(s 2 + 5s + 5)

K = (s 2 + 5s + 5)
For Break point calculation we need

dK
ds

= 0 2s + 5 = 0

s = 2.5
At s = 2.5 G(s) =

K
6.25+5(2.5)+5

Form magnitude Criterion |G(s)| = 1 at s = 2.5


|
|

K
|=1
11.25 12.5
K
1.25

| = 1 K = 1.25

46.
The open-loop transfer function of a unity-feedback control
system is given by

() =
( + 2)
For the peak overshoot of the closed-loop system to a unit step input
to be 10%, the
value of K is ____________
Ans: 1.300
Solution:
Open loop transfer function G(s) =

K
s(s+2)

Characteristics equation is s 2 + 2s + K = 0

Compare with standard equation we get


2 n = 2 & 2n = K n = k =

Given peak overshoot Mp = 10% = e


ln (

10

)=
100

1
k

12

100

12

= 0.537 = 0.6
1 2
K=

1
= 1.300
2

47.
The transfer function of a linear time invariant system is given
by
H(s) = 24 53 + 5 2
The number of zeros in the right half of the s-plane is ________
Ans: 3
Solution:
Given H(s) = 2s 4 5s 3 + 5s 2
Obtain RH criteria we get
s4
2
0
s3
-5
5
2
s
2
-2
1
s
4(0)
s0
-2
Auxiliary Equation AE: 2s 2 2 = 0 and

dAE

No. of sign changes in first columns = 3


No. of roots in Right Half of s plane = 3

ds

=4

48.
Consider a discrete memory less source with alphabet = {0,
1, 2, 3, 4, } and respective probabilities of occurrence =
1 1 1

{2 , 4 , 8 , 16 , 32}. The entropy of the source (in bits) is _______


Ans: 2
Solution:
Entropy of the
s2 log 2 s2

source

is

H(s) = s0 log 2 s0 s1 log 2 s1

2
1

4
1

8
1

2
1

16

H(s) = 1 + 4 + 8 + ..
H(s) = 1 + 2 + 3 +
H(s) = [1 2
2

1
4

4. ..

23

+3 +4

.]

Now, expansion of
(1 x)2 = 1 + 2x + 3x 2 + 4x 3 .
Comparing with
1
1
1
1+2 +3 2+4 3
2
2
2
1
We see, x =
2

22

Thus, 1 + 2 3

+4

1
23

1 2
= (1 )
2
1 2

=( )
2

= 22 = 4
1

Now, H(s) = 4 = 2bits/symbol


2

49.
A digital communication system uses a repetition code for
channel encoding/decoding. During transmission, each bit is
repeated three times (0 is transmitted as 000, and 1 is transmitted as
111). It is assumed that the source puts out symbols independently
and with equal probability. The decoder operates as follows: In a
block of three received bits, if the number of zeros exceeds the
number of ones, the decoder decides in favor of a 0, and if the
number of ones exceeds the number of zeros, the decoder decides in

favor of a 1. Assuming a binary symmetric channel with crossover


probability p = 0.1, the average probability of error is ________
Ans: 0.007
Solution:
Given crossover probability p = 0.1. So, we have the channel map as

Suppose 000 is transmitted then error occurs when we receive 110,


101, 011, 111.
1

So probability if error when 0 is transmitted Pe ( ) is


0
1

Pe ( ) = 3 (0.1 0.1 0.9) + (0.1 0.1 0.1) = 0.028


0
0

Similarly, Pe ( ) = 3 (0.1 0.1 0.9) + (0.1 0.1 0.1) = 0.028


1
1

Now Pe = P(000) P ( ) + P(111)P ( )


0
1
= (0.5)3 0.028 + (0.5)3 0.028
Pe = 0.007

50.
An analog pulse s(t) is transmitted over an additive white
Gaussian noise (AWGN) channel. The received signal is r(t) = s(t) +
n(t), where n(t) is additive white Gaussian noise with power spectral
density

0
2

. The received signal is passed through a filter with impulse

response h(t). Let and denote the energies of the pulse s(t) and
the filter h(t), respectively. When the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) is
maximized at the output of the filter (SNRmax), which of the following
holds?
(A) = ; max =

2
0

(B) = ; max =
(C) > ; max =
(D) = ; max =

2
20
2
0
2
0

Ans: (A)
Solution:
The SNR is maximum when the filter is matched to the input signal.
And when the filter is matched to the input the energies of both the
input and matched filter responses is same. Thus Es = Eh . And in that
case the SNR =

2Es
N0

2Eh
N0

51.

The current density in a medium is given by


400
=
2
2
2( + 4)
The total current and the average current density flowing through

the portion of a spherical surface = 0.8 , , 0


12

2 are given, respectively, by


(A) 15.09 A, 12.86 Am-2
(B) 18.73 A, 13.65 Am-2
(C) 12.86 A, 9.23 Am-2
(D) 10.28 A, 7.56 Am-2
Ans: (No option matching)
Solution:
The current density at r = 0.8m is
400sin
J=
ar A/m2
2(0.64 + 4)
400sin
J=
a A/m2
2(464) r
So total current I through portion r = 0.8m,
And 0 2 is I = J. da

12

I=

2
400 sin
4
a
=0 =

24.64 r

= r 2 sinddar

12

I=

2
4

=0
24.64
400

r 2 sindd|

12

4000.64
24.64

I=

I=
=

()|

4000.64
24.64

4000.64
24.64

4000.64
4.64

2
0

r=0.8

sin2

12

624

2 [

12

]|

2 [(

) 4 (sin 2

sin
6

)]

(1 )]
12
4
2

]
8

I = 7.55 A(No option matching)


Now, area of the portion of the spherical surface

S=

2
4
=0 =

r 2 sin dd|

12

S = 0.64

r=0.8

()|2
0

( cos )|

12

S = 0.64 2 (0.26)
S = 1.04
Now average current density Javg =

7.55
1.04

= 7.25

A
m2

52. An antenna pointing in a certain direction has a noise temperature


of 50 K. The ambient temperature is 290 K. The antenna is connected
to a pre-amplifier that has a noise figure of 2 dB and an available gain
of 40 dB over an effective bandwidth of 12 MHz. The effective input
noise temperature Te for the amplifier and the noise power Pao at
the output of the preamplifier, respectively, are
(A) Te = 169.36 K and Pao = 3.7310-10 W
(B) Te = 170.8 K and Pao = 4.5610-10 W
(C) Te = 182.5 K and Pao = 3.8510-10 W
(D) Te = 160.62 K and Pao = 4.610-10 W

Ans: (A)
Solution:
Antennas noise temperature TAN = 50K
Ambient temperature TA = 290K
Preamplifier noise figure FP = 2dB
Amplifier gain GP = 40dB
Now, effective noise temperature of amplifier input Te = (F 1)TA
2

Noise figure of antenna F = 1010 = 105 = 1.585


Thus, Te = 290(1.585 1) = 290 0.585 = 169.7 K
Now, noise power at the preamplifier output, Pao = GKTIN B
40

Gain, G = 1010 = 104 and TIN is the input noise temperature at


amplifier input
TIN = TAN + Te = 50K + 169.6K
TIN = 219.6K
Amplifier output noise, Pao = GKTIN B
Pao = 104 (1.38 1023 ) (219.6) (12 106 )
Pao = 3.63 1010 W
Thus, option A is correct.

53. Two lossless X-band horn antennas are separated by a distance of


200. The amplitude reflection coefficients at the terminals of the
transmitting and receiving antennas are 0.15 and 0.18, respectively.
The maximum directivities of the transmitting and receiving
antennas (over the isotropic antenna) are 18 dB and 22 dB,
respectively. Assuming that the input power in the lossless
transmission line connected to the antenna is 2 W, and that the
antennas are perfectly aligned and polarization matched, the power (
in mW) delivered to the load at the receiver is ________
Ans: 1.54
Solution:
Given input to the lossless transmission line is 2W.
Let the maximum amplitude of the input sinusoid be A. Then A2 /2 =
2W A = 2V

The amplitude of sinusoid after getting transmitted is AT = (1 T )A


Where T is the reflection coefficient of transmitting antenna.
Thus, AT = (1 0.15)2 = 1.7V
So, transmitted power is PT = 1.

72
2

= 1.445W

Now using Friis equation received power Pr is Pr = Gdr . Gdt [

4r

PT
Where Gdr is directive gain of receiving antenna and Gdt is directive
gain of transmitting antenna.
We have Gdt = 101 . 8 = 63.1 and
Gdr = 102.2 = 158.5
And distance between antennas is given as r = 200
Thus, Pr = (158.5)(63.1) [

4200

] 1.445

Pr = 2.29W
Now sinusoid amplitude at receiver input Ar is such that
A2r
2

= 2.29 W Ar = 2.14

Now amplitude of sinusoid transmitted to load AL is


AL = (1 R )Ar = (1 0.18) 2.14 = 1.755V
Thus power received by load is

A2L
2

= 1.54W

54. The electric field of a uniform plane wave travelling along the
negative z direction is given by the following equation:
= ( + )0
This wave is incident upon a receiving antenna placed at the origin
and whose radiated electric field towards the incident wave is given
by the following equation:
1
= ( + )

The polarization of the incident wave, the polarization of the antenna


and losses due to the polarization mismatch are, respectively,
(A) Linear, Circular (clockwise), 5dB
(B) Circular (clockwise), Linear, 5dB
(C) Circular (clockwise), Linear, 3dB
(D) Circular (anti clockwise), Linear, 3dB
Ans: (D)
Solution: The incident electric field is circular polarised as the two
components are equal and phase shifted by 90 . When we multiply
the time exponential ejt . We see that the wave is anticlockwise
circular. The antenna electric filed is linearly polarised as the two
components are in phase. Thus, without calculating polarisation loss
we see the correct option is D.

55. The far-zone power density radiated by a helical antenna is


approximated as:
1
4
=

0 2 cos

The radiated power density is symmetrical with respect to and


exists only in the upper hemisphere: 0 /2 ; 0 2; 0 is a
constant. The power radiated by the antenna (in watts) and the
maximum directivity of the antenna, respectively, are
(A) 1.5C0,10dB
(B) 1.256C0,10dB
(C) 1.256C0,12dB
(D) 1.5C0,12dB
Ans: (B)
Solution:
Given that Wrad = Wavg =

1
r2

cos 4 . C0 .
ar

Power radiated = Wrad . dS


But dS = r 2 sin dd.
ar
Power radiated =

1
r2

cos 4 . C0 . r 2 sin dd

Where 0

and 0 2

Power Radiated, Prad = cos 4 . C0 . sin dd

= C0 (2) cos 4 . sin. d: where 0


2
311
= C0 (2)
= 1.256C0 .
531
Radiation intensity = U = r 2 . Wrad = cos 4 . C0
Directivity D0 = 4

Umax
Prad

= 4

C0
1.256C0

= 10.005

Directivity in (dB) = 10 log10 10.005 = 10