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UNSW SHIT

© All Rights Reserved

- Golden Ratio
- Is 0 a Rational Number or Irrational Number
- ibps_po_2013_quantitative_aptitude_ebook_1.pdf
- An Impatient Introduction to Discrete Mathematics for Computer Science
- Space and Time
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- Foundations of Security Analysis and Design, Tutorial Lectures
- RESPONSES TO "THEORETICAL MATHEMATICS: TOWARD A CULTURAL SYNTHESIS OF MATHEMATICS AND THEORETICAL PHYSICS", BY A. JAFFE AND F. QUINN
- Arguments
- MATHS NOTES Session 1 - Sets of Numbers - HCF - LCM - Place Value
- chap1
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- CSC331 Week 1 Topic B
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- 3CSE
- Advance
- Midterm 1 Sol

You are on page 1of 16

These solutions were written by Johann Blanco, typed up by Evgeny Martynov and edited by

Allan Loi and Henderson Koh. Please be ethical with this resource. It is for the use of MathSoc

members, so do not repost it on other forums or groups without asking for permission. If you

appreciate this resource, please consider supporting us by coming to our events and buying our

T-shirts! Also, happy studying :)

We cannot guarantee that our working is correct, or that it would obtain full marks - please

notify us of any errors or typos at unswmathsoc@gmail.com, or on our Facebook page. There

are sometimes multiple methods of solving the same question. Remember that in the real class

test, you will be expected to explain your steps and working out.

1. (a) The truth tables are given below for each formula:

p (q p)

p

qp

p (q p)

(p q) q

p

pq

(p q) q

(b) First, it will be easier to see if you produce a combined truth table:

p

p (q p)

(p q) q

first second

second first

Recall that for a formula to logically imply another formula, one only needs to look

at each row where the first formula produces a T. If every such row also produces a

T in the second formula, then this proves that the first formula logically implies the

second.

By looking at the truth table, we can see that every time the first formula produces a T (the first two rows), the second formula also produces a T. Hence, the

first formula logically implies the second.

On the other hand, to check whether the second formula logically implies the first, we

need to look at the rows where the second formula produces a T (every line). However,

consider the case where p = q = F (4th line). While the second formula produces a T,

the first formula produces a F. Hence, the second formula does not logically imply the first.

2. Theorem: log6 11 is irrational.

Suppose that log6 11 is rational, that is, there exist integers p and q such that log6 11 = pq .

Without loss of generality, we can assume p, q > 0.

Then,

log6 11 =

p

q

p

11 = 6 q

11q = 6p

which is a contradiction, as the LHS is always odd and RHS is always even.

Hence, our assumption was false, and it follows that log6 11 is irrational, thus completing

the proof.

3. Theorem: q(n) = 11n2 + 32n is a prime number for two integer values of n, and is

composite for all other integer values of n.

Proof. First, note that if a number is prime, then it has exactly two factors, which are 1

and the number itself.

2

Factorising q(n), we obtain q(n) = n(11n + 32). From the definition, for q(n) to be prime,

it is necessary that at least one of n = 1 or 11n + 32 = 1 is true.

We now consider the possible cases.

If n = 1, then q(n) = 43, which is prime.

If n = 1, then q(n) = 21, which is not prime.

If 11n + 32 = 1, then n =

31

11

is not possible.

If 11n + 32 = 1, then n = 3, and hence q(n) = 3, which is prime.

By exhaustion of all possible cases where q(n) can be prime, we conclude that q(n) is prime

in only two cases (namely, n = 1 or n = 3). For all other values of n, q(n) is divisible

by n and 11n + 32, which are both not equal to 1, implying that it is composite.

April 28, 2016

These solutions were written by Johann Blanco, typed up by Evgeny Martynov and edited by

Allan Loi and Henderson Koh. Please be ethical with this resource. It is for the use of MathSoc

members, so do not repost it on other forums or groups without asking for permission. If you

appreciate this resource, please consider supporting us by coming to our events and buying our

T-shirts! Also, happy studying :)

We cannot guarantee that our working is correct, or that it would obtain full marks - please

notify us of any errors or typos at unswmathsoc@gmail.com, or on our Facebook page. There

are sometimes multiple methods of solving the same question. Remember that in the real class

test, you will be expected to explain your steps and working out.

1. (a) The truth tables for each formula are given below:

(p ( q)) r

p

p ( q)

(p ( q)) r

q (( p) r)

p

( p) r

q (( p) r)

(b) First off, note that the second cannot imply the first when p = q = r = F .

On the other hand, the first does imply the second, which can be seen from this

truth table:

p

(p ( q)) r

q (( p) r)

first second

2. Theorem : If m and n are positive integers, then m!n! < (m + n)!

Proof. Let m and n be positive integers.

Now,

m!n! = (1 2 3 m)(1 2 3 n)

< 1 2 3 m(m + 1)(m + 2)(m + 3) . . . (m + n)

= (m + n)!

as 1 < m + 1, 2 < m + 2, . . . , n < m + n.

It follows that m!n! < (m + n)!, thus completing the proof.

Alternative proof. Let m and n be positive integers. Notice that

Z+

m+n

m

> 1 since m, n

so m, n > 0.

This is true since this finds us the total number of ways to select m items from a total of

Hence,

m+n

>1

m

(m + n)!

>1

m!n!

m!n! < (m + n)!

which concludes the proof.

3. Theorem:

that 0 x 1.

Proof. Let a be some element of R+ . Let f : R R be a function such that f (x) =

ax cos x.

Now, f (0) = 1 and f (1) = a + 1.

Clearly, f is continuous on the interval [0, 1]. Thus, as 1 < 0 < a+1, by the intermediate

value theorem, there exists at least one number c (0, 1) such that f (c) = 0.

That is, there is at least one solution for ax = cos x on the specified interval.

Further, on the interval [0, 1],

f 0 (x) = a + sin x > 0

that is, f is monotone increasing, and so it can have at most one root in that interval.

It follows that ax = cos x has exactly one solution on the interval [0, 1], thus completing

the proof.

More rigorous proof for the uniqueness condition by contradiction. Suppose that the

equation ax = cos x has two distinct solutions for x in the interval [0, 1]. Then f has

two distinct roots in the interval [0, 1]. Let these roots be x1 and x2 .

Since f is continuous and differentiable over the interval [0, 1], f is also continuous over

the closed interval [x1 , x2 ] and differentiable over the open interval (x1 , x2 ), as [x1 , x2 ] and

(x1 , x2 ) are subsets of [0, 1]. By applying Rolles theorem, there must exist some y in the

open interval (x1 , x2 ) such that f 0 (y) = 0.

By differentiating the function, we have

f 0 (y) = a + sin y = 0.

However, a and are positive and sin y is non-negative for all possible values of y

in [0, 1]. This implies that f 0 is non-zero over the interval [0, 1], which contradicts our

assumption that the equation ax = cos x has two distinct solutions for x in the interval

[0, 1]. Thus, the equation can only have exactly one solution for x in the interval [0, 1]

and this completes the proof.

April 28, 2016

These solutions were written by Johann Blanco, typed up by Evgeny Martynov and edited by

Henderson Koh. Please be ethical with this resource. It is for the use of MathSoc members,

so do not repost it on other forums or groups without asking for permission. If you appreciate

this resource, please consider supporting us by coming to our events and buying our T-shirts!

Also, happy studying :)

We cannot guarantee that our working is correct, or that it would obtain full marks - please

notify us of any errors or typos at unswmathsoc@gmail.com, or on our Facebook page. There

are sometimes multiple methods of solving the same question. Remember that in the real class

test, you will be expected to explain your steps and working out.

1.

p ( (q ( p)))

( p) ( (q ( p)))

(as v u ( v) u)

(p (q ( p)))

(p (( p) q))

(Associative Law)

((p ( p)) q)

(Commutative Law)

(c q)

(Law of Negation)

(c)

(Domination Law)

(Negation of a contradiction)

2. Theorem: If n Z+ , then

(1 2) + (2 5) + + n(3n 1) = n2 (n + 1)

Proof. We prove by induction.

When n = 1, LHS = 1 2 = 2, RHS = 12 2 = 2, and so the theorem is true for n = 1.

Assume the theorem is true for n = k, where k Z+ , that is

(1 2) + (2 5) + + k(3k 1) = k 2 (k + 1).

It is required to prove that the theorem is also true for n = k + 1, that is

(1 2) + (2 5) + + (k + 1)(3k + 2) = (k + 1)2 (k + 2).

We have

LHS = (1 2) + + k(3k 1) + (k + 1)(3k + 2)

= k 2 (k + 1) + (k + 1)(3k + 2)

(by assumption)

= (k + 1)(k 2 + 3k + 2)

= (k + 1)(k + 1)(k + 2)

(factorising)

= (k + 1)2 (k + 2)

= RHS.

Hence, if the theorem is true for n = k for some k Z+ , then it is also true for n = k + 1.

Therefore, the theorem is true for all positive integers n, by mathematical induction, and

the proof is complete.

Proof. We prove by contradiction.

Let x R and 2x2 3 = 0. Solving, we obtain

3

x2 = .

2

Suppose that x is rational, that is, it can be written as an irreducible ratio of two integers,

x=

p

q

Then, x2 =

p2

q2

3

2

and thus

2p2 = 3q 2 .

(1)

Clearly, the LHS is even, and so q 2 must be even also. This implies that q is even, and

hence q = 2r for some r Z.

Substituting this result into (1) and simplifying gives

p2 = 2 3 r2 .

This shows that p2 is even, which implies that p must be even. Hence, p and q share a

common factor of 2. But since we assumed that p and q form an irreducible fraction, this

is a contradiction.

Thus, the initial assumption was wrong.

It follows that x is irrational, and the proof is complete.

10

April 28, 2016

These answers were written by Johann Blanco, typed up by Evgeny Martynov and edited by

Henderson Koh. Please be ethical with this resource. It is for the use of MathSoc members,

so do not repost it on other forums or groups without asking for permission. If you appreciate

this resource, please consider supporting us by coming to our events and buying our T-shirts!

Also, happy studying :)

We cannot guarantee that our answers are correct - please notify us of any errors or typos at

unswmathsoc@gmail.com, or on our Facebook page. There are sometimes multiple methods of

solving the same question. Remember that in the real class test, you will be expected to explain

your steps and working out.

1.

(i) Let

m = I earn some money

h = I go for a holiday this summer

w = I work this summer

The argument in symbolic form is:

mh

hw

( h) ( m) w

11

(ii) Using a truth table, we consider critical rows where the hypotheses are true:

m

mh

hw

( m) w

( h) ( m) w

F F F

T

F

*

*

Note that the rows we disregard are the ones where at least one of the statements

m h and h w are not true.

The conclusion is always true whenever the hypotheses are true, and therefore the

above argument is logically valid.

2. Theorem : Between any two different rational numbers there is another rational number.

Proof. Let x and y be two distinct rational numbers. Suppose without loss of generality

that x < y.

We claim that

x+y

2

write x =

a

b

and y =

c

d,

x+y

2

x+y

=

2

a

b

+

2

x+y

2

c

d

ad + bc

,

2bd

Now, we try to prove that

x+y

2

equivalent to

x+y2x

2

yx

2

> 0 as

2yxy

2

x+y

2

yx

2

x+y

2

and

x+y

2

< y.

> x.

x+y

2

< y.

(Note that these steps were found by working backwards, i.e. start from x <

then end up with

This shows that

yx

2

x+y

2

x+y

2

and

3. Theorem: Prove that if n is a positive integer then 42n + 10n 1 is a multiple of 25.

Proof. We prove by induction.

12

Now, assume that the theorem holds for some positive integer n = k, that is 42k + 10k 1

is a multiple of 25, or 42k = 25m 10k + 1 for some integer m.

We will try to prove that the theorem holds when n = k + 1, that is 42(k+1) + 10(k + 1) 1

is a multiple of 25.

We have

42(k+1) + 10(k + 1) 1 = 42k+2 + 10k + 9

= 16 42k + 10k + 9

= 16 (25m 10k + 1) + 10k + 9

(induction hypothesis)

= 16 25m 150k + 25

= 25(16m 6k + 1),

which is divisible by 25, as 16m 6k + 1 is an integer.

Hence, we have proved that the theorem holds when n = k+1, whenever it is true for n = k

for some integer k. And so, the theorem holds for all positive integers, by mathematical

induction.

13

April 28, 2016

These answers were written by Johann Blanco, typed up by Evgeny Martynov and edited by

Allan Loi. Please be ethical with this resource. It is for the use of MathSoc members, so do

not repost it on other forums or groups without asking for permission. If you appreciate this

resource, please consider supporting us by coming to our events and buying our T-shirts! Also,

happy studying :)

We cannot guarantee that our answers are correct - please notify us of any errors or typos at

unswmathsoc@gmail.com, or on our Facebook page. There are sometimes multiple methods of

solving the same question. Remember that in the real class test, you will be expected to explain

your steps and working out.

1.

(p q) (q ( p r))

(( p) q) (( q) ( p r))

(as v u ( v) u)

(( p) q) (( p) ( q r))

( p) (q ( q r))

(Distributive law)

( p) ((q q) (q r))

(Distributive law)

( p) (F (q r))

(Law of negation)

( p) (q r)

(Identity law)

p (q r)

(as v u ( v) u)

as required.

14

Proof. We prove this by induction. When n = 1, LHS = 2 and RHS = 2. So the theorem

holds for n = 1.

Assume now that the theorem holds for some particular integer k, that is

(k + 1)(k + 2) . . . (2k) = 2k 1 3 5 . . . (2k 1).

We will try to prove that the theorem also holds for n = k + 1, that is

(k + 2)(k + 3) . . . (2(k + 1)) = 2k+1 1 3 5 . . . (2k + 1).

We have

LHS = (k + 2)(k + 3) . . . (2k)(2k + 1)(2k + 2)

(2k + 2)(2k + 1)

(k + 1)(k + 2) . . . (2k)

k+1

(2k + 2)(2k + 1)

=

2k 1 3 5 . . . (2k 1)

k+1

2(k + 1)(2k + 1)

2k 1 3 5 . . . (2k 1)

=

k+1

(induction hypothesis)

= RHS.

So, we have just proven that the theorem holds for n = k + 1, whenever it is true for

n = k. Hence, the theorem holds for all positive integers, by mathematical induction.

3. Theorem: Prove that if n is any positive integer then

4n 2 is irrational.

Then there exist coprime integers p and q 6= 0, such that

sides yields 4n 2 =

p2

.

q2

4n 2 = pq . Squaring both

2(2n 1)q 2 = p2 .

(1)

Since, the left hand side has a factor of 2, then it is even. This implies that p2 must also

be even. One can then deduce that p is also even, that is there exists some integer r such

that p = 2r.

15

2(2n 1)q 2 = 4r2 (2n 1)q 2 = 2r2 .

Now, with a similar argument as before, the right hand side is even, which implies that

the left hand side must also be even. However, as 2n 1 is odd, the only way that the

left hand side can be even, is if q 2 is even, which implies that q is even.

However, we assumed that p and q are coprime, which is a contradiction. So our original

Use a proof by contradiction by first letting

16

4n 2 =

p

q

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