EQUAL MARKS Pass Marks 75 %.
1. Which wavelength corresponds to a frequency of 5035 MHz?
a. 5. 96 ram
b. 5. 96 cm
c. 59.6 cm
d. 5. 96 m
2. The VDF term meaning 'true bearing from the station' is
a. QDM
b. QDR
c. QTE
d. QUJ
3. A class B VDF bearing will have an accuracy of:
a. ± 2°
b. ± 10°
c. ±1°
d.± 5°
4. ATC inform a pilot that they will provide a QGH service. The pilot can expect:
a. headings and heights to fly to arrive overhead the aerodrome
b. radar vectors to position on final approach
c. QDM information to position overhead the aerodrome
d. Radar vectors to position overhead the aerodrome

5. the max range an atc facility at 1369 ft amsl can provide a service to an aircraft
at fl350 is
a. 280 nm

angle of bank. the change in frequency caused by the movement of a receiver c. station interference d. mountain effect. 200 nm c.b. the change in frequency caused by the movement of a transmitter and receiver b. night effect b. tropospheric propagation. quadrantal error b. 224 nm d. the change in frequency caused by the movement of a transmitter d. an inland beacon at an acute angle c. siting errors 9. a coastal beacon at an acute angle b. Cb static c. an inland beacon perpendicular to the coast 8. The Doppler effect is: a. static interference. station interference . angle of bank. The least accurate bearing information taken by an will be from: a. the change in frequency caused by the relative movement between a transmitter and receiver 7. 238 nm 6. The accuracy of ADF may be affected by: a. a coastal beacon perpendicular to the coast d. night effect. static from Cb. slant range c. siting errors. The ADF error which will cause the needle to 'hunt' (ie oscillate around the aircraft over the sea from a NDg correct bearing) is: a.

bearing by frequency comparison c. The pilot of an aircraft flying at FL 240 is 250 nm from a VOR at 16 ft amsl which he selects. +/-10° 11. A NDB has emission designator NONA1A this will require the use of the BFO for: a. there are abnormal atmospheric conditions 14. coastal refraction 10. tuning. +/-2° c.. the range of VOR is limited to 200 nm c. +/-5° d. b. The bearingcof the beacon from the aircraft is: . the aircraft is beyond line of sight range d. identification and monitoring • 12. accuracy of ADF compass The by day and excluding error is +/-1° a. This is because: a. The phase difference measured at the aircraft between the VOR FM modulation and the AM modulation is 235°.d. the VOR is unserviceable b.The principle of operation of VOR is: a. bearing by phase comparison 13. bearing by searchlight principle d. identification c. bearing by lobe comparison b. identification and monitoring d. tuning b. He receives no signal from the VOR.

fly left and fly down c. Fly Left 18. fly right and fly up . Fly Right b. anti-clockwise d. 210. TO. clockwise b. Flying an ILS approach the equipment senses that the 90 Hz modulationpredominates on 6. FM. 16. AM. 030. both the localiser and the glidepath. AM. FROM. FROM d. 327. 210. left and fly up b QC. 327. FM. In a Doppler VOR (DVON) one ri tit e and the rotation is ----a. TO b. 325° 15. A pilot intends to home to a VOR on the 147 radial. FROM Fly Right d. An aircraft is 100 nm SW of a VOR heading 0800. The setting he should put on the OBS and the Cal indications will be: a. clockwise c. The pilot intends to home to the VOR on the 210 radial. FM. 147. AM. TO. FM. 145° d. The setting he should put on the OBS is and the CDI indications will be a. 055° b. Fly Left c. anti-clockwise OP 1 451111 Alia a.a. FROM c. 147. 030. The indications the pilot will see are: a. TO 17. 235° c.

1500 ft 20. 900 ft d. should be at 3. +/-35° to 17 nm b. When flying downwind abeam the upwind end of the runway the indications from the ILS on the CDI will be a. A category 2 ILS facility is required to provide guidance to: a. erratic on both localiser and glidepath c. below 100 ft 21. +/-8° to 10 nm d. fly right and fly down 19. groundspeed 160 kt. in the correct sense for the localiser and nce glidepath signal b. The type of radar which has no minimum range restriction is: . below 200 ft c. 1050 ft c. 800 ft b. +/-10' to 8 nm 23.d. the surface d. erratic on the localiser and in the correct sense on the glidepath d. The azimuth coverage of a 3° glidepath is: a. no localiser signal and in the correct sense for glidepath 22. 0 nm is: a. 5° glidepath. the height an aircraft. below 50 ft b. On an ILS approach using a 3. +/-10' to 25 nm c.

narrow beamwidth and narrow pulse width . secondary pulsed radar 24. primary pulsed radar c. 75 nm c. side lobes removed b.a. PW c.5 microseconds. 150 nm d. beamwidth d. power b. PRF 25. 300 nm 26. primary CW radar b. The best resolution will be achieved on a radar display with: a. higher data rate possible 27. The maximum theoretical range of a radar is determined by: a. secondary CW radar d. The time interval between the transmission of a pulse and receipt of the echo from a target is 925. An advantage of a slotted antenna (planar array) over a parabolic reflector are: a. 37. high power output and large parabolic reflector b. 360° scan without any rotation requirement c. less power required d.5 nm b. The range of the target is: a.

low frequency and small parabolic reflector d. 75 GHz do 29.c. 33000 ft d. good returns from water vapour 31. 6000 ft b. then the altitude of the cloud tops is: a.5 MHz d. red c. good penetration of cloud d. 9375 GHz c. 63000 ft Lr 30. 45000 ft c. If the beamwidth of the radar is 6° . yellow . 9375 MHz b. 937. The AWR frequency is selected because it gives: a. A cloud detected at 60 nm on the AWR of an aircraft flying at FL390 just disappears from the screen when the tilt is selected to 2° UP. good returns from turbulence c. On a colour AWR display. the heaviest precipitation will be displayed in: a. The AWR operating frequency is a. 93. amber b. wide beamwidth and large pulsewidth 28. good returns from water droplets b.

1030. 1090. blue 32. 1090. it will look for replies on: a. The altitude readout at the ground station from a mode C response will give the aircraft altitude within. a. 1030. 1090 b. each pulse pair has transponder b. 500 ft d. 1030 MHz c. 1030 d. the PRF of the interrogating pulses is jittered . 1090 MHz d.d. In SSR the ground station interrogates the aircraft on from the aircraft MHz and receives replies on MHz a. 300 ft b. A DME recognises replies to its own interrogating pulses because: its own unique modulation which is replicated by the a. 1090 33. 50 ft 34. If the aircraft DME interrogates a ground transponder on a frequency of 1199 MHz. 1030 c. 100 ft c. 1136 MHz 35. 1262 MHz b.

36. the transmitters are co-located b. WGS90 b. the transmitters are in excess of 6 nm apait 38. the beacons are between 600 m and 6 nm apart c. 24 satellites in 3 orbits d. If the identification of a VOR is FKL and the paired a. The plan range is a. The NAVSTAR/GPS operational constellation comprises: a. each aircraft has a different time interval within the pulses pairs which is replicated by the transponder d.C. 10. The model of the earth used for GPS is a. 16 run d.5 nm b. the transmitters are within 600 m d. 21 satellites in 6 orbits b. 12. 30 satellites in 6 orbits 39. 19 nm c. 24 satellites in 6 orbits c. 5 run 37. PZ84 . the transponder uses a selective reply system to respond to the aircraft interrogation pulses. The DME in an aircraft at FL630 measures a slant range of 16 nm from a ground station at 1225 ft amsl.

c. degradation of range measurement because of ionospheric propagation errors 41.5 minutes Q . constellation. WGS84 DME identification is FKZ. The major limitation in the use of GPS for precision approaches using wide area augmentation systems (WAAS) is a. all of the above 43. then: 40. 12. The purpose of the PRN codes in NAVSTAR/GPS is to: a. the receiver will compensate by using the last calculated altitude to maintain i. 2. global coverage of WAAS is not available d. positional accuracy d.5 minutes C c. the receiver will select another SV with no loss in accuracy b. This download will take: Q% a. the receiver will go into a DR mode with no loss of accuracy c. synchronise the receiver clocks with the SV clocks c. the receiver position will degrade regardless of the action taken 42. pass navigation and system data to the receiver d. PZ90 d. the height difference between the ellipsoid and the earth c. identify the satellites b. lack of failure warning b. If the receiver almanac becomes corrupted it will download the almanac from the fir. 15 minutes J6 b. If the signal from a SV is lost during an aircraft manoeuvre: a.

0 MHz d. 12 hr 47.d. 1090. 65° . 11 hr 15 min b. on the fuselage close to the centre of gravity c.6 MHz b. The NAVSTAR/GPS constellation is inclined at to the equator with an orbital period of a. in the cockpit as close as possible to the receiver b. 1215. a. The provision of RAIM requires a minimum of SVs.The best position on an aircraft for the GNSS aerial is: a. 11 hr 15 min c.close to each wing tip to compensate for manoeuvre errors 46. 55° . a. The NAV and system data message is contained in the signal. The NAVSTAR/GPS frequency available to non—authorised users is: a. 3 b.on the aircraft as far as possible from other aerials to reduce reflections d. C/A PRN code .0 MHz 48. 50 Hz b. 5 d. 1575.4 c. 6 45. 65° . 55° . 25 minutes 44.42 MHz c. 12 hr d. 1227.

27 nm C. VOR and/or DME d. 5 nm b.can be modified bYtt 2 the crew to meet the route requirements b. C/A & P PRN code 49. co-located VOR/DME b. P PRN code d. The navigation database in a FMC: a. 23 nm b.cannot be accessed by the flight crew 53. The accuracy required of a basic RNAV system is a. 1 nm d. The waypoint is 45 nm from the VOR/DME and the aircraft isc37 nm from the VOR/DME. 37 nm d. A 2D RNAV system takes fixing inputs from: a. Any of the above 50. The range indicated to the pilot will be: a. The RNAV function of the FMC produces a position which: . 45 nin 52. 5° c. twin DME c.c. 1° 51APAn aircraft using a 2D RNAV system is 23 nm from the waypoint on a 50 nm leg.can only be read by the flight crew d.can be modified everyc.

That is the deviation from the required track? a. diagram A. produces a long term accuracy from the long term accuracy of the external reference and the IRS d. 3 nm left b. F 56. 130° T 57.a. That is the track from BANTU to ZAPPO? a. Refer to Appendix A. A b. combines the short term accuracy of the external reference with the long term i. combines the long term accuracy of the external reference with the short term i. 8° left d. d. accuracy of the IRS b. reference and the IRS c. produces a long term accuracy from the short term accuracy of the external i. 130° M c. 360° M b. accuracy of the IRS 54. 8° right . C c. Suitable combination of VOR and DME 55. VOR/DME b. Refer to Appendix A. Refer to Appendix A. 3 nm right c. diagram E. Twin VOR d. 360° T d. Twin DME c. Which diagram shows the MAP display? a. The most accurate external reference position will be provided by: a.

engaged modes. warnings and cautions d.165 b. flight envelopes and system limits 60. abnormal sources and warnings b. filtering process 61. . static interference warning.derived from IRS and external reference positions using the Kalman filtering process c. selective availability c.58. diagram F. station interference. flight envelopes and system limits c. flight director bar. d.130 59. Which of the following may cause inaccuracies in ADF hearings? a. coastal range. the external reference position updated by IRS information through the Kalman i. That is the required track? a. JAR25 recommends the use of red for: a.173 c. night effect slant refraction. mountain effect.derived from external reference position and monitored against the IRS position using the Kalman filtering process d.cautions. static interference. 157 d. The FMC position is: a . lack of failure warning b. lack of failure station interference. Refer to appendix A.the selected IRS position updated by external reference using Kalman filtering b. height effect.warnings.

a rhumb line track d. This means that the distance between the two beacons is in excess of: a.62. 187 63. but reduces to 60 pulse pairs per second (ppps) after 100 seconds b. but reduces to 60 ppps after 15000 pulse pairs c. An aircraft flies from a VOR at 61N 013W to 58N 013W. In a certain VORTAC installation the VOR is coding STN and the DME is coding STZ. it stays in the search mode. it uses MTI c. 193 d. When tracking a VOR radial inbound the aircraft would fly: a. 2000 m d. a constant track b. a great circle track c. the reflections will all fall within the flyback period . the interrogation and reply frequencies differ d. 013 b. a constant heading 65. it stays in the search mode at 150 ppps d. That radial is the aircraft on? a. 300 m 64. the PRF of the pulse pairs is jittered b. A DME transceiver does not lock onto its own reflections because: a. 600 m b. What happens when a DME in the search mode failscto achieve lock—on? a. 005 c. 100 m c. The variation at the beacon is 13W and the variation at the aircraft is 5W. it stays in the search mode. it alternates between search and memory modes every 10 seconds 66.

pulse width b. In an AWR with a 5° beamwidth. narrow beam c. category 1 ILS operations are in progress c. permitted provided special precautions are taken to safeguard personnel and equipment d. narrow beam b. peak power c. low frequency. permitted provided reduced power is reduced c. the ILS is undergoing calibration 68. pulse recurrence rate 69. only permitted to assist movement in low visibility conditions 71. long wavelength. category II/III ILS operations are in progress d. short wavelength. high frequency. wide beam 70. The use of the AWR on the ground is: a. ILS operations are in progress b. The sensitive area of an ILS is the area aircraft may not enter when: a. The maximum range of a ground radar is limited by: a. not permitted b. The best picture on a primary radar will be obtained using: a. wide beam d. average power d. how do you orientate the scanner to receive returns from clouds at or above your level? .67.

3 75. 0° tilt b. The vertical position provided by SSR mode C is referenced to: a. The FMC position is: a.25 HPa c. 2. 2. 5° uptilt c. The number of satellites required to provide a 3D fix without RAIM is: a. 3 b. QNH unless QFE is in use b. 5° uptilt 72. 4 c. the average of the IRS and radio navigation positions . QNH d.a. 6 d. 5 c. The number of satellites required to produce a 4D fix is: a. 1013. 5° downtilt d. WGS84 datum 73. 4 b. 6 74. the average of the IRS positions b. 5 d.

c. computer generated-from the radio navigation positions . computer generated from the IRS and radio navigation positions d.