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PHARMACOLOGY

Time= 30 minutes.

Total Marks: 50

QUESTION 1. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Which of the following non-selective Beta-blockers undergoes elimination by Hepatic
glucuronidation?
A) Atenolol
B) Sotalol
C) Oxprenolol
D) Esmolol
E) Labetolol
QUESTION 2. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Cardioselective 1-antagonists include:
A) Carvedilol
B) Celiprolol
C) Bisoprolol
D) Metoprolol
E) Propranolol
QUESTION 3. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Drug whose elimination is associated with non-linear kinetics:
A) vincristine
B) alcohol
C) hydralazine
D) rapamycin
E) morphine
QUESTION 4. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Which of the following causes spastic paralysis in worms?

A) Niclosamide
B) Pyrantel
C) Diethylcarbamazine
D) Piperazine
E) Mebendazole
QUESTION 5. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
The most effective treatment for Pseudomonas meningitis:
A) Ceftazidime + gentamicin
B) Ampicillin + gentamicin
C) Piperacillin + gentamicin
D) Ampicillin + probenecid
E) Imipenem + cilastatin
QUESTION 6. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Drugs which act in the S phase of mitotic cell cycle:
A) Topotecan
B) Estramustine
C) Cytarabine
D) Paclitaxel
E) Methotrexate
QUESTION 7. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Amphotericin B is derived from
A) Streptomyces nodosus
B) Streptomyces fradiae
C) Streptomyces noursei
D) Streptomyces mediterranei
E) Streptomyces peucetius
QUESTION 8. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
All of the following are ergot-derived dopamine agonists:
A) Cabergoline
B) Pramipexole
C) Ropinirole
D) Bromocriptine
E) Pergolide
QUESTION 9. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A) 1, 2, & 3 correct
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct

All of the following drugs reduce lactation:


1. Cabergoline
2. Ropinirole
3. Pergolide
4. Ephedrine
QUESTION 10. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
The first i.v. anaesthetic thiopentone was introduced in the year
A) 1912
B) 1956
C) 1935
D) 1938
E) 1929
QUESTION 11. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Antiarrhythmic drug which increases QT interval
A) Esmolol
B) Propafenone
C) Quinidine
D) Lidocaine
E) Diltiazem
QUESTION 12. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Antibiotic which is derived from Streptomyces peucetius
A) Neomycin
B) Nystatin
C) Amphotericin B
D) Sisomicin
E) Doxorubicin
QUESTION 13. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Which of the following is a selective inhibitor of type-II 5 alpha-reductase?
A) Imipenem
B) Ginkgolide B
C) Finasteride
D) Acetaminophen
E) Cilastatin
QUESTION 14. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Synthesis of DNA occurs in
A) M phase
B) G2 phase
C) G0 phase
D) S phase
E) G1 phase

QUESTION 15. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Disulfiram interacts with all of the following drugs:
A) Phenytoin
B) oxazepam
C) lorazepam
D) Diazepam
E) Metronidazole
QUESTION 16. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
An inhibitor of the enzyme dehydropeptidase I
A) Cisplatin
B) Cyclosporin
C) Methotrexate
D) Cilastatin
E) Imipenem
QUESTION 17. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Polypeptide antibiotics
A) Teicoplanin
B) Bacitracin
C) Polymyxin-B
D) Tyrothricin
E) Vancomycin
QUESTION 18. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
All of the following hormones are major regulators of Calcium balance:
A) Calcitonin
B) Calmodulin
C) Parathormone
D) Calcineurin
E) Calcitriol
QUESTION 19. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A) 1, 2, & 3 correct
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Caudal anaesthesia produces anaesthesia of
1. lower abdomen
2. pelvis and hind limbs
3. perianal region
4. pelvic and perianal region

QUESTION 20. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A) 1, 2, & 3 correct
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Third generation Cephalosporins:
1. cefotetan
2. Cefadroxil
3. cefamandole
4. cefotaxime
QUESTION 21. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Correct dosage for surgical prophylaxis for gut and biliary surgery (single dose):
A) Gentamicin 1 mg/kg i.v.
B) Metronidazole 30 mg/kg i.v.
C) Gentamicin 3 mg/kg i.v.
D) Metronidazole 10 mg/kg i.v.
E) Cefuroxime 30 mg/kg i.v
QUESTION 22. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A parenteral direct thrombin inhibitor
A) Fondaparinux
B) Apixaban
C) Heparin
D) Urokinase
E) Bivalirudin
QUESTION 23. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
An antineoplastic agent that kills cells in S phase of the mitotic cycle:
A) Cisplatin
B) Dacarbazine
C) Methotrexate
D) Mercaptopurine
E) Etoposide
QUESTION 24. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Which of the following agents can be used to induce remission in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia?
A) Tretinoin
B) Methotrexate
C) L-Asparaginase
D) Glucocorticoids
E) Vincristine

QUESTION 25. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A drug which is a 5-HT3 antagonist:
A) Dronabinol
B) Metoclopramide
C) Ondansetron
D) Domperidone
E) Aprepitant
QUESTION 26. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
All of the following drugs are effective in the management of Congestive cardiac failure (CCF)
except:
A) Metoprolol
B) Propranolol
C) Valsartan
D) Carvedilol
E) Digoxin
QUESTION 27. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A) 1, 2, & 3 correct
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Antibiotics that function by inhibiting cell wall synthesis:
1. Penicillin G
2. Amphotericin B
3. Bacitracin
4. Erythromycin
QUESTION 28. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Second generation Cephalosporins:
A) cefoxitin
B) ceftriaxone
C) cefamandole
D) cefotaxime
E) cefuroxime
QUESTION 29. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
All of the following drugs are metabolized by CYP2D6
A) phenobarbitone
B) omeprazole
C) fluoxetine
D) propranolol

E) phenytoin
QUESTION 30. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Which of the following antibiotics acts by specifically binding to 50S ribosomal subunit and
interferes with peptide synthesis?
A) Tetracyclines
B) Erythromycin
C) Linezolid
D) Gentamicin
E) Chloramphenicol
QUESTION 31. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Fatty food enhances the absorption of
A) Omeprazole
B) Lumefantrine
C) Ampicillin
D) Atovaquone
E) Griseofulvin
QUESTION 32. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
All of the following increase plasma prolactin levels except:
A) haloperidol
B) cabergoline
C) metoclopramide
D) reserpine
E) chlorpromazine
QUESTION 33. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding Competitive antagonism (antagonists)?
A) Rightward shift of antagonist DRC
B) DiazepamBicuculline
C) MorphineNaloxone
D) Flattening of agonist DRC
E) Antagonist does not chemically resemble the agonist
QUESTION 34. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Which of the following drugs takes the longest time for tissue distribution after an oral dose?
A) Gentamicin
B) Albendazole
C) Digoxin
D) Atropine
E) Lithium

QUESTION 35. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Which of the following agents is a typical antipsychotic?
A) Lithium
B) Risperidone
C) Sulpiride
D) Sodium Valproate
E) Clozapine
QUESTION 36. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Drug of choice for maintenance therapy for chronic lymphatic leukaemia
A) Melphalan
B) Cisplatin
C) Mechlorethamine
D) Chlorambucil
E) Busulfan
QUESTION 37. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
2-adrenoceptors are found in:
A) heart
B) kidneys
C) brown fat
D) brain
E) bronchioles
QUESTION 38. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Which of the following Beta-blockers releases endothelium-derived nitric oxide?
A) Atenolol
B) Oxprenolol
C) Propranolol
D) labetolol
E) Nebivolol
QUESTION 39. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Drugs that increase gastric motility (laxatives):
A) Tegaserod
B) Alvimopan
C) Loperamide
D) Lubiprostone
E) Alosetron
QUESTION 40. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Phenytoin stimulates the metabolism of:
A) Ticlopidine

B) Triamterene
C) Amiodarone
D) Isoniazid
E) Mexiletine
QUESTION 41. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A) 1, 2, & 3 correct
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Which of the following pairs are therapeutically correct?
1. Refractory schizophrenia ---- Penfluridol
2. Acute schizophrenia ---- Pimozide
3. Chronic schizophrenia ---- Haloperidol
4. Withdrawn and apathetic schizophrenia ---- Aripiprazole
QUESTION 42. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
H1 antihistaminics used to prevent or suppress vomiting:
A) Dicyclomine
B) Metoclopramide
C) Chlorpromazine
D) Meclozine
E) Cinnarizine
QUESTION 43. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Drugs that enhance phenytoin metabolism:
A) Fluvoxamine
B) Rifampin
C) Carbamazepine
D) Chloramphenicol
E) Isoniazid
QUESTION 44. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Drug which is not useful in the management of thyroid crisis:
A) methimazole
B) propylthiouracil
C) glucocorticoids
D) Lugols iodine
E) Beta blockers
QUESTION 45. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Drugs that function by causing leakage from cell membranes:

A) Amphotericin B
B) Clindamycin
C) Colistin
D) Erythromycin
E) Hamycin
QUESTION 46. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Drugs with extensive first-pass extraction
A) ciclosporin
B) morphine
C) hydralazine
D) propranolol
E) diltiazem
QUESTION 47. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A drug which is both a substrate and inhibitor of hepatic P450 CY3A4 isoenzyme
A) Mirtazapine
B) Amoxapine
C) Erythromycin
D) Amiodarone
E) Dronedarone
QUESTION 48. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Antiarrhythmic drug that has profound sympatholytic action:
A) Lidocaine
B) Mexiletine
C) Diltiazem
D) Flecainide
E) Esmolol
QUESTION 49. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Polyene antibiotics
A) Hamycin
B) Ethionamide
C) Nystatin
D) Colistin
E) Teicoplanin
QUESTION 50. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A biological agent which is IL-2 receptor antagonist:
A) Infliximab
B) Adalimumab
C) Anakinra
D) Mycophenolate mofetil
E) Daclizumab

ANSWERS
(PHARMACOLOGY)
QUESTION 1. Correct answers: A= F, B = F, C = T, D = F, E = T.
QUESTION 2. Correct answers: A= F, B = F, C = T, D = T, E = F.
QUESTION 3. Correct answers: A= T, B = T, C = T, D = F, E = F.
QUESTION 4. Correct answer = B
QUESTION 5. Correct answer = A
QUESTION 6. Correct answers: A= T, B = F, C = T, D = F, E = T.
QUESTION 7. Correct answer = A
QUESTION 8. Correct answers: A= T, B = F, C = F, D = T, E = T.
QUESTION 9. Correct answer = A
QUESTION 10. Correct answer = C
QUESTION 11. Correct answer = C
QUESTION 12. Correct answer = E
QUESTION 13. Correct answer = C
QUESTION 14. Correct answer = D
QUESTION 15. Correct answers: A= T, B = F, C = F, D = T, E = T.
QUESTION 16. Correct answer = D
QUESTION 17. Correct answers: A= F, B = T, C = T, D = T, E = F.
QUESTION 18. Correct answers: A= T, B = F, C = T, D = F, E = T.
QUESTION 19. Correct answer = D
QUESTION 20. Correct answer = D
QUESTION 21. Correct answers: A= F, B = F, C = T, D = T, E = T.
QUESTION 22. Correct answer = E
QUESTION 23. Correct answer = C
QUESTION 24. Correct answers: A= F, B = F, C = T, D = T, E = T.
QUESTION 25. Correct answer = C
QUESTION 26. Correct answer = B

QUESTION 27. Correct answer = B


QUESTION 28. Correct answers: A= T, B = F, C = T, D = F, E = T.
QUESTION 29. Correct answers: A= F, B = F, C = T, D = T, E = F.
QUESTION 30. Correct answers: A= F, B = T, C = F, D = F, E = T.
QUESTION 31. Correct answers: A= F, B = T, C = F, D = T, E = T.
QUESTION 32. Correct answer = B
QUESTION 33. Correct answers: A= T, B = F, C = T, D = F, E = F.
QUESTION 34. Correct answer = E
QUESTION 35. Correct answers: A= T, B = F, C = T, D = T, E = F.
QUESTION 36. Correct answer = D
QUESTION 37. Correct answer = E
QUESTION 38. Correct answer = E