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Назва наукового напрямку (модуля): Семестр: 12

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1. Mother of 9 y.o. boy has addressed for consultation on hardening of the child. On the last 3 months
rubdown by water 34?С with decrease in temperature of water to 18?С was used. How to estimate
readiness of the child for transition to hydroprocedures?
A. To estimate diseases of child at the last days
B. To resolve without researches
C. * To spend cold test
D. To resolve after 1 month
E. To spend air baths
2. A 14 y.o. schoolgirl has asymmetry of shoulders and shovels; corner of curvature at the arch of ridge
makes 32 degrees. What infringement of osseous system device at the child?
A. Structural scoliosis
B. * Scoliosis III-IV degree
C. Postural scoliosis
D. Chest deformation
E. Scoliosis ІІ-ІІІ degree
3. The 12 y.o. boy has harmonious physical development. Last year he was ill more than 3 times with
sharp respiratory disease. At profound medical inspection it was found anemia and myopia 3.5 D.
Which group of health is found out in the child?
A. * 3 group
B. 2 group
C. 1 group
D. 4 group
E. 5 group
4. At the estimation of health pupils from secondary school, the doctor has established one pupil with
hypertrophy of tonsils ІІІ degrees, chronic rhinitis and vessels dystonia. Functionality of organism is
lowered. On a state of health the pupil concerns to:
A. * ІІІ group
B. ІІ group
C. І group
D. IV group
E. V group
5. For the estimation of physical development of the child it was defined length and weight of body,
weight growth per year, chest circumference, quantity of constant teeth, sexual development, vital
volume of lungs, determined muscular force by dynamometers. What of the listed signs concern to
physiometrical?
A. Sexual development
B. Length / weight of body, chest circumference
C. * Vital volume of lungs, muscular force
D. Quantity of constant teeth

E. Weight growth per year
6. A 6 y.o. girl of average growth has harmonic physical development, tooth formula 2102. Last year
was ill with epidemic parotitis. Is able to consider. The Kern-Iracek`s test has executed on 7 scores.
Whether the child is ready to training at school?
A. Not ready course of epidemic parotitis

B. * Not ready
C. Not ready course of tooth formula
D. Not ready course of disharmonic physical development
E. Not ready course of Kern-Iracek`s test
7. Secondary school on 960 places is located in the industrial city N. Children of 2-3 classes visit group
of long- day. What kind of rest is effective for children?
A. Doing homework
B. Lessons of physical training
C. Rest outdoors
D. * Motion activity
E. Sleep
8. A 13 y.o. girl has insignificant functional and morphological deviations: myopia 1.0Д, resistibility of
an organism is lowered. Chronic diseases are not present. For last year was ill 4 times by respiratory
diseases. What group of health is the girl concern?
A. ІІІ group
B. І group
C. * ІІ group
D. IV group
E. V group
9. The pupil of 9-th class does not have chronic diseases and morphological deviations. Physical
training is insufficient. What group of physical training is necessary for appointing?
A. Physiotherapy exercises
B. Basic group
C. Special group
D. * Preventive group
E. Release from physical training
10. Educational week of the 1 class pupil provides unloading day, into which schedule subjects which
demand considerable intellectual pressure are not entered. Define this day.
A. Monday
B. * Thursday
C. Tuesday
D. Wednesday
E. Friday

11. In the school for hygienic estimation of air environment it is necessary to carry out laboratory
research of temperature, relative humidity, movement of air, radiating temperature, maintenance of
СО2, formaldehyde and other chemical substances, dust, bacterial air pollution, ets. When is
necessary to carry out these researches?
A. After second and last lesson
B. After first and last lesson
C. * Before the first and last lessons
D. At any time of lesson
E. Has no value
12. The 8 y.o. girl has average physical development on morphological and functional indicators.
Chronic diseases are absent. At ophthalmologic inspection was revealed myopia weak degree (1.0 D).
For last year 2 times was ill with respiratory diseases. What group of health has this child?
A. * ІІ
B. ІV
C. V

D. І
E. ІІІ
13. In a reading room of library two windows are focused on the north. Near to a library building
apartment houses are located. Air temperature indoors during the summer period 220С, relative
humidity - 60 %. Schoolboys who daily work in library throughout 2 hours, complain of fatigability,
headache. What factor of environment can cause such complaints in visitors of library?
A. Hypodynamia
B. Hypoxia
C. Raised humidity of air
D. * Light exposure of a workplace is insufficient
E. Raised temperature of air
14. The microclimate of industrial premise characterized by such indicators: average air temperature
+280С, radioactive temperature + 290С, relative humidity 60%, air movement 3.0 m/sec. Which basic
ways of thermoregulation took place on such circumstances of microclimate?
A. Conduction
B. Emanation
C. * Evaporation
D. Radiation
E. Radiation and emanation
15. In the forge department of machine-building factory heating of steel details is carried out. The smith
works in a pose standing, during working day he carries out about 80 inclinations of a trunk. The
weight of details makes 20 kg. Energy expenses at work performance make 260 Vat/hour. A pulse
increase to 102 per minutes, the worker complains of memory decrease, exhaustion. What indicator is
more informative to established "weight of work"?
A. Pose of workers
B. Pulse rate
C. * Energy expenses

D. Memory decrease
E. Exhaustion
16. The toxic substance exceeds maximum concentration limit in atmospheric air in 100 times. What
changes of health at the population will be expected?
A. Functional changes
B. * Acute poisoning
C. Specific and nonspecific diseases
D. Physiological shifts
E. Deadly poisoning
17. At the medical inspection of electric welder there was determined encephalopathy, pneumoconiosis,
insufficiency of nerves system with primary defeats of bottom finiteness – the «chock gait». What
professional poisoning is revealed at the electric welder?
A. Poisoning with carbon dioxide
B. Poisoning with lead
C. Silicosis
D. * Poisoning with manganese
E. Anthracosis
18. The scientific research institute clinic established at a worker of concentrating factory occupational
disease - the chronic dust bronchitis. Case investigation is spent by the commission, which consists
from the member of enterprises, medico sanitary part, territorial sanitary station, Fund of social
insurance, trade-union organization. Which organization should head commission due to «Rules
about investigation occupational diseases»?

A. Medico sanitary part
B. Enterprises
C. Fund of social insurance
D. Trade-union organization
E. * Territorial sanitary station
19. At the local polyclinic on ground floor there are located: lobby, registry, clothes, three therapeutic
offices, X-ray therapy, toilets, and etc. In what of the listed rooms the artificial ventilation of air
should be organized?
A. * X-ray therapy, toilets
B. Therapeutic offices
C. Lobby
D. Clothes
E. All said
20. During repair work of transport highway the truck transport passes on motorways of settlement N.,
creating vibrating fluctuations of soil and buildings. Characterized this kind of vibration:
A. Transport
B. Local
C. Pulse
D. * General

E. Monotonous
21. In the territory of housing estate without sanitary ruptures the transformer is established. Inhabitants
of houses are submitted to influence of electromagnetic waves which concern to:
A. Constant magnetic field
B. Electrostatic field
C. Electromagnetic field of radio frequencies
D. Laser radiation
E. * Electromagnetic field of industrial frequency of 50 Hz
22. On the workers of steel making factory the changeable high-frequency noise with the level 99 dBA
(permissible level 80 dBA) operates. At the medical inspection about 67 % of workers, with 3-5 years
experience of work, changes on audiograms have been revealed, thus workers did not show
complaints to decrease in hearing. In what range of frequencies the maximum loss of hearing at
workers is observed?
A. * 1000 – 4000 Hz
B. 1000 – 500 Hz
C. 500 – 250 Hz
D. 250 – 125 Hz
E. 125 – 16 Hz
23. Diseases in the machine-building factories have decreased from 120 cases to 30 cases on 100
workers. Thus economic losses in days in both cases remained the same - 600 on 100 workers.
Whether health of workers has improved?
A. Yes, disease has decreased in 3 times
B. * No, the group of long ill was generated
C. No, frequency of days of disability has increased
D. Situation is stable
E. Yes, frequency of days of disability has decreased

24. The former makes forms, using manual tool in weight 17 kg, generating vibration 132 dBA
(permissible level 112 dBA). Work is conducted in not heated premise, in an inconvenient working
pose having bent, and knees. For the purpose to prevent development of professional pathology what
radical measures are necessary for undertaking in this case?
A. To rationalize working pose
B. To reduce operating time with the tool
C. * To forbid use the tool with similar technical characteristics
D. To appoint physiotherapeutic procedures
E. To use individual defense means
25. Actions for decreasing dose of irradiation on the population provide environmental protection from
radioactive substances and decrease X-ray loading. What sources of ionising radiation on the
population is the most significant?
A. * X-ray procedures
B. Natural radioactive background
C. Burial places of radioactive waste

D. Radioactive waste
E. Space irradiation
26. At the toxicological laboratory new pesticide has arrived. On the stage of preliminary toxicological
estimation has been defined Relative Safe Level of Action (RSLA). What indicator should be defined
for establishment of maximum concentration limit (MAC) of pesticide in air of a working zone?

A. Zone chronic general toxic action
B. Acute general toxic
C. Zone acute general toxic action
D. * Chronic general toxic
E. Zone specific action
27. Found a limit of effective dose per year for category B (persons who are not occupied by work with
ionising radiation sources) according to Ukrainian National Standards of Radiation Safety:
A. * 2 mSv/year
B. 40 mSv/year
C. 20 mSv/year
D. 10 mSv/year
E. 5 mSv/year
28. Workers of laboratory on manufacturing of electric lamps, and measuring devices (manometers,
thermometers, etc.) complain of metal smack in a mouth, stomatitis, dyspepsia, dream infringements,
shaky gait, sharp deterioration of hart activity. What is the reason of the poisoning?
A. Manganese
B. Lead
C. * Mercury
D. Ethylmercury
E. Tetraethyllead
29. In settlement N. some sources of electromagnetic radiation which work in different radio-frequency
ranges function. Level of electromagnetic radiation need to count with the account:
A. Effect of absorption
B. * Additive action
C. Capacity of the greatest source of electromagnetic radiation
D. Capacity of the least source of electromagnetic radiation
E. Radiation directions

30. In settlement N. some sources of electromagnetic radiation which work in different radio-frequency
ranges function. Level of electromagnetic radiation need to count with the account:
A. Radiation directions
B. Effect of absorption
C. Capacity of the greatest source of electromagnetic radiation
D. Capacity of the least source of electromagnetic radiation
E. * Additive action

31. At the glass blower on medical inspection cataract was revealed. The worker complains of headache,
weakness, infringement of colour perception. The glass blower performs work of middle heavy at the
air temperature 29-300С, relative humidity 35 %, air movement 0.3 m/sec, intensity of thermal
radiation - 2600 Vat/m2. What is the reason of changes in the organism of worker?
A. Air movement
B. Air temperature
C. Heavy of work
D. * Thermal radiation
E. Relative humidity
32. Workers at mountain developments were influenced by a dust in the form of decomposition aerosols.
For the establishment of degree of danger occupational diseases it was defined physical and chemical
properties of dust. What property of dust causes depth of its penetration into respiratory ways?
A. Including of SiO2
B. * Dispersion of a dust
C. Form of dust particles
D. Solubility
E. Charge of particles
33. Worker of mechanical branch works with manual grinding car. Level of faltering local vibration
exceeds admissible value of sanitary norms on 3 dB. What of the listed actions for preventive
maintenance of vibrating illness employer should execute?
A. All said
B. Provide with protective mittens
C. Provide optimum parameters of microclimate
D. Reduce weight of manual grinding car
E. * Develop work and rest regimen
34. In a working zone of worker the dust arrives. Ventilation is the mechanical and local exhaust. For
polishing the damp way of processing materials is used. Workers use respirators for protection bodies
of breath, observe work and rest regimen. What preventive actions can be carried to the
technological?
A. * Damp way of processing materials
B. Local exhaust ventilation
C. Mechanical ventilation
D. Using respirators
E. Work and rest regimen
35. Long action of intensive noise in the occupied places promotes occurrence of changes physiological
reactions at the most sensitive people to noise. What maximum permissible noise level is established
for territories, platforms of rest and groups of apartment houses at night?
A. * 45 dBA
B. 50 dBA
C. 55 dBA
D. 60 dBA

E. 65 dBA
36. In the machine-building enterprise cold processing of metal is spent. Turners work in position
standing, with a trunk inclination forward under the corner 20?. Loading is basically located on
hands. Power expenses are equal 3000-3500 kcal/days. What form of organization of labor activity of
work concerns?
A. Group work
B. Work demanding muscular activity
C. Work connected with automatic work
D. * Mechanized work
E. Work with remote control
37. The personnel of physiotherapeutic branch of the hospital which are carrying out therapeutic
procedures on the high-frequency installations, tests influence of electromagnetic field. Estimate
working conditions of the personnel of procedural premises.
A. State of health of workers
B. Measure of maximum permissible level of radio frequencies
C. * Measure intensity of an electromagnetic field
D. Duration of working hours
E. Technical characteristics of high-frequency installations
38. What concept characterized such definition: the maximal intensity of action of all set of the factors of
external environment which is not rendering direct or indirect influence at the human’s organism and
his posterity, without worsening sanitary life conditions?
A. Specific action (Z sp)
B. Concentration lethally of 50% laboratory animals (CL 50)
C. * Maximum safe load (MSL)
D. Acute general toxic action (Z ac)
E. Chronic general toxic action (Z ch)
39. At the enterprise for making organic solvents as a result of failure there was a case of sharp
intoxication. Which document the doctor who has rendered the first medical aid should direct to
sanitary station.
A. Act of investigation of failure
B. Act of inspection of working conditions
C. Notice about medical inspection of patient
D. Act of registration of a poisoning
E. * Urgent notice of acute poisoning
40. At carrying out of hygienic rationing of five chemical compounds in reservoir water it was
established, that their DL50 consists: І substance - 0.001; ІІ - 0.1; ІІІ - 5; ІV - 120; V - 2400 mg/kg.
What substance is characterised by the greatest toxicity?
A. ІІ
B. * І
C. ІІІ
D. ІV
E. V

41. At the investigation of occupational poisonings of the mechanic, testing the diesel engine, at the end
of the working day have appeared symptoms: headache, noise in ears, nausea, vomiting, labile pulse.
At objective survey: a skin and mucous membranes of cerise colour. What toxic substance has caused
a sharp poisoning?
A. Lead
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Sulphur gas

D. Hydrogen monooxide
E. * Carbon monooxide
42. Parameters of microclimate on the industrial premise are received: air temperature +38оС, relative
humidity 98%, air movement 0 m/sec, radiating temperature +180С. What way of thermoregulation
in a human body is carried out?
A. * Radiation
B. Emanation
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
E. Radiation and emanation
43. At the enterprise for estimation of state health of the working use technique of the profound analysis
of disease with time disability. On the basis of what document working out the materials of disease?
A. Case record
B. * Card of time invalidity
C. Sick-list
D. Card of the outpatient
E. Statistical coupon for disease registration
44. A 47 y.o. worker of weaver's shop with work experience about 15 years works in the conditions of
high-frequency intensive noise. At periodic medical inspection the diagnosis was made: «professional
relative deafness». What is the basis for statement of such diagnosis?
A. Researches of central nervous system
B. Work experience
C. Noise characteristic
D. * Auditory sensitivity
E. Researches of internal ear
45. All working in harmful conditions should be examined by the doctor in certain terms. What is a
source of surveys of the workers working in harmful conditions?
A. * State order of carrying out of physical examinations №246
B. Degree of harm of industrial conditions
C. Dynamics of a state health of workers
D. Frequency and duration of cases of time invalidity
E. Order of medical establishment about carrying out of physical examinations

46. At the laboratory analysis of potable water from an artesian chink such indicators of quality are
defined: feculence 1.0 mg/dm3, taste and aftertaste - 2 points, fluorine - 5 mg/dm3, Coli-index - 2,
microbe number -100. What of the listed hygienic actions needs to be spent for improvement of water
quality?
A. Purification
B. Deodorization
C. Soft-making
D. Disinfecting
E. * Defluorination
47. In settlement N. among the population there was a disease flash to which signs the local therapist has
assumed an ecological origin of this disease. For acknowledgement of it, the doctor has excluded an
infectious and food origin of shifts in the state of health, on the basis:
A. Characteristic geographical prevalence
B. Sudden flash of new disease
C. * Absence of a contact way of transfer
D. Dependence "dose-effect"

E. Combination of nonspecific symptoms, characterized for seldom diseases
48. In the chamber for patients with thyreotoxicosis on the endocrinology department have been
registered microclimate parameters: average air temperature +19оС; relative humidity -57%, air
movement – 0.15 m/sec. Which of the listed actions is recommended for microclimate optimization
in the chamber?
A. To increase relative humidity
B. To decrease relative humidity
C. To decrease air movement
D. * To decrease air temperature
E. To increase air temperature
49. In the regional hospital on 300 cots hospital waste is formed: dressing, the amputated bodies, etc.
Which is the basic method of neutralization hospital waste?
A. Export on modern dumps
B. Processing on organic fertilizers
C. * Burning
D. Loading in biothermal chambers
E. Export on the waste treatment station
50. Disease of caries among inhabitants of settlement N makes 89 %. It is established, that potable water
contains 0.1 mg/l of fluorine. Which preventive actions should be carried out?
A. Eat a lot of vegetables
B. Clean tooth
C. Use fluorine food
D. * Fluorinate water
E. Make fluorine inhalation

51. The toxic substance exceeds maximum concentration limit in atmospheric air in 100 times. What
changes of health at the population will be expected?
A. * Acute poisoning
B. Functional changes
C. Specific and nonspecific diseases
D. Physiological shifts
E. Deadly poisoning
52. In the kindergarten after walk among children there was mass defeat: pallor of integuments, cyanosis
among lips, short wind, tachycardia, weakness, consciousness loss. The day before on a children's
playground have delivered sand by car which transports mineral fertilizers (ammonia saltpeter). What
defeat arises at children?
A. * Methemoglobinemia
B. Poisoning with pesticides
C. Carboxyhaemoglobinemia
D. Food poisoning
E. Toxicoinfections
53. In settlement N. the building of kindergarten located in 30 meters from the nearest apartment house,
is transferred to enterprise "Dry-cleaner" (5 class of the enterprises according to «Sanitary
classification of the enterprises»). On what distance from apartment houses is similar enterprise
supposed to place?
A. 100 m
B. 10 m
C. 30 m
D. 300 m

E. * 50 m
54. In settlement N. data of five years' monitoring of pollution of atmospheric air and breath diseases of
the population were obtained. Which method of statistical data processing is possible to establish
connection between the specified signs?
A. Standardization method
B. * Correlation analysis
C. Calculation of average square deviation
D. Regress analysis
E. Calculation of average sizes
55. Leading method of hygienic researches is epidemiological which studies influence factors of
environment on population health. Way of realisation of this method is:
A. Sanitary inspection
B. Sanitary examination
C. * Sanitary-statistical
D. Sanitary supervision
E. Laboratory experiment

56. Water from artesian chink has such indicators: general hardness and dry residue above standard
norms, smell, aftertaste, color quantity, feculence by standard scale, Coli-index lower than standard
norm. What is necessary for reception of qualitative potable water from a chink?
A. Decolouration
B. Disinfecting
C. Deodorization, disinfecting
D. Clarification, softening
E. * Softening
57. In village N. there is an open-cast mine on extraction of fluorites. The doctor of hygiene has
established, that in water of mine wells contains from 1.5 to 5.0 mg/l of fluorine. What disease will
arise with using of potable water at the population?
A. Gout (podagra)
B. * Fluorosis
C. Itaj-Itaj
D. Encephalopathy
E. Caries
58. At the bacterial research of air in the ward of therapeutic department high level of pollution was
defined. In the ward, with area of 28 м2 on 4 beds, carries out airing two times a day, the input is
equipped by a sluice, removal of dust two times a day, damp cleaning in the morning and in the
evening. What reasons of bacterial air pollution?
A. Frequency rate of cleaning of dust
B. Insufficient area on 1 bed
C. * Insufficient airing
D. Frequency rate of damp cleaning
E. All said
59. At the determine of pollution of atmospheric air in territory of a housing estate of the city R was
established, that the indicator of actual air pollution in 2 times exceeds the indicator of maximum
permissible pollution. How to estimate degree of danger of atmospheric air in the city R.?
A. Clean air
B. * Average polluted air
C. Considerably polluted air
D. Much polluted air

E. Very much polluted air
60. At the laboratory research of soil of the ground area of hospital it was established: Coli-tytre– 1,
Perfringens-tytre – 0.1, Sanitary index – 0.99, Flies larvae in 0.25 m2 – 0. Estimate degree of
epidemic danger of soil.
A. Polluted
B. Low polluted
C. Considerably polluted
D. * Clean
E. Heavily polluted

61. In settlement D. the failure on a sewer collector coursed to the flash of intestinal infections. Make
hygienic assessment of the most effective method of disinfecting of water in settlement D.
A. * Chlorination by the Post-Break Doses
B. Double chlorination
C. Ozonization
D. UV-irradiation
E. Chlorination with the Preammonization
62. In operational surgical branch of regional hospital research of bacterial air pollution is carried out.
Before operation the general quantity of microbes- 950 in 1 m3, number of hemolytic streptococci in
1 m3 - 3; after operation the general quantity of microbes in 1 m3 - 1800, number of hemolytic
streptococci in 1 m3 - 10. Whether is a necessity for carrying out of sanitary-and-hygienic actions
and which?
A. All said
B. No
C. Yes, airing
D. Yes, an air conditioning
E. * Yes, general cleaning
63. At the sanitary inspection of regional infectious hospital was established, that it was constructed on
the decentralized system. Branches consist from boxes and the boxed chambers. The area of each
boxing and semi boxing is 22 m2, orientation of windows to the east, light coefficient – 1/5, daylight
factor (DLF) - 1.0. What of the resulted parameters does not answer to hygienic requirements?
A. Building system
B. * Area of boxing and semi boxing
C. Orientation of windows
D. Light coefficient
E. Daylight factor (DLF)
64. At city reconstruction it has been decided to take out in a residential suburb following medical
establishments: tubercular clinic, psychoneurological clinic, children's hospital, tourist base, boarding
house. What of the listed establishments is inexpedient to place in a residential suburb?
A. Psychoneurological clinic
B. Tubercular clinic
C. * Children's hospital
D. Tourist base
E. Boarding house
65. Insufficiently cleared sewage of the industrial enterprise was dumped into the river which water is
used for the centralized drinking water supply. All it promotes to destruction of microorganisms,
infringement of self-cleaning and water deterioration. Similar action of factors of the environment is
called:
A. Combined
B. Direct

C. Additive
D. Complex

E. * Indirect
66. In the region N. flash of virus hepatitis of A was registreted among adults and children of school age.
What indicators of potable water need to be defined first of all?
A. Coli-index
B. Quantity of pathogenic microorganisms
C. Index of faecal coli-forms
D. * Quantity of coli-phages in 1 dm3
E. Microbic number
67. At the industrial enterprise as a result of technological process atmospheric emissions which contain
hydrogen dioxide, sulphur gas, carbon monoxide are formed. What construction is the most effective
for neutralisation of emissions?
A. * Scrubber
B. Fabric filter
C. Weld fume collector
D. Electrostatic precipitator
E. Dust collector
68. In the city D. with intensive automobile movement at the last 5 days of solar weather to the hospital
come inhabitants, workers of transport inspection, drivers with complaints on lacrimation, dry cough,
short wind, headache. What is the reason of such changes?
A. Increasing of sulphur gas in the air
B. Increasing of carbon monoxide in the air
C. Increasing of carbon dioxide in the air
D. Increasing of ozone in the air
E. * Increasing of photooxidizers in the air
69. In territory of agricultural soils the high-voltage electric (HVE) main by capacity 750 kV was build.
Management of the agrarian society has addressed to local sanitary station for consultation about use
of the area of sanitary-protective zone which makes 40 m on two parties from HVE. What cultures
have to grow up near sanitary-protective zone?
A. Vegetables
B. * Cereal cultures
C. Garden cultures
D. It is forbidden to grow up cultures
E. Flowers
70. For water supply of new area of city carry out a water fence from the river in which phenol
maintenance at level of admissible values is revealed. Water disinfecting made by method of
chlorination with preammonization. Duration of disinfecting as well as at usual chlorination (one
hour). Estimate, whether disinfecting of river water is correctly spent?
A. Disinfecting is spend correctly
B. Incorrectly, duration of disinfecting should be reduced
C. Incorrectly, it is not necessary to apply a method of chlorination with preammonization
D. Incorrectly, it is not necessary to apply a method of overchlorination
E. * Incorrectly, duration of disinfecting is insufficient

71. During first hours to the area of chemical failure should be directed experts of a medico-preventive
profile for participation in carrying out investigations, definitions of scales and estimation of
conditions. What experts should be directed to the area in this case?
A. Hygienist, epidemiologist, radiologist

B. * Hygienist, epidemiologist, toxicologist
C. Hygienist, biologist, parasitologist
D. Hygienist, ecologist, disinfections
E. Hygienist, epidemiologist, ecologist
72. Results of inspection of mine well have shown: it is located in the settlement on distance of 100 m
from potential sources of pollution, equipped by a public bucket, the cover is not present. Estimate
sanitary infringements.
A. Presence of a public bucket
B. Well arrangement
C. * Absence of a cover
D. Infringements are not present
E. Presence of potential sources of pollution
73. In operational of clinical hospitals have measured microclimate parametres. Results of
measurements: average air temperature 22оС, relative humidity – 48%, air movement – 0.1 m/sec.
A. Microclimate heating up
B. Microclimate discomfortable
C. Microclimate cooling
D. * Microclimate comfortable
E. Microclimate neutral
74. In inhabited territory the biogeochemical province was generated, coursed by atmospheric emissions
of the chemical enterprise. Make estimation of biogeochemical province.
A. * Accumulation in soil of specific chemical compounds
B. Increase of level of disease at the population
C. Deterioration of phytogenesis products
D. Restriction of conditions of water use
E. Pollution of atmospheric air
75. In the camp children had gastroenteric frustration, general state of health has not changed. At the
chemical analysis of potable water have established: ammonia not more than 2.2 mg/dm3, sulphates
600 mg/dm3, chlorides 250 mg/dm3. Bacteriological indicators are standard. What indicator of water
has caused disease in children?
A. * Sulphates
B. Chlorides
C. Ammonia
D. Bacteriological indicators
E. All said
76. In rural area unsatisfactory water supply. Search of new sources is necessary. At a choice for water
supply first of all are used:

A. * Artesian well
B. Atmospheric water
C. Opened reservoirs
D. Core waters
E. Springs
77. In settlement N. flash of intestinal infection was registered: gastroenterocolitis, caused by Е.сoli,
Salmonella enteritidis, dysentery. In 3 weeks splash of belly typhus and virus hepatitis A was
observed. What is the reason of epidemic situation?
A. * Potable water pollution
B. Substandard foodstuff
C. Soil pollution

D. Pollution of atmospheric air
E. Non-observance of a sanitary mode in medical establishments
78. At the stomatologic inspection inhabitants of settlement M. complained of destruction of teeth,
frequent crises of bones forearm at elderly persons. In this district the decentralized water supply
prevails. What microcell promoted this situation?
A. * Fluorine
B. Iodine
C. Selenium
D. Manganese
E. Iron
79. Among inhabitants of settlement N symptoms have been registered: the century, pigmentation of
nails and mucous membranes, weakness, nausea, vomiting has swelled. Such symptoms complicated
by secondary staphylococcal infection. The given signs are connected with environmental
contamination:
A. * Polychlorinated biphenyl’s
B. Methyl-lead
C. Cadmium
D. Lead
E. Natrium
80. At the sanitary-chemical analysis of potable water the conclusion about fresh faecal pollution is
made. What indicator has given the basis to make such conclusion?
A. * Ammonia
B. Ammonia, nitrites
C. Nitrites and nitrates
D. Sulfates and chlorides
E. General rigidity
81. Insufficiently cleared sewage of the industrial enterprise was dumped into the river which water is
used for the centralized drinking water supply. All it promotes to destruction of microorganisms,
infringement of self-cleaning and water deterioration. Similar action of factors of the environment is
called:

A. * Indirect
B. Direct
C. Additive
D. Complex
E. Combined
82. In city sanitary station the project of maximum permissible dumps of the several household
enterprises of the city M. has arrived. Sewage is planned to carry out in the river S on 1.5 km more
lowly on a current. In the project the qualitative structure of sewage of the specified objects is
resulted. What dump of sewage from mentioned below should be forbidden?
A. * Sewage, which contain substances without established maximum concentration limits
B. Sewage of medical institutions
C. Sewage of steel-iron factory
D. Sewage from a meat-packing plant and an integrated poultry farm
E. Sewage of dry cleaning of clothes
83. The rational lay-out of territory of settlements assumes its division to functional signs on four zones:
1) an industrial zone, 2) a recreational zone, 3) external transport. Name the fourth zone:
A. * Inhabited
B. Sport zone

C. Zone of cultural and community establishments
D. Warehouse zone
E. Zone of new buildings
84. In the region N. flash of virus hepatitis of A was registreted among adults and children of school age.
What indicators of potable water need to be defined first of all?
A. * Quantity of coli-phages in 1 dm3
B. Quantity of pathogenic microorganisms
C. Index of faecal coli-forms
D. Coli-index
E. Microbic number
85. The student of medical university, has arrived for study from Syria, complains of fatigue, palpitation,
short wind, bad appetite, constipation, pain in muscles of shins at the palpation. What lack of vitamin
is observed at the surveyed?
A. С
B. В2
C. В6
D. * В1
E. РР
86. The patient of 45 years complains on diarrhea, skin pigmentation, infringement of mentality and
frustration of the central nervous system. The doctor has established the diagnosis "pellagra"
(maidism). What lack of vitamin caused the disease?
A. E (tocopherol)
B. В1 (thiamine)

C. * РР (nicotinic acid)
D. А (retinol)
E. С (ascorbic acid)
87. The girl of 16 months is surveyed by pediatrists who work under the program WHO. Objectively:
hypostases of the bottom finiteness, buttocks, and also round eyes. Weight of the body is 10 kg. The
atrophy of muscles is expressed. It is observed dermatitis of enamels, depigmentation of hair. The
child is apathetic, crying monotonous. The anamnesis: to 6 months was on chest feeding, after an
excommunication from a breast ate vegetative food. What kind of disease is observed?
A. * Kwashiorkor disease
B. Alimentary marasmus
C. Syndrome Laella
D. Goshen disease
E. Gaffskaia disease
88. What foodstuff is recommended by the doctor as a source of vitamin В12?
A. Groats
B. Vegetables
C. Citrus
D. * Meat and liver of animals
E. Milk and dairy products
89. In food ration of the 66 y.o. teacher there are no products with antisclerous action. What foodstuff is
recommended to enter into a ration of the teacher?
A. Products from groats
B. * Fish, fowl, cottage cheese, fruit, vegetable
C. Fat meat
D. Products from flour

E. All said
90. At the survey of schoolboys from 4-th class there were revealed: the lowered working capacity, fast
fatigue, apathy, drowsiness. At 10 % of surveyed children it was observed gums bleeding,
hypodermic hemorrhages. Which lack of vitamin connected with such changes?
A. * С
B. PР
C. А
D. Д
E. Е
91. Realisation of dishes as the sources of possible food poisoning has been forbidden at a primary
school. What of the listed dishes are forbidden for using in the organized collectives?
A. Fresh vegetables
B. Compote with fruits
C. Sausage
D. Beans
E. * Flour products with meat

92. Daily diet of the adult contains vitamins: retinol – 0.5 mg, thiamin – 2 mg, riboflavin – 3 mg,
chyancobalamin – 3 mg, ascorbic acid - 80 mg. Wich vitamin demands correction?
A. Ascorbic acid
B. Thiamin
C. Riboflavin
D. Chyancobalamin
E. * Retinol
93. In the poultry farm on a site of preparation of the combined forages, concentration of dust consists
200 mg/m3. Air microflora is presented by mushrooms Aspergillus and Mucor. What effect of action
defines pathogenic properties of dust?
A. Teratogenic
B. * Allergenic
C. Mutagen
D. Fibrinogen
E. Toxic
94. In settlement D. to the regional hospital arrived patients with complaints to the pain, obdormition in
finitenesses, weakness, drowsiness. In heavy cases "dry gangrene" with mummification of
finitenesses developed. The doctor has established the diagnosis "poisoning from the products of the
plant". What foodstuff caused such disease:
A. Nuts (beech, migdal, ricina)
B. Potatoes
C. Pale toadstool
D. * Bread from rye flour
E. Belladonna
95. Some inhabitants of Odessa have been delivered in city infectious hospital with sharp gastroenteritis.
Disease connect with the use of fresh-salted fish. From excrements of patient V. parahaemolyticus
was allocated. What preventive actions are recommended?
A. * Not use fresh-salted fish
B. To plunge fish to thermal processing
C. To use antibiotics for prevention
D. To salt fish before use
E. To use bacterial phage for prevention

96. In the city infectious hospital a 32 y.o. patient with sharp gastroenteritis was delivered. Four hours
later he had dinner: alcoholic drinks, ham, vegetable salad, etc. For a dessert he ate repeatedly freeze
ice-cream with rum. What foodstuff caused this disease:
A. Perk
B. * Repeatedly freeze ice-cream
C. Alcoholic drinks
D. Vegetable salad
E. All said

97. After failure on the Chernobyl atomic power station Ukraine is situated in a late postemergency
phase. The basic source of internal irradiation is caesium-137. What of the listed foodstuff is a
probable source of caesium-137 in the organism?
A. Eggs
B. Meat
C. * Milk
D. Vegetables
E. Fruits
98. In the carrying out of planned medical inspection of workers of public catering at one of cooks of
secondary school was revealed sharp paraproctitis. This cook can course the disease:
A. * Toxicoinfections, coursed by E. Coli
B. Toxicoinfections, coursed by Klebsiella
C. Botulism
D. Bacterial toxicoses, coursed by Staphylococcus aureus
E. Mycotoxicosis
99. In infectious hospital a 35 y.o. woman with complaints on temperature, nausea, repeated vomiting,
sharp pain in epigastria has arrived. Signs of the general intoxication are marked: headache, cold
sweat, general weakness. Disease has begun in 2 hours after breakfast which consisted of stewed
potato with meat, breads, coffee and cake with custard. The most probable diagnosis:
A. Mycotoxicosis
B. Botulism
C. Bacterial toxicoses, coursed by Salmonella
D. Toxicoinfections, coursed by E. Coli
E. * Bacterial toxicoses, coursed by Staphylococcus aureus
100. The food poisoning has occurred in the family consisting of 3 persons. Disease has begun sharply, in
24 hours after use of tinned mushrooms of house manufacturing. All members of the family showed
complaints to headache, feeling of burning in a stomach, nausea, vomiting, infringement of the
certificate of chewing, diplopia, ptosis. Disease lasted week then there has come recover. The most
probable diagnosis:
A. Toxicoinfections, coursed by E. Coli
B. * Botulism
C. Bacterial toxicoses, coursed by B. aureus
D. Bacterial toxicoses, coursed by Salmonella
E. Mycotoxicosis
101. On the kindergarten nutrition unit the pork meat has arrived. After its inspection about 3 Finns on 40
sm2 meat were found out. Spend sanitary-and-hygienic estimation of meat.
A. Meat is subject to technical recycling
B. Forged
C. Good-quality
D. * Сonditionally suitable

E. Substandard

102. At the patient with urolithic illness periodically appeared oxalic acide in urine. What is necessary to
limit in a diet of the patient?
A. Fat food
B. Meat, fish
C. Dairy products
D. * Spinach, tomatoes
E. Broth
103. In the territory with raised disease of endemic craw family doctor for secondary preventive
maintenance suggested to use iodine foodstuff. What of the listed products should be used?
A. Products from a flour
B. Dairy products
C. Meat products
D. Vegetables and fruit
E. * Seafood
104. A 55 y.o. woman complains on diarrhoeia, peeling and pigmentation of skin at the neck, hands and
feet, irritability, anxiety. Anamnesis: basic foodstuff is a corn, vegetables, bean, fish and meat doesn`t
use. What disease at the woman?
A. Beri-beri
B. Scurvy
C. * Pellagra
D. Swifts` dermatitis
E. Keshan`s disease
105. The husband and wife gathered in wood mushrooms. In 12 hours after using of fried mushrooms, at
night they have felt sharp pain in a stomach, which was accompanied by frequent diarrhea, vomiting,
headache. For second day they have addressed for a medical aid. The husband has died for the third
day. The wife had jaundice, she gradually recovered. What mushrooms have served as the poisoning
reason?
A. Fly agarics
B. * Pale toadstool
C. Devil fungus
D. Volnushka
E. Valuy
106. A 50 y.o. woman has growth 165 sm, weight of body 70 kg, receive four-single diet. Works on
manufacturing of white lead. What treatment-and-prophylactic diet should she receive?
A. * Ration №3
B. Ration №2
C. Ration №1
D. Diet №15
E. Diet №9
107. The family from 4 persons was ill. They complaint to strong muscular weakness, headache, sight
deterioration, doubling in eyes, dryness in a mouth, difficulty of swallowing and speech. Objectively:
expansion of pupils, ptosis, infringement of accommodation. Temperature at all members of the
family is normal. The consciousness at all is kept. About what disease there is a speech?
A. Bacterial toxicosis

B. Mycotoxicosis
C. Toxicoinfections
D. Poisoning with chemical substances

E. * Botulism
108. In a diet of schoolchildren deficiency of beta carotene is marked. Which products are necessary to
provide?
A. Meat
B. Potato, cabbage
C. Milk, dairy products
D. * Carrots, tomatoes
E. Vegetative fats
109. Pupils of a boarding school complain of blood allocation at cleaning of teeth, sight deterioration
during the evening period, easy display of bruises. What vitamins are absent at the diet of children?
A. * Ascorbic acid and retinol
B. Riboflavin and pyridoxine
C. Calcium and phosphorus
D. Tocopherol and calcipherol
E. Zink, copper
110. At the survey of schoolboys from 4-th class there were revealed: the lowered working capacity, fast
fatigue, apathy, drowsiness. At 10 % of surveyed children it was observed gums bleeding,
hypodermic hemorrhages. Which lack of vitamin connected with such changes?
A. E
B. РР
C. А
D. Д
E. * C
111. Educational rooms are illuminated with various lighting fittings. What type of lighting fittings is
themost appropriate in respect of hygienic norms?
A. * Indirect light fittings
B. Direct light fittings
C. Semi-reflected light fittings
D. Ambient light fittings
E. Combined light fittings
112. In terms of megacalorie (1000 kcal = 4184 kJ) the ration of an adult includes 30 g of proteins, 37 g of
fats, 137 g of carbohydrates, 15 mg of vitamin C, 0,6 mg of thiamine (vitamin B1). The ration is
UNBALANCED as to the contents of:
A. * Vitamin C
B. Proteins
C. Fats
D. Carbohydrates
E. Thiamine

113. A city somatic hospital with 300 beds consists of the main building which houses the therapeuticand
surgical departments. Several separate buildings house the maternity, pediatric andradiologic
departments that are connected to the main building by underground walkways and above-ground
covered skybridges. Specify the building system of the hospital:
A. * Central-unit
B. Centralized
C. Decentralized
D. Free
E. Combined

114. A heat station working on solid fuel is located in a residential district. On cloudy foggy days in
December there was an increase in diseases with upper airway affection and signs of
generalintoxication. There were also mortal cases among the elderly people. What is the most likely
factor that provoked toxic effect?
A. * Suspended materials
B. High air humidity
C. Calm
D. Low air temperature
E. Temperature gradient
115. While making sanitary examination of burn unit for adults it was stated that wards for 4 persons are
of 28 m2 square. What should be the minimum ward area in this unit?
A. * 40 m2
B. 24 m2
C. 28 m2
D. 30 m2
E. 52 m2
116. In order to improve organism tolerance of boarding-school pupils a doctor developed a program.
A. Systematicness
B. Autodefense increase
C. Increase of influence force
D. Increase of influence intensity
E. Increase of resistance
117. A student analyzes noise level of cold-pressing process. What device should be applied for
thishygienic study?
A. * Noise and vibration analyzer
B. Noise analyzer
C. Sound tester
D. Actinometer
E. Pyranometer
118. Environmental pollution is prevented by mechanical separation of nontoxic solid domestic
waste.Specify the method which can be used for mechanical utilization of these wastes:
A. * Compressing of wastes into building blocks

* Use of gloves that reduce vibration B. Mercury thermometer D. - 123. * Sanitary and epidemiological station B. Giving sanitary instructions to the workers 121. Inhabitants of this region feel severe cold in corresponding season at a medium lowtemperature. * Convection B. Poorly refined wastes of an industrial plant are usually thrown into the river that supplies drinking water. It causes perishing of some microorganisms. Assmannpsychrometer 122. In order to study impact of microclimate upon the human organism it is necessary to make systematic observation of air temperature over 3 days. Direct . How is this effect of environmental factors called? A. * Thermograph B. Ministry of Health of Ukraine 120. Burial of wastes E. Medical unit of the plant E. Alcohol thermometer C. Preliminary and periodical medical examinations C. The Carpathian region is characterized by constant high humidity of atmospheric air (over 80 %). At a machine-building plant the casts are cleaned by means of abrasion machines that are asource of local vibration. * Indirect B. Vaporization D. Choose a device that will allow to makethe most precise temperature records: A. disturbs processes of water self-purification and worsens its quality that can have negative influence upon people's health. What are the most efficient preventive measures for preventingharmful effect of vibration on workers' organisms? A. Conduction E. Trade union committee of the plant D. Hand massaging D. August's psychrometer E. A doctorwho revealed the case of "acute occupational disease (intoxication)" must notify the followingauthority: A. Plant administration C. Burning as power-plant fuel D. Waste neutralization in biothermal boxes 119. Radiation C. Hydrolysis C. Warm hand baths E. An emergency situation at a chemical plant caused acute occupational intoxication.B. It's caused by heat emission by: A.

Workers are affected by vibration (general and local). * Destroyed 126. Soil-protozoa-humans E. Zinc D. * Aron B. some herbicides have been used for a long time.90 g/l. ANSWER: A A. Blood test results: Hb. Sold without restrictions B. Chromium E. cracks in the mouth corners. Associated D. sense of pressure against tympanic membranes. Examination of a 43-year-old man objectively revealed pallor of skin and mucous membranes. Magnesium E. Used for forage production D.C. microclimate that warms in summer and cools in winter. dyspnoea. Soil-microorganisms-humans C. ultrasound. loss of tongue papillae. nausea. Soil-animals-humans D. Hygienic expertise of a sample taken from the batch of grain revealed that 2% of grains were infected with microscopic Fusarium fungi. Noise . On the ground of laboratory analyses this batch of grain should be: A. Cadmium C. * Infrasound B. cough. Tested for toxicity C. Used for ethanol production E. Complex E. He works aloft. poikilocytosis. During the medical examination a port crane operator complained of dizziness. Combined 124. anisocytosis. Copper C. Mercury B. In terms of environmental stability these herbicides are rated as stable. Boron D. Lead 127. * Soil-plants-humans B. tachycardia. the work is connected with emotional stress. Selene 128. tremor. What factor are the worker'scomplaints connected with? A. noise. In order to reduce weed growth on agricultural land. Specify the most likely route of their entry into the human body: A. The most likely causativeagent of this state is inadequate intake of: A. transverse striation of fingernails. Soil-insects-humans 125.

What tactics should be chosen in respect of this meat consumption? A. A factory's sectorial doctor selects a group of persons who often fall ill for thorough monitoring. Anemometer C. * The whole carcass should be technically disposed B. Overheated B. Uncomfortable E. What is the percentage of the flatfoot isthmus? A. CVibration D. Sanitary-veterinary examination of a cow carcass revealed measle contamination (2-3 measlesper 10 cm2). What device should be applied to estimate the level of daylight illumination? A. Intensity of work E. At the same time he takes into consideration the number of etiologically related cases with temporary disability in each of the employees over the last year. Meat can be sold without any restrictions C. Production areas of a greenhouse complex have the following microclimate parameters: air A. 45% 131. It is required to analyze the level of daylight illumination in a ward of therapeutics unit. 30% C. Comfortable C. * 65% B. 2 or more D. During the medical examination at school the schoolchildren had to undergo plantography. 50 % D. * 4 or more B.C. Satisfactory 133. After the analysis of footprints platypodia was found in 30\% of pupils. The carcass should be used for the production of canned meat D. Katathermometer D. 6 or more 132. An employee falls into this group if the number of sickness cases is: A. Psychrometer 130. 1 or more C. 3 or more E. Actinometer E. Meat should be disinfected by boiling E. Meat should be disinfected by freezing . * Illuminometer B. Altitude work 129. 55 % E. Cooling D.

Normal 135. * Odour B. colour index – 20 0. Over 1000 beds 136. 800 beds E. drinking city water has the following characteristics: turbidity . pale yellow colour. Corrected E. What habitus is it? A. Temperature E.2 points.13 м2. dyspepsia. According to the report of water quality control.0 hectare was intended for building of a hospital. In infectious wards for adults D. * In burns wards B. * Kyphosis B.8 м2.)complain about a metallic taste in mouth. in the radiologicaldepartment . temperature . Taste 138. In radiological wards E. unsteady walk.3 points.1. stomatitis. Round-shouldered D. with forward flexion ofhead. in the burns department . Toluol . thermometers etc. * Mercury B. These presentations must have been caused by the intoxication with the following substance: A. 400 beds D. A plot of land with total area of 2. In infectious wards for children C. Workers of a laboratory producing measuring devices (manometers. Manganese D. The maximal capacity of the hospital will be: A. Lead C.120. and abdomen was convex. During hygienic examination of a hospital it was established that the area for each bed in a double ward was: in the infectious department for children . Colour index D. It was established that the child's shoulders were deviated and brought forward. In which wards the area foreach bed doesn't correspond with hygienic requirements? A. 200 beds C. The child's backbone had signs of deepened cervical and lumbar curvatures.9 м2.134. sleep disturbance.10 м2. Which of these factors doesn't comply with hygienic requirements? A. Preventive examination of an 11 year old boy helped to determine his habitus type. In critical care wards 137.7 м2. * 100 beds B. and abrupt decrease in cardiac activity. in the critical care department . metallic taste . Turbidity C.5 mg/m3. Lordosis C. in the infectiousdepartment for adults . odour . the thorax was flattened.

Insufficient exercise D. chronic rhinitis and vegetative-vascular dystonia. chest circumference. dynamometry B. II C. Apple. monitoring physical education lesson in the ninth grade is based physiological curve. Cabbage. Tetraethyl lead 139. IV E. Which juice is recommended to include in a comprehensive drug-dietary therapy for patients with gastric ulcer or duodenal ulcer with high acidity of gastric juice in order to accelerate the healing of the ulcer? A. It is planned to build a multi-disciplinary hospital with 500 beds in a town. * At the main entrance B. increased heart rate by 80% during the main part. the doctor found one of them to have grade 3 tonsillar hypertrophy. It is not allowed to place the polyclinic within the centre territory E. lung vital capacity. Number of permanent teeth E. parsley 143. number of permanent teeth. According to the results of medical-pedagogical. * Long periods between exercises B.apple C. Body length and weight. In the centre of the territory near medical buildings D. Lesson is built correctly C. Specify the location of a polyclinic within the medical centre: A. Estimation of physical development of a child involved dynamometry and estimation of body weight and length. In the garden and park area C. cabbage .carrot B. chest circumference C. Celery. Intheservicezone 142. secondary sexual characters. V 140. birch .E. While assessing the health status of graduates of a secondary school. potato . * III B. which is characterized by a gradual increase in heart rate in the introduction part. Secondary sexual characters D. I D. The organism functionality is reduced. annual gain in body length. * Lung vital capacity. How can we evaluate the organization of physical education lessons? A. the curve has a 4-toothed appearance.carrot E. Which of the mentioned indices relates to the physiometric ones? A. This student belongs to the following health group: A. Extreme exercise E. Pumpkin D. Sufficient physical activity . Annual gain in body length 141. * Potato.

Health Part 145. * Vibration disease B. As a health indicator of air quality in the classroom using the concentration of carbon dioxide in the air. Hypovitaminosis Vitamin B1 148. fecal-oral 147. 146. * Territorial EUFOR B. C. trade union organization. Specify the pre- flash type: A. the titre of E. E.3% . * 0. monitoring of soil health in the hospital to indicators of health . 0. * Food B.05% C. Noise illness D. A continuous supply of organic protein contamination. the titre of anaerobes (Cl. B. coli . A representative of the facility should lead the work of the commission under the current Regulations on the investigation . In the hospital. which occurs after work was admitted. In 2 days. In the company he was working with mechanical devices. Signs of fatigue E. D. the territorial SES offices of the Fund of social insurance. Enterprises C. What kind of pathology should be suspected in this case? A. patient with complaints of violation of pain and tactile sensitivity and pain in the terminal phalanges. Inadequate insolation and soil aeration. * The presence of fresh faecal contamination. Trade Union Organization E.chronic bronchitis..15% D.1% B.. Contact E. Long faecal contamination. among the 240 children there is outbreak of dysentery. Investigation of the case holds a commission composed of representatives from: health department. 0. According to the laboratory.144. 0. Water D. Detect predominantly severe clinical forms. 0. Clinic Research Institute. This indicates that: A. perfringens) – slightly polluted. found a worker who works at the processing plant with occupational disease .the soil lightly.2% E. Bends C. Contact-household C."? A. Social Insurance Fund D. In preschool. Inadequate intensity of humification in the soil.contaminated. 37 children and 5 staff members from different groups got sick. What is the concentration of carbon dioxide in the air (in%) accepted as valid? A.

pantry. Hypovitaminosis B6 E. insomnia. making room for the children. 1:6-1:7 D.1:5 C.tachycardia. aches and cramps in the calf muscles when walking on the heels. Proportion of carbohydrates in the diet of poor D. Contact with industrial poison. observed violations of the gastrointestinal tract. 1:3-1:4 E. Combining gaming and pantry E. Combining gaming and room for children of preschool age C. The patient. By what measure of the planning group of cells does not meet hygienic requirements? A. and a bathroom. Hypovitaminosis B2 C. dystrophic changes of the heart muscle. Arsenic . complained of headache. In studying the actual nutrition of the adult is established: the proportion energotsennost daily diet from protein . facilities for day-stay patients in their offices for doctors and procedural? A.16% fat . then on the outer edge of the foot. excess protein B. hypoxia. Asbestos E. fatigue. long-term eating refined foods. which merged with the game. * Proportion of carbohydrates in the diet insufficient. Hypovitaminosis B15 153. Indicate which light ratio should be in the wards. The working chemical plant during a periodic medical examination revealed a malignant neoplasm of the bladder. Hypovitaminosis B12 D. depression. Evaluate compliance of the content of proteins.149. carbohydrates . * Combining gaming and bedrooms for toddlers B. Share of fat in the diet of poor C. OBJECTIVE: Muscle fatigue. irritability.1:6 B.59%. * 1:5 . has led to the emergence of an occupational disease? A. most significantly. * Benzidine B. Proportion of carbohydrates in the diet of overweight E. Vinyl chloride C. from the CCC . fats. * Hypovitaminosis B1 B. Content of nutrients is responsible for the recommended values energotsennost 152. 1:4 . 1:7-1:8 150. Nickel carbonyl D. No receiver (dressing room) 151. According to the draft pre-school institutions in the all group of cells comprises the combined gaming and bedroom are separated by a sliding partition. carbohydrates recommended by their proportion in the diet energotsennost: A. The union game and a bedroom for the children of the preparatory group D. What is the diagnosis? A.25%.

Botulism. Somatic effects C. no rust. Hormesis E. Patient Z. E. D. The baby 9 months. Hypovitaminosis C C. At external examination marked cans . Chemical. Vegetables and fruit 156. * Somato-stochastic B. Patient 48 years participated in the aftermath of the accident is being treated at outpatient department. B. E. 158. Hypovitaminosis B6 E. * Meat products B. C. Diagnosis: progressive autonomic failure. * Physical. Physical Chemistry. Grain products D. * Staphylococcal toxemia. A. A. banks greased technical fat. When chemical analysis revealed that the stones are composed of salts of uric acid (urate). Ergotism. * Hypovitaminosis D. In the children's sanatorium arose mass food poisoning after eating yogurt. Mixed. Determine bombazh.the banks have deep dents. Dairy products C. there were delays and teething extended period of imperforate temechka. Genetic D. C. D. hospitalized in a health care with a diagnosis of urolithiasis. 157. With what kind of hypovitaminosis is the baby suffering from? A. B. Hypovitaminosis B1 D. Which group of effects of ionizing radiation can be attributed the disease: A. Salmonella. weakness and sweating.154. did not immediately return to the starting position. Biology. Hypovitaminosis A . B. In the children's holiday camp brought canned food. manufactured on dairy. Egg products E. while pressing bend inward. Meals for this pathology should be corrected in the direction of reducing the content in the diet: A. Determine the nature of food poisoning. Among plant workers found employees with pustular skin diseases. Aflotoksikoz. Heterosis 155.

B. to manually shovel break a lot of baked and inverted it. decreased disability. Thiamine. Disease which organs and systems are most common among workers of these industries? A. Time Activism. B. Place the geography lesson in the timetable. Duration of breaks. B. Time of passive observation. Liver. 162.Training. * Maximum weight of cargo that moves.30 minutes. E. Breaks between classes is 10 minutes and after the 2nd lesson . E. Smart tension. Cardiovascular. Changes in minute volume of blood. * Respiratory system. irritability. 2nd - Mathematics. Which of the following criteria could be evaluated the work of loaders? A. Working refrigeration plants fisheries operate at low ambient temperatures . E. On Wednesday. D. Blood. A boy of 10 years to see a doctor complaining of general weakness. D. only 36 lessons per week. B. % for the duration of the shift. it was found that their work relates to the third degree of severity. 160. Working fisheries are subject to the influence of low ambient temperatures of between -5 ° C to -15 ° C. % for the duration of the shift. * Narrowing of vessels in the skin and muscles. E. According to the schedule in the eighth grade. D. What is the violation occurs in the timetable? A. C. * Ascorbic acid.geography. Vitamin D. 161. D. 163. Magnitude of static load. 3rd . Vitamin A. Rapid breathing. . * Number of lessons throughout the week. C. On one of the areas the railway station. D. Place the lesson of physical culture in the schedule. home of the unloading of cars from the pitch in bulk. Lack of which vitamin can lead to this case? A. Place of mathematics lessons in the timetable. Which of the following changes in the body of workers are the most characteristic and leading under these circumstances? A. Riboflavin. petechiae on the legs. Increase in oxygen consumption.159.from -5 ° to -15 ° C. Gastrointestinal tract. E. fatigue. C. at the physiological and hygienic study the nature of stevedores. 1st lesson . it changes. B. C. Changes in systolic blood volume. C. bleeding gums.

V-I group . Which group of health is a student? A. In the industrial area of one of the industrial cities in preschool children with chronic diseases and frequent asthmatic bronchitis. On the incisors were observed white spots. Fe 165. 10 meters from the restroom. at a distance of 15 m from a neighbor's home. II-I group E. City Hospital consists of a main building. During the medical examination student third class set disharmonious physical development. the maternity and children's departments. * Mixed B. Lead D. * III-rd group B. bronchial asthma. 25 m C. * Sulfur dioxide B. IV-th group D. 15 m E. Which of the components of water could cause disease? A. A. I-Group I C. * F B. OBJECTIVE: biological age corresponds to the calendar. there is a compensated chronic bronchitis. Oxides of Nitrogen E. Well mining is located 20 meters from the apartment building. and several smaller buildings for infection. Central C. Among the population of one district of the city celebrated the uneven color of teeth. Products of photochemical reactions 166. Carbon monoxide C. Define a system construction of the hospital. Septic D. In the occurrence of these symptoms suspected drinking water from a deep borehole. transverse brown stripes. 10 m 168. Mg D. Which of the permanent air pollutants could be their cause? A. barrack 167. 20 m D. Clinical and functional changes of the other bodies are missing.164. Centrally blocked E. * 50 m B. What is the smallest distance in accordance with sanitary norms should be between a well and a source of possible contamination of water? A. Ca C. J E. which housed the surgical and therapeutic departments.

tularemia. * II-I group B. A child of preschool age is established harmonious physical development of and compliance with the biological age calendar. The growth of any infectious disease may be a consequence of what happened? A. epidparotita 173. Noise E. The development of occupational respiratory diseases in miners may lava? A. In April. leptospirosis. EMR 171. B1-hypovitaminosis . What is the pathology most likely related to the data display? A. A-hypovitaminosis D.vegetomiofastsit upper limbs . Dust D. Within a year he was sick 5 times acute illnesses. When analyzing the results of periodical medical examination of working-polishers art glass was found that 40% of workers aged 30-45 years with long job tenure is set ulnar nerve neuritis. Talcosis 172. In the city there was a failure on the sewerage network. Periodontal C. * Escheriosis.vegetative-sensitive polyneuritis. rickettsial D. scarlet fever. expressed bleeding when massaging. shigellosis. Plague. * Vibration B.169. Diphtheria. Objectively revealed swollen gums loosened.follicular hyperkeratosis on the background of dry skin. Hepatitis B. * C-hypovitaminosis B. yersiniosis E. Which group of health concerns a boy? A. IV-th group 170. on the skin . salmonellosis C. Siderosis E. When carrying out cleaning work in the mine the concentration of coal dust in the working area of 450 mg/m3 (TLV . Byssinosis D. Workers polished product with a rotating abrasive disc. * Anthracosis B. Chronic diseases are absent. Allergic nasopharyngitis C. 12% . III-rd group D. Brucellosis. Since the action of adverse factors associated pathology data? A.10 mg/m3). Adverse climate C. typho-paratyphoid infections B. V-I group E. during the medical examination groups. 27% of those observed decreased in performance and fatigue. which resulted in the possibility of suction of sewage in the water supply network. I-Group I C. and 21% .

A. * Carp River B. optometrist. Determine the minimum of the medical commission. an otolaryngologist. In a city hospital with 500 beds accumulated solid waste. Removal for improved landfill D. an immunologist. trauma C. Flounder D. eye specialist. Proteins C. * Audiologist. Therapist. an oculist 177. there is increased incidence of total population. Bookmark in bio thermal camera E. etc. dermatologist. bandages.E. In the area of placement of an industrial enterprise. Composting C. haematologist. Fats D. Therapist. Pollock C. The patient was hospitalized in a health care setting with a diagnosis of bothriocephaliasis. a surgeon E. Marine Halibut 176. trauma. an immunologist. * Incineration B. Therapist. Throw in garbage 178. Selective . Chronic specific E. a haematologist. a surgeon. Okun sea E. To conduct periodic medical examinations of workers of the chemical plant to produce chrome-and nickel mineral compounds formed medical committee consisting of: a therapist. where atmospheric air is heavily polluted with sulphur dioxide. dermatologist B. Acute non-specific D. From which fish can this infection occurred? A. to determine the optimum method of disposal of these wastes. What is the impact on the human body in this situation provides air pollution? A. * Mono-and disaccharides B. dermatologist. * Chronic non-specific B. Fibers 175. including: the remains of food. neurologist. Sharp specific C. A. Polyhypovitaminosis 174. Polysaccharides E. physician. neurologist D. Therapist. taking into account the features produced by the production. During the medical examination of workers at a cotton mill 30% of individuals was identified overweight: at 5-14% above normal in the Quetelet Index of 22 to 25. For the normalization of body weight in this group of persons is necessary in the diet is primarily to reduce: A.

3 times. How many students belong to the class group of sickly? A. Arsenic E. 181. * centrally-block B. which was diluted with water from wells. Strontium C.6 times. In the house of an infant fell ill at the same time. * Mercury B. * 9 people B. 15 C. skin and visible mucous membranes. which are expressed in the central paralysis. 1 . Centralized C. 6 .4 times. Decentralised D. * Contrast shower B.hurt once. 1 person. Chrome 183. Lead D. Planned to build a multidisciplinary hospital in one of the central areas of the city N. The compounds of the pollutant of the environment can cause the development of this pathology? A. Throughout the year. What type of building the most expedient in this case? A. Hardware E. 5 . Iron 180. cyanosis. Hygienic Shower D. Walking outdoors E. 40 children under the age of 1 year. Morning gymnastics outdoors C. In the forestry summer sanatorium for children with a view to hardening of the body conducting the various procedure. Mixed E. 11 .179. * Nitrates B.5 times. The presence of any chemical contaminants in water could be a possible cause of toxic cyanosis? A. 4 people D. Clinical laboratory studies revealed a considerable amount of children's blood metagmoglobin. Characteristic symptoms: general weakness. 2 . 8 . and 1 . Children received artificial food mixture. Bath with hydromassage 182. Among the population that lives near a pesticide plant in the dynamics of increased level of congenital malformations. Indicate which of the following procedures for the tempering? A. idiocy and blindness of newborns. Cadmium D.2 times. In secondary school enrolled 38 pupils. 4 people were not ill at all.8 times. Aluminium C. 2 person E. Block .

head and hips. Availability of joint (upper-side) illumination . an outbreak of hepatitis A. Which of the indicators. dietary fiber B. Depth of the training room D. The increase in public water-quality pond can confirm this assumption? A. * Ratio of natural light (RED) B. East C. South E. Which nutrients are of priority importance for the designation of the biological action of food? A. located on the 55o latitude. Fat soluble vitamins. dietary fiber D. plant proteins 186.184. South West 188. B. possibly water origin.00 to 15. Light coefficient (SC) C. West D. Magnesium. will transfer the surgical unit of the basement to the first floor of the building. Vegetable fats. Shape of the chest E. Time insolation premises E. except for length and body mass refers to the basic indicators of physical development? A. In studying the physical development of children ages preddoshkolnogo estimated parameters: length and body weight. In assessing the organization of sanatorium power of persons who suffered as a result of Chornobyl disaster. * North B. Which indicator of natural lighting will be the most informative and appropriate to the task? A. Oxidation. The index of Escherichia coli C. In the urban-type settlement. On which side of the world need to orient the new operating window for optimal operation of surgical staff? A. phosphorus. located near the river. During the reconstruction of the city hospital in the city. D.00 hours. the shape of the spine and thorax. Shape of the spine D. Index of fecal coliforms 187. zinc. Head circumference C. circumference of chest. * Circumference of chest B. it was suggested that regulated the amount of nutrients in diets. Availability of the pathogen water fever E. Hip circumference 185. During a survey of hygienic conditions of education in technical colleges was necessary to evaluate the visual mode of students who learn from 9. animal protein E. which come in a competitive relationship with the radio nuclides and prevent their absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. Iron. * Number of quantitative phages. calcium. * Potassium. carbohydrate C.

1 sigma regression less then "ideal" value of this indicator on a scale regression for its body length.turner found that at the end of the shift change in the threshold of auditory sensitivity was 17 decibels in both ears. Equipment. Second group C. * Fatigue B. * By radiation B. Sharp dysharmonious by underweight E. decrease the severity of labour. relative humidity 40%. At a chemical plant in order to optimize conditions scheduled the replacement of toxic raw materials for non-toxic. What activities related to primary prevention? A. Overfatigue D. By evaporation of moisture from the mucosal airway during expiration 193. Set a group of schoolchildren's health. Balanced C. When assessing the physical development of teenage girls of 13 years on the scale of the regression.189. By evaporation E. Which way is the impact of heat in the body cannot go through in this situation? A. Shortness of work time E. equipped with general ventilation. Deafness E. How can we evaluate the functional state of the auditory analyzer working in the late Baby changing? A. use personal protective equipment. Do physical work is characterized by moderate severity. * Dysharmonious due to deficiency of body weight B. Third group 190. By convection C. general ventilation C. Fifth group D. Dysharmonious of deficit-WGC D. Fourth group B. Sharply dysharmonious of deficit-WGC 192. Adaptation C. Use of personal protective D. and the value of the circumference of the chest (WGC) on . Work-steelworker working in conditions with air temperature of 26 ° C. Fatigue 191. When audiometric study of auditory function working . reducing work time. * Replacement of toxic materials into non-toxic B. Reduce the severity of labour . Assess the physical development of girls? A. air velocity 0.9 sigmoid regression is different from the "ideal" weight for her body length. First group E. her body weight was 1.5 m / sec and a radiation temperature of 35 C °. which suffers from rheumatic heart disease in the stage A. By direct heat D.

the streets were overloaded vehicles. Is not responsible for breathability C. Is not responsible for porosity 195. Special group D. The town. Is not liable for water resistance E. the smell . Increase in ozone 197. Basic group C.3 points. Vitamin A C. Vitamin C D. Is not responsible for the stability of the dye E. * B group vitamins B. This micro symptom indicates a lack of food: A. Elevated CO2 in the air C. In kindergartens (preschool) is used for games furry toy "bear": weight . accompanied by lacrimation and coughing. porous and elastic. Is not responsible for the smell 196." Symptoms of respiratory failure at rest there. toxic substances are absent. A doctor at the orphanage her assessment found: underwear for preschool children is characterized by high air and water vapor permeability. photo-oxidant B. Increase in air content of CO D. Is not responsible for the hygroscopicity D. paint-resistant material. * So not responsible for the material B. Tissue is sparse.194. Which group of physical education classes should include this student? A. Classes of physical therapy E. Vitamin RR . * High content of air. Does toys hygienic requirements for use in preschool? A. During the medical examination the patient was observed with "geographic tongue". In the orphanage Sponsor entered the party of children's clothing made from natural materials. Meets C. upper respiratory tract. Does not meet mass D. Is the fabric of hygienic requirements? A. Restricted class 198. * Responsible B.200 grams. During the medical examination of schoolchildren in one of his disciples established "asthma. Elevated airborne levels of nitric oxide E. Vitamin D E. * Preparatory team B. On the second day after the windless sunny weather in the clinic asked city residents complained of severe irritation of the conjunctiva. situated in a valley within a few days. What is the most possible cause of the disease arising from the residents of the city? A. igroskopichnostyu and moisture resistant.

density .1. A. * Surplus of diet Energetichesky B. Obєktivno determined by dry skin. B2 . taste . vitamin C . scent . Milk conditionally suitable 201. appealed to the doctor complaining of feeling "sand" in the eyes. A. From food history revealed that the patient does not adhere to the requirements of a balanced diet: often overeat. Objectively. Goggles athlete lost during the ascent.Hypovitaminosis D.a characteristic of milk. B1 . What degree of adaptation of these students? A. * Tense B.3. Infrared radiation. Flag diet 203. Ultraviolet radiation.5 mg. 200. inability to look at the bright light. Bright sunlight. In establishing the adaptation of students of class 1 for school revealed that they have a low rate of information processing in the classroom. At the dispensary examination of the citizen age 35 years diagnosed with alimentary-constitutional obesity III Art.Hypovitaminosis C. Determine the degree of milk quality.2%. fat . Vitamin B1 . B6 . Put the diagnosis of the disease and indicate which factor was the cause of this disease. preferred fatty foods and foods containing large amounts of carbohydrate. Increased consumption of fats D. Milk debased D.no features. pH . During the medical examination the doctor paid attention to student growth 162 cm and weighing 59 kg.white. Increase carbohydrate intake C.2 mg.0 mg. The following information: colour .199. B. C. .35 ° Turner.vitamin deficiencies 202. Athlete of the group of climbers who had just returned after climbing the snow-capped mountains. Milk adulterated E. As part of the daily diet of a student found a content of essential vitamins: Vitamin A . the last meal for 10-15 minutes before bedtime. which prdyavlyala complaints that evening. Vitamin B2 . Conjunctivitis.vitamin deficiencies B.5 mg. the prevalence of processes of inhibition over excitation. * A . Satisfactory . losing the ability to clearly see the surrounding objects. Which of the following risk factors for obesity is a major? A. In the laboratory for the study received a sample of milk. Establish the diagnosis of the disease. Ultraviolet radiation. Lack kletkoviny in the diet E.0. D. there is hyperaemia and edema conjunctiva of eyes. E. * Milk quickie B. * Photo-ophthalmic.2. White snow. Photo-allergy. Vitamin B6 . Foto-toxicos. A.2. hyperkeratosis. Milk benign C.vitamin deficiencies E.038.70 mg. Cataracts. C .

55%. respiratory failure. Increasing the speed of air movement C. Disease patients who were hospitalized in these chambers D. CO2 .2 m / s. Thermal insulation of walls and roofs 205. hypertension.0.45 ? C. Long 204. Post-traumatic encephalopathy D.35 ? C. In the air emissions from the industrial centre comes metallurgical plants: sulphur oxides. air velocity 0. which adversely affect the health of the population. wall wards decided to paint the light of: A. CO2 content 208. air velocity . delusions of persecution. Intoxication leaded gasoline C. The speed of air movement E. Unsatisfactory E. relative humidity . Complex C. Combined D. seen determined by increased heart rate. air changes per hour . Mixed 207. drowsiness. Neighbouring E.8. carbon. nitrogen. Increasing humidity D. Asthenic-vegetative syndrome .0. * Combined B. as it has great psychological and aesthetic importance. Humidity D. Normalize the microclimate in the cockpit is possible by: A. dizziness. Create a sense of comfort 206.C. Hospital Profile C. The driver repaired the car in the garage. Reduce humidity E. Reflection coefficient of walls E. humidity 55%. * Intoxication with carbon monoxide B. * Cooling air B. then turned to the doctor is complaining of headache. Determine which of the parameters of microclimate does not meet the norm? A. muscular weakness. the outside temperature was 31 ? C in the driver's cab of the combine temperature .1%.1 m / s. Hypertensive crisis E. The effect of these hazards is described as: A. During the overhaul of the hospital was provided updated colour schemes for the hospital premises. the temperature of the walls and roof . In a study of hygienic conditions of work of doctors in the operating room. metals. Good D. the following parameters of the microclimate: t = 220S. The most likely diagnosis: A. Temperature C. nausea. At grain harvest in July. * Air exchange B. * Orientation boxes B.

0. * Canned B. * Restrict heavy physical labour B. Gynaecologist C. Intoxicating substance which can be assumed in this case? . What features or abnormalities are most likely? A.55%. Which of the following products should be primarily selected on the study to confirm the diagnosis? A. Boiled meat E. In primary schools the concentration of CO2 in the air . A. In studying the link between air pollution and the prevalence of respiratory diseases found that the simple correlation coefficient of r = + 0.200 lux. bradycardia. which is in contact with leaded gasoline. * Reducing disability. General lighting incandescent lamps . using hand levers and pedal. A strong inverse D. temperature . Weak direct 212. The working gas stations from 15 years of experience. Scoliosis E. The diagnosis of botulism "raised on the basis of clinical disease. In the urban-type settlement recorded case of food poisoning. Colds C. Evaluate the strength and nature of the relationship.20 ? C. Vegeto-vascular dystonia 210.2%. headache B. Milk pasteurized D. Potatoes C. Fitter.1:5. What activities should be encouraged to prevent osteoarthritis? A. Protein-carbohydrate diet C. Dermatologist E. Heavy weight lifting 213. At the company where manufactured red lead. Psychiatrist D.82. Protein and vitamin diet D. * Neurologist B. the light ratio .209. which require considerable physical effort. there is memory loss. 42 years for five years working in the shop on a lathe for the production of large heavy parts. Improvement of the Black Sea coast E. Visual impairment D. Mean C. Cabbage 211. Otorhinolaryngological 214. formed a team of medical specialists to conduct a periodic medical examination. * A strong direct B. skin paresthesia. hair sensation in the mouth. Average reverse E. humidity . Which of the following doctors have to Bach in the team? A.

What instrument determines the value of biodozy? A. Bandwidth biodozy ultraviolet radiation a patient is measured in minutes. D. in the infectious department planned to complete boxes. 3. D. What type of construction used in the design of the hospital? A. Nitrobenzene 215. the medical building for infectious diseases with separate garden and park areas. Centrally decentralized. Demarcation of zones for infectious and non-patients.A. B. For a maximum number of beds designed this chamber? A. which are interconnected by underground passages. B. Benzene E. 217. E. * Biodosimetry Gorbachev B. Organophosphates D. which consist of a vestibule. * Tetraethyl B. 216. The total area of the Chamber therapy department is 28 m2. Decentralized. medical- diagnostic and economic. On a plot of rural hospitals for 50 patients identified such areas: the medical building for non- infectious patients. Gateway. D. Mortem Location offices in the area hospitals. The location of infectious department in the area hospitals. 5. Radiometer E. What violation was committed in the planning section? A. Handling . C. For the prevention of nosocomial infections transmitted by airborne droplets. the House. C. 2. B. Mixed. Actinometry D. * WC B. E. 1. as well as the economic zone in which located mortem room. Project hospitals provided the distribution of hospital buildings into three groups: medical. C. Ultra violet metre C. * 4. 219. Catathermometer 218. * A centrally-block. * Combining business and pathoanatomical zones. E. Separation of landscaping areas. Lead chloride C. What other structural part must be part of a complete boxing? A. Centralized.

which meets hygiene requirements. Squirrel C. Calm D. nitrate. fog) in the area of the TEC. Obesity second degree E. Caries C. Gout E. High humidity C. Nursing post 220.C. Cholelithiasis 223. Ration is not balanced by: A. Obesity first degree D. * Obesity third degree B. * Vitamin E B. Diet of adult human contains recalculated as mega calorie (1000 kcal = 4184 kJ) 30 g protein.6 mg thiamine (B1). Low temperature E. Poly light fittings D. Increased number of deaths among residents of advanced age. 37 g fat. For the organization of village water consumption water source is selected from sulphate. What is the energy status of Quetelet index? A. Temperature gradient 224. In the cloudy days of December (calm. 0. Fittings of direct light C. iron. working on solid fuel. House doctor D. Different light fittings E. * Suspended solids B. chloride. Obesity fourth degree . * Reinforcement of the reflected light B. Urolithiasis D. Thiamine 222. but with a high level of fluoride (3 mg / dm 3). Sight E. During the medical examination male drivers 10% of those identified being overweight (BMI = 39. To the development of the disease can cause drinking water of this composition? A. What is the most possible factors triggered the deterioration of public health? A. The normal energy status (adequate food) C. Valves combined light 221. Carbohydrate E. 137 g carbohydrate. has increased the number of cases with lesions of the respiratory tract and symptoms of intoxication. body weight 65% above normal). What type of lighting fixture creates the most favorable treatment from the hygienic point of view of lighting? A. 15 mg vitamin E. Giraud D. * Fluorosis B. For lighting classrooms use a variety of lighting.9 kg / m ?.

For hardening body boarding schools had a physician developed program. Taking a warm bath for hands E. A. * Visual Analyzer. * Bacteriological B. To study the influence of microclimate on the human body is necessary to organize systematic observation of air temperatures for several days. All together 227. Psychrometer Assmann . In the framework of the program on the following principles: steady. Auditory analyzer. Helminthological C.225. Sanitary-chemical E. Conducting health education among the workers 229. C. Entomological D. Psychrometer August E. * Systematic B. Tactile sensitivity. slightly soiled . Increase in strength of influence D. Increased resistance C. Increasing resistance 226. D. Alcohol thermometer C. individuality. complexity. net . In the computer room research sector Polytechnic Institute jobs laboratory operators are located near the front of the monitor. 228. What are the most Effectiveness preventive measures to prevent its harmful effects on the body of the workers? A. which are a source of local vibration. which are quenched by vibration B. Conducting preliminary and periodical medical examinations C. Select the device that will allow most accurately register the temperature: A. Auditory analyzer. Increasing the intensity of impact E. Mercury thermometer D. consistency. B. At an engineering plant is carried out cleaning of castings by grinding machines. Under the influence of electromagnetic waves over high frequency operators are a whole working day. Pain sensitivity. E.the number of larvae and pupae of flies and health among the Klebnikov.the number of soil-transmitted helminths eggs. Which indicator would be decisive in the overall assessment of soil health district? A. Massage Hands D. * Thermograph B. Soil micro-district territory is characterized as moderately polluted in titre anaerobes. Which of the basic principles of hardening is not taken into account? A. * Use of gloves.

In the cold period at moderately low temperatures the population of this region feels very cold. low activity was observed in the classroom for physical education. * Ultraviolet failure B. Evaporation D. which could have a negative impact on human health. Cold period was characterized by low air temperature. Conduction E. Such an action of environmental factors is called: A. Radiation C. Noodles 232. Radiation 233. Insufficiently treated waste water for industrial enterprises are thrown off into the river. * Preliminary B. Joint D. During the medical examination the children complained of drowsiness. Milk D. constant cloud cover. For the population living in radiation contaminated areas.230. and poor appetite. * Convection B. Direct C. During laboratory studies of blood revealed a violation of phosphorus-calcium metabolism. Bread C. Found fit for work in this production. Complete E. Meats E. Uncomfortable microclimate indoors . This contributes to the death of some organisms. Work is made to work. underwent medical checkups. the water which is used for drinking water. Heating microclimate in the premises C. * Fruits and Vegetables B. weakness. snowfall. Prikarpatskiy region is characterized by constant high (greater than 80%) moisture content of air. Planned C. disruption of water purification processes and the deterioration of its quality. In this regard. Which of the following products are the primary sources of pectin? A. * Indirectly B. Complex 231. This is due to increased heat transfer by: A. What type of health maintenance inspection was working? A. in order to eliminate from the body of radionuclides are encouraged to include in the diet pectins. Periodic D. The reason for this state of children can be: A. the stay of children of preschool institutions in the open air was limited. Cooling microclimate indoors D. Complex E. Combined 234.

Radiation E. Soil . 3rd group D. Radiation and convection 237. Microclimate of premises is as follows: average temperature 330 C.animals . For the success of the treatment. was diagnosed with beriberi. Physical and mental development of responsible age. chronic diseases and morphological abnormalities were found. Soils . was admitted to the neurological department. Convection C.microorganisms . the radiation temperature + 300C. Lighter in the schedule of training sessions for high school students must be: A. Physical development is harmonious. flu. Milk and milk products E.the simplest . Wednesday E. Friday 239. Throughout the year. * Thursday B. Soil . Excessive exercise 235. Soil . Fruits and vegetables .man C. * Evaporation B.man 236. 5th group 238.E.insects . * Bakery with bran B. For weed control on agricultural lands for a long time used herbicides on the degree of stability in the environment are stable. Monday C. 1st group C. relative humidity 52%.man E. Schedule drawn up for the whole academic year. High School operates on a 5-day workweek.0 m / sec.people D. Conduction D. Indicate the most likely route of exposure to the soil in the human body: A. * 2nd group B.man B. 4th group E. the patient's diet should be primarily to increase the content: A. Tuesday D. * Soil . air velocity 1. the time-depth medical examination schoolgirl sick 4 times of acute respiratory viral infection and acute catarrhal sore throat.plant . The patient was 45 years. Meat and meat products C. In conducting in-depth medical examination at school pupil O. Specify your preferred way to heat at such micro-climatic conditions: A. Fish and fish products D. Which group of health is a girl? A.

Intensity of labour E. Organization of medical check-up . Actinometer E. heating and summer cooling in the winter climate. Increase the concentration of CO2 241. Noise C. are associated with neuro-emotional stress.1 mg/m3. Explore the source of water leads and organizes A. asthma. In studying the sanitary conditions in the classrooms of biology found: KEO 1. The use of personal protective equipment E. representative of the Food 243. Application of booths with radiation-cooled walls D. To provide drinking water in the field of personnel Cavalry Regiment must locate the source of water supply and organize the supply of water.7 %. representative of the medical service C. * Light meter B. Catathermometer D. cough. Infrasound D. zam. the CO2 concentration 0. Are the sanitation standards? A. feeling of pressure on the eardrums. To make the metal products of high hardness of quenched in furnaces with induction heating at a temperature of 800-900° C. oznobopodobny tremor and movement in the bowel. unit commander for logistics E. Unit air showers C. nausea. In the House of the therapeutic department should analyze the level of natural light. * Screening stoves as sources of radiation B. Thermal radiation in the workplace reaches 1800 kkal/m2. Since the action of a factor do you associate complaints worker? A. air temperature 18 °C. During the medical examination harbour crane driver complained of dizziness. Reduced temperature D. Anemometer C. Reduce air cube E. * Match B. infrasound. Work performed at height. Work at height 242. chemical service representative D. * Vibration B.240. Reduced KEO C. air cube on a student's 12 m3. Psychrometer 244. The workers to vibration: general and local noise. Indicate which device is used to determine the level of natural light: A. Which of the following preventive measures is most effective for the prevention of overheating in these circumstances? A. * representative of the Engineering Services B.

At the hospital hygiene survey found that the area per bed in the wards for two beds and more is as follows: infectious disease clinic for children . Specify the root causes of the poisoning. etc. B. infectious disease clinic for adults . Lead. In the radiological E. B. * Kyphosis B. . Infection in children C. in intensive care wards . 400-bed D. In intensive care 248. a sharp decrease in cardiac activity.7 m2. sleep disturbances. Criteria match. Employees of the laboratory for the production of measuring instruments (pressure gauges.10 m2. In some wards area per bed does not meet hygienic requirements? A. For the construction of hospitals in the town set aside land with total area of 2. Lordosis C. * Correlation coefficient. From the spinal column. More than 1000 beds 247. C. * 100-bed B. staggering gait. Toluene. stomatitis. * In burn B. With the help of indicators most appropriate to analyze these data? A. in a radiological department .0 hectares. his head bent forward. the chest is flattened. Standardized rate. thermometers. A. Stooping D. an increase of depth of the cervical and lumbar curvatures. * Mercury.8 m2 in burn wards .13 m2. Tetraethyl. Indicator signs. In 11-year-old boy during a preventive medical examination determined the kind of posture. the relation between work experience and the content of eosinophils in the blood. the abdomen is convex. diarrheal effects.9 m2. 249. Corrected E. Do workers who work in shops dye textile mills in the region D. 200-bed C.) complain of a metallic taste in the mouth. In the infectious adults D. Established that the child's shoulders inclined and brought forward. Up to 800 beds E. D. Normal 246. What kind of posture detected in a child? A.245. D. Hospital which maximum power can be built on this land? A. Manganese. E. Student's criteria. C. E.

daylight ratio . potatoandcarrot E. Pumpkin 253. Celery. For assessing the physical development of the child to determine the length and weight. Window-to-floor area ratio B. The length and weight. chronic rhinitis and vegetative dystonia.0. V group. Therapeuticand preventive diet №1 E. dynamometry B. 251.1:4. parsley D. IV group. * Daylightratio D. Therapeutic and preventive diet number №3 D. Which of the following indicators are to physiometrical? A. Functionality of the body is reduced. Angleofincidence 254. windowtofloor area ratio . Depthratio E. birchandapple B. held dynamometry. Milk . circumference of chest (WGC). II group.2. secondary sexual characteristics.5%. * Vitamin preparations B. Cabbage. I group. Bakers at bread production work in conditions of high temperature and high heat radiation. The number of permanent teeth E. WGC C C. window opening angle . * III group. Assessing the health status of graduates of general secondary school. the number of permanent teeth. Windowopeningangle C. Study of natural illumination for a workplace in a secondary school classroom revealed that the angle of sunlight incidence was 25°. the doctor found one of the disciples of hypertrophy of tonsils third degree. For health reasons this student refers to: A. What juice should be included in a complex drug and dietary therapy for patients with gastric ulcer or duodenal ulcer and increased gastric juice acidity in order to accelerate the ulcer healing? A. Apple. What is used to increase the body’s resistance to the unfavorable effects of these harmful work environment factors? A. lung capacity (LC). E. * Potato. Pectin C. C. cabbageandcarrot C. B. * LC. depth ratio . Annual increase in body length 252. the annual increase in body length. D.3°. Secondary sexual characteristics D. What indicators do not meet hygienic standards? A.250.

Vegetablebroths E. Fe 256. Mushroom broths C. * Numberofcoli-phages C. 6 hours before. J E. His job involves neuro-emotional stress. Occurrence of these symptoms is associated with the quality of drinking water from a deep well. diarrhea with watery smelly feces. Shigella E. * Salmonella B. A 48-year-old male in-patient undergoes treatment for essential hypertension of IIB stage.255. Ca C. The disease might have water origin. Colibacillus 257. Organophosphates . In this case. Carbonatedbeverages D. fried potatoes with stewed meat. Vibriocholerae D. one can assume intoxication with the following substance: A. Meatbroths 258. Campylobacter C. Oxidability D. * Tetraethyllead C. Some of the population of a city district have uneven teeth color. fever up to 39°C. Index of fecal coli-forms B. Which of the following components of water can be the cause of the disease? A. drank some juice. Which of these foodstuffs do not stimulate the central nervous system and can be recommended for the patient? A. sensation of having a hair in the mouth. It is known from history that he works in a design engineering office. vomiting. bradycardia. transverse brown stripes on the incisors. epigastric pain. What pathogenis likely to have caused this condition? A. an outbreak of hepatitis A was registered. * Whole milk B. Escherichia coli index E. A 33-year-old male patient developed a condition that had a stormy clinical course: chills. The individuals have white spots. Presence of benign leptospirosis pathogen 259. he ate a raw egg. An employee of a petrol station with 15 years of service record having contact with ethylated gasoline presents with memory impairment. This assumption can be confirmed by growth of the following values of water quality: A. skin paresthesia. In an urban settlement situated on the riverbank. Mg B. * F D. Nitrobenzene B.

Free E.D. * II E. muscular hypotonia. V D. pediatric and radiologic departments that are connected to the main building by underground walkways and above-ground covered skybridges.0 D myopia. A 12-year-old boy presents with nausea. frequent repeated vomiting that first occurred after eating canned vegetables. reduced body resistance. Radiograph shows diffuse nodules sized 3-4 mm in the middle and lower lung fields. anisocoria. Shigellosis 263. Silicosis C. III 264. A city somatic hospital with 300 beds has a main building which houses the therapeutic and surgical departments. Decentralized C. Several separate buildings house the maternity. dysphagia and dysarthria. What disease can be suspected? A. Centralized 261. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Leadchloride E. mydriasis. Radiation D. I B. Specify the building system of the hospital: A. Conduction E. Combined D. Carpathian region is characterized by permanently high (over 80%) air humidity. * Botulism B. A 12-year-old girls has minor functional and morphological abnormalities: 1. Objectively: the patient has dry mucous membranes. Benzene 260. * Heavy-metal coniosis . Examination of an electric welder with 15 years of service record revealed dry rales in the lower lung fields. IV C. This is due to an increase in the heat transfer by: A. Yersiniosis D. Silicatosis B. * Central-unit B. Emission 262. Salmonellosis C. The patient has no history of chronic diseases. Over the last year. The girl belongs to the following health group: A. * Convection B. Evaporation C. there were 4 cases of respiratory diseases. In the cold season the population of this region feels very cold at moderately low temperatures. Cholera E.

and window-head-to-roomdepth ratio is 2. * Daylightfactor E. parsley B. * Scoliotic E. Celery. Kyphotic B. What preventive measures should be taken? A. Waist triangles are pronounced on the both sides. Bacterial analysis of air in a living space in winter period by means of Krotov’s apparatus revealed that total number of microorganisms in 1m3 of air was 7200. Upto 3500 D. Fluorineinhalations D. Upto 7500 B.1 mg/l. * Toothbrushing . Window-head-to-room-depth ratio C. Stooping C.What type of posture is detected in the child? A. Carbon pneumoconiosis E. An 8-year-old boy during preventive examination was determined to have changes in his spine curvature in frontal plane: the right shoulder is lowered and flat. window angle is 3°. scapulae angles are of different height due to the right scapula being shifted down. What is the allowed number of microorganisms for the air to be characterized as "pure"? A. Window-to-floor area ratio 268. Windowangle B. It is determined that fluorine content in water is 0. Upto 2500 E.5%. * Upto 4500 C. What parameter does no tcorrespond to hygienic norms? A. Lordotic 269. potato-carrot C. window-to-floor area ratio is 1:4. Waterfluorination C. Cabbage.D. daylight factor is 0. Caries morbidity rate is 89% among residents of a community. Pumpkin D. apple-birch E. Lightangle D. Corrected D. When examining the parameters of desk natural lighting in a school class it was determined that: light angle is 25°. * Potato. What juice is recommended to be included in a complex drug and diet therapy for patientssuffering from gastric or duodenal ulcer and high acidity of gastric juice to speed up ulcer healing? A. Bronchitis 265. cabbage-carrot 266. Apple. Introduce more vegetables to the diet B. longitudinal muscles of the back form muscle cushion on the left. Upto 5500 267.

rye bread. In a pre-school educational establishment the menu consists of the following dishes: milk porridge from buckwheat. Plant C. Social Insurance Fund D. local SES. clinic.5 atmosphere . cucumber salad. functional disorders of the central nervous system. department of Social Insurance Fund.1 mg/l. Introduce more vegetables to the diet 272. * Technolgical disposal B. Clinic 271. The case is investigated by a commission including the representatives of: the plant. trade union. This condition may be caused by the excessive concentration of the following microelement in food or drinking water: A. Sealant application E. pasta with minced meat. Caries morbidity rate is 89% among residents of a community. Rye bread E. What dish should be excluded from the menu? A. Kissel (thin berry jelly) D. * Local SES B. ossification of ligaments and joints. It is determined that fluorine content in water is 0. Clinic of a research instutute for occupati onal diseases examined a worker who works at a concentration plant and diagnosed him with chronic dust bronchitis. Incineration C. Sealantapplication 270. Fluorine inhalations D. During meat testing Trichinella was detected in diaphragm crura in one of the two muscular tissue samples. Examination of a group of persons living on the same territory revealed the following common symptoms: dark-yellow pigmentation of the tooth enamel. . Nickel D. Trade union E. What preventive measures should be taken? A. * Fluorine B. the commission should be headed by the representative of the following authority: A. Tooth brushing C. Milk porridge from buckwheat C. What tactics should a doctor choose regarding this meat? A. * Pasta with minced meat B. Cucumber salad 274. Iodine E. * Water fluorination B. diffuse osteoporosis of bone apparatus. Cesium 273. . Boiling under 1. According to the ”regulation on investigation of.E. kissel (thin berry jelly). Copper C. ” .

River D. road building and maintenance. Trade union committee of the plant D. * Game room of a nursery group B. Medical unit of the plant E. * Sanitary and epidemiological station B. Bedroom of a preschool group E. Adverse microclimate 279. Rain water E. Silicatosis .D. Melt water 276. What is the provisional diagnosis? A. transportation of ore to fragmentation and sorting factories and transportation of barren rock to slag- heaps. A doctor who revealed the case of ”acute occupational disease (intoxication)” must notify the following authority: A. A planner designs a heating system for a pre-school educational establishment. High content of explosion gas C. The highest air temperature should be in the following room: A. * Siderosis B. Freezing under -12oC 275. rock and ore excavation. Bedroom of a nursery group D. Vibration D. Silicosis C. * High content of dust in the air B. Preservation in 10% salt solution E. After a lengthy march an army regiment has set camp for 3 days near a settlement. Sanitary-hygienic investigation detected several water sources. Survey radiograph of a 52-year-old worker of an agglomeration plant (28 years of experience. Pulmonary function is not compromised. Common room of a preschool group C. * Artesian well B. Plant administration C. Choose the source that would satisfy the demands for potable water the most under the given field conditions: A. The patient has no complaints. Noise E. Ministry of Public Health of Ukraine 278. Brook C. Anthraco-silicatosis D. What factor of production is most important for miner’s health? A. the concentration of metal dust is 22-37 mg/m3 ) shows mildly pronounced interstitial fibrosis with diffused contrast well-defined small nodular shadows. An emergency situation at a chemical plant caused acute occupational intoxication. repair works. Gymnasium 277. The process of open-cut mining requires drilling and blasting operations.

meat. * Somato-stochastic B. mental changes. Anthracosis 280. potato-carrot B. Genetic D. Celery. fruit. Somatic C. During medical examination of a group of children under 4 years carried out by a pediatric team in one of the African countries a set of similar pathological signs was detected in some of the children. Heterosis . Apple.5%. Milk. changes in hair and skin pigmentation. window-to floor area ratio is 1:4. * Potato.3% 283. 0. Cabbage. * Fish. and window-head-to-room-depth ratio is 2. swellings.05% C. berries E.15% D.patient hospital unit. Maximum permissible concentration of carbon dioxide in the air is considered to be a sanitary index of air purity in a classroom. cereals B. Light angle 284. cabbage-carrot E. Hormesis E. parsley 282. Cereals. The signs are as follows: growth inhibition. vegetables. What food products should be added to the diet to treat this disorder? A. apple-birch C. Window-head-to-room-depth ratio E. berries 281. fruit D. These children were diagnosed with kwashiorkor. Poultry. * 0.What concentration of carbon dioxide in the air is accepted as a permissible maximum? A. fruit. daylight factor is 0. muscle atrophy. window angle is 3 o . Currently he is being treated at an in. Window-to-floor area ratio D. Window angle C. Pumpkin D.E. 0. Vegetables. A 46-year-old patient once took part in elimination of breakdown at an atomic power plant. vegetables C.1% B. What juice is recommended to be included in a complex drug and diet therapy for patients suffering from gastric or duodenal ulcer and high acidity of gastric juice to speed up ulcer healing? A.2% E. * Daylight factor B. What parameter does not correspond to hygienic norms? A. 0. 0. He was diagnosed with progressing somatoform autonomic dysfunction. This disease relates to the following group of ionizing radiation effects: A. When examining the parameters of desk natural lighting in a school class it was determined that: light angle is 25o.

Vibration disease. It is determined that fluorine content in water is 0.Blood test: decrease of sulfhydric groups content in blood. A. * Mercury B. Specify what service deals with sociomedica assessment of temporary disability: A. Introduce more vegetables to the diet 286. * Wate r fluorination B. * Vibration disease. hygiene and preventive treatment facility.1 mg/l. II stage. Boron D. Chromium E. Ministry of Defence medical committees. Fluorine inhalations D. time of hand temeperature restoration is 52 minutes. For a long time to eradicate weeds on agricultural lands herbicides retaining in environment have been used. What preventive measures should be taken? A. * Soil-plants-human B.Test revealed increased vibration sensitivity threshold at the frequencies of 63-125-259 Hz to 25 dB. Point out the most probable way of herbicides reaching human organism from soil: A. Lead 289.285. Residents of an industrial community situated near a plant suffer from increased morbidity rate caused by nervous and endocrine system conditions and kidney diseases. Establishments participating in medical examinations include: medical and preventive treatment facility. Sealant application E. Hygiene and preventive treatment facility C. Blanching at pressure symptom is positive and equals 21. Cold stimulus test is positive. Ministry of Domestic Affairs medical committees 287. Cadmium C. Ministry of Defence medical committees E. Soil-insects-human 288. I stage. A tractor driver with the record of service of 24 years has undergone palestesiometry test (Vibration Sensitivity Measurement). sociomedical expert committees. etc. Dynamometry is 20 kg on the right and 16 kg on the left. caused by local vibration . * Medical and preventive treatment facility B. Soil-animals-human D. forensic medicine agency. caused by localvibration C. Ministry of Domestic Affairs medical committees. Sociomedical expert committees D. caused by combined vibration D. The pathologies developed can be caused by environment being polluted by the following: A. Soil-microorganisms-human C. Caries morbidity rate is 89% among residents of a community. Soil-protozoa-human E. II stage.Make the provisional diagnosis. Vibration disease. Vibration disease. caused by combined vibration B. Hypesthesia of upper and lower limbs is observed and can be classified as "gloves"and "socks"polyneuritic pattern. I stage. Tooth brushing C.

A sample of milk was taken for testing from a 5 ton milk batch. III (a) D. Annihilate the product 293. Technical utilization D. ?A child is 6 years old. acidity . Pulmonary function is not compromised. Survey radiograph of a 52-year-old worker of an agglomeration plant (28 years of experience. I stage. Ebert counter. The patient has no complaints. What way the product is to be used in? What would you advise? A. Anthraco-silicatosis D. Silicatosis E. Physical state is satisfactory.040 g/cm3. Write the product off for animal feeding C. Krotov's apparatus. * I B. Sell without limitations E.1. Silicosis C. Mischuk's device E. Geiger's counter D.E. A.04 g/cm3. Ebert's device . * Sell but inform customers about milk quality B.1. What way is the product to be used in? A. reductase probe . Mischuk device. Siderosis B. specific density . Lab analysis showed the following: fat content 2 %. A 5 tons milk batch was sampled. Ebert's counter C. Anthracosis 291. acidity 210T. The student has the following devices: Geiger counter. Vibration disease. caused by general vibration 290. * Sell but inform customers about milk quality B.weak-positive. The lab analysis revealed: fat content 2%. Specify hi health group: A. * Krotov's apparatus B. Do the product away 294. Discard for animal feeding C. III (b) E. What device can he use to assess air germ pollution? A. the concentration of metal dust is 22-37mg/m3 ) shows mildly pronounced interstitial fibrosis with diffused contrast well-defined small nodular shadows. Utilize technically D.210Т. reductase probe – weak positive. III (c) 292. Sell without limitations E. specific density. II C. Ebert device. Within one year of observation he had URI that lasted 8 days.

* Discomfortable microclimate B. This is indicative of A. She was ill with acute respiratory infection for five times. All conditions are OK 296. Social Insurance Fund D. * 160-200 L/day B. ventilation rate is 2.3 m/sec. Constant entry of organic protein contaminations E. A student lives in the modern house in the flat with a complete set of sanitary equipment (WC. According to the "regulation on investigation of…". Basing upon the data of laboratory assessment of sanitary state of soil in a certain territory. noise level constitutes 30 dB. height is 3 m. Trade union E. light coefficient is 1/5. department of Social Insurance Fund.5/h. Define the group of her health. air movement velocity is 0. 500 -600 L/day 298. Thyreotoxicosis patient is in the two-place hospital ward of therapeutic department. 10-15 L/day C. 3rd group D. * Territorial SES B. clinic. the commission should be headed by the representative of the following authority: A.o. Poor lighting D. trade union. contaminated according to the coli titer.295. the soil was found to be low-contaminated according to the sanitary indicative value. 1st group C. Air temperature is 200С. territorial SES. relative humidity is 45%. low-contaminated according to the anaerobe titer. Insufficient insolation and aeration of soil . Make a hygienic assessment of these conditions. Clinic 299. shower. 300-400 L/day E. Non-effective ventilation C. A 9 y. Old fecal contamination D. A. girl has an average height and harmonic growth development. A. How much water consumption has he got? A. 5th group 297. local water heater). The case is investigated by a commission including the representatives of: the plant. High level of noise E. Plant C. The area ofthe ward is 18 m2. Insufficient intensity of soil humification C. * Fresh fecal contamination B. 50-100 L/day D. Clinic of a research institute for occupational diseases examined a worker who works at a concentration plant and diagnosed him with chronic dust bronchitis. bath. 4th group E. * 2nd group B.

during walking the patient lands onto his heel first. A patient who had eaten mushrooms in the morning was delivered to the infectious diseaseshospital at night. The disease development was rapid. Morels C. Fly agarics D. D. Sulfur-tufts E. fat and carbohydrate share in the energy value of daily ration with the recommended shares of these nutrients? A. Hypovitaminosis of B1 301. thenon the external edge of foot. Evaluate compliance of protein. Vinyl chloride C.300. C. This occupational disease was the most probably caused by contact with the following industrial poison: A. * Vibration disease B. * Benzidine B. and dystrophic changes of myocardium. What pathology can be suspected? A. There are also gastrointestinal disorders. Nutrient content complies with the recommended shares of energy value 302. fatigability. frequent diarrhea. Periodical survey of a worker of a chemicals plant revealed a malignant neoplasm on the urinarybladder. Objectively: muscle asthenia. A patient who has been consuming refined foodstuffs for a long time complains aboutheadache. E. Caisson disease C. What mushrooms are most likely to have caused mycetismus? A. Russules 304. depression. burning thirst. Carbohydrate share is insufficient D. Hypovitaminosis B15. insomnia. Hypovitaminosis B6. Overwork symptoms E. headache and dizziness. Fat share is insufficient C. A patient complained about problems with pain and tactile sensitivity. * HypovitaminosisB1. * Deadly amanita B. pain and cramps in the gastrocnemius muscles. The patient presented with stomach pain. He died on the third day. Hypovitaminosis B12. Noise disease D. irritability. pain in the nail bones at the end of the working day. carbohydrates – 59%. Hypovitaminosis B2. He works at a plant with mechanical devices. intractable vomiting. fats – 25%. B. Nickel carbonyl . 303. Cardiovascular system exhibits tachycardia. there is excess of proteins B. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. hypoxia. * Carbohydrate share is insufficient. Carbohydrate share is excessive E. Study of actual diet of an adult revealed the following: proteins make up 16% of energy value ofdaily ration.

the tins were greased with inedible fat. * Disharmonious B. Above the average D.72 cm (+0. A 46-year-old patient once took part in elimination of breakdown at an atomic power plant. Disease prevention C. Melt snow water 307. A district doctor was commisioned with a task to work out a plan of treatment-and-prophylaxis actions for the population of his district. rust was absent. circumference of chest . Heterosis 306. Supernormal 309. Somatic C.D.5 ?). Harmonious C. Examination of a 13-year-old boy reveals that his body length is 147 сm (+2 ?). Specify the bloat type: A. Rehabilitation actions 308. * Artesian well water B.2 ?). Sharply disharmonious E. A children's health camp received a party of tinned food. Asbestos E. Hormesis E. Estimate the harmonicityof the child's physical development: A. Currently he is being treated at an in-patient hospital. It is necessary to choose the source complying with the hygienic standards for drinking water in the field conditions: A. Rain water E. body weight – 38kg (+1. This disease relates to the following group of ionizing radiation effects: A. * Physical B. External examination of the tinsrevealed that they had deep dents. Genetic D. Combined . could be easily concaved when pressed and wouldn't immediately return to the initial state. The sanitary- epidemiological reconnaissance found several water sources. A military unit stopped for 3-day's rest in an inhabited locality after a long march. River water D. Improvement of population's living conditions E. Biological D. Elimination of disease causes D. Spring water C. He was diagnosed with progressing vegetative insufficiency. * Prevention of disease complications B. * Somato-stochastic B. Arsenic 305. Chemical C. What actions of secendary prophylaxis must he includeinto this plan? A.

Broth C. Systematical cleansing of surfaces from the radioactive contamination and shortening of working time 314. What measures are to be taken to protect personnel during working with radioactive sources of such type? A. Blood D. What criteria was used to evaluate work of loaders? A. During the periodic medical examination an assembly fitter (works on soldering details) didn't report any health problems. manually break coagulatedmass by shovel and shift it. Cardiovascular system C. Capsulation of devices and organization of room ventilation C. * Lead B. Closer examination revealed signs of asthenic-vegetative syndrome. Diseasesof what organs and systems are the most frequent among workers of such enterprises? A. What products is the patient allowed to eat during recovery period after cancelling of starvation? A. Value of static loading for the shift C. On physiologic-sanitary examination of railway department work it was revealed that loaders work is of III degree of difficulty. Ethanol 313. At the radiological unit of a hospital gamma-devices of radiotherapy of "Agat" type and other closed sources of ionizing radiation are used for treatment of malignant neoplasms. Workers of fishery are subjected to low temperatures of the air (from 5 till 150C). Tin E. % to the shift duration E. Physicochemical 310. The increase of distance to the source and individual hygiene compliance E. Time of active activities. A patient undergoes inpatient treatment with the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Mercury D. urine had a high concentration of delta-aminolevulinic acid. Screening of the source and the use of means of individual protection of respiration organs D. Manganese C. Intellectual efforts 311. Time of passive observation. * Reduction of working time and screening of the source B. Blood included red blood cells with basophilic aggregations and a somewhat higher number of reticulocytes.E. Boiled meat . The complex of symptoms indicates the initial stage of chronic intoxication with: A. Gastrointestinal tract 312. To sparepancreas as much as possible the doctor prescribed for him starvation for 1-3 days. Liver E. * Respiratory system B. They unload vagons with sand. % to the shift duration D. * Maximun load weigh which is shifted B. * Potato and carrot mash B.

* Anthracosis B. People with chronic pathologies and disposed to frequent and long-lasting diseases D. To study physical development of children and adolescents. Milk E.D. Dermatologist E. Siderosis E. Determination of body weight 316. What medical expert should be the chief of the commission that periodically examines the workers of the mentioned category? A. A district doctor keeps the record of reconvalescents after infectious diseases. Byssinosis D. People disposed to frequent and long-lasting diseases C. What diseases influenced upon the index value? A. Study of morbidity with temporary disability among workers of a machine building plant revealed that average duration of a case was 20 days. Ophthalmologist C. Grape juice 315. anthropometric studies are widely used. Measurement of growth C. What category of patients should belong to the III health group? A. Reconvalescents after infectious diseases and patients with chronic pathologies E. * Therapeutist B. What occupational respiratory disease may develop in miners? A. Talcosis 319. Acute C. Determination of thorax form D. Determination of vertebra form E. Otolaryngologist 318. Allergic nasopharyngitis C. people who are disposed to frequent and long-lasting diseases. All above mentioned categories 320. and had early signs of obesity (grade I-II) with Quetelet index from 26 to 30. Working conditions of a building company worker are characterized by cooling microclimateeffect. caustic alkali (quicklime) and noise. A. Preexisting diseases E. * Chronic B. * Determination of vital capacity of lungs B. * Bakery products . During coal extraction in a mine the concentration of coal dust in the working area is 450mg/m3 (MPC is 10 mg/m3). During a regular medical examination at a metallurgical plant 20\% of workers were found overweight (body weight was 5-14% higher than normal). Neurologist D. Subacute D. Hard to determine 317. Choose a physiometric method of study from the below given. What products share must be reduced in the diet of thisgroup of people in the first place in order to normalize their body weight? A. patients with chronic pathologies. * People with chronic diseases B. silica-containing dust.

Milk and dairy products E. * Mercury B. * Correlation coefficient B. Presence of mixed (superolateral) light 325. At's planned to construct multifield a new hospital in one of the cental city districts. Coefficient of variation D. Walking on the fresh air E. Student's coefficient C. who study from 9 a. Blocked 324. Bath with hydromassage 322. What building type is the most appropriate in this case? A. Hygienic shower D. Decentralized D. Chrome 323. Vegetables C. Meat and fish products 321. Fruit D. Whatprocedure has the most hardening power? A. newborns blindness. Representation error . Mixed E.B. * Natural light coefficient B. Centralized C. In a forest summer camp children have variable procedures to harden their organisms. Strontium C.m. Cadmium D. During inspection of sanitary conditions of studying at a technical university it was necessary toevaluate the visual regimen of students. Iron E. Morning exercises on the fresh air C. What index of naturallight will be the most informative? A. * Contrast shower B.m to 3 p. Light coefficient C. Time of the room insolation E. 200 patients suffering from essential hypertension were examined in order to obtain data aboutpatients' arterial pressure and age. What statistic value should be applied in order to measure relation between these characteristics? A. * Centralized and blocked B. There is a dynamic growth of number of congenital abnormalities such as central paralysis. idiocy among the population that lives near to pesticides production enterprise. Depth of study room D. Compounds of which pollutant can cause the development of this pathology? A.

B6-hypovitaminosis E. metal. Violation of dietary pattern 328. vit. Median-dispersed C. * Energetic unprofitableness of nutrition B. As a result of prophylactic medical examination a 35 year old woman was diagnosed with alimentary and constitutive obesity of the III degree. Creation of cozy atmosphere 330. carbon oxides that have negative influence upon the inhabitants' health. vit. Atmospheric air of an industrial centre is polluted with the following wastes of metallurgicalplants: sulphuric. Her daily ration includes the following vitamines: vitamineА–0. Ultrafine-dispersed E. * Fine-dispersed B. below 2 nm (about 2%).0 mg. Hospital profile C. Associated . vit. over 5 nm(6%). Characterize thedustdispersivity: A. Mist 329. Excess of carbohydrates C. Wall reflection coefficient E. prefers fattening and rich in carbohydrates food.5 mg. C-hypovitaminosis 327.E. B1-hypovitaminosis C. 2-5 nm (2%).В1–2. B2-hypovitaminosis D. * Combined B. Coarsely dispersed D.В6– 2 mg. It is known from her anamnesis that the patient doesn't observe rules of rational nutrition: she often overeats.С– 70 mg. Complex C. * Windows orientation B. The effect of these hazards can be characterized as: A. Diseases of patients who will be staying in these wards D. On examination: dry skin. What is the main alimentary risk factor of obesity development? A. the last food intake is usually 10-15 minutes before going to bed. On medical observation a doctor identified girl (162 cm tall and 59 kg weight) who complainedloss of ability to see surrounding objects clearly in the evening. vit.5 mg.hyperkeratosis.В2– 2. Lack of cellulose E. nitric. Excess of fats D. What is the hypovitaminosis type? A. * A-hypovitaminosis B. The air of a foundry worker's working zone contains condensation aerosol with dust particlessized 2 nm (90%). Sygmal deviation 326. The major repair of a hospital included renewal of colour design of hospital premises because it is of great psychological and aesthetical importance. and so the walls of patient wards will be painted under consideration of: A.

* Tinned food B. 2 D. What statistic method allows to eliminate influence of this factor upon morbidity indices? A. Analysis of dynamic series E. Cabbage 334. * To limit physical work B. 3 E. * Standardization B. To administer protein-and-carbohydrate diet C. An outbreak of food poisoning was recorded in an urban settlement. sleepiness. Adjacent E. What foodstuffs should be chosen foranalysis in the first place in order to confirm the diagnosis? A. The illness was diagnosed as botulism on the grounds of clinical presentations. Wilcoxon's t-criterion C. His work requires using of hand and pedal levers that involves considerable physical force. nausea. 1 C. 5 . delirium of persecution. * 4 B. Pasteurized milk D. Calculation of average values 332.D. To improve health at the Black sea coast E. Hypertensive crisis E. Potatoes C. * Intoxication with carbon oxide B. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Posttraumatic encephalopathy D. What is the maximum number of beds that can be exploited in this ward? A. A 42 year old metalworker has been working at the turning machine for production of heavy large- size parts for 5 years. A driver had been fixing a car in a closed garage and afterwards complained about headache. Boiled meat E. hypertension. Asthenovegetative syndrome 333. What means for osteoarthrosis prevention should be recommended? A. To go in for weightlifting 335. Intoxication with ethyl gasoline C. dizziness. Mixed 331. muscle asthenia. Objectively: pulse and respiratory rate elevation. To administer protein-and-vitamin diet D. Correlative regressive analysis D. The total area of a ward at the therapeutical department is 28 m2. Study of morbidity rate in a city N revealed that population of different administrative districts differed in age structure. excitement.

Amount of operating-rooms E. What device was applied formeasurement of the biodose? A. A width of the green planting is on a perimeter D. What parameters donot answer hygienical requirements? A.rooms is 1:4-1:3.336. Which from the resulted indexes does not corresponds to the the hygienical requirements? A. * area of operating-rooms C.5m. Doctor's consulting room D. Distance from a pathology anatomical building to the patient building is 32 m.0.9 m. UV-meter C. Catathermometer 337.1 : 9. area of planting of greenery – 72 %. Which one from the resulted indexes does not hygienic requirements? A. a ward and a lock chamber. Actinometer D. Light coefficient . in buffets is 1:6-1:7. * area of buildings B.2. area of orchads 2. The amount of ultraviolet radiation dose was measured in minutes. Light coefficient B. and between beds and external wall is 0.5 m. in operating-rooms and dressing . coefficient of day light . * Gorbachev's biodosimeter B. The boxes consist of a tambour. Radiometer E. In wards and doctors rooms a light coefficient is 1 : 8 . area of greenery E. An area. Nursing room Назва наукового напрямку (модуля): Семестр: 12 Estimation of the environment state and its influence on a health of population (situation tasks) Опис: 6 course med Перелік питань: 1.5 %. Windows oriented to the north . Patient's examination room E. taken under building hospital. Distance between beds in a ward . * Bathroom unit B. It is planned to make complete isolation boxes in the infectious department in order to prevent osocomial airborne infections. occupies 29 % of the land. What structure should be also included in a complete isolation box? A. Orientation of windows D. Distance between beds . Manipulation room C. In the erected surgical separation of 60 beds two which are planned operating-rooms of an area to 10 and 20 m2. coefficient of day light 3. The perimeter of the green planting area has width 1.1:2. Distance is from patient building to the pathology anatomical building C.

Isolator of infectious department has an area of 22 m2. * Combination of economic and pathology anatomical areas B. Not less than 15 m E. Distance between beds and external wall C. infectious building. Not less than 50 m B. What violation is assumed at planning of area? A. pathology anatomical corps. Isolator in infectious department has an area of 27 m2. On what distance from the boundary of area must a medical building be located? A. and hospital garden. 3 D. separate infections and non infectious areas E. On the front of area a medical building is located. What maximal amount of beds can he be expected on? A. * 2 C. On land of rural district hospital on 60 beds such areas are selected: medical building for non- infectious of patients. 25 % B. in a center is a hospital garden. 2 C. 4 E. medical building for infectious patients with the separated green areas. presence of infection and pathology anatomical buildings in hospital 8.rooms E. The Light coefficient in operating-rooms and dressing . with the bar of the green planting. and also economic area together with pathology anatomical separation. and at back of territory are economic structures. kitchen. and obstetrics . A location of infectious separation is on the area of hospital D. 6 5. 3 D. Not less than 20 m C. On lot land of hospital at the mixed system of building select a main corps. economic buildings. polyclinic. Separation of green areas C. What are the maximum numbers of beds in this ward? A. * less than 30 m D.gynecological building. 5 6.B. 35 % . * 1 B. Not less than 25 m 7. Land of the centralized hospital has a rectangular form a size 200 x 300 m. The Light coefficient in buffets 4. 4 E. 1 B. What must be the maximum percentage of build up hospital in the area? A. * The Light coefficient in wards and doctors rooms D.

Centralized D. relative humidity of air is 48 %. Block 11. On lot land of rural district hospital on 100 beds there are such areas: Zone of medical departments for noninfectious patients. B. * discomfort microclimate of cooling type C. Mixed E. Results of estimation microclimate of newborn wards are next: the middle temperature of air is 20 °C. A clearing the air by bactericidal lamps.C. speed of air is 0. * Centralized-block B. Results of estimation microclimate of ward of therapeutic department is next: the middle temperature of air is 20 °C. discomfort microclimate of heating type D. * Combination of economic and pathology-anatomic department D. Planned construction of a multi-disciplinary hospital in one city N. discomfort microclimate with the increased humidity of air E. relative humidity of air is 58 %. medical departments for infectious patients with the separated garden zone. discomfort microclimate of cooling type C. Presents of infectious department on the area of hospital B. The content of microorganisms in the air before the operation 3500/m3 . separated garden zone C. Give hygienic estimation of microclimate of ward. 20 % D. * 15 % E. What violation is assumed at planning of hospital? A. discomfort microclimate with the increased speed of air 12. discomfort microclimate with the increased speed of air 13. and after the operation was 1500m3 . speed of air is 0. comfort microclimate. Presents of pathology-anatomic department on the area of hospital 10. What type of building most expedient in this case? A. discomfort microclimate with the increased humidity of air E. How much should decrease the content of microorganisms to sanitation was considered effective? A. A. Decentralized C. Differentiation of areas for infectious and noninfectious patients E. and also economic area in which located pathology-anatomic department. Give hygienic estimation of microclimate of ward.2 m/s. * 80% .2 m/s. A. 10 % 9. * comfort microclimate B. discomfort microclimate of heating type D.

the air balance is negative. family D. The ward on Cardiology hospital blowing ventilation provides air flow volume of 50 m3 per hour in 1 patient. not less than 50 m 15. and second floor occupies department of pathology of pregnancy. Dressing room E. Operating room C. 60% E. * volume ventilation inadequate. Location of physiology maternity department on the second floor. The temperature is 20 degrees. B. the air balance is zero. the norm . the norm . light coeficient is 1:6. Select a room to which these conditions meet the hygiene standards: A. The ground floor occupies the observation obstetric department. Select a room to which these conditions meet the hygiene standards: A. targeting the south. Lobby 17. volume ventilation inadequate. Location of observation maternity department on the first floor C. targeting the east. * Boxing for infectious patients B. 40% D.not less than 50 m3/hour 1 patient D. Corridor 18. On the facade of area the located medical corps. What change is required by the maternity department? A. Location of department of pathology on the ground floor 16. Check bandaging E. not less than 25 m D. 20% C.not less than 40 m3/hour 1 patient C. not less than 15 m B. volume ventilation inadequate. A. The hospital lot land of the centralized hospital has a rectangular form with size 200х300 m. at back of territory . The temperature is 20 degrees. All floors unite by the channels of extraction ventilation.hospital garden. On what distance from the border of area a medical corps must be disposed? A. doctors room D. Handling C. * Location of observation maternity department on the second floor E. the norm .B. in a center .economic structures.at least 60 m3/hour 1 patient B. Assess the adequacy of ward ventilation. first floor occupies physiology maternity department. not less than 20 m C. light 1:6 ratio. * Chamber for adults B. volume ventilation inadequate. * not less than 30 m E. the norm . The obstetric department is located in three-storied building. Location of physiology maternity department on the ground floor D.not less than 80 m3/hour 1 patient . 99% 14.

South E. * North D. with significant fluctuations of key parameters 20. West B.88%.bed room . discomfort. cool type 22. with the high humidity of air D. During the study of microclimatic terms of hospital chamber: area . 1-bed . such as heating E.1:5.0. South-west 21. Discomfort. the content of carbon dioxide . the average temperature .20 %. Clear D. haemolytic streptococcus . the speed of air .72 %. Comfortable C. 19. transference of surgical block is planned from a underground on 1-floor of the building.35 m / s. In the ward section of somatic hospital on 40 beds an amount of 4-bed rooms is 60 %. * Average net B. Discomfort. Width of corridor is 2. It is contaminated 23. A.0.bed room E.4000 bacteria/m3. type of heating E. Amount of 2-bed room D. coefficient of natural luminosity - 0. * Discomfort.72%. Discomfort. middle temperature of air - 16 °.5 m. What part of the direction is it necessary to orientate the windows of new operating hall on for creation of optimum terms of labour of surgical personnel? A. the norm .35 m/s. light coefficient . the rate of light . Give a hygienical estimation the microclimate of hospital room. Give hygienic assessment of climate hospital room A. * General amount of beds B. East C.1%.6 m3. the rate of natural illumination .at least 100 m3/hour 1 patient. Which from the resulted indexes does not answer hygienic requirements? A. with high humidity D.1:5.20 %. Discomfort. relative humidity . rate of movement of air . relative humidity .16 ° C.88 %. A. cooling type B. Discomfort. Width of corridor C. During the micro-climatic conditions of hospital wards is set: the area . Amount of 1. Amount of 4. Volume ventilation inadequate. During the reconstruction of city hospital in town.6 m2. Very clean C.0. To estimate the degree of purity of the air. Contaminated E. * Discomfort. In the laboratory study of the quality of air chamber for patients in the summer it was found that bacterial semination . 2-bed .25 KUO/m3. Comfort C. located on 55° to North.E.0. with lot of vibrations B.

Isolator of infectious department has an area of 22 m2.rooms is 1:4-1:3. In wards and doctors rooms a light coefficient is 1 : 7 . What maximal amount of beds can he be expected on? A. speed of air is 0. * the Light coefficient in buffets 25. relative humidity of air is 48 %. * comfort microclimate B.24. discomfort microclimate of cooling type C. discomfort microclimate of heating type D. On what distance from the boundary of area must a medical building be located? A. * comfort microclimate B. discomfort microclimate with the increased speed of air . Distance between beds B. the Light coefficient in operating-rooms and dressing . in a center is a hospital garden. Results of estimation microclimate of ward of therapeutic departmenis is next: the middle temperature of air is 21 °C. discomfort microclimate of cooling type C. Not less than 20 m C. * less than 30 m D. and between beds and external wall is 1 m. relative humidity of air is 55 %.2 m/s. Distance between beds and external wall C. Distance between beds in a ward .rooms E. 3 D.9 m. the Light coefficient in wards and doctors rooms D. at back of territory are economic structures.0. 2 C. in buffets is 1:9-1:10. On the front of area a medical building is located. Which from the resulted indexes does not corresponds to the the hygienical requirements? A. discomfort microclimate with the increased humidity of air E.1 m/s. A. Not less than 50 m B. Not less than 25 m 27.1 : 6. in operating-rooms and dressing . Give hygienical estimation of microclimate of ward. Land of the centralized hospital has a rectangular form a size is 200x300 m. discomfort microclimate with the increased humidity of air E. * 1 B. Give hygienical estimation of microclimate of ward. A. 4 E. Results of estimation microclimate of ward of therapeutic departmenis is next: the middle temperature of air is 20 °C. discomfort microclimate with the increased speed of air 28. discomfort microclimate of heating type D. Not less than 15 m E. speed of air is 0. 5 26.

the rate of natural lighting (PAC) 2%. air speed 0. * The level of artificial lighting 30. Operating C. Location of departmen of pathology on the ground floor 33. Select a room to which these conditions meet the hygiene standards: A. The area for building by hospital corps is 19 % of lot land.1 m / sec. Location of physiology maternity departmen on the second floor. Check bandaging E. Ratio of natural lighting B. light 1:6 ratio. The temperature C. The speed of air movement E. area of planting of greenery – 62 %. relative humidity of 55%. B.What change is required by the maternity departmen? A. Area of planting of greenery E. * Location of observation maternity departmen on the second floor E. The obstetric departmen is located in three-storeyed building. Location of physiology maternity departmen on the ground floor D. * Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for all hospitals D. A. Sanitary conditions in the manipulation are following indicators: air temperature 20 0 C. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements only for hospitals with centralized system of building 32. and second floor occupies departmen of pathology of pregnancy. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements C. Relative humidity D. * The area for building by hospital corps C. the air balance is negative. The area of ward on 4 beds in the therapeutic departmen of city hospital is 28 m2. area of garden zone – 30 m2 on one bed. Area of garden zone 31. Distance from a patologo-anatomic departments to the ward departments – 32 m. family D. Green planting is placed on a perimeter of area with width 15 meters. Which one from the next indexes is not hygienical? A. * Boxing for infectious patients B. All floors unite by the channels of extraction ventilation. Distance from a patologo-anatomic departments to the ward departments B. Corridor . The ground floor occupies the observation obsteric department. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for city hospitals only B. Does it corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements? A. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for children hospitals only E. Location of observation maternity departmen on the first floor C. Width of the green planting on the perimeter of area D. first floor occupies physiology maternity departmen. Which of the following indicators requires correction.29. the level of artificial lighting 80 lx. targeting the east. The temperature is 20 degrees.

Wet D. When examining sanitary working conditions of doctors in the operating climate received the following parameters: T is 22. When examining sanitary working conditions of doctors in the operating climate received the following parameters: T . in buffets is 1:6-1:7. the content of CO2 is 0. Air B. Distance between beds in a ward . -75% humidity.1 m / s. To 750 D. the multiplicity of air is 8. air speed is 0.1%.0 m. The speed of air movement E. The content of CO2 35. To 300 B.0. Temperature C. D. Infrared radiation air 37. * The content of CO2 36. Distance between beds and external wall.1%. Which the index of general microbic number must be in this case? A.5% solution chloramines in the air C. humidity is 55% . Air conditioning E. * The Light coefficient in operating-rooms and dressing . General bacterial contamination of air was definitely in dressing – room of surgical departmen to beginning of work.rooms. In wards and doctors rooms a light coefficient is 1 : 5 . Distance between beds. Which from the resulted indexes does not corresponds to the the hygienical requirements? A. Dissipation of 0. of which 125 .1 : 6. the multiplicity of air .9 m.34. 38. * UV sterilizing lamp B. To 500 C. Temperature C. air speed of -0. Decide which of the parameters of climate does not meet hygienic requirements: A. Humidity E. Electro aero-ionisation of air D. While laboratory studies of air hospital wards found: the total number of micro organisms in the air - 2500 to 1 m3.0 ° C. What measures should be undertaken with the purpose of decontamination of air in the House? A.5.rooms is 1:7-1:8. C. To 100 . the content of CO2 . and between beds and external wall is 1.1 m / s.0 ° C.0.haemolytic streptococcus. E. The Light coefficient in buffets. Decide which of the parameters of climate does not meet hygienic requirements: A. * Air D. in operating-rooms and dressing .22. speed of air B. The Light coefficient in wards and doctors rooms. B.

Seignette salt D. Temperature of air in a ward for hyperthyreotic patients corresponds to the hygienic norm. 15(С D.E. relative humidity of air is 48 %. coefficient of day lighting is 1. speed of air is 0. C.0%. discomfort microclimate of cooling type C. E. or elderly people. Quantity of 1. Give hygienical estimation of microclimate of ward. * Temperature of air B. discomfort microclimate with the increased humidity of air E. The coefficient of day lighting. * Griss reactive B. Nessler's reactive C.bed wards. discomfort microclimate with the increased speed of air 40. Which from the resulted indexes does not corresponds to the hygienic requirements? A. discomfort microclimate of heating type D.1 m/s.1 : 6. B. nursing mothers. Which one from the next indexes is not hygienic? A. The Light coefficient in doctor room. Quantity of 2.0 m. pregnant women. * 18( С 41. speed of air is 0. The total quantity of beds. Indicate possible norms of temperature. * To 1500 39. The quantity of 4-beds wards are 60 %. * Width of corridor. Quantity of 4. 24(С C. E. Hydrochloric acid . C.beds wards. B. Relative humidity of air. Results of estimation microclimate of ward of therapeutic departmenis is next: the middle temperature of air is 20 °C. The speed of air in room 43.beds wards. 2-beds wards are 20 %. 20(С B. comfort microclimate. D.5 m/s. 42. In doctor room a light coefficient is 1 : 5 . What reactive used for determine nitrites in water? A. Barium chloride E. A. A. 1-bed wards are 20 %. D. 22(С E. relative humidity of air is 48 %. A water test for nitrate is highly recommended for households with infants. In the ward section of somatic departmen are 30 beds. These groups are the most susceptible to nitrate or nitrite contamination. Width of corridor is 2. temperature of air is 26 °C.

44. nitrate nitrogen is 40 mg/dm3 . * Deironation E. * The water doesn’t conform hygienic requirements. Which one of the following can be use for disinfecting of water on modern system of water supply? A. nitrite nitrogen is absent. * Ultraviolet rays B. Disinfection is an important step in ensuring that water is safe to drink. Chlorine and its preparations C. The water doesn’t conform hygienic requirements. Chemical tablet methods 47. for an improvement quality of drinking-water uses the new methods of cleaning and disinfecting. Time of water's disinfection is decreasing D. Desalinating of water B. Ozone D. A. Softening of water C. Name the method of treatment of this water. Result of water examination are next: iron is 5 mg/dm3. transparency is 10 cm. Group of student studied all about water. Fluoridation of water D. smell and test 2 points. Laboratory testing of the well water sample showed the following results: color 20 degrees. nitrite nitrogen is absent. nitrate nitrogen is 40 mg/dm3 . Filtration C. maintenance of fluorine is 1. The water conform hygienic requirements B. dry residue is 600 mg/dm3. Laboratory testing of the well water sample showed the following results: color 20 degrees. Estimate the water quality. all are correct 45. hardness of water is 6 mEq/dm3. Iodine-containing preparations E. necessary its decolorizing C. necessary its coagulation E. What disadvantages of overchlorination over the chlorination? A. . Don't need to determination chlorine's need of water B. Deodorization 48. necessary its disinfection 49. The water doesn’t conform hygienic requirements. smell and test 2 points. A. necessary its filtration D. * Need dechlorination of water E. Estimate the water quality. * Ozonization B. Don't need calculate the dose of chloric lime C.0 mg/dm3. Boiling E. microbial number is 2. microbial number is 100. The water doesn’t conform hygienic requirements. Coagulation D. transparency is 30 cm. Which one of the following is physical method of water disinfection? A. In a city N. Decontamination 46.

One-glass test B. Adolescents B. Coloring of water C. The term "waterborne disease" is reserved largely for infections that predominantly are transmitted through contact with or consumption of infected water. not more 200 CFU/dm3 C. Transparency of water B. Treating with chloramine . Disinfection is an important step in ensuring that water is safe to drink. * UV radiation D. not more 10 CFU/dm3 E. Adult women E. necessary its coagulation E. What indexes belong to organoleptic? A. necessary its decolorizing C. not more 1000 CFU/dm3 B. Treating with bleaching powder E. Elder person 51. not more 50 CFU/dm3 D. * All are correct 53. Five-glass test 54. Students during lesson of hygiene studied all about water. Smell of water D. necessary its disinfection 50. * Three-glass test D. necessary its filtration D. The water doesn’t conform hygienic requirements. * Children under 5 years of age C. Four-glass test E. The water doesn’t conform hygienic requirements. Waterborne diseases are caused by pathogenic microorganisms that most commonly are transmitted in contaminated fresh water. Treating with potassium permanganate C. * not more 100 CFU/dm3 52. Adult men D.A. The water doesn’t conform hygienic requirements. * The water doesn’t conform hygienic requirements. Water borne diseases affect mostly A. The maximum desirable limit of general microbes number in drinking water is A. Chlorination B. The water conform hygienic requirements B. What test they used for determination of the chlorines need of water? A. Which of the following physical method is used as germicidal in modern time for the treatment of drinking water? A. Two-glass test C. Students examined water and determine chlorines need of water. Taste of water E.

A 24-year-old patient felt sick in 16 hours after dried fish intake. residual nitrogen — 0. double vision. alopecia of the back of the head. 1000IU every other day B. Thyrotoxicosis . Napthtochynones deficit 60. Excess fertilizer C. Paraophji B. What medical condition is the most likely to occur among the inhabitants of this city? A. chlorides — 250 mg/L. there was decrease of a muscle tone. curative gymnastics and vitamin D. * Fluorosis B. The patient skin is dry. 1000 IU daily D. Folic acid deficit E. Food toxicoinfection B.о. Coliform bacteria in water is an indication of the presence of A. swimming and other domestic and industrial uses. Hypotrophy E. folliculitis signs of the face skin are present. The adolescent of 15 years old was brought to the hospital with complaints of poor night eyesight.5 mg/L. 500 IU every other day 58. aged 1 month. Spasmophilia 59. What is the dosage and frequency of vitamin D administration? A. bathing. scales off. * Human feces E. Prevention of what condition should be recommended in the first place? A. nitrates — 43 mg/L. ferrum — 0. On physical exam. Decaying animals and plants D. A pediatrician examines a healthy mature-breast-fed baby. vomiting. contains fluoride — 2. Radioactive wastes B. 500 IU daily C. A 2. * Rachitis C. Salmonellosis E. Thiamine deficit B. * 3000 IU daily E. weakness. Bitot's spots on conjunctiva.55.2 mg/L. The child is prescribed massage. child presents with muscle hypotonia. Toxic substances 56. anisocoria. What is a cause of this disease? A. Acute encephalitis 57.5 y. * Retinole deficit D. There was nausea. flabbiness. On physical exam: increased darkness adaptation time.0 mg/L. flaccid swallowing and tendon reflex. The bacteriological examination of water is performed routinely by water utilities and many governmental agencies to ensure a safe supply of water for drinking. Anaemia D. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. С. * Botulism C. Biotin deficit C. Water that is used for supply of the city. Acute gastritis D. sweating.

consulted doctor very rarely. The patient went fishing two weeks ago. * Potassium iodide C. The dermal integuments and scleras are icteric. A 33-year-old woman works as the secretary. Her diet contains 150 g of protein (including 100 g of animal). The patient was admitted to the hospital on the 7-th day of the disease with complaints of high temperature. Medical examination of a man revealed "geographic tongue". * Protein control B. Vitamin D C. What is the diagnosis? A. Trichinellosis E. Cystamine B. Methemoglobinemia 61. A man. headache. Which radioprotector is expedient in this case? A. Suffered from acute glomerulonephritis as adolescent. This microsymptom is the evidence of the following vitamin deficiency: A. headache. Salmonellosis B. * Vitamins of B group 65. Yersiniosis 64. On laboratory investigation signs of chronic renal failure first degree were found. What nutrition recommendations are the most suitable for this patient? A. Vitamin PP D. was at his working place during the breakdown on the nuclear power plant. Vitamin C B. What pathology this diet can cause? A. Carbohydrate control D. Fluid volume increase E. Caries D. weight and appetite loss. 600 g of carbohydrates. A 48-year-old woman complains of fatigue.23 µmol/L). Urine is bloody. There is hemorrhagic rash on the skin. Has not systematically undergone medical treatment. Leucine E. (creatinine — 0. Suffers from arterial hypertension since age 25. * Leptospirosis C. Ingestion with the increased content of the" "alkaline" food C. Brucellosis D. Vitamin A E. Valine 63. 200 g of fat.C. especially in calf muscles. pain in the muscles. power-supply system operator. aged 28. Endemic goitre E. Thiourea D. Uterine fibromyoma . Adipose control 62. In the result of the steam-air explosion there was an emission of circa 30 kg radioactive iodine (I131). Paradontosis B.

Carbohydrate share is insufficicent B. * Retinole deficit C. folliculitis signs of the face skin are present. The patient skin is dry. leucomoide reaction. child is asthenic. fat and carbohydrate share in the energy value of daily ration with the recommended shares of these nutrients? A. Thiamine deficit D. * Nutrient content complies with the recommended shares of energy value C.59%. * Worm invasion C. Copper D. * Zinc C. Common cold 66. Hypoplastic anemia E. Schizophrenia E. * Fruit and vegetebles . Carbohydrate share is excessive D. A severely traumatized patient who has been receiving prolonged parenteral alimentation develops diarrhea. Bread C. Evaluate compliance of protein. * Obesity D. Fat share is insufficient E. scales off. Administration of which of the following trace elements is most likely to reverse these complications? A. fats . Iodine B. A 4-year-old child attends the kindergarten. mental depression. Napthtoquinone deficit B. What products are the main source of pectins? A. Complaints of the bad appetite. Objective examination: skin and mucous membrane are pale. Meat B.C. A 15-year-old teenager complains of poor night vision. Duodenal ulcer D. carbohydrates . Silicon E. Bitot's spots on conjunctiva. fatigue. In the hemogram: hypochromatic anemia 1st. Study of actual diet of an adult revealed the following: proteins make up 16% of energy value of daily ration. Carbohydrate share is insufficient.25%. there is excess of proteins 68.. Folic acid deficit E. alopecia and perioral and periorbital dermatitis. of the eosinophile type. Selenium 67. Lymphoprolipherative process B. What is the cause of the disease? A. What pathology must be excluded at first? A. Biotin deficit 69. Atrophic gastritis 70. People who live in the radiation polluted regions are recommended to include pectins into their dietary intake for the radioactive nuclides washout. Physical examination: increased darkness adaptation time.

Calcium deficiency C. Chromium D. A 33 y. * Malnutrition C. Pellagra E. What will be the BMI of a male whose weight is 89 kg and height is 172 cm- A. Paradontosis D. Xerophthalmia 76. His complaints of nightblindness. Milk E. Bitot's spots on conjuctiva.o. * Retinole deficit E. tachycardia. The patient's skin is dry. What deficiency does these symptoms show? A.D. Adequacy nutrition E. works as a secretary. * Iron deficiency B. it indicates A. Schizophrenia E. Folic acid deficit C. 200 g of fat. Biotin deficit B. and edema? A. Obesity B. Common cold 73. and dyspnea on exertion. Selenium 74. folliculitis signs of the face skin are present. Over nutrition 75. Kwashiorkor D. scales off. * Zinc C. 600 g of carbohydrates. If chest measurement is less than the circumference of head. Her diet contains 150 g of protein (including 100 g of animal protein). What is the cause of this disease? A. patient. Normal development D. Thiamine deficit D. palpitations. * Obesity B. Uterine fibromyoma C. the measurement of circumference of head and chest is useful. Copper B. decreased ability to taste food. dry skin with hyperpigmentation. Manganese E. What illness is characterized by next symptoms: tiredness. A 15 year old adolescent was taken to the hospital with complaints of poor night vision. What pathology can result from this diet? A. 27 . A 36-year-old alcoholic patient has cirrhosis and pancreatic failure due to recurrent pancreatitis. To assess the nutritional status of children less than one year. Objectively: increased darkness adaptation time. Napthtochynones deficit 72. weakness. Macaroni 71.

45 77. * Fluorosis 81. A 33-year-old woman works as secretary. Common cold D. * Fruit and vegetables E. Water that is used for supply of the city. Methemoglobinemia D.5 mg/L. ferrum 0. * Obesity B. Schizophrenia 78. nitrates 43 mg/L. To study physical development of children and adolescents. chlorides 250 mg/L. Milk B. Endemic goitre B. What medical condition is the most likely to occur in inhabitants of this city? A. Uterine fibromyoma E. Thyrotoxicosis E. with mass of body 60 kg get the feed with day's ration a 45 g protein. Meat 80. Determination of body weight E.0 mg/L. D. B. * Determination of vital capacity of lungs .2 mg/L. Choose a physiometric method of investigation from the below given. Paradontosis C. Student. A. 200 g of fat. * 30 C. What products are the main source of pectins? A. Determination of thorax form D. Meat 79. residual nitrogen 0. a 55 g fat and insufficient quantity of calcium. Determination of vertebra form C. People who live in the radiation polluted region are recommendation to include pectins into their dietary intake for the radioactive nuclides washout.B. 19 years. and 600 g of carbohydrates. Carrot. Honey C. Caries C. Measurement of growth B. What pathology can effect this diet? A. Fruits. anthropometric investigations are widely used. Macaroni D. 33 D. contains fluoride 2. Her diet contains 150 g of protein (including 100 g of animal). Bread C. What products must be foremost plugged in a ration? A. * Cheese E. 36 E.

VII D.12 sigma. Rate of movement of air D. III (c) D. Mass of body. Mass of body.even distributing of loading on the days of week. Individual indexes of mass of body +1. * Physical development of child above average. and also presence of the second sexual signs . in V . disharmonious B. presence of the second sexual signs C. * V 86.1 m/s. Physical development of child is middle. Relative humidity C. A 9-year-old child with diagnosis «chronic tonsillitis" stands dispanserization control. and rate of movement of air 0. Physical condition is satisfactory. Give the estimation of physical development of schoolboy after the scales of regression. in VI . Mass of body and circumference of thorax E. Mass of body. * Growth and mass of body B. harmonious E. * III (a) 83.33 sigma but to circumflex of thorax +1. Temperature and rate of movement of air. What minimum list of indexes it is necessary for estimate the level of physical development of children? A.82.on Tuesday.on Wednesday. Physical development of child is sharp disharmonious C. circumference of thorax. harmonious 85. I B. Which from the parameters of microclimate is not to the hygienical norm? A. Define group of health: A. Physical development of child is high. VI C. II C. ІІІ E. For 1 year of observation there was one exacerbation of disease. * Temperature B. After the medical examination of children of primary school doctor gave conclusion about they physical development. harmonious D. The general state is not infringed. IV B. A bad-room of pre-school institution such parameters of microclimate were exposed: 18 0С. 84. presence of the second teeth D. Physical development of child above average.on Friday. in IV . A size of length of body of boy 10 years is in scopes from М+1 sigma to М+2 sigma. A. After the grade scale of complication of objects the most sum of marks is in the III class on a Monday. in VII . relative humidity 50 %. What class the timetable of lessons is built in correctly? A. Temperature and relative humidity E. III (b) E.

7 sigma) and circumference of thorax is 44 cm (-1. Temperature B.1 %. Disharmonious C. Negative factors for a health is absent B.1 m/s. and rate of movement of air 0. relative humidity of air – 58 %. In a playroom of pre-school institution such parameters of microclimate were exposed: 20 0С. What diseases are possible at these students? . Rate of movement of air D.1 %. mass of body is 30 kg (-1. Not proportional E. D.1 m/s. Growth of girl l 0 years old is 127 cm. temperature of air – 27 0С. Relative humidity C. Temperature and relative humidity E. Illnesses of spine E. Temperature. Harmonious B. Estimate physical development of girl. Head pain. Estimate physical development of boy. LC . Which from the parameters of microclimate is not to the hygienical norm? A. . Middle D. concentration CO2 – 0. A. Which from the parameters of microclimate is not to the hygienical norm? A. Temperature and rate of movement of air.2 sigma). * Overheating 88. Growth of boy 13 years old is 144 cm. There are following data of hygienic inspection in classroom: CNI (coefficient of natural illumination) is 1. relative humidity of air – 78 %.7 %. 92. Low E. * Harmonious B. mass of body is 24 kg (-0.1 sigma) and circumference of thorax is 64 cm (-1.9 sigma).7 %. Temperature and rate of movement of air 91. Worsening of sight C. relative humidity 70 %. temperature of air – 20 0С. Rate of movement of air.1: 5. * Disharmonious C. LC . B. High 89. High 90. * Relative humidity C. A. There are following data of hygienic inspection in classroom: Coefficient of natural illumination is 1.87. In a playroom of pre-school institution such parameters of microclimate were exposed: 22 0С.1: 5. D. concentration CO2 – 0. * Temperature and relative humidity E. and rate of movement of air 0. Middle D. relative humidity 80 %. What diseases are possible at these students? A.

LC .3 %. * Head pain D.1: 5. gamma-devices of radiotherapy of "Agat" type and other closed sources of ionizing radiation are used for treatment of malignant neoplasms. * Negative factors for a health is absent B. Ionization C. Capsulation of devices and organization of room ventilation E. Effects of radiation E. The increase of distance to the source and individual hygiene compliance B. Illnesses of spine E. LC . Radiation D. Cold. B. Illnesses of spine E. Exposure dose Назва наукового напрямку (модуля): Семестр: 11 Hygiene and ecology ( test ) Опис: 6 курс мед .7 %.A. There are following data of hygienic inspection in classroom: Coefficient of natural illumination is 0. C. Which one from the following is major factor which forms a climate? . Negative factors for a health is absent. Head pain D. Systematic cleansing of surfaces from the radioactive contamination and shortening of working time C. What are the measures to be taken to protect personnel at the time of work with radioactive sources of such type? A.1: 10.диф залік Перелік питань: 1. Worsening of sight. Cold. Worsening of sight C. relative humidity of air – 58 %. * Radioactivity B. 93. concentration CO2 – 0. * Worsening of sight C. temperature of air – 20 0С. E. What diseases are possible at these students? A. Cold 95. relative humidity of air – 58 %.1 %. Head pain D. Negative factors for a health is absent B. concentration CO2 – 0. Illnesses of spine. There are following data of hygienic inspection in classroom: Coefficient of natural illumination is 1. The property possessed by some elements of spontaneously emitting energy in the form of particles or waves by disintegration of their atomic nuclei is named A. Screening of the source and the use of means of individual protection of respiration organs 96.7 %. What diseases are possible at these students? A. * Shortening of working time and screening of the source D. At the radiological unit of the hospital. temperature of air – 20 0С. 94.

1000 mg E. The occurrence of pellagra is mist common in - A. Ragi E. Lemon C. 400 IU B. Highest vitamin A content is seen in- A. Young adults D. 2000 IU D. 300 IU C. 20 mg B. B. * All are correct 3. Teenagers B. The highest quantities of vitamin C is found in A. Daily requirement of vitamin A is - A. Grapes D. Orange B. 500 mg D. Carrot E. Safety in the radiological attitude E. Waters. Prevailing winds. C. Tomato D. * 1000 IU 5. Growing children C. Green leafy vegetables C. Height above sea-level. must correspond to the demands: A.A. Lemon B. Type of earth’s surfaces. D. E. * Fish oils 6. Have good organoleptic features B. Distance from sea. All of these E. Have suitability by its chemical content C. 200 mg C. Daily requirement of vitamin C is - A. The absence of pathogenic microorganisms D. which used for drink and everyday needs. * Geographical position 2. * Blachberry 4. * 100 mg 7. * Adults in later life . 4000 IU E.

None of these E. Bitot’s spot affects palpebral conjunctiva 12. * 0. Phenylalanine D. * Xerophthalmia usually begins with a drying of the conjunctiva E.0 mg D. Indian gooseberry E. Methionine B. * Apple 9. Vitamin A B. 2 g/kg B. * Tryptophan 13. Apricot C. Spinach D. Which one of the following statements about clinical features of vitamin A deficiency is A. Margarine E. Poorest source of vitamin C among following is A. Vit A deficiency cause follicular hyperkeratosis of the skin D. * Potato 10.5 mg B. 3 g/kg . Red carrot B. Bitot’s spot affects bulbar conjunctiva C.8. Cabbage C. 1. Guava D. Lysine E.0 mg C. Daily requirement of protein for adults is - A. * Vitamin B12 11. Vitamin B1 C. 0. 5. Carotene is not found in high amounts in - A.05 mg 14. Tyrosine C. Niacin is synthesized from A. 1. Orange B. Night blindness occurs due to impaired dark adaptation B.0 gm E. For every 100 kilocalories vitamin B1 required is - A. All are vegetable origin except A. Vitamin C D.

Protein content is highest per 100 g in - A. * meat . Deficiency of vit PP 17. eggs C. Follicular hyperkeratosis B. In kwashiorkor the principal deficiency is A. conjunctival xerosis D. hens egg D. * Xerophthalmia 18. * Anemia 19. Vit C D. bread E. milk B. What from next clinical symptoms NOT characteristic for xerophthalmia A. liver D. Deficiency of iron C. keratomalacia E. Pellagra C. Kwashiorkor B. fish E. Sources of vitamin A is NOT A. A C. butter B. * meat 16.C. * Vit B1 20. Fluoride B. Which disease is the clinical manifestation of vitamin A deficiency? A. * 1 g/kg 15. Scurvy E. rice C. What nutrient is NOT necessary for the development of the teeth and their surrounding structures? A. * Deficiency of proteins B. Fe-deficient anemia D. Vit. Phosphorus E. Night blindness C. 5 g/kg E. 4 g/kg D. Deficiency of fats E. Deficiency of calories D.

Increase a radiation B. * Deficiency of calories and proteins 24. Dietary iron is absorbed near A. * Wheat 23. Deficiency of iron and vit. Pregnancy of women B. In nutritional marasmus the principal deficiency is A. Maize E. Work indoor E. Which one of the following is not reason of osteomalacia? A. Meat B. C deficiency of the mother C. 50 % D. Deficiency of fats D. Mixture of foods E. C C. Iron is poorly absorbed from A. Severe calcium deficiency of the mother B. How does high humidity of air influence on the ways of heat loss of man ? A. Severe protein deficiency of the mother E. Fish D. Lactation of women D. Goiter occurs predominantly among peoples because of their use of A. Some fish B. Diet containing very little fresh fruit or vegetables D.21. Severe vit. 25 % C. 10 % B. 90 % E. * Drinking milk 27. * Severe iodide deficiency of the mother 25. Lack vitamin D in diet C. Cretinism is usually due to A. Decrease a convection . Deficiency of proteins B. * Diet with lack of the mineral nutrient iodide 22. Deficiency of vit PP E. * 5% 26. Refined or polished rice C. Poultry C. Severe iron deficiency of the mother D.

* Decreases evaporation 28. Sunstroke B. * Frost-bitten 31. What air temperature stops the heat loss by convection ? A.C. 37 °C D. Convection C. Asthmatic state D. Infectious diseases E. Perspiration D. Hypertensive crisis C. Which one of the following way of heat loss depends on speed of air? A. General hyperthermia D. Cold diseases B. Stroke E. Convection C. Increases evaporation D. Perspiration D. 13 °C C. Perspiration and radiation E. Which one of the following way of heat loss depends on temperature of subjects contacting with body? A. * Burn . 20 °C B. What pathological change in an organism is caused by the local action of high temperature ? A. Decrease a radiation E. Heat-prostration B. * Heat-prostration 29. 0 °C E. * Conduction 33. What unfavorable change is caused by high temperature of air ? A. Hypothermia D. Inflammatory diseases C. What pathological changes in an organism is cause by the local overcooling ? A. * 33 °C 32. Violation of thermoregulation of organism E. Sunstroke C. Radiation B. * Conduction 30. Perspiration and radiation E. Radiation B.

Heat loss by this way depends on speed of air moving A. Radiation B. * Conduction 35. Evaparation B.5 . * Increase in CO2 38. Which one of the following way of heat loss does prevail in the conditions of comfort microclimate? A. The norms of speed air moving in the rooms is A. Increase of temperature B. Humidity E. Perspiration C.3 m/sec 39. Kata Thermometer is used to measure A. * 0.0. Condaction D.7 m/sec C. 0. Humidity of air B. General humidity E.6 . Increase in humidity C. * Radiation 36. 0. * Cooling power of air 37.1 . 3 . What type of air’s humidity using for estimation of microclimatic condition? A. 2 -3 m/sec D. Convection C. Minimum temperature C.8m/sec B. Convection D. None of these E. All of these E. All of these E. Middle humidity C. which not characterized microclimate: A. * Relative humidity 40.0. Temperature .0. The cause of discomfort in an overcrowded ventilated room are all except A. Decrease in air change D. Radiation heat D. Maximum humidity D. Name the parameters.34. Maximal temperature B.4 m/sec E. Minimum humidity B.

How often must clear up dust-bin (garbage-can) in the hospital departments A. Absent wind B. In condition of comfortable microclimate human feels himself good. * Minimum 2 times per a day . is A. Minimum 2 times per a week C. Loss of heat. Minimum a 1 time per a day E. by transfer B. which depends on difference between temperature of a skin and temperature an air. All are correct E. Atmospheric pressure in a norm D. Minimum a 1 time per a week B. 80-100 % E. Radiation D. Relative moisture D. by evaporation E. The most of the heat human’s organism loses A. Absent psycho emotionally stress C. by convection C. because A. Speed of air motion D. Conduction B. * Heat production equal to heat loss 42. * by radiation 46. 70-80 % C. * 30-60 % 45. Evaporation C. What parameter of the microclimate we can measuring with the help of Kata thermometer? A. Point of dew C. Normal indices of air’s humidity is A. Minimum a 1 time per 2 days D.C. * Convection 44. 20-30 % D. 10-20 % B. A room is well lighted E. Radiation temperature E. Air temperature B. by conduction D. Resulting temperature E. * Chemical structure of air 41. * Speed of air moving 43.

Where is working place of nurse on duty in the ward section? . * Cholera 53.0 % E. length of incision C. the duration of hospitalization before surgery D. 52. vibration) C. * exposure and isolation of source of infection 48. increase of atmospheric pressure D.0 % D. To wards hospitalize infectious patients with the following illnesses A.47. use of antibiotics E. isolation of patients with the promoted temperature E.5 % B. noise. inefficient illumination and intence light loadings E. Previous disinfecting 5 % by solution of chloric lime and burial place on the ground of domestic wastes (dump) D. At the presence of Nosocomial infections in hospital is necessary to use the definite group of measures of a prophylaxis.0 % C. mechanical vibrations (ultrasound. 10. Utilization on waste factory B. which don’t increasing the risk of developing a hospital infection A. 0. * 0. A compatible delete is with hospital hard wastes E. Name harmful and dangerous factors in work doctors which do not belong to physical A. 1. strengthening of control after sterilization of instruments C. Hepatitis B B. Hepatitis A C. The project of reconstruction of central district hospital is foresee building of dermatological and oncological department . Food intoxication E. For estimation of efficiency of ventilation in wards determined concentration of CO2 in air .1 % 49. disinfection in all apartments of the hospital B. specific immune prophylaxis D. What system of disposing of wastes will be according to hygienical requirements? A. 5. Separate export by the special transport on the ground of domestic wastes C. Name the factor. Which one from next has the primary value? A. Ionizing and laser irradiation B. * opening the windows 50. the level of wound contamination B. * Psychophysical. Food toxic infection D. What maximal admissible concentration of carbonic dioxide may be in ward? A. * Collection in air-tight capacities with next incineration in the special setting on territory of hospital 51.

Near manipulation room E.A. below the second floors in the isolated part of hospital C. Extract D. concentration of smeech gas . Natural B. Plan on which existing is inflicted and objects are projected D. Central steam C. By the dining-room C. In a separate building B. * Iron-deficient anemia 59. selected under building 55. What heating must be used in hospitals? A. Ventilation of ward is carried out by the frequent opening of small hinged window the pane for a day. Which index help to estimate efficiency of ventilation? A. at absence of the medical documentation C. skin diseases of infectious ethyology E. Wave-drawing with predominance of extraction E. * on ground floor in the isolated part of the hospital 56. Receiving department of general hospital has to be located A. Panel-effulgent E. Who one of the following pregnant women is NOT reception in observation department of the maternity house ? A. Central air D. Near doctor`s room D. Inflowin C. acute respiratory disease B. Situation plan is: A. At the end of corridor B. Plan which the vertical cuts of the projected object are inflicted on E. by the windows of ward department D. Picture of building B. * Inflowing-extract 58. * Central aquatic nater 57. * In the center of section 54. What ventilation must be used in an operating-room? A. skin diseases of infectious ethyology D. concentration of nitrogen B. By administration of hospital E. * Plan of settlement with denotation of place of location of area. Plan of settlement C. Local B.

* basic metabolism. * The sex of the individual 63. basic metabolism B. How many energy give 1 gram of fat? A. energetic expresses for physical and mental work D. 1:2 D.dynamic action of nutrition. For furnish energy to the bod E. A.5 kcal D. Protection by time 64. 7. Mineral salts are needed by the body A. What is the norm of L. What are the components of daily losses energy of organism? A. nerves and blood 62. For provide support for many organs C. The age of the individual E. Protection by quantity D. * 9 kcal . energetic expresses for mental work and basic metabolism C. * 1: 6 61. (light coefficient) in hospital ward? A. Rate the dose is received C. 6 kcal C. * Protection by temperature B. 4 kcal B. * To maintain tone of muscles. 1:10 C.dynamic action of nutrition 65. For carriers of fat-soluble vitamins D. 1:7 E. Protection by distance C. * concentration of carbon dioxide 60. Size of dose received B. specific . For maintaining our body temperature B. energetic expresses for work. 1: 18 B. Protection by screens E. One of the following is not main principle of protection from closed ionizing radiation. concentration of oxygen E. basic metabolism E. Part of the body exposed D. One of the following is not complicated the occurrence of particular health effects from exposure to ionizing radiation: A. 12 kcal E. specific .C. concentration of dust D.C.

caries of teeth C. * protein 68. The fat content of meat depends on A. mineral and vitamin.66. softening of bones B. carbohydrate and fat B. Diet with lack of calcium B. glucose B. Sores on lips B. Diet containing very little fresh fruit or vegetables E. * cramps 69. The deficiency of K vitamin leads to A. Night blindness D. The disease goiter occurs predominantly among peoples because of their use of A. mental instability C. * All are correct 72. galactose D. The carbohydrate in milks is A. condition at time of slaughter D. * haemorrhage 67. deformed bones E. Some fish C. . stunted growth D. fructose C. Refined or polished rice D. * lactose 70. * Diet with lack of the mineral nutrient iodide 71. liver B. B. maltose E. Body building foods are foods rich in A. the cut of meat chosen E. One of the following is not sources of iron A. E. diet of animal C. meat. One of the following is not effect of deficiency phosphorus A. depression of vital processes E. the type of animal. vitamin and protein D. protein and carbohydrate C.

Potassium.60 %. * For growth and development 76. Green leafy vegetables are A. Proteins are needed by the body A. zinc . * 2. B. Protective foods are foods rich in A. Fluorine.C. * cheese 73. protein and carbohydrate C.10 %.. 50 .5 %. 5. 60 . For provide support for many organs C. minerals and proteins 74. C.55 %. carbohydrate E. * vitamins. * 16 . carbohydrate and fat B.20 %.70 %. C. Energy-yielding foods C. All of above E. Calcium. 80 .. E. * Protective foods 75. sodium B. calcium C. A. Average content of protein in meat is A.90 %. * Iron. chrome E. Whole milk contains next amount of fat A. 77. 78. cereals E. None of above D.20 %. Meat is a major source of . copper D. 3 . eggs D. For carriers of fat-soluble vitamins D.5 . D. 5 . 50 . phosphorus. D.3. Iron. B. E. For stimulate digestive secretions E. 15 . For maintaining our body temperature B.2 %.5 -7 %. fat D. Body building foods B.

C. C. radiographer undergoing a radiographic procedure B. Butter E. leukemia C. E. Originally vitamin C was described as A. A free radical is A. One of the following is somatic pathology of action ionizing a radiation on an organism A. What product is the main source of iron for peoples? A. Milk B. nurse working in an area where mobile radiography is performed . * anti-scorbutic vitamin 80. genetic mutation D. Anti-Rachitic Vitamin E. enzymes and hormones D. B. Any stable particle. ion or molecule with an unpaired electron in the outer shell C. Anti-Sterility Vitamin D. Chess D. Radial burns B. Bread. 85. * For furnish energy to the body 81. Anti-neurotic Vitamin C. For synthesis of antibodies. For repair of body tissues and their maintenance. Cataract D. Carbohydrates are needed by the body A.79. For maintaining body temperature E. acute ray disease C. * Meet 82. * An atom. B. One of the following is somato-stochastic pathology of action ionizing a radiation on an organism A. impotence E. Chronic ray disease 84. For growth and development. cancerogenic effect B. * cancerogenic effect E. A radiation monitor device should be worn by all except A. anti-Dermatitis Vitamin B. Any charged particle. A chemically stable atom. An atom with an even number of electrons D. * chronic ray disease 83.

Less than 1.C. Body building foods C. Cow's milk is rich in next protein A. rice D. * Casein 88. Anthrax E. * More than 1. B. 25 rem B. All are present E. To which group of food belong cereals A. radiographer performing fluoroscopic procedures E. 100 rem C. Tuberculosis B. More than 35 % C.5 % .5 % D. A single whole body exposure to what dose of radiation will almost invariably lead to a persons death in a relatively short time? A. Malta fever D. Brucellosis C. all of above 86. * family member assisting a patient during a radiographic procedure D. Mineral salts E. * meat 89. Myosin D. What food is not include in the base of the Food Guide pyramid? A. Lacto-globulin C. * 1000 rem 87. cereals C. 300 rem D. breads B. Protective foods B. Less than 0. Less than 1. Lact albumen. 600 rem E. What is the hygienic norm of coefficient of daylight in school classes? A. * Energy-giving foods 90. * Botylism 91. pasta E. The important milk-borne diseases is not A. Vitamins D.5 % B.0 % E.

D. Nervous tissue B. * Muscular tissue 94. At the help of what reagent it is possible to determine the presence of soda in milk? A. Tubers. D. Solution rozole acids C. Fruits. E. Solution of Lyogolya B. * Solution sulphuric acid 95. All are present E. Why barley is unsuited for making bread A. its richness in fat C. Roots. All of the above E. B. What group of food not supply heat and energy to the body A. * Casein 93. * 1. Vitamins. 1. B.032 96. Lact albumen B. 2. its richness in mineral salts B. its poor in starch D. To which group of food belong fresh fruits A. Solution phenolphtalein E. C.005 C. The most high-grade proteins of meat are the protein of A.102 E. 1. Average specific gravity of cow's milk is A. Connective tissue C. Cereals. C. Myosin D. Solution of KI. Lacto-globulin C. * its poor in gluten 97. * Green leafy vegetable 98. Body building foods. 0.750 B. .505 D. Energy-giving foods.92. Cartilage D. Human 's milk is rich in next protein A. its richness in gluten E.

C. B. D. Pulses. B. glucose. Rice. C. glycogen. E. E. * Solution of Lyogolya 101. Mineral salts. Elastin. Wheat. D. Roots and Tubers. 100. D. What are called "poor man's meat". What kind of carbohydrates is in meat? A. * pellagra 104. Rice. What vitamin absent in cow’s milk ? . C. goiter. Bread. The most high-grade proteins of meat is A. E. D. B. * Pulses 103. beri-beri. At the help of what reagent it is possible to determine the presence of starch in the sausages? A. Solution of phenolphtalein. potatoes E. Neurokeratin. A. E. 102. D. Collagen. anemia. Solution of rozole acids. Maize. Solution of NaOH. C. * Myosin. B. C. E. D. C. lactose. maltose. Chondroprotein. * Protective foods. B. * Green Vegetables 105. What food maintain the alkalinity of the blood? A. scurvy. Use of maize may cause A. B.D. 99. E. Solution of sulphuric acid. * amylum.

B. and maintenance of extract matters. Vit A. 50 lux C. C. E. iron. connecting tissues and fat. None of this E. * Vit. 109. From correlation of muscular and fat. B. From maintenance of extract matters. E. Bactericide. Vit D. From correlation of muscular. 150 lux B. Vit E. * 300 lux 110.A. What is the hygienic norm of artificial illunination by luminescent lamp in study room? A. 400 lux E. Vitamin A deficiency C. E. C. Stimulated C. B. connecting tissues and fat. Acid secretion in stomach B. Vitamin formation D. * Thermal. Vit C. Chlorides. What does the food value of meat depend from? A. C. E. Cheese is sources of A. D. Iron deficiency D. 107. Protein deficiency B. B. D. From correlation of muscular. Alkaline medium in small intestine . potassium. * calcium. Malnutrition in India is mainly attributed to A. iron and Vitamin A deficiency 111. B. 106. Reducing substances in food C. sodium. What is not effect of influence of UV-irradiation? A. Formation of pigment. 560 lux D. * Protein. * From correlation of muscular and connecting tissues 108. D. Iron absorption from intestine is regulated by A.

* Mucosal block in the intestinal cells in according to iron requirement 112. C. Maximal humidity of air depend from A. The highest quantities of vitamin C is found in A.D. Air is dry when relative humidity is A. Air is moist when relative humidity is A. Lemon C. B. to 85 % E. Temperature of body. * Temperature of air. Gas exchange. D. E. Humidity of air influence on next kind of exchange in human body A. 4000 IU E. * more 60 % 116. to 45 % B. D. Vitamins exchange. Carrot E. How does high humidity of air influence on the ways of heat emission of man ? . 2000 IU D.55 % B. Protein exchange. 300 IU C. to 55 % C. to 40 % E. 50 . 400 IU B. to 55 % D. Fat exchange. Daily requirement of vitamin A is - A. E. 30 . 118. 117. * Indian gooseberry 113. * Heat exchange. Relative humidity.60 % C. Orange B. the deficit of satiation. C. * to 30 % 115. Grapes D. B. * 1000 IU 114. to 70 % D. Atmospheric pressure. Acid secretion in head E.

* loss of appetite. B. . Breathing is deeper and more frequent. When the air is dry and cold. the circulation of blood is increased. Which one of the following is not effects of Cold and Dry Air on the Body. When the rate of evaporation from the body is greatly increased? A. A. C. B. * Heat Stroke. * Decreases perspiration 119. processes of digestion and assimilation are stimulated. for a day and a hour. D. Relative and maximal humidity E. What unfavorable changes for human is caused by the warm moist air ? A. C. 121. E. Caison’s disease. Asthmatic state. Increases radiation B. Increases a perspiration D. Absolute and relative humidity D. Hygrograph registers air humidity changes A. for a hours and a month. Absolute humidity B. When the air is moist and cold. B. B. What functions of hygrograph ? A. E. Overcooling. * for a day and a week. 124. Measuring of relative humidity C. C. metabolism are stimulated. Record of changes of absolute humidity D. Measuring of absolute humidity B. Decreases a radiation E. Decreases a convection C. D. E. Maximal humidity C. Sunstroke. * Record of changes of relative humidity 122. When the air is moist and warm. for a day and a month.A. Measuring and record of changes of relative humidity E. C. 123. for a week and a month D. What humidity measures by a hygrometer ? A. * Relative humidity 120.

for a day and a hour. * frost-bite 128. 126. dry and cold air. E. D. C. blood circulation. Convections and perspiration. E. 130. B. 127. Which pathological changes in an organism are caused by the local action of high temperature ? A. Sunstroke. D. for a week and a month D. Dysfunction of thermoregulation of organism E. moist and warm air. Cold diseases B. * When the air is dry and warm. Which air affects respiratory passages. C. dry and warm air. * for a day and a week. E.D. Which one of the following is a lack of disinfecting of water by the method of the superchlorination? . 129. Heat-prostration. None of above. Measuring and registration of changes of temperature of air C. * moist and cold air. Thermograph registers air temperature changes A. Which pathological changes in an organism are caused by the local overcooling ? A. Measuring of temperature of air B. C. Inflammatory diseases C. kidneys. Thermograph usually used for A. D. Radiation. Infectious diseases E. B. Measuring and registration of temperature of body E. None of above. * Registration of changes of temperature of air 131. Measuring of amplitude of changes of temperature of air D. Hyperthermia. B. Hypothermia D. B. and causes. Low temperature of air conduce to the increase of next ways of heat loses by A. E. C. and rheumatism problems? A. Conduction and radiation. Perspiration. 125. for a day and a month. for a hours and a month. * It was a guardian. * Convections and conduction.

0. Chlorinating B. Rate of filtration water in Slow Sand Filter is A.1 m3/m2/h B. 60-90 liters /days on a man C. for an improvement quality of drinking-water utillized the new methods of cleaning and disinfecting. Which one of the following is methods of desalting of water: . 5-15 m3/m2/h D. * Ozonization 133. A. Which one of the following methods used to accelerate the sedimentation of suspended matters. Boiling D.0-1. In a city N.1-0. Long duration of process of disinfecting E.A. Less than 0. Previous necessary to discolouring of water D. more than 15 m3/m2/h E. Decontamination E. filtration and lightening of water. * 30-50 liters /days on man 135. Coagulation C.5 m3/m2/h 137. Which one of the following can be utillized for disinfecting of water on modern system of water supply? A. 80 min D. 100 min E. 10-30 liters /days on a man B. Contact period of Chlorine solution and water in the well for water disinfection of water must be not less than A. 40 min C. * necessary of dechlorinationof water 132. 200-250 liters /days on a man E. Ozonization C. Wide spectrum of action C. * 60 min 134. Decontamination E.4 m3/m2/h C. Fluoridation of water D. 20 min B. At decentralized water supply on the one inhabitant it is necessary A. * 1. * Coagulation 136. Filtration B. Previous necessary to light water B. 50-100 liters /days on a man D.

Rate of filtration water in Rapid Sand Filter is A.radiation E. To formation of tape from the salts of metals dissolved in water D. Which one of the following is methods of lightening of water? A. Iodide potassium D. more than 15 m3/m2/h E.A. * To formation of biological tape. To form tiny sticky particles called "floc" E. Superfiltration C. 139. Due to what slow sand filter removes organic matter. 0. Which one of the following is methods of desalting of water: A. Deodorization . holds bacteria and oxidizes ammoniacal nitrogen into nitrates? A.4 m3/m2/h C. UV . 1. Coagulation B. Chlorination B. Reagents which are used for coagulation of water. Softening C. * Coagulation 141. * Aluminium sulphate 143. * Freezing 142. Which one of the following is not methods of improvement of quality of drinking-water: A. Coagulation C.1 m3/m2/h B.5 m3/m2/h D. Hyposulphite sodium B. Superfiltration D. Desalting B. Flokulation B. Storage D. Chlorine lime C. To imposition on the surface of filters of the special fabric B. * Distillation 138. Less than 0. To imposition on the surface of filters of polyethylene with the shallow openings C. A. Desaltening D.1-0. Storage E. Decontamination D. * 5-15 m3/m2/h 140. Ammonium chloride E. Ozonization C.0-1. Irradiation E.

filtration B. in moist room E. Decontamination B. elimination of causative agents of intestinal infections C. * Distillation 150. Super Chlorination B. * Fe (OH)3 145. Poliakrilamid E. * Filtration 146. at high temperature D. coli B. Iodination D. elimination of pathogenic microorganisms E. Boiling E. What is not the purpose of disinfecting water? A. FeSO4 D. Coagulation E. What one from the following is not coagulator or flocculators? A. elimination of spore forms D. coagulation C. under solar rays C. Which one of the following is methods of decolorizing of water: A. * Sublimation 144. How correctly to store chloride lime? A. Deodorization C. chlorinating E. in open barrels B. cool places 148. Which one of the following is methods of desalinating of water? A. Chlorinating . FeCl3 C. To the physycal methods of water disinfecting belong: A. * in dark.E. dry. elimination of E. Al2(SO4)3 B. Desalinization C. Stirage D. * change of a chemical compound of water 149. * boiling 147. Which one of the following is methods of lightening of water A. Aeration D.

removal of hangings up matters D. * Aeration 153. Pasterisation D. Sublimation B. * removal of pathogenic microorganisms 154. * 3-5 min 156. Ozonization C. The use of ultraviolet radiation B.B. Ionization C. Application of high-voltage impulsive currents D. * Desinfection 152. Which one of the following is methods of improvement of quality of drinking-water: A. * Coagulation 151. coagulation C. Disinfecting of water is A. The time of water disinfection by ozone is A. irradiation of ultraviolet rays D. filtration E. To the chemical methods of water disinfecting belong: A. Sterilization E. UV-irradiation E. Filtration D. 30 min B. removal of poisonous matters E. Distillation D. removal of unpleasant smell C. Settling B. Flocculation E. Which one from the following is chemical method of water disinfection: A. Boiling . Treatment of water by an ultrasound C. Coagulation C. cleaning it from dirt B. boiling B. 2 hours D. Which one of the following is not methods of decolorizing of water? A. * chlorinating 155. 10 hours E. 60 min C.

Quantityof chlorine for oxidize norganic substances D. Mechanical filters C. None of the above D. Slow sand filter are also called A. How is cleaned slow sand filter A. Which one of the following is methods of lightening of water. Deironation C. Quantity of chlorine. Sterilization E. . All of the above E. * Disinfecting 159. Biochemical D. Desalinating D. * Biological filters 158. Ozonization. * Treatment of water by the ions of silver 157. * All right 163. Fluoridation E. Desalinization D. for acceleration of sedimentation of small particles and duration of process of filtration? A. Washing by chlorine solution. C. * Coagulation. Sublimation C. Quantityof chlorine for oxidize organic substances C. What method of water treatment use for removed coloryty of the water. Bacteriological E. Indicate the basic method of disinfection of water: A. B. A. Pasterisation D. Toxicological B. Softenin E. Biological C. * Physical 161.E. wich absorbted by the hanging up in water matters E. Chlorinating. What is chlorine absorption of water? A. Chemical filters B. * Settling 160. Fluoridation of water B. Ionization B. 162. Quantity of chlorine for oxidize the microorganisms B. Which one of the following is methods of improvement of quality of drinking-water: A.

3-0. resistant to chlorine E. Washing by chlorine potassium permanganate E. Iodine-containing preparations D. is spread over the spores. * necessary of dechlorination of water 168. Mechanical filter C. Iron not more > 0. don’t change taste of water D. * Residual chlorine 0. Washing by water under preasure D. Disinfection of water D. Hardness of water no more than 7 mg eqv/l D. Chemical tablet methods E. Slow sand filter also called: A. Correct choice of dose to the chlorine B.5 mg/l 166. The use to the chlorine and its preparations B. Improvement of the technical state of well C. Physycal filter D. What is reliability index of water well in the epidemiology relation: A. don't denaturate the water B. * by scrapping of the top portion of the sand layer 164. Which one of the following is not the basic stage of desinfection of well: A. Rapid mixing the chlorine with water C. Chlorides no more than 350 mg/l C. Previous necessary to light and decolorize water E. Washing by reversing the flow of water through the sand bed C. Which one of the following is not chemical method of water disinfection A.3 mg/l E. Ozonization C. Sulfates no more than 500 mg/l B. * The use of ultraviolet radiation 167. C.B. Quality control of disinfection after chlorination E. * need lightening and decolorising of water 169. Cleaning of territory round a well B. Chemical filter B. * Fluorination of water 165. Which one of the following is not the necessary condition of the effective disinfecting of water by the method of the ordinary chlorinating? A. None of the above . Disadvantages of UV-irradiation over the chlorination: A. Sufficient time of contact a chlorine with water D. don't change smell of water. viruses and worm eggs.

Chlorinated Lime D. Bacteriological E. (3) >(4)>(2)>(1) D. The following steps may be involved in chlorination of well: A. Disinfection of water D. (1) >(3)>(4)>(2) B. Chemical tablet methods E. Iodine-containing preparations D. * Determination of distance from a well to the sources of contaminate 174. Cleaning of territory round a well B. Biological method D. (3) >(4)>(1)>(2) 176. The use to the chlorine and its preparations B. Chloramine E. Ozonization B. Improvement of the technical state of well C. (1) >(4)>(3)>(2) C. Which one of the following is not the basic stage of desinfection of well: A. chlorine gas C. * Boiling 175. Biochemical method E. Granozan B. * Chemical 172. Biological B. Which chemical matters usually used for coagulation of water: A. Quality control of disinfection after chlorination E. * Aluminium sulphate 173. * Physical method 171. Biochemical C.E. General-sanitary D. What is major categories of water pollutants A. Ozonization C. * Biological filter 170. Bacteriological method C. Which one of the following is not chemical method of water disinfection A. Indicate the basic method of disinfection of water: A. (1) >(2)>(3)>(4) E. Infections agents . Which one of the following is method of softening of water A.

Dangerous in the radiological attitude E. 120 min E. In drinking water samples selected after purification and disinfection by gaseous chlorine the following was revealed: chloroform and threechloracetic acid in concentration three times more than their MAC. * 30 min 178. 60 min D. * Very hard 182.B. * High oxidity and colority 181. Hypertensive disease . A. 10 min B. more effective against bacteria and viruses E. Which one of the following is disadvantages of ozonization of water? A. * All are correct 177. Superficial waters is characterized by… A. One of the following is not characteristic of atmospheric water: A. Constant temperature D. organic admixtures become destroyed C. * All are correct 179. decreasing the transparence of water. Radioactive materials E. 15 min C. Organic chemical C. Time of water's disinfection by superchlorination in winter is A. None of above E. water is well disinfected B. What disease may probably develop as a result of prolong intake of this water? A. Without color C. * costs are higher than other treatment procedures 180. Turbidity of water B. Inorganic chemicals D. colour of water C. Which one of the following is decelerate the UV-disinfection of water. iron salts D. With not very pleasant in taste D. organoleptic features are improved D. Lightly mineralized B. Urolithiasis B. Constant chemical composition C. Absent pathogenic organisms E. High mineralized B.

35 m. Sulphates E. * Three. * Softening 185.from the house of neighbour. 15 m . centimeter C. Gingivitis . Four. 188. Desalting D. must be between a well source of possible contamination of water? A. A mine well is located on territory of the small holding in the distance 20 m from a dwelling-house. * mg equ/l 186. What least distance. * Ammonia 187. Five. Deironation C. * 30 m. percent D. 10 m. pursuant to sanitary norms.from a cloak-room. What index testifies to contamination of water by the organic matters? A. Two. D. Filtration B. degree B. B. Anemia E. E. E. Hardness B. Method of removal of water’s hardness is A. dm3 E. 25 m.C. Iron D. Stroke D. 184.5 mg/dm3 )? A. What disease can cause surplus of fluorine in water (more 1. D. Iodine C. Decontamination E. Caries B. How many zones of sanitary preservation are to be set round the place of water supply for a city from a river? A. Stomatyt C. One. B. In what unit of measurement measure hardness of water? A. 10 m . C. * Stomach cancer 183. 15 m C.

Osteoporoz E. Decolorizing E. * fluorosis 189. Iron elimination B. Cover D. * Opened reservoirs 191. What method of water purification is consider to be general A. 300-350 m D. 1000 . Low temperature B. 500 . Distance from the well to the residence of consumer must not exceed A. Sufficient distance to the sources of contamination C. 250 . * Transparency 195. Waterproof walls B. Depth of bedding E. * A electric pump 194. 50-150 m B. * Artesian water 190. Cemented brick work E. Subsoil water D. 200-250 m C.500 m . Which one of the following general between ground and Interlayer waters A. Lakes C. Artesian water C. A significant role in the spreading of infections and helminthes in tropical regions can play A. Desalination D. Subsoil water B. Which one of the following does not behave to the obligatory requirement to the equipment of wells A.1000 m C. Decontamination C. River E. Rain E. Interlayer water without pressure B. Springs D. * 500 m 193.1500 m B. Distance from a well to the user must not exceed A.D. Permanent chemical composition C. * Disinfection 192. 1000 m E. Best source of drinking water A. High mineralized D.

about 0. Lake E. The major source of contamination of well water in village is: A. constant chemical composition C. What water’s sources characterizes by constant chemical composition? A. Depth of the well B. Deep wells are differentiated from shallow wells by: A. high mineralization B. about 1 litres of water C. Sea D. * Groundwater 199. For physical and chemical examination of water is essential A. * 50 . For bacteriological examination of water is required A. about 100 ml of water C. For which from the resulted diseases not characteristic water-way of transmission? . A pond near the well D.150 m 196. * Repeatedly putting diferent bucket and rope in the well 201. Covered on the top E. absent patigenic organizms E. about 20 litres of water E. * high oxidity and colority 200. about 10 litres of water D. constant temrerature D. Water is the factor of transmission of many infectious diseases. River C. about 2000 ml of water E. Method of taking out water from wells C. about 1000 ml of water D.5 litres of water B. B. Provision of parapet E. Than superficial waters are characterized? A.D.250 m E. Hardness of water D. Atmospheric water B. * about 300 ml of water 198. * Number of impervious layer 202. 200 . Washing and bathing on the well C. Bird droppings. about 10 ml of water B. * about 2 litres of water 197.

By increasing meat food-stuffs C. chlorphenol on the level A. 206. * windy pox 203. Patient was receiving intensive antibacterial therapy because of double-sided pneumonia. The eating of fish and crawfish in Japan causes the Minamata disease. Suspended substances (dust).A. * By increasing plant oil amount E. dysentery B. Mercury . Urolithiasis B. Copper D. * Stroke D. Photooxidants. lead. D. Low temperature. Hypertensive disease C. E. C. Cadmium C. manganese. Lead B. What chemical substance is related with this A. In drinking water samples selected after purification and disinfested by gaseous chlorine the following was revealed: A. typhoid C. * Chlorphenol E. cholera D. Manganese B. As result disbacteriosis has A. iron. Selenium D. Lead 205. In the dull December days (calm and mist) the respiratory system diseases and'diseases accompanied by signs of general A. Stomach cancer 204. By increasing food-stuffs rich in cellulose B. poliomyelitis E. In drinking water samples the following substances were revealed: copper. By increasing food-stuffs rich in fats D. By increasing acid milk amount 207. * Lead E. Anemia E. * Air humidity. Copper B. Iron C.

A woman's body weight index (Ketle's index) is 20. Deironation C. Chloramine B. Which one of the following is methods of lightening of water.9. Ozone D. Aeration C. * The II degree hypotrophia E. A.0-39.208.0-17. For human nutrition status estimation body weight index (Ketle biomass index) is used. Super Chlorination B. Optima average quantity 209. * FeCl3 213. C.3. * Aluminium sulpfate 212. Which one of the following is methods of remove tastes and odors of water? A.1-24.9. ethanol solution of iodine D. CaOCI2 E. * 18. Settling .0-29. Softenin E. Desalinating D. Which one of the following is used as coagulator for coagulant of water? A.9. E. The II degree obesity D.8. chlorine gas C. B. The I degree hypotrophia C. Which one of the following is used as coagulant for coagulation of water? A. Softening E. Boiling D. Which out of given below nutrition status variants suits the woman's A. 25. 210. 20. 16. Potassium Permanganate C. Adequate nutrition B. D. Bleaching Powder B.9. 30. Fluoridation of water B. What quantity can we estimate as adequate nutrition for a woman? A. * Settling 214. Which one of the following is methods of decolorizing of water: A. * Settling 211. Ozone E.0-20.

Sand layer D. Main layer E. Ammonium chloride E. Which one of the following is basic method of disinfecting of water: A. Sterilization . * Aeration 215. * atmospheric pressure 218. General-sanitary D. temperature of storage B. sun rays D. Softening D. Coagulation C. Which one of the following is not influenced on maintenance of a available chlorine in a chloric lime? A. Chlorine lime B. Biochemical C. organic admixtures become destroyed C. * Chemical 216. Reagents which are used for dechlorination of water. organoleptic features of water are improved D. Which one of the following is methods of improvement of quality of drinking-water: A. Biological B. Boiling E. Pasterisation D. Iodide potassium C. a contact is with oxygen E. Which one of the following is not advantage of water disinfection by ozone A. the surface of sand bed gets covered with a slimy grows which called: A. biological layer B.B. * Hyposulphite sodium 219. A. Filter layer C. Aluminium sulphate D. * Basic layer 220. In slow filter. Bacteriological E. Sublimation C. motion of air C. Water equated with spring water E. water is well disinfected B. Ionization B. * Water have chlorine smell 217.

2 mg/ litre. Deodorization E. Index BGEC . Deodorization D. Fluoridation E. smell is 2 points D. "free" residual chlorine level is 0.E. Toxicological B. Which one of the following is basic method of disinfecting of water: A. GMN . Which one of the following is not traditional method of water purification? A. settling B.5 mg/ litre. Biological C. GMN .10 CFU/cm3 C.100 CFU/dm3 223. Boiling E.110 CFU/dm3. decolorizing C. * Deironation 221. * Filtration 222. Deironation B. * Physical 226. Which one of the following is indexes which testify to reliability of the disinfecting of water in the case of the use of method of chlorination? A. Coagulation C. Which one of the following is methods of lightening of water A. GMN . None of the about E. * Ionization 224. * Coagulation . Bacteriological E. Which one of the following methods used to accelerate the sedimentation of suspended matters. Softening D. Transparence of water 30 cm E.100 CFU/dm3. Transparence of water 30 cm B. lightening B. Ozonization C. * Filtration through an activated carbon 225. filtration and lightening of water? A. Chlorinating B. Disinfection of well is required in normal days and during epidemics. disinfecting D. * "free" residual chlorine level is 0. Desalinating C. Biochemical D. Softening D. Which one of the following is methods of remove tastes and odors of water? A.

ІІІ E. IV B.on Friday. in VI . Height of seating D. * V 233. Which one of the next is not conditions of chlorination effectiveness: A. Which one of the following is the norm for classrooms? . previous water lightening D.1-0. What class the timetable of lessons is built in correctly? A.5 mg/L 228. VII D.5 (km) 231. General illumination of school class is planned to provide by incandescent lamps.1. 3. mixing of chlorine with hole water volume E. correct choose of chlorine dose B. After the grade scale of complication of objects the most sum of marks is in the III class on a Monday. Time of contact for effectiveness of chlorination in summer must be not less than A.5 (km) B. 2. 0.8 mg/L C.3-0.0.8 . Distance of the back support B. 0.0 mg/L D. 0. * 1. 10 min B. Radius of maintenance of children of middle classes general schools in a town is A. keeping of contact time C. Depth of seating E. * 30 min 230. How is named distance between table and chair by the vertical? A.5 mg/L E.1. 90 min E. 0. Distance of sitting C.on Tuesday.6 .227. * 0.0 (km) C.2 mg/L B. in V . 1. 2. 20 min C. * Differentia 232. Content of free residual chlorine after finishing of chlorination process: A.0 (km) E. VI C. in VII .even distributing of loading on the days of week.0 . in IV .5 (km) D. 60 min D. * previous removal of soluble salts 229.on Wednesday.

Indicate an area on a 1 child in a dinning room in kindergarten A. Depth of seating E. 2. weight and name E. type. Estimate a constitution. * Accord to the height of the child 237. typing. Type. Distance of the back support B. The school furniture should be ergonomic.5 m2 D. * Measurement of a circle of the chest 238. D. typing. How is named distance between table and chair by the vertical A. Distance of sitting C. Estimate habitus. printing. 100 lx D. Which one of the following is NOT the anthroposcopic parameters ? A. to creation of optimum terms for visual work D. 1. * 2. During of hygienic estimation of school text-book of requirement are produced to A.0 m2 C. Accord to the age of the child C. 200 lx B. External design. that means A.5 m2 235. printing. C. 200 Lx E. Estimate backbone. * Differentia 239. * 300 lx . To bacterial contamination. luminescent lamps carry that out. Height of seating D. weight C. external design. 300 Lx D. Accord to the age and weight of the child E. 75 lx E. wood contents in paper. * 150 Lx 234. Clearness of type. Accord to the weight of the child B.0 m2 B.A. * Paper. Estimate degree of development of secondary sexual attributes E. 3. B. Common lamplight of classroom must be: A.25 m2 E. 250 Lx B. Accord to the sex of the child D. printing B. weight 236. 1. 350 Lx C. In an educational room for the help of luxmeter the level of lamplight was determined. 150 lx C.

1. * 2. Accord to the weight of the child B. 40-45 cm C. Distance. Accord to the age of the child C. 300 g D. 1.0 m2 C. Distance of the back support B. Which maximal mass of toy for the children over 3 years old is to be? A. * 25 m 245. 10 m C. which a book (notebook) from eyes at reading. 2. 600 g E. 15 m D. 250g C. 5m B. Indicate an area on a 1 child in a playing room in kindergarten. * 30-35 cm 242. How is named distance between back edge of the desk table and front edge of the sit of chair? A. depth of seating E. 20-25 cm B. 500g B. Differentia . Distance of sitting B. 55-60 cm E. The school furniture should be ergonomic. The distance from building of pre-school institution to red line must be A. letter is found on A.240. 3. * Distance of the back support 244.5 m2 D. Accord to the age and weight of the child E. * 400 g 246. Accord to the sex of the child D.25 m2 E. Differentia C. 50-55 cm D. How is named distance between back edge of the desk table and back of the chair? A. that means A. * Accord to the height of the child 241.0 m2 B. A. height of seating D.5 m2 243. 20 m E.

circumference of thorax. Mass of body. * Measurement of growth 252. D. presence of the second teeth C. * 3m 248. 2m B. * 15 249. Mass of body and circumference of thorax D. Estimate a constitution. Force of muscles of a back . 5m E. head. depth of seating E. E. B. shoulder. circumference of thorax. B. circumference of thorax and head. * Distance of sitting 247. Degree of obesity D. Form of chest C. A. shoulder. and also presence of the second sexual signs E. Mass of body. Growth and mass of body. Which one of the following is NOT the anthroposcopic parameter? A. 5 B. head. * Growth and mass of body. 25 E. Name somatometric index. C. 10 C. thigh.5 m C. B. 251. 20 D. Form of back B. 250. head. Estimate backbone D. Growth and circumference of thorax. thigh. Mass of body. Estimate form of the chest C. Plantography is the method of estimation A. Estimate degree of development of secondary sexual attributes E. After the medical examination of children of primary school doctor gave conclusion about they physical development. 2. circumference of thorax. What minimum list of indexes it is necessary for estimate the level of physical development of children? A. * Growth and mass of body. Number of children in younger kindergarten group cannot more than A. thigh. 4m D.C. height of seating D. Mass of body. Recommended height of classroom is A. shoulder. Growth and mass of body. presence of the second sexual signs.

Wheats. Myosin D. * Degree of flatness of foot 253. B. A . C. Name vitamins. What devise used for registration of body’s temperature? A. Vegetable Foods contain large amount of A. Minimal alcohol thermometer.B1 254. B. which synthesis by intestinal bacteria? A. C. Rice contain next vitamin A. Lacto-globulin C. Catatermometer. calcium E. Minimal mercury thermometer. Fats E. D. Luxmeter. E. D. Iron. Proteins D. C. A middle layer or endosperm consists chiefly of A. Barley. Vit. Vitamins D C. * Vit. Millet.E. E. fats. All are present E. * Maximal mercury thermometer 259. B. Vit. Lact albumen B. A B. Exclusive use of which to the cereal may cause pellagra A. * Carbohydrates 256. B.D D. Vit.C C. Proteins.B12 E. Oats. Vit. * Maize 255. * starch 257. cellulose D. Cow's milk is rich in next protein A. * Casein 258. Vit.

C. D C. Osteomalacia B. Vit. 1. Main clinical sings of vit. 1. K 260. hemorrhage C. mental instability 265. 9 kcal D. 1. Citrus fruits B. Name products. E E. Tomatoes C.B. green leafy vegetables E. C B. Vitamin C deficiency leads to A. Vit. D deficiency A. * Meat 264. B12 E. The deficiency of one of the following vitamin leads to the disease beri-beri A. PP D. * deformed bones E. Beri-beri D.5 kcal C. Vit.6 D. Sores on lips B. Night blindness D. * Vit. D C. which are not rich in С vitamin A. Vit. Rickets E. * Scurvy 263. 1. Pellagra C. A. Vit.9 . Name coefficient of physical activity for people of hard physical work. Cabbage D. B1 262. How many energy give 1 gram of carbohydrate? A. 12 kcal E. * 4 kcal 261. Vit. 6 kcal B. Vit.2 B. * Vit. D. 7.4 C.

* 2. deformed bones E. zinc B. E E. E E.E. Vit. D C. Vit. Protein B. * 1. Vit. D 268. which is main sources of energy for organism. How many energy give 1 gram of proteine? A. B. Vit. Vit. hemorrhage D. Fat C. Minerals E. Name coefficient of physical activity for people of mental work A.2 266. * Night blindness 272. 1. mental instability C. * Carbohydrate 271. Copper E.4 270. PP 269. Vit. Name component of food. iodine C. vitamins D. Phosphorus D. Which one of the following in not a fat-soluble vitamin? A. Sores on lips B. What vitamine synthesis by action of sunlight in skin? A. Vitamin A deficiency leads to A. 1.6 C. C. A D. * iron 267.2 B. A B. 2.2 E. Vit. 6 kcal .9 D. Vit. 1. A. K C. K D. * Vit. * Vit. Vitamin C helps increase absorption from plant foods next mineral salt A.

Vit. cooking of fruits C.5 kcal C. Vitamin C is essential for A. Vit. B3 278. sun light D. * haemorrhage 274. Vit. E . D C. B1 B. fat. Vit. * presence of acidic salts 276. Sores on lips B. One of the following not destroyed Vitamin C A. Vit. K A. transforms calcium and phosphorus into bones B.B. * 1:1:4 275. Basic clinical symptoms of avitaminosis vit. prolonged heating B. Vit. B12 E. A B. * Vit. carbohydrates A. * maintaining capillary integrity 277. mental instability C. Vit. 12 kcal E. 7. maintains osmotic pressure in blood and other tissue fluids C. 2:1:4 B. The deficiency of this vitamin leads to pellagra A. Which one of the following is a water-soluble vitamin? A. * 4 kcal 273. 9 kcal D. normal coagulation of the blood E. 2:2:4 E. C C. Name normal ratio between protein. formation of hydrochloric acid in the body D. deformed bones E. K D. 1:4:1 D. D D. Vit. 4:1:1 C. Night blindness D. presence of alkaline salts E.

The disease beri-beri occurs predominantly among peoples because of their use of A. Vit. weakness. The deficiency of this vitamin leads to rickets A. X-rays. Direct effects of irradiation are those that A. Tomatoes B. K 281. * Lemon 283. D 280. B1 B.E. Xerophthalmia E. Diet with lack of calcium B. * cause immediate cell death B. Vit. * Refined or polished rice 284. All of these choices are true 285. Dark-green leafy vegetables D. palpitations. Diet with lack of the mineral nutrient iodide E. and edema. Vit. Vit. Vit. affect the site of irradiation . kwashiorkor C. Diet containing very little fresh fruit or vegetables D. Some fish C. Name vitamins. Gamma rays E. Vit. B1 279. Pellagra D. B1 C. Electrons. and dyspnea on exertion. What illness is characterized by next symptoms: tiredness. B12 E. C D. * Vit. tachycardia. Direct action of radiation is the dominant process for A. A B. which synthesis in human organism? A. B. * alpha particles C. * Iron deficiency 282. A. * Vit.A C. Carrots C. Calcium deficiency B. Which one of the following is not natural sources of carotene A. * Vit. affect structures distant from irradiated structures C. B3 D. E E. D. Papaya E. Vit. Vit.

absorbed dose D. For a specific delivered dose of “soft” x-rays.D. Effects of radiation B. How will the dose of radiation change at the increase of time of display? . Exposure dose 288. Radioactivity C. becquerel 287. Exposure is A. a small negitively charged particle of the atom containing much energy and little mass. the internal energy within the atom that holds its components together. None of above 286. Energy transmitted in the form of electromagnetic waves or subatomic particles. * Sieverts B. D. they all have the same absorbed dose E. Grays 290. Grays E. * Coulombs per kg B. quality factor 292. Coulombs D. Coulombs per mg C. * a measurment of ionization produced in air by x. muscle C. cause the least biological effect E. Man sieverts C. dose equivalent B. * Bone B. * activity E. Ionization D. B. Sieverts per cGy D. water D. which type of material has the largest absorbed dose? A. * Radiation E. How is named the number of nuclear transforma¬tions taking place per unit time in a radioisotope? A. Coulombs per mGy E. None of above 291. a unit of measurment that describes the wavelengths of certain high frequency radiation. Dose equivalent is measured in A.or gamma radiation C. Exposure is measured in A. E. A. exposure C. None of above 289.

Not change D. Carbon-14 E. distance. ventilation D. Potassium . 2 rem C. screen. Minimum a 1 time per week B. Main principles of protection from external gamma-radiation are A. Naturally occurring radioisotopes does not include A. 50 rem E. Increasing the distance from a source by a factor of three. How often must clear up dust-bin (garbage-can) in the hospital departments? A. distance. increase the exposure rate in 9 times E. Maximum permissible dose for adults exposed in the course of their work is ….40 298. reduce the exposure rate in 3 times B. respirators E. Minimum 2 times per week C. will A. distance B. * Increased directly proportional to the activity C. screen. * reduce the exposure rate in 9 times C. Increased in quadratic dependence to the activity B. 100 rem 297. screen. the risk for stochastic effects is described by A. time. ventilation. Uranium-238 B. ventilation. distance. Minimum a 1 time per 2 days . * the equivalent dose B. per year A. rubber gloves 296. screen C. * Technetium-99 D. increases the exposure rate in 4 times D.A. * time. Increased in logarithmic dependence to the activity E. Increased in geometrical dependence on activity 293. Quality factor E. the effective dose C. 10 rem D. Radium-226 C. * 5 rem B. Age 294. the total absorbed dose D. not change 295. In the case of non-uniform irradiation of the body.

35 C. A chamber section in therapeutic separations is designed on: A. 60 beds C. 50 beds B. explanatory note 300. * situational plan C. general plan. Facades plan E. In the corridor C. Indicate where exhaust ventilation present in the hospital`s rooms : A. Regulated only in city hospitals 303. Indicate where the flow of air from the premises must prevail over expiration: A. * 7 m2 D. What square must be on the one patient in many beds ward? A. B. In the House D.5 m2 301. The hospital premises have general exchange of matters tidal exhaust ventilation. In the corridor C. In the House D. The room charge nurse B. 11m2 B. Name the plan of settlement with a designation of a place accommodation of the ground area under construction projected object A. horizontal plan D. * Minimum 2 times per day 299. * operation room . 9 m2 C. 15 E. In doctors room E. * 30 beds D. How many patients must be in the typical wards section A. Minimum a 1 time per day E.D. The room charge nurse B. * operating 304. 25 B. In doctors room E. 22m2 E. 20 302. * 30 D. 5. is not regulated E.

Which one from next has the primary value? A. the separate export by the special transport on the ground of domestic wastes C. Remnants of detergents E. What of the following indicators to evaluate the effectiveness of airing? A. oxygenation of air B. utilization at the plant for incineration of garbage . 24 m2 C. Remains of blood D.305. 5 beds 307. D. 3 beds. B. the concentration of carbon monoxide C. oxygen content 306. specific immune prophylaxis. disinfection in all apartments of the hospital. What minimum area of chambers must be in this separation? A. D. 28 m2 D. using. What control using these samples? A. that must have 4 beds with area of 28 m2. * exposure and isolation of source of infection E. The pressure in the autoclave 310. Airing of the Chamber carried out by multiple air vents open during the day. 52 m2 309. 6 beds B. * Collection in air-tight capacities with a next incineration in the special setting on territory of hospital B. strengthening of control after sterilization of instruments C. 4 beds C. * the concentration of carbon dioxide D. 30 m2 B. At the sanitary inspection of burn separation it was set for adults. isolation of patients with the promoted temperature 308. in particular. samples from the test indicators. * 40 m2 E. concentration of dust E. General microbe semination C. * 2 beds E. * The temperature in the autoclave B. Building of dermato-venereology and oncologic departmens is foreseen by the project of reconstruction of central district hospital. At the presence of Nosocomial infections in hospital is necessary to use the definite group of measures of a prophylaxis. Which system of deleting of wastes is most hygienical requirements? A. Biological laboratory Regional Hospital conducts monthly quality control pre sterilisation processing and sterilization of instruments. Allowable quantity of beds in isolator of infections department A.

For collection of hospital garbage and domestic wastes use containers (dust-bin) with covers on the specialized grounds with waterproof coverage. transference of surgical block is planned from a underground on 1-floor of the building. disinfection by 5 % solution of chloric lime and burying on the ground of domestic wastes E. For estimation of efficiency of ventilation in wards determined concentration of CO2 in air . Corridor B. Which a minimum distance between a ground for dust container (dust-bin) and ward or medical-diagnostic departments must be?: A. South-west 315. What part of the direction is it necessary to orientate the windows of new operating hall on for creation of optimum terms of labour of surgical personnel? A. Ward for patients with hyperthyriosis E. * centralized block 312. * should be not less than 25 m D. should be not less than 15m C. located on 55° to north. 3 hours B. South E. Choose a hospital room. 5 hours D. * north D.D. WC-room D. Determine the best time of the infectious hospital waste water in septic tanks to achieve effective mechanical cleaning? A. Block E. Ward for newborn 313. east C. half a year 314. should be not less than 10 m B. which rated the temperature 22 degrees: A. centralized C. What maximal admissible concentration of carbonic dioxide may be in ward? . What type of building is most expedient in this case? A. * Checking bandaging C. should be not less than 30 m E. is mixed D. 3 days C. * 5 days E. decentralized B. Building of multiprofile hospital is planned in one of the centralized regions of the town. West B. should be not less than 40m 316. During the reconstruction of city hospital in town. the compatible deleting with other hard wastes from hospital 311.

– 10.A. 35 C. To 1500 E. * 4 E.25 % E. * To 500 C. – 1. Frequency of wet cleaning aseptic chambers: A. * 0. General bacterial contamination of air was definitely in dressing – room of surgical departmen to beginning of work.5 % 318. 10. What are the number patients must be in the one typical hospital wards section? A. To 2000 321. 3 D. 2 B. 25 B. 0. – 0.1 % B.0 % D.0 % C. General area of therapeutic separation makes 28 m2. 5 C. 35 . – 0. * Twice a day C. 1.0 % D.0 % C. 0. Once a day B. three times a week 319. Which the index of general microbic number must be in this case? A.1 % B. 15 E. Twice a week E. Once a week D. What maximal amount of beds is this ward counted on? A. * – 0. 1 320. To 300 B.25 % E.5 % 317. 20 322. 25 B. How many patients must be in the typical wards section A. * 30 D. To 1000 D. What is the maximal admissible concentration of carbonic dioxide in patient room? A.

Where will not be violation of norms of lamplight by luminescent lamps in the hospital? A. Four. Corridors – 15 lux E. Two. C. Five 324. E. ward– 40 lux D. E. C. D. Two. Five 326. What are number of the duty nurse`s post in one ward section? A. B. * Minimum 2 times per a day 328. D. C. C. * One. Minimum a 1 time per a week B. Where will not be violation of norms of lamplight by luminescent lamps: A. Three. How many posts of the on duty nurse should be in one ward section? A. Minimum a 1 time per 2 days D. B. Three. Two. Minimum 2 times per a week. How many posts of the on duty nurse are in one ward section? A. Four. * One. Minimum a 1 time per a day E. Minimum a 1 time per a day E. E. Minimum a 1 time per a week B. Manipulation – 50 lux. B. * One. Four. * Minimum 2 times per a day 327. Operation room (general illumination) – 200 lux B. In a hospital. Five 325. Minimum 2 times per a week. How often must clear up dust-bin (garbage-can) in the hospital departments? A. C. D. 20 323. * 30 D.C. Operation room (general illumination) – 200 lux . C. should be artificial illumination. 329. * Examination rooms – 190 lux. 15 E. Three. How often must clear up dust-bin (garbage-can) in the hospital departments? A. which is built. Minimum a 1 time per 2 days D.

In the dressing surgical department to start work was a common bacterial contamination of the air. What should be a general indicator of microbial numbers in this case? A. Up to 1500 E. How does the waste disposed of origin operating in hospitals? A. 330. D. * with influenza D. * Detection and isolation of the source of infection. Isolation of patients with fever. What is the premise of this hospital will not be a violation of artificial lighting fluorescent lamps: . With the cardiovascular diseases C. Corridors – 15 lux E. * with influenza D. In the observation unit of obstetric hospital women are admitted with: A. health B. to ensure a minimum level of facilities artificial illumination. To strengthen control over sterilisation of instruments. Up to 1000 D. Specific immunization. health B. bury oneself at the hospital E.B. Manipulation – 50 lux. E. ward– 40 lux D. C. C. * Examination rooms – 190 lux. crushed and discharged into sewer 332. Which of the following activities is of paramount importance? A. B. pathological pregnancy 335. are being exported to waste solid waste C. * burned in special furnaces B. In identifying the hospital infection in the hospital to hold a particular set of measures on prevention. pathological pregnancy 334. Before 2000 333. In the rural hospital. 300 B. In purulent operating a surgical department patient with leg amputation gangrene. which is being built. With the cardiovascular diseases C. By the opthomalogical diseases E. In the observation unit of obstetric hospital women are admitted with: A. * to 500 C. By the opthomalogical diseases E. D. 331. of the disinfection of all hospital premises. are being exported to the special places for dumping animals.

family 340. In what conditions should be chlorinated products? A. * A doctor's office . With the filtering well D. In the wet ground 338. 1000 341. B. In the dark place C. In which rooms can be set metallic radiator: A. House . In a closed container E.200 lx. From biofilteration of small power 337. manipulative . 100 C. * by the fields of underground filtration B. With the sand-gravel filter C.300 lx. In the light place B. In what rooms you can install radiant heating-panel A. Levels of noise in the wards shall not exceed: A. 300 D. 336. 20 dB . * room B. Preoperative C. doctors room 339.50 lx. C. Operating D. What is minimum level lighting in operational room by luminiscent lamp? A. * In dry and dark place D. With the compact options of the factory making E. B. C. E.40 lx. * 400 E. 15 dB.A. D. Operating (general lighting) . Corridor E. In the settlement of NN building of district hospital is planned on 100 beds but the hospital land is very sandy What from the offered charts of cleaning of flow waters most rational for this object? A. 50 B. Lobby D. Opaque Chamber E.15 lx. 10 dB. * Operating B. A doctor's office C. Corridors .

E.5. 1:8 . C.D. Light coefficient in wards must be: A. 1:10-1:12 343. Light ratio in doctor's room be: A. 1:3-1:4 C. 1:10-1:12 346. 348. 1:2-1:4 E. 1:3-1:4 C. Light coefficient in hospital corridor must be: A. E. 1:2-1:4 E. 1:5-1:6 B. 1:5-1:6 B.1:9 E. 1:3-1:4 C. 1:4-1:5. 1:3-1:4. 1:7-1:8 D. * 1:2-1:4 E. 1:9 . A. 1:3-1:4 C.1:10 347. 1:2-1:3. 1:7-1:8 D. B. 1:7-1:8 D. * 1:5-1:6 B.1:3 B. 1:2 . which recommended in operating.1:7 D. * 30 dB 342. Light ratio. * 1:8-1:10 345. D. * 1:2-1:4. Major professional harm to the medical staff? . 1:6 . 1:2-1:2. 1:2-1:4 E. 25 dB.1:5 C. Light coefficient in operation room must be: A. * 1:5-1:6 B. Light coefficient in doctors room must be: A. 1:10-1:12 344. 1:7-1:8 D. * 1:4 .

not related to chemical A. * In handling . explanatory note 352. Mark. Name harmful and dangerous factors in the work of doctors. which incorrectly stated the rule light ratio: A. not related to the physical A. increasing the atmospheric pressure . which incorrectly indicated the rate of natural lighting. The operation .A.1:4 . e / m and laser radiation B. noise. Surgery .1:4.1%. malaria mosquitoes C. situational plan.1:5. C.1:6 . * Facades plan D. not related to biological factors: A. Lack of artificial lighting E. Uncertainty 349. Name harmful and dangerous factors in the work of doctors. Corridors of 0. antibiotics C.1%. 351. helminths D.1:10. Mark. Check bound . * In the wards . The operating .1:8 . 350. ionizing. Dressing room . C. Lack of artificial lighting D. * herbs 353. House . Prolonged stay on their feet C.1%. vibration) C. general plan B.1:8 . Sick animals infections E. Name harmful and dangerous factors in the work of doctors. C. Name harmful and dangerous factors in the work of doctors. horizontal plan E. behind and the sides.1:5. In the corridor . * dust that contains silicon dioxide E. dust that micro organism 354.2% D.2%.1:10 E. D. not related to biological factors: B. Name a graphic representation to a kind of a building ahead.1:2 . anaesthetics B. disinfection substances D. A. * Mental and moral tension B. A. B. mechanical vibrations (ultrasound. B. E.

* Hand-made C. Name the adverse physiological factors that occur during the work doctors: A. * general plan B. emotional and mental stress. poor lighting and high light load E. the length of incision C. explanatory note 360. * working with dead material C. use of antibiotics 357. situational plan C. the level of wound contamination B. * general plan B. load of the senses (hearing. projected building and other buildings are represented. Physical B. forced to working out and static load D. Write adverse physiological factors that occur during the work doctors: A. opening the windows D. Name the plan of the ground area projected object on which the borders of a site existing. horizontal plan E.D. load of the senses (hearing. A. Biological E. sight) B. A. sight) B. situational plan C. Name the factor. lack of professional training in some young professionals 356. Facades plan D. * the duration of hospitalization before surgery E. forced to working out and static load D. Physiological 358. projected building and other buildings are represented. Name the group of harmful and dangerous factors that are not typical for doctors of different specialties: A. Facades plan D. which don’t increasing the risk of developing a hospital infection: A. Chemical D. explanatory note 359. Name the plan of the ground area projected object on which the borders of a site existing. * physiological 355. stress and operational long-term memory E. stress and operational long-term memory . horizontal plan E. * stressful situation (the need to make a decision in a deficit time) C. emotional and mental stress.

Oxygenation of air . a southeast B. Hygienic requirements to the air of hospital wards: A. 50-70 % C. * Aerobic Bacterial .E. deep sleep C. A. * 30-60 % E. aerobic Bacterial to 8000 in 1 m3 of winter.to 3500 in 1 m3 in summer E. Warning of further development of diseases B. The availability of comfortable beds 366. The content of carbon dioxide . The west. Rehabilitation E. Indicate possible norms of humidity.755 mm of hg C. * Hygienic conditions aimed at ensuring patients complete somatic and mental comfort B. 20-65 % 367. * The north C. E. Oxygenation of air . Skilful care D. The west 362. a southwest D. The south.to 2 mg O2 / m3 D. Prevention of recurrence of disease 365. Primary prevention of diseases including: A. Provides nutrition in hospital? A. * The content of carbon dioxide . Atmospheric pressure .to 0.1% B.755 mm of hg C. Atmospheric pressure . . * Warning of further development of diseases C. Please provide hygienic requirements to the properties of air hospital wards: A. Aerobic Bacterial to 8000 in 1 m3 of winter 364. Relative humidity of air in a therapeutic’s ward corresponds to the hygienical norm.2% B. Prevention of complications of the disease D. The presence of light house E. Indicate possible norms of humidity.50 lx D. The east. northeast.up to 1 mg oxygen / m3 363. E. lack of professional training in some young professionals 361. 70-90 % D. Relative humidity of air in a therapeutic ward corresponds to thes to hygienical norm. Optimum orientation of the windows in operating room A. Frequency . Hygienic conditions that provide patients a long. 20-40 % B.to 0.

Give hygienical estimation of microclimate of ward.40%. discomfort microclimate of heating type D. comfort microclimate. 20-40 % E.2 m / s. 30-70 % C. 20-40 % B. 20-65 % 368. Select the correct option for the doctor's office: A. * 30-60 % 369. Relative humidity of air in the surgery wards is A. the movement of air 0. Relative humidity of air in the pediatrictic wards is A. changing the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally. 30-80 % D. * discomfort microclimate of cooling type C. 30-80 % D. speed of air is 0. 20-40 % E. Results of estimation microclimate of newborn wards are next: the middle temperature of air is 20 °C. discomfort microclimate with the increased speed of air 373. * 30-60 % 372. discomfort microclimate with the increased humidity of air E. Relative humidity of air in the oncology wards is A. The temperature of 22 degrees.02 m / s. 50-70 % C. 30-70 % C. 30-70 % C. 30-80 % D.25%. 20-50 % B. 20-50 % B.A.2 m/s. 30-70 % C. relative humidity of air is 58 %. 20-50 % B. the movement of air 0. 20-40 % E. changing the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally B. A. 70-90 % D. relative humidity . 30-80 % D. B. * The temperature is 20 degrees. * 30-60 % E. relative humidity . * 30-60 % 371. Relative humidity of air in the therapeutic wards is A. 20-40 % E. 20-50 % B. * 30-60 % 370. .

1 m / s B. Tidal exhaust. psychological (1). relative humidity . soiled pyo microflora in quantities that exceed the permissible level. biological (2).01 m / s. which is recommended for the premises of the stay of patients. Temperature . Temperature . which are ill with pus filled wounds. Temperature of 18 degrees.0. tidal extraction dominated by the influens of sun rays 378.180C. biological (2).5 degrees horizontally E. tidal flat extraction volume B. * Tidal exhaust dominated by the influx B. changing the temperature of 3 degrees horizontally. The air chambers of the surgical department.60%. chemistry (2). relative humidity . Set to be micro-climatic conditions in the ward for patients with severe burns? A. relative humidity . chemistry (2). 1:4-1:5. the speed of air . which are ill with pus filled wounds. D. changing the temperature of 2. Temperature . * 22-250C temperature. Physics (3) C.200C. A. For the prevention of nosocomial infections in the recovery room to be necessary to provide ventilation: A. the speed of air . To prevent the pollution of air operating in it must be ventilated: A. relative humidity . Light coefficient.5 m / s. biological (3) 376.1 m / s E. the movement of air 0. Only tidal D. 24 degrees C. psychological (3) B. the movement of air 0.0. the speed of air .1 m / s D. * 1:6-1:7. the movement of air 0. relative humidity . relative humidity . Only Exhaust C.55%. soiled coccyx micro flora. 1:9-1:10. with equal volumes of flow and exhaust E. E. B. Temperature .5 m / s 375.40%.0.C. psychological (2).70%. C. 377. 3rd places) factors that cause occupational diseases doctors: A. chemical (3) D.90%.60%.05 . Biology (1). relative humidity . which are located on the right order (1st.150C.280p relative humidity . 1:10-1:12.1 m / s C. Specify one of the five given options.0.2 m / s. Physics (1). The air chambers of the surgical department.65% of the speed of air . * Chemistry (1). 374. Tidal dominated exhaust hoods . psychological (3) E. * tidal dominated exhaust hoods C. biological (1). changing the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally D. 2nd. temperature. general exchange of matters D. Only extraction E.50%. the speed of air . 1:2-1:3. temperature of 25 degrees.

One. not more 20-25 %. 380. 381. C. B. 15-20 %. not more 12-15% B. not more 20-25 %. * central block B. D. * Three. * Three. C. The area of a zone of green trees and shrubs must be A. Decentralizing . 45-55 %. The minimum quantity of entrances to hospital territory with infection department. What system of building is applied at planning of hospital? A. treatment-diagnostic and economic which are connected through underground passages. Perimeter. 100 B. lx: A. Five 383. C. 400 E. The minimum quantity of entrances to hospital territory with infection department. D.379. A. not more 12-15% B. * 300 D. Two. D. E. Four E. Two. 45-55 %. Four E. D. One. is centralized E. B. A. 500 382. The project of hospital divides the hospital buildings into three groups: hospital. * not less then 60 %. Five 384. * not less then 60 %. C. C. E. is mixed D. The level of general illumination by fluorescent lamps in medical offices should be. 200 C. The area of a zone of green trees and shrubs must be in hospital area A. 15-20 %.

5 % 390. Conditions of work in medical organizations B. 0. * 0.1% B.15% E. concentration of nitrogen B. treatment-diagnostic and economic which are connected through underground passages. Ventilation of ward is carried out by the frequent opening of small hinged window the pane for a day. The project of hospital divides the hospital buildings into three groups: hospital. is centralized E. * concentration of carbon dioxide D. 0. What maximal admissible concentration of carbonic dioxide (CO2) may be in ward in therapeutic department? A. concentration of dust E. concentration of smeech gas C. Perimeter. Decentralizing 386. What system of building is applied at planning of hospital? A. Ventilation of ward is carried out by the frequent opening of small hinged window the pane for a day. Which index help to estimate efficiency of ventilation? A.385. What is the maximum permitted concentration of carbon dioxide in the air chamber A. * 0. 0. concentration of oxygen 388. nature of work C. * central block B.0 % C. Which index help to estimate efficiency of ventilation? A. 10. 0. concentration of nitrogen B. 0.0 % B.20% 387. availability of professional harm . is mixed D. To evaluate the effectiveness of airing the Chamber determined the content of CO2 in the air. 0. What factors do not affect the degree of severity and tension medical staff? A. * concentration of carbon dioxide D. concentration of smeech gas C.01% D. C. 1.25 % E.1 % D.04% C. concentration of oxygen 389. concentration of dust E.

Separation of functional diagnostics B. Permanent establishment D. the rate recess D. light coefficient (LC) C. * length of leave E. tidal dominated exhaust hoods 396. * tidal exhaust dominated at expiration E. * Light coefficient (LC). What ventilation should be used in the operation: A. Humidity E. A. Induction centre C. reflection coefficient 393. Exhaust D. Exposition (processing time) 392. daylight factor . B. the angle of the hole B. light coefficient . the angle of incidence. the rate recess . current control of the Orders of compliance with established hygienic standards B. Procedural D. Identify the best answer. atmospheric pressure C. doctor’s room 395. Whatever units are not included in a hospital of general type? A. * laboratory. immunization medical staff during epidemics D. conditions of life and recreation in the production stuff 391. angle of the angle of the hole. What is necessary to analyze the doctor hygienist for the examination of the project to make a conclusion about how natural lighting hygienic requirements under current sanitary regulations. angle of the angle of aperture. What measures should be taken to hospitals to improve working conditions? A. regulation regimes of work and rest according to the severity and labour tension C.D. What factors influence the effectiveness of the chemical deactivation? A. A room of daytime stays C. The temperature D. the rate of natural illumination (CNI). the rate recess . * strict control of the administration of hospitals for compliance with sanitary-epidemiological profile 394. spa treatment of cases of health workers E. E. tidal C. ratio of natural light. * solution B. Wards. What rooms are not present in ward section? A. the light ratio E. natural B. Polyclinic .

insufficient multiplicity of wet cleaning E. * Near the post of nurse B. Polyclinic E. On a ground floor of the multi-storey hospital C. 402. insufficient multiplicity of removing debris D. Separation of functional diagnostics B. In the ward area of 28 m2 divided 4 beds. Polyclinic E.E. removal of debris twice a day. * factory 399. Permanent establishment D. E. At the beginning of the corridor. E. Induction centre C. 401. Where must be arrangement of ward for 1 and 2 beds for grave patients in the plan of ward section? A. * factory 397. wet cleaning of the morning and evening. On last floor of the multi-storey hospital D. Near the dinning room. the entrance to the office is equipped with the gateway. Lack of mechanical ventilation 400. In the end of the corridor of ward section C. Whatever units are not included in a hospital of general type? A. * Insufficient ventilation B. In the end of the corridor of ward section C. On a separate floor of the multi-storey hospital. . airing through the window leaf is held twice a day. When bacteriological study of air in the House of therapeutic outlet identified high levels of pollution. Where must be arrangement of ward for 1 and 2 beds for grave patients in the plan of ward section? A. Near the doctor’s office D. * factory 398. Lack of space at 1 bed C. * Near the post of nurse B. Where the infectious department should be placed? A. Permanent establishment D. Separation of functional diagnostics B. Near the doctor’s office D. * In a separate a building B. At the beginning of the corridor. What are the causes of increasing bacterial contamination of the air chamber? A. Induction centre C. What units are not included in a hospital of general type? A. Near the dinning room.

Profile of hospital C. Near to cardiological department 403. * Orientation of the windows B. long waterless interval E. * room D. * decentralized B. Insulation regime E. long waterless interval E. Bathrooms in the wards. at absence of the medical documentation C. temperature-humidity regime 406. at absence of the medical documentation C. C. Free 404. centralized C. Free 405. B. Sectional D. Diseases of patients who were hospitalized in these chambers D. acute respiratory disease B. Sectional D. pre operation . taking into account: A. Dressing of staff. with the walls of the chambers for patients to paint. Which kind of hospital building is best against the prophylaxis of intra hospital infections? A. * Fe-deficient anemia 407. Who one of the following pregnant women is not reception in observation department of the maternity house A. * decentralized B. skin diseases of infectious ethyology D. so that the latter has great psychological value and asthetic. centralized C. skin diseases of infectious ethyology D. block E. Who one of the following pregnant women is not reception in observation department of the maternity house A.E. While major repairs have been provided to upgrade the hospital colours for the hospital premises. block E. * Fe-deficient anemia 408. Which kind of hospital building is best for prophylactic of intra hospital infections? A. acute respiratory disease B. Without natural light can not arrange: A.

2- beds wards are 20 %. Isolator of infectious department has an area of 22 m2.beds wards D. What violation is assumed at planning of area? A. In the ward section of somatic department are 30 beds.20 %. Block D.bed wards E. * decentralized B. Quantity of 2.5 m. * 1 B. 1-bed . 410. In the ward section of somatic hospital on 40 beds an amount of 4-bed rooms is 60 %. On land of rural district hospital on 60 beds such areas are selected: medical building for non- infectious of patients. Quantity of 1. 6 413. effective prevention of nosocomial infections. 4 E. and also economic area together with pathology anatomical separation. The quantity of 4-beds wards are 60 %. 3 D. 2 C. availability of hospital patients to use the park system provides building hospitals: A. Favorable treatment and security service. 2-bed .bed room 412. * Width of corridor B.20 %. 3 D. medical building for infectious patients with the separated green areas. Amount of 1. * General amount of beds B. The total quantity of beds C. Amount of 4. Quantity of 4. 1 B. Which from the resulted indexes does not answer hygienic requirements? A. Width of corridor is 1.beds wards. Amount of 2-bed room D. Centralized Block E. Width of corridor is 2. * 2 C. 1-bed wards are 20 %. staff 409. What are the maximum numbers of beds in this ward? A. What maximal amount of beds can he be expected on? A. Separation of green areas . Which one from the next indexes is not hygienic? A.bed room E. 5 414. 4 E. Isolator in infectious department has an area of 27 m2. room for personal hygiene. * Combination of economic and pathology anatomical areas B. Width of corridor C.5 m. Centralized C.E. Free 411.

Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements only for hospitals with centralized system of building. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements B. Block 416. * Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for all hospitals 417. What type of building most expedient in this case? A. * Centralized-block B. Does it corresponds to the hygienical requirements? A. Does it corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements? A. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements C. Mixed E. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements C. The area of ward on 1 beds in the therapeutic department of city hospital is 9 m2. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for children hospitals only D. * Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for all hospitals D. * Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for city hospitals only E. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements only for hospitals with centralized system of building 418. Planned construction of a multi-disciplinary hospital in one city N. E. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for children hospitals only E. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for children hospitals only D. Decentralized C. presence of infection and pathology anatomical buildings in hospital 415. The area of ward on 3 beds in the therapeutic department of city hospital is 21 m2. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for city hospitals only B. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for city hospitals only B. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements C. Does it corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements? A. A location of infectious separation is on the area of hospital D. Centralized D. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for children hospitals only . Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for all hospitals C. * Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for all hospitals D. Does it corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements? A.C. separate infections and non infectious areas E. The area of ward on 2 beds in the therapeutic department of city hospital is 14 m2. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for city hospitals only B. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements only for hospitals with centralized system of building 419. The area of ward on 4 beds in the therapeutic department of city hospital is 28 m2.

Chertkova. sanatorium on the beach of sea E. in a center . not less than 50 m 423. Select a room to which these conditions meet the hygiene standards: A. The habitant of m. 40% D. most expedient for sanatorium treatment in a cardiologic sanatorium.hospital garden. A. On what distance from the border of area a medical corps must be disposed? A. Check bandaging E. and after the operation was 1500m3 . is ill hypertension first degree with frequent hypertensive crises. * 80% B. Offer locality. The project of reconstruction of central district hospital is foresee building of skin and veronological and oncologic separations. sanatorium in Crimea on the coast of the Black sea C. * Boxing for infectious patients B. previous disinfecting 5 % by solution of chloric lime and burial place E. 58 years. the air balance is negative. not less than 15 m B. sanatorium is Kyiv B. The content of microorganisms in the air before the operation 3500/m3 . * cardiologic sanatorium D. not less than 25 m D. targeting the east. * not less than 30 m E.E. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements only for hospitals with centralized system of building 420. A clearing the air by bactericidal lamps. 99% 421. * it gathered and then disposed in special setting on territory of hospital B. How much should decrease the content of microorganisms to sanitation was considered effective? A. On the facade of area the located medical corps. Gets necessary permanent chemical. sanatorium is in Pribaltici (m. separate export by the special transport on the ground of domestic wastes C. at back of territory . light 1:6 ratio. 20% C. utilization is at the garbage dumping plant D.economic structures. family D. Operating C. not less than 20 m C. The hospital lot land of the centralized hospital has a rectangular form with size 200х300 m. The temperature is 20 degrees. all things are dumped together with hospital waste 424. What system of delete of wastes will answer hygienic requirements? A.physiotherapy. Corridor . 60% E. of Yurmala) 422.

A 9 year old girl with a history of intermittent wheezing for several years is brought to the pediatrician. Volume ventilation inadequate. the norm . the norm . Prescribe intravenous corticosteroids E. Prescribe intravenous aminophylline C. * To leave these indurations untouched B. To take an aspirate for bacterial inoculation and cytology E. * Prescribe nebulized cromolyn sodium B. Assess the adequacy of ward ventilation.at least 100 m3/hour 1 patient. The most likely cause of the hypertension is: A.not less than 80 m3/hour 1 patient E. The most reasonable action will be: A.not less than 50 m3/hour 1 patient D. volume ventilation inadequate. Administer supplemental oxygen D. Theophylline overdose C. volume ventilation inadequate. Coarctation of the aorta E. The child has been taking no medications for some time.not less than 40 m3/hour 1 patient C. A young man has painful indurations in the peripapillary regions of both mammary glands. and wheezing is audible bilaterally.425.залік Перелік питань: 1.at least 60 m3/hour 1 patient B. Intercostal and suprasternal retractions are present. Chronic lung disease D. Routine examination of a child with a history of bronchial asthma reveals AP of 140/90 mm Hg. The ward on Cardiology hospital blowing ventilation provides air flow volume of 50 m3 per hour in 1 patient. The breath sounds are quiet. * volume ventilation inadequate. A. the norm . the norm . Obesity . {EXCEPT}: A. To administer steroids locally 2. volume ventilation inadequate. The child is admitted to the hospital. Назва наукового напрямку (модуля): Семестр: 12 6 year Pediatrics-Infections KROK Опис: Диф. * Renal disease B. Prescribe nebulized metaproterenol 3. To remove them C. Appropriate interventions might include all of the following. Physical examination reveals agitation and perioral cyanosis. the norm . To cut and drain them D.

Hg. an acute rheumatic heart disease. Sulfuric acid 7. restriction of movements. Patient with thyrotoxicosis is in the 2 beds hospital ward of therapeutic department. On examination. A 10-year-old child complains of fever (temperature is 390C). degree. 3 m/s. noise level . polyarthritis.1/5. * Uric acid B. height 3 m. * Prednisone B. Normal microclimate 6. Phosphoric acid D. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. * Acute pyelonephritis B. cardiovascular failure IIA. frequent painful urination [pollakiuria]. Delagil D. Dysmetabolic nephropathy D. Coarctation of the aorta E. activity of the III-rd. Acute cystitis E. Routine examination of an otherwise healthy child with a history of bronchial asthma reveals AP of 140/90 mm. acute course of disease. Chronic lung disease D. An 8-year-old boy has suffered from tonsillitis. * Renal disease B. relative humidity – 45/%.0. primary rheumocarditis. Cefazolin C. Obesity 5. * Discomfortable microclimate B. The increased synthesis of what acid is pathogenic at nervous-arthritic diathesis? A. The most likely cause of the hypertension is: A. Urine test: proteinuria [0. bacteriuria [105 colony forming units/mL].30 db. Diprazinum E.4. 5/hr. The child is 11 month old. He suffers from nervous-arthritic diathesis. air movement velocity . Theophylline toxicity C. In 2 weeks he started complaining of migratory joint pain. light coefficient . High level of noise E. What medication is to be prescribed? A. Erythromycin . fever. Hydrochloric acid E.066 g/L]. Do hygienic evaluations of the conditions meet the standards? A. Urolithiasis 8. Acetic acid C. Poor lighting D. Acute glomerulonephritis C. Non-effective ventilation C. leukocytouria [entirely within eyeshot]. Air temperature – 200С. ventilation rate 2. edema of joints. The area of the ward is 18 сm2.

150 g/L. A. Acute cholecystitis E. Mother’s blood group . Indirect bilirubin level was 275 micromole/L. Respiration and pulse ratio is 1:2. The abdomen is painless and soft at palpation. A 3 month old infant suffering from acute segmental pneumonia has dyspnea (respiration rate . * Hemolytic disease of the neonate [АВО incompatibility]. infant is suffering from acute pneumonia which was complicated by cardiovascular insufficiency and respiratory failure of II degree. A neonate was born from the 1st gestation on term. vomiting. The adіnamia. it was his mother's 1st pregnancy. Physiological jaundice E.incompatibility) 12. * Ampiox and Amicacin B. Hepatitis D. Congenital heart malformation 13. pale skin with flush on right cheek. Rh+. Which disease leads to these symptoms and signs? A. * Pneumonia croupousa B. Acute appendicitis D.incompatibility] 11. tachycardia. weakness of vesicular respiration in this zone. lag of right hemithorax respiratory movement.5 micromole/L. weakness. Myocarditis E. paradoxical breathing. icteric type B. child’s blood group. Respiratory failure of I degree C. Macropen and Penicillin . Hepatitis D. Intestinal infection C. Respiratory failure of II degree D. Rh+. A 10 year old boy has complains on headache.5 micromole/L. Hemoglobin. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. fever 400С. direct bilirubin level . vomiting and hepatomegaly were presented. child's blood group . Jaundice due to conjugation disorder C. A baby boy was born in time. the direct bilirubin level . Choose the best variant of therapy: A. vomiting and hepatomegaly were observed. Hemolytic disease of newborn (Rh .A[II]. Mother's blood group . Physiological jaundice E. The 7 mo.150 g/l. Flu 10. and then it progressed.0(I). Hemolytic disease of the neonate [Rh . dullness on percussion over low lobe of right lung. and then it became more acute.80 per minute). * Respiratory failure of III degree B. The jaundice was revealed on the 2nd day of life. Such signs characterize: A. Jaundice due to conjugation disorder C. The adіnamia. The indirect bilirubin level was 275 micromole/L. The accompanied diagnosis is malnutrition of II degree. icteric type B. Rh+. expressed dyspnea. Hemoglobin . Rh+.0[I]. The jaundice was revealed on the 2nd day of life.A(II). Make a diagnosis.9. * Hemolytic disease of newborn (АВО incompatibility). total cyanosis.

Submaxillary lymph nodes are enlarged and painful. Headache. He has been taking sulfadimethoxine. * Rubella B. coryza. A 2 year old girl has been ill for 3 days. Today she has low grade fever. Adenoviral infection E. Allergic rash C. severe sore throat. It is more intensive in axillae and groin. vomiting. * Measles B. cough. Neurotoxic syndrome 18. Cerebrospinal fluid examination is normal. Measles . Penicillin and prednisone B. A 7 year old girl fell ill abruptly: fever. slight maculopapular rash on her buttocks and enlarged occipital lymph nodes. Ampicillin and immunoglobulin E. Measles D. * Chloramphenicol succinate and prednisone 17. Myelitis E. Hemorrhagic rash of various size appeared on his lower limbs within 5 hours. A 7 year old girl has mild form of varicella. Ampiox and Polymixin 14. and then mental confusion appeared on the 5th day of illness. Meningoencephalitis D. Chloramphenicol succinate and interferon D. Penicillin and immunoglobulin C. Pseudotuberculosis 16. Gentamycin and Macropen E. A 3 year old child has been suffering from fever. weakness. What medications should be administered? A.toxic shock of the 1 degree was diagnosed. headache. * Encephalitis B. weakness. A 3 year old boy fell ill abruptly: fever up to 390C. Greyish patches are on the tonsils. severe catarrhal resentations. What is your diagnosis? A. Pseudotuberculosis 15. Meningococcemia with infective . Scarlet fever E. Meningitis C. vertigo. vomiting. tremor of her limbs. What is your diagnosis? A. Today it has fever up to 390C and maculopapular rash on its face. Meningeal signs are negative. Minute bright red rash appear in her reddened skin in 3 hours. * Scarlet fever B. conjunctivitis for 4 days. Except of rash the child's skin has no changes. ataxia. Scarlet fever C. Rubella D.C. How can you explain these signs? A. What is your diagnosis? A. Penicillin and Ampiox D. Mucous membrane of oropharynx is hyperemic.

0 kg C. Symptomatic therapy E. At fibroscopy in area a bulbous offal duodenum the ulcerative defect of 4 mms diameter is found.8х1012/l. The child has complains of the "night" and "hungry" abdominal pains. recurrent vomiting. abdominal pain. Choose the therapeutic tactics: A. His sigmoid gut is tender and hardened. Conservative therapy C. Staphylococcal gastroenteritis E. 11. * Replacement blood transfusion (conservative therapy) B. The hemolytic disease of newborn (icteric-anemic type. then diarrhea and tenesmus. hemoglobin . 10 C. The level of indirect bilirubin in umbilical blood was 58 m mole/l. Salmonellosis C. Enteroviral infection 19. contain a lot of mucus. Administer the optimum schemes of treatment: A. pus. A mother consulted a pediatrician about her son. Her baby was born with body weight 3. Pseudotuberculosis E. Escherichiosis 20. are scanty.3. Rubella D. A mother with an infant visited the pediatrician for expertise advice. What is the required normal mass? A. Rh-incompatibility) was diagnosed.Trichopolum . How many teeth the baby should have? A. Cholera D. weakness. What is your diagnosis? A. A woman delivered a child. Blood transfusion (conservative therapy) D. Her son was born with body mass of 3 kg and length of 48 cm. Vicalinum .140 g/l. He's 1 year old now. An 8-year-old boy fell ill acutely: he presents with fever. * 8 B. 2 kg and body length 50 cm.C. Mother's blood group is A (II) Rh-. RBC. 12 D. streaks of blood. 0 kg . Antibiotics 22. He is 1 year old now. In 2 hours the level of indirect bilirubin turned 82 m mole/l.Ranitidin D. (Hp. Stools occur 12 times daily. 0 kg D.Ranitidine E. * 10.Clarithromycin B. 9. De-nol C. * Omeprazole . 12. newborn's – A (II)Rh+. 6 23. headache. Maalox . 5 kg B. It was her fifth pregnancy but the first delivery. the floor is objected with a fibrin. * Dysentery B. 20 E. +). Trichopolum 21.

8 E. Now he is 3 years old. Dust C. Mother asked the doctor for a cardiac checkup of the 3- year-old son.E. What group of allergens is the reason of the development of bronchial asthma attacks? A. Body mass was 3. 1. 5 kg. 4 26. He is given natural feeding. A boy of 7 year old had an attack of asthma and distant whistling rales after playing with a dog. 0 months E. 1. * 1 cm left from the left medioclavicular line B. Chemical 29. 4 25. When is it recommended to start the corrective feeding (fruit juice)? A. 1 cm right from the left medioclavicular line C. In the medical history: atopic dermatitis caused by eating eggs. 3. An infant was born with body mass 3 kg and body length 50 cm. 1 cm left from he left parasternal line E. 0 kg 24. A 2 month old healthy infant with good appetite is given artificial feeding since he turned 1 month old. 1 D. infant was born with body's mass 3 kg and length 50 cm. * Epidermal B. 15. beef. 2. Where is the left relative heart border located? A. 0 months D. His brother is 7 years old. * 2 B. 0 months 27. 3 C. with length 52 cm at birth. * Prolonged . Over the last 2 years he has had 3 rheumatic attacks. * 4. How many times per day the infant should be fed? A. Pollen D. * 5 B. Itch mite E. Infant is 6. suffers from rheumatic fever. A 14-year-old boy has rheumatism. Along the left medioclavicular line D. 0 E. 5 month now and is given natural feeding since birth. 0 months B. 7 C. chicken. 6 D. 1 cm right from the left parasternal line 28. 5 months C. What course of rheumatism does the patient have? A. How many times per day the supplement (up feeding) should be given? A. 6 mo.

A 12 year old child has the ulcer disease of stomach. What heart failure does the child have? A. hypotonic type B. has had febrile temperature for over 3 days. Portion B [duodenal probe] . What is the etiology of this disease? A. Mitral stenosis C. X-ray picture shows non-homogeneous segment infiltration 8-10 mm on the right. Helicobacter pylori C. * Aortal insufficiency B. The liver is not enlarged. No fever.B. Bronchitis D. cyanotic. * Intestinal bacillus B. Proteins E. Subacute D. Latent E. Salmonella D. Percussion sound is shortened in the right infrascapular region. * Biliary tracts dyskinesia. An 18-month-old child was taken to a hospital on the 4-th day of the disease. breathlessness. Salt C. Aortal stenosis D. cough. There are crepitate fine bubbling rales on auscultation. What is your diagnosis? A. * Segmentary pneumonia B. Rheumatism 31. A 9-year-old girl has attacks of abdominal pain after fried food. Acute C. The disease began acutely with temperature 39. Grippe C. He is pale. A nine year old child is at a hospital with acute glomerulonephritis. Liquid D. The patient with acquired heart failure has diastolic pressure of 0 mm Hg. Influenza 32. Hepatocirrhosis C. Clinical and laboratory examinations show acute condition. Interstitial pneumonia 34. Acute colitis D. Lambliosis E. * Carbohydrates B.50 ml. What nutrients must not be limited during the acute period of glomerulonephritis? A. Fats 33. She has pain in Cer's point. weakness. Your diagnosis: A. Mitral insufficiency E. Chronic duodenum . the intensification of lung pattern. Bronchiolitis E. Persistent-recurrent 30.

2 mg 38. The most typical laboratory data for this disorder is: A. by natural way. What is the most likely diagnosis? A.11 micromole/l. 0.075 mg D. The results of blood count are: Hemoglobin. What vaccination dose of BCG vaccine (in mg) is necessary for vaccination of this child? A. the Apgar scores were 9 and 9. High concentration of chlorides in sweat E. $\alpha$-antitrypsin deficiency 40. 0. A baby was born at 36 weeks of gestation. Disturbance of the conjugative function of liver D. A 4-month-old girl with blond hair and blue eyes has "mousy" odor of sweat and urine. At birth. Bile condensing E. Intravascular hemolysis C. Cystic fibrosis C. * Erythrocyte hemolysis B.120g/l. 05 mg B. 0. * Cartagener syndrome B. Laryngotracheomalacia E. In addition. indirect . What are causes of hyperbillirubinemia in this case? A. A neonate is 5 days old. What is the most likely diagnosis? . A 2. 1 mg E. RBC. Delivery was normal. High level of glycosaminoglycan’s in urine D. 0. 1 mg E.025 mg C. 0. Peptic ulcer 35.075 mg D.3. 2 mg 39. 05 mg B.123 micromole/l. What vaccination dose of BCG vaccine (in mg) is necessary for vaccination of this child? A. Low level of thyroid gland hormones in blood 37. is unable to place a nasogastric tube. * Positive urine ferric chloride test B. Mechanical obstruction of the bile outflow 36. 0.025 mg C. The baby has a large cephalohematoma. 9-kg term male infant is born to a mother who developed polyhydramnios at 34 weeks' gestation. direct bilirubin .112 micromole/l. * 0. High level of oxyproline in urine C.E. The infant develops choking and cyanosis with the first feed. Bronchiolitis obliterans D. 7 year old boy with chronic sinusitis and recurrent pulmonary infections has chest X-ray demonstrating a right-sided cardiac silhouette. 0. A neonate is 5 days old. * 0. 0. delayed psychomotor development. 5 х 10 12/total serum bilirubin .

because of acute hemorrhagic anemia. Full term newborn has developed jaundice at 10 hours of age. with 28\% of eosinophil. bilateral inspiratory crackles and single expiratory wheezing. A 4 year old girl was playing with her toys and suddenly she got an attack of cough. dyspnea. The child is afebrile and has no history of fever.A. Tracheal atresia E. * Atelectasis B. Blood analysis revealed no signs of inflammation. * Exchange blood transfusion B. Phenobarbital D. 6-9/% C. Bilateral pneumonia is evident on chest X-ray. Physical examination reveals tachypnea. although conjunctivitis developed on the third day of life and lasted for about 2 weeks. 2 hours later the infant has indirect serum bilirubin level increasing up to 14 m mole/L. died in a road accident after the hemorrhage on the spot. Respiratory distress syndrome 41.45/min. 15-20/% E. What is most appropriate for treatment of hyperbillirubinemia in this infant? A. Phototherapy C. Pneumocystis carinas C. Visceral larva migrants . Birth had been uneventful. Emphysema C. The child was diagnosed with foreign body in the right bronchus. * 25-30/% B. 0-14/% D. * Esophageal atresia B. X-ray picture showed shadowing of the lower part of lungs on the right. Hemolytic disease of newborn due to Rh-incompatibility was diagnosed. Intestinal sorbents E.130/min. What minimum percent of the whole blood volume could result in death by acute hemorrhage? A. Auscultation revealed diminished breath sounds with bronchial resonance on the right. Bronchitis E. Percussion revealed dullness of percussion on the right in the lower parts. The most likely cause of this child's symptoms is: A. Laryngomalacia D. heart rate . Objectively: respiration rate . What complication caused such clinical presentations? A. Infusion therapy 42. White blood cell count is 15х109l. Pneumonia 43. Pneumothorax D. A man. Choan's atresia C. 35-50/% 44. Mycoplasma pneumonia D. * Chlamydia trachomanis B. 42 years old. A 6 week old child is admitted because of tachypnea.

an Apt test C. A ventricular septal defect and transposition of the great vessels C. pale. N-acetyl cysteine and cromolyn by inhalation E.E. prothrombin time. Intravenous fluids in the first 2 h to compensate water deficiency D. was complicated by marginal placental detachment. expiratory wheezing throughout all lung fields. passes a bloody meconium stool. Hypo plastic left heart syndrome E. Parenteral phenobarbital C. however. Platelet count. Obtain an arterial blood gas and start an IV line C. * Suction of the trachea under direct vision B. and heart rate is 230 beats per minute. Artificial ventilation with endotracheal tube D. limp. and covered with "pea soup" amniotic fluid. has intercostal and suprasternal retractions. delivery. He is apneic. An upper gastrointestinal series E. which of the following diagnostic procedures should be performed first? A. Order a chest x-ray and lateral view of the neck D. A 6 year old asthmatic child was taken to the emergency hospital because of severe coughing and wheezing for the last 24 hours. Physical examination reveals that the child is excitable. although appearing to be in good health. * Barium enema B. The child most likely has congestive heart failure caused by: A. Administration of 100\% oxygen by mask E. hepatomegaly and cardiomegaly. Atrial flutter and partial atrioventricular block D. Gastric lavage with normal saline D. A large atrial septal defect and valvular pulmonary stenosis 49.50C and sore throat. and partial thromboplastin time 47. For determining the cause of the bleeding. A newborn infant has mild cyanosis.60/min. * Prepare to establish an airway B. diaphoresis. thin infant was delivered. Initial treatment may include the prescription of: A. Respiratory rate is 60 breaths per minute. * Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia B. anxious and has a mild inspiratory stridor. Parenteral gentamycin 46. You should immediately: A. A full term infant was born after a normal pregnancy. Catheterization of the umbilical vein 48. poor peripheral pule. Varicella 45. The first step in the resuscitation of this infant at delivery should be: A. RR. * Subcutaneous epinephrine B. In the 43rd week of gestation a long. The child looks alert. A 6-year-old boy was brought to the emergency room with a 3-hour history of fever up to 39. At 12 hours of age the child. Artificial ventilation with bag and mask C. Examine the throat and obtain a culture .

Polyarthritis nodes E. CBC: Hemoglobin– 80 g/L. Laboratory analysis reveals proteinuria and microhematuria. WBC– 15*109L. Dermatomyositis 52. Admit the child and place him in a mist tent 50. Now she is complaining on pain in suprapubic area. Cavity formation D. WBC.40 mm/hour. The most likely diagnosis is: A. RBC– 2. Acute glomerulonephritis D. Pasternatsky’s symptom is negative. Dysmetabolic nephropathy C.80C. A girl is 12 year old Yesterday she was overcooled. She has "butterfly"-type rash on face (spots and papules). The girl of 11 year old is ill for 1 month. Atelectasis with obstructive pneumonia C. temperature is 37. RBC. * Acute cystitis B. * Hilary or paratracheal lymph node enlargement B. A tuberculin skin test was strongly positive. * Anaphylactic purpura B. Hyperaldosteronism 51. What diagnosis is the most probable? A. A 5-year-old boy was progressively getting worse compared to the previous 2 months. Systemic lupus erythematous C. What is the most characteristic finding in primary tuberculosis? A. Secondary hypothyroidism D. Urine analysis: protein 0. Panhypopituitarism E. 33 g/L. Miliary tuberculosis E.20-25 in f/vie. frequent painful urination by small portions. A 7 day old boy is admitted to the hospital for evaluation of vomiting and dehydration.1-2 in f/vie. systemic type . signs of stomatitis (small-sized ulcers in mouth). Urinalysis: protein– 0. pain and swelling of small joints on arms and legs. A 7 year old boy has cramp abdominal pain and a rash on the back of his legs and buttocks as well as on the extensor surfaces of his forearms. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis D. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis. Acute pyelonephritis E.033 g/L.E. He is most likely to be affected by: A. ESR. Hematogenous dissemination leading to extrapulmonary tuberculosis 53. * Systemic lupus erythematous B. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Serum sodium and potassium concentrations are 120 mg/L and 9 m e/L respectively.9*1012/L. Pyloric stenosis C. * Congenital adrenal hyperplasia B. A chest x-ray has shown right middle lobe collapse. Urolithiasis 54. Physical examination is otherwise normal except for minimal hyperpigmentation of the nipples.

dyspnea with obstructed inspiration. Heart sounds are rhythmic. Hemoglobin. Brain tumour D. An infant aged 1 year on the third day of common cold at night developed inspiratory stridor. The child's skin is pale. Ultrasound .3. * Acute laryngotracheitis B. A 3-year-old child has been admitted to a hospital because of ostealgia and body temperature rise up to 390C. Parainfluenza virus has been detected in nasopharynx lavage. * Acute infectious croup due to viral laryngotracheitis B.0х1012/l.122 p. Objectively: the patient is in grave condition.50C$. Acute laryngitis C. A child is 2 years old. thrombocytes .C.5 cm. Foreign body D. color index . stridor is present.2 cm below the costal margin.0. The palatine arches are hyperemic. The respiratory rate is 52 per min and pulse. Acute bronchiolitis with respiratory distress E. Acute rheumatic fever E. There is a bluish skin discoloration moistly seen over the upper lip. hypotonic and hypodynamia. unable to stand for ostealgia. Dermatomyositis 55. there is apparent intoxication. Bronchopneumonia without complications D. Periarteriitis nodes D. Diphtheria E. From beginning there were severe jaundice with poor suckling.9.1. Hydrocephalus E.87. crepitation is absent. Physical examination revealed suprasternal and intercostal chest retractions. hoarse voice and barking cough. eosinophil’s . The child complains of hoarse voice. stab neutrophils - 1. The body temperature is 37. Epiglottitis C. * Encephalopathy due to hyperbillirubinemia B. Little bit later periodical excitation. Objectively: general condition is unbalanced. What examination should be conducted in order to specify the diagnosis? A. Acute epiglottitis 56. Laryngospasm 58. * Sternal puncture B.87 g/l. spleen . What disease does the infant have? A.190 х1012/l. monocytes . neonatal convulsions and neonatal primitive reflexes loss are noted. WBC . lymphocytes . Spastic cerebral palsy 57.m. Now physical examination reveals convergent squint. The disease started 3 days ago from dry cough and nose stuffiness.2. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. segmented neutrophils . Skull injury C. There is no deposit. lymph nodes are enlarged up to 1. Liver can be palpated 3 cm below the costal margin. A newborn aged 3 days with hyperbillirubinemia (428 m mole/L) developed following disorders. In blood: RBCs . Auscultation of lungs reveals rough breathing sounds.0.36 mm/h.2 х1012/l . Body temperature is 37.70C. How to explain this condition? A. ESR .3. rotatory nystagmus and setting sun eye sign.

cyanosis during excitement. The doctor in charge issued a sick-list first for 5 days. Avoidance of skin insolation 63. Trauma of thoracic spine C. Auscultation revealed continuous systolic murmur to the left of the breastbone in the 3-4 intercostal space. What complication is it? A. Lymph node biopsy E. What congenital cardiac pathology can be suspected? A. Pulmonary artery stenosis 61. Who can further prolong the sick-list of this patient? A. Systematic skin disinfection E. Liquor analysis shows a low-grade lymphocytic pleocytosis. and there was also forearm pronation. Apgar test of a newborn girl at 1st and 5th minute after birth gave the result of 7-8 scores. * The doctor in charge of the case together with the head of department B. * Encephalitis B. Trauma of right hand soft tissues 60. Pneumonitis . Frequent skin washing with detergents C. Percussion revealed transverse dilatation of cardiac borders. On the 21 day after appearance of vesiculous chickenpox rash a 7-year-old child developed ataxia. * Duchenne-Erb palsy B. muscle hypotonia. Examination of a 9-month-old girl revealed skin pallor. obstetric palsy of brachial plexus. The shoulder was turned inwards. This murmur is conducted above the whole cardiac region to the back. Lymph node puncture D. intention tremor.C. Computer tomography 59. A 13 year old patient was treated in dermatological hospital for atopic dermatitis exacerbation. Defect of interatrial septum C. nystagmus. What recommendations should the doctor give to prevent exacerbations? A. the elbow was flexed. A worker was temporarily off work because of illness for 16 days. He was discharged in the condition of clinical remission. Fallout’s tetrad E. Deputy Head physician on the working ability expertise E. Right hand osteomyelitis D. What is the clinical diagnosis? A. Coarctation of aorta D. * Use of neutral creams to protect skin B. Systematic use of local corticosteroids D. Purulent meningitis C. * Defect of interventricular septum B. Intracranial hemorrhage E. The head of department 62. The doctor in charge of the case with the permission of the head of department D. Working ability expertise committee C. was under out-patient treatment. During the delivery there was a short-term difficulty with extraction of shoulder girdle. slightly increased protein rate. and then prolonged it for 10 days. After birth the child had the proximal extremity dysfunction and the arm couldn't be raised from the side.

A 3-year-old child was playing in a playpen when he suddenly developed paroxysmal cough and shortness of breath. Breathing sounds on the right are diminished. What complementary instrumental method of examination should be applied for the diagnosis confirmation? A. mixed dyspnea. * Venous congestion of greater circulation B. Venous congestion of lesser circulation C. Acute nephritis E. Hyperglycemia and ketonuria E.2-4 in the field of vision. Hyperglycemia and ketonemia C. * Foreign body in the respiratory tracts B. Liver is 3 cm enlarged. Lasix C. Pertussis E. Bronchial asthma 67. The child presents with dyspnea. Pulse 120/min.0. AP .60/40 mm Hg. Suddenly he felt pain behind the breastbone and in the lumbar area. non-mobile edema on the lower extremities and sacrum. In urine: protein . A 10-year-old child has been followed-up for the dilated cardiomyopathy. RBCs .100/min. there is blowing systolic murmur at the apex and over the xiphoid process. Adrenaline D. Hypoproteinemia 68. hyperosmolar coma. Lung auscultation revealed some wheezes. and cold sweat. WBCs .D. oliguria. A 3-year-old child has been diagnosed with type I diabetes mellitus. Objectively: pale skin. There are dense. dyspnea. Acute respiratory viral infection D. The child doesn't mix with other children. An 8-year-old boy suffering from hemophilia was undergoing transfusion of packed red cells. Analgine 65. What is the main mechanism of edema syndrome development? A. After objective clinical examination a 12 year old child was diagnosed with mitral valve prolapse. urine output is reduced. * Prednisolone B. * High hyperglycemia without ketonemia B. Immunization is age-appropriate. Hyperglycemia and high indicators of acid-base balance 66. Hyperglycemia and glycosuria D. The cardiac borders are extended transversely. Secondary nephropathy development E. Aminophylline E. Postherpetic neuralgia 64. Objectively: dry cough. cardialgia. Which laboratory findings are characteristic for such condition? A.025 g/l. For the treatment of this complication the following drug should be administered: A. The laboratory confirmed the diagnosis. Heart sounds are muffled. brown urine.2-3 in the field of vision. Pneumonia C. heart rate . What pathological condition can be suspected? A. Peripheral circulation disorder D. * Echocardiography .

A child with tetralogy of Fallout is most likely to exhibit: A. Periventricular hemorrhages E. Hemorrhages into the brain ventricles 70. he has "watch glass" nail deformation. Further conservative therapy C. After birth the child has progressing excitability. 3-4 times a year. Protective clothing 71. What localization of intracranial hemorrhage is the most probable? A. * Surgical treatment B. Small cerebral tissue hemorrhages C. * Hemophilia . it was born in asphyxia (2-5 points on Apgar score). spontaneous Moro's and Babinski’s reflexes. Conservative therapy results in short periods of remission. Prescription of corticosteroids for summer C. The disease is progressing. The child's skin is pale. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Long-term prophylactic treatment with antihistamines D. Physiotherapeutic treatment D. Increased pulmonary blood flow C. * Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. What is the most effective prophylaxis method? A. Normal pressure gradient across the pulmonary valve E. Exacerbations occur quite often. spasms. Sanatorium-and-spa treatment E. Phonocardiography D. During examination of the child a considerable rise of prothrombin consumption and a significant prolongation of the activated partial thromboplastic time were found. there are also vomiting. Bronchography revealed saccular bronchiectasis of the lower lobe of his right lung. Veloergometry 69. A full-term child survived antenatal and intranatal hypoxia. * Increased pressure in the right ventricle B. Increased pulse pressure D.B. strabismus. Normal oxygen tension in the left ventricle 73. A 9-year-old boy has been suffering from bronchiectasis since he was 3. A 2-months-old child after preventive vaccination had a prolonged hemorrhage from the vaccination place and due to those an intramuscular hematoma. Tempering of the child's organism 72. Limitation of outside staying during summer months E. What is the further treatment tactics? A. ECG E. as a result he had severe anaphylactic shock. * Desensibilisation by means of bee venom extract B. the child has physical retardation. nystagmus. Roentgenography of chest C. Subdural hemorrhage D. A 15 year old boy was twice attacked by bees. cyanotic.

A 10-year-old boy underwent treatment in cardiological department for rheumatism. skin rash. Adenovirus C. Rhinovirus D. Scarlet fever D. Auscultation revealed dry rales in lungs. and conjunctivitis. Which drug should be chosen for prevention of rheumatism recurrence? A. A 7-year-old child is sick for 2 weeks with running nose. The pharynx is hyperemic. Enterovirus exanthema . Pipolphen D. There are complaints of cough. Oxacillin 77. Paracetamol E. Werlhof's disease C. has been ill for 5 days. maceration of ale nasal and upper lip. * Acetylsalicylic acid B. * Diphtheria of the nose B.38. neck. Henoch-Schoenlein disease D. * Bicillinum-5 B. What of the mentioned antifebrile medications are contraindicated to this patient? A. in some areas confluent rash on the face. He applied to doctor due to supportive and bloody discharges from nose. active phase. Analgin C. The boy suffers with alimentary allergy. A 10 year old boy with hemophilia has signs of acute respiratory viral infection with fever. * Measles B. Ampicillin E. photophobia. Mucous membrane of oropharynx is not changed. t. II degree. Bicillinum-1 C. Adenoviral infection C. The patient was discharged in satisfactory condition. Hemorrhagic disease of the neonate E. Sinusitis (maxillary sinus) 76. What is the most probable disease? A. Allergic rhinitis E.20C$ face puffiness. I acute attack of rheumatic fever. Objectively: there is bright. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Inborn afibrinogenemia 74. was taking nasal drops. maculo-papulous. A child is 4 years old. Erythromycin D. Rubella E. upper chest.B. There are seropurulent discharges from the nose. Rhinoscopy results: there are whitish-greyish areas at nasal septum. Panadol extra 75.

Phlegmon of newborn C. hyperesthesia.78. Mycotic erythema 82. Hypotrophy D. General condition of the infant is grave. Body temperature is 38-39 C. febrile temperature is evident. The child is breast-fed. Prophylaxes of what diseases will the doctor recommend doing first? A. Anemia C. Escherichiosis D. Abdomen is swollen. Anxiety. Staphylococcal enteric infection C. there is vomiting. dark-green. Impetigo neonatorum E. On the different parts of skin there are erythema. What is the role of angiotensin II in the pathogenesis? A. * Rickets B. The child is pale and inert. On auscultation: a great number of different rales. A 10 month old boy has been ill for 5 days after consumption of unboiled milk. Acute shigellosis E. Bronchial asthma C. In history there is some pneumonia with obstruction. * Intensifies production and secretion of aldosterone B. Increases erythropoietin production E. * Cystic fibrosis B. * Exfoliate dermatitis B. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Level of sweat chloride is 80 millimole/ l. liquid stool. Bronchiectasis E. dullness on percussion over the lower parts of lungs. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. * Salmonellosis B. The infant has scalded skin syndrome. Pulmonary hypoplasia 80. His tongue is covered with white deposition. A 3 year old child with weight deficiency suffers from permanent moist cough. Stool is liquid. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Inhibits depressive action of prostaglandins D. Nikolsky's symptom is positive. Finger's pseudofurunculosis D. Increases renin level 81. areas of epidermis peeling. Spasmophilia . A 12 year old child with acute glomerulonephritis presented with hypertensive syndrome during first days of the disease. Increases heart output C. erosive spots. Rotaviral infection 79. A full-term infant is 3 days old. there is borborygmus in the region of umbilicus. Recurrent bronchitis D. with admixtures of mucus. District pediatrician examines a healthy carried 1-month-old child. Heart sounds are muffled. On examination: distended chest. liver is enlarged by 3 cm. 5 times a day. cracks.

She complains of general indisposition. hypercholesterolemia (9. Biochemical blood analysis reveals permanent hypoproteinemia (43. Wavelike E.1 g/L. In blood: leukopenia. protein content in the daily urine . appetite loss. Acute simple bronchitis E.E. 2 g. proteinuria . A 7 year old boy has been treated in a hospital for a month. Mixed 85. Nephritic C. Nephritic C. Percussion sound has a wooden resonance. Combined 84. * Nephrotic B. dizziness. Isolated urinary D.4. A 3 year old girl has had a temperature rise up to 380С. What variant of glomerulonephritis is the most probable? A. Polymorphous exudative erythema .2 mmole/L). Pemphigus vulgaris C. A 7-year-old boy has been managed for a month. Chronic D. Objectively: skin lesions resemble of second-degree burns. proteinuria .2 g/l). lymphocytosis. Immediately after hospitalization there were apparent edema. Acute 87.4. How pneumonia progress can be described? A. Acute obstructive bronchitis C. acute condition D. hypercholesterolemia (9. Nikolsky's symptom is positive. dry superficial cough.2 g.7. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. A 12 year old girl took 2 pills of aspirine and 4 hours later her body temperature raised up to 39- 400С. Parathropy 83. Isolated urinary D. * Nephrotic B.7. Bilateral microfocal pneumonia 86. rhinitis. Recidivating C. Recurrent bronchitis. here and there with erosive surface or epidermis peeling. Palpation didn't reveal any changes over her lungs. * Acute epidermal necrosis B. At the time of admission he had evident edema. The patient is most likely have the following type of glomerulonephritis: A. Hematuria E. 1 g/l.2 millimole/l).2 g/L). daily urine protein . sudden rash in form of red spots and blisters. * Delaying B. auscultation revealed puerile breathing. increased ESR. Hematuric E. flabbiness. Biochemical blood test shows persistent hypoproteinemia (43. * Acute simple tracheitis B. A 5-year-old girl with the transitory immunodeficiency according to T-system has a clinical picture of a right-sided pneumonia during 2 months. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. no rales.

A 5-year-old child had an attack of palpitation with nausea. On physical examination: skin is flaccid. 9 cm (+0. Milk crust C. dizziness. generalized fatigue. What medication is to be prescribed to provide first aid? A.64. A boy. was examined: height . 2 kg (+0. lung vital capacity . How would you estimate this child? A. new-born period reflexes are decreased. Bullous dermatitis E. On ECG: tachycardia with heartbeat rate of 220/min. Urticaria 92.28. What is the complex assessment of the child's physical development? A. The child usually feels better in summer. Premature infant C. 16). Immature infant D. P wave is absent. The child has been artificially fed since he was 2 months old. Pseudofurunculosis E. Internal organs are without pathological changes. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Strophulus D. chest circumference . Seborrhea eczema D. * Term infant with pre-natal growth retardation B. Contact dermatitis C. his condition is getting worse in winter. * Atopic dermatitis B. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Strophulus E. 66). examination revealed dry skin with solitary papulous elements and ill-defined lichenification zones. * Gneiss B. aged 9. Term infant with normal body weight 91. A neonate from gestation with severe gestosis of the second half was born on the 41st week with 2400 g birth weight and 50cm long. 36). * Lydocain B.1520 ml (-0. 96).127 cm (-0. subcutaneous fatty cellular tissue is thin. Isoptin C. * Harmonious B. Skin eruption was accompanied by strong itch. weight . Strophantin 89. He has a history of exudative diathesis. A child was taken to a hospital with focal changes in the skin folds. Ventricle complexes is deformed and widened.D. Infantile eczema 90. Examination of a 4 month old child revealed some lemon-yellow squamous with fatty crusts on the scalp. Disharmonious . Duhring's disease 88. Grandmother by his mother's side has bronchial asthma. Seduxen D. muscle hypotonia. The child was anxious during examination. Post mature infant E. Novocainamides E.

* Acute glomerulonephritis with nephritic syndrome B. the skin is pale. Apparently disharmonious D.C. Adenovirus E. Aminophylline E. Paramyxovirus C.1. sensitivity is present. Influenza D. Determine the daily protein requirements for the child: A. The causative agent of this disease relates to the following family: A. * Picornavirus B. there is pain in leg muscles. 10 hours later there appeared rash over the buttocks and lower limbs in form of petechial. the child is breastfed. Amysyl D. Corglicone 96. On urine analysis: relative density . 0 g/kg C.2 g/l. What medicine should be used for attack reduction? A.50C. 0 g/kg B. Excessive E. Some hemorrhagic elements have necrosis in the center. spots and papules. Urine is of dark brown color. He has got sympathoadrenal attack. * 3. Birth weight was 3450. A child is 9 months old. Supplemental feeding was introduced on time. hematuria and hypertension D. Tohovirus D. A 14 year old child suffers from vegetovascular dystonia of pubertal period.120/80 mm Hg. granular casts . 7^oC$. the child became inert and had a single vomiting. 0 g/kg 94. humid. Acute glomerulonephritis with nephrotic syndrome C. 5 g/kg E. Below the average 93. 2 weeks after recovering from angina an 8-year-old boy developed edema of face and lower limbs. 3. Haemorrhagic vasculitis E.1-2 in the vision field. What is the most probable disease? A. Rubella C. 2. protein . AP. Nephrolithiasis 95. 4. * Obsidan B. There is no extremities mobility. No-spa C. Rotavirus 97. 5 g/kg D. Scarlet fever . A child is 7 months old. salts are represented by urates (big number). The child has been diagnosed with poliomyelitis. A 4 month old child fell seriously ill: body temperature rose up to 38. RBCs are leached and cover the whole vision field. The patient's body temperature is $36. 2. * Meningococcemia B.015. Acute glomerulonephritis with isolated urinary syndrome E. Objectively: the patient is in grave condition. Acute glomerulonephritis with nephrotic syndrome. What is the most likely diagnosis? A.1. Oliguria is present.

bilateral ptosis. Valve aortic stenosis 101. vesiculosis rash mainly on the skin of the body and the hairy part of the head. At the second wave of the fever a diagnosis of encephalitis was given. The girl is unable to read a simple text (mist over the eyes). rapid fatigability. What therapy would be the most adequate in this case? A. Dermatomyositis D. Measles C. beef. A 13 year old girl was admitted to the cardiological department because of pain in the muscles and joints. dryness of mucous membranes of oral pharynx. Rheumatoid arthritis E. Herpetic infection 99. Examination of her face revealed an edematic erythema in form of butterfly in the region of nose and cheeks. * Opened arterial duct B. Interatrial septal defect E. dizziness. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. A 4 year old boy was admitted to the hospital with complaints of dyspnea.98. * Parenteral introduction of polyvalent antibotulinic serum B. ataxia. On percussion: heart borders are dilatated to the left and upwards. Parenteral introduction of antitetanus serum . On auscultation: amplification of the SII above pulmonary artery. Parenteral disintoxication C. discoordination of movements. a harsh systolodyastolic "machine" murmur is auscultated between the II and the III rib to the left of breast bone. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Rheumatism C. * Chicken pox B. A 12 year old girl complains about abrupt weakness. German measles D. this murmur is conducted to all other points including back. Examination revealed skin pallor. His anamnesis registers frequent respiratory diseases. Periarteritis nodes 100. Interventricular septal defect C. AP is 100/20 mm Hg. Parenteral introduction of antibiotics D. It was followed by rise in body temperature. Enterovirus infection E. a scratch on the left knee. vision impairment. A 5-year-old child had strong headache. nausea. tremor of the extremities on the 8th day of the disease. What disease complicated encephalitis in this case? A. Isolated stenosis of pulmonary arterial orifice D. vomiting. Gastric lavage E. dormancy. The day before she ate home-made stock fish. and midrate pupils. * Systemic lupus erythematous B.

RBC. the baby's one . After the birth the child has RI symptoms. on the third the following changes in neurological status appeared: nystagmus. Urea is yellow. Pulmonary edema D. What is the child's jaundice explanation? A. In blood: Hemoglobin-100 g/L. * The newborns have a lower level of glomerular filtration .On the second day there developed jaundice. * Brain delivery trauma B. * Craniocerebral birth trauma B. Mother's blood group is А (II) Rh-.58 m mole/l at the expense of unbound fraction. Mother's blood group is A (II) Rh-. Intracranial hematoma D. After birth a child was pale and had arrhythmic breathing. anasarca. Fetal hepatitis 103.0. On the 3th day appeared changes of neurologic status: nystagmus. Urine was yellow. difficult labour) had a cephalogematoma. Biliary atresia E. Specify why the gap between antibiotic introductions to the new-born children is longer and dosage is smaller compared to the older children and adults? A. There were no edemas. It was difficult to measure arterial pressure accurately.58 m mole/L due to unconjugated bilirubin.6. Neonatal anemia D. that's why it was prescribed antibiotics. Fetal hepatitis 104. Ht. Disseminated intravascular clotting syndrome C. * Edematous-hemorrhagic syndrome B. A child from the first non-complicated pregnancy but complicated labor had cephalhematoma. Congenital pneumonia 106. On the third day child's Hemoglobin. RBCs . Congestive heart failure C. * Asphyxia B. feces. Graefe's sign. Bile ducts atresia E. A child was delivered severely premature. What caused the jaundice in the child? A. Ht. Congenital pneumonia 105.0. Physiologic jaundice C. Oxygen therapy didn't have any effect. blood bilirubin .1х1012/l. Multiple skin extravasations. bloody foam from the mouth have occurred after the 2 day.1х1012L. Pulse was weak and rapid. A full-term baby (the 1st uncomplicated pregnancy. 57.6.A (II) Rh+. feces were of golden-yellow color. Intrauterine sepsis E. fine bubbling moist rales over the lower lobe of the right lung. Hemolytic disease of newborn D. child.А (II) Rh+. 45. Physiological jaundice C. On the third day the child's Hemoglobin was 200g/l. An infant is 2 do. On chest X-ray: atelectasis of the lower lobe of the right lung. It was full-term born with signs of intrauterine infection.200 g/L.102.golden-yellow. What is the most likely reason for these symptoms? A. Graefe’s syndrome. On the 2nd day there was jaundice. Hyaline membrane disease E. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. bilirubin in blood .

1:150 D. In the anamnesis of a 2-year-old girl there are recurrent pneumonias with signs of obstruction.6. * 1:100 B. 1:200 E. respiration is weakened. Juvenile basophiles 110. The newborns have bigger hematocrit 107. Thyroid carcinoma D. Intrahepatic cholestasis E. physical retardation. The girl got puffy face. The newborns have diminished blood pH E. euthyroidism. A 10-year-old child is sick with chronic viral hepatitis B with marked activity of the process. Skin pallor and gland density progressed. What titer of antibodies will be diagnostically important? A. Failure of the synthetically function of the liver C. pulmonary form B. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. What disease may be suspected? A. bradycardia. Recidivating bronchitis C. This condition was regarded as a pubertal manifestation. indirect . the girl didn't undergo any treatment. A year ago she was also found to have diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland (II grade). Failure of bilirubin conjugation 108. The newborns have reduced activity of glucuronil transferees D. Bilirubin – 70 m mole/L. There are heterogeneous moist and dry rales. 2 m mole /L. Pulmonary tuberculosis . Blood was taken for titer of antibodies to thyroglobulin. Ultrasound suspected autoimmune thyroiditis. 1:50 C. * Mucoviscidosis. A 12-year-old girl applied to doctor with complaints of swelling on the front part of the neck. Congenital pulmonary polycystosis E. Subacute thyroiditis E.26 m mole /L. What mechanism underlies the transaminase level increase of this patient? A.44\ m mole /L АSТ . 8 m mole /L. Dense. the skin became of a waxen hue. Diffuse toxic goiter C. The girl's irritability gradually gave place to a complete apathy. A 14-year-old girl has been presenting with irritability and tearfulness for about a year. Bronchial asthma D.B. There are "drumsticks". АLТ - 4. constipations. viscous secretion is difficult to hawk. The doctor diagnosed hyperplasia of the thyroid gland of the second degree. * Cytolysis of hepatocytes B. Hypersplenism D. * Autoimmune thyroiditis B. 1:250 109. The newborns have lower concentration of protein and albumins in blood C. direct . soft tissues pastosity.

A 5 month old boy was born prematurely. Septic arthritis E. For the last 3 months he presents fusiform swelling of fingers. osmotic stability of erythrocytes . The child is restless.5x1012/l. and black stool. On the 3rd day of life a baby presented with hemorrhagic rash. color index .5 g/l. Hypotrophy of the I grade D. breast-fed child suffers from cheek skin hyperemia. extended coagulation time. Osteoarthritis . Epsilon-aminocapronic acid D. erythrocytes . Homogenizes immaturity C. 44-0. Fibrinogen E. Apply ointment with corticosteroids to affected skin areas 114. Sodium ethamsylate C. Infectious process D. sporadic papulous elements on the skin of the chest and back following the apple juice introduction. A 2 mo. What is the optimal therapeutic tactics? A. * Corresponding to the age B. Hypotrophy of the II grade E. 9 micromole/l. serum iron . 7. ankle joints and knee joint. * Juvenile rheumatic arthritis B. What is the most probable cause of anemia? A. Blood count: Hemoglobin . A 2 month old full-term child was born with weight 3500 g and was on the mixed feeding. hypoprothrombinemia. * Vitamin K B. Examination revealed anemia. Refer to prescribe dermatologist C. he didn't suffer from any disease at the infant age and later on. What is the initial pediatrician’s tactics? A. Current weight is 4900 g. bloody vomit. * Iron deficit B. A 7 year old child had elevation of temperature to 400C in anamnesis. Erythrocyte hemolysis E. Toxic synoviitis D. Examination at an outpatient's hospital revealed paleness of skin. Paratrophy of the I grade 113.0. Rheumatism C. B12 deficit 115. Calcium gluconate 112. 33%. reticulocytes – 9%. Evaluate the current weight of the child: A. pain in the upper part of the sternum and cervical part of the spinal column. normal thrombocyte rate.0. sleepiness. Treat with Claritin E. * Clarify mother's diet and exclude obligate allergens B. Administer general ultraviolet irradiation D. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. 150 g less than necessary C.4.3.111.

20. Barbiturates E.3 mm/h. there were no movements and tendon reflexes. tachycardia. In blood: Hemoglobin.20 micromole/L.100/60 mm Hg. Pulse is rapid and weak. A 3-year-old child has been delivered to a hospital in soporose state with considerable amyotonia. BP on the right arm is 110/60 mm Hg. ESR . erythrocytes .116. Viral encephalitis C. and sensitivity was reserved. What is the most probable diagnosis? .8 micromole/L. Antihypertensive drugs D. Polyartropathy D. An 8 year old girl complains about joint pain. direct . What sign gives the most substantial proof for rheumatism diagnosis? A. Fever E. Leukocytosis D. Open aortic duct 118.120 g/L. The murmur passes to the neck and along the sternum left edge. Atropine drugs C. temperature rise up to $38^oC$. dyspnea. inhibition of tendon and periosteal reflexes. The parents suspect the child of accidental taking some tablets. Whole serum bilirubin is 28 micromole/L. A 2 mo. ESR. * Aortic stenosis B. Blood count: leukocytes . Objectively: the left cardiac border is deviated by 2. on the left . indirect . spleen is not enlarged. muscular pain in the right leg occurred in the morning. * Carditis B. and fatigue. upper telorismus) has systolic murmur in the second intercostal to the right of the sternum. Liver is +2 cm enlarged. The temperature declined on the fifth day. systolic murmur on the apex and in the V point is present.0x109/l.18 mm/h. Accelerated ESR 117. What defect is the most probable? A. 5-year-old child fell ill acutely with high temperature 380C. ECG results: hypertrophy of the right ventricle.5\cdot10^{12}$/L. * Poliomyelitis B. Arthralgia C. What is the initial diagnosis? A. Beta-2-adrenoceptor agonists 120.4. In anamnesis: delayed falling-away of umbilical cord rest. A 1. physical development lag. headache. Defect of interventricular septum C. opened mouth. Defect of interatrial septum D. hoarse cry. umbilical hernia. child with birth weight 5100 g has jaundice. The pulse on the left brachial artery is weakened. A 5 year old child with stigmas of dysembryogenesis (small chin. Hip joint arthritis 119. Miosis and asthenocoria are also present. thick lips. Corneal reflexes are preserved. Such clinical presentations are typical for intoxication with the following tableted drugs: A. Osteomyelitis E. * Tranquilizers B. 5 cm to the left. Coarctation of the aorta E.

protein concentration is 1. and periodical skin rash. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis C. Yersinia D. Mucous membrane of palate was hyperemic. * Systematic lupus erythematous B. 20% of lymphocytes). What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Conjugated jaundice E. diarrhea with massive defecation. Enterovirus diseases E. Fruit D. * Cereals . On the 4th day the child presented with maculo-papular rash on face. running nose. sugar concentration is 2.50C.wheat. after this lumbar puncture was performed. A 5-year-old child developed an acute disease starting from body temperature rise up to 38. Examination revealed steady enhancing of ESR. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Objectively: body temperature is normal. Digestible carbohydrates . Examination revealed positive meningeal symptoms. chloride concentration . Subarachnoid hemorrhage E.123 millimole/l.A. What should be excluded from the dietary intake in this case? A.5^oC$. Pandy’s reaction is +++. * Measles B. * Purulent meningitis B. What is your provisional diagnosis? A. runs out under pressure. Congenital hepatitis C. LE-cells. Serous tuberculosis meningitis D. Body weight is 7 kg. there was whitish deposition on cheek mucous membrane next to molars. the child became inert. 8 g/l. Animal protein E.35x109 (80% of neutrophils. cytosis is 2. Acute viral respiratory infection C. Rheumatics 124. Hemolytic anemia D. body temperature rose up to $39. leg edema. A child is 1 year old within the last months after the beginning of supplemental feeding the child has appetite loss. oats B. cough and conjunctivitis. Coprogram shows a lot of fatty acids and soaps. Acute lymphoblast leucosis E. headache. The child was diagnosed with celiac disease and prescribed gluten-free diet. Rubella 122. Body temperature rose again up to $39. Evident pallor of skin. Milk and dairy produce C. sometimes vomiting. A 3 year old child fell acutely ill. Cytomegalovirus infection 121. Systematic scleroderma D. Spinal fluid is turbid. * Congenital hypothyreosis B. joint ache.2 millimole/l. A 13 year old girl complains of having temperature rises up to febrile figures for a month. Over the next few days the rash spread over the whole body and extremities. enlarged abdomen. Serous viral meningitis C. there appeared recurrent vomiting. Brain tumor 123. 2^oC$.

Lymphohypoplastic diathesis . * Bronchography B. the girl can read and explains common situations quite adultly. Objectively: body weight is 7 kg. The child has a 4-year history of bronchial asthma. * Gouty diathesis B.wheat and oats B. Later on there were recurrences of the disease 5-6 times a year. Roentgenography of thorax organs C. Fruit D. The child has been diagnosed with celiac disease and administered the gluten-free diet. Physiotherapy C. the child is very pale. asthma attacks occur mainly in spring and summer. Bacterial inoculation of sputum D. What recommendation should be given? A. Coprogram shows many fatty acids and soaps. body temperature is normal. At the age of 1 year and 8 months he fell ill for the first time with bilateral pneumonia that had protracted course. Her skin is very pale. diarrhea with large amounts of feces and occasional vomiting. Allergy tests revealed hypersensitivity to poplar seed tufts.125. Animal protein E. and abdomen is significantly enlarged. there is edema of both legs. A child is 1 year old. Exudative diathesis D. After the recent introduction of complementary feeding the child has presented with loss of appetite. Objectively: malnutrition. High digestible carbohydrates 126. * Cereals . What is to be excluded from the ration? A. A mother of a 5 year old girl consulted a doctor about daughter’s involuntary urination at night. Milk and dairy products C. An 8 year old boy complains of constant cough along with discharge of greenish sputum. * Specific hyposensitization B. dyspnea during physical activities. Treatment at a health resort D. liver is enlarged in size. What type of diathesis is the most probable in the child's case? A. slow gaining of body weight. sleep disorders. Her mother suffers from holetithiasis. field herbs. Urine acid diathesis C. Spirography 128. What examination results will be the most important for making a final diagnosis? A. nightmares. A 7-year-old child was brought to a doctor for a check. Needle reflex therapy 127. Allergic diathesis E. intellectual development is good. Bronchoscopy E. Phytotherapy E. during the remission periods there was constant productive cough.

5 year old child fell seriously ill: chill. * Autoimmune B. There has been nocturnal enuresis during last week. Penicillin C. Takata-Ara test D. * Hypoglycemia B. Prothrombin test E. Virus-bacterial . She complains also about sour eructation. A 1. What should the differential diagnosis be made with? A. infection-toxic shock. The diagnosis is diabetes mellitus I type. What study method will help to make a diagnosis? A.20С. Lincomycin D. face features are sharpened. Hyperbilirubinemia D. Weltman's coagulation test C. polyuria. Intragastral pH-metric C. Neurogenic E. Sepsis is suspected. Hypomagnesaemia 131. Contrast roentgenoscopy E. * Esophagogastroduodenoscopy B. painful in its epigastria part. heartburn. Objectively: the girl's diet is adequate. A 10 year old girl complains about abdominal pain that is arising and getting worse after eating rough or spicy food. Bacterial D. Hypocalcaemia C. Biochemical blood analysis 130. then rapid dropping to 36. What is the genesis of this disease? A. CNS depression. and irritability. She has been suffering from this for 12 months. A 40 hour old child age has hyperesthesia. * Soluble Levomycetine succinate B. Sulfamonometoxin 132. A 10 year old boy suffers from chronic viral hepatitis type B with maximal activity. frequent constipations. * Transaminase test B. Test for whole protein 133.129.10С. skin is covered with voluminous hemorrhagic rash and purple cyanotic spots. Diagnosis: meningococcosis. Hyperkalemia E. Tongue is moist with white deposit at the root. Extremities are cold. fulminant form. Gentamycin E. Abdomen is soft. What antibiotic must be used at the pre-admission stage? A. Viral C. and increased appetite for 2 months with weight loss for 3 kg. dyspepsia. headache. A 6 year old child complains of thirst. What laboratory test can give the most precise characteristic of cytolysis degree? A. Fractional examination of gastric juice D. On examination: hyperglycemia 14 mole/L. body temperature rise up to 40.

Hyper azotemia D. bronchiolitis B. * Dermatomyositis B. On the 3-rd day the cough grew worse. Examination of a 12 year old child revealed diffuse thyroid enlargement of the II degree. bronchopneumonia C. reduced reflexes. Reiter's disease 137. Dry plasma 138. bronchitis . there is semi cough. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. What disease might have caused such symptoms? A. arrhythmia. and symmetrical affection of skeletal muscles (weakness. Endemic goiter 136. Thyroid hyperplasia E. Objectively: there is a skin lesion over the extensor surfaces of joints with atrophic cicatrices. Aminocapronic acid C. Heart auscultation revealed dullness of heart sounds. * Fresh frozen plasma B. Hypernatremia C. edema. retroperitoneal hematoma. depigmentation.8^0C$. What are these symptoms caused by? A. and hypotrophy). heart rate was 64/min. Washed thrombocytes D. * Acute respiratory viral infection. dyspnea appeared. Acidosis E. An 8-year-old girl has been admitted to the cardiology department. On percussion: tympanic sound above lungs. Acute respiratory viral infection. Diffuse toxic goiter C. Concentration of thyroglobulin antibodies is increased. A 10 year old child who is at oligoanuretic stage of acute renal insufficiency has got sensations of pricking in the mucous membrane of oral cavity and tongue. Thyroid carcinoma D. A 13 year old teenager who suffers from hemophilia A was taken to the hospital after a fight at school. Systemic scleroderma C. His diagnosis is right-sided hemarthrosis of knee joint. respiratory disturbance. Alkalosis 135. Placental albumin E. The child has frequent constipations. Nodular periarteritis D. * Hyperkaliemia B. Systemic lupus erythematous E. child fell seriously ill. on auscultation: a lot of fine moist and wheezing rales during expiration.134. extremities numbness. Acute respiratory viral infection. anemia. What disease are these changes most typical for? A. A 3 mo. * Autoimmune thyroiditis B. What should be primarily prescribed? A. body temperature raised up to $37.

Determination of blood gas composition D. What is the optimal method of treatment? A. Indirect bilirubin of blood . Immunoassay 141. face and neck edema.was 80 m mole/l. and weight loss. presented with jaundice. Acetone in urine test D. Proteinogram E. Thread pulse was present. There were foamy discharges from the mouth. The skin was pale and cold. Acute cardiovascular collapse E. Infusion therapy D. * Blood glucose analysis on an empty stomach B.mucoviscidosis? A. * Inadequate transport of sodium and chloride ions . cough. A 10-year-old girl consulted a doctor about thirst. * Exchange blood transfusion B. The child has been diagnosed with mucoviscidosis. Glucose in urine test on the base of daily diuresis C. Enterosorbents 140. Objectively: no pathology of internal organs was revealed. * Anaphylactic shock B. There have been persistent changes in lungs since the age of 6 months when she was first diagnosed with acute pneumonia. namely sonorous and prolonged expiration. with Apgar score of 8 points. The patient felt hot and short of breath. She has been observing these symptoms for about a month. Cerebral coma 143. A 3-year-old girl presents with pertussis-like cough with thick sputum. involving additional muscles into respiratory process. Glucose tolerance test E. Bronchial asthma D. 6 hours later . After a 10-year-old child had been bitten by a bee.D. Objectively: breathing was labored and noisy. frequent urination. focal pneumonia 139. The Silverman score at birth was 0 points. A child was born at a gestational age of 34 weeks in grave condition. Which diagnostic study will allow diagnosing the form of pneumopathy? A. Heart sounds were muffled and arrhythmic.160 m mole/l. Clinical blood test C. Quincke's edema C. The leading symptoms were respiratory distress symptoms. Chloride concentration in the perspiration is 112 m/l. Acute respiratory viral infection. Glycosuria profile 142. * X-ray of chest B. Phototherapy C. What laboratory analysis should be carried out in the first place? A. in 3 hours it was 3 points with clinical findings. Acute respiratory viral infection. bronchitis with asthmatic component E. There was bradypnea. Phenobarbital treatment E. There were lip. On the 1st day of life a full-term girl (2nd labor) weighing 3500g. What is the basis for autosomal recessive disease . What diagnosis was made by the expert in resuscitation? A. he was delivered to a hospital.

rubella. What is the most likely etiological factor in this case? A. Muscle tonus is within norm. Microcephaly . A 3-year-old child has been taken to a pediatrician. Pneumococcus D. First 48 hours E. Pulmonary artery hypoplasia 144. Pertussis E. Furosemide E. First 24 hours D. * First 30 minutes B. Pulmonary cysts E. What is the optimum time for the first breast-feeding? A. Proteus 148. body length of 50 cm. Meningitis C. Staphylococcus C. * Poliomyelitis B. First 6 hours C. Seduxen 145. Adrenalin D. * Pylorospasm B. * Prednisolone B.B. Measles. Deposition of calcium triphosphates and carbonates in the alveolus D. Klebsiella E. stool is normal in respect of its volume and composition. After feeding the child regurgitates small portions of milk. It is known from the anamnesis that two weeks ago she had exacerbation of chronic tonsillitis. A 10-year-old girl was admitted to a hospital with carditis presentations. What medication should be given for emergency aid? A. Apgar score . A full-term baby was born with body weight of 3200 g. after 48 hours 146. Objective examination revealed no pathology of the internal organs. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. * Streptococcus B. pre fontanel is 2x2 cm large. The child needs the routine immunization against the following disease: A. Type B hepatitis 147. parotitis D. Pylorostenosis D. He has no recent history of any diseases. Head circumference of a 1-month-old boy with signs of excitement is 37 cm. Heparin C.8-10 points. Diphtheria and tetanus C. 15 minutes after the second vaccination with DTP vaccine a 4-month-old boy exhibited the symptoms of Quincke's edema. alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency C.

Cytoxic D. cervical lymph nodes and spleen. The boy suffers with alimentary allergy. dormancy. Hypersensitivity of delayed type C. On the second day after preventive vaccination a 2-year-old boy presented with abdominal pain without clear localization. subfebrile temperature. On the third day the child got red papular hemorrhagic eruption on the extensor surfaces of limbs and around the joints. * Immunocomplex B. DIC syndrome 150. vesiculosis rash mainly on the skin of the body and the hairy part of the head. General condition of the child is normal. Sinusitis (maxillar sinus) D. What is the most probable disease? A. What disease should be suspected? A. Meningococcemia D. vomiting. What kind of allergic reaction is observed? A. At the second wave of the fever a diagnosis of encephalitis was given. He applied to doctor due to suppurative and bloody discharges from nose. Epidermolysis bullosa 151. What disease complicated encephalitis in this case? A. * Chicken pox B. Impetigo E. Knee joints were edematic and slightly painful. enlargement of inguinal. A 5-year-old child had strong headache. Thrombocytopenic purpura C. Rhinoscopy results: there are whitish-greyish areas at nasal septum. ---- E. neck and buttocks. * Diphtheria of the nose B. On the 6th day of life a child got multiple vesicles filled with seropurulent fluid in the region of occiput. Mucous membrane of oropharynx is not changed. Urticarial E. Rhinovirus E. Miliaria D. It was followed by rise in body temperature. A 16-year-old adolescent was vaccinated with DTP. * Hemorrhagic vasculitis B. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Allergic rhinitis C. Examination of other organs and systems revealed no pathological changes. A 7-year-old child is sick for 2 weeks with running nose. was taking nasal drops. Measles . maceration of ala nasi and upper lip. di-scoordination of movements. body temperature rose up to $38^oC$. Impetigo neonatorum C. Hypersensitivity of immediate type 153. urticarial skin eruption. tremor of the extremities on the 8th day of the disease. Adenovirus 152.E. In eight days there was stiffness and pain in the joints. Craniostenosis 149. * Vesiculopustulosis B. ataxy.

rales are not ausculated. upper half of the thorax. vomiting. * Do not conduct specific prophylaxis B. neck.5 ml of tetanus toxoid C. There is a bright papulomacular rash on the face. fever [temperature — 40° C]. District doctor of rural medical department was called to a 12-year-old patient. What document must the doctor issue? A. Influenza 158. Acute appendicitis D. * Influenza B. Mucous membrane of oropharynx is "flaming". dry rales in the lungs. A 14-year-old male on the second day of the disease with a sudden onset complains of a strong headache in temples and in the area of orbits. * Measles B. A male with a stab-wound of the right foot applied to doctor. Administer 3000 U of anti-tetanic serum 156. There are serous and purulent discharge from nose. rash on the skin. Report addressed to Head of the village 155. A 4-year-old child on the 5th day of illness complains of cough. Enterovirus infection D. He stepped on the board with nail two hours ago. pale skin with a flush on a right cheek. German measles C. * Pneumonia croupousa B. The abdomen is painless and soft by palpation. photophobia. His temperature is 39°C. What is your preliminary diagnosis? A. Enterovirus ifection E. In the patient medical chart it is stated those 3 years ago he passed the whole course of vaccination against tetanus. Administer 1 ml tetanus toxoid and 3000 U of anti-tetanic serum D. Intestinal infection C. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. A 10-year-old boy complains of a headache. Administer 0. weakness. conjunctivitis. face is puffy. Infectious disease report E. Acute cholecystitis E. What is the tactics of doctor to prevent tetanus in this case? A. Statistical coupon of final (precise) diagnosis C. Administer 1. dullness on percussion of the lower lobe of the right lung. right hemithorax respiratory movement delays. While examining the patient. What disease causes these symptoms and signs? A. Temperature is 38. weakness of vesicular respiration in this region. dry painful cough. Herpetic infection D. Parainluenza . dull pain in the body. Adenovirus infection E. Scarlet fever 157. German measles 154. On physical examination: there is an expressed dyspnea. Adynamic. Pharynx is hyperemiated.C. * Urgent notification of infectious disease B.2°C.0 ml of tetanus toxoid E. Abstract of outpatient medical card D. the doctor suspected the dysentery.

A 8-year-old boy fell ill acutely: fever.025 Mg D. Meningococcus infection D. Pneumonia E. A 3-year-old boy suddenly fell ill with fever up to 39°C. Penicillin and prednisone E. vomiting. Neonate is 5 days old. Revelation of carriers C.2 mmoUL. Hypersplenism . * Chloramphenicol succinate and prednisone B. Penicillin and immunoglobulin D. In the inhabited locality there is an increase of diphtheria during the last 3 years with separate outbursts in families. indirect — 44 µmol/L. abdominal pain. are scanty. Intrahepatic cholestasis D.8 mmol/L. Hospitalization of patients E. direct .1 Mg C. 0. Chloramphenicol succinate and interferon C.075 Mg E. Early diagnostics D. pus. What is your diagnosis? A. streaks of blood. Escherichiosis C. Meningococcemia with infective-toxic shock of the 1st degree was diagnosed. then diarrhea and tenesmus. ALT — 4. weakness.C. * Immunization of the population B. contain a lot of mucus. Total bilirubin —70/^mol/L. Staphylococcal gastroenteritis 161. headache. Disinfection in disease focus 163.26/xmol/L. Cholera E. AST — 6. Stools occur 12 times daily. Salmonellosis D.05 Mg B. 0. recurrent vomiting. 0. 0. * Cytolysis of hepatocytes B.2 Mg 160. A 10-year-old child is sick with chronic viral hepatitis B with marked activity of the process. Ampicillin and immunoglobulin 162. * 0. What mechanism underlies the transaminase level increase of this pati_ent? A. Hemorrhagic rash of various size appeared on his lower extremities in 5 hours. * Dysentery B. What medications should be prescribed? A. Failure of bilirubin conjugation C. What vaccination dose of bacillius Calmette-Guerin (bCG) vaccine is necessary for this child? A. Respiratory mycoplasmosis 159. weakness. What measure can effectively influence the epidemic process of diphtheria and decrease the morbidity with diphtheria to single cases? A. His sigmoid gut is tender and hardened.

8°C. there was decrease of a muscle tone. Today she has low-grade fever. vomiting. double vision. Acute encephalitis 166. recurrent vomiting. On physical exam. Salmonellosis E. Scarlet fever E. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. A child. flabbiness. Food toxicoinfection C. scleritis. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. anisocoria. A 14-year-old patient felt sick in 16 hours after dried fish intake. * Chicken pox B. Bright-red papulous middle-spotted skin rash on face and behind ears. is ill with fever. Pleocytosis of 2500 cells chiefly polymorphonuclear cells. tremor of the extremities. A 2-year-old girl has been ill for 3 days. On the second wave of the fever encephalitis is diagnosed. Diffuse hyperemia in pharynx. Rubella 167. Measles D. Pseudotuberculosis D. Cataral conjunctivitis. vesicular rash mainly on the trunk and head skin. Failure of the synthetical function of the liver 164. Acute gastritis D. movement discoordination. Complication of what decease can be encephalitis in this case? A. Allergic dermatitis C. severe headache. aged 5. What is your diagnosis? A. ataxia. * Rubella B. Adenoviral infection 168. elevated protein concentration and normal glucose concentration was found in cerebrospinal fluid examination. lethargy. Somewhere elements merge. Soft palate shows enanthema. What is your diagnosis? A. A 9-year-old child is ill for 5 days. Pseudotuberculosis C. On the 8th day there appeared severe headache. The child is not vaccinated. flaccid swallowing and tendon reflex. Scarlet fever E. Convulsions occur in 3 hours. Encephalitis 165. severe catarrhal symptoms.E. * Botulism B. Physician found out positive meningeal sign. Subarachnoidal hemorrhage E. Physical examination: Conscious. There was nausea. * Purulent meningitis B. weakness. * Measles B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Serous meningitis D. Puffy face. A 5-year-old boy fell ill abruptly: fever up to 39. inert. Herpetic infection . non-abundant maculopapular rash on her buttocks and enlarged occipital glands.

Ps . typical disease duration 170. Rubella D. Physical examination revealed suprasternal and intercostals chest retractions. child fell ill acutely with high temperature 38°C. upper part of the chest there is bright maculopapular rash with areas of merging.110/min. t° — 38. facial hydropy. Acute bronchiolitis with respiratory distress B. muscular pain in the right leg occured in the morning. aged 4. . A patient.C. An infant aged 1 year on the third day of common cold at night developed inspiratory stridor. There is a bluish skin discoloration . Parainfluenza C. What disease does the infant have? A. Hyperemic throat. neck. In lungs there are dry crackles. What is the initial diagnosis? A. joints pain. Influenza.5 y. On the face. Seropurulent nasal discharge. sensitivity was reserved. Enterovirus infection D. * Influenza with cerebral edema manifestations B. t° — 39°C. Adenovirus infection D. * Acute infectious croup due to viral laryngotracheitis E. Respiratory syncytial virus E. * Polyomyelitis D.2°C. Polyartropathy E. hoarse voice and barking cough. The respiratory rate is 52 per min and pulse — 122 bpm.o. Enterovirus exanthema 171. Scarlet fever E. The temperature declined on the fifth day. Osteomyelitis 172. pain during the eyeballs movement. * Measles B. Acute laryngitis . conjunctivitis. headache. aged 16. complains of headache. there were no movements and tendon reflexes. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Viral encephilitis B. On examination: excited. mainly in the frontal and temporal areas. photosensitivity. appearing of vomiting at the peak of headache. suffers from cough. Tonic and clones cramps. Uncertain meningeal signs. A child. Hip joint arthritis C. Bronchopneumonia without complications C. superciliary arch. What is the most probable preliminary diagnosis? A. Moistly seen over the upper lip. Rubella 169.5°C. skin rash. The body temperature is 37. Measles E. fatigue. A 1. Acute epiglottitis D. Adenovirus infection C.has being ill for 5 days.

Epidemic typhus B. Radiation sickness C. * Antidiphtheric antitoxic serum E. body temperature rose up to 38. Hemorrhagic inflammation C. Cultivation in the telluric environment C. lacrimation. Periarteritis nodosa . suppurative arthritis. laxity. Eubiotic 177. Amebiasis B. enlarged liver. Adrenal glands show focal necrosis and massive hemmorhages. But this microorganism does not produce exotoxin.173. What kind of inflammation is it? A. What etiotropic preparation should be chosen in this case? A. A 17-year-old boy fell seriously ill. Toxoplasmosis 176. Fibrinous inflammation B. Balantidiasis D. spleen. Bacteriophage C. Examination of throat swab revealed rod-shaped bacteria with volutin granules. Serous inflammation 175. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. * Phage conversion D. Interferon B. Suppurative inflammation D. Lambliasis E. lower extremities). vasculitis. A patient with suspected diphtheria went through bacterioscopic examination. Autopsy of a 12-year-old girl revealed: multiple cutaneous hemmorhages (mostly into the skin of buttocks. loss of appetite. there is cough. Systemic lupus erythematosus E. Passing through the organism of the sensative animals B. From the nasopharynx of a 5-year-old child it was excreted a microorganism which is identical to Corynebacterium diphtheriae dose according to morphological and biochemical signs. As a result of what process can this microorganism become toxigenic? A. The child has sallow skin. kidneys show necrotic nephrosis. serous and mucous memrane hemmorhages. iridocyclitis. Chromosome mutation E. * Visceral leishmaniasis C. peripheral lymph nodes. Parents with an ill child consulted an infectionist. nasal discharges. cerebral hemmorhages. Growing with antitoxic serum 174. What protozoal illness can be suspected? A. rhinitis.50С. * Meningococcemia D. Diphtheria antitoxin D. * Catarrhal inflammation E. They had been working in one of Asian countries for a long time.

Specialized nervous cells (neurons) D. Balantidium B. Crohn's disease B. Autopsy of a 16-year-old male revealed multiple brown-and-green layers and hemmorhages on the mucous membrane of rectum and sigmoid colon. But this microorganism does not produce exotoxin. * Lamblia 179. histologically . What kind of the lowest organisms is it? A. Cells that contain receptor IgM (B-lymphocytes) C. Anti-HBs antibodies were revealed. two symmetrically located nuclei in the broadened part of body. Passing through the organism of the sensative animals B. What does positive result of IFA in this case mean? A. Trichomonas E. Which cells does HIV-virus primarily affect? A. Acute hepatitis B D. The donor who didn't donate the blood for a long time was investigated with IFA method. Salmonellosis D. Intestinal ameba C. As a result of what process can this microorganism become toxigenic? A. Acute hepatitis C E. Cultivation in the telluric environment C. Growing with antitoxic serum 180. * Chronic hepatitis В 182. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Yersiniosis E. Previous hepatitis B C. Dysentery ameba D. In course of bacteriological analysis of colon contents S. 4 pairs of filaments. Chronic hepatitis С B. slime and some blood in colon lumen. Cholera 181. From the nasopharynx of a 5-year-old child it was excreted a microorganism which is identical to Corynebacterium diphtheriae dose according to morphological and biochemical signs. * Cells that contain receptor T4 (T-helpers) B. * Dysentery C. A duodenal content smear of a patient with indigestion contains protosoa 10-18 mcm large. Blood analysis of a patient showed signs of HIV infection (human immunodeficiency virus). * Phage conversion D. They have piriform bodies. Chromosome mutation E. Mast cells . Proliferating cells (stem hematoplastic cells) E.178.Sonne were found.fibrinous colitis.

* Through the auditory tube . Anthraxine test B. Estimation of cystinous activity C. Through canalis caroticus B. What study should be conducted in order to drow a conclusion that this is a pathogenic diphtheria bacillus? A. G B. * E 185. tinctorial. child has had flu. A boy is 7 y.o. Cervical lymph nodes are enlarged. neck. * Estimation of toxigenic properties 184. tongue is crimson. D C. How did the infection penetrate into the middle ear? A. * Mantoux test C. Through canalis nasolacrimalis C. What hepatitis virus could have caused the infective outbreak in this settlement? A. Through atrium mastoideum D. in the popliteal spaces. soft. at the bottom of abdomen. Their morphological. After a 2 y. A hepatitis outbreak was registered in a settlement. A doctor revealed hearing impairment and inflammation of the middle ear. nasolabial triangle is pale.o.183. Supracutaneous tularin test E. Estimation of ability to decompose starch D. From pharynx of a child with suspected diphtheria a pure culture of microorganisms was isolate d. Whooping cough 186. Burnet test 187. Diphtheria E. B D. The first grade pupils were examined in order to sort out children for tuberculosis revaccination. lacunas contain pus. * Scarlet fever B. C E. Objectively: against the background of hyperemic skin there is knobby bright-pink rash on his forehead. Schick test D. there appeared complaints about ear ach e. dense and painful. Estimation of proteolytic properties E. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Examination of oropharyngeal surface revealed localized bright-red hyperemia. Through foramen jugularis E. Infectious mononucleosis C. Rubella D. cultural and biochemical properties appeared to be typical for diphtheria causative agents. What test was applied for this purpose? A. This episode is connected with water factor. Estimation of urease activity B. tonsils are swollen.

A 7 year old boy fell seriously ill. In course of laboratory diagnostics a bacteriologist performed dark-field microscopy of the patient's blood drop. muscle aching. Examination of a child revealed some whitish spots looking like coagulated milk on the mucous membrane of his cheeks and tongue. This process is based upon: A. Of a chronic process B. Blood serum contained IgM to the rubella virus. RNA that contains AIDS virus penetrated into a leukocyte and by means of reverse transcriptase forced a cell to synthetize a viral DNA. the body temperature rose up to 38. Borrelia dutlonii E. A pregnant woman was registered in an antenatal clinic and underwent complex examination for a number of infections. What inflammation is it? A. * Of primary infection D. Serous B. Analysis of smears revealed gram-positive oval yeast-like cells. Convariant replication D. Of recurring infection with rubella virus C. Purulent C. * Leptospira interrogans C.188. What is this result indicative of? A. * Reverse transcription C. Of exacerbation of a chronic disease E. Actinomycetes 191. Rickettsia mooseri B. rhinitis. Francisella tularensis . Operon depression B. Hemorrhagic E. The woman is healthy 193. Calymmatobacterium granulomatis 189. The territory of an old burial ground for animal refuse that hasn't been used for over 50 years is meant for house building. nasal discharges. Staphylococci B. Fibrinous D. But soil investigation showed the presense of viable spores of a causative agent causing a very dangerous diseas E. * Catarrhal 192. lacrimation. Reverse translation 190. What microorganism might have been preserved in soil for such a long period of time? A. chill. Bartonella bacilloformis D. What causative agents are they? A. Fusobacteria D. nose bleedings.5oC there appeared cough. Diphtheria bacillus C. A man was admitted to the hospital on the 5th day of disease that manifested itself by jaundice. Operon repression E. Name a causative agent of this disease: A. * Candida E. Brucella abortus B.

Eubiotic E. * Cyprofloxacin 198. Adsorbed diphtheria vaccine D. Bacterioscopic examination of a smear from the pharynx of a diphtheria suspect revealed bacilli with volutine granules. Amoxicillin D. Planned mass vaccination of all newborn 5-7 day old children against tuberulosis plays an important role in tuberculosis prevention. Streptococci D. What microorganisms are these? A. Sulfadimethoxine E. Interferon D. What drug of fluoroquinolone group is CONTRA-INDICATED at this age? A. Mycobacterium bovis E. A patient recovered from Sonne dysentery and was once more infected with the same causative agent. Yersinia pestis D. Gram-positive bacilli with clublike thickenings on their ends placed in form of spread wide apart fingers are visible by microscop E. Diphtheria and tetanus anatoxin vaccine C. Diphtheritic anatoxin C. It resulted in growth of grey. Ampicillin C. What etiotropic drug should be chosen in this case? A. Botulism clostridia 195. Inoculum from pharynx of a patient ill with angina was inoculated into blood-tellurite agar.C. Superinfection B. Persisting infection . * BCG 197. radially striated (in form of rosettes) colonies 4-5 mm in diameter. A 7 year old child is ill with bronchitis. Diphteria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine E. Ampiox B. It is necessary to administer him an antibacterial drug. Bacteriophage 196. What is such infection form called? A. * Diphtheria corynebacteria E. * Reinfection D. In this case the following vaccine is applied: A. Streptobacilli C. * Bacillus anthracis 194. Diphtheroids B. - B. * Antidiphtheritic antitoxic serum B. Chronic infection C. Recidivation E.

How can you explain these signs? A. repeated vomiting. catarrhal presentations. hepatolienal syndrome. vertigo. excitement.2*109/L. A 14 y. weakness.o.1237 in 1 ml. patient without permanent residence was admitted to the hospital with the preliminary diagnosis influenza. Typhoid fever E. Meningococcal infection: serous meningitis C. Measles D. Meningitis B. * HIV-infection 201. She lost 7 kg within the last 3 months. face hyperemia. patient began with raise of temperature up to 39. The analysis of liquor revealed: cytosis . tongue tremor. Lymphogranulomatosis E. Rigidity of occipital muscles is determined. headache. Meningeal signs are negative. Pseudotuberculosis B. sclera reddening. Infectionous mononucleosis B. then mental confusion appeared on the 5th day of illness. A 2 y. On the fith day of illness he got a maculopapular petechial rash on his body and internal surfaces of extremities. slight maculopapular rash on her buttocks and enlarged occipital lymph nodes. On bacterioscopy: gram-negative cocci are found in liquor. * Encephalitis C. Serous meningitis D. Infectious mononucleosis 200. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. female consulted a doctor about continued fever. What disease can be suspected? A. Tuberculosis D. * Rubella . Headache. Myelitis E. * Meningococcal infection: purulent meningitis E. girl has been ill for 3 days. A 7 y. She had casual sexual contacts. Leptospirosis D. What is your diagnosis? A. What is the most probable disease? A. Secondary purulent meningitis B. splenomegaly. Cerebrospinal fluid examination is normal. Meningoencephalitis D. Adenoviral infection C.o.o. Neurotoxic syndrome 202.o. Measles 203. tremor of her limbs.199. Delirium alcoholicum C. Blood count: leukocytes .00С. Body temperature is 410С. night sweating.o. * Epidemic typhus B. ataxia. euphoria. Today she has low grade fever. girl has mild form of varicella. tachycardia. chill. A 14 y. 16% of lymphocytes.2. The disease of a 2 y. Objectively: enlargement of all lymph nodes. including: 84% of neutrophils. Chroniosepsis C.

* Anthrax. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. stool is partly acholic. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. A patient complains of skin painfullness and reddness of the right gastrocnemius muscle. it is sensitive. Intestinal yersiniosis C. enlarged and painful inguinal lymph nodes on the right. Erysipelas. liver sticks from under the costal margin by 3 cm. Three weeks ago he went in for fishing and shared his dishes with friends. Crus phlegmon D. Extremities are cold.o. body temperature rise up to 380С for 2 days. single vomiting. Skin of extremity is edematic. Leptospirosis B. hemorrhagic form C. sigmoid colon is spasmed. skin and scleras are icteritious. appetite loss. Amebiasis 207. dermal form B. child fell seriously ill: chill. Herpetic infection . Malignant tumors of large intestine D. he feels chill.5 y. Penicillin C.10С.E. face features are sharpened. hyperemic.50С. infection-toxic shock. Abdomen palpation reveals painfulness in its left half. Sulfamonometoxin D.20С. body temperature rise up to 40. has got a fever. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Chickenpox E. t0. There is distinct border between normal and hyperemic skin.36.80С. covered with eruption in form of vesicles containing dark fluid. body temperature raised up to 38. A 1. then rapid dropping to 36. its palpation is painful. male fell seriously ill. Nonspecific ulcerative colitis E. paroxysmal pain in the left iliac region. A 17 y. fulminant form. Objectively: the patient is flabby. Urine is dark. * Acute dysentery B. Hemolytic anemia E. A 16 y. Diagnosis: meningococcosis. Infectious mononucleosis D. spleen isn't palpable. skin is covered with voluminous hemorrhagic rash and purple cyanotic spots. Lincomycin E.o. Scarlet fever 204.50С. * Soluble Levomycetine succinate B. patient was admitted to the hospital with complaints of having skin and sclera icteritiousness. Objectively: body temperature is 38. dark urine. Colibacillosis C. Gentamycin 205.o. frequent defecation in form of fluid bloody and mucous mass. What antibiotic must be used at the pre-admission stage? A. * Virus A hepatitis 206.

There is hemorrhagic rash on the skin. There is no urine.80C. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. tachycardia. Yersiniosis 210. The dermal integuments and scleras are icteric. The patient went fishing two weeks ago. On objective examination: paleness. Yersiniosis D. bronchopneumonia D. dyspnea appeared. Blood pressure is low. tongue tremor. pain in the muscles. The patient 15 y. there is semicough. Salmonellosis B. focal pneumonia C. patient who has no permanent residence was admitted to the hospital with preliminary diagnosis "influenza". Body temperature is 410С. Typhoid fever D. on the 5-th day of disease there are appeared maculopapular and petechial rash on his body and internal surfaces of his extremities. A 17 y. Salmonellosis.o. The patient was admitted to the hospital on the 7-th day of the disease with complaints of high temperature. Leptospirosis B.208. Acute respiratory viral infection. headache. The frequent watery stool developed 6 hours ago. hyperemic face. Acute respiratory viral infection. splenomegaly. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. eyes are deeply sunken in the orbits. excitement. What is the preliminary diagnosis? A. gastrointestinal form 212. scleras reddening. On examination: his voice is hoarse. * Leptospirosis C. widened pupils. A 3 m. especially in calf muscles. Leptospirosis C. On the 3-rd day the cough grew worse.o. The pulse is frequent.o. * Botulism B. Measles 209. bronchiolitis 211. was admitted on the 1st day of the disease with complaints of double vision in the eyes. Brucellosis D. The disease began acutely. euphoria. constipation are marked. * Spotted fever E. bradycardia. Lambliasis E. On percussion: tympanic sound above lungs. bronchitis with asthmatic component E. bronchitis B. body temperature rised up to 37. Urine is bloody. Delirium alcoholicum C. What is the diagnosis? A. The body's temperature is normal. Trichinellosis E. child fell seriously ill. heavy breathing. Acute respiratory viral infection. What is the diagnosis? A. Acute respiratory viral infection. The day before the patient ate home-made mushrooms. * Acute respiratory viral infection. on auscultation: a lot of fine moist and wheezing rales during expiration. disorder of swallowing. Dysentery . Then the vomiting was joined.

Allergic rash .35*109 (80% of neutrophils. enlargement and edema. coryza. Mucous membrane of oropharynx is hyperemic. Pseudotuberculosis 214. Pharyngeal diphtheria 215. headache.30С. Body temperature 38. Salmonellosis C. after this lumbal puncture was performe D. male complains of acute throat pain. neck lymph nodules are slightly enlarged and painful. What is your diagnosis? A. Typhoid fever E. A 3 year old child has been suffering from fever. Serous viral meningitis D. Except of rash the child's skin has no changes. Pandy reaction is +++. 20% of lymphocytes). Subarachnoid haemorrhage 216. Іnfectious mononucleosis B.B. vomiting. Today it has fever up to 39oC and maculopapular rash on its face. Pharyngeal candidosis D. A 3 year old child fell acutely ill. there appeared recurrent vomiting. tonsils are covered by round yellow fibrinous patches around crypts openings. Minute bright red rash appear in her reddened skin in 3 hours. girl fell ill abruptly: fever. It is more intensive in axillae and groin. * Cholera D. Rubella E.123 millimole/l. the child became inert. conjunctivitis for 4 days. severe sore throat. headache. Spinal fluid is turbid. Serous tuberculous meningitis B.o. * Acute membranous tonsilitis C.5oC. He has been taking sulfadimethoxine. Pseudotuberculosis D. Rubella C. Greyish patches is on the tonsills. Acute follicular tonsilitis E. A 7 y. What is your diagnosis? A.o. A 12 y. runs out under pressure. Toxic food-borne infection 213. Enteroviral infection C. * Measles E. Pharyngoscopically - tonsilar hyperemia. sugar concentration is 2. protein concentration is 1. increasing upon swallowing during 3 days. Submaxillary lymph nodes are enlarged and painful. Measles B. * Purulent meningitis E. Beta-haemolytic streptococcus in swab analysis. chloride concentration . cytosis is 2. body temperature rose up to 39.2 millimole/l. Brain tumour C. * Scarlet fever D. Scarlet fever B. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. cough.8 g/l. Examination revealed positive meningeal symptoms. What is the diagnosis? A.

A patient in grave condition was delivered to the admission ward of a hospital on the 2nd day of illness. aphonia. The day before she ate home-made stockfish. * Typhoid fever B. Stool is liquid in form of rice water. General condition is moderately severe. headache. A 7 year old patient complains about general weakness. frequent defecations up to 18 times a day. Heart sounds are muffled. Brucellosis 218. Salmonellosis 220. Ps is 102 bpm. sharpened features of face. drawn-in. Escherichiosis D. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. The illness began abruptly 3 days ago with chill. feces contain admixtures of mucus and bloo D. Malaria E. body temperature is 37. Examination revealed body temperature of 36. weakness.8oC. convulsive twitching of some muscle groups. Yersiniosis 219. The liver is enlarged by 2 cm. dry skin that makes a fold. mainly in the left iliac area.1oC. The pulse rate is 78 bpm. * Parenteral introduction of polyvalent antibotulinic serum C. Amebiasis C. * Dysentery D. Sepsis C. nausea. A 12 year old girl complains about abrupt weakness. Abdomen is soft. a scratch on the left knee. Intestinal amebiasis C. vision impairment. AP is 50/20 mm Hg. painless. fever. bilateral ptosis. bee. Gastric lavage D. Salmonellosis B. Parenteral introduction of antitetanus serum E. Nonspecific ulcerative colitis E. mydriatic pupils. Acute dysentery E. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Sigmoid colon is spasmed and painful. * Cholera B. Anuria is presnt. Acrocyanosis is present. A 13 year old patient was admitted to the clinic with complaints of the temperature rise up to 39. spastic pain in the lower parts of his abdomen. dizziness. What therapy would be the most adequate in this case? A. headach E. Parenteral disintoxication . constipation on the 9th day of the diseas E. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. dryness of mucous membranes of oral pharynx. The girl is unable to read a simple text (mist over the eyes). Examination revealed skin pallor. Parenteral introduction of antibiotics B. On examination: single roseolas on the skin of the abdomen are present.0oC. Leptospirosis D.217.

high temperature. general weakness. Allergic dermatitis . Seduxen 224. The liver is enlarged by 3 cm. Diagnosis: Acute viral encephalitis. Jaundice progressed on the 14th day of the diseas E. spleen . Cholangitis 223. аcholic stools. Lasix 225. yellowness of the skin and scleras. The liver diminished in siz E. Relapse of viral hepatitis E. Hemodesis D. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. A. * Herpes zoster varicellosus B. tickling by swallowing. systemic dizziness. The liver is protruded by 3 cm. What complication of viral hepatitis caused deterioration of the patient's condition? A. * Infectious mononucleosis 222. A male presents to physician with cramping pain in left side of the chest.by 1 cm. Physical examination: multiple aggregated vesicles with edematous roofs filled with transparent liquid. An 17 year old patient was admitted to a hospital with complaints of headache. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Acute lymphoid leukosis E. Glucocorticoids C. Streptococcal (Fox's) impetigo D. Adenoviral infection C. * Zovirax B. Vesicles are situated on the erythematous and edematous background along 4-5 intercostals. Infectious-toxic shock B. weakness. Determine the basic direction of the emergent therapy. Angina B. sore throat. The beginning of the disease was gradual: nausea. Furosemide D. Pityriasis rosea C.221. Meningitis D. Objectively: enlargement of all groups of lymph nodes was revealed. In blood: leukocytosis. What medication should be applied for emergency aid? A. sensation of double vision. Diphtheria D. dark urine. * Prednisolone C. In the morning skin rash on chest is noted. Heparin E. Cephtriaxon E. fever and headache that have appeared 2 days ago. Adrenalin B. * Hepatic encephlopathy C. A 14-year-old male on the 5th day of acute respiratory disease with high grade temperature started having strong headaches. 2-4 mm in diameter.15%. 15 minutes after the second vaccination with diphteria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine a 4 month old boy manifested symptoms of Quincke's edem A. atypical lymphocytes . vomiting. paresis of mimic muscles to the right. A patient has been in a hospital.

Ps 86 bpm. Sepsis E. * Botulism B. If liquor cytosis is 150. gastrointestinal form C. Erysipelas 230. If leucocytosis and left neutrophil shift are absent E. Tongue is dry. What is your preliminary diagnosis? A. 1 year later present complaints have developed. The stomach is bloated . enlarged firm liver. Yersiniosis D. covered with dark brown scab. * If liquor cytosis is 100 or less. Physical examination: skin is pale. diameter 1. Physical examination: subicteric sclerae. covered by spot and prints of teeth on lateral surface. Exanthematic typhus (Spotted fever) B. He fell ill acutely 12 hours ago. She was treated in an infectious hospital. Right away D. nausea. mainly due to neutrophils 228. acute weakness. Abdomen is soft with dullness of percussion sound in ileocecal area. worsening of eyesight. BP 90/60 mmHg. A child with meningococcus meningitis has been taking penicillin for 7 days. sleeplessness for 8 days. * Anthrax B. headache. History: disease started with jaundice in 2 months after appendectomy.8°C. swallowing is disturbed. pupils are wide with weak reaction to light. If liquor cytosis is 100 or less. When is it possible to cancel antibiotic? A. Salmonella infection. On physical examination an ulcer on right forearm is revealed.5 cm.39.E. There is a severe edema of forearm soft tissues. decreased appetite. The right-side cubital and axillary lymphatic nodes are enlarged and tender. He has fresh scratches on his hands.fever 38° C for 3 days.What is the most likely diagnosis? A. mainly due to lymphocytes C. surrounded by zone of hyperaemia with fine vesicles. mainly due to lymphocytes B. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. ulcerobubonic form E. Felinosis C. A 14-year-old male. Herpes simplex 226. A 15-year-old male is hospitalized with complaints of double vision. Before falling ill he ate mushrooms. Last 4 days a body's temperature is normal. Ps 55 bpm. Severe muscle weakness. difficulty of breath. A 12-year-old female complains of fever. Miliary tuberculosis 229. Influenza D. Skin is pale with solitary roseola rash at the abdomen. Hepatosplenomegalia . Meningitic signs are absent. * Typhoid fever C. Lambliasis 227. Tularaemia. complains of moderate weakness. A 12-year-old male complains of dull right subcostal pain. On physical examinations: t . Staphylococcus carbuncle D. Leptospirosis E. What is your preliminary diagnosis? . dryness in the mouth.

BP 80/50 mmHg. facial hydropy. Toxico-infection shock C. photosensitivity. upper part of the chest there is bright maculopapular rash with areas of merging. Acute viral hepatitis D.110/min. * Macrolide of 2nd generation B. A patient. complains of headache. Aminopenicilline D. Seropurulent nasal discharge. t° — 38. Enterovirus exanthema . Calculous cholecystitis E. Uncertain meningeal signs. Cephalosporine of 2nd generation E. On the face. Chronic cholangitis C. Rubella D. Respiratory syncytial virus E.A. Adenovirus infection D. Adenovirus infection C. mainly in the frontal and temporal areas. In lungs there are dry crackles. Tonic and clones cramps. skin rash. conjunctivitis.has being ill for 5 days. Influenza. Hyperemic throat. suffers from cough. aged 4.2°C. aged 16. typical disease duration 234. appearing of vomiting at the peak of headache. Haemolytic crisis D. What is the most probable preliminary diagnosis? A. The liver is painful at palpation and is reduced in size. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. . aged 8 months. * Measles B. * Chronic viral hepatitis B. Macrolide of 1st generation C. Acute adrenal failure E. On examination: excited. A baby. is examined and a diagnosis of atypical community-acquired pneumonia of chlamidial etiology is made. Scarlet fever E. * Acute hepatic failure B. Ps . pain during the eyeballs movement. What complication is the most likely being observed? A. A child. Acute renal failure 233. superciliary arch. * Influenza with cerebral edema manifestations B. What is the optimum alternative of antibiotic therapy in this case? A. Physical examination: Ps 110 bmp. joints pain. A patient suffering with virus hepatitis B presents with increase of jaundice and bloody vomiting after break of diet and nervous stress. Gilbert's disease 231. Parainfluenza C. Aminoglycoside 232. t° — 39°C. neck.

* Malaria B. Cyanotic lips.235. A female. The face is pale with yellowish tinge. Liver. palatinel tonsils are enlarged and coated with grey plaque which spreads to the uvula and frontal palatinel arches. lasted 12 hours. Epilepsy B. voice is constrained.9°C speech is difficult. Body temperature — 38. hat is the most probable diagnosis? A. Infectious mononucleosis E. The illness started 5 days ago. General blood analysis E. sensation of heat alternating with profuse sweat. mainly to the right. complains of periodical febrile chills with fever up to 40°C. Oropharyngeal candidosis D. In a college with the majority of 14-year-old students preventive antituberculosis planned examination is taking place. * Peritonsillar abscess B. On the third day there was tension of all muscle groups. In blood: RBC 2. and were accompanied by the headache. which appeared every other day. Phlegmonous tonsillitis 238. enlarged. Sputum analysis for tuberculosis mycobacteria D. A 15 y. there were muscles tension of back. Next day she ate with difficulties. A woman complains of high temperature to 38°C. aged 33. generalized convulsions every 10-15 min. During last three months has lived in a tropical African country. A patient complains of intense pressing pain in the pharynx. Vincent's disease E. Fluorographic C. * Larynx dyphtheria 239. mild pain in the throat during 3 days. Epidemic typhus D. Physical examination 237.o. spleen are enlarged. Agranulocytosis B. Diphtheria D. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Leptospirosis C. difficulties in opening the mouth.5 * lO12/L. Sepsis E. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Pharyngeal tumour C. Hemoiytic anaemia 236. Vincent's angina C. The patient's condition is grave. Submaxillary lands to the right are painful. lumbar and muscular pain. female complains of complicated mouth opening following foot trauma 10 days ago. the back of the head and abdomen. * Tetanus . On examination: angle lymphatic nodes of the jaw are 3 cm enlarged. impossibility to swallow even liquid food. Which method from the following should be used? A. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. The patient has already suffered 3 such attacks. * Mantoux [ tuberculin ] test with 2 TU B.

Hemorrhagic stroke 240. Hemodesis E.o. Chroniosepsis 241. The painful lymphatic nodules are determined in the axillary area. ІІІ . On the 5-th day of the respiratory disease a 24 y. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Glucocorticoids Назва наукового напрямку (модуля): Семестр: 12 6 year Pediatrics. * Bubonic plague B.o. Lymphogranulomatosis D. paresis of mimic muscles on the right. What is the main direction of urgent therapy? A.2*109/L. * Zovirax D. feeling of seeing double. rise of temperature developed 10 hours ago. * ІІ B. tests Опис: Exam 2016 Перелік питань: 1. She's lost weight for 7 kg during the last 3 months. the tongue is coated by white coating. І C. Lymphogranulomatosis 242. Acute viral encephalitis has been diagnosed. choking while swallowing. hepatolienal syndrom. Tularemia E. Acute purulent lymphadenitis C. man has developed progressive headaches systemic dizziness. Ceftriaxon B. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Anthrax D. The patient has developed pain in the axillary area. The skin is erythematous and glistering over the lymphatic nodules. nocturnal sweating. The pulse is frequent. In blood: WBC — 2. Tetania D. Tuberculosis E. On examination: enlargement of all lymphaden groups. At what stage of upper respiratory failure arterial pressure is increased? A. A 24 y. Meningoencephalitis E. woman presents with prolonged fever. Lasix C.C. On examination: shaky gait is marked. Infectious mononucleosis B. She had irregular intercourses. * HIV-infection C.

A new-born child was born in asphyxia and covered by a green amniotic liquid. * pneumococcus D. roentgenologic changes do not increase or even decrease E. Catetherization of umbilical vein C. Mixed type E. Your primary measures: A. except: A. Laryngospazm B. Restrictive type 5. Metabolic acidosis B.48 hours from the beginning of treatment C. * increase of dyspnea D. * Obstructive type B. ІV E. streptococcus B. decrease of dyspnea 6. Mixed acidosis 8. More often the etiology of community acquired pneumonia in children from 7 to 15 years is: A. * Respiratory acidosis C. decrease of temperature below 38°C in 24 . At mild pneumonia antibacterial therapy lasts: . At acute pneumonia acid-alkaloid balance carries mainly character of: A. improvement of the general condition B. Artificial ventilation with the use of endotracheal tube B. Application of 100% oxygen E. Obstruction by tongue is accompanied with acute respiratory failure of: A. Respiratory alkalosis E. Metabolic alkalosis D. hemophilus influenza E. A. A complete effect of pneumonia treatment by antibiotic is all. * Sucking of tracheal content 7. coli 3. * Poliomyelitis 4. Pneumothorax D.D. Acute endobronchitis E. Ventilation type C. Diffuse-distributive type D. chlamydia C. V 2. Name the reason of ventilation acute respiratory failure. Viral pneumonia C. E. Artificial ventilation with the use of mask and sack D.

14 . 24 . * І B. At all stages E. 15 . * 10 . than 60 мм Hg.18 days 10.10 days D. 7 . than 60 мм Hg. than 50 мм Hg. ІІ B. At severe pneumonia antibacterial therapy lasts: A. At all stages E. * ІІ C.7 days B.7 days B. 10 . At what stage of respiratory insufficiency oxygen saturation of blood is 95.28 days 11. рО2 is below.21 day D. * 14 . than 80 mm Hg. than 70 мм Hg. It is normal 14. рО2 is below. ІІІ D. 21 . At what stage of respiratory insufficiency the oxygen saturation of blood is less than 70%? . 7 .20 days E. At moderate pneumonia antibacterial therapy lasts: A. рСО2 more than 80 мм Hg E.24 days E. 10 . рСО2 more than 30 мм Hg 12.10 days C. * І C.14 days E. * 7 .5 days C.18 days 9. At all stages E.14 day D. 5 . рО2 is below. 5 .A. At what stage of respiratory insufficiency permanent perioral and acrocyanosis are observed? A. ІІІ D. рО2 is below. рСО2 more than 20 mm Hg B. At what indexes of the partial pressure of О2 and СО2 hypoxemic coma is developing? A.85%? A. Does not have the diagnostic value 13. ІІ C. * рО2 is below. І B.10 days B. Does not have the diagnostic value 15. ІІІ D. At what stage of respiratory insufficiency inconstant perioral cyanosis is observed? A. 3 . 15 . рСО2 more than 60 мм Hg C.14 days C. рСО2 more than 30 мм Hg D.

Choose clinical signs which are not typical for acute pneumonia: A. At what stage of RF oxygen blood saturation is decreased on 10%? A. ІІІ C. Cyanosis C. Does not have the diagnostic value 17. Moist and dry rales D. Paleness of the skin . Shortening of pulmonary resonance E. ІV D. At all stages 16. on the «healthy» side E. * Short breath. ІІІ C. І D. Everything enumerated is right B. on a stomach C. * on the «sick» side D. Crepitation 21. At all stages E. ІІ B. hypothermia B.A. ІІ E. V E. Children with lobar pneumonia give advantage to lying: A. * ІІІ C. * І 19. * Cyanosis of the skin C. Does not have the diagnostic value B. on the back B. * ІІІ 18. At what stage of upper respiratory stenosis does inspiratory short breath occur? A. ІІ B. ІІ B. At what stage of upper respiratory failure arterial pressure is decreased? A. І C. on the left side 20. ІV D. V E. * І D. Choose criteria of respiratory insufficiency: A.

Complicated pneumonia E. Croupous (lobar) pneumonia begins: A. Respiratory ins. the severe intoxication B. propensity to formation of destruction E. C. II st. Respiratory ins.1. lobar pneumonia D. 0 st. cereus is not typical: A. * Severe pneumonia D. signs of intoxication 27. I st. in the side) B. acutely D. segmental pneumonia C. Correlation of pulse and breathing 2 .5 : 1 is typical for: A. Respiratory ins.D. * from the signs of URT Infection C. segmental pneumonia 23. much mucus-purulent sputum D. B. Moderate pneumonia C. immediately 25. pleuropneumonia E. For pneumococcal pneumonia is not typical: A. Clinical changes in the lungs during percussion not typical for: A. For treatment of mild pneumonia semisynthetic penicillin’s are used in a dose: . signs of hypoxia 28. Cyanotic marbling and grey color of the skin occur at: A. Respiratory ins. For pneumonia which is caused by the B. Bradycardia 22. * focal pneumonia B. 24. III st. * absence of the respiratory insufficiency C. gradually B. IVst. E. Mild pneumonia B. gradual beginning C. * pain syndrome (stomach-ache. changed breathing without wheezes E. D. In infants with pneumonia 26. shortening of the percutory sound above the focus of pneumonia D. * Respiratory ins. subacutely E. Short breath E.

A.100 mg/kg/daily D.200 mg/kg/daily 29. 30 . during 12 hours after discharge from the hospital C.150 mg/kg/daily E. Bilateral 32. Mild B. during a 24 hours after discharge from the hospital D.150 mg/kg/daily E. 2 C. 50 .50 mg/kg/daily B. 30 .200 mg/kg/daily 30. 80 . during 56 hours after discharge from the hospital 34.80 mg/kg/daily C.100 mg/kg/daily D.80 mg/kg/daily C. during a 24 hours being in the hospital D. 100 . 100 . * 150 . during 12 hours being in the hospital C. 1 B.50 mg/kg/daily B.100 mg/kg/daily D.150 mg/kg/daily E. Lobar E. 150 . 150 . * Severe D. * 80 . during 56 hours being in the hospital 33. How many stages of respiratory stenosis are? A. 50 . Hospital pneumonia is one that developed: A. Functional and organic changes of all organs and systems are characteristic at pneumonia: A. 80 .50 mg/kg/daily B. Hospital pneumonia is one that developed: A. during 6 hours being in the hospital B. 30 . * 50 . 100 . * during 48 hours being in the hospital E. during 6 hours after discharge from the hospital B. Moderate C. For treatment of severe pneumonia semisynthetic penicillin’s are used in a dose: A. For treatment of moderate pneumonia semisynthetic penicillin’s are used in a dose: A. * during 48 hours after discharge from the hospital E.200 mg/kg/daily 31. * 4 .80 mg/kg/daily C.

RS virus C. vascular insufficiency E. coli D. tetracycline’s 39. More often the etiology of community acquired pneumonia in children from 6 months to 6 years is: A. cardiac insufficiency D. * staphylococcus B. 5 35. mycoplasm C. Mostly destructive pneumonia is caused by: . Right ventricular D. during first 14 days of life 36. * pneumococcus D. except: A. Left heart C. * exicosis B. pneumococcus E. * aminopenicillins B. staphylococcus E. antibiotics of other groups E. during first 3 days of life B. Left ventricular E. during first 10 days of life E. respiratory insufficiency 38. Intrauterine pneumonia is one that developed: A. Total heart 37. toxicosis C. 3 E. carbapenems C. Main complications of pneumonia are. Lack of blood arterialization at pneumonia is compensated by increased cardiac work of: A. * Right heart B. coli 40. * during first 5 days of life C. mycoplasm 41. except: A. Medicine of choice to treat typical community acquired pneumonias is: A. chlamydia B. fluorquinolones D.D. E. during first 7 days of life D. E. More often the etiology of typical community acquired pneumonia in children before 6 months are the following.

A. pneumococci
B. * staphylococci
C. proteus
D. klebsiella
E. streptococci
42. Name the reason of obstructive acute respiratory failure.
A. Paresis of intestine
B. Cranial-cerebral trauma
C. Severe toxicosis
D. * Stenosis of larynx
E. Great number of ribs fractures
43. Name the reason of restrictive acute respiratory failure.
A. * Dry pleurisity
B. Meningoencephalitis
C. Laryngospazm
D. Viral pneumonia
E. Pneumothorax
44. Neonates primarily have pneumonia:
A. * Aspiration
B. Atelectatic
C. Atypical
D. Alveolar
E. Bronchopneumonia
45. The abscess in destructive pneumonia will be on x-ray as:
A. * the round air formation on the background of infiltration
B. the round formation of the high degree of infiltration, afterwards - with the level of liquid on the
background of infiltration
C. infiltration near the walls and in the area of sinus together with the pulmonary infiltration
D. total homogeneous infiltration
E. displacement of the mediastinal organs into opposite side

46. Oxygen saturation of the blood 90 % is typical for:
A. Respiratory ins. 0 st.
B. * Respiratory ins. I st.
C. Respiratory ins. II st.
D. Respiratory ins. III st.
E. Respiratory ins. IVst.
47. Paresis of diaphragm is accompanied with acute respiratory failure of:
A. Ventilation type
B. Obstructive type
C. Diffuse-distributive type

D. Mixed type
E. * Restrictive type
48. Pneumococci are absolutely stable to:
A. penicillines
B. * aminoglicozides
C. macrolydes
D. cephalosporins
E. tetracycline
49. Pneumonia which is caused by the B.cereus is not typical at:
A. cystic fibrosis
B. defects of the lungs development
C. defects of immunity
D. * rickets
E. anomaly of the lungs
50. Pulmonary complications of pneumonia are not belong to:
A. pleurisy
B. pneumothorax
C. pyopneumothorax
D. * septic shock
E. abscess
51. Shortening of percussion sound above the focus of pneumonia in the early age children appears:
A. in the first days of disease
B. * on 3 - 5 day of illness
C. on 5 - 10 day of illness
D. on 10 - 15 day of illness
E. on 15 - 20 day of illness
52. Specify an absolute indication for artificial ventilation.
A. Critical diminishment of backlogs of breathing
B. Progress of respiratory acidosis
C. * Apnoe
D. All from these
E. Nothing of these
53. Specify the maximal concentration of О2 during the artificial ventilation.
A. * 60%
B. 70%
C. 80%

D. 90%
E. 100%
54. Staphylococcal pneumonia develops mainly at children:

A. teenagers
B. * school age
C. preschoolers
D. in the first year of life
E. in the second year of life
55. The manifestation of focal pneumonia at preschoolers and schoolchildren consists of the following,
except:
A. symptoms of intoxication
B. signs of cardiac insufficiency
C. signs of respiratory insufficiency
D. * local physical changes
E. hypoxemia
56. The clinical features of an acute pneumonia at children of the early age do not depend on the
following:
A. age
B. sex
C. premorbid state
D. * nationality
E. weight
57. The coma of any etiology is accompanied with acute respiratory failure of:
A. Obstructive type
B. Diffuse-distributive type
C. * Ventilation type
D. Mixed type
E. All types respiratory failure are possible
58. The increasing of signs of respiratory failure in child with ARVI is due to occurrence of:
A. * Pneumonia
B. Bronchitis
C. Pleurisy
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Bronchoadenitis
59. The typical sign of the inspection of the patient with lobar pneumonia is:
A. «butterfly»
B. jaundice of the skin
C. * red cheek, more frequent on a damage side
D. grey color of the skin
E. dark color of the skin
60. There is no advantage to treat severe community acquired pneumonias by:
A. semisynthetic and inhibitor-protected penicillins
B. cefalosporines of the second generation in combination with aminoglicosides
C. * macrolides
D. cefalosporines of the third generation

E. cefalosporines of the second generation
61. Such laboratory changes are not typical for focal pneumonia:

A. * reticulocitosis
B. leucocytosis
C. neutrophylosis
D. elevated ESR
E. anemia
62. To complications of staphylococcal pneumonias do not belong:
A. bullas
B. abscesses
C. * croup syndrome
D. pyopneumothorax
E. meningitis
63. To the antibiotics of the first choice to treat typical community acquired pneumonias do not belong:
A. amoxycillin
B. macrolides
C. * fluorquinolones
D. inhibitor-protected penicillins
E. carbapenems
64. To the criteria of an acute pneumonia diagnosis do not belong:
A. intoxication
B. * epidemiological history
C. local physical changes
D. respiratory acidosis
E. percussion changes
65. To the most frequent etiologic factors of intrauterine pneumonia does not belong:
A. * streptococcus
B. E. coli
C. S. aureus
D. mycoplasma
E. staphylococcus
66. To the most frequent etiological agents of hospital pneumonia does not belong:
A. E. coli
B. * pneumococcus
C. proteus
D. enterobacter
E. virus
67. What etiologic factor is typical for nosocomial pneumonia in children?
A. Pneumococci

B. H.influenza
C. Streptococci
D. * Pseudomonas
E. Viruses
68. What is characteristic for the ІI stage of respiratory failure?
A. Shortness of breath at the insignificant loading
B. * Shortness of breath at the ordinary loading
C. Shortness of breath at the surplus loading
D. Shortness of breath at rest

E. Absence of shortness of breath
69. What is observed at the severe form of pneumonia?
A. Cardiovascular syndrome
B. Meningoencephalitis syndrome
C. Gastrointestinal syndrome
D. * All of these
E. Nothing of these
70. What is the main pathogenetic factor of pneumonia in children?
A. Obstruction
B. Secretion
C. Hypoxemia
D. * Hypoxia
E. All transferred
71. What is the most common form of pneumonia in children 1yr?
A. Lobar
B. Croupous
C. * Focal
D. Obturative
E. Bilateral
72. What is the most important in the genesis and development of pneumonia in children?
A. Cooling
B. Improper feeding
C. Rickets
D. * The state of reactivity of body
E. All transferred
73. What is the reason of acute upper respiratory tracts obstruction which is related with spring-autumn
time?
A. Viral laryngotracheitis
B. * Edema of larynx
C. Epiglotitis
D. Foreign body

E. Laryngospazm
74. What may not cause changes of percussion sounds at pneumonia in children?
A. * Small foci of inflammation
B. Atelectasis
C. Interstitial inflammation
D. Segmental inflammation
E. All transferred
75. What pathology of respiratory system is characterized by short painfull cough?
A. Bronchitis
B. Croupous pneumonia
C. * Pleurisy
D. Bronchoadenitis
E. Atelectatic pneumonia
76. What respiratory rate is normal for child 2 weeks old?
A. * 40-50

B. 35-40
C. 30-35
D. 25-30
E. 18-20
77. What respiratory rate is normal for child 2 yrs old?
A. 40-50
B. 35-40
C. 30-35
D. * 25-30
E. 18-20
78. Why a severe form of pneumonia is a disease with respiratory-heart failure?
A. Due to severe hypoxia
B. Due to obstruction
C. Due to mucous edema
D. * Due to circulatory hypoxemia
E. All transferred
79. In most cases an acute pneumonia at children of the early age develops as a result of:
A. overheat
B. super cooling
C. violation of the regime
D. * upper respiratory tract viral infection
E. upper respiratory tract microbial infection
80. In pneumonia etiology prevail:
A. pathogenic candida

B. klebsiella
C. * pneumococci
D. staphylococci
E. streptococci
81. Name the main way of the infection entering at pneumonia:
A. * bronchogenic
B. hematogenic
C. lymphogenic
D. mixed
E. urogenic
82. The roentgenologic (X-ray) sign typical for acute pneumonia is:
A. strengthening of pulmonary picture (lung pattern)
B. * infiltrative shadows
C. emphysema
D. dilation of lungs' roots
E. pneumosclerosis
83. To description of hospital pneumonias does not belong:
A. resistance of the etiological agent to antibiotics
B. * low lethality
C. frequent complications
D. severe complications
E. hypoxia

84. To the pathogenetic links of an acute pneumonia does not belong:
A. hypoxemia
B. * alcalosis
C. acidosis
D. hypoxia
E. bacteriemia
85. Typical physical data at pneumonia are:
A. diffuse dry wheezes
B. local small moist wheezes
C. diffuse small moist wheezes
D. * weakened breathing
E. local dry wheezes
86. What is typical for the III stage of respiratory failure?
A. * Shortness of breath at rest
B. Shortness of breath at the insignificant loading
C. Shortness of breath at the ordinary loading
D. Shortness of breath at the surplus loading

E. Absence of shortness of breath
87. What symptom of pneumonia is inherent only to the new born?
A. Cough
B. Nod motions by a head
C. Dulling of percussion sound
D. * Foamy excretions from a nose and mouth
E. Dissipated moist wheezes
88. What type of oxygen therapy is the best for a child with the Respiratory ins. II st.?
A. serve of oxygen through an oxygen pillow
B. serve of oxygen in an oxygen tent
C. serve of oxygen through a nasal catheter
D. serve of oxygen through an intubation tube
E. * serve of oxygen through a mask
89. More often the reason of bronchial asthma is the:
A. * Dust
B. Drugs
C. Food
D. Bacteria
E. Viruses
90. When it is possible to make allergens tests:
A. Before attack of asthma
B. During attack of asthma
C. After attack of asthma
D. * Intermittant period of asthma
E. In any period
91. What will be the therapeutic management of acute attacks of asthma?
A. * Bronchodilators
B. Anti-inflammatory agents
C. Commonly sodium

D. Inhalation of corticosteroids
E. Prednizolone orally
92. The mucolitical effect depends on:
A. * Normal quantity of water
B. The prescribing of antiviral drugs
C. Prescribing of antihystamine drugs
D. Prescribing of vitamins
E. Prescribing of antibiotics
93. What examination is the most important at bronchial asthma?
A. Stools examination

B. Culture of sputum
C. * Immunoglobulin E
D. Biochemical examination of the blood
E. Chest X-ray
94. At obstructive bronchitis narrowing of airways less depends on:
A. Edema of mucous membrane
B. Secret in bronchus
C. Spasm of bronchus muscles
D. * Damaging of mucociliar clearance
E. Nervous exiting
95. Specific therapy of acute viral infection during acute bronchitis is effective:
A. The effect is absent
B. * During 2 first days of disease
C. During 5-7 days of disease
D. During all term of disease
E. During all of hyperthermia
96. Such symptom is absent during objective examination of the child with obstructive bronchitis:
A. Perioral cyanosis
B. Exiting
C. * Symptom of acute abdomen
D. Wheezing
E. Hyperthermia
97. The duration of acute bronchitis is:
A. * 5 – 7 days
B. 7 – 14 days
C. 10 – 20 days
D. 14 – 24 days
E. 2-3 days
98. What drug is usually used as prophylactic in children to prevent bronchial asthma attack?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Bronchodilators
D. Antiinflammatory agents
E. * Cromolyn sodium
99. Complex of treatment of acute bronchitis does not include:
A. Mucolitics

B. Physiotherapy
C. * Antacids drugs
D. Antipiretics drugs

E. Antibiotics
100. Drugs, which have no mucolitic effect:
A. Acetylcustein
B. Bromhexin
C. Ambroxol
D. Mucaltin
E. * Claritin
101. The auscultation date during bronchitis is:
A. Puerile breathing
B. Decrease breathing
C. * Rough breathing
D. Moist local rales
E. Crepitus rales
102. There is not typical such auscultation data during bronchitis:
A. Rough breathing
B. * Decrease breathing
C. Dry rales
D. Moist diffuse rales
E. Decreasing or disappearing of rales after cough
103. What factor is the main for prescription of antibiotics at acute bronchitis?
A. Sex of child
B. Social state of child
C. * Etiology of bronchitis
D. Time of year
E. Presence of hyperthermia
104. What is apnea?
A. The increase of the respiratory rate
B. The distress during breathing
C. The decrease of the respiratory rate
D. * The cessation of breathing
E. The increase of the respiratory depth
105. What is bradypnea?
A. The increase of the respiratory rate
B. The distress during breathing
C. * The decrease of the respiratory rate
D. The cessation of breathing
E. The decrease of the respiratory depth
106. What is dyspnea?
A. The increase of the respiratory rate
B. * The distress during breathing
C. The decrease of the respiratory rate
D. The cessation of breathing

E. The increase of the respiratory depth

107. What special substances may be found in sputum in case of bronchial asthma?
A. * Eosinophyls
B. Erythrocytes
C. Neuthrophyls
D. Leucocytes
E. Monocytes
108. According classification bronchitis cannot be:
A. Acute
B. * Latent
C. Relapse
D. Chronic
E. Bronchiolitis
109. Acute bronchiolitis is accompanied with acute respiratory failure of:
A. Ventilation type
B. Diffuse-distributive type
C. Mixed type
D. Restrictive type
E. * Obstructive type
110. All factors can lead to bronchitis, except:
A. Cooling
B. * Poor feeding
C. Allergies
D. Genetically predilection
E. Bad ecology
111. Asthmatic status is the attack of asthma during more than:
A. * 6 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 2 hours
D. 5 hours
E. 12 hours
112. At acute bronchitis in general analysis of blood there is:
A. Severe leucocytosis
B. Leucopoenia
C. Anemia
D. * Moderate leucocytosis
E. Monocytosis
113. At the acute phase of obstructive bronchitis is prevailing:
A. Intoxication

B. * Cough
C. Dyspnea
D. Wheezing
E. Tonsillitis
114. At the ІІІ stage of false croup the best method of oxygen therapy is:
A. Artificial ventilation
B. * Inhalation therapy in an oxygen tent, 4-6 inhalations a day
C. Inhalation therapy through a mask by the moistened oxygen

D. Inhalation therapy through a nasal catheter by the moistened oxygen
E. All variants are possible
115. At what stage of upper respiratory stenosis does inspiratory short breath with participation of
auxiliary musculature occur?
A. І
B. * ІІ
C. ІІІ
D. ІV
E. V
116. Atopical status of asthma is not determined by:
A. Hereditary sensitivity to allergens
B. Food allergens
C. Hyperglobulinemia G
D. * Lymphocytosis
E. Eosinophylia
117. Auscultation during the acute phase of obstructive bronchitis is:
A. Prolonged inspiration
B. Decrease of breathing
C. * Dry rales and moist diffuse rales
D. Crepitation
E. Local moist rales
118. Both pulmonary agenesia and hypoplasia may be accompanied by:
A. Intestine anomalies
B. CNS anomalies
C. * Renal anomalies
D. Skin defects
E. All transferred
119. Both pulmonary agenesia and hypoplasia may be accompanied by:
A. Intestine anomalies
B. CNS anomalies
C. Skin defects
D. * Cardiac defects

E. All transferred
120. Bronchiolitis is more frequent in:
A. The first year of life
B. Newborn period
C. * Preschool age
D. School age
E. Teenagers
121. Bronchitis is caused most often by:
A. Fungi
B. * Viruses
C. Bacteria
D. Parasites
E. Mixed flora
122. Bronchitis is most often in:

A. A Great city
B. B Little cities
C. C Villages
D. * D The quantity of people is not important
E. Little villages
123. Bronchoobstructive syndrome is characterized by:
A. * Noisy breathing
B. Paroxysmal breathing
C. Noisy inspiration
D. Silently breathing
E. Noisy expiration
124. Children with asthma need daily:
A. * Picflowmetry
B. Spirografy
C. ECG
D. Allergodiagnistic tests
E. General analysis of blood
125. Cough during the acute phase of obstructive bronchitis is most severe:
A. At night
B. * In the morning
C. At day
D. In the evening
E. After mucolitics
126. Dose of euphyllini during mild attack of bronchial asthma is:
A. 1-2 mg/kg/day

B. * 10 mg/kg/day
C. 3-5 mg/kg/day
D. 20 mg/kg/day
E. 25 mg/kg/day
127. During acute bronchitis respiratory insufficiency is most often of:
A. * 0 stage
B. 1 stage
C. 2 stage
D. 3 stage
E. 2-3 stage
128. During acute bronchitis the bed regime is prescribed:
A. During all term of treatment
B. * Does not prescribed
C. 2-3 days
D. 2 - 3 weeks
E. All time of hyperthermia
129. During obstructive bronchitis determined such percussion sound:
A. Clear pulmonary sound
B. * Box sound
C. Local shortness of pulmonary sound
D. Total shortness of pulmonary sound

E. Mosaic sound
130. During the attack of asthma in early childhood is prevailing:
A. * Edema of mucous
B. Spasm of bronchus
C. Emphysema
D. Allergic reaction – antigen - antibody
E. Plethora of lungs
131. During the bronchoscopic investigation on remission period of obstructive bronchitis are next
finding:
A. Local changes
B. Atrophy of sputum
C. Hyperemia of sputum
D. Hyperemia of sputum, secret in great quantity, thickening of walls of bronchus
E. * Granulations on sputum
132. During the decreasing of signs of acute period of obstructive bronchitis the first of all is disappearing:

A. * Rales
B. Cough
C. Rough breathing

D. Wheezing
E. Inflammation syndrome
133. During the first aid at asthma it is necessary to introduce:
A. Euphyllini
B. Ketotiphen
C. Intal
D. * Prednisolone
E. Adrenalin
134. During the mild attack of asthma the dose of euphyllini is:
A. 1 – 2 mg/kg
B. 10 – 15 mg/kg
C. * 7-10 mg/kg
D. 24 mg/kg
E. 20 mg/kg
135. During the mild attack of asthma the dose of prednisolone is:
A. * 2 – 2,5 mg/kg
B. 10 – 15 mg/kg
C. 7-10 mg/kg
D. 3-4 mg/g
E. 5-6 mg/kg
136. During the moderate attack of asthma the dose of euphyllini is:
A. 1 – 2 mg/kg
B. * 10 – 15 mg/kg
C. 7-10 mg/kg
D. 24 mg/kg
E. 20 mg/kg
137. During the moderate attack of asthma the dose of prednisolone is:
A. 2 – 2,5 mg/kg

B. 10 – 15 mg/kg
C. 7-10 mg/kg
D. * 3-4 mg/kg
E. 5-6 mg/kg
138. During the percussion of patient with asthma is present:
A. * Box sound
B. Cardiomegaly
C. Clear lung sound
D. Local shortness lung sound
E. Tympanic sound
139. During the severe attack of asthma the dose of euphyllini is:

A. 1 – 2 mg/kg
B. 10 – 15 mg/kg
C. 7-10 mg/kg
D. 25-30 mg/kg
E. * 15-20 mg/kg
140. During the severe attack of asthma the dose of prednisolone is:
A. 2 – 2,5 mg/kg
B. 10 – 15 mg/kg
C. 7-10 mg/kg
D. 3-4 mg/kg
E. * 5-4 mg/kg
141. During the status asthmatics the dose of euphyllini is:
A. 1 – 2 mg/kg
B. 10 – 15 mg/kg
C. 7-10 mg/kg
D. * 24 mg/kg
E. 20 mg/kg
142. During the treatment of acute period of obstructive bronchitis postural drainage it is better to do:
A. * After getting up
B. After breakfast
C. After dinner
D. Before sleeping
E. Any time
143. During the treatment of asthma it is necessary to need such inhalator:
A. * Salbutamol
B. Euphyllini
C. Inhalipt
D. Cameton
E. Prednisolone
144. Easy intermittent asthma does not include:
A. Frequency of attacks during day – less than once a week
B. Frequency of attacks during night time - less than 2 time a month
C. Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) – 80%
D. Acute period – from some hours till some days
E. * Often attack at night

145. For decreasing the quantities of acute periods of obstructive bronchitis it is necessary to prescribe:
A. Inductothermia
B. Eleuterococus
C. * Ribomunil

D. Claritromycin
E. Penicillin
146. In approximately 60% of patients, cystic adenomatoid malformation manifests:
A. * Soon after the neonatal period
B. At first 3-6 months
C. At 6-12 months
D. At 1-2 yrs of life
E. Up to 5 yrs of life
147. In blood analysis at asthma there is:
A. Anemia
B. Leucosytoses
C. Lymphocytosis
D. * Eosinophylia
E. Monocytosis
148. In most cases cystic adenomatoid malformation results in:
A. Malignancy
B. * Recurrent infections
C. Respiratory failure
D. Pneumothorax
E. Pyopneumothorax
149. In what unit of children hospital must be admitted a child with acute stenotic laryngotracheitis?
A. Pulmonary
B. Infectious
C. Junior childhood
D. Otolaryngology
E. * Intensive care
150. It is necessary to provide allergodiagnostic in the period:
A. Acute
B. During the treatment
C. * Remission
D. Post attack
E. Intraattack
151. More often dyspnea appears:
A. Early in morning
B. In morning
C. On day
D. * At night
E. Any time
152. More often the reason of obstructive bronchitis is:
A. * Viral – bacterial flora
B. Parasites
C. Fungi’s

D. Bacterial - fungi’s flora
E. Viral – fungi’s flora
153. Most often obstructive bronchitis is present on the basis of, except:
A. Foreign body of respiratory ways
B. * Disturbance of feeding
C. Immune deficiency
D. Anomalies of respiratory ways
E. Hereditary diseases of respiratory system
154. Obstructive bronchitis with anamnesis of disease more than 5 years is the sign of:
A. * Asthma bronchial
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Scoliosis
D. Polyhypovitaminosis
E. Deformation of chest
155. Parasites are the most often cause of bronchitis in:
A. Teenagers
B. Preschool age
C. Child of early age
D. * First year of life
E. School age
156. Percussion during the acute phase of obstructive bronchitis is:
A. Clear lung sound
B. * Box sound
C. Dullness of lung sound
D. Dullness of lung sound in lower parts
E. Dullness of lung sound in upper parts
157. Quickly increasing asphyxia, cough, cyanosis, laryngo- and bronchospazm are characteristic for:
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Parainfluenze infection
C. False croup
D. Real croup
E. * Aspiration in respiratory tract
158. RSV is the most often cause of bronchitis in:
A. * Teenagers
B. Preschoolers
C. Child of early age
D. First year of life
E. School age
159. Specify the leading mechanism of pathogenesis of asthmatic status.

A. Edema of mucous membrane of bronchial tubes
B. Increased secretion of biologically active substances
C. * Complete blockade of beta2-adrenoreceptors
D. Inflammation of mucous membranes of bronchial tubes
E. Spasm of smooth muscles
160. Specify the optimum method of oxygen therapy at the І stage of asthmatic status in children.
A. Periodically 40% moistened oxygen through a mask

B. Permanent the clean moistened oxygen through a mask
C. * Permanent 40% moistened oxygen through a mask
D. Periodically the clean moistened oxygen through a mask
E. Artificial ventilation of lungs
161. Such auscultation picture may be determined at obstructive bronchitis, except:
A. * Local decrease of vesicular breathing
B. Increase vesicular breathing
C. Rough breathing
D. Puerile breathing
E. Bronchus breathing
162. The anti-inflammation drugs during asthma are:
A. * Intal
B. Tailed
C. Aspirin
D. Flexotil
E. Prednisolone
163. The anti-inflammations drugs during asthma are not include:
A. Cromoglicat natrium
B. Nedocromil natrium
C. * Aspirin
D. Flexotil
E. Prednisolone
164. The auscultation picture of asthma attack does not include:
A. The grate quantity of rales
B. Dry rales
C. Whistling rales
D. * Local rales
E. Diffuse rales
165. The basic anti-inflammation treatment of asthma is prescribed during:
A. 6 months
B. 2 weeks
C. 1 year

D. * 2 months
E. 1 month
166. The basic criteria of bronchitis are all, except:
A. Subfebrile temperature
B. * Acrocyanosis
C. Cough
D. Wheezing
E. Rales
167. The beginning of obstructive bronchitis is:
A. * Catarrhal syndrome
B. Allergic reactions
C. Inspiration dyspnea
D. Expiration dyspnea
E. Tonsillitis

168. The chest falls on inspiration and rises on expiration. What type of respiration is it?
A. Kussmaul’s respiration
B. * Paradoxical respiration
C. Normal respiration
D. Biot’s respiration
E. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
169. The contributory factors of obstructive bronchitis are all, except:
A. * Genetics factors
B. Chronic diseases of larynx and pharynx
C. Ecologies
D. Bad habits
E. Acute bronchitis
170. The criteria of acute obstructive bronchitis are all, except:
A. * Severe intoxication
B. The great quantity of dry rales
C. Nonproductive cough
D. Box sound during percussion
E. Perivascular infiltration of lung tissue
171. The diagnostic criteria of asthmatic status is:
A. рО2 is below than 80 mm Hg, рСО2 is more than 20mm Hg
B. * рО2 is below than 60 mm Hg, рСО2 is more than 60mm Hg
C. рО2 is below than 70 mm Hg, рСО2 is more than 30mm Hg
D. рО2 is below than 50 mm Hg, рСО2 is more than 50mm Hg
E. рО2 is below than 60 mm Hg, рСО2 is more than 30mm Hg
172. The diagnostic criterion of asthmatic status is:

A. ІІІ stage of respiratory failure
B. Dry unproductive cough
C. * Resistence to sympathomimetics
D. Emphysema of lungs
E. Atelectasis of lungs
173. The drug for treatment of mild intermittent asthma is:
A. * Cromoglicat natrium
B. Berotek
C. Aspirin
D. Flexotil
E. Prednisolone
174. The final diagnosis of pulmonary agenesia and hypoplasia is based on:
A. X-ray
B. Bronchoscopy
C. * Bronchography
D. MRI
E. CT
175. The greatest quantity of ticks is present in:
A. Soft toys
B. Soft furniture
C. Bed

D. * Carpet
E. On floor
176. The main link in development of asthma attack in school age is:
A. * Bronchospazm
B. Edema of mucous
C. Emphysema
D. Allergic reaction – antigen - antibody
E. Plethora of lungs
177. e main symptom of acute bronchitis is:
A. Wheezing
B. Pain in throat
C. * Cough
D. Dyspnea
E. Hyperthermia
178. The main symptom of asthma is:
A. Wheezing
B. Sneezing
C. * Dyspnea

D. Cough
E. Intoxication
179. The main treatment of obstructive bronchitis is:
A. Liquidation of viruses
B. Desintoxication therapy
C. * Normalization of drainage function of bronchus
D. Rehydratation therapy
E. Antibiotics
180. The marker of atopia is:
A. * Hyperglobulinemia E
B. Hyperglobulinemia A
C. Hyperglobulinemia G
D. Eosinophylia
E. Leucopoenia
181. The mild course of persistent asthma does not include:
A. Frequency of attacks during day – not more than once a week but less
B. than one time a day
C. * Frequency of attacks during night time - more than 2 time a month
D. Often attack at night
E. Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) – > 80% or 80%
F. Using of inhalators b-2 antagonists every day
182. The moderate course of persistent asthma does not include:
A. Frequency of attacks during day – every day
B. Frequency of attacks during night time - more than once a week
C. * Often attack in night
D. Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) – 60-80%
E. Using of inhalators corticosteroids every day 800-2000 mkg
183. The percussion sign of acute bronchitis is:

A. Lung sound
B. * Lung sound with box tone
C. Shortness of lung sound
D. Shortness of lung sound in lower parts of lungs
E. Tympanic sound
184. The time of acute phase of obstructive bronchitis is:
A. 3 – 5 days
B. 5 – 7 days
C. 1 – 2 weeks
D. * 3 – 4 weeks
E. 5–6 weeks

185. The time of giving antibiotic during acute period of obstructive bronchitis is:
A. * 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 21 days
D. 28 days
E. 1 month
186. The X-ray criteria of acute bronchitis is all, except:
A. * Atelectasis
B. Increase of lung pattern
C. Perivascular infiltration
D. Peribronchial infiltration
E. Infiltration of roots
187. There is not typical such type of rales during bronchitis:
A. Diffuse
B. Symmetrical
C. * Local
D. Decreasing or disappearing of rales after cough
E. Dry rales
188. We see hyperventilation, gasping and labored respiration. What type of breathing is it?
A. * Kussmaul’s breathing
B. Paradoxical breathing
C. Normal breathing
D. Biot’s breathing
E. Cheyne-Stokes breathing
189. What are the anatomical and physiological characteristics of the bronchopulmonary system
contributed to the development of obstructive syndrome in infants?
A. * Hypoplasia of respiratory muscles
B. The rich vascularization of the mucous membrane
C. Incomplete formation of ciliated epithelium of the mucous membrane of bronchi
D. The presence of a multilane cylindrical epithelium in the mucosa of the trachea and bronchi
E. Mucous membranes are rich with lymphoid tissue
190. What complication is rare at cystic adenomatoid malformation?
A. Infection
B. Hemorrhage
C. * Malignancy

D. Emphysema
E. Atelectasis
191. What cough is characteristic for bronchial asthma?
A. Productive
B. * Nonproductive

What is aplasia of lung? A. The cessation of breathing E. What examination is most important in the case of bronchitis? A. An obtrusive cough. The distress during breathing C. * Absence of lung tissue in the presence of rudimentary bronchus B. Moist cough without the change of voice E. * The decrease of the respiratory rate D.C. Poor vascularization 194. Poor vascularization 195. ”Cock” scream. Moist D. Absence of lung tissue in the presence of rudimentary bronchus B. Culture of alveolar fluid D. Biochemical examination of the blood (hyponatremia. What is prescribed at asthmatic status? A. What is tachypnea? A. * All of these 198. dry cough B. cough is absent D. All transferred 192. The increase of the respiratory rate B. voice is not changed C. * Absence of lung together with the main bronchus C. Hoarse voice. Glucocorticoids C. Culture of sputum C. Absence of alveoli E. * The increase of the respiratory rate . The decrease of the respiratory depth 196. What is bradypnea? A. hypokaliemia) E. Absence of differentiation of lung tissue D. What is characteristic for viral laryngotracheitis? A. * Hoarse voice. Intravenously euphyllini D. What is agenesia of lung? A. Dry E. Complete blood count B. Absence of differentiation of lung tissue D. Nothing of these B. Absence of alveoli E. rough “barking” cough 197. Absence of lung together with the main bronchus C. Oxygen therapy E. * Chest X-ray 193.

* Diffuse fine rales E. 1:1 B. Dry wrestling rales C. The distress during breathing C. 1:3 D. Violation of the function ciliated epithelium . Course bubbling rales in lower parts of lungs D. The cessation of breathing E. What mechanisms are leading in the development of bronchial obstruction in young children? A. Particularly clear lung field C. Decreased vesicular breathing 200. What is the reason of acute upper respiratory tracts obstruction? A. All of these E. The decrease of the respiratory rate D. Local infiltration of lung tissue 204. 1:2 C. 1:5 202. Tachypnea D. Nothing of these 201. * Viral laryngotracheitis D. Bronchospasm D. What is usual ratio of breaths to heartbeats? A. What is the main feature of bronchiolitis? A. * Edema of the mucous B. * 1:4 E. * Perivascular and peribronhial infiltration B. Puerile breathing B. * Wheezing C. What main clinical features are useful in the diagnosis of bronchiolitis? A.B. Paroxysmal cough B. Hypersecretion C. What main X-ray features are useful in the diagnosis of acute bronchitis? A. Dyspnea E. The increase of the respiratory depth 199. Occasional scattered areas of consolidation E. Hyperinflation D. Poisoning C. Convultions of a different etiology B. Tension and swelling of the nostris 203.

E. Leucocytes E. Infiltration of lung tissue D. The children of what age may have acute laryngotracheal stenosis? A. For treatment the severe persistent asthma is used: A. Parenterally B. Erythrocytes C. Symmetrical decreasing of lung pattern C. 2-5 years . Parenterally and orally 210. Only in extreme cases B. І C. Cardiac glucozides 206. * ІV 208. Neuthrophyls D. * Doses inhalators E. Orally C. Monocytes 207. No-spani E. Adrenaline E. What preparations must not be applied at asthmatic status? A. Euphyllini D. Sympathomimetics C. Infiltration of lung tissue near roots E. ІІ D. During the treatment of asthma broncholitics must be introduced: A. Symmetrical decreasing of lung pattern and infiltration of lung tissue 209. Intal D. * Glucocorticoids B. Tailed 211. In inhalations D. X-ray criterion of acute bronchitis is: A. Euphyllini C. ІІІ E. What special substances may be found in sputum in case of bronchial asthma? A. * Glucocorticoids B. What stage of larynx stenosis is the immediate indication for intubation with artificial ventilation? A. * Symmetrical increasing of lung pattern B. All transferred 205. * Eosinophyls B.

Presence of attack of difficulty in breathing. * 1-3 years C. choking during breastfeeding occur at: A. Atresia of the esophagus C. 3-7 years D. Conic B. Low lobes C. ECG C. Right middle lobe D. Cyanosis. coughing. * The first 2 years of life D. that can’t be treated during 4 hours D. Right low lobe 217. Pigeon breast 215. In any age 212. * Asymmetrical D. The first 1 year of life C. School age 216. Presence of attack of difficulty in breathing. The diagnostic criterion of asthmatic status is: A. 5-7years of life E. Tracheobronchomegalia . X-ray 214. Spirography B. shortness of breath. Left low lobe E. Presence of attack of difficulty in breathing. Congenital lobar emphysema primarily involves: A. Chest in children with chronic lung disease is: A. There is necessary to use for control the effect of treatment of bronchial asthma: A. that can’t be treated during 2 hours B. Allergic tests D. * Tracheoesophageal and bronchoesophageal fistulas B. The first 2 months of life B. * Peakflowmetria E. * Upper lobes B. that can’t be treated during 5 hours E. that can’t be treated during 6 hours F.B. Cough 213. Presence of attack of difficulty in breathing. * Presence of attack of difficulty in breathing. Cylindrical C. Bulging E. that can’t be treated during 3 hours C. Clinical features in 70% of cases of cystic fibrosis is detected during: A. 5-7 years E.

Duration of antibacterial therapy at chronic lung disease in children is: A. 7-14 days D. Alveolars B. Edematous-anemic 220. * Endocrine disbalance D. Bronchoscopy C. * Mixed D. * Meconium ileus E. Mixed D. One month B. Spasms of bronchus 222. Enteric C. CTG 224. Cystic adenomatoid malformation is a defect in the development of: A. Expiratory B. X-ray examination D. Atonia of esophagus E. Hamman-Rich syndrome is characterized by: . Decrease of local immunity C. General destabilization of organism E. Cogenital achalasia of esophagus 218. Dyspnea at chronic lung disease in children is often: A. During the chronisation of inflammation process in bronchus it is not important: A. Little bronchi D. * Terminal bronchioles C. * Bronchography B. Pulmonary B.D. Inspiratory C. Middle bronchi E. Associated with emotions 223. Associated only with physical activity E. * 14-21 days E. 21-28 days 221. All structures of bronchial tree 219. US observation of lungs E. Final diagnose of pulmonary hypoplasia is based on: A. Cystic fibrosis is diagnosed in the early days of life in the form: A. 2 months C. Disturbance of mucociliar clirense B.

Enlargement of roots D. Bronchial agenesia D. How long after the exacerbation of chronic lung disease children can be send to a spa treatment? A. Bronchial agenesia C. After year 227. Nothing of transferred 228. Recurrent haemorrhage in lung tissue B. Rapidly progressive diffuse pulmonary fibrosis B. All transferred 226. After 6 months E. Name one of the defects at Kartagener syndrome. Tracheobronchomegalia C. Tracheobronchomegalia D. * All transferred E. It is the second stage B. Bronchial aplasia . In period of remission of chronic bronchitis on X-ray is absent: A. Increase of lung pattern B. Name one of the defects at Kartagener syndrome.A. * Rapidly progressive diffuse pulmonary fibrosis B. Bronchial agenesia B. * After 3 months D. Bronchial aplasia E. Development of fibrosis C. Respiratory failure C. Hemosiderin deposition D. Pulmonary hypertension D. Hamman-Rich syndrome is characterized by: A. After 1 month C. Infiltration of roots E. Accessory bronchus C. A. Cor pulmonale E. Deformation of lung picture C. Bronchial aplasia E. Idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis is a disease in which the main symptom is: A. A. * Normal X-ray 229. * Chronic bronchopulmonary process 230. * All transferred 225. Tracheobronchomegalia B.

Congenital heart disease E. A. Name right assertion about Williams– Campbell syndrome. * Sinus viscerus inversus D. * All transferred 234. Antibiotics C. Renal dysplasia C. Neuromuscular diseases D. * Low lobes C. Cogenital achalasia of esophagus C. * All are right 233. . Atonia of esophagus B. A. The clinical picture is bronchopulmonary infection C. Chest is like hump E. Congenital heart diseases B. * Heart is shifted toward the lesion C. Chronic bronchopulmonary process is formed D. Upper lobes B. Name the main treatment of cystic adenomatoid malformation. Tachycardia E. Lung hypoplasia 232. A. Prolonged rupture of membranes B. * Surgical 237. Name the causes of lung hypoplasia. Name the changes of cardio-vascular system at lung agenesia and hypoplasia. All transferred 235. Name the right assertion about cough at Williams– Campbell syndrome. Symptomatic B. The clinical picture is the bronchial obstruction B. Left low lobe E. Bronchial diverticulum 231. * Pathology of paranasal sinuses (hypoplasia or chronic sinusitis) E. Name one of the defects at Kartagener syndrome. A. Physiotherapy E. Name the localization of process at Williams– Campbell syndrome. Oxygen therapy D.D. A. Right middle lobe D. Right low lobe 236. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia E. A. Dull heart tones D.

Diffuse pneumosclerosis D. Relatives of the patient should be taught techniques of: . Resistant attack of cough 238. Bronchiectasis C. * All transferred 244. Name wrong assertion about surgical treatment at sequestration of the lung. * All transferred 243. A. Name wrong assertion about pathophysiologic process at traheobronchomegalia. In asymptomatic patients B. Of all congenital lung malformations cystic adenomatoid malformation accounts for: A. 10% B. Trachea and major bronchi decrease exhalation and cough D. Cough is resistant with prolonged breath E. * There is frequent anomaly B. Radiological examination of the lungs at cystic fibrosis reveals: A. All are wrong 239. Pathological changes in the lungs are characterized by symptoms of: A. A. Obligatory after diagnostics C. It is preventive measure E. A. Atelectasis on the background of marked emphysema E. At compression of normal lung mass D. Widespread peribronchial changes B.A. * Trachea and major bronchi increase exhalation and cough C. There is rare anomaly C. 60% E. * Cough is resistant with shortness of breath C. 80% 242. Disease is characterized by narrowing of the bronchus E. Infiltrative changes C. * 25% C. Name wrong assertion about congenital lobar emphysema. Sclerotic changes D. Suppuration in the distal lung 240. Quickly leads to death of newborns D. * Only in patients with recurrent infections 241. Cough is permanent with prolonged breath D. Cough is permanent with shortness of breath B. Chronic bronchitis B. Permanent obstructive syndrome E. Bronchial drainage function is disrupted E. Softened and lost their resilience cartilages of the trachea and major bronchi B. 40% D.

* Protein C. For several months D. Newborns C. Collagen B. Respiratory failure at chronic lung disease in children develops: A. Secondary chronic pneumonia develops: A. Injections C. Occlusions of small bronchi and bronchioles C. Acutely E. For several days C. The Hamman-Rich syndrome manifests itself mainly in: A. * Preterm infants 250. Endocrine cells 248. Newborns after pathological pregnancy D. Development of emphysema . Monitoring a body weight E. * At systemic diseases and hereditary diseases of the lungs D. At reduced immunity E. The increased viscosity of bronchial secretion in cystic fibrosis patients leads to: A. * Gradually 246. The incidence of lung hypoplasia is higher in: A. After aspiration 247. Big birth weight infants B. After "foreign body" of bronchi C. Connective tissue E. Low birth weight infants C. Monitoring a feces D. The consequence of gene mutation at cystic fibrosis is a disturbance of the structure and function of: A. * Preschoolers D. Development mucostasis B. All transferred 245. 1 month after acute pneumonia B. * Postural drainage B. Mucopolysaccharides D. School age E. Very quickly B. Infants B. Teen ages 249.A. Newborns after pathological delivery E.

* Diuretics C. Bronchodilatators E. Diuretics D. * Angiography B. Expectorants E. Bronchography E.D. * All transferred 256. Meconium peritonitis D. Pancreas insufficiency E. Collapse 252. Oxygen therapy B. * CT and bronchography E. X-ray D. Antibiotics D. Bronchoscopy and X-ray C. The intestinal obstruction in cystic fibrosis patients on the 3-4-th day of life is associated with: A. Expectorants 255. X-ray and CT B. Antihistamines B. Treatment of idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis includes: A. The main diagnostic value at sequestration of the lung has: A. The main diagnostic value at cystic adenomatoid malformation have next investigations: A. * All transferred 251. Glucocorticoids C. CT 254. * Pneumonia B. Antihistamines B. Diuretics 257. Desintoxication E. Treatment of idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis includes: A. Bronchoscopy C. What are not the first symptoms of broncho-pulmonary forms of cystic fibrosis? . Perforation of the intestine C. * Corticosteroids C. Treatment of idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis includes: A. Ferrum drugs D. Bronchoscopy and bronchography 253. Formation of atelectases E. X-ray and bronchography D.

Fatigue B. Interstitial pneumosclerosis C. What auscultation data are characteristic for Hamman-Rich syndrome? A. Diffuse deformation of lung pattern D. Whistling rales 262. Gasps C. Segmental C. Lack of weight gain with satisfactory appetite D. * Tender crepitation wheezing E. Paleness of the skin C. All transferred 263. A variety of wheezes B. Crepitation 259. Pyopneumothorax C. Pneumothorax B. Cysts in the lungs E. What are the rare complications of cystic fibrosis? A. * Rapid regression of foci shadows B. Hacking cough E. * Dry rales 258. What bronchi are involved in process at traheobronchomegalia? A. * Variety of wheezing E. Amphoric breathing E. What auscultation data are characteristic for traheobronchomegalia? A. What are the peculiarities of radiological changes in the idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis? A. Moist rales D. What are the auscultation signs of chronic lung disease in children? A. Crepitation C. * Main B. Fine rales B. All transferred 260. Thoracic respiration B. * All transferred E. * Permanent local fine rales D. Subsegmental . Pulmonary hemorrhages D. A variety of dry and moist rales C. Dry rales D. Nothing of transferred 261.A.

D. What extrapulmonary signs do occur at idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis? . Mixed form D. Concentrations of gamma-globulin is elevated E. Respiratory failure 270. Arrhythmic respiration E. Pneumonia C. Mostly pulmonary B. * All transferred 265. Pneumothorax E. Dextrocardia E. * Prolonged cough D. Development of bronchiectasis C. * All transferred 266. * Disturbance of the drainage function D. Deformation of chest E. All of transferred 268. Small E. What complication is characteristic for Hamman-Rich syndrome? A. Tachycardia B. Mostly enteric form C. Early occurrence of chronic bronchitis and pneumonia B. Polycythemia B. Respiratory acidosis C. Bronchiectasis symptoms D. What changes in blood are characteristic for Hamman-Rich syndrome? A. * All are present 267. Polyglobulinemia C. Purulent endobronchitis D. Meconium ileus E. All 264. ESR is increased D. What clinic is characteristic for Kartagener syndrome? A. Bradicardia C. All transferred 269. What clinical form is absent at cystic fibrosis? A. What clinical symptom is common for congenital lung diseases? A. * Respiratory failure B. Hypoxia B. What does predominate the clinics of cystic adenomatoid malformation? A.

Attacks of breathlessness D. Weakness 275. What is involving in the pathological process at long course of cystic fibrosis? A. Pigeon breast 273. Respiratory failure C. Shortness of breath C. Poor tolerance to physical activity B. What form of chest is characteristic for congenital lung diseases? A. Prolonged pneumonia E. * Presence of Pseudomonas aeruginosa in sputum B. Auscultation with the weakening of breath . * Nasopharynx C. Fibrosis of pancreas D. * Bulging chest B. Mental retardation 271. Meconium ileus E.A. Hypoxic encephalopathy D. cirrhotic. Liver E. Heart B. Meconium ileus 274. What is atypical in the initial stage of primary pulmonary hypertension? A. Mostly enteric C. Scoliosis C. Kidney 276. Kiphoscoliosis D. and others) 272. What is a poor prognostic sign for the patient with cystic fibrosis? A. Progressive respiratory failure C. Atypical and abortive forms (edematous-anemic. Mostly pulmonary B. What form at cystic fibrosis is the most severe? A. Left heart failure E. What is not characteristic for cystic adenomatoid malformation? A. * Cardiologic E. Dullness of percussion sounds B. Cor pulmanale B. Navicular chest E. Pancreas D. * Anemia C. * Mixed form D.

What is the form of chest at cystic adenomatoid malformation? A.D. and the healthy half is convex D. "drumsticks" phalanx 278. Increasing of the number of lobes B. Greasy stools E. Increasing of the mass of lobes C. Cyanosis B. What is not characteristic for pulmonary sequestration? A. Histological changes of lung tissue D. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. What is pulmonary sequestration? A. What is not characteristic for lung agenesia? A. * Benign mass of non-functioning lung tissue E. Coughing or wheezing D. * Pain in the chest E. What is the leading component of complex treatment of chronic lung disease in children? . Thick sputum 281. and the healthy half is flattened E. Poor exercise performance D. Conic C. Expansion of large branches of pulmonary artery C. What is one of the first signs parents notice at cystic fibrosis? A. Intralobar malformation 282. The heart is shifted toward the lesion C. Thrombosis 279. * Congenital pathology of the heart D. Pigeon breast 283. Chronic cough B. * Salty taste of the skin B. On the lesion side thorax is flattened. Congestive cardiac failure 280. Wheezing of various sizes E. * On the lesion side thorax is convex. Atriovenose anastomoses E. * Dry rales 277. * Asymmetrical B. Cylindrical D. What is not characteristic for pathomorphologic changes in primary pulmonary hypertension? A. Blockage in the bowel C. Recurrent pneumonias C. Bulging E.

Mucociliar insufficiency 288. Disorganization of muscular tissue D. CT B. What is the main distinguishing clinical feature of traheobronchomegalia? A. Narrowing of the bronchus B. Narrowing of arterioles C. Chronic cough C. All transferred 289. * Restoration of bronchial drainage function C. Therapeutic feeding E. Recurrent chest infections D. Narrowing of venulaes D. Auto-sensitization of connective tissue E. General stimulation therapy D. Violation of mucociliary clearance B. * Auto-sensitization of connective tissue C. What is the main phatophysiologic mechanism of Hamman-Rich syndrome? A. What is the main pathophysiological mechanism at congenital lobar emphysema? A. What is the main phatophysiologic mechanism of idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis? A. All transferred 290. What is the main observation to diagnose the tracheoesophageal and bronchoesophageal fistulas? A. Dry productive cough 285.A. Bronchogram E. Stretching of the parenchyma of a segment E. Progressive respiratory failure B. * Additional large vessel E. What is the main distinguishing feature of sequestration of the lung? A. Structure disorders of respiratory tract E. * Valve mechanism of respiration C. What is the main sing in differential diagnosis of lung aplasia and pulmonary agenesia? . Immune therapy 284. Wet unproductive cough D. Dry unproductive cough C. * Bronchoscopically with the introduction of contrast into the esophagus D. Suction of trachea content 287. Antibacterial therapy B. Attack of cough B. Stretching of the parenchyma of the lung lobe D. * Bitonal irritating cough E. * Anomaly of arteriolar-venular anastomoses B. X-ray examination C. Small bubbling moist rales 286.

Acquired pathology of the lungs E. Surgical at progressive respiratory failure E. All transferred 294. Mucociliar insufficiency D. Good dissolution in water . What is the main treatment at congenital lobar emphysema? A. Abnormalities of the vertebrae E. Mucociliar insufficiency C. Abnormalities of cardiovascular system 291. Congenital pathology of the lungs D. Endobronchial D. * Emergency lobectomy D. Broad-spectrum B. * Nothing of transferred 295. What is the most effective way of introduction to antibacterial drugs at chronic lung disease in children? A. Disturbance of the drainage function 296. Bronchial muscular defect C. Oxygen C. Intravenous C. Acquired pathology of the heart C. In inhalations 293. What is the reason of primary pulmonary hypertension? A. What is the reason of Williams– Campbell syndrome? A. * Bronchial cartilage defect B. What is the requirement for antibacterial drugs which are used for inhalations at chronic lung disease in children? A.A. * The absence of the carina in the latter D. Intramuscular B. Congenital pathology of the heart B. Bronchoscopic changes C. Disturbance of the drainage function E. Combined 292. Atrophy of the longitudinal elastic fibres E. What is the reason of chronic cough in children with pulmonary sequestration? A. * Recurrent chest infections D. Pressure on lung tissue B. * Intraorgan electrophoresis E. X-ray changes B. Conservative B.

It is a hereditary systemic disease caused by mutation of cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator B. * Development of hepatitis E. Infection. Primary pulmonary hypertension affects mainly young patients D. The development of new directions in treatment can increase survival and improve quality of life of patients C. Cysts arise from an abnormal budding of the ventral foregut D. What is wrong assertion about cystic fibrosis? A. All transferred . Bile stasis in the interlobular bile ducts C. Selective action on gram negative flora D. Difficult output of a viscous exocrine glands secretion B. What is wrong assertion about primary pulmonary hypertension. What is wrong assertion about cystic fibrosis? A. Selective action on gram positive flora E. Cysts may be filled with air or fluid B. Fibrous transformation and development of cirrhosis 301. What is wrong assertion about liver changes at cystic fibrosis? A. Expansion of the excretory ducts of glands C. Development of progressive fibrosis of exocrine glands 300. Bronchodilatators D. The disease is the result of gene mutation 299. * Minimal sensitization 297. It is characterized by severe impaired function of the respiratory and gastro-intestinal tract E. and malignancy can occur E.C. * Cysts can not be asymptomatic C. Atrophy of glandular tissue E. A. What is wrong assertion about cystic adenomatoid malformation? A. * Narrowing of the excretory ducts of glands D. Antibiotics C. Expectorants E. Dysphagia and epigastric discomfort can occur 298. It is characterized by exocrine glands disorders C. The reason of death is the developing prolonged functional overload the right heart E. * Pathological gene is localized in the middle of the long arm of chromosome 5 D. Focal or diffuse fatty and protein dystrophy of liver cells B. * Corticosteroids B. What main treatment is used at Hamman-Rich syndrome? A. hemorrhage. Interlobular lymphohistiocytic infiltrates in intralobular layers D. * Prognosis in the cases of early treatment is favorable 302. The disease is usually fatal B.

Wet cough more in the morning D. X-linked autosomal recessive E. * Only conservative D. X-linked autosomal dominant D. Acrocyanosis C. What type of inheritance is characteristic for Hamman-Rich syndrome? A. Autosomal recessive C. * Obstructive B. Surgical and conservative C. * Autosomal dominant B. Intestinal E. Physiotherapy E. Y-linked autosomal dominant 307. Y-linked autosomal dominant 309. Autosomal dominant B. X-linked autosomal dominant D. * Autosomal recessive C. Lung transplantation 306. X-linked autosomal recessive E. Expiratory . X-linked autosomal dominant D. Only surgical B. Autosomal dominant B. What symptom does indicate the long-term hypoxemia? A. Respiratory failure 305. Y-linked autosomal dominant 308. X-linked autosomal recessive E. * Deformation of the terminal phalanges as "drumsticks" and "watch glasses" 304. Cardio-vascular C.303. * Autosomal recessive C. Hyperhidrosis E. What type of inheritance is characteristic for Kartagener syndrome? A. What treatment is used at Williams– Campbell syndrome? A. What type of inheritance is characteristic for cystic fibrosis? A. Inspiratory B. Intoxication D. What ventilatory insufficiency is present at traheobronchomegalia? A. What syndrome is common for congenital lung diseases? A. Cyanosis of nasolabial triangle B.

* 160 beats per minute D. 110 beats per minute E. 180 beats per minute E. Tracheobronchomegalia B. * Combined D. Increasing of minute circulatory volume C. * Increased and deformation of the lung pattern E. An exercising teenager may have a normal heart rate of up to A. Increasing of cardiac output B. 80 beats per minute B. Williams– Campbell syndrome is: A. A newborn has tachycardia if the resting rate is more than: A. Scanty lung pattern 311. Obstructive 310. Acute increasing of cardiac contractions at paroxismal tachycardia causes: A. 40 beats per minute C. Availability of cavities D. All transferred 315. Expansion of the lumen of the trachea and main bronchi E. Increasing of circulation time D. 120 beats per minute B. Restrictive E. 120 beats per minute 314. * Congenital generalized bronchiectasis 312. Infiltration of lung tissue in basal areas B. 180 beats per minute E. What X-ray changes are characteristic for chronic lung disease in children? A. 160 beats per minute D. 120 beats per minute B. 140 beats per minute C. * 200 beats per minute . 100 beats per minute D. Lung tissue infiltration on the tops of the lungs C. A teenager is considered to have tachycardia if the resting heart rate is more than: A. * Diminishment of percussion volume of heart E.C. 200 beats per minute 313. * 90 beats per minute C. Sclerotic changes in the peribronchial tissues C. Deformation of trachea and bronchi D.

* E. trauma) . A few seconds B. Clinic of paroxismal tachycardia includes: A. * All transferred E. Toxic disorders (eg. What is not the reason of cardiac arrhythmia? A. D. A. Ventricular tachycardia may be best managed with: A. Electrolyte disturbances (eg. Increases of readsorbtion of sodium and water in proximal kidney channels D. Dizziness. changes in the level of potassium in the blood) B. Open-heart surgery E.316.) C. Unpleasant feelings in the region of heart B. reflex) B. Catheter radiofrequency ablation 320. * All transferred 322. Nothing of these E. Nothing of transferred 319. Paroxismal tachycardia is the attacks of acute tachycardia. carditis. Cardiac tones are increased B. vomit E. Pain in a epigastrial area D. All of these 317. B. Oxygen therapy C. Decline of hydrostatical pressure and moving of blood from intersticia to blood vessels B. What is the reason of cardiac arrhythmia? A. etc. Throwing out the additional blood from depot C. Squeezing pain in a breast C. an overdose of drugs digitalis) D. D. Arterial pressure is reduced. Hormonal disorders (eg. C. Embriocardia C. A few minutes C. Pale skin E. * All transferred 318. * All are characteristic 321. What complains are not characteristic for paroxismal tachycardia? A. which arises up suddenly and lasts: A. * Implanted defibrillator B. Medications D. Centralization of blood circulation with the increase of CBV takes place due to: A. Functional disorders (psychogenic. Mechanical disorders (surgery. imbalance of hormones thyroid) E. Organic disorders (heart disease. A few hours D.

Novocainomidi C. Cordaroni B. Pathology of the explorer cardiac system C. All of these E. Supporting of medicines 325. More than 110-130 per minute C. Squat E. * Pneumonia E. Heart catheterization E. Nothing of these 327. All transferred 323. * More than 150-180 per minute E. Tension (the Valsalvi method) C. ECG B. Paroxismal tachycardia is the attack of sudden tachycardia: A. The result of paroxysmal tachycardia attack is: A. Delay of breathing D. All forms of paroxysmal tachycardia D. Corgluconi D. More than 90-100 per minute B. More than 130-140 per minute D. A. EchoCG D. Neurovegetative changes in an organism B. Seduxeni 326. Congenital disorders (eg. Has mild effectivity E. * Coronal insufficiency and blood circulation insufficiency D. Ventricular form of paroxysmal tachycardia B. More than 200 per minute 328. The first medicine at treatment of ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia is: A. * Lidocaini E. * All of these . WPW syndrome) D. Specify the method of irritation of nervus vagus at paroxysmal tachycardia. What is the best method for diagnostic of arrhythmias? A. * Supraventricular form of paroxysmal tachycardia C. * Holter-monitoring C.C. All transferred 324. Vomitive reflex B. Irritation of nervus vagus is effective at: A.

* Increases of nervus vagus tonus D. Symphatotonic collapse C. cold extremities. Reopolyglucini. Any severe toxaemia and hypercatecholamia B. mezatoni E. * Droperidoli. when the child is undynamic. Adrenalini. strong emotions C. * Paralytic collapse D. Clinical picture. Garlic E. All of these E. Pallor skin. kinings. A paralytic collapse is the result of: A. Accumulations of histamines. * Sympathetic collapse B. caffeini B. A vagotonic collapse is the result of: A. blood analysis) E. All of these E. veins are empty is characteristic for: A. Promoted sensitiveness to the pain irritants B. Eyphyllini. Liquid ammonia B. Vagotonic collapse B. Fright. kinings. * Accumulations of histamines. consciousness is oppressed. Vinegar C. It is recommended to use for inhalation at syncope: A. the skin is marble. Post hemorragic collapse E. polyglucini 331. Promoted sensitiveness to unpleasant procedures (injections. salbutamoli C. Insufficiency of oxygen in the apartment D. sticky sweat is present. Cordiamini.aminasini D. increase of body temperature and systolic arterial pressure and loud heart tones are observed at: A. * At all of these 330. Syncope arises up in children with: A. Horse-radish D. Paralytic collapse C. The best medicines at symphatotic collapse are: A. face lines are sharp.329. Any severe toxaemia and hypercatecholamia C. Nothing of these 332. Vagotonic collapse . Increases of nervus vagus tonus D. All types of collapse 334. * All of these 335. Nothing of these 333. prostaglandins B. prostaglandins C.

Mitral insufficiency E. At all types of collapse 336. All of these 341. All of these 340. Eyphyllini. What does not lead to the loss of consciousness at syncope? A. polyglucini E. Absence of compensating pause C. What is the reason of acute right heart insufficiency? A. Congenital carditis D. aminasini B. Post hemorragic collapse E. Half sitting with the inclined head to the left E. * RDS in newborns B.D. Hypoxia C. Acute myocarditis C. Horizontal with the low position of feet B. Infectious disease B. Raised with the low position of feet 337. Droperidoli. caffeini D. * Adrenalini. Presence 3 and anymore groups of extrasystoles B. Appearance of systolic murmur with an epicenter above an apex occurs at left heart failure due to: A. All of these 339. Hypertrophy of myocardium D. Anemia E. mezatoni 338. * Horizontal with high position of feet C. Reopolyglucini. * Exhaustion D. * Development of relative insufficiency to the AV-valve C. salbutamoli C. The best medicines at paralytic collapse are: A. Position of patient at syncope must be: A. * Outbreak and sudden end E. Attempts to convert and maintain sinus rhythm can be approached by: . Cardiac frequency more than 150 per 1 minute D. The general electrocardiography criteria of paroxysmal tachycardia are: A. Cordiamini. All transferred 342. Cardiomyopathy E. Violation of conductive heart system B. Half sitting with the inclined head to the right D.

II-B. mixed C. Absence of pulse on carotid and femoral arteries E. I-B. During day E. Absence of the independent breathing B. Till 7 minutes C. Necessity of long-term medical therapy B. * Till 5 minutes B. Absence of photoreaction of pupils on light C. Left heart. ІІ-A. In the evening D. Outpatient antiarrhythmic medication therapy D. systolic. * All transferred 343. In-hospital chemical cardioversion C. All of these 344. * At night C. diastolic E. Till 20 minutes 347. In-hospital electrical cardioversion B.A. * On stages: І-A. Cardiac asthma mainly occurs: A. Till 9 minutes D. Basic in determination of clinical death is: A. * Till 10 minutes E. In the morning B. At any time 345. Till 5 minutes B. right heart. Necessity of surgical treatment C. Catheter ablation procedure E. * Higher-risk of sudden cardiac death . Till 7 minutes C. Left heart. All of these 346. ІІІ D. right heart. Clinical death comes at normothermia in the case of the sudden stopping of heart: A. Clinical death comes at hypothermia in the case of the sudden stopping of heart: A. Till 20 minutes 348. Systolic. diastolic. total B. * Permanent expansion of pupils D. Till 15 minutes E. arythmogenes. Chronic cardio-vascular insufficiency is distinguished as: A. Ejection fraction is a powerful tool to classify those in the population with: A. Till 10 minutes D.

* Fibrillation of ventricles B. * By all of these E.D. Most frequent reason of primary stopping of heart is: A. Increased venous pressure 351. Risk of supraventricular tachycardia 349.pulmonary resuscitation D. Inhalation 353. Electric heart defibrillation is produced at: A. Uneffective cardiac. None of the allegations are right 354. By the myocardium infarction D. Intravenous slow D. * Reduced minute volume of blood C. Reducing venous pressure B. Acute great deficit of circulatory blood volume D. Reducing the volume of blood E. Name a list of tests that the doctor may order at sick sinus syndrome in children. By a brain hemorrhage B. Intravenous micro stream B. Acute cardiac insufficiency B. * Reduction of diastolic heart improve contractions of myocardium D. Leading pharmakodynamic effect of digitalis in congestive heart failure is: A. Sudden falling of vessels tonus E. By nothing of these 352. Reduced venous pressure E.pulmonary resuscitation C. * All of these 355. Reduced edema C. Tachycardia B. Reduced volume of circulating blood D. Intracardiac introduction of medicines due to great amount of complications during the cardiac- pulmonary resuscitation is better to replace on: A. Asystolia E. Hypertensive crisis at children may be complicated: A. Acute obstruction of cardiac vessels C. Hemodynamic manifestation of cardiac decompensation is: A. * Endotracheal E. All indicated cases 350. Intravenous stream C. By the lungs edema C. Always on the third stage of cardiac. Risk of ventricular tachycardia E. .

SVT B. A. Name ECG characteristic of WPW syndrome: A. 6-8 mg/kg E. * Phynoptini (izoptini) E. Name the dose of Lidocaini at the ventricular form of tachycardia: A. 0. Name the dose of 10 % Novocainamidi solution at the supraventricular form of tachycardia: A. 2-3 mg/kg C.A. 0. Delta wave D.25 % Isoptini solution at the supraventricular form of tachycardia: A. * 1-3 mg/kg B. * 0.1-0. 0. 3-5 mg/kg C. ECG B. A-fib/flutter C. Very fast rate. Holter monitoring C.25 mg/kg D. Name the dose of 0.2 mg/kg C.3-0.15 mg/kg B. Hinidini 361. * All transferred 356. 8-10 mg/kg E. * All transferred 357. 0.25-0. Specify the best treatment of attack of paroxysmal tachycardia that was developed on a background of infection-allergic myocarditis: A. 5-7 mg/kg D. Shortened PR-Interval E.35 mg/kg 358. 1-2 mg/kg B. * 3-6 mg/kg D. 10-15 mg/kg 360. Morphini B. * Potassium chloride B. Electrophysiology studies E. Anaprillini . Cardiac glukozides D. Calcium chloride C. Noradrenalini C.3 mg/kg E. Specify the best treatment of cardiac glucozides intoxication. 8-10 mg/kg 359. Event monitoring D.15-0.2-0.

Specify the dose of dibazoli for treatment of hypertensive crisis in children. * 0. By nothing of these E. VT may result from serious heart disease B. A. Symptomatic hypertension in children is conditioned: A. The first medicine at treatment of supraventricular form of paroxysmal tachycardia is: A. 50-60 ml/kg of the masses E. Phenobarbitali E. 60-70 ml/kg of the masses 365.8-1 ml/kg 363.7 ml/kg E. Novocainamidi C. By illnesses of kidneys B.6-0. It usually requires prompt treatment D. 0. * Stopping of heart in a systole or diastole B.1-0. Specify the volume of liquid for intravenous introduction at acute left-heart insufficiency in the second stage. 0. Lidocaini 362. * Isoptini D. * By all of these 367. Fibrillation of ventricles C. A.5 ml/kg D. By the anomalies of vessels C. Stopping of heart only in a systole E. 40-50 ml/kg of the masses D. 0. Stopping of heart only in a diastole 364. 0.2 ml/kg B. including an intracardiac electrophysiologic procedure. Some forms of VT may not need treatment C. Cordaroni E. 20-30 ml/kg of the masses B. A. Seduxeni . “Uneffective heart” (circulation of blood is saved only in large vessels) D. Specify the most frequent reason of blood circulation stopping in children. Often specialized tests. Specify the wrong assertion about ventricular tachycardia. A.3 ml/kg C. may be needed E. By illnesses of adrenal glands D. Corgluconi B. * All are right 366.4-0.2-0. * 30-40 ml/kg of the masses C.D.

Outbreak and sudden end C. Presence of 3 and anymore group of extrasystols 370. Slowly in a vein catheter E. Phentalamini C. Immediately C. * With the long duration attack B. Loss of muscular tone D. Droply in a vein catheter 369. Discoloration skin (dead-grey or cyanotic) B. Absence of compensating pause D. Slowly in a artery catheter D. Gradually D. * Steamily in a artery catheter C. Heart failure E. What drug is possible to enter only intracardiac? A. The general electrocardiography criteria of paroxismal tachycardia are: A. * All transferred B. The signs of cardiac insufficiency at paroxismal tachycardia occur: A. Absence of consciousness C. Lidocaini B. With duration few minutes E. * All of these 371. Euphyllini E. Atropini . Captoprilli D. Steamily in a vein catheter B. Absence of reflexes E. Myocardiosclerosis D. Ventricular tachycardia is indeed the most dangerous of the cardiac arrhythmias with a real risk of: A. The following method of introduction of blood and other blood substitutes is the most effective for renewal of hemodynamics: A. * All transferred 373. * Sudden cardiac death C. Nitroprussidi sodium B. Vasodilatation at treatment of heart failure is achieved by: A.368. All transferred 374. Frequency of cardiac contractions more than 150 per 1 minute E. Infarction B. The main sing in the determination of clinical death is: A. In dependence of the cause 372.

* 10-20 mg/kg/day C. Corgluconi C. Clophelini C. Seduxeni C. * Valleriani. All of these E. Atropini C. * Diuretic drugs D. Diazepami D. What must be position of child at emergency therapy of ventricular tachycardia? A. Nothing of these E. What is the dose of Potassium orotatis at treatment of VT? A. * Halfsitting C. What is used at presence of syndrome of preterm excitation of ventricles? A. Laing with head up 381. Strophantini B. Hydrocarbonati of sodium 375. What is used together with dibazoli for treatment of hypertensive crisis in children? A. * Adrenalini D. Captoprilli B. Laing with head down E. What observation is little informed at atrial flutter? . What is applied at all types of stopping blood circulations? A. 20-30 mg/kg/day D. 40-50 mg/kg/day 377. Adrenalini B. Novocainamidi D. Hydrocarbanati of sodium D. All transferred 378. Corvaloli B. Oxybutirate-Sodium E. 30-40 mg/kg/day E. 5-10 mg/kg/day B. * Cordaroni E. Isoptini 379. What is used as sedative therapy at prehospital stage of treatment of VT? A.C. Laing D. All of these 380. Sitting B. Cardiac glucozides E. * All of these 376.

Captoprilli E. ІB C. Т-negative inV2 and AVL E. At what degree of cardiac insufficiency does ascitis appear? A. Т-negative in pectoral left branches D. Prednizoloni C. Ventricular flatter 383. * All transferred 385. Event monitoring D. When violations are flagged by conduction seizures at Morgan-Edemsa Stokes syndrom? A. Electrophysiology studies 382. ІІ A .A. ЕEG shows at left heart failure: A. * Atrioventricular block ІІІst C. Paroxysmal tachycardia E. Lazix D. * Stetoscope E. What rhythm is often at left heart failure? A. Extrasystole E. Leftgramm C. Sinus arrhythmia 384. Histamines D. ECG B. At the ІІІ stage of cardiac insufficiency starting preparation is: A. * Rhythm of gallop B. Holter monitoring C. * Catecholamines E. Cardiac glucozides B. Sinus arrhythmia D. Atrioventricular block І st B. Cardiac fibrillation C. ІA B. Voltage is reduced or high B. Synoaurikulyarna block ІІst D. Serotonini C. Kinins B. All of these 386. * Dopamini 387. Activation of the sympathoadrenal system leads to heart output at acute left heart insufficiency due to: A.

Antiphomsilani C. At what type of collapse is necessarily to include aminasini in urgent therapy? A. Ratio of indirect heart massage and artificial respiration for children of all age groups is: A. Ortostatic E. It is useful to apply for oxygen therapy at treatment of acute left heart insufficiency: A. Sympathetic C. * Declines of retractive ability of left ventricle B. Cardiac asthma arises up as a result of: A. * ІІІ 388. 2:1 B. Specify indications for prescription of cardiac glycosides. ІІ B E. Declines of retractive ability of right auricle E. Toxic B. At what type of collapse is necessary to include mezatoni and adrenalini in urgent therapy? A. Expressed bradycardia D. 3:1 C. Declines of retractive ability of right ventricle C. Declines of retractive ability of both ventricles 391. Nothing of these 392. A. * Cardiac insufficiency B. Expressed hypokaliemia 394. Toxic C. * Sympathotonic E. * 4:1 D. Specify one of symptoms of acute left heart insufficiency. Group extrasystoles E. 6:1 393. Paralytic D. Declines of retractive ability of left auricle D. * All of these E. * Paralytic D. Atrioventricular blockade C. Ethyl alcohol B. 5:1 E. . Hypoxic 390. Hypoxic 389. Ortostatic B.D. Silicani D.

Specify one of symptoms of acute left heart insufficiency. * 1-2 mg/kg B. 3-4 mg/kg C. 7-8 mg/kg E. 5-6 mg/kg D. Edema of extremities B. Edema of extremities 399. Specify the dose of Prednizoloni at treatment of acute left heart insufficiency at prehospital stage. Change of depth and breathing rhythm C. Decline of arterial pressure D. 3 mg/kg . Edema on extremities 396. A. 9-10 mg/kg 400. A. * Forced sitting position of body E. * Expressed pallor of skin D. Accent of 2nd tone on a pulmonary artery C. Swelling of neck veins B. Hepatomegalia E. Swelling of neck veins D. Hepatomegalia E. Swelling of neck veins D. Specify one of symptoms of acute left heart insufficiency. Hepatomegalia E. Edema on extremities 395. Specify the dose of Lazix at treatment of acute left heart insufficiency on prehospital stage. A. Olyguria B. * Low cardiac tones B. A. Skin cyanosis C. Swelling of neck veins B. A. Cyanotic skin C.A. Expansion of right border of heart C. * Foamy excretions from mouth D. A. Specify one of symptoms of acute left heart insufficiency. * Weak pulse or undetermined 398. * 2 mg/kg C. Hepatomegalia E. 1 mg/kg B. Specify one of symptoms of acute left heart insufficiency. Edema of extremities 397.

A. All transferred 406. Late congenital carditis 403. * All transferred 405. Apical displacement D. Bacterial carditis C. Aortic stenosis E. Fungi carditis D. swollen and cracked lips. Fibroelastosis as a result of: A. Morphological changes at rheumatic fever are mainly in: A. Red rash on palms of hands and soles of feet E. Name changes on skin and mucous membranes at Kawasaki disease. Red. Specify the reason of acute right heart insufficiency. A rash. * Mitral stenosis C. Rheumatic heart disease E. * connective tissue C. Heart murmurs E. Aortic insufficiency D. 4 mg/kg E. A. A. Name specific findings at physical examination of patients with cardiomyopathy. sometimes in the groin region B. swollen tongue C. Prominent apical beat C. Pinkish-purple patches on cheeks are characteristic for: A. * Early congenital carditis E. Acute myocarditis B. Quite often rheumatic fever durates with: . fat tissue 404. Congenital carditis C. Tricuspid insufficiency 407. * Congenital heart-diseases with increased pulmonary circulation 402. * No specific physical examination findings are consistent B. bright red. Cardiomyopathy D. muscles E. lymph B. Mitral insufficiency B. Red eyes D. blood D. Viral carditis B.D. 5 mg/kg 401.

6 weeks E. only arthritis B. * 3-4 weeks D. * considerable cardiomegalia 410. 600 thousand of U 1 time per month C. The main symptom of Kawasaki disease is: A. * 1200 thousand U 1 time per month E. Rheumatic endocarditis is characterized by: A. The duration of salicylates treatment at rheumatic fever is: A. 1200 thousand U 2 times per month D. the increase of Arterial pressure D. Rheumatic pancarditis is characterized by: A. 600 thousand U 2 times per month B. 1200 thousand U 3 time per month. 6 years 413. * 5 years E. decreasment of heart's sizes E. strengthening of cardiac tones C. 2 years B. Red eyes . the decrease of Arterial pressure B. soft systolic murmur on the apex D. 2 months 412.5°C) for five days or longer B.A. 2 weeks C. * pancarditis D. * Persistent fever (over 38. accent of ІІ tone above the aorta C. The dose of benzathine penicillin G for schoolboys is: A. sometimes in the groin region C. systolic murmur above the pulmonary artery E. with arthritis and chorea E. A rash. 1 week B. only pericarditis 408. 4 years D. only myocarditis C. * rough systolic murmur on the apex B. soft systolic murmur on the aorta 409. 411. The individuals with no carditis continue with secondary prophylaxis since the last attack of rheumatic fever at least: A. 3 years C.

7 years D. Vitamins E. Suspecting of cardiomyopathy C. in 5 . * Differentiation disease processes and guide therapy 418. * Hypertension and hypertensive syndromes E. swollen tongue 414. Antibiotics B. * 1 year 415. Aspirin obligatory C. Accent of the second tone on the aorta occurs at: A. After heart transplantation B. before 1 year B.11 years E. Suspecting of carditis E. in 15-18 years 417. in 2 . Suspecting of cardiac amyloidosis D. 7 month D. 5 month C. Bright red. Blood tests C. * Intravenous gammaglobulin D. such as: . Aortic stenosis B. What is the diagnostics of Kawasaki disease? A.4 years C. All transferred 416. What are rare circumstances when endomyocardial biopsy is needed? A. * There is no test to diagnose Kawasaki disease B. ECG E. Aortic valve insufficiency C. * in 7 . Echocardiogram D.D. The majority of diagnosed children with cardiomyopathy are infants under the age of: A. The treatment for Kawasaki disease is: A. 9 month E. 3 month B. Hypotension 420. Left ventricular hypertrophy in the early stages D. Red rash on palms of hands and soles of feet E. Microbiological observation 419. Aortic coarctation (aortarctia) is more common in persons with certain genetic disorders. What age rheumatic fever is more frequent in? A.

* Turner syndrome C. Poor appetite C. inhibitors of ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme) D. More expressed in the evening E. All that is mentioned 425. Atenolol E. * scarlet fever D. All that is mentioned 426. Increases day by day 422. Permanent course B. Pale skin . Size of defect B. Arthralgia associated with rheumatic fever differs from arthralgia associated with rheumatoid arthritis by: A. Down syndrome B. Metoprolol succinate C. Cardiac glycozides E.A. Calcium antagonists of Verapamilum group B. * High pressure in the right atrium and the portal veins E. Propranolol D. Attack of rheumatic fever is more frequent after … A. rhinitis 423. Clinical manifestation of mitral insufficiency includes: A. * Absence of tenderness during passive movement of the affected joint C. * All that is mentioned 424. More expressed in the morning D. Edwards syndrome D. Antiunrhythmical preparations C. sinusitis C. Klainfelter syndrome 421. measles E. Patau syndrome E. Cardiac catheterization provides in tricuspid insufficiency an opportunity to identify: A. flu B. Weakness B. Basis of therapy of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is: A. Presence of hypertrophy D. Basis of therapy of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is: A. * Calcium antagonists of Verapamilum group B. Diagnose C.

ECG in case of rheumatic fever characteristically is characterized by: A. 5 . * All that is mentioned E. decrease of voltage 433. Caused by decreasing of heart output D. Sudden B. All types of nonrheumatic carditis 432. Due to arrhythmia C.8 months E. Duration of active process in rheumatic fever is: A. Early formation of cardiac hump is characteristic for: A. Hyperactivity D. Clinical manifestation of mitral insufficiency includes: A. 7 . Concomitant psychological dysfunction B. Nothing that is mentioned 428. Late congenital carditis C. * streptococcus B.4 months C. Early deaths at dilated cardiomyopathy are principally: A. * Shortness of breath E. 3 . Pasty legs and feet D. * Early congenital carditis B. * 1 . Viral carditis D. lengthening of the QT interval B. increase of voltage E. * lengthening of the PQ interval C. Weakness B. Palpitations C. Bacterial carditis E. Nothing that is mentioned 427. Increased emotional labiality C.2 months B. * All transferred 429. All answers are right 431. pneumococcus C. the virus of influenza . Age-regressed behaviour E.D. Etiology of rheumatic fever is: A. * Caused by severe heart failure E. 9-11 months 430. deformation of the QRS complex D. Clinical manifestation of Sydenham’s chorea includes: A.6 months D.

Puncture hemorrhages C. Nothing of transferred 435. Storage diseases C. Asymptomatic iridocyclitis .D. Hemangiomas 437. 3 months E. Mild or painless synoviitis D. * Livedo B. Nephritis E. Colicky abdominal pain E. 6 months 438. Hyperpigmentation of skin D. * inconstant damage of joints 436. * Hepatosplenomegaly C. * 1 year B. Involvement of large and small joints B. 3 years D. * All transferred E. Acute febrile form of the juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by: A. Chronic pain and swelling of many joints B. * Polyserositis D. Diabetes mellitus D. fungi E. Family history at cardiomyopathy includes: A. Uncommon systemic features B. Massive bleeding after traumas 439. Acute febrile form of the juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by: A. Acute febrile form of the juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by: A. Massive bleeding after teeth extraction 440. staphylococcus 434. Vesicles E. Acute duration of Systemic scleroderma is characterized by the development of fibrosis during: A. A skin syndrome at polyarteritis nodosa is characterized by: A. 2 years C. For rheumatic polyartritis is typical… A. Rheumatoid nodules C. morning stiffness B. constant deformations of the joints C. Hereditary causes of secondary cardiomyopathy B.

Ascytis 446. At Dermatomyositis the etiologic importance has: A. Vaccination 444. * Juvenile rheumathoid arthritis E. At the most severe duration of polyarteritis nodosa more frequently can develop: A. Endocarditis C. * Hepatomegaly C. Myocardiosclerosis B. Myocarditis B. Myocarditis D. Acute rheumatic lever C. * Leucocytosis E.C. Overuse syndrome D. * Myocardial dystrophy 445. Massive bleeding after operations 441. * Signs of activity are absent 443. Exudative anomaly of constitution D. Purpuric skin rashes D. Aminoquinolones at dermatomyositis are applied in case of: A. Previous staphylococcal infection C. * Latent persistent viral infection E. Osteomyelitis 442. Expressed activity E. At polyarticular form of JRA is observed: A. Kidneys amyloidosis D. Acute duration of the disease C. Meningoencephalitis D. Infectious arthritis B. Joints' ankylosis . Prednisone hypersensitivity B. * Dry gangrene B. Presence of chronic infection in the organism B. At fading of dermatomyositis activity damage of heart has signs of: A. Pleurisy E. Affection of the eyes is special for: A. Expressed visceral disorders D. Pericarditis E. Acquired heart disease E. Purulent osteomyelitis C.

Basic vessels’ damaging factor at polyarteritis nodosa is: A. Systemic dysplasia of connective tissue 450.447. Anti convulsive preparations E. Bedsores and necroses of soft tissues at Dermatomyositis are rare in the area of: A. Kidneys B. Osteomalacia B. * Systemic scleroderma in combination with rheumathoid arthritis B. Dermatomyositis 448. Bacterial toxins C. Acute infectious inflammation of joints E. * Circulating immune complexes D. Scapulas C. as a rule. NSAIDs D. Calcinosis at Dermatomyositis can develop mainly in: A. * Muscles E. Systemic scleroderma in combination with glomerulonephritis . * Autoimmune processes in connective tissue C. Elbows E. Viruses B. At which systemic connective tissue disease the clinic of myocarditis is the most prominent? A. CREST-syndrome is: A. Basis of the RA pathogenesis is: A. * SLE B. Cool allergens E. Small hand joints 451. after setting of: A. Polyarteritis nodosa E. * Buttocks B. Chemical toxins 449. Damage of the mineral processes in bones D. Body temperature at polyarteritis nodosa decreased. Joints 453. JRA D. * Glucocorticoids C. Cardiac muscle C. Sacrum D. Lungs D. Antibiotics B. Immunedepressors 452. SSD C.

Newborns D. 10 joints E. * Irydocyclitis E. Teenagers 459. Systemic scleroderma in combination with osteoporosis D. For polyarticilar form of JRA typical is damage of more than: A. * Heliotrope erythema with the edema C. Maculo-papulous rashes B. Conjunctivitis B. Retina's degeneration D. Dermatomyositis is more frequent in: A. Damage of heart at acute and subacute duration of dermatomyositis has signs of: A. Systemic scleroderma in combination with hemorrhagic vasculitis 454. Myocardiosclerosis C. 7th vertebra 457. Pericarditis 456. Systemic scleroderma in combination with rheumatism E. 1st vertebra B. * Myocarditis E. Boys C. Dermatomyositis glasses are presence in paraorbital areas: A. * 5 joints D. * Girls B. Myocardial dystrophy B. Damage of the neck part of spine at JRA more frequent is at level of: A. 1 joint B. Cataract 455. Damage of eyes at JRA more frequent looks as: A. 3 joints C. * 2-3rd vertebrae C. Endocarditis D. Expressed edema D. Rethynopathy C. 5th vertebrae E. 4th vertebra D. Massive hematomas E. 4 joints . Preschoolers E. Hyper pigmentation of skin 458.C.

Sudden D. Muscular atrophy D. Widening of the joint crack 461. In case of acute dermatomyositis prednisolone is applied in a dose: A. Early destruction D. * Narrowing of the joint crack E. For RA characteristic is: A. Bronchopneumonia E. For the damage of the respiratory system at dermatomyositis is not typical: A. For seronegative polyarticilar form of JRA typical is: A. * 2 mg/kg/day D. Pulmonary vasculitis C.460. * Unfavorable prognosis E. 5 mg/kg/day E. Muscular hypertonus E. Myalgia of humeral belt B. In children the most frequent visceral localization of Systemic scleroderma is: A.5 mg/kg/day B. For Systemic scleroderma in child's age the most characteristic beginning is: A. 0. Absence changes of bones and joint surfaces B. Rapidly progressed E. Pleurisy D. Absence of exudate in a joint cavity D. * Gradual. * Obstructive syndrome 464. Hepatic . Fulminate C. Acute 463. unnoticeable B. Fast progressing duration B. 1 mg/kg/day C. Favorable prognosis C. Food aspiration B. Pulmonary B. Damage of 10 and more joints 462. 10 mg/kg/day 466. For the muscular syndrome at polyarteritis nodosa is typical: A. Hemarthroses C. Flexors hypotonus 465. * Myalgia attacs C.

Spine damage 471. In children with Systemic scleroderma the most frequent is damage of the: A. Nephritis E. Damage of eyes B. Pancreas 469. In children with Systemic scleroderma the most frequent is: A. * Hyperthermia and exanthema C. Polyarticular form of the juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by: A. Kidneys syndrome D. Acute duration of the disease C. * Neutrophyls with the lumps of nuclear disintegration in a cytoplasm B. Carditis and vasculitis E. * Prednisone hypersensitivity B. Expressed visceral disorders D. * Esophagus D. Stomach C. Kidney D. Cerebral E. Leading symptom at the Still syndrome is: A.C. Macular rashes C. Previous chronic duration E. * Symmetric involvement of large and small joints B. Changed Т-cells C. Fibrosing alveolitis E. Components of nuclear DNA D. Pneumosclerosis B. * Cardio-vascular 467. Liver E. Intestine B. Signs of activity are absent 472. Atelectasis 468. Changed circulating immune complexes E. Metotrexat at dermatomyositis is applied in case of: A. * Pneumofibrosis C. Massive bleeding after traumas . LE-cells are: A. Systemic features D. Pulmonitis D. Antinuclear antibodies 470.

Arhythmia E. * Myocarditis D. * Autoimmune violation 477. The direct sign of cardiosclerosis at Systemic scleroderma in children is: A. Disturbance of the coronal circulation of blood E. Brightly-expressed E. Newborns B. Inflammatory changes B. Allergy of slow type D. "Warty" endocarditis . * Polysyndrome displays D. * Girls aged over 3 years D. Hypertrophy of the left ventricle B. Systemic scleroderma at the initial period more frequently has: A. Changes in CNS 474. Prognostic favorable D. The damage of heart at RA more frequently all shows: A. Absence of vascular violations 475. Acute cardiac insufficiency 479. * "Small" heart B. Changes in joints B. Systemic scleroderma is characterized by the: A. Absent 478.473. Schoolboys C. Neoplastic processes E. The change of the nervous system at Systemic scleroderma in children is: A. Changes in kidneys E. Boys aged over 3 years E. Skin damage of the face and changes of the cardio-vascular system C. Changes in cardio-vascular system D. Absence of joints' damage E. Allergy of immediate type C. Mitral stenos C. * Secondary C. Isolate damage of skin B. Independent from age or sex 476. The early sign of the disease B. "Large" heart C. The basis of Dermatomyositis pathogenesis is: A. Fibroelastosis D. * Changes in the skin C. Systemic scleroderma is more frequently in: A.

Encephalitis C. * Autoimmune reactions E. The main clinical criteria of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis are: A. * 75-100 mg/kg/day D. The main clinical criterion of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Pneumonia 485. Nephritis E. Pneumonia 484. Bacterial inflammation C. 75 mg/kg/day 482. Carditis B. Sensitization B. Pneumonia 483. * Symmetrical affection of small joints D. Allergic reactions 486. The main clinical criterion of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Hepatitis D. * 10 mg/kg four times daily B. Chorea B. Hepatitis D. The dose of ibuprophen to treat juvenile rheumathoid arthritis is: A. Primary streptococcus sensitization .480. 20 mg/kg four times daily D. 50-60 mg/kg/day C. Nephritis E. 50 mg/kg/day E. 150-200 mg/kg/day 481. 30-50 mg/kg/day B. * Next joint arthritis in 3 months and more after the first one B. The pathogenetic chain of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is: A. * Sinovial precipitation B. Carditis C. Nephritis E. 100-120 mg/kg/day E. * Arthritis more than 3 months C. Aseptic inflammation D. 10 mg/kg daily C. The main role in the juvenile rheumatoid arthritis pathogenesis belongs to: A. The dose of aspirin to treat juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is: A.

Remittent fever B. * Antigen-antibody-complement complex formation B. Persistency of the streptococcus in connecting tissues 489. Constant persistancy of the streptococcus in a blood E. atrophy D. Intracellular sensitization D. Arthralgia D. Soft palate necrosis B. sclerosis E. Super cooling E. Profuse sweating C. Stable stomatitis C. Primary streptococcus sensitization B. Ionizing radiation D. Ulcerative esophagitis D. Intracellular sensitization D. To the early signs of polyarteritis nodosa does not belong: A. atrophy. * Vaccines C. induration. Firm edema. Rashes. Induration. Persistancy of the streptococcus in connecting tissues 487. Myalgia E. C. Primary streptococcus sensitization C.C. atrophy B. induration. B Hemolytic streptococcus . * Peryorbital erythema 492. Firm edema. atrophy C. Intracellular sensitization D. * Visual nerve's athrophy 491. The pathogenetic chain of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Chemic toxins B. Thrombocytopenia E. The typical skin damage at Systemic scleroderma is characterized by such stages: A. hyperpigmentation. hyperthrophy 490. Persistance of the streptococcus in connecting tissues 488. * Chondrial lesion C. Thrombangiitic syndrome at polyarteritis nodosa has symptoms of: A. What are the most frequent provoking factors of polyarteritis nodosa? A. Constant persistency of the streptococcus in a blood E. * Firm edema. Constant persistancy of the streptococcus in a blood E. The pathogenetic chain of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is: A.

20-30 mg D.150 D. D. 0.25 E.5 mg B. 20 .5 – 3.0. 0.75 . 10-15 mg C. * 2-4 B. 4-5. 20 . 100 .5. What are the preparations of the first line for the SLE treatment? A. * 5mg 498. Antibiotics C. 4 mg E. What daily dose of heparin (U/kg) is applied for treatment of polyarteritis nodosa with thrombangiitis syndrome? A.5 . What daily dose of prednisolone (mg/kg) is applied for treatment of polyarteritis nodosa with thrombangiitis syndrome? A.50 B.400 E. 5 -10 D. 30-50 mg E. 3 mg D. What daily dose of aspirin is appointed to the children per 1kg of body weight for JRA treatment? A. 50 . 495. 1-1. * 50-100 mg 496.493. 6-7. * Corticosteroids E.0.25 C. What daily dose of azatyoprin (mg/kg) is applied for polyarteritis nodosa treatment? A. Cytostatics D. What average daily dose of prednizolne (mg/kg) is applied for polyarteritis nodosa treatment? A. 75 .1000 damage of the hearts 499.0. 2 mg C. 2. 500 .1 .100 C. E.75 B.5 . * 1-2 C. Aminoquinolones B. What daily dose of delagyl is appointed to the children per 1kg of body weight for JRA treatment? A. NSAIDs 494. 1 mg B. * 200 .100 497. 0.

* 2. 2-3 months E.75 B. 6-8 days B. 2. 5 mg 502.B. Symmetrical damage of joints . 10 501. 1-2 C.5 . 2-3 months E. * 5-7 E. What daily dose of voltaren is appointed to the children per 1kg of body weight for JRA treatment? A.5 . Damage of spine at JRA E. 1. What daily dose of prednisolone (mg/kg) is applied for treatment of polyarteritis nodosa with abdominal syndrome? A. * 6-8 months 505. Damage of eyes at JRA 503. Pauciarticular form JRA C. What duration of cytostatics application at JRA? A.5 D. 3-6 weeks C. 0. What duration of aminoquinolones application at JRA? A.5 mg E. 10 500. 1-2 months D. What from enumerated is characteristic for the RA clinic at children (but not for adults)? A.5 D. * Often damage of neck part of spine D. 1-2 weeks B. 1mg B. 2. * 3-6 months 504.0. What does it mean "Still's Syndrome"? A. 1-2 C. 2 mg C. 3-6 weeks C. * 5-7 E. Deformity of joints C. 1-2 months D. * Systemic form JRA B. Often damage of small hand's joints B. Subclinical form JRA D.5 mg D.5 .

Methyndol 507. 250 D. due to the toxins influence 512. Thrombocytopenia. What is the JRA laboratory diagnostic criterion? A. Hyperproteinemia. What is the basic damaging agent at SLE? A. Leucopenia with a neutrophyl shift B. What is the basic laboratory criterion of SLE? A. Diclophenac E. 50 B. Ketotyphen D. Inherited E. * Methotrexat B. What is the etiology of polyarteritis nodosa? A. LE-cells E. Hydrocortisone C. What is the daily dose of prednisolone (mg) for pulse-therapy? A. 100 C. Chorea C. Leucocytosis and ESR acceleration . T-lymphocytes C. Rheumatic nodules D. * 1000 511. hypergammaglobulinemia E. * LE-cells C. 500 E. * Circulating immune complexes B.and pauciarticular forms development 506. anemia D. Hematoxylin little bodies 509. Carditis B. * Muscular atrophy E. В-lymphocytes D. What from these preparations is the component of the JRA base therapy? A.E. * Unknown D. Lymphadenopathy 510. Bacterial C. What from this is the clinical diagnostic criterion of JRA? A. Annular erythema 508. Viral B. Rare mono.

Limited B. Fibroelastosis C. * Positive rheumathoid factor E. Pancarditis 515. Anemia. Libman-Sax endocarditis D.B.5 mg/kg E. Neurolupus 516. Myocarditis D. * 10 mg/kg 514. What is the most frequent sign in the debut of SLE? A. Kidney's syndrome C.5 mg/kg C. Allergosepsis E. Pulmonitis 517. 5 mg/kg D. Still's syndrome B. * Ischemia of myocardium B. What is the most unfavorable form of JRA in relation to the function of joints? A. 7. What is the maximal day's dose of prednisolone at JRA? A. Meningitis B. Abdominal syndrome D. seromucoid C. * Polyarticular seropositive D. What is the most frequent cardio-vascular syndrome at polyarteritis nodosa? A. Polyarticular seronegative C. Myocardiosclerosis E. 1 mg/kg B. Pauciarticular 518. * Polyserositis E. Increased level of ASL-О D. What is the motive regime in children with JRA? A. Bed . 2. Increased CRP. * Skin syndrome B. Pulmonitis E. What is the most typical for the system form of JRA? A. Lupus-nephrite C. * Free C. Half-bed D. leucocytosis 513.

* Small joints of hands B. Neurotoxicosis C. Hemorrhage into the brain B. Knees D. Hemorrhage into the brain B. Bed-limited 519. Radial-wrist D. What joints at JRA become fusiform? A. Humeral E. * Proteinuria D. Humeral E. Ankles C. What is the sign of cerebral crisis at polyarteritis nodosa? A. Cylindruria E. Humeral E. What is the sign of kidneys damage at SLE? A. Hip 524. Paralyses 520. Stable damage of spinal cord . Neck joints C. * Cerebral vascular crisis D. Knee B. What joints are more frequently damaged at RA in children? A. Hips 523. Sable loss of hearing E. Elbows E. Hip 522. * Elbow C. What joints at JRA become spherical? A. What neurological syndrome at polyarteritis nodosa is the most frequent? A. Neirotoxicosis C. Bacteriuria C. Radial-wrist D. What joints are the most frequent damaged at SLE? A. Stern-costal D. * Knee B. Hip 525. Oxaluria 521. Elbow C. * Unconsciousness D. * Knee B.E. Leucocyturia B.

By origin chronic gastroduodenitis classified as: A. stenosis of the pylorus E. Paralyses 526. * hepatobiliary system C. the respiratory system D. Cytoprotectors prescribe to children with peptic ulcer disease: A. * increased B. * reduced D. * chest pain. nausea C. pain in the left upper quadrant. all wrong 527. all wrong 532. diarrhea 530. pain in the right upper quadrant D. Bloating is typical of patients with gastritis with acid. Complications of peptic ulcer do not include: A. Constipation characteristic of patients with gastritis with acid. Postinfectious and nutritional D. penetration C. reduced D. in the left upper quadrant pain. headache. preserved E. * primary and secondary B. diarrhea E. cardiovascular system E.E. nausea. preserved E.function: A. * after withdrawal of Helicobacter therapy . Allergic and toxic 528. normal C. heartburn. congenital and acquired C. perforation D. common and limited E.function: A. urinary system 529. Clinical symptoms of gastro-esophageal reflux A. normal C. * intestinal obstruction B. CNS B. dysphagia B. Chronic gastroduodenitis often combined with disabilities: A. increased B. peryvistserytis 531.

prostaglandin E2 D.2. all wrong 538. erythromycin 535. group on physical education . 14 . antirecurrent treatment in spring and autumn B.5 mg / kg / day C. Glucose B. 21 .1. penicillin B.5 . at high acidity D. * hydrochloric acid B. Factors aggression gastric mucosa: A.5 .10 days C. * rate of Helicobacter therapy 1 time per year C.2 mg / kg / day D.30 days 536. * 7 .14 days D. gentamicin C. heparin E. Drug of choice in relation to Helicobacter pylory are: A. novocaine C.5 mg / kg / day E. papaverine 537. * metronidazole D. Duration of appointment or triple quadrotherapy children are: A. from the beginning of treatment prescribed C. bicarbonate E.5 .3 mg / kg / day 534. under ulcer healing E. 10 . rehabilitation of chronic foci of infection .special D.21 days E. 2. Dosage of no-spa to children with peptic ulcer disease? A.B. Factors for secondary prevention of ulcer own everything except: A.7 days B. * 1 . Endoscopic hemostasis is carried out by introducing A. cefazolin E. formation of mucus C. 2 . 0. in remission 533. 1. 5 .1 mg / kg / day B. * aminocaproic acid D.

C. Amylase 545. Functional disorders of stomach secretory type. D. hemorrhagic C. reparants E. mixed E. Famotidine refers to a group: A.histamine blockers C. surface B. Chronic duodenitis. B. Chronic gastritis. all true 544. Peptic ulcer. antacids B. D. E. Helicobacter pylori promote: A. * Urease C. dynamic monitoring pediatrician 539. hydrogen pump inhibitors D. * Duodenogastric reflux. Helicobacter pylori colonize: A. Chronic gastritis. Helicobacter pylori produce an enzyme: A. Dyskinesia of the biliary tract. Gastroesophageal reflux refers to: A. * H2. pyloric D. fundus C. * Functional indigestion motor type. lipase E. E. Lactase B. cardia of the stomach B. For endoscopic characteristics in children occurs less often chronic gastroduodenitis: A. peptidase D. esophagitis .E. * antral E. Chronic duodenitis. Functional disorders of the stomach include: A. 542. cytoprotectors 540. C. 543. B. Chronic esophagitis. * atrophic D. erosive 541.

How physiotherapy can be used in children with pain syndrome in chronic gastroduodenitis? A. tyubazh with xylitol C. * gastritis C. smecta B. * ulcer healing period of 1 month in remission for over a year B. Analgin B. mud applications 548. colon E. colitis D. with a spoon C. the bottle 550. almagel C. stomach C.B. ulcer healing period of up to 2 months in remission less than 1 year D. Prednisone E. * parenteral D. enteral B. diathermy E. Impurities of bile in the vomit indicates the location of A. ulcer healing time up to 2 weeks to 6 months of remission C. * ranitidine D. hepatitis 546. Histamine H2. omeprazole E. term ulcer healing 1 month recurrence up to 2 times a year .blockers include: A. ozocerite applications B. Fractional E. of the esophagus B. motilium 547. In case of severe esophageal mucosal injury with severe pain prescribed diet A. gastro . In mild severe ulcers: A. In gastric ulcer using the following drugs: A. aspirin 551. * average of duodenal ulcers D. small intestine 549. * electrophoresis of novocaine D. essentiale D.duodenitis E. * De-nol C.

presence of "hungry" pain 558. pain syndrome C.5 hours after meals E. 15-30 min. Ultrasound of the abdomen B. EFGDS . half-sitting E. 30-45 min.5 hours after meals E. In patients with duodenitis pain occurs more frequently through: A. Leading to the diagnosis of achalasia is A. after meals B. EFGDS C. 30-45 min. after meals D. * expressed dyspeptic syndrome D. sitting D. 45-60 min. after meals B. * lying C. after meals D. recurrence at 1 year 552. after meals C. reduced secretion E. there is not 557. 45-60 min. ulcer healing period of up to 2 months. reclining 556. after meals C. pH meter D. all true 554. Indications for assignment Motilium are: A. In order to monitor the effectiveness of Helicobacter therapy prescribed A.E. Common blood analysis 553. In what position to take medication to patients with acute esophagitis A. * 15-30 min. In patients with gastritis pain occurs due to: A. moderate D. * 1-1. weakly expressed B. all wrong 555. 1-1. * urea breath test E. increased secretion B. Increased secretion in patients with gastritis pain: A. standing B. * intensive E. dull C.

CT E. preschool children B. Low secretion in patients with gastritis pain: A. Most suffer from a stomach ulcer: A. cytostatics 562. diarrhea.function: A.function: A. reduced D. prolonged nausea. * increased B. bitter taste in the mouth D. all wrong 560. * contrast x-ray study of the esophagus C. analgesic B. Children of first three years of life. Night pain characteristic of patients with acid . nuclear magnetic resonance 559. achlorhydria . Ultrasonography of internal organs D. pain in the right upper quadrant 561. boys E. * Probiotics D. school-age children C. * girls D. intensive B. acute D. hormones E. Heartburn pain and epigastric C. antipyretics C. * increased B.B. achlorhydria E. all true 564. normal C. Main clinical manifestations of achalasia? A. Massive antibiotic therapy for peptic ulcer requires the use of A. reduced D. * weakly expressed C. Pain fasting characteristic of patients with acid . normal C. sometimes constipation E. 563. * dysphagia and regurgitation B. missing E.

D. analgesics. prokinetics. reduction of gastric acid secretion 569. antibiotics C. blockers of histamine H2-receptor D. night pain C. Pain in remission of peptic ulcer is: A. may occur during exercise E. blockers of histamine H2 -receptor antagonists. That's right 565. antispasmodics D. antacids. reparant antacids B. increased secretion of bicarbonate D. Ortner’s symptom 568. Pathogenic therapy of gastroesophageal reflux disease of III-IV stage A. 567. pain after exercise 566. bismuth preparations E. * proton pump inhibitors. antacids. analgesics. prokinetics C. Palpation to an acute ulcer is characterized by: A. antispasmodics 570. * antacids. absent. pronounced after a meal B. prokinetics. sometimes bothers night. * antacids. cytoprotectors B. H2.E. prokinetics C. Pain in duodenal ulcer is not characterized by: A. symptom Pasternatsky E. * increased secretion of hydrochloric acid C. blockers of histamine H2-receptor D. * pain immediately after eating E. prokinetics. symptom of Shchetkin -Blumberg. C. Pathogenesis of gastritis: A. antispasmodics 571. antibiotics. increase in mucous discharge B. Late pain D. antacids B. antispasmodics.blockers of histamine receptors . * kept on deep palpation C. Pathogenic therapy of gastro-esophageal reflux disease without esophagitis A. Pathogenetic therapy of gastro-esophageal reflux disease of II stage A. antacids reparant E. "Hungry" pain B. Ker’s symptom B. physiological blood flow in the mucosa E. antacids. * symptom of Mendel D.

blockers in the treatment of gastric ulcer: A.function: A. * reduced D. headache C. Signs of dyspeptic syndrome: A. age of the child C. 1-2 weeks . * increased B. normal C. * secretory function B. balance of ingredients of food 576. The average duration of histamine H2. intervals between meals E. esophagus D. Sour smell of vomit indicates the eruption of their A. antispasmodics 572. analgesics. achlorhydria E. abdominal pain B. Prevalence of dyspeptic pain syndrome typical gastro-duodenitis with acid. dietary habits D. fever E. weakness D. fluorine 575. oral B. Prevalence of dyspeptic pain syndrome typical gastroduodenitis with acid. preserved E. larynx C. all wrong 573. Products formation of gastric juice urea hydrolisation: A. Colon 578. reduced D. oxygen B. nitrogen D. * Vomiting 577. * stomach E. increased B. * ammonia C. chlorine E. normal C. Severity of dyspeptic symptoms in children with chronic gastroduodenitis depends on: A. all true 574.function: A.E.

Single component B. 4-6 weeks E. * Aktovegin D. The current treatment regimen of chronic gastroduodenitis associated with HP is: A. 3-4 weeks D. * 4-6 weeks E. * four-component D. The group of drugs is reparant A. EFGDS B. The average duration of histamine H2. heartburn . 2-3 weeks C. 1-2 weeks B. The leading symptom of I stage of ulcers are: A. five-component E. 3-4 weeks D. * urea E. mucus D. omeprazole 584.B. belching D. * pain B. Smecta E. The enzyme urease hydrolyzes in gastric contents: A. two-component C. 2-3 weeks C. The gold standard in the diagnosis of gastro-esophageal reflux A.blockers in the treatment of peptic ulcer of duodenum: A. * 6-8 weeks 579. Ultrasound of the abdomen E. Maalox B. x-ray with barium D. Echo CS 583. vomiting C. 6 8weeks 580. motilium C. multicomponent 581. pepsin B. bile 582. * daily intra esophageal pH-metry C. hydrochloric acid C.

a meal .relief .pain E. behind the breastbone 589. The main pathognomonic sign for gastroesophageal reflux disease are: A. * Heartburn C. total narrowing of the esophagus D. intoxication C. * retrograde penetration of barium from the stomach into the esophagus in a horizontal position C. dysuria E. all true 591.eating . * hunger . The three major syndromes of chronic gastritis: A.pain . penetration D. pepsin . meal .meal . The sequence of symptoms in Moinigan’s rhythm is follows: A.pain . diarrhea.hunger 590. cone-shaped extension of the esophagus 586. peryvistserytis 588. To the factors protect the gastric mucosa belongs: A. meal .hunger . pain.hunger . diarrhea. Flatulence 587. perforation E. Pain behind the breastbone B.relief . cone-shaped narrowing of the esophagus E. intoxication D. pain. around the navel B. local muscle tension 585. diarrhea. hemorrhage. * bleeding B. left upper quadrant E. The main criterion for radiological research gastro-esophageal reflux A. dysuria.relief B.relief C. Nausea D. * pyloroduodenal zone D. The most common location of pain duodenitis: A. retrograde penetration of barium into the stomach ulcer 12paloyi B.pain .E. * pain. Vomiting E.relief D. stenosis of the pylorus C. Pain . right upper quadrant C. hunger . The most common complication of peptic ulcer in children is: A. hemorrhagic B.

* regurgitation and vomiting C. psychogenic violation D. * bicarbonate D. * New barium mixture flows into the esophagus from the stomach B. expand all esophagus 596. De-nol . mucosal ischemia 592. nausea D. sometimes constipation diarrhea E. glucagon 593. * malformations of the larynx and esophagus B. Metoclopramide B. * famotidine D. pepsin D. narrowing of the esophagus just E. To the factors protect the gastric mucosa belongs: A. insulin E. blockers? A. hydrochloric acid C.B. To the factors protect the gastric mucosa belongs: A. almagel C. tumors of the stomach and intestines 595. * secretory Ig A B. hydrochloric acid C. New to the flow of barium mixture of duodenal ulcers in stomach C. hydrochloric acid C. What are the most frequent causes of neonatal dysphagia? A. all true 594. * prostaglandin E2 D. conical narrowing of the distal esophagus and expanding area underneath D. Pain when chewing 597. pain behind the breastbone and heartburn B. What are the symptoms chalasia A. inflammation of the larynx and esophagus C. tumors of the esophagus and mediastinum E. What are the radiological signs of chalasia A. pepsin B. gastrin E. gastrin E.

What drugs reduce the tone of the lower esophageal A. Solcoseril 600.E. * is the involuntary leaking of gastric contents into the esophagus C. failure gastro-esophageal sphincter C. a lack of gastric fundus 604.histamine blockers D. Failure of the upper esophageal sphincter . expand all esophagus 603. hormones E. What is halaziya A. What group of drugs is Metoclopramide? A. analgesics D. * beta. is the involuntary leaking intestinal contents into the stomach B. antispasmodics E. narrowing of the pylorus D. What group of drugs is solcoseril? A. cytoprotectors 602. cytoprotectors 599. Phosphalugel B. De-nol D. What is achalasia? A. a failure pyloric stomach E. antacids B. * reparant E. omeprazole 598. H2 histamine blockers D. No-spa C.blockers C. antacids B. * prokinetic C. cytoprotectors 601. H2. failure pylorus E. is the involuntary leaking of gastric contents into the mouth D. What is gastro-esophageal reflux? A. * Omeprazole E. What drugs referred to as proton pump inhibitors A. antibiotics B. * changes cardia under which hampered its permeability B. prokinetic C.

1 mg / kg. 607. X-ray B. narrowing of the pylorus E. Pilorostenosis 606. Respiratory urease test C. C.B. 609. failure pylorus D. R-graphia 610. Hypotension of pylorus C. B. Ultrasound D. * EFGDS C. * Urease test on biopsies B. What is the most informative method of instrumental diagnosis of functional disorders of the stomach: A. Ph -metry E. * conical narrowing of the distal esophagus and expanding area underneath D. What method of diagnosis is carried out during endoscopic examination? A. E. ultrasound C. 5 mg / kg. D. What is the main radiological sign of achalasia? A. * EFGDS B. expansion pylorus 605. New barium mixture flows into the esophagus from the stomach B. * cardia insufficiency C. * 10 mg / kg. * Hypertension of cardia D. What is the daily dose of cimetidine used in the treatment of chronic gastroduodenitis in children? A. tomography E. nuclear magnetic resonance D. serological diagnosis D. Hypertension of pylorus E. Microbiological examination of biopsy . What is the basis for functional disorders of the stomach for motor type ( hastroezophageal disorder): A. expand all esophagus E. Duodenal intubation. 20 mg / kg. What is the primary diagnosis chalasia A. 3 mg / kg. narrowing of the esophagus just 608. Hypotension of cardia B. New to the flow of barium mixture of duodenal ulcer in stomach C.

R-graphia 612. CT D. First Rh-negative C. What position in bed should occupy patients with gastroesophageal reflux during sleep? A. nuclear magnetic resonance E. test for acidosis E. horizontal B. * Bacteriological study of biopsy gastric mucosa B. study of nucleic acids E. * First Rh-positive B. Ultrasound of the abdomen B. radiographic 614. analgesics. * "Aerotest" C. Which of blood groups is a risk factor for peptic ulcer disease? A. biopsy of the stomach or duodenum 616. * Contrast radiography of the esophagus C. with raised footside E. What resulted from the research methods are the most important for the diagnosis of chronic gastroduodenitis? A. breathe test D. prokinetic. Fractional study of gastric contents D. reparants E. analgesics. antibiotics. with lowered head end C. other . Which group of drugs used to treat gastro-esophageal reflux? A. study of feces and saliva by polymerase reaction C. * EFGDS B. Which diagnostic methods refer to non-invasive? A.E. All right 611. prokinetics 617. antispasmodics. Which diagnostic methods refer to invasive? A. * antacids. determination of immunoglobulins E. What methods of examination used to diagnose in chalasia A. de-nol -tests D. "Aerotest" 615. sitting 613. pH meter C. * with raised at least 15cm head D. antacids D. antispasmodics B. antisecretory C. urease test B.

* Motilium D. Maalox C. Almagel 621. vikalin D. A child is suffering from functional indigestion for motor type. bloody vomit B. Almagel B. * Fitosed C. cimetidine E. Which of the them related to blocking histamine H2-receptor? A. penicillin 619. distortion of taste E. reduced B. Assign a drug with gastroesophageal reflux to improve gastric motility: A. Smecta E. Hastrofarm B. * De-nol B. not changed D. Kvamatel D. Maalox C. * increased C. hastrofarm 620. No-spa 624. metacin E. Assign the correct secretory disorders in reflux esophagitis: . pale skin C. Hastronorm C. Four Rh-positive 618. What preparation for correction neurovegetative disorders should be prescribed? A. Appetite in duodenal ulcer: A. Three Rh-positive E.D. Acute gastrointestinal bleeding is characterized by the following except: A. melena E. * cimetidine B. hastrofarm D. available 623. * hyperthermia D. Kvamatel E. collapse 622. Which of the following drugs belong to antihelicobacter? A.

Bloating is typical of patients with gastritis with acid.function: A. Belching rotten characteristic of patients with gastritis with acid. milk C. "Hunger pains" E.A. Smecta 625. * reduced D. Auscultation of the abdomen of a healthy baby listens: A. preserved E. * Kvamatel E. * . burp "sour" D. * kefir D.Poor intestinal sounds C. cheese B. * reduced D. vomiting 626. preserved E. increased B. . Creamy oil E. all wrong 629. normal C. normal C.Complete absence of intestinal sounds B. except: A. Hastroform D.Respiratory and cardiac murmurs E. At low gastric acidity is often observed: A. Motilium B. * primary and secondary B.function: A. .Noise friction peritoneum D. Postinfectious and nutritional . increased B. congenital and acquired C. By origin chronic gastroduodenitis classified as: A. tendency to constipation B. . . * unstable stool C. all wrong 630. At UC contraindicated such dairy products.Noise "splash" 628. Cheese 627. No-spa C.

cardiovascular system E. Restricted common 635. * preschool children D. * Surface and erosive B. school age 634. Chronic gastroduodenitis often combined with disabilities: A. Classification of chronic gastro-duodenitis for endoscopic characteristics of gastro-duodenitis: A. * hepatobiliary system C. Restricted common B. endorphins E. Primary and secondary C. * Acute and chronic D. Primary and secondary C. * Hypertrophic and hemorrhagic 636. mucus D. Classification of chronic gastro-duodenitis for endoscopic characteristics of gastro-duodenitis: A. Antral and fundic E. urinary system 633. common and limited E. Primary and secondary C. Allergic and toxic 631. bile 632. Chronic gastroduodenitis usually begins in children: A. Classification of chronic gastro-duodenitis for the duration of the disease: A. * hydrochloric acid B. Acute and chronic D.D. Cells lining the stomach secrete: A. the respiratory system D. the first three years of life E. Antral and fundic E. First month of life B. Classification of chronic gastro-duodenitis on localization process: . Antral and fundic E. Restricted common 637. Surface and erosive B. First year of life C. bicarbonate C. CNS B. Acute and chronic D.

Primary and secondary C. heartburn. Complications of peptic ulcer do not include: A. Surface and erosive B. Restricted common 638. stenosis of the pylorus E. Restricted common B.function: A. Surface and erosive B. * Restricted common 639. Constipation characteristic of patients with gastritis with acid. * Antral and fundic E. Surface and erosive 640. reduced . Acute and chronic D. dysphagia B. pain in the left upper quadrant. Antral and fundic E. pain in the right upper quadrant D. headache. nausea. diarrhea E. * Primary and secondary C. Acute and chronic D. normal C. Stricture of rectum C. penetration C. Perforation of ulcer B. nausea C. * increased B. Classification of chronic gastro-duodenitis on the prevalence of the process: A. perforation D. Complications of UC are following except: A. in the left upper quadrant pain. * chest pain. * intestinal obstruction B. Primary and secondary C. Clinical symptoms of gastro-esophageal reflux A. Classification of chronic gastroduodenitis by origin: A. Toxic dilatation of the colon 643. * Gastric bleeding E. diarrhea 641. Antral and fundic E. peryvistserytis 642.A. Profuse intestinal bleeding D. Acute and chronic D.

Endoscopic hemostasis is carried out by introducing . Duration of appointment or triple quadrotherapy children are: A.5 . penicillin B. 2 .1. Drug of choice in relation to Helicobacter pylory are: A. erythromycin 648.3 mg / kg / day 646.30 days 649.14 days D. slightly marked C.2. cefazolin E. all wrong 644. 1. 10 .7 days B.5 mg / kg / day C.5 . may experience nausea and heartburn E. Biseptol E. at high acidity D. 5 . Gentamicin C.21 days E. Furazolidone B. Dosage of no-spa to children with peptic ulcer disease? A. * Salazopirydazyn D.1 mg / kg / day B. 14 . * after withdrawal of Helicobacter therapy B. in remission 645. Dyspeptic manifestations in III stage of ulcer: A. Cytoprotectors prescribe to children with peptic ulcer disease: A.2 mg / kg / day D. bloating. from the beginning of treatment prescribed C. gentamicin C. * absent B. * metronidazole D. 0. * 1 .5 .5 mg / kg / day E. 2. expressed D.10 days C. Drug of choice for UC is: A.D. Immodium 647. 21 . * 7 . under ulcer healing E. belching "sour" 650. preserved E.

For endoscopic characteristics in children occurs less often chronic gastroduodenitis: A. * hydrochloric acid B. papaverine 651. novocaine C. Glucose B. . all wrong 652. Functional disorders of the stomach include: A. On the quantitative and qualitative malnutrition 656. rehabilitation of chronic foci of infection E. erosive 655. For patients with chronic intestinal disorders characterized by a history of such information. * aminocaproic acid D. Factors aggression gastric mucosa: A. B. * Duodenogastric reflux. About transferred acute intestinal diseases B. reparants E. cytoprotectors 654. mixed E. except: A. Chronic esophagitis. hydrogen pump inhibitors D. hemorrhagic C. surface B. heparin E. C.histamine blockers C. Factors for secondary prevention of ulcer own everything except: A. Chronic gastritis. prostaglandin E2 D. dynamic monitoring pediatrician 653. formation of mucus C. * H2. bicarbonate E. * rate of Helicobacter therapy 1 time per year C. * atrophic D.special D. group on physical education . antirecurrent treatment in spring and autumn B. antacids B. About transferred parasitic diseases C. * About heart disease D. Famotidine refers to a group: A. On the continuity burdened by chronic bowel disease E.A.

Amylase 660. Restricted common B. lipase E. all true 659. * Surface and diffuse 663. 1 month B. Chronic gastritis. * Functional indigestion motor type. Helicobacter pylori colonize: A. Acute and chronic D. E. D. C. * antral E. * gastritis C. Peptic ulcer. * 3 months C. 657. peptidase D. B. cardia of the stomach B. hepatitis 661.D. pyloric D. E. Dyskinesia of the biliary tract.duodenitis E. motilium 662. Chronic duodenitis. * ranitidine D. * Urease C. How long after the acute chronic gastroduodenitis children displayed a resort treatment? A. 658. Primary and secondary C. 6 months . Gastroesophageal reflux refers to: A. smecta B. Antral and fundic E. Histamine H2. colitis D. Helicobacter pylori promote: A. gastro . fundus C. Lactase B. Histological classification of gastro-duodenitis A. Chronic duodenitis. Helicobacter pylori produce an enzyme: A. esophagitis B. almagel C. omeprazole E.blockers include: A. Functional disorders of stomach secretory type.

* electrophoresis of novocaine D. stomach C. essentiale D. * common 668. piloroduodenitis D. In gastric ulcer using the following drugs: A. of the esophagus B. the bottle 667. ozocerite applications B. Impurities of bile in the vomit indicates the location of A. In case of severe esophageal mucosal injury with severe pain prescribed diet A. bulbitis E. In childhood chronic gastroduodenitis prevalence for most often: A. In mild severe ulcers: . with a spoon C. small intestine 666. * De-nol C. 1 B. 4 E. 5 670. fundic C. * 3 D. colon E. 9 months E. 2 C.D. aspirin 669. Fractional E. Analgin B. Prednisone E. * average of duodenal ulcers D. In many syndromes combined clinical features of chronic gastritis: A. diathermy E. tyubazh with xylitol C. enteral B. 1 year 664. * parenteral D. How physiotherapy can be used in children with pain syndrome in chronic gastroduodenitis? A. antral B. mud applications 665.

standing B. . * autoimmune reactions D.bottom left C. term ulcer healing 1 month recurrence up to 2 times a year E. . intestinal symbiosis E.Left bottom .bottom right B. * urea breath test E.Right to left relative to body length 676. viral infections B. recurrence at 1 year 671. after meals D. In patients with duodenitis pain occurs more frequently through: A. after meals D. after meals B. . all true 673. 45-60 min. In the development of ulcerative colitis / UC / leading role: A. In patients with gastritis pain occurs due to: A. ulcer healing period of up to 2 months in remission less than 1 year D. * .From left to right relative to body length D. helminthiasis 675. Ultrasound of the abdomen B. 45-60 min.A.It is top . 30-45 min. In what direction is conducted palpation of the sigmoid colon at its default location? A.5 hours after meals E. * 15-30 min. * ulcer healing period of 1 month in remission for over a year B. ulcer healing time up to 2 weeks to 6 months of remission C. In order to monitor the effectiveness of Helicobacter therapy prescribed A. Common blood analysis 672. after meals C. pH meter D.top right E. In what position to take medication to patients with acute esophagitis A. * 1-1.Top left . after meals C. after meals B. * lying C. 1-1.5 hours after meals E. EFGDS C. all wrong 674. . sitting . 30-45 min. ulcer healing period of up to 2 months. 15-30 min. bacterial Infections C.

Swelling E. * intensive E. The appearance of the stool mucus. pus D. EFGDS B. all wrong 683. increased secretion B. Increased stool C. intensive B. half-sitting E. Increased abdominal pain 679. skin damage B. eye damage D. * contrast x-ray study of the esophagus C. missing E. reduced secretion E. Ultrasonography of internal organs D. * Septic complications E.D. nuclear magnetic resonance 682. Indications for assignment Motilium are: A. Increased bleeding B. * weakly expressed C. weakly expressed B. Low secretion in patients with gastritis pain: A. * anemia 681. presence of "hungry" pain 680. * expressed dyspeptic syndrome D. Leading to the diagnosis of achalasia is A. Indications of prednisolone at UC following except: A. moderate D. pain syndrome C. acute D. reclining 677. joint damage C. Main clinical manifestations of achalasia? . dull C. Increased secretion in patients with gastritis pain: A. there is not 678. Indications for antibiotics in UC: A. CT E.

Most suffer from a stomach ulcer: A. On palpation of the anterior abdominal wall in patients with chronic intestinal disorders such data can be obtained. * girls D. achlorhydria E. * . . * dysphagia and regurgitation B. except: A. pain in the right upper quadrant 684. * increased B.A. diarrhea. reduced D. Morphological forms of gastro-duodenitis in children following except: A. school-age children C. bitter taste in the mouth D. * Probiotics D.function: A. sometimes constipation E. 687.Power anterior abdominal wall B. Massive antibiotic therapy for peptic ulcer requires the use of A. . cytostatics 685.The presence of pain in different areas of the belly C. reduced . .The presence of hyperesthesia of the skin D. prolonged nausea. Hemorrhagic D. antipyretics C. Night pain characteristic of patients with acid . . * Ulcer.The presence of condensed structures in the abdomen E. all true 688. Heartburn pain and epigastric C. hormones E. normal C. mixed 686. Children of first three years of life. analgesic B. Pain fasting characteristic of patients with acid .function: A.necrotic E. erosive C. normal C. Surface B. * increased B.The presence of fecal conglomerates in the rectal ampulla 689. boys E. preschool children B.

694. Pain in isolated lesions of duodenal ulcer characterized by: A. Pain in isolated gastritis is characterized by: A. increased secretion of bicarbonate D. Pain in remission of peptic ulcer is: A. night pain C. physiological blood flow in the mucosa E. * Pain in after eating D. Increased pain after exercise C. absent. Pain in duodenal ulcer is not characterized by: A. Pain that increases in horizontal position E. Late pain D. * Pain fasting C. Pathogenetic therapy of gastro-esophageal reflux disease of II stage . Palpation to an acute ulcer is characterized by: A. achlorhydria E. symptom Pasternatsky E. * kept on deep palpation C. * symptom of Mendel D. Pathogenesis of gastritis: A. Ker’s symptom B. pronounced after a meal B. D. sometimes bothers night. Pain that increases after ingestion of fatty foods 693. "Two-wave" pain B. That's right 690. Increased pain in position on the right side E. C. two-wave pains 692. * increased secretion of hydrochloric acid C. symptom of Shchetkin -Blumberg. "Hungry" pain B. reduction of gastric acid secretion 696. increase in mucous discharge B. * pain immediately after eating E. Pain in fasting B. may occur during exercise E. pain after exercise 691.D. Pain after eating D. Ortner’s symptom 695.

analgesics. except: A. antibiotics C. * reduced D. Sharp deterioration in the general condition D. Prevalence of dyspeptic pain syndrome typical gastroduodenitis with acid. * apples D. normal C. H2. grapes 700. antacids reparant E. analgesics. normal C. antispasmodics 698. Cutting pain in the abdomen 701. * antacids. prokinetics. Sudden drop in blood pressure B. tachycardia C. oranges C. antacids. analgesics. all wrong 702. * increased B. Patients with UC prohibit such fruit. raspberries B. antacids. prokinetics. reparant antacids B. prokinetics C. prokinetics.function: A. reduced . * Increased intestinal bleeding E. prokinetics C. * proton pump inhibitors. antibiotics. Prevalence of dyspeptic pain syndrome typical gastro-duodenitis with acid. antispasmodics 699. antispasmodics D. Pathogenic therapy of gastroesophageal reflux disease of III-IV stage A.A. Pathogenic therapy of gastro-esophageal reflux disease without esophagitis A. antacids B. antispasmodics 697. bismuth preparations E. watermelon E. antacids.function: A.blockers of histamine receptors E. Perforation of ulcers in UC is characterized by the following except: A. blockers of histamine H2 -receptor antagonists. preserved E. blockers of histamine H2-receptor D. increased B. cytoprotectors B. blockers of histamine H2-receptor D. * antacids. antispasmodics.

all true 703. achlorhydria E. radial convergence of the stomach wall B. somastatyn B. Regulator selection of hydrochloric acid is: A. balance of ingredients of food 708. Radiological signs of ulcers are: A. * existence of a "alcove" of the inflammatory axis E. Signs of dyspeptic syndrome: A. Severity of dyspeptic symptoms in children with chronic gastroduodenitis depends on: A. intervals between meals E. Vomiting 709. thickening of the walls C. * other chronic diseases of the digestive system E. larynx C. trypsin 706. thickening of the mucosal folds D. nitrogen D. * ammonia C. weakness D. * gastrin D. insulin E. smoothing the folds of mucous 705. food poisoning B. esophagus . * nausea E. Products formation of gastric juice urea hydrolisation: A. fluorine 704. oxygen B.D. abdominal pain B. chlorine E. * secretory function B. worms invasions D. headache C. dietary habits D. glucagon C. Secondary gastro most often occurs on the background: A. fermentopathy 707. of Helicobacter pylori C. Sour smell of vomit indicates the eruption of their A. oral B. age of the child C.

3 mg / kg per day E. * stomach E. multicomponent 713.blockers in the treatment of peptic ulcer of duodenum: A.5 mg / kg per day B. two-component C. The gold standard in the diagnosis of gastro-esophageal reflux A.blockers in the treatment of gastric ulcer: A. x-ray with barium D. mucus D. The enzyme urease hydrolyzes in gastric contents: A.D. * 4-6 weeks E. The current treatment regimen of chronic gastroduodenitis associated with HP is: A. * urea E. bile 715. 2-3 weeks C. * four-component D. hydrochloric acid C. Ultrasound of the abdomen E. * daily intra esophageal pH-metry C. 5 mg / kg per day 714. The average duration of histamine H2. EFGDS B. 2 mg / kg per day D. The group of drugs is reparant . 3-4 weeks D. 0. * 6-8 weeks 711. 6 8weeks 712. 2-3 weeks C. Single component B. 3-4 weeks D. The dose of prednisolone at UC: A. 4-6 weeks E. 1-2 weeks B. five-component E. 1-2 weeks B. The average duration of histamine H2. pepsin B. * 1 mg / kg per day C. Echo CS 716. Colon 710.

Smecta E.A. * retrograde penetration of barium from the stomach into the esophagus in a horizontal position C. around the navel B. Investigation of fecal occult blood 720. right upper quadrant C. vomiting C. The main method of diagnostic of UC is: A. penetration D. Irygographia D. * pain B. The main pathognomonic sign for gastroesophageal reflux disease are: A. The main criterion for radiological research gastro-esophageal reflux A. omeprazole 717. retrograde penetration of barium into the stomach ulcer 12paloyi B. stenosis of the pylorus C. The most common location of pain duodenitis: A. * Heartburn C. * Aktovegin D. Nausea D. The leading symptom of I stage of ulcers are: A. perforation E. cone-shaped narrowing of the esophagus E. * pyloroduodenal zone . Vomiting E. motilium C. cone-shaped extension of the esophagus 719. * bleeding B. local muscle tension 718. belching D. heartburn E. Pain behind the breastbone B. ultrasound B. total narrowing of the esophagus D. Radiography of the gastrointestinal tract E. The most common complication of peptic ulcer in children is: A. * Sigmoidoscopy C. Maalox B. peryvistserytis 722. Flatulence 721.

intoxication D. left upper quadrant E. diarrhea. famotidine 728. prednisolone E. Ulcerative Colitis E.pain . left upper quadrant D. To the factors protect the gastric mucosa belongs: . around the navel B.pain E. hunger . all true 727. diarrhea. except: A.hunger . * Peptic ulcer and duodenal ulcer 725. meal .meal . To probiotics for the treatment of chronic gastro-duodenitis include A. festal B.pain . hemorrhage.relief D.hunger 726. almagel B. dysuria E. behind the breastbone 723.eating . meal .relief B. System vasculitis C. Smecta C. The presence of blood in the stool requires differential diagnosis of these diseases. intoxication C. * hunger . The three major syndromes of chronic gastritis: A. hemorrhagic B. Crohn's Disease D. Pain . diarrhea.D. Sea buckthorn oil 729. * sea ??buckthorn oil C.a meal . To epithelialization of ulcers and esophageal erosions prescribed A.relief . Portal hypertension B. * pain. The sequence of symptoms in Moinigan’s rhythm is follows: A. pain. dysuria.relief . * Linex D. The most common location of pain in gastritis: A. * epigastria E.hunger . activated carbon D.pain . right upper quadrant C. Metronidazole E. behind the breastbone 724. pain.relief C.

hydrochloric acid C. Treatment of children with chronic gastroduodenitis should be: A. pepsin B. gastrin E. motilium C. gastrin E. Top gastroenterological diseases in children: A. mucosal ischemia 731. * prostaglandin E2 D. pepsin B. * papaverine B. all true 733. * complex and landmark . * bicarbonate D. pepsin D. constant C. glucagon 732.A. insulin E. Isolated gastritis B. hydrochloric acid C. gastrin E. Treatment of achalasia: A. hydrochloric acid C. To the factors protect the gastric mucosa belongs: A. pepsin B. long B. Peptic ulcer 12 duodenal ulcer 734. Peptic ulcer E. indomethacin D. To the factors protect the gastric mucosa belongs: A. * formation of mucus D. To the factors protect the gastric mucosa belongs: A. Isolated duodenitis C. * gastro D. * secretory Ig A B. hydrochloric acid C. Trypsin 730. ranitidine E. omeprazole 735.

held nausea C.Bleeding from the intestines C. What are the characteristics of dyspeptic symptoms in ulcer exacerbation stage? A. What are the most frequent causes of neonatal dysphagia? A. inflammation of the larynx and esophagus C. What are the symptoms chalasia . sour belching D. expressed B. 1 tablespoon 3 times a day D.Prolapse of the rectum B. ? tablespoon 3 times a day B. esophagus D.Bleeding from feces E.No contraindications 739. neurogenic disorders (intracranial hemorrhage) E. ? teaspoon 4 times a day C. * New barium mixture flows into the esophagus from the stomach B. defects of the mouth and throat B. What almagel A dose administered to children under 10 years? A. * malformations of the larynx and esophagus B. injury. What are the most frequent causes of dysphagia in older children? A. conical narrowing of the distal esophagus and expanding area underneath D. heartburn 738.Mucus in the feces D. * absent E. narrowing of the esophagus just E. tumors of the stomach and intestines 740. What are the contraindications for the sigmoidoscopy? A. stationary E. . What are the radiological signs of chalasia A. . New to the flow of barium mixture of duodenal ulcers in stomach C. . psychogenic violation D. tumors of the stomach and intestines 741. ambulatory 736. malformations of esophagus C. . * inflammation. * . * 1 teaspoon 4 times a day E. expand all esophagus 742. 1 dessert spoon 3 times a day 737. larynx.D. tumors of the esophagus and mediastinum E.

magnitude of secretion C.2 mg / kg C. age of the child E. What drugs belong to cytoprotectors A. What drugs are H2. The severity of dyspeptic symptoms B. omeprazole 747.0. What dose of mineral water intended for internal use children? A. nausea D. Famotidine E.1 . Maalox 748. pain behind the breastbone and heartburn B.histamine blockers? A. 0. What dose of motilium assigned to children? A. Pain when chewing 743.blockers C. What determines the length of bed regime in the treatment of chronic gastroduodenitis in children? A.01 mg / kg B. 1 . * regurgitation and vomiting C. What drugs reduce the tone of the lower esophageal A. antibiotics B. Omeprazole C.0.25 .025 . 1 ml / kg B. Metoclopramide B. De-nol E. endoscopic changes 744. 0. sometimes constipation diarrhea E. 3 .5 mg / kg 746. almagel C. * Sucralfate D. * famotidine D. * beta. * 0.A. 5 ml / kg E. * 3 ml / kg D.1 mg / kg D. analgesics . 10 ml / kg 745.2 mg / kg E. * severity of pain D. 2 ml / kg C. De-nol B.

What group of drugs is Metoclopramide? A. What is halaziya A. a lack of gastric fundus 755. Solcoseril 750. narrowing of the pylorus D. What group of drugs is solcoseril? A. De-nol D. slow course E. H2. failure pylorus E. No-spa C. What is achalasia? A. What drugs referred to as proton pump inhibitors A. failure gastro-esophageal sphincter C. * usually severe course C. * Omeprazole E. * prokinetic C. is the involuntary leaking of gastric contents into the mouth D. antacids B. failure pylorus . latent D.histamine blockers D. What feature of the course of peptic ulcer in children? A. cytoprotectors 752. expand all esophagus 754. * reparant E. What is gastro-esophageal reflux? A. is the involuntary leaking intestinal contents into the stomach B. prokinetic C.D. a failure pyloric stomach E. Phosphalugel B. * is the involuntary leaking of gastric contents into the esophagus C. * cardia insufficiency C. chronic course 751. cytoprotectors 753. antacids B. * changes cardia under which hampered its permeability B. H2 histamine blockers D. cytoprotectors 749. hormones E. Failure of the upper esophageal sphincter B. antispasmodics E. mild course B.

New barium mixture flows into the esophagus from the stomach B. 761. Ultrasound D. D. 20 mg / kg. * Fast or late B. * EFGDS C. tomography E. R-graphia 762. * 10 mg / kg. expansion pylorus 756. C. * Hypertension of cardia D. * EFGDS B. 5 mg / kg. Late pain more day 759. Hypotension of cardia B. Ph -metry E. Pilorostenosis 757. E. 758. What is the main radiological sign of achalasia? A. Duodenal intubation. Hypotension of pylorus C. B. aching D. What is the primary diagnosis chalasia A. nuclear magnetic resonance D. * conical narrowing of the distal esophagus and expanding area underneath D. Hypertension of pylorus E. ultrasound C. early C. What is the basis for functional disorders of the stomach for motor type ( hastroezophageal disorder): A. What is the daily dose of cimetidine used in the treatment of chronic gastroduodenitis in children? A. What is the main characteristic of pain in the I stage of the ulcer? A. narrowing of the pylorus E. What is the most informative method of instrumental diagnosis of functional disorders of the stomach: A. expand all esophagus E. on deep palpation E. 1 mg / kg. X-ray B. What kind of diet is prescribed for acute chronic gastroduodenitis? . New to the flow of barium mixture of duodenal ulcer in stomach C. 3 mg / kg.D. narrowing of the esophagus just 760.

* Contrast radiography of the esophagus C. What position in bed should occupy patients with gastroesophageal reflux during sleep? A. bile 767. №1 B. sitting 768. What method of diagnosis is carried out during endoscopic examination? A. aspirin E. pepsin B. motilium C. Microbiological examination of biopsy E. What preparation is reparant. Ultrasound of the abdomen B. with lowered head end C.A. penicillin 764. bicarbonate D. What medication is prescribed for treatment of chalasia? A. * hydrochloric acid C. Respiratory urease test C. mucus E. R-graphia 766. * sea ??buckthorn oil . All right 765. nuclear magnetic resonance E. * with raised at least 15cm head D. papaverine B. with raised footside E. horizontal B. № 10 D. What neutralizes ammonia in gastric juice? A. What methods of examination used to diagnose in chalasia A. №9 E. CT D. used for stomach ulcers? A. * motilium D. * Urease test on biopsies B. serological diagnosis D. Maalox B. * № 1a 1b 763. analginum C. №5 C.

Which drugs antacids should be used in children after 12 years? . Reduced B. almagel 772. urease test B. magnesia E. carbon dioxide 773. pH meter C. biopsy of the stomach or duodenum 775. What resulted from the research methods are the most important for the diagnosis of chronic gastroduodenitis? A. * enhanced and maintained D. determination of immunoglobulins E. Sodium bicarbonate B. * Maalox C.D. increased E. omeprazole 769. Smecta E. Which diagnostic methods refer to invasive? A. calcium carbonate D. maintained. test for acidosis E. breathe test D. * motilium E. * Bacteriological study of biopsy gastric mucosa B. de-nol -tests D. What secretory function is most prominent in childhood? A. study of feces and saliva by polymerase reaction C. Which antacids would be the best used in children? A. Fractional study of gastric contents D. Which diagnostic methods refer to non-invasive? A. When dysmotility should be prescribed: A. * "Aerotest" C. * EFGDS B.spa B. study of nucleic acids E. radiographic 770. smecta C. "Aerotest" 774. hastrofarm D. no. reduced and maintained C. 771.

Which group of drugs used to treat gastro-esophageal reflux? A. Which drugs is reparants? A. other D. analgesics. ranitidine 780. hastrofarm . antispasmodics B. haviskon 776. famotidyn C. * antacids. * vikalin C. antibiotics. gastrocepin E. H2 histamine blockers D. * antacids B. * First Rh-positive B. motilium 777. antacids D. First Rh-negative C.A. Which medicines prescribed for acute esophagitis? A. smecta E. Four Rh-positive 781. laziks E. reparants E. cimetidine C. Which group includes Phosphalugel: A. * ranitidyn B. Which of blood groups is a risk factor for peptic ulcer disease? A. * Spirulina B. Maalox D. analgesics. prokinetic C. antispasmodics E. prednisolone D. antispasmodics. aspirin B. prokinetic. * De-nol B. prokinetics 779. Maalox C. antisecretory C. cytoprotectors 778. Which of the following drugs belong to antihelicobacter? A. renehast D. Three Rh-positive E.

renehast D. Maalox C. belaspon E.(+) C.Digested fiber . hemosideric 788. Who is the main method for diagnosis of gastroesophageal reflux disease: .Protrusion of different divisions of the anterior abdominal wall D. intoxication D. Which of the them related to blocking histamine H2-receptor? A. * . renehast D.Increasing the size of the belly B.Starch . metacin E. Which of the survey data is not specific to patients with chronic bowel disease? A. . . dyspeptic C. cimetidine C. Which syndrome is the most constant at chronic gastroduodenitis in children? A. . . spirulina B. panzinorm C.Undigested cellulose . * smecta E.(+) E. . cimetidine E. vikalin D.D. Which products related to reparant? A. . Which products related to cytoprotectors? A. ranitidyn 787.Rumbling in the belly E.(+) B. epithelial E. motilium 786.The marked expansion of the venous network of the anterior abdominal wall C. penicillin 782.Visible peristalsis 784.(+) D. . Which of the following semi-quantitative indicators scatological study lies within the permissible norms? A. * Pain B.(+) 783.Fatty acids and soaps . * . * hastrofarm B. * cimetidine B. hastrofarm 785. .Neutral Oil .

graphy of esophagus E. Ultrasound C. Wilms tumor E. Hemolysis incase of poisoning C. Double kidneys B. At the sclerosis of what amount of nephrons and what level of creatininemia there is the stage of decompensation of chronic kidney insufficiency? A. Duodenal intubation. Ro. * 50000 of microbes in 1 ml of urine 794. * pain B. 25000 of microbes in 1 ml of urine E. * 80-90% of nephrons and creatinin of blood .44-0. belching E. * Agenesia of kidneys C. 22 – 0. EFGDS B. 10000 of microbes in 1 ml of urine D. Berger disease 793. Virus hepatitis B. dyspeptic C.44 mmol\l C. 50% of nephrons and creatinin of blood . With increased gastric acidity is not typical: A.707 mmol\l 792. epigastric pain D.A. nausea 790. 20% of nephrons and creatinin of blood up to 0. * Renal tumor . 50% of nephrons and creatinin of blood . 75% of nephrons and creatinin of blood . 5000 of microbes in 1 ml of urine C.0. 1000 of microbes in 1 ml of urine B.177 mmol\l B. Bright red colour of urine can be the symptom of: A. Bacteriuria is considered significant if there is: A. intoxication D. 789.40 mmol\l D. dysuria E. 25 – 0.0.0. * diarrhea C.0.177 mmol\l E. As transitional state of the newborn D. * Ph-metry of esophagus D. At what disease may occur acute renal failure in a newborn baby? A. constipation B. With increased secretion in patients with gastritis syndrome is more pronounced: A. hemorrhagic 791.

Wilms tumor 797. Hemolysis incase of poisoning C.5 – 2.8 – 1 mg/kg/day C. Dose of heparin during acute glomerulonephritis is: A. During the hormone depending nephrotic form of chronic glomerulonephritis it is necessary to prescribe with the prednisolone: . * 100-300 Un/kg/day E. Dose of prednisolone during the nephrotic variant of glomerulonephritis is: A. Pyelopephritis 796. Amyloidosis of kidneys D. Glomerulonephritis E. Hemolysis incase of poisoning C. 0. 70-150 Un/kg/day D. Pyelopephritis 799. Glomerulonephritis E. * 1. * Virus hepatitis B. Hereditary nephritis C. Glomerulonephritis E. 4 – 4. Combined kidney and bone lesions are characteristic for: A. * Virus hepatitis B. 50-100 Un/kg/day B. Pyelopephritis 795. * Tubular renal acidosis B. Dark-brown colour of urine can be the symptom of: A. Glomerulonephritis E.5 – 0. Renal-tumor D.5 mg/kg/day D. 2. Bright red colour of urine can be the symptom of: A.D. Pyelopephritis 798. Hemolysis incase of poisoning C. 0. 250-500 Un/kg/day 800.5 mg/kg/day 801. Renal-tumor D.75 mg/kg/day B.5 – 3 mg/kg/day E. Dark-brown colour of urine can be the symptom of: A. 400-500 Un/kg/day C. Polycystosis of kidneys E. Virus hepatitis B. * Renal tumor D.

Computer tomography D. * Swollen skin E. * Dominant type. * Cytostatics D. Dysuria doesn’t include symptom of: A. Urinary urgency D. Hereditary nephritis is typically ends with: A. Swollen lumbar area 804. Hematuria B. Ultrasound examination C. Hereditary nephritis with deafness is called: . Swollen legs C. Nonsteroid antiinflamation drugs B. * Deafness E. Recessive type. Excretory urography B. Incomplete voiding E. Curantil 802. connected with Y chromosome D. Formation of pyelonephrosis C. * Chronic renal failure D. Dominant type. Enuresis 803. Preparates of aminohinoline group C. * Poliuria C. Hereditary nephritis is inherited by: A. Leucocyturia 806. Painful urination B. Swollen face B. For diagnostic of this pathology you can use all methods. * Cystoscopy E. except A. Autosomal recessive type 807. Anasarca D. connected with Y chromosome E. What is characteristic for this disease? A. connected with the X chromosome B. Development of urolithiasis E. Recessive type. Edema syndrome at hereditary nephropathy is often seen as: A. connected with the X chromosome C. Acute renal failure 808. Heparin E. Recovering B.A. Hereditary nephritis (Alport syndrome) is suspected. Crystaluria D. Proteinuria C. MR tomography 805.

* Collect all morning urine. Taking middle portion of morning urine. If remission cannot be achieved at treatment of focal-segmental glomerulosclerosis with prednisolon it is necessary to prescribe: A. Wilms tumor 814. Leu syndrome 809. * Resistance to treatment D. Short B. To use catheter E. In the clear bottle collect urine. * To place a specially designed absorbent pad in a nappy C. before the partial clinical-laboratorial remission 811. Use for investigate “minute leukocyturia” formed elements which excreted of urine for 3 hours D. Phosphate-diabetes B. 7-14 days B. Disease-de Toni. Harnupa disease E. All transferred 812. To use a syringe D. How to collect sample of urine for analysis in babies? A. * Alport syndrome D. which was excreted of urine while 10 night’s hours (from 22 to 8).Fanconi B.Debrae. C.A. To catch some urine in the specimen bottle whilst B. Increased only systolic pressure 813. Nephroptosis E. Cyclosporin A+ non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs C. Cyclosporin A+ prednisolon B. near 2-3 ml E. * Hereditary nephritis without deafness D. How long is continues antibacterial therapy of inflammation process of this organ? A. Berger's disease C. Especially expressed at Hereditary nephritis E. * before the complete clinical and laboratory remission D. Collect 8-portion urine while 24 hours 810. How collect urine for urinanalysis (general analyses of the urine): A. Hypotensive syndrome may occur at: A. * Cyclosporin A as monotherapy . Easy to treat C. and lead microscopy B. Hypertension at renal diseases in children is: A. within 6 months E. Tubular renal acidosis C. 14-21 days C. investigate physical properties.

Kidney biopsy is necessary in the case of: A. Severe proteinuria C. * Suspicion on the defects of development or diseases of vessels B. Severe intoxication D. Dizuric signs E. Kidney angiography is the main investigation for… A. All transferred 817. It is nessesary to prescribe imunosupressors during acute glomerulonephritis in the case of: A. * Suspicion on the defects of development or diseases of vessels B. Cyclosporin A+trental 815. Suddenly beginning of disease B. Indicate the factors that contribute to the development of microbial-inflammatory process in the urinary system in children: A. Nephritis E. Glomerulonephritis 820. Bladder-ureter reflux B. The absence of effect from the treatment of prednisolone during 3-4 weeks in the case of nephritic variant E. Nephroptosis D. Glomerulonephritis 819. All transferred 816. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Cyclosporin A+heparin E. Nephritis E. * Hypotension of ureters E. * The absence of effect from the treatment of prednisolone during 3-4 weeks in the case of nephrotic variant D. Stenosis of pelvic-ureteral segment D. Neurogenic bladder dysfunction C.D. Pyelonephritis . The damaging of functions of kidneys at the beginning of disease 818. Indicate which of the following below is a feature of acute urinary infections in infants and children during the first months of life? A. Chronic glomerulonephritis C. Nephroptosis D. * High fever B. Arterial hypertension C. Dyspepsia C. Kidney angiography is the main investigation for… A. Arterial hypertension C.

significant) C. Cystitis B. Obstruction of urine transport E. Name the wrong assertion about acute renal failure. Calculus B. It is a rapid loss of renal function due to damage to the kidneys B. moderate. * Nephrotic. Absence of free transport urine from the kidney to the bladder D. mixed 825. mixed E. Name the wrong assertion about acute renal failure. Name the forms of chronic glomerulonephritis. A. mixed C. A. Name the post-renal cause of acute renal failure. All transferred 822. * Innate uretherctasis B. Megaureter is: A. Nephrotic. Blood dots C. mixed D. It is resulting in retention of nitrogenous (urea and creatinine) D. Urethritis C. * It is accompanied by metabolic disturbances. Vulvovaginitis D. . hematuric. Hematuria and proteinuria (mild. All symptoms are renal 824.D. Name the extrarenal symptom of glomerulonephritis. Casts D. Mild proteinuria cannot be a symptom of: A. * Kidney disease is unclear E. Sulphonamides E. A. Crystals of uric acid D. * Arterial hypertension E. All transferred 821. nephritic. Violation of ureter discharge C. All answers are right 827. mixed B. It is resulting in retention of non-nitrogenous waste products E. Urinary. Pyelopephritis 823. nephritic. hematuric. * Glomerulonephritis with nephritic syndrome E. Nephritic. Urinary. hematuric. such as metabolic alcalosis C. Oliguria and anuria B. * All transferred 826. A.

All answers are right 828. All transferred 831. Boys D. Disease de Toni-Debrae-Fanconi . Secondary tubulopathy is observed as: A. Nephritic syndrome doesn’t include: A. School age 830. Proteinuria and aminoaciduria E. Mild proteinuria D. Genetic determined disorders the structure of membrane protein carriers B.A. * Changes in the overall structure cells membrane in dysplasia E. such as metabolic alcalosis C. * All transferred 832. Tubulyar renal acidosis C. Rickets like changes among hereditary nephropathy are often found as: A. Phosphate-diabetes B. * Phosphate-diabetes C.5°С B. Pathogenic mechanisms of formation of primary (hereditary) tubulopathies are associated with the following factors: A. Nephrotic form of hereditary nephritis is more common in: A. Arterial hypertension C. Hematuria. Edema B. Renal without hereditary deafness D. Pyelonephritis is distinguishing from low urinary infection by: A. Fever more than 38. It is a rapid loss of renal function due to damage to the kidneys B. * It is accompanied by metabolic disturbances. Cystic kidneys B. Girls E. * Proteinuria more than 3 g/l E. It is resulting in retention of non-nitrogenous waste products E. casturia 829. Renal with hereditary deafness E. Renal amyloidosis 833. It is resulting in retention of nitrogenous (urea and creatinine) D. Leukocytosis and increasing of ESR C. Changes in sensitivity of receptors tubular epithelial cells to the action of hormones D. * Newborns C. Pre-school age B. Increasing of concentration function of kidneys D. Enzimopathic hereditary enzyme deficiency C.

0. * Painful urination B. Cystitis 836. * Dysembriogenesis of connective tissue C. 0. * Glomerulonephritis C. Leucocyturia 838. Pyelopephritis 837. Kidney stones disease E. Failure of proximal tubules in reabsorbtion of bicarbonates E. The average age dose of lasix is: A. 4-5 mg/kg/day C. The children of school age have normal contents of urea in the blood: . Violation of intravascular coagulation in glomerular capillaries D. Urethritis C. * Galaktozemia 834.5-1 mg/kg/day E. Inflammatory process in glomerulars B. Phosphate-diabetes B. Myocarditis B. Hereditary nephritis E. Pyelonephritis D. * Glomerulonephritis E. 10 mg/kg/day D. Secondary tubulopathy is observed at: A. * 1-2 mg/kg/day B.D. The basis of the pathogenesis of hereditary nephritis is: A.5mg/kg/day 839. Severe edema syndrome is more characteristic for: A. Hematuria D. Proteinuria C. Violation of the process in tubular transport 840. Significant proteinuria is the symptom of: A. Syndrome of urine changes doesn’t includes: A. Tubulyar renal acidosis C. Vulvovaginitis D. Casturia E. Hereditary nephritis E. * Galaktozemia 835. Disease de Toni-Debrae-Fanconi D. Cystitis B.

The drug for treatment of dismetabolic nephropathies is: A. Change of the number of chromosomes 843. Nechiporenko’s test D. * Ultrasound examination 846. 10% B. * Prior tonsillaties E. 4. The development of hereditary nephropathy is often associated with: A.66-17. Sex chromosome abnormality B. Deafness C. 15. 4. B. 2. Linex 845.3 mmol/l E.1-3. Similar illness in family 844. Endogenous creatinine clearance E.0-17. Measles of pregnant women E. Chronic inflammatory diseases of the mother D. Urinary Syndrome B. * Up to 0. Cystoscopy C. The children of school age have normal contents of creatinin in the blood: A.45 mmol/l D. Aspirin E. 21.2 mmol/l C. Penicillin C.1 mmol/l 842. The function of this organ you can define using A. * Gene mutations C.2. * 50% . 20% C. * Kanefron B. 1.3-7.87 mmol/l E.3 mmol/l D. Cystography B. Dysmorphies D. 2. 15. * 3.32 mmol/l C.43-3.44-32.76 mmol/l B.33-8.A.1.76mmol/l 841.1 mmol/l B. Bicillin D. The kidneys are able to maintain the chemical composition of fluids within normal limits until functional renal capacity is destroyed of more than: A. The diagnostic criterion of hereditary nephritis does not include: A.76-2.

* All transferred 852.D. Hematuria C. Fungi 850. Proteinuria C. Viruses C. 0. * Genetic anamnesis B. Arterial hypertension B. 4-5 mg/kg/day C. The main criterion of differential diagnose of hereditary nephritis is: A. The middle age dose of Amicin is: A. The main task of therapy of acute cystitis in children should be directed to: A. Micoplasma D. Proteinuria D. 50-100 mg/kg/day . Hypertension 848.5 mg/day 853. The main criterion of hematuric form of chronic glomerulonephritis is: A. Normalization of urination disorders C. Cylindruria E. The main role in etiology of pielonephritis plays: A. * Hematuria D. Previous renal colic attacks E. 90% 847. 10 mg/kg/day D. Leucocyturia 849. Vomiting C. Failure to thrive B. Liquidation of spasms E. Excessive urination with dehydration E. * 15-10 mg/kg/day B. 0. The main symptoms of De Toni-Debre-Fanconi syndrome are: A. Elimination of microbial-inflammatory process in the bladder D. Unexplained fever D. The elimination of pain B. Parasites E. * All transferred 851. * Bacteria B. The middle age dose of nitrofurans is: A. * 8 mg/kg/day B. 75% E.5-1 mg/kg/day E.

Tripelphospates D. Cystine crystalluria 858. * Concentration function B. Heparin D. The test of urine by Zimnitsky gives information about: A. 15-20 mg/kg/day E. Calcium phosphates C. 3 years C. Glucosuria 857. * Concentration function B. Trental. The sing of recovering after acute glomerulonephritis is the period of clinical and laboratory remission during: A. Bacteruria C. Leucocyturia D. 2 years E. Urate crystalluria E.C. Erithrocyturia E. The Zimnitsky’s test of urine gives information about: A. The sing of recovering after acute glomerulonephritis is the period of clinical and laboratory remission during: A. Glucosuria 859. * Calcium oxalates B. * 5 years D. 20-50 mg/kg/day 854. 6 months 855. 1 year B. 2 years E. Bacteruria C. Cyclophosphamide C. 1-2 mg/kg/day D. 1 year B. * 5 years D. 6 months 856. Treatment of subacute glomerulonephritis includes: A. Leucocyturia D. The vast majority of crystalluria and dysmetabolic nephropathy are related to: A. Erythrocyturia E. 3 years C. Plasmapheresis . Corticosteroids B.

cylinders. * All transferred 864. * Daily urine volume 862. Phosphate-diabetes C. Pains in the abdomen or lumbar region B. Colour of urine B. X-linked hypocalcaemia C. erythrocytes. Lack of vitamin D in ration D. * X-linked hypophosphatemia B. Tubulopathies do not include: A. diarrhea. nasogastric tubes) B. Irritation by chemicals in bubble bath . End-stage renal disease D. Lack of phosphorus in ration E. Microscopy of sediment: leukocytes. What are the extrarenal causes of acute renal failure? A. Decrease or loss of vision C. Vitamin-D-resistant rickets occurs due to: A.E. * Tubular renal acidosis 861. except: A. Shock D. Urine analysis determines such data. Congestive heart failure E. * All transferred 866. Acute anemia (hemolytic crises. ketone bodies D. glucose. Admixture of blood in the urine C. Level of protein. Alport syndrome E. Chronic renal failure B. Acute gastroenteritis (vomiting. Lack of calcium in ration 863. Renal diabetes insipidus B. sugar. What are the main causes of urethritis in children? A. Formation of stones in the urinary tract E. Palpable abdominal tumor formation D. * All transferred 865. What are the clinical signs of megaureter in older childrem? A. Permanent deafness and blindness E. endotelial cells E. Disease de Toni-Fanconi-Debrae D. * All transferred 860. What are possible complications of hereditary nephritis? A. Specific gravity C. including sickle cell crisis) C.

50-100 IU/kg B. 7 E. What disease can occur with isolated moderate proteinuria? A. * 100-300 IU/kg C. 10-20 IU/kg D.B. * Nephroptosis E. Amyloidosis of kidneys D. What drug do we use in the case of nephrotic syndrome for pathogenetical treatment? A. Penicillin C. A renal (kidney) scan D. Suprastin . Wilms tumor 870. Urinary tract infections E. What diet it is necessary prescribe during acute pyelonephritis? A. What does allow doctors to visualize the anatomy of the ureter and assess how well the kidneys collect and drain urine? A. 250-500 IU/kg 872. Hereditary nephritis C. * Intravenous pyelogram C. * Phosphate-diabetes B. * All transferred 867. What disease is accompanied with bone changes? A. Hereditary nephritis C. MRI 871. * Prednisolone B. 2 C. What dose of heparin it is necessary to prescribe during acute glomerulonephritis? A. Curantil D. 3 D. Policystic kidneys E. * 5 868. Voiding cystouretrogram B. 500-600 IU/kg E. Wilms tumor 869. Phosphate-diabetes B. Amyloidosis of kidneys D. Shampoo left on the genital area C. USO E. 1 B. Soap left on the genital area D.

Antiinflamation drugs E. where n-amount of years 875. Protein and its fractions B. Seromucoid D. where n-amount of years B. where n-amount of years C. X-ray of kidneys . WEIGHT+10 D. 600х(n+5). What from formulas is necessary for the calculation of day's amount of urine for children? A. Kidney stones disease B. What from such drugs is not used at treatment of acute pyelonephritis? A. 600х(n+10). Ascorutin 873. * Levomicetin E. Mixed form of chronic glomerulonephritis C. 500х(n+5). Nephrotic syndrome of chronic glomerulonephritis 879. * 600+100(n-1). What from such drugs is ineffective at treatment of pyelonephritis? A. Reflux D. * Aplastic anemia E. * Ca and P of blood 876. C – reactive protein C. Metabolic nephropathies C. What from the methods of researches is most informing at the syndrome of malignant hypertension? A. Ampicillin B.E. What from diseases more frequent can result development of chronic kidney insufficiency? A. Antibiotics B. Loracin 877. ESR E. Sub acute malignant glomerulonephritis D. Uroseptics C. What from the diseases is contraindication for prescribing of heparin? A. Diet 878. where n-amount of years E. Amicin C. * Chronic glomerulonephritis E. Oxalaturia 874. Cefatoxin D. Nephrotic syndrome of acute glomerulonephritis B. * Hormones D. What from such biochemical tests cannot demonstrate activity of inflammatory process at glomerulonephritis? A.

Prednisolone and heparin D. Biochemical analysis of blood 880. What from the resulted positions is incorrect in relation to treatment of nephrotic syndrome? A. Excretory X. Ultrasound investigation of kidneys E. Reflux disease D. Urine syndrome E. Corticosteroid therapy is appointed B. Oliguria 884. * The absence of hypoproteinemia with disproteinemia D. Hematuria 883. Edema E. Oxaluria 881. What from these signs do not present at pyelonephritis? A. What from the pathological states cannot be the reason of the secondary pyelonephritis? A.ray of kidneys C. During edema syndrome and hypercoagulation it is necessary to prescribe heparin E.B. Arterial hypertension B. * Hereditary nephritis E. Edema syndrome C. Pain in back B. * Prednisolone and cytostatics C. * Hematuria . * Pain during the act of urination C. Dismetabolic nephropathies C. Prednisolone and heparin with curantil E. Leucocyturia C. What from the resulted signs are not characteristic for the mixed form of glomerulonephritis? A. * Cytostatics are prescribing to all patients D. The dose of diuretics depends of effect C. Cytostatics are prescribing only according indications 882. Kidney stones disease B. Hypertension D. * Angiography D. What from the variants of therapy most expedient during the mixed form of chronic glomerulonephritis? A. Monotherapy of prednizolone B. What from the resulted symptoms is not characteristic for glomerulonephritis? A. Leucocytosis B. Little proteinuria D. Prednisolone and heparin with curantil and cytostatics 885.

* A renal (kidney) scan C. MRI 889. Estimation of daily proteinuria E. What investigation is used when doctor suspect obstruction of ureterovesical junction? A. General analysis of urine B. Estimation of cholesterol 891. Intravenous pyelogram B. * Absence of kidney C. * Analysis of urine by Zimnitskiy D. Analysis of urine by Nechiporenko C. What investigation is used when doctor suspect vesicoureteral reflux? A. What investigation must be performed to confirm the kidneys dysfunction during chronic glomerulonephritis? A. A renal (kidney) scan D. What investigation demonstrate the concentration function of kidneys? A. Voiding cystouretrogram D. What is agenesia of kidney? A. Small amount of pelvis 892. Small kidney E. * Excretory cystogram C. * Analysis of urine by Zimnitskiy D.E. General analysis of urine B. Ultrasound investigation of kidneys E. * Endogenous creatinin clearance C. Cystic kidneys . USO E. MRI 890. Absence of differentiation of kidney tissue B. Biochemical analysis of blood 887. Polycyst kidney D. What investigation demonstrate the concentration function of kidneys? A. Analysis of urine by Nechiporenko C. Intravenous pyelogram B. Ultrasound investigation of kidneys E. Nechiporenko test D. Bacteriuria 886. General analysis of urine B. USO E. What is Alport syndrome? A. Biochemical analysis of blood 888.

What is not a form of acute glomerulonephritis? A. Feeling an urgent and frequent need to urinate C. Hereditary nephritis without deafness D. * Calculus E. Hepatitis A virus E. stinging. What is not characteristic of hereditary nephritis? A.Соlі D. Itching in the genital area E. With nephrotic syndrome. Alimentary proteinuria C.B. or burning when urinating B. * Hereditary nephritis with deafness C. Febrile temperature E. Proteinuria E. * Streptococcus B. * Fever D. With urinary syndrome E. What is more often the reason of glomerulonephritis? A. What is not characteristic for urethritis in children? A. Orthostatic proteinuria D. Acute tubular necrosis B. hematuria D. Hematuria D. Acute bacterial pyelonephritis D. Dyzmorphies 897. Glomerular diseases C. With nephritic syndrome B. * Mixed form 895. adding arterial hypertension. Influenza virus 894. Renal diabetes E. With nephrotic syndrome C. Miscellaneous diseases . * Nephroptosis 898. Discomfort. Arterial hypotension C. What is not reason of functional proteinuria? A. What is not renal cause of acute renal failure? A. E. Pain in the genital area 896. Staphylococcus C. Embryonic kidney tumor 893. Proteinuria of newborn B. * Edema B.

Calcium preparations C. * Enlargement of capsules of kidneys D. Insufficiency of podotcytes 904. Physical exertion E. * Vitamin D D. Intravesicular obstruction C. staphylococcal) infection B. 0. Recanalization in violation of urethers in embriogenesis E. * Violation of membrane substances inrenal tubules C. 1-2 mg/kg/day C. * Anatomic immaturity of urether orifice B. Bacterial (Group A streptococci. Inflammation syndrome B. Anatomic anomaly of kidney E. Hematuria 901. Prednisolone B. What is predispositive factor of the development bladder-urether-pelvis reflux in children? A. What is the etiologic factor of primary tubulopathy? A. Insufficiency of podotcytes 905. Parathyroid hormone 903. Microbs B. What is the etiologic factor of primary tubulopathy? A. mononucleosis) . What is the dose of indometacin during treatment of nephritic variant of glomerulonephritis? A. What is the drug of choice for treating phosphate-diabetes? A. * 2-3 mg/kg/day B.5 – 1 mg/kg/day E. All transferred 900. * Violation of membrane substances inrenal tubules C.899. Heparin E. What is the etiology of glomerulonephritis? A. Reflux D.8 – 1 mg/kg/day 902. Anatomic anomaly of kidney E. Stagnation of urine C. Neurogenic dysfunction of urine bladder D. What is reason of pain during glomerulonephritis: A. 0. Reflux D. Microorganism B. Viral ( hepatitis B. 3 – 5 mg/kg/day D.

Disposed mainly on place or sex organs 910. * Appears at morning. Anemia D. hypocalcemia B. What is the main feature of urine infection in children? A. cold. * Increased level of creatinin and urea. warm. What is the evidence of Streptococcal etiology of glomerulonephritis? A. Raised antihyaluronidase C.C. Disposed mainly on trunk E. Hyperkalemia. pale B. Raised antideoxyribonuclease-B D. * Increased level of creatinin and urea. What is the main feature of kidney edema? A. Raised antinicotinamide adenine dinucleotidase E. decreased filtrative function of the kidneys C. warm. hyperphosphatemia. Parasitic (toxoplasmosis) E. cyanotic C. Cylindruria E. Dense D. Fungal ( histoplasmosis) D. cold. Appears in the second half of day. Hyperkalemia. * Appears at morning. Polyuria 909. Leucocyturia B. Anemia D. Disposed mainly on place or sex organs 911. What is the main diagnostic criterion for chronic renal failure? A. decreased filtrative function of the kidneys C. Disposed mainly on trunk E. Appears in the second half of day. What is the main diagnostic criterion for chronic renal failure? A. hyperphosphatemia. Erythrocyturia D. cyanotic C. * All transferred 907. * Bacteriuria C. Dense D. Polyuria 908. hypocalcemia B. All transferred . Raised antistreptolysin-O B. * All transferred 906. What is the main feature of kidney edema? A. pale B. Metabolic acidosis E. Metabolic acidosis E.

912. Gradual B. * Unnoticed 918. Violation of passage of urine E. Pyelonephrosis C. Oxaluria E. What is the main pathogenetical mechanism of development of glomerulonephritis? A. What is the most often course of Alport syndrome? A. who described embryonic kidney tumor? A. * CRF D. * Immunocomplex damaging D. Acute B. Bacterial inflammation B. Reflux 914. Allergy reaction C. What is the most often start of hereditary nephritis? A. Rapid C. Acute D. Allergy reaction C. Immediate C. Bacterial inflammation B. Acute renal failure B. * Wilms B. Reflux 913. Continuous-recurrent 917. Bacteriuria C. What is the name of author. Amiloidosis of kidneys 916. Leukocyturia B. Violation of passage of urine E. What is the main pathogenetical mechanism of development of glomerulonephritis? A. Uraturia 915. * Microhematuria D. Fast-progressive D. What is the most distinctive feature of the initial period of hereditary nephritis? A. What is the most frequent complication of hereditary nephropathy? A. * Undulating E. * Immunocomplex damaging D. Bruton . Immediate E. Nephrolithiasis E.

What is the volume of the urinary bladder in 1 year old children? A. Computer tomography D. Voskresensky C. 70-100 ml/min/kidney. * Excretory urography B. What is the name of this symptom? A. What is the name of this examination? A. Ultrasound examination C. Blyooberh B. Edwards D. E. What is the rate of blood plasma filtration in older children and adults? A. 40-50 ml/min/kidney. 100-150ml E. Transition into chronic 922. What is the outcome of hereditary nephritis? A. von Willebrand 919. Babinski D. Development of deafness E. 923. * All transferred 924. What is the reason of uraturia? A. D. Ortner E. Treatment of chemotherapy D. * 35-50 ml C. enhanced exchange of purines) B. 200ml . Full recovery B. * 100-125 ml/min/kidney. Allbright E. 30ml B. Cystoscopy E. Long term administration of furosemide E. 50-90 ml D. MR tomography 920. C. 60-70 ml/min/kidney. B.C. Hereditary reasons (defect of the renal tubules. * Chronic renal failure D. * Pasternatsky 921. Sudden death C. 34-40 ml/min/kidney. Increased consumption of meat products C.

Hypernatriemia B. Secondary tubulopathy D. 35-50ml C. * Hyperkalemia . What is the volume of the urinary bladder in 1-3years old children? A. Primary tubulopathy C. * Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis B. * 50-90ml D. Renal amyloidosis E. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis C. What level of proteinuria is the criterion of nephrotic variant of acute glomerulonephritis: A. Membranous glomerulopathy B. Renal medullary disease D. 1-3 g/l D. Up to 1 g/l E. What is usually the reason of asymptomatic hematuria? A. What metabolic disorder is characteristic for acute renal failure? A. What kidney disease is disease with chromosomal aberrations? A. Minimal change disease 927. Hypokaliemia D.5-2 g/l 930. Progressive glomerulonephritis E. 30ml B. 200ml 926. * 3 g/l and more B. * Cystic kidneys 929. * Hyperkalemia C. Proliferative glomerulonephritis D. 0. 100-150ml E. * Mesangial glomerulonephritis C. Fanconi syndrome E. What is usually the reason of nephritic syndrome? A. 2-3 g/l C.925. Hypernatriemia B. Hereditary nephritis B. All transferred 928. What metabolic disorder is characteristic for acute renal failure? A. Hypocalcemia E. Hypoglucemia 931.

Hyperglycemia 936. E. Virus of hepatitis A E. * Immunofluorescence techniques E. bloody. Hypoglucemia 932. Proteinuria C. Virus of flu 935. vomiting. What sign does give information about the damaging of function of kidneys? A. * Blood in the urine. Fever. Pain in lower back. child may have been hit or kicked in lower back C. * Prednisolone 934. Lasix C. Immunogram B. blood in urine. Reserpin B. Tavegil D. foamy urine ranging in color from light brown to bright red.Соlі D. What preparate do we use during pathogenetical treatment of nephritic variant of glomerulonephritis? A. Proteinuria C. * Streptococcus B. may be no other symptoms . Hyperlipidemia E. All transferred 933. Delagil E. What signs together with hematuria are typical for glomerulonephritis? A. Hypoproteinemia B. painless. * Asotemia D.C. irritability. Biopsy of kidney D. Hypocalcemia E. Staphylococcus C. Hypokaliemia D. Immune globulins and complement in blood C. Hyperglycemia 937. What observation is used to demonstrate immune globulins (antibody) and complement outlining the glomerular capillary walls in the immune complex type? A. frequent or painful urination B. What sign gives information about the damaging of kidneys function? A. * Azotemia D. odd-smelling or cloudy urine. Hypoproteinemia B. Hyperlipidemia E. What reason of glomerulonephritis is the more often? A.

Edema C. What syndrome is crucial in the diagnosis of hereditary nephritis? A. Creatinine clerance test E. Dyspeptic E. Urinanalysis B. Edema 939. What system of organism is damaged at renal failure? A. Nechiporenco C. Polyuria D. Intoxication C. Appear to be in pain 941. Pain D. What symptom is observed at initial period of hereditary nephritis? A. Nechiporenco C. Cylindruria E. * Blood in urine B. Hypertension C. * Erytrocyturia D. a blood-thinning medicine 938. Proteinuria 940. Rebergs test 944. * Zimnitski test D. What test is used to confirm filtrate function of kidneys? A. Urinanalysis B. Respiratory E. Oliguria E. Vomiting or diarrhea D. going off feeds and generally unwell E. Cardiovascular B. Blood in urine. Digestive D. Edema 942. Crying. * All listed 943. CNS C. usually not noticeable to the eye but detected by urinalysis E. * Vascular hypotension B. What symptom is the most important for diagnostic of hematuric form of hereditary nephritis? A. Leucocyturia B. * Urinary B.D. Fever C. Zimnitski test . Blood in urine while child is taking penicillin. What symptom is uncommon at cystitis in children? A. What test is used to confirm concentrative function of kidneys? A.

Nechiporenco C. Leukocyturia B. Alginuresis D. * Creatinine clerance test E. * Excretory urography C. Ultrasound examination B. * Tubular renal acidosis 947. Which disease is associated with acidosis? A. All transferred 951. Phosphate-diabetes C.D. Which investigation is the most effectiveness for diagnostic this pathology? A. Cylindruria E. Which is the most important symptom for the diagnostics of nephrotic form of hereditary nephritis? A. Which sign does give information about the damaging of function of kidneys? . Abdominal pain C. * Rebergs test 946. What test is used to confirm orthostatic proteinuria? A. * Pyuria B. Alport syndrome E. Edema C. Cystoscopy D. Cystografia E. Thermography 949. Rebergs test 945. Skin edema D. Swelling E. * Stigmes of dyzembriogenesis B. Erytrocyturia D. Increased AP E. Diseases de Toni-Fanconi-Debrae D. Urinanalysis B. Nephrophtisis Fanconi B. Which of the following indicates the presence of urinary infection? A. * Massive proteinuria 950. Zimnitski test D. Edema of legs C. Haemorrhagic rash 948. Creatinine clerance test E. Which extrarenal signs do point the possibility of hereditary nephritis at presence of urinary syndrome? A.

With which disease is often differentiated hereditary nephritis? A.A.залік Перелік питань: 1. Cystic fibrosis D. Tubular renal acidosis E. Intestinal infection E. What is the most likely preliminary diagnosis? A. Relapsing course of disease D. prolonged jaundice. A 5 year girl is suffering from bronchitis frequently. * alpha-1-antitripsin deficiency 3. Chronic pneumonia B. Intestinal infection D. periodic diarrhea and malnutrition. Tracheobronchomegaly C. There is persistent cough with mucous-purulent sputum. He had bronchitis 4 times before and pneumonia 2 times before. Hyperlipidemia E. * Cystic fibrosis C. A 2 months-old boy is admitted to the hospital with complaints: persistent cough. What is the most likely preliminary diagnosis? A. * Asotemia D. * All mentioned above C. hepatomegaly. cyanosis. During lungs percussion there is bandbox sound. Nephronophtisis Fanconi Назва наукового напрямку (модуля): Семестр: 12 6 year Pediatrics. Also was diagnosed sinusitis. Delay in physical development B. Hypoproteinemia B. alpha-1-antitripsin deficiency E. Chronic pneumonia B. Hyperglycemia 952. Proteinuria C. Persistent local changes in lung . dyspnea. * Chronic glomerulonephritis C. Disease de Toni-Fanconi-Debrae D. situation tasks Опис: Диф. The physical development is delayed. What symptoms will allow to the physician to make such conclusion? A. Tracheobronchomegaly 2. A 2 year boy was admitted to the hospital with complaints: persistent cough. The doctor suspected chronic disease of lungs. Chronic pyelonephritis B.

The physical development is delayed. Cough with mucous-purulent sputum 4.E. Which method is the most informative to confirm this diagnosis? A. All symptoms are typical for this disease EXEPT: A. Biplane (two-dimensional) chest x-ray B. Bronchoscopy D. Chronic bronchitis with bronchiectasis C. Spirography B. Williams-Campbell syndrome C. Scintigraphy . congenital heart defect. Select the primary method for diagnosis of bronchiectasis: A. Chest X-ray D. There is a constant wet cough. * Bronchography E. Endocrine glands hypofunction E. In 5 year child who has frequent maxillary sinusitis and respiratory diseases was suspected Kartagener syndrome. Sputum analyses 5. The doctor suspected bronchiectasis. Situs inversus B. * Bronchography 6. There is persistent cough with mucous-purulent sputum. A 5 year old boy was hospitalized with a preliminary diagnosis of chronic disease of lungs. chronic recurrent bronchitis. In 3 year child was revealed situs inversus. Chest ultrasound C. Mounier-Kuhn syndrome B. Spirography E. Ethmoidoantritis 7. Echocardiography C. * Bronchography E. The doctor suspected chronic disease of lungs. CT of the chest C. Which of the following will prove diagnosis? A. alpha -1-antitripsin deficiency D. There is persistent cough with mucous-purulent sputum. The most probable diagnosis is: A. persistent moist rales in the lower lobe of the right lung. Cystic fibrosis E. * Nephritis D. A 5 year child is suffering from bronchitis frequently. He is ill during 4 years. Chest x-ray D. Bronchoscopy B. The physical development is delayed. * Kartagener syndrome 8. A 10 year child is suffering from bronchitis frequently. frontal sinuses hypoplasia.

What auscultation signs are characteristic for this disease? A. Recurrent pneumonia B. in two years a foreign body aspiration (button) which as not taken out. especially in the morning. Which of the following will prove diagnosis? A. He has acute respiratory tract infections 3-4 times per year. * Persistent local moist rales D. He is ill 5 years after foreign body aspiration episode. The 4 year child with frequent respiratory tract. What probably caused the development of chronic disease of lungs? A. A 7-year-old child was hospitalized with exacerbation of chronic disease of lungs. A child was born from premature pregnancy. Deformation of the chest D. Prematurity B. 5-year-old child is hospitalized with complaints of wet cough. Dry diffuse rales B. he had left side low lobe pneumonia three times before. same problems developed for the third time. is examined in the hospital. * Foreign body aspiration 11. A district pediatrician examined the 5-year-old child. After clinical examination a doctor thought about chronic disease of lungs. Recurrent bronchitis or pneumonia 10. Biplane (two-dimensional) chest x-ray B. Shortness of breath during physical exercises C. Hard breathing E. Pulmonary tuberculosis D. * Chronic disease of lungs 13. He is ill for 3 years. The most typical clinical manifestations of lung malformation are the following symptoms. Recurrent bronchitis C. During examination: skin is pale. During percussion: local dullness below the lower corner of the left scapulae. After that he had pneumonia two times.9. He suffered from rickets and anemia during the first year of life. * Attacks of dyspnea at night B. whom disturbed wet cough. Weakened breathing C. Frequent acute respiratory tract infections E. which are observed from the 1st year of life. perioral and periorbital cyanosis. Chest ultrasound C. except: A. What disease is the most probable? A. CT of chest . Moist rales 12. Bronchial asthma E. Anemia D. During this year. 8 year old child complains of coughing with purulent sputum. Fingers club bing and “drum sticks” E. Rickets C. During auscultation: many fine moist rales under the left scapulae. X-ray of chest: deformation of bronchial pattern on the left side.

What chest X-ray changes are the most typical for the chronic disease of lungs? A. What is the most typical symptom of this disease? A. Electrophoresis C.D. Dyspnea B. Which way is the best for introduction of antibiotics? A. Perioral cyanosis 18.pneumonia. Subfebrile t emperature E. There was a suspicion of chronic disease of lungs. 5-year-old child is hospitalized with complaints of wet cough. What is the basic complex treatment of this disease? A. Sputum was taken for bacteriological study from the bronchi during medical and diagnostic bronchoscopy. The 7 year boy is suffering from persistent wet cough. There was a suspicion of chronic disease of lungs. * Restoration of drainage function of bronchi B. exacerbations periods develop 3-4 times per year. Desensitization therapy D. From anamnesis it is known that a child is suffering from pneumonia 2-3 times per year. Intravenous 17. Intramuscular B. * Bronchoscopy or bronchography E. Antibacterial therapy 15. Presence of the round shape shadow . After analysis of anamnesis and clinical examination chronic disease of lungs was diagnosed. Pale skin D. * Endobronchial D. * Persistent cough C. 6-year-old child is hospitalized with constant complaints of cough with purulent sputum. sensitive to cephalosporines. Condition worsened 10 days ago after contact with patients with acute respiratory infection. Pneumococci were revealed. shortness of breath during exercise. He is ill during 3 years. Physiotherapy C. 1-2 times per year . Oral E. What research will be definitive in establishing of the final diagnosis? A. Arteriography B. X-ray of the chest C. whom disturbed wet cough and shortness of breath during physical exercises. A district pediatrician examined the 9-year-old child. Spirography 14. Local infiltration of lung tissue B. Spirography D. Child is sick during 6 years: frequent respiratory diseases. Bronchoscopy E. Physiotherapy E. After the clinical and instrumental examinations was diagnosed chronic disease of lungs. 8-year-old child is treated in a hospital from chronic disease of lungs. * Bronchography 16.

Mounier-Kuhn syndrome B. Kartagener syndrome D. Idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis 22. In 1 year child was revealed chronic recurrent bronchitis and tracheobronchomegaly. A 5 year boy is suffering from bronchitis and pneumonia often. ethmoidoantritis. * Intensification and deformation of the lungs pattern 19. Chest x-ray revealed deceased intensity of the lungs pattern. Cystic fibrosis E. there is dextracardia. Idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis E. He is ill during 4 years since the idiopathic fibrosing alveolitis was diagnosed. Alpha-1-antitripsin deficiency C. The most probable diagnosis is: A. The 6 year boy was hospitalized with the complaints of shortness of breath. collapse attacks. loss of weight. In 8 month child there is high possibility of cystic fibrosis according the clinical and anamnestic criteria. Alpha -1-antitripsin deficiency D. Koprogram C. frequent cough. Cystic fibrosis E. Heart extension E. 2 tone accent above the pulmonary artery. Williams-Kempbell syndrome B. cyanosis. Chest x-ray D. Level of lipids in blood B. Hammen-Rich syndrome D. enlarged heart. In addition. heart pain. Williams-Kampbell syndrome C. Mounier-Kuhn syndrome B. The most likely diagnosis is: A. * Kartagener syndrome C. systolic murmur above the pulmonary artery. * Primary pulmonary hypertension E. collapse attacks. Level of ?-1-antitripsin in blod E. The most probable diagnosis is: A. enlarged heart. What is pathogenic treatment? . cyanosis. * Primary pulmonary hypertension D. Lungs extension and hyperaeration D. Williams-Campbell syndrome 20. Mounier-Kuhn syndrome B. The most probable diagnosis is: A. the child suffers from chronic sinusitis. 2 tone accent above the pulmonary artery. In 5 year child was revealed dyspnea during physical exercises. * Level of chlorides in the sweat 24. alpha -1-antitripsin deficiency 23.C. In 5 year child was revealed dyspnea during physical exercises. * Mounier-Kuhn syndrome 21. What examination will prove the diagnosis? A. systolic murmur above the pulmonary artery. Chest x-ray revealed deceased intensity of the lungs pattern. At bronchologic examination bronchiectasis were revealed. heart pain. Williams-Campbell syndrome C.

fever. Diagnosis of cystic fibrosis. What diagnosis is suspected? A. Vomiting. There is a poor tolerance to physical activity.The cough is resistant with shortness of breath. the phenomenon of emphysema. Immune modulators 25. He has frequent respiratory diseases. Coprogram D. Mounier -Kuhn syndrome D. Stool has unpleasant smell from the first days of life. Objectively chest is looking like hump. Syncope often appears at an exercise. He has chronic cough. Lung atelectasis D. NSAID’s C. Broncholytics D. mixed form was suggested. Idiopathic hemosiderosis B. Antibiotics B. Cystic adenomatous malformation 26. Aplasia of lung C. Sequestration of the lung B. A. sometimes accompanied by attacks of breathlessness. at auscultation– dry and moist rales of various sizes. Radiography of the chest B. and then a chronic bronchopulmonary process was formed eventually. Auscultation reveals a murmur and congestive cardiac failure. During the first year of life an acute pneumonia occured. shortness of breath and small bubbling moist rales. Patient is 5 years old. a violation of external respiration is present. recurrent pneumonias and poor physical exercises resistance. Phalanges and nails become "drumsticks". What research can confirm the diagnosis? A. Idiopathic fibroalveolitis C. The cough is unproductive. failure to thrive and abdominal pain periodically occur. Determination of blood lipids . Congenital carditis D. Put diagnosis. At bronchography there are determined generalize bronchiectasis with balloon expansion during inspiration and collapse. * Corticosteroids E. Kartagener syndrome 27. The child is 4 years old.A. At 3 months child three times bronchoobstructive syndrome occurred without previous catarrhal phenomena. X-ray reveals signs of lungs tissue consolidation. development of shortness of breath. Child is 6 years old. Idiopathic fibroalveolitis C. A. Put the most probable diagnosis. heart failure signs are present. Very often there are cough. "hour- glass". * Determination of sweat chlorides C. Cardiomyopathy E. * Williams– Campbell syndrome B. * Idiopathic fibroalveolitis E. Cystic fibrosis E. * Idiopathic pulmonary hypertension 28. Radiological findings in the lungs: increased pulmonary pattern. At percussion of the lungs there is bandbox sound.

Acute sinusitis C. Seborrheal eczema E. Contact dermatitis C. Atrophic rhinitis 31.edema of nasal mucous membrane on both sides. A patient with nosocomial pneumonia has signs of collapse. A 10-year-old girl was admitted to a hospital with carditis presentations. Objectively . Exudative pleurisy E. Foreign body in the nose E. Examine the throat and obtain a culture 33. Toxic hepatitis B. * Septic shock 30. Proteus C. What is the most likely etiological factor in this case? A. anxious and has a mild inspiratory stridor. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Skin eruption was accompanied by strong itch.mild leukocytosis and eosinophilia.5oC and sore throat. A 6-year-old boy was brought to the emergency room with a 3-hour history of fever up to 39. Staphylococcus B. sneezing. his condition is getting worse in winter. Emphysema D. especially of the lower turbinate (with cyanosis). A child was taken to a hospital with focal changes in the skin folds. Bronchial obstruction C. A 16-year-old girl complains of nasal blockage. Chest X-ray 29. He has a history of exudative diathesis. The body temperature is normal. Admit the child and place him in a mist tent E. Strophulus 32. Blood test data . The child has been artificially fed since he was 2 months old. You should I mmediately: A. Grandmother by his mother's side has bronchial asthma. Obtain an arterial blood gas and start an IV line C. The child usually feels better in summer. Order a chest x-ray and lateral view of the neck D. The child looks alert. Infective rhinitis D. * Atopic dermatitis D. examination revealed dry skin with solitary papulous elements and ill-defined lichenification zones. watery nasal discharges. * Allergic rhinitis B. Klebsiella . Urticaria B. It is known from the anamnesis that two weeks ago she had exacerbation of chronic tonsillitis. Which of the following pneumonia complication is the most likely to be accompanied with collapse? A. The child was anxious during examination. * Prepare to establish an airway B. What is the diagnosis? A.E.

D. An infant aged 1 year on the third day of common cold at night developed inspiratory stridor. Acute bronchiolitis with respiratory distress E. * Streptococcus 34. The percussion is without pathologic features.50C. The respiratory rate is 52 per min and pulse rate 122 per min. * Foreign body aspiration B. What should you recommend to treat acute attack of asthma? A. Theophylline 38. Bronchiolitis 37. There is a bluish skin discoloration moistly seen over the upper lip. On the third day of disease a 10 years old child with acute respiratory infection developed productive cough. For the past 2 days. What diagnosis should be made? A. Mother of a previously healthy 4 year old male complains of cough and wheeze. Loratadine D. antitrypsin deficiency B. Acute epiglottitis 36. The auscultation reveals bilateral rales over the lung surface. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. cystic fibrosis . obstructive bronchitis D. What disease does the infant have? A. Pneumonia 35. incomplete compensation state B. Physical examination revealed suprasternal and intercostal chest retractions. * Acute infectious croup due to viral laryngotracheitis grade II of airway obstruction. A 6-year-old boy with asthma has had mild wheezing only four times since you began treating him 3 months ago with Cromolyn inhalation twice each day. During examination the right side of a chest show hyperresonance. * acute bronchitis B. Focal pneumonia without complications D. Boy had playing with a small toy. Aspirin E. hoarse voice and barking cough. Bronchitis E. Asthma C. he has again had mild coughing and wheezing. The body temperature is 37. Asthma E. Pneumonia D. 7 -year-old boy with chronic cinusitis and reccurent pulmonary infections has chest a x-ray demonstrating a right-sided cardiac silhouette. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Inhalation corticosteroids C. Acute laryngitis C. * Inhalation Salbutamol B. relapsing bronchitis C. diminished vocal resonance and poor air entry. Pneumococcus E.

There is no history of asthma or allergic reactions. * foreign body aspiration C. A 6-year-old girl has had a dry cough without sputum for 2 months. Sweet chloride is 126 mmol/l. celiac disease E. laryngotracheomalacia E. * Kartagener syndrome 39. polyfecalia. you hear a wheeze in both lung fields. There is leukopenia in blood. and respiratory distress.C. Parents of 3-year-old girl complain of rectal prolapse and failure to gain weight in spite of a good appetite. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. interstitial pneumonia 42. persistent. Bronchiolitis B. bulky. A 1. Physical examination reveals a RR of 45 and wheezing. antitrypsin deficiency C. dry. Pertussis C. Hirschprung’s disease 40. body temperature is normal. X-ray lung examination shows increased transparency. choking. The cough is getting worse after exercises and at night. On physical examination. and no one at home is ill. What is the diagnosis? A. What treatment will you prescribe? . acute bronchiolitis B. frequent breathing with hindered exhalation. The breathing under auscultation is harsh. Rhinitis E. Pneumonia D. prolonged. greasy stools. Patient has a history of recurrent prolonged respiratory infections and frequent. pertussis C. bronchiectasis B. * Obstructive bronchitis 43. there are diffuse dry sibilant rales. What diagnosis is the most probable? A. The cystic fibrosis was diagnosed. Kartagener syndrome D. * bronchial asthma E. A 2 year boy has subfebrile temperature. 2-year-old previously healthy boy had eaten peanuts and suddenly presents with an acute onset of cough. attack of asthma D. dyspnea. acute laryngitis E. attacked cough. bronhiolitis obliterans D. * cystic fibrosis B. retardation in physical development. Family history revealed that the parents have eczema. foreign body aspiration D. What is the most likely diagnosis? A.5 year old boy has non-productive cough with purulent sputum. She has none of the signs of chronic lung disease. angioedema 41. increasing of sweat chloride up to 150 mEq/l.

Monosegmental C.5? C. monocytes . greater on right side.2 %. Puerile B. increase of ESR C.86 х 10??/l. cyanosis of perinasal triangle.5 years’ old child is ill for 1 week. Vitamins + antibiotics E. On X-ray: lungs’ roots are broad. breathing rate is 54 per minute. Нb . Н2-histaminic blockaders + hepatoprotectors D. monocytosis E.2 х 109/l. Choleretics + adaptogens C. * Leucocytosis. Vitamins + mucolytics 44. Polysegmental D. * Enzymes + antibiotics B. leucocytes 11.8. Grunting 45. A 1. Auscultation: on right sight lower than angle of the scapula decrease of breathing. neutrophyles: band forms . Interstitial B. dyspnea in the rest. Name the pathological changes. infiltrated. Percussion: on right side dull sound in lowest part. and in axillar region. The 5-month's child with an acute pneumonia was hospitalized. Coarse E. red cheeks. What form of an acute pneumonia is according to X-ray? A. During auscultation: big amount of small moist riles all over the lungs. * Crupous D. often moist cough. During percussion: dullness of the sound paravertebrally. Focal pneumonia B.A. anemia D.3 %. Polysegmental 47. Leucopenia. Shift of the formula to the left 48. Objectively: body temperature is 38. He complaints on subfebrile temperature. A. Interstitial E. diminished breathing and crackles on the right.30 %. crepitating. Weakened vesicular D. lymphocytes .58 %. What form of an acute pneumonia is possible in this case? A. ESR . Lymphocytosis. * Focal pneumonia 46. Objectively: pallor of the skin. eosynophyles .8 mm/hour. and in both sides are little shadows. CI – 0. The clinical blood analysis is: erythrocytes 2.3° C. segments . The most possible diagnosis is: . Crupous E. The 7-months' old child has body temperature 38. dry cough. anemia B. A 10-years’ old boy is ill for 4 days.7 %. What kind of breathing can be heard above the lungs in healthy children aged 7 years? A.86 g/l. Monosegmental C. Lymphopenia. * Vesicular C.

What complication of the measles has appeared in child? A. Upper respiratory tract viral infection B. The disease began acutely with temperature 39°C. Diffuse dry rales B.. What auscultation picture is typical for this case? A. Acute bronchiolitis D. Focal pneumonia was suspected. has appeared: moist cough with separation of mucous-purulent phlegm. Breathing . Once again has increased the body temperature. small rales in lower parts of lungs.120 per 1 min. Percussion sound is shortened in right under scapula area. unstructural roots.30 per 1 min. has cyanosis. cyanosis of perioral triangle. The condition of the child sharply worsened. Acute interstitial pneumonia E. * Pneumonia D..A. Objectively: the general condition is moderate. An 18-month-old child is taken to hospital on the 4-th day of the disease. skin is pale with pigmented rashes. cough. The child is 7 years old. dullness of the lung sound. moist small rales. Diffuse wet rales D. has measles for 10 days. * Segmental pneumonia C. the increase of vascular picture. Influenza . subfebrile body temperature was examined by district pediatrician. in lower parts of the lungs. more in the right. Pharyngitis E. Obstructive bronchitis E. Croup syndrome B. * Pneumonia 51. heart tones are weakened. The child. weakness. * Local crackles C. The 9 months' old child who disturbs cough. febrile temperature for more than 3 days. and periodic humid cough with mucous phlegm. Bronchitis B. What complication of influenza is possible? A. restlessness. Meningitis C. Pulse . Acute bronchitis C. dyspnea. He complains of increasing of the body temperature to 39 0С. Myocarditis D. * Acute focal pneumonia 49. X-ray picture: unhomogenous segmental infiltration 8-10 at the right. Interstitial pneumonia D. There are crackles and small bubbling rales at the auscultation on the right. Bronchiolitis 52. Decrease breathing E. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. general weakness. He is pale. On auscultation – dull sound. 7 years old. dyspnea. He has influenza for 5 days. Rough breathing 50. Tracheobronchitis B. Bronchitis C.

Acute cholecystitis D. Pneumothorax D. cough.40° C). Intestinal infection B. tachycardia.36/min.85/45 mm Hg. brownish sputum appeared on the 7th day of the treatment. The relative heart dullness borders are normal. right hemithorax respiratory movement delays.37°C. pale skin with a flush on a right cheek. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. and pain on respiration in the right side of her chest. The abdomen is painless and soft by palpation. vomiting. Erythromycin B. dullness on percussion of the lower lobe of the right lung. Respiratory failure of 0 degree 57. Acute appendicitis 54. cough. Myocarditis E. Streptomycin C. A 3 month old infant suffering from acute segmental pneumonia has dyspnea (respiratory rate . Respiratory failure of II degree E. Respiratory failure of I degree D. A 14-year-old patient has been treated in a hospital. Chest X-ray shows left lower lobe infiltrate. total cyanosis. What disease causes these symptoms and signs? A. t . There is dullness over the right lung on percussion. A 16-year-old male was admitted to the hospital complaining of stabbing back pain on inspiration and dyspnea. weakness. Acute bronchitis 56. * Cephalosporines of the III generation 55. What is the diagnosis? A. weakness of vesicular respiration in this region. Pneumonia C. chest pain which is worsened by breathing. RR. Influenza E. BP. On X-ray: infiltrate in the right middle lobe of the lung. Ps 92/min. BR of 24/min.80 per minute). Interstitial pneumonia B. On physical examination: there is an expressed dyspnea. Penicillin D. fever (temperature . * Respiratory failure of III degree C. Congenital heart defect B.120/min.E. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for this patient? A. There is a dry. * Acute fibrinous pleuritis B. Such signs are characteristic for: A. grating. A 6 year old girl has an acute onset of fever up to 39oC with chills. paradoxical breathing. A fever of 39°C. Bronchiolitis 53. Respiration/pulse ratio is 1:2. * Pneumonia crupous C. Acute pleuritis . A 10-year-old boy complains of a headache. vesicular breath sounds. On physical examination: HR . Tetracycline E. On exam. low-pitched sound heard in both expiration and inspiration in the left lower lateral part of the chest.

Percussion sound is shortened in right under scapula area. Carbopenem B. cough. A.4°C. * Septic shock 61. Bronchitis B. Toxic hepatitis D. conjunctives were revealed. Acute right-sided pleuritis . During examination mild hyperemia and edema of the tonsils and back pharyngeal wall. Serological investigation C. A patient with nosocomial pneumonia presents signs of collapse. febrile temperature for more than 3 days. The physician suspects adenoviral infection.C. has addressed to pediatrician with complains of increasing of the body temperature to 37. restlessness. Acute right-sided segmental pneumonia B. What is the diagnosis? A. Interstitial pneumonia D. Select the best antibiotic. Bronchial obstruction C. Aminopenicilline C. During the examination: a voice fremitus is stronger. He is pale. cough. The X-ray: a homogeneous infiltration of the right lung lower lobe. * Nosocomial lobar pneumonia 58. productive cough and intoxication. depressed breathing and bronhophonia over the right lung. * Segmental pneumonia C. has cyanosis. Exudative pleuritis B.5 ?С. serous discharge from nose. Acute lung abscess E. fine bubbling rales at the auscultation. 8-month-old child was entered to the hospital. X-ray picture: unhomogenous segmental infiltration 8-10 in the right. Which method of express-diagnostics is better to use for acknowledgement of the diagnosis? A. There are crackles. An 18-month-old child is taken to hospital on the 4-th day of the disease. * Immunofluorescent method 60. After bacteriological observation it is diagnosed atypical community-acquired Chlamidia trachomatis pneumonia. The disease began acutely with temperature 39°C. Bacteriosсopy investigation of pharyngeal swab E. sore throat. the increase of vascular picture. Bronchiolitis 62. * Macrolides E. Aminoglycosides 59. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Which of the following pneumonia complications is most likely to be accompanied by collapse? A. Community-acquired lobar pneumonia D. The selection of the virus on tissue culture B. A boy. weakness. lacrimation. short percussion sound. unstructural roots. Cephalosporin D. Influenza E. A 7-year-old boy has body temperature 39. bacteriological investigation D. Emphysema E. 8 years old.

Colibacillus (E. Acute bronchiolitis B. Temperature 38°C. Abdomen is moderately swollen. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. On the right of the 3 ribs downwards shortening of percussion sounds is determined. Acute right-sided pneumothorax 63. On auscultation . RR 54 per 1 min. Which agent is most likely caused this disease? A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. A 9 month-old baby has fever.right side is infiltrated in 7-10 segments. Acute obstructive bronchitis E. Child 2.C.32mm/h. Proteus vulgaris E. Pneumococcus (S. * Acute pneumonia E. There is cyanosis of naso-labial triangle. ARVI C. She is sick for 5 days after contact with ARVI patient. X- ray on the right intense homogenous darkening of 3 ribs down. nasolabial triangle is cyanotic. Cancer of the lung D. Pneumonia B. * Acute right-sided lobar pneumonia D. Acute right-sided intersticial pneumonia E. a dry cough. over the other sites . there was pain in the right half of the chest. dyspnea. At chest X-ray. Above the shortening of the sound breathing is not listened. vomiting once. What is the most likely diagnosis? A.5x109. Then suddenly developed fever to 38°C. Coli) C. there is diminished breathing. Membranous pneumonia B. crackles is absent. ESR . Acute lung a bscess E.tympanic sound. more on the right side. * St. The heart is shifted to the left. Condition of the child is severe. Body temperature is raised to 38° C and appeared with abdominal pain.small bubbling moist rales on both sides. pneumoniae) B. Breathing rate is 80 per minute. Skin is pale. What disease should be suspected in a patient? A. Dullness of percussion sound is in the right lower part of chest.5 years is acutely ill. Right side pericardial pleurisy D. nostrils flaring during breathing. painful to palpation in the right upper ribs region. Acute laryngotracheitis D. Condition of the child is severe. Patient 14yrs during the week noted the deterioration of general condition. aureus 65. Percussion: a shortening of the sound below the right scapula angle. Spontaneous pneumothorax 66. Acute bronchitis 64. The blood leukocytes 10. cough. sub-febrile temperature. * Acute right side polysegmental pneumonia . A child of 10 months has acute bronchopneumonia with destruction of the left lung. * Pleural effusion C. Acute appendicitis C.

He is ill for 3 days. Laboratory findings: leucopenia. body temperature is 37. Acute pneumonia . considerable expiration dyspnea. Aminopenicillin 68. In the peripheral blood: leukocytosis. Objectively: condition of the child is moderately severe. What disease is possible? A. which is caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae. * Pneumonia 69. Acute pneumonia D.. Child is two years old. increased ESR. runny nose. Recurrent bronchitis 71. * Obstructive bronchitis C. * Macrolide D. Auscultation: dry whistling and different moist rales. wet rales in both sides.5°C. Adrenalin B. Cephalosporines C. Acute bronchopneumonia C. 3 days ago he was in a contact with sister ill on acute upper respiratory tract viral infection.o. diagnosed pneumonia. * Acute tracheitis D. Acute bronchitis D. The 5-months' old child has subfibrile temperature. Objectively: the condition is severe. Acute bronchiolitis B. A 2 years old child has dry cough. increased ESR.67. During auscultation: puerile breathing. Pediatrician was called to the 2-years old child who’s mother complaints of a subfebrile temperature. skin is cyanotic. He is hospitalized. there is crackles on the lower right side. During percussion: a clear pulmonary sound without dullness. skin is pale. respiratory rate is 80 per 1 minute. eosynophylia. lymphocytosis. Antifungal drugs E. Bronchial asthma B. Percussion: tympanic sound. Auscultation: a scattered. What is the diagnosis? A. Percussion: clear pulmonary sound without dullness. Acute obstructive bronchitis B. Acute bronchitis D. What disease is possible first of all? A.5°C. Acute simple bronchitis B. Child in 12y. Acute bronchitis E. rhinitis and dry cough. paroxysmal cough and dyspnea. What treatment should be chosen? A. Whooping cough 70. dyspnea. The mother appealed to the district pediatricians with complaints of child cough. Bronchial asthma E. RR 40 per 1 min. What disease is possible? A. fever up to 38. weakness and decrease in appetite. oral crepitation. Obstructive bronchitis C. Bronchial asthma E. Auscultation: lung breathing is hard. Aspiration of a foreign body C.

Auscultation: breath sounds are coarse. skin pallor. expressed inspiratory dyspnea. is treated from influenza. A 2 years old child has dry cough. lymphocytosis. X-ray: lung pattern is increased. Acute pneumonia D. has appeared rough barking cough.8 ?С. Percussion: a clear pulmonary sound. Croup syndrome D. moist small rales. increased ESR. dry whistling and different moist rales. The child. dyspnea. body temperature is 37. His condition has worsened 10 days ago. Whooping cough 76. The condition of the child sharply worsened.120 in 1 min. accelerated ESR. Croup syndrome 74. RR . Child is sick 3-d day. What complication of influenza has developed? A. hoarseness of the voice. The 7-years’ old child was hospitalized with complaints on wet cough. Acute simple bronchitis B. has appeared: moist cough with sputum. Obstructive bronchitis E. What disease is possible first of all? . Percussion: a clear pulmonary sounds.E. eosynophylia. nonconstant single diffuse wet rales.. His condition suddenly became worse: the body temperature has increased to 39. Pediatrist was called to the 2-years child in connection with subfibrile fever. 2 years old. Acute pneumonia D. * Pharyngitis 75. Meningitis C. Pulse . * Bronchiolitis 72. Bronchiolitis C. cyanosis of perioral triangle. Chronic disease of lungs E. What disease is possible in this case? A. Percussion: tympanic sounds. Auscultation: rough breathing. What complication of influenza is possible? A. rhinitis and dry cough. He has influenza for 5 days. * Relapsed bronchitis 73. Acute bronchitis C. The child is 7 years old. Myocarditis D. * Pneumonia B. By results of examinations: a leucopenia. roots are nonstructural. dyspnea. Objectively: cough with sputum. Obstructive bronchitis E. Bronchial asthma E. He is ill during last 4 years: viral infections 3-4 times per year are accompanied by bronchitis. Once again has increased the body temperature..30 per min. heart tones are weak. Pneumonia B.5°C. In the peripheral blood: leucocytosis. * Obstructive bronchitis C. What disease is possible? A. tachycardia. Viral infection B. Objectively: involvement of the auxiliary muscles in breathing. Auscultation: breath sounds are coarse. in lower parts of the lungs is dullness of the lung sound.

He was ill 3 days ago after a contact with ill on virus sister. Acute tracheitis C. * Bronchial asthma C. nonproductive cough. Antibiotics B. Mucolitics D. What disease is possible? A. Heart failure C. His lips are cyanotic. A. he tries to breathe more deeply and the expiratory phase becomes prolonged and is accompanied by an audible wheezing. Hyposensibilization C. * Acute bronchitis 77. Sweating is prominent as the attack progresses. Obstructive bronchitis D. oral crepitation. dyspnea is hospitalized. Hormones 79. Objectively: the condition is very severe. Acute bronchopneumonia D. Acute bronchitis D. Diagnose is bronchiolitis. inefficient tussis. especially around the mouth. Neurotoxicosis B. Bronhiolitis E. * Bronchiolitis 80. Auscultation: prolonged expiratory. In history: allergy on food products. Aspiration of a foreign body C. It is necessary to give: . Put your diagnosis. considerable expiration dyspnea. Percussion: sound boxes. Bronchial asthma B. What is the reason of the severe condition of the child? A. The child is restless and anxious. scattered whistling sounds. RR 80 per 1 minute. * Broncholitics E. The child has short breathing. Epinephral failure D. After liquidation of attack period it was decided to prescribe anti-inflammatory therapy. The child of 6 years – diagnose asthma bronchial the first time. 12-month old child after contact with cat has a frequent paroxysmal. Exicosis 78. There is non-productive cough and dyspnea. The 9-month's child in a severe condition is hospitalized. cyanosis observed in the nail beds and skin. The 5-years child has obstructive bronchitis. Respiratory virus infection 81. Relapse bronchitis E. * Respiratory failure E. Acute obstructive bronchitis B. Acute pneumonia B.A. Acute pneumonia E. What drugs will be as a base of therapy? A. The 5-month's child with the complaints of subfibrile fever. irritative. skin is cyanotic.

Attack periods appear in summer during flowering. Auscultation reveals prolonged expiration. Body temperature is 37. stridor. * Inhaled corticosteroids 83. In period between attacks the child needs such treatment: A. Antibacterial C. Іntal 84.5 years old child is sick the second day. Mucolitical E. retraction at rest. At percussion over lungs there is tympanic sound. pallor of skin. the temperature 38°C. The child of 10 years – diagnose bronchial asthma during 5 years. Prednizolon D. breath difficulties. Bronchiolitis C. cyanosis. In what department is hospitalized child? A. A. 1. Pneumonia 86. dry cough. A child is 11 months. It is necessary to prescribe: A. Put diagnosis. Aspirin B. Anti-inflammatory B. hoarse voice. Infectious C. Еfedrin E.A. * Nedocromil 82. Pneumonia B. restless. He is ill ARI. * Laryngitis 85.8°C. barking cough. Bronchial asthma B. Foreign body aspiration D. Acute bronchitis E. Іndometacini E. Junior childhood . On the second day it was marked the emergence of a barking cough. noisy breathing. Pulmonary B. Duration of an attack period is more than 6 hours. Diclofenac C. * Acute obstructive bronchitis C. A child 10 months was entered to the hospital in severe condition with expiratory shortness of breath. Bronchial asthma E. The child of 10 years – diagnose bronchial asthma during 5 yrs. Broncholitical D. Adrenalin B. hoarse voice. * Prednizolon C. Suprastin D. What is your diagnosis? A. Pertussis D. stridor. many dry wheezing and occasional wet rales on both sides. shortness of breath.

D.3°C. What is the basic therapy? A. Auscultation reveals hard breathing. cough. Rynovirus D. Otolaryngology E. Influenza 90. * Intensive care unit 87. stridor and hoarse voice appeared. Enzymes E. acute bronchitis. Corticosteroids B. inspiratory shortness of breath. dry cough. Adenovirus B. Antihistamines E. the condition became worse: the child became restless. There is a slight indisposition. Aminoglycosides B. Children under eight months came to hospital complaining of non-productive. percussion lung sound. increasing t° to 37. acute bronchitis. There is box sound over lungs. Premorbid anamnesis is good. significant nasal drainage. Antihistamine E.37. He is Ill at the first time. * Virus parainfluenza C.3°C. barking cough. Cephalosporines 88.4°C.8°C. Objectively: perioral cyanosis. wheezing breath. frequent coughing. Objectively: RR-25 per 1 min. * Broncholytics 91. A child 7 years is ill. increasing t° to 37. expiratory dyspnea. Physiotherapy D. * Mucolytics 89. Antibiotics B. What kind of treatment is most faithful? A. A child of 9 months is acutely ill: increased body temperature to 38. What is the diagnosis? A. increased body t° to 37.8°C. Enteroviruse E. Which of the pathogens most likely is the reason of croup in children? A. RR 60 per min. after the cough character of rales changes. crepitation and dry whistling. Sick 2 days: t° . Mukolytics D. It was diagnosed obstructive bronchitis. Bronchiolitis B. significant nasal drainage. auscultation reveals different bubble rales. decreased appetite. Child is 2 years. It was diagnosed croup. It was diagnosed ARI. Antibiotics C.. A child 5 years is ill. What kind of treatment is most faithful? A. There is a mild indisposition. Congenital stridor . frequent coughing. barrel thorax. ARI is diagnosed. * Mucolytics and vitamins C. Sulphamids D. On 3d day of illness. runny nose. intense cough for 2 days. auscultation: different wet rales. decrease of appetite. Vitamins C. at night.

* Respiratory syncytial virus D. Pneumonia E. He is ill 2 days. Sick 2 days: t° . Acute bronchitis 92.C. blowing nostrils and barking cough. auscultation: on both sides a large number of fine wet and wheezing rales on exhalation. Rinovirus B. He is acutely ill with fever to 37. acute bronchitis 94. There is clear lung sound. percussion tympanic sound over lungs. ARI. shortness of breath appeared. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. He is Ill at the first time. Obstructive bronchitis B. Acute bronchiolitis was diagnosed. acute bronchiolitis C.4°C. After clinical examination the diagnosis of acute laryngitis was established. What is the reason of such disease? A. Three-year-old boy was delivered to the hospital at night by ambulance. Child is four months old.37. shortness of breath appeared. Child is 6 months.8°C. crepitation and dry rales. Virus parainfluenza E. Pneumonia D. dry. barking cough. auscultation: prolonged expiration. On background of ARVI loud inspiratory dyspnea occurred with retraction of intercostal spaces. He is acutely ill with fever to 37. The X-ray shows increasing of pulmonary pattern. Auscultation reveals hard breathing. The girl 10 months was entered to the hospital the next day of illness with complaints of increase body temperature to 39°C. pneumonia B. focal pneumonia E. Epiglottitis . The most probable diagnose is: A. What is your preliminary diagnosis? A. ARI. Mixed breathlessness B. obstructive bronchitis D. Flu C. Congenital strydor C. On 3d day cough increased. coughing. Bronchiolitis E. * ARI.8°C. ARI. Adenovirus 95. Child is 2 years. * Acute obstructive bronchitis D. dry cough. Hoarse breath D. What breathing disorder is characteristic for this situation? A. RR 30 per min. * Inspiratory dyspnea 96. a large number of fine wet and wheezing rales on exhalation on both sides. Expiratory dyspnea C. On 3d day cough increased. percussion tympanic sound over lungs. Stridor breath E. * Acute (simple) bronchitis 93. ARI. coughing.

its rapid progress. acrocyanosis. Hepatomegalia D. Foreign body of larynx D. Decrease of physical development C. * Laryngotracheitis C. The child 5 years was admitted to the hospital with rapid breathing disorders. breathing with participation of auxiliary muscles. Cardiac noise 101. Allergic conditions . proof arrhythmias from birth. Child is 2 month old. refraction to the therapy. Clinically: mild cardiomegaly. its rapid progress. 1 – 3 months B. * Leucocytosis E. progressive left-heart cardiac insufficiency. hoarse voice. stenotic breathing. Rough systolic murmur on apex B.B. Fibroelastosis was diagnosed. arrhythmias. Bronchial asthma C. Bacteria C. Acute nonrheumatic carditis was diagnosed. Laryngeal papillomatosis B. Foreign body of trachea E. 1-6 months E. without the morphological changes. He has contact with ill ARI person. which are interrupted by medicines. Bradiarythmia C. Late hereditary carditis is formed in terms of gestation: A. weakness of heart tones. Diastolic murmur on apex D. 4 – 6 months 99. decline of appetite. * The refraction to therapy tachycardia 100. Child is 2 month old. hypokinesia of its walls. formation of cardiac hump. shortness of breath. Clinically: cardiomegaly at birth. formation of cardiac hump. Child 2 month was born premature. For changes during fibroelastos it is not characteristic: A. Fibroelastosis was diagnosed. It is possible to suspect fibroelastosis when: A. EchoCG: moderate dilatation of the left ventricle. Clinically it was revealed cardiomegaly. * 7 – 9 months C. refraction to the therapy. Bronchitis 98. Viruses B. Diastolic murmur on aorta E. It is caused by: A. Cardiac hump B. During a birth D. Foreign body of air ways 97. * All transferred D. Clinically: cardiomegaly at birth. soft systolic murmur on the apex. Late congenital carditis was diagnosed. progressive left-heart cardiac insufficiency. Child 5 yrs old was entered to the hospital with complaints of weakness. * Viral false croup E. Skin is pale. Real (diphtheric) croup D. Your diagnosis is: A. retractions at rest.

onset of pain in the side caused by deep breathing. A 1-year-old infant is admitted for failure to thrive. * Sweat electrolytes 106. Acute simple bronchitis B. cough with considerable quantity of purulent sputum and blood with bad smell. 1 grade. Bronchiectatic disease E. In the peripheral blood: leukocytosis. On physical examination there are signs of delay in physical development. bronchial obstruction. Whooping cough C. Acute pneumonia D. During the neonatal period he had an exploratory laparotomy for intestinal obstruction. 15 y. Actinomycosis of lungs D. Tuberculin skin test E. Blood count\: signs of inflammatory process.5 °C. dyspnea. Toxins 102. Sweat chlorides 120 mEq/L. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. respiratory insufficiency. female was admitted to thoracic surgery department with fever up to 40°C.5-year-old child has following symptoms: chronic cough with purulent sputum discharge. Dyspnea. Serum immunoglobulin level D. Sweat chloride isl50 mEq/L. and a protuberant abdomen. What is the most suitable therapy? A. * Cystic fibrosis 105. Diagnosis: cystic fibrosis. Complication of liver echinococcosis B. physical retardation. Cholepoietic+adaptogenetic medicines . Bronchial asthma E. H2-blockers + hepatoprotectors C. Kartagener's syndrome C.o. Acute respiratory infection. At 3. 2 years old child has dry cough. The child has been ill since 2 month age. thin extremities with very little subcutaneous tissue. he had respiratory infections diagnosed as bronchitis. Vitamins + mucolytics B. bronchitis D.8 kg. body temperature is 37. large amount of stool. The essentials diagnostic study in this child is: A. Percussion: clear pulmonary sound without dullness. What disease is possible? A. increased ESR. Auscultation: dry whistling and different moist rales.8 and 11 month of age. A 1-year-old child suffers of attack-like cough. Skin test for milk allergy B.E. Pulmonary tuberculosis C. A 1. The child presents with the history of dyspepsia since birth. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia B. Physical examination: weight of 6. Bronchoscopy C. * Obstructive bronchitis 104. * Abscess of the lung 103. eosynophylia. Severe bronchial asthma E.

t . Pneumonia C. On physical examination. * Enzymes + antibiotics 107. The abdomen is painless and soft by palpation. Streptomycin C. grating. Acute bronchitis B. Chest X-ray shows left lower lobe infiltrate. Myocarditis E. Disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis B. Pulmonary neoplasm C. fever [temperature — 40° C]. chest pain which is worsened by breathing. ocassionally gloom tinged. A 10-year-old boy complains of a headache. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for this patient? A. purulent sputum. A 14-year-old patient has been treated in a hospital. On exam.D. What disease causes these symptoms and signs? A. Penicillin D. cough. vesicular breath sounds. Chronic obstructive emphysema E. A fever of 39°C. which becomes worse in the morning and in reclining position. Intestinal infection B. Vitamins+antibiotics E. RR of 24/min. There is a dry. Ps 92/min. pale skin with a flush on a right cheek. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. * Pneumonia croupousa 108. Pneumothorax D. * Acute fibrinous pleuritis . it is a chronic patient with clubbing of fingers. dullness on percussion of the lower lobe of the right lung.37°C. right hemithorax respiratory movement delays. low-pitched sound heard in both expiration and inspiration in the left lower lateral part of the chest. A 10-year-old boy has a history of recurrent pneumonias and chronic cough production of foul smell. * Cephalosporins of the III generation 110. A 16-year-old male was admitted to the hospital complaining of stabbing back pain on inspiration and dyspnea. weakness. Tetracycline E. On physical examination: there is an expressed dyspnea. Acute cholecystitis D. weakness of vesicular respiration in this region. vomiting. Influenza E. brownish sputum appeared on the 7th day of the treatment. Acute appendicitis C. Erythromycin B. wet inspiratory tract at the root of lungs from behind. * Bronchoectasis 109. Chronic bronchitis D.

respiration rate is 80 per minute. Permanently D. Congenital heart malformation B. How long should the doctor keep the patient under observation? A. The cardinal symptoms show respiratoty disorders: sound prolonged expiration. in 3 hours. Blood gases C. What are these signs indicative for? A. Myocarditis C. Which of the following pneumonia complications is most likely to be accompanied by collapse? A. additional muscles taking part in breathing. A child was born at 34 weeks of gestation in bad condition. Congenital heart disease B. total cyanosis. During ausculation there is harsh respiration to the right of the lower part of the lung. A 3 month old infant suffering from acute segmental pneumonia has dyspnea (respiration rate . Respiratory failure of I degree C. 1 month B. Emphysema . Assesment according to Silverman's scale was 0. A patient with nosocomial pneumonia presents signs of collapse. Respiration / pulse ratio is 1:2. RR-18/min. What diagnostic method can determine pneumopathy's type in the child? A.80 per minute). The heart dullness under normal size. Myocarditis E. * 12 months 112. Respiratory failure of II degree D. tachicardia. Roentgenologically: infiltrative changes are absent. Proteinogram D. paradoxical breathing. Such signs characterise: A. 6 months E. paradoxical breathing.6°C. BP — 120/80 mm Hg.111. Respiratory failure of II degree D.6 with presence of clinical data. On physical exam: his temperature is — 36. He has no complaints. Toxic hepatitis D. The heart size is normal. intensification of the pulmonary picture to the right in the lower lobe. * Respiratory failure of III degree 114. A 3-month-old infant who is suffering from acute segmental pneumonia reveals dyspnea. * Respiratory failure of III degree 113. Respiration-pulse ratio is 1:2. * Chest X-ray 115. crepitation rales on the background of the rough breath sounds. total cyanosis. A 16-year-old male was discharged from the hospital after having an out-of-hospital pneumonia. tachycardia. Respiratory failure of I degree E. Immunologic investigation B. 3 months C. Ps — 78 bpm. Blood test E. Exudative pleuritis B. Bronchial obstruction C.

Objectively: hyperemia of the face. * Septic shock 116. He is ill for 3 days. Acute obstructive bronchitis . An 18-month-old child is taken to hospital on the 4-th day of the disease. * Influenza. Dense. The physician has suspect adenoviral infection. * The fluorescence antibody method 120. neutralization reaction D. During examination of the oral cavity exists maculous exanthema on soft palate. pulmonary form 118. Direct hemaglutination reaction E. injection of sclera vessels. During percussion: a clear pulmonary sound without dullness.E. Percussion sound is shortened in right under scapula area. weakness. moderate cyanosis of the lips. cough. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Hemorrhagic fever. Bronchitis B. D. There are heterogeneous moist and dry rales. * Cystic fibrosis. E. * Segmental pneumonia 117. Recidivating bronchitis D. In the anamnesis of a 2-year-old girl there are recurrent pneumonias with signs of obstruction. What method from express-diagnostics is reasonable to use to prove this diagnosis? A. dry cough. rhinitis. unstructural rools. febrile temperature for more than 3 days. groiness of the back pharyngeal wall. C. B. In the child. Bronchial asthma C. Laboratory findings: leukopenia. X-ray picture: unhomogenous segmental infiltration 8-10 in the right. pale tachycardia is present. physical retardation. Interstitial pneumonia D. Congenital pulmonary polycystosis E. There are crepitative fine bubbling rales at the auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. respiration is weakened. 119. In the infectious hospital has admitted 5 years old girl with pharyngoconjunctivitis phenomena. Measles. Bronchiolitis C. What disease is possible first of all? A. reastlessness. Pulmonary tuberculosis B. Influenza E. the increase of vascular picture. Binding complement reaction B. Indirect hemaglutination reaction C. Pediatrician was called to the 2-years old child who’s mother complaints of a subfebrile temperature. What disease is most probable in this case? A. The skin is clean. There are "drumsticks". Typhoid fever. viscous secretion is difficult to hawk. with increasing of the body temperature to 39 dgr. disease has acute beginning. During auscultation\: puerile breathing. He is pale has cyanosis. Parainfluenza. 7 years old. lymphocytosis. increased ESR. The disease began acutely with temperature 39 °C.

Bronchiolitis C. 3 days ago he was in a contact with sister ill on acute upper respiratory tract viral infection. Antibiotics B. skin pallor. He is hospitalized. The child. Bronchial asthma B. He complains of increasing of the body temperature to 39 ?С. 7 years old. The child. Pharyngitis E. Acute bronchitis D. and periodic humid cough with discharge of the mucous phlegm. Mucolytics D. The 5-months' old child has subfibrile temperature. Hormons E. Pneumonia B. His condition suddenly became worse: the body temperature has increased to 39. Obstructive bronchitis D. Bronchiolitis D. * Croup syndrome 124. 2 years old. * Acute tracheitis 121. Auscultation\: a plenty of wet rales in both sides. general weakness.B. What complication of influenza has developed? A. Resedive bronchitis D. Objectively: the condition is severe skin is cyanotic. and dyspnea. Aspiration of a foreign body C. What complication of the measles has appeared in child? A. Antiallergic medicine C. Acute bronchopneumonia C. oral crepitation. expressed inspiratory dyspnea. Objectively: involvement of the auxiliary musculature in breathing. * Pneumonia . Tracheobronhitis B. What drugs will be used as a base therapy? A. Pharyngitis E. Acute bronchitis E. Objectively: the general condition is moderate skin is pale with pigmented rashes. In lower parts of lungs – dull sound.8 ?С. has appeared rough barking cough. The 5-years old child has obstructive bronchitis. respiratory rate is 80 per 1 minute. is treated from influenza. hoarseness of the voice. What disease is possible? A. considerable expiration dyspnea. Percussion: dull sound. Bronchitis C. Acute pneumonia E. * Bronchiolitis 122. small rales. * Broncholytics 123. tachycardia. has measles for 10 days. paroxysmal cough.

Respiratory virus infection C. A child 10 months was entered to the hospital in severe condition with expiratory shortness of breath. Acute pneumonia B. Junior childhood D. Body temperature is 37. Foreign body aspiration D. Pneumonia D. Infectious C. Obstructive bronchitis B. stridor. irrita-tive. the temperature 38°C. hoarse voice. * Intensive care unit 129. Bronchiolitis E. 1. dry cough. In what department is hospitalized child? A. nonproductive cough. retraction at rest. Put diagnosis. * Acute obstructive bronchitis C. Pneumonia B. Auscultation reveals prolonged expiration. he tries to breathe more deeply. * Bronchial asthma 126. In history: allergy to eggs and lemons. The child appears short of breath. He is Ill at the first time. He often appears pale but have red ears. * Acute (simple) bronchitis . He is ill ARI. The X-ray shows increasing of pulmonary pattern. many dry wheezing and occasional wet rales on both sides. Put your diagnosis. Sweating is prominent as the attack pro-gresses. A child is 11 months. A. breath difficulties.8°C. Bronchitis D. cyanosis observed in the nail beds and skin. dry cough. and his facial expression is anxious.37. Bronchial asthma E.125. hoarse voice. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. shortness of breath. cats and dogs. There is clear lung sound. Pertussis D.5 years old child is sick the second day. The child is restless and apprehensive. pallor of skin. restless. On the second day it was marked the emergence of a barking cough. barking cough. RR 30 per min. His lips are cyanotic. Brinchiolitis E. 12-month old child after contact with cat has a frequent paroxysmal. Acute bronchitis E. Pneumonia 128.4°C. especially around the mouth. Sick 2 days: t° . cyanosis. Congenital strydor C. and the expiratory phase becomes prolonged and is accompanied by an audible wheezing. A. crepitation and dry rales. Child is 2 years. What is your diagnosis? A. * Laryngitis 127. Bronchiolitis C. noisy breathing. Bronchial asthma B. At percussion over lungs there is tympanic sound. stridor. Auscultation reveals hard breathing. Otolaryngology E. Pulmonary B.

ESR . nonproductive cough with blood.dull sound.8.30 % lymphocytes .2 х 109/l. monocytes . * Klebsiella 133. Child is 6 months. Virus parainfluenza E. Rinovirus B. Objectively: cyanosis of mucus membranes distended left half of the thorax. On 3d day cough increased. anemia B. segments . The 5 years old boy complains of headache. increase of ESR C. The lung abscess D.8°C.7 mm/hour. Leucopenia. About what disease is possible to think? A.7 %. Upper respiratory tract viral infection B. Left side pyopneumothorax B. On X-ray: signs of the lungs’ infiltrated. Obstructive bronchitis D. * Respiratory syncytial virus D. high temperature of the body. During percussion: shortness of the sound paraveretebrally. leucocytes 11. Adenovirus 131. A. During auscultation\: hard breathing. The 2 years old child was hospitalized because of acute pneumonia. What diagnosis is the most probable? A.130.76 g/l. neutrophyles\: band forms . The clinical blood analysis is: erythrocytes 2. shift of the formula to the left D. Miliar tuberculosis E. Pneumocysta D. During feeding he started to cough. Pneumococcus E. * Foreign body of the left bronchus 132. What is the reason of such disease? A. dyspnea. Perycarditis E. eosynophyles . Lymphopenia.58 %.2 %. What bacteria cause the disease? A. shortness of breath appeared. Lymphocytosis. * Focal pneumonia 134. Name pathological changes. He is acutely ill with fever to 37.3 %. dyspnea has appeared. During percussion: on the left near top of the lung is tympanic sound. Нb . . percussion tympanic sound over lungs. Streptococcus C. from the 3rd rib down . Staphylococcus B. Acute cardiac failure C.66 х 1012/l. Flu C. coughing. Interstice pneumonia C. CI – 0. Acute bronchiolitis was diagnosed. The 4-months' old child was hospitalized with interstitial pneumonia. become worrisome. The 6-month's child with an acute pneumonia was hospitalized. monocytosis. auscultation: on both sides a large number of fine wet and wheezing rales on exhalation.

What disease is possible in this case? A. 0.01 g/kg 137.3 g/kg E. 0. hoarseness of the voice. is treated from influenza. Suprarenal failure D. Pharyngitis E. 3 days B. Chronic pneumonia E. 5 days C. 5 years old. Obstructive bronchitis D. Percussion: a clear pulmonary sound. How long bed regimen must be prescribed? A. He complains of headache. The child. What complication of influenza has developed? A. * Leucocytosis. Acute pneumonia D. The boy is 8 years old. skin pallor. shivering. * 0. * Respiratory failure 139. His condition suddenly became worse\: the body temperature has increased to 39.2 g/kg D. His condition has worsened 10 days ago. Bronchiolitis C. 138. roots are nonstructural. has appeared rough barking cough. 14 days D. X-ray: lung figure is increased. Auscultation: rough breathing. 2 years old. Heart failure C. * Croup syndrome 136. The 9-month's ols child was hospitalized because of severe condition. tachycardia. What single dose of panadol should be given? A. increasing of the body temperature to 39 ?С. complains of\: increasing of the body temperature to 39. and general weakness. * Relapsed bronchitis. Diagnose .05 g/kg B. He is ill during last 4 years: viral infections 3-4 times per year are accompanied by bronchitis. 0. typical form. Pneumonia B. Viral infection B. The child. 18 days .bronchiolitis.8 ?С. expressed inspiratory dyspnea. Exicosis E.E. anemia 135.5 ?С. The 7-years’ old child was hospitalized with complaints on wet cough. Neurotoxicosis B. nonconstant single diffuse wet rales. The diagnosis is: influenza. hard degree. What from this tells us about the severity? A. headache. poor sleeping. Objectively: cough with slimy sputum. 0. Acute bronchitis C. Objectively: involvement of the auxiliary musculature in breathing.1 g/kg C.

What disease is most probable in this case? . What degree of larynx stenosis is present? A. Breathing . I B. * Cystic fibrosis. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Congenital pulmonary polycystosis E. The child is excited. disease has acute beginning. tachypnea. No-spa C. On the 2nd day of the disease his condition became worse. Reaferon D. viscous secretion is difficult to hawk. inspiratory dyspnea without participation of the auxiliary muscles. Stenosing laryngotracheitis of the I stage was diagnosed.30 in 1 min. There are heterogeneous moist and dry rales. is treated in infectious department with diagnosis Parainfluenza. periodic barking cough. moderate cyanosis of the lips. IV D. cyanosis of perioral triangle in lower parts of the lungs. During examination of the oral cavity exists maculous exanthema on soft palate. 1 year old. * III 143. cool perspiration has appeared. * 7 days 140. tachycardia. respiration is weakened. What complication of influenza is possible? A. injection of sclera vessels. pulmonary form 144. What from named medicine is inadvisable to use? A. In the anamnesis of a 2-year-old girl there are recurrent pneumonias with signs of obstruction. He has influenza for 4 days. The condition of the child sharply worsened. Intercostal spaces involvement is noted at breathing.. There are "drumsticks". with increasing of the body temperature to 39 dgr. pale tachycardia is present. Bronchial asthma C. Recidivating bronchitis D. moist small rales. Meningitis C. dullness of the lung sound. The child.E. In the child. 7 years old. Objectively: hyperemia of the face. Antiedematous mixture inhalations E. has appeared: moist cough with separation of mucous-purulent phlegm. The child is 7 years old. Croup syndrome B. Myocarditis D. Tavegil B. Dense. physical retardation. more in the right.120 in 1 min. cyanosis of the lips. Objectively: slight cyanosis of perinasal triangle. * Prednizolon 141. The child is 10 years old. Pulse . II C. Once again has increased the body temperature. heart tones are weakened. hoarseness of the voice. * Pneumonia 142. inspiratory dyspnea. tip of the nose and fingers. Pulmonary tuberculosis B. V E. groiness of the back pharyngeal wall. dyspnea. The skin is clean. He has influenza for 5 days. Obstructive bronchitis E.

On X-ray: infiltrate in the right middle lobe of the lung. During percussion: a clear pulmonary sound without dullness. Community-acquired lobar pneumonia of moderate severity B. Resedive bronchitis D. A 6 year old girl has an acute onset of fever up to 39oC with chills. B. Measles. What is the diagnosis? A. and pain on respiration in the right side of her chest. He is hospitalized. Direct hemaglutination reaction E. * Community-acquired bronchopneumonia . Bronchial asthma B. Acute bronchitis E. Acute pleuritis C. considerable expiration dyspnea. respiratory rate is 80 per 1 minute. and dyspnea. lymphocytosis. Typhoid fever.36/min. There is dullness over the right lung on percussion. * The fluorescence antibody method 146.120/min. cough. Hemorrhagic fever. Percussion: dull sound. In the infectious hospital has admitted 5 years old girl with pharyngoconjunctivitis phenomena. Acute bronchopneumonia C. Aspiration of a foreign body C. Acute obstructive bronchitis B. BP. What disease is possible? A. Indirect hemaglutination reaction C. Acute bronchitis D. What method from express-diagnostics is reasonable to use to prove this diagnosis? A. The physician has suspect adenoviral infection. He is ill for 3 days. oral crepitation. 3 days ago he was in a contact with sister ill on acute upper respiratory tract viral infection. E. Laboratory findings: leukopenia. During auscultation\: puerile breathing. dry cough. Objectively: the condition is severe skin is cyanotic. C. paroxysmal cough. 145. D. Auscultation\: a plenty of wet rales in both sides. The 4-months' old child has subfibrile temperature. Acute lung abscess D. Nosocomial lobar pneumonia E. What disease is possible first of all? A. rhinitis. neutralization reaction D. On physical examination: HR . Binding complement reaction B. RR.A. Parainfluenza. increased ESR. Pediatrician was called to the 2-years old child who’s mother complaints of a subfebrile temperature. Acute pneumonia E. * Bronchiolitis 148.85/45 mm Hg. * Acute tracheitis 147. * Influenza.

* Immunofluorescent method 150. A 10-year-old boy has a history of recurrent pneumonias and chronic cough production of foul smell. fever [temperature — 40° C]. which becomes worse in the morning and in reclining position. sore throat. Which method of express- diagnostics is better to use for acknowledgement of the diagnosis? A. ocassionally gloom tinged. There is a dry. * Cephalosporins of the III generation 153. * Pneumonia croupousa 151. low-pitched sound heard in both expiration and inspiration in the left lower lateral part of the chest. Chronic obstructive emphysema E. * Bronchoectasis 152. The separation of the virus on tissue culture B. serous discharge from nose. Tetracycline E. brownish sputum appeared on the 7th day of the treatment. conjunctives. tearing. it is a chronic patient with clubbing of fingers. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for this patient? A. right hemithorax respiratory movement delays. grating. vesicular breath sounds. Penicillin D. chest pain which is worsened by breathing.5 ?С. Pulmonary neoplasm C. Chronic bronchitis D. Intestinal infection B. Bacteriosсopy investigation of pharyngeal swab E. Erythromycin B. dullness on percussion of the lower lobe of the right lung.37°C. Chest X-ray shows left lower lobe infiltrate. wet inspiratory tract at the root of lungs from behind. On physical examination: there is an expressed dyspnea. The physician suspects adenoviral infection. 8 years old. Acute bronchitis . What is the most probable diagnosis? A. A 16-year-old male was admitted to the hospital complaining of stabbing back pain on inspiration and dyspnea. On exam. purulent sputum. t . A 10-year-old boy complains of a headache. Ps 92/min. pale skin with a flush on a right cheek. Acute cholecystitis D. weakness of vesicular respiration in this region. cough. A fever of 39°C. weakness. A 14-year-old patient has been treated in a hospital. bacteriological investigation D. During examination mild hyperemia and edema of the tonsils and back pharyngeal wall. What disease causes these symptoms and signs? A. A boy. Acute appendicitis C. vomiting. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Influenza E. The abdomen is painless and soft by palpation.149. cough. RR of 24/min. Streptomycin C. Serological investigation C. On physical examination. narrowing of ocular slots were revealed. Disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis B. has addressed to pediatrician with complains of increasing of the body temperature to 37.

15 y. lag of right hemithorax respiratory movement. * Acute fibrinous pleuritis 154. cyanotic. The abdomen is painless and soft at palpation. Pneumothorax D. boy has complains on headache.o. He is pale. Actinomycosis of lungs D. expiratory wheezing throughout all lung fields. A. Pulmonary tuberculosis C. Bronchitis D. weakness.60/min. Percussion sound is shortened in the right infrascapular region. Determination of thorax form B. has intercostal and suprasternal retractions. Which disease lead to these symptoms and signs? A. Acute cholecystitis E. has had febrile temperature for over 3 days. weakness of vesicular respiration in this zone. * Determination of vital capacity of lungs 155. * Abscess of the lung 156.o. pale skin with flush on right cheek. Determination of vertebra form C. cough with considerable quantity of purulent sputum and blood with bad smell. anthropometric investigations are widely used. Bronchiectatic disease E. An 18-month-old child was taken to a hospital on the 4-th day of the disease. Physical examination reveals that the child is excitable. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. The 10 y. fever 40?С. Influenza C. dullness on percussion over low lobe of right lung. To study physical development of children and adolescents. Pneumonia C. Bronchiolitis E. Myocarditis E. * Segmentary pneumonia B. Your diagnosis: A. vomiting. * Pneumonia croupousa B.B. Choose a physiometric method of investigation from the below given. Flu 157.o. expressed dyspnea. Determination of body weight D. The disease began acutely with temperature 39. female was admitted to thoracic surgery department with fever up to 40°C. cough. Complication of liver echinococcosis B. Interstitial pneumonia 158. asthmatic child was taken to the emergency hospital because of severe coughing and wheezing for the last 24 hours. A 6 y. Intestinal infection C. There are crepitative fine bubbling rales on auscultation. RR. weakness. Acute appendicitis D. Initial treatment may include the prescription of: . X-ray picture shows non-homogeneous segment infiltration 8-10 mm on the right. Measurement of growth E. onset of pain in the side caused by deep breathing. the intensification of lung pattern. breathlessness.

Laryngospasm 161. who found: difficultly in the nose breathings. An infant aged 1 year on the third day of common cold at night developed inspiratory stridor. Acute bronchiolitis with respiratory distress E. * Acute infectious croup due to viral laryngotracheitis B. * Acute laryngotracheitis B. C. the puerile type of breathing on auscultation. The body temperature is 37. Parenteral gentamicyn 159. The child has dyspnoea. hoarse voice and barking cough. . There is no deposit.7oC. barrel-shaped chest. E. C. stridor is present. Physical examination revealed suprasternal and intercostal chest retractions. Foreign body D. The palatine arches are hyperemic.122 bpm. Auscultation of lungs reveals rough breathing sounds.800 g. The disease started 3 days ago from dry cough and nose stuffiness. Intravenous fluids in the first 2 h to compensate water deficiency D. * Difficultly in the nose breathing. D. The child complains of hoarse voice. There is a bluish skin discoloration moistly seen over the upper lip. Acute epiglottitis 160. weak excursion of ribs. Bronchial astma 162. B. Epiglottitis C. his respiratory rate is 86/minute. D.A. Acute laryngitis C. dyspnea with obstructed inspiration. Which of the above symptoms is pathological? A. A child is 2 years old. N-acetyl cysteine and cromolyn by inhalation E. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. crepitation is absent. obstructive syndrome. Objectively: general condition is unbalanced. croup syndrome. A depression of the breastbone is marked. a barrel-shaped chest. horizontal direction of ribs. their weak excursion. the bandbox type of percussion sounds. E. What disease does the infant have? A. A 4-month-old child was examined by a medical student. puerile breathing. Parainfluenza virus has been detected in nasopharynx lavage.5 C. * Salbutamol aerosol B. * respiratory distress syndrome. bandbox type of percussion sounds. Bronchopneumonia without complications D. Body temperature is 37. Diphtheria E. Heart sounds are rhythmic. A premature newborn with the gestation age of 36 weeks was born with its body mass of 1. The child's skin is pale. The respiratory rate is 52 per min and pulse. Parenteral phenobarbital C. B. congenital stridor. The most probable pathological syndrome is: A. respiratory rate of 44/minute.

roentgenography of the chest. who suffers from frequent episodes of bronchitis. examination of sputum. crepitation rales on the background of the rough breath sounds. increase of body temperature up to 37. complains of dry cough. sweating. bronchoscopy. 165. A 3-month-old infant who is suffering from acute segmental pneumonia reveals dyspnea [respiration rate — 80 per minute]. Respiration-pulse ratio is 1\2. examination of sputum. 30-80.6 with presence of clinical data. Immunologic investigation C. in 3 hours. * 40-60. * Respiratory failure of III degree B. Pneumonia D.300 g. Norma . 30-35. E. Proteinogram E. 50-70. The cardinal symptoms show respiratoty disorders\ sound prolonged expiration. What these data testify about? A. What respiratory rate must be normal in this child? A.163. Blood gases D. Assesment according to Silverman's scale was 0. 35-40. B. Congenital heart disease C. D. * Acute simple bronchitis C. roentgenography of the chest. C. The heart size is normal. hoarseness. Pulmonary emphysema B. general weakness. What are these signs indicative of? A. 30-34/minute. A child was born at 34 weeks of gestation in bad condition. spirography were advised for examination of a 4-year-old girl. Respiratory failure of II degree E. A premature newborn was born at its gestation age of 35 weeks with the body mass of 2. Which from the below investigations cannot be done at this age? A. 164. Data of physical examination\ vocal fremitus is not changed.5?С. Respiratory failure of I degree D. Its breathing is irregular. total cyanosis. tachicardia. blood count. C. additional muscles taking part in breathing. paradoxical breathing. D. * spirography. * Chest X-ray B. blood count. Now the newborn’s age is 3 weeks. What diagnostic method can determine pneumopathy's type in the child? A. Myocarditis 166. Patient D. above the lungs resonant pulmonary sound is heard. Bronchoscopy. CBC 167. B. E.

bronchiectatic disease. This type of pain is typical for A.E. exudative pleurisy. Acute sinusitis C. exudative pleurisy. D. 170. E. Atrophic rhinitis . Shortness of breath during physical exercises C. Patient T. diffuse bronchitis. diffuse bronchitis. Patient T. Fingers club bing and “drum sticks” E. complains of sharp pain in the right part of his chest at deep breathing and caugh. The body temperature is normal. This type of pain is typical for A. Patient T. dry pleurisy. complains of painful parching sensations behind the sternum during coughing as well as on dry cough. complains of sharp pain in the throat especially in swallowing. * tracheitis D. B. especially of the lower turbinate (with cyanosis). bronchitis B. 169. The 4 year child with frequent respiratory tract. * dry pleurisy. * pharyngitis C. Recurrent bronchitis or pneumonia 172. bronchitis B. Foreign body in the nose E. is typical for\ A. Hydrothorax 168. watery nasal discharges. D. What is the diagnosis? A.mild leukocytosis and eosinophilia. bronchitis. E. C. is examined in the hospital. except: A. Infective rhinitis D. E. dry pleurisy. 171. C. * Attacks of dyspnea at night B. Blood test data . Objectively .edema of nasal mucous membrane on both sides. Pain in the chest which relates to a disease of respiratory system. A 16-year-old girl complains of nasal blockage. The most typical clinical manifestations of lung malformation are the following symptoms. * Allergic rhinitis B. exudative pleurisy. which are observed from the 1st year of life. Deformation of the chest D. sneezing. bronchiectatic disease.

Pertussis D. Pediatrician was called to the 2-years old child who’s mother complaints of a subfebrile temperature. E. Auscultation: dry whistling and different moist rales. Acute simple bronchitis B. Body temperature is 37.5 years old child is sick the second day. Bronchial asthma E. pallor of skin.8°C.173. Put diagnosis. expiratory wheezing and cough. A 2 years old child has dry cough. During percussion: a clear pulmonary sound without dullness. D. C. A child 10 months was entered to the hospital in severe condition with expiratory shortness of breath. What disease is possible? A. 1. Percussion: clear pulmonary sound without dullness. What is your diagnosis? A. Auscultation reveals prolonged expiration. The 10 years old boy developed an asphyxic attack. In past history the child has had relapsing rhinitis and red eyes syndrome. Focal pneumonia C. B. the temperature 38°C. Acute bronchitis E. The correct diagnosis is: A. Acute bronchitis E. dyspnea. Pneumonia B. * bronchial asthma. Foreign body aspiration D. increased ESR. dry cough. At percussion over lungs there is tympanic sound. In the peripheral blood: leukocytosis. His sister suffers with atopic dermatitis. * Acute tracheitis D. increased ESR. Recurrent bronchitis 176. Bronchial asthma B. He is ill for 3 days. What disease is possible first of all? A. many dry wheezing and occasional wet rales on both sides. rhinitis and dry cough. restless. * Acute obstructive bronchitis C. retraction at rest.5°C. acute bronchitis. Laboratory findings: leucopenia. A. stridor. noisy breathing. * Obstructive bronchitis C. barking cough. * Laryngitis 177. Acute obstructive bronchitis B. viral croup. 174. acute obstructive bronchitis. pneumonia. body temperature is 37. During auscultation: puerile breathing. eosynophylia. Whooping cough 175. Acute pneumonia D. Pneumonia . lymphocytosis. hoarse voice. Bronchial asthma E. Bronchiolitis C.

Expiratory dyspnea C. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. bradycardia. Epiglottitis B. Mixed breathlessness B. Skin is pale. Osteoarthritis E. Sympatotonic collapse C. What complication of trauma does occur? A. Laryngeal papillomatosis B. What breathing disorder is characteristic for this situation? A. A 7 yrs old child had elevation of temperature t° to 40°C in anamnesis. Three-year-old boy was delivered to the hospital at night by ambulance. For the last 3 months he presents fusiform swelling of fingers. Foreign body of trachea E. Toxic collapse E. Foreign body of larynx D. After clinical examination the diagnosis of acute laryngitis was established. * Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis . retractions at rest. He is ill 3 days. stenotic breathing. Bronchitis 181. Hoarse breath D. * Viral false croup E. Rheumatic fever D. ankle joints and knee joints.178. Child 11 yrs old was entered to the hospital with abdominal trauma. Your diagnosis is: A. The child 6 years was admitted to the hospital with rapid breathing disorders. hoarse voice. The girl 8 months was entered to the hospital the next day of illness with complaints of increase body temperature to 39°C. On background of ARVI loud inspiratory dyspnea occurred with retraction of intercostal spaces. pain in the upper part of the sternum and cervical part of the spinal column. Stridor breath E. Septic arthritis B. Paralytic collapse B. dry. breathing with participation of auxiliary muscles. The most probable diagnose is: A. increased the difference between maximum and minimum blood pressure. * Vagotonic collapse 182. Post hemorrhagic collapse D. * Inspiratory dyspnea 179. acrocyanosis. blowing nostrils and barking cough. Bronchial asthma C. * Laryngotracheitis C. persistent red dermographism. barking cough. Doctor notes in patient hiccups. Foreign body of air ways 180. Real (diphtheric) croup D. Toxic synovitis C. salivation. He has contact with ill ARI person. vomiting.

Interphalangeal. Systemic scleroderma E. neck. HR is 100 per min. Affection of the eyes is special for: A. Infectious-allergic arthritis C. A 6 years old girl with eye problems was consulted by ophthalmologist. morning stiffness and fever up to 38oC. It is characterized with: A. Cephalosporines E. Rheumatic fever B. Diagnosis of uveitis was established. but the effect was absent. morning stiffness. A 14 year old female fell ill 3 months ago after cold exposure. Nodular peryartheriitis C. Rheumatic fever E. with reduced ranges of motions. palms there is expressed capillaritis. Systemic form of the juvenile rheumatoid arthritis was suspected. She received aspirin. * Juvenile rheumathoid arthritis 187. Objectively: integuments and visible mucous membranes are pale. delicate dyastolic murmur on the apex. A. tingling sensation in fingers. Chronic asymmetric arthritis of large joints . subfebrile temperature. Osteomyelitis E. Chronic pain and swelling of many joints in a symmetric fashion B. on the face. She is ill for 4 months. RF (+). CRP (+++). spotty rash on her face. Atopic dermatitis D. Infectious arthritis B. Joints are not changed. A 4 years old girl was hospitalized with complaints of pain and swelling in the right knee and an ankle joints. She is ill for 4 months. weakness of muscles. rash. Put a preliminary diagnosis. Girl is 8 years old. ESR of 45 mm/h. Complaints: the general malaise. rapid fatigue. subfebrile temperature. hot. rapid fatigue. Overuse syndrome D. She is ill during the year. Beginning of illness she connects with ARI. * Nonsteroid anti-inflammatory drugs 184. periodic arthralgia.Your previous diagnosis is: A. The disease began with a knee violation. She complained of pain in her hand and knee joints. * Rheumatoid arthritis 185. Beginning of illness mother connects with the rest in the summer in the south. Systemic lupus erythematosis D. metacarpophalangeal and knee joints are swollen. After 3 months the process has spread to the radiocarpal joint. Fluorchinolones D. 3 yrs old girl has fever.183. What group of medicines would you recommend to the patient? A. Cardiac tones are rhythmic. Tetracyclines C. arthritis and signs of inflammation of internal organs. Systemic lupus erythematosis B. Acute rheumatic lever C. weakened. There are complaints of pain and swelling in the right knee and a ankle joints. Sulfonamides B. * Raynaud's Syndrome 186.

movements of legs are limited. These symptoms appeared 8 days ago. * All mentioned above 191. muscle weakness. The 14-years old girl has the complaints of presence of white colour patches on the wrists. A 8 years old girl was hospitalized with complaints of pain and swelling in the left knee and left ankle joints. legs and face. These patches are cold. Palpation of the shin muscles is painful. What treatment would be prescribed? A. The 8 years old boy complaints of body temperature 37. General blood analysis . The movements of wrists joints are not limited. Hemarthrosis E.8?C. Serum muscle enzymes (CK. General blood analysis E. Penicillamine B. No changes in the inner organs were found. LDH. No changes in the inner organs were founded. There is hyperemia of the oral cavity. ANA test B. Purpuric skin rash D. subfebrile temperature. Pentoxifylline C. What observation is the most helpful to confirm the diagnosis? A. These patches are cold.C. Beginning of illness she connects with ARI. Hemarthrosis E. From the anamnesis is known that she had signs of Raynaud's syndrome the year before and there is decreased sensitivity of hands and feet now. * Evanescent salmon-pink macular rash 188. legs and face. multiple ulcers on the gingiva. firm. The 14-years old girl has the complaints of presence of white colour patches on the wrists. morning stiffness. MRI C. From the anamnesis is known that she had signs of Raynaud's syndrome the year before and there is decreased sensitivity of hands and feet now. * Skin biopsy 190. Hepatosplenomegaly B. thick and dry. Cyclophosphamide D. ANA test B. * Chronic asymmetric arthritis of large joints 189. and/or aldolase) D. No changes in the inner organs were founded. MRI C. Localized scleroderma was diagnosed. rapid fatigue. During examination was noticed violet-colored rash on eyelids and around the nails.CPK. Purpuric skin rashes D. Physiotherapy E. pain in knees and legs. She is ill for 4 months. Angiography D. The movements of wrists joints are not limited. What observation is the most helpful to confirm the diagnosis? A. Pauciarticular form of the juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by: A. thick and dry. Salmon-pink macular rashes C. periorbital edema.4 – 37. firm.

The 16-years old boy has the complaints of skin discoloration on the face and feeling of “hard skin” around the mouth. tachycardia. hardness in flexion of wrist fingers. The 16-years old boy has the complaints of skin discoloration on the face and feeling of “hard skin” around the mouth. In ultrasound examination was diagnosed heart fibrosis. decreased sensitivity in the hands and feet. Raynaud's syndrome E. ANA test B. Put the most probable diagnosis. Polyarteritis nodosa D. * Skin biopsy 195. During examination were found: painful calcium deposits under the skin. Atopic gingivatis B. During examination there were registered dull heart sounds. Put the diagnosis. A boy 10 years old has complaints of significant fatigue. According anamnesis data was revealed abnormal sensitivity to cold in the hands and feet. * Juvenile dermatomyositis 193. Also there is swelling of wrists joints and limited but painless movements in these joints. * Skin and muscle biopsy 192. General blood analysis. Also there is swelling of wrists joints and limited but painless movements in these joints. MRI. During examination there were registered dull heart sounds. CT C. tachycardia. fever. In ultrasound examination was diagnosed heart fibrosis. his mom thinks that his disease is provoked with overcooling. Restrictic cardiomyopathy E. The 17-years old girl came to hospital because of dysphagia symptoms. decreased sensitivity in the hands and feet. A. Polyneuropathy E. JDM C. JRA B. A. Polyarteritis nodosa C. The movements in hand joints are painless and decreased.E. Put the diagnosis. Systemic vasculitis C. During examination: the weight of patient is less than normal. ECG E. He is ill during 5 months. tightening of the skin on the fingers or toes and presence of dilated capillaries on the hands and face. Systemic vasculitis B. * Progressive Systemic Sclerosis . dysphagia. pallor and cyanosis of hands and feet. What observation is the most helpful to confirm the diagnosis? A. Localized scleroderma D. EchoCG D. Three months ago in this boy was diagnosed stomach ulcer. there are firm small tubercles under the skin and in the muscles. Myastenia gravis D. * Scleroderma systemica 194. A. The oral cavity mucosa is dry with hemorrhages.

liver and spleen. * Juvenile dermatomyositis 197. The 12-years old girl has the complaints of presence of white colour bands on the arms and legs.65mm/hour. In general blood analysis . From the anamnesis is known that she had signs of Raynaud's syndrome the year before and there is decreased sensitivity of hands and feet now. Obliterised endarteriitis E.leukocytes 27x109/l. Coombs test B. Myastenia gravis D. Palpation of the shin muscles is painful. increased immunoglobulin "M" and "G". hard movements of the head. Put the diagnosis. Two weeks ago was ARI with tonsillitis. Polyneuropathy D. Sepsis B. * Localized scleroderma 198. localized in the joints. Laboratory examination shows leucocytosis l0xl09n 1 liter. Atopic gingivatis B.tachycardia. The disease have acute onset: hyperthermia. muscle weakness.8 – 38. During examination was noticed violet-colored rash on eyelids and around the nails. increase of peripheral lymph nodes.196. Atopic dermatitis B. Systemic vasculitis C. US of joints E. Put your diagnosis. Leukemia E.2?C. After anti- inflammatory drugs the pain became less intensive. No changes in the inner organs were founded. What examination will help to put early diagnosis of JRA? A. Put the diagnosis. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. allergic rash. knees and decrease of movements in these joints especially in the morning. movements of legs are limited. The girl describes the feelings at the areas of lesions presence like “tightening” or “compression”. Patient 10 years old admitted to the hospital with intermittent high fever. 10-year old girl was hospitalized to the children's department with a pain. These symptoms appeared 4 days ago. CRP C. Which of the following diagnoses is most probable? A. periorbital edema. deformation of knee joints with decrease movements in them and neck. Pheumatoid factor D. muscle weakness. A. Polyneuropathy E. . pain in knees and legs. ESR. A. dysfunctional speech. pain and swelling in the knee and ankle joints. multiple ulcers on the gingiva. * Biopsy of synovial membrane 199. The 13 years old girl complaints of body temperature 37. No changes in the inner organs were found. Systemic vasculitis C. Auscultation picture . high body temperature. blowing mitral murmur. * Systemic juvenile rheumatoid arthritis 200. A boy 5 years old was hospitalized because of pain in the neck. Rheumatc fever D. erythrocyte sedimentation rate 30 mm/hour C-reactive protein "+++". pain and edema of joints. but decreasing of active movements still remained. thick and dry. Mother notes that symptoms are developed 2 weeks ago after attack of pharyngitis. These bands are firm. During examination: skin pallor. There is hyperemia of the oral cavity. ESR .

CHF. the liver is enlarged by 7 cm. ESR is 30 mm/hour. * Rheumatic fever.3 B. CHF. weakness of Sound 1. diffuse urticaria.2 B . weakness and loss of weight. weak systolic murmur near apex. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis B.5°C and ankle dysfunction. B.0 D. myocarditis. Thrombocytopenia purpure D. swollen cervical veins. A 10-year-old boy complains of joint pain and impossibility of movement in left knee and right elbow.92. Delagyl E. A.A. tachycardia. What from these is the most expedient in treatment? A. 9 years old girl has rheumatoid arthritis. 3 years ago he had myocardial infarction. acrocyanosis. Exudative perycarditis C.5 IU. Nonrheumatic carditis. total heart enlargement. breathless and swelling of feet. tooth extraction one month ago. feet joints. 2 weeks ago he had tonsillitis Physical examination: t . Recurrence of rheumatic fever B. pancarditis. Ascultation: diastolic murmur in the mitral area. Petechical lesion a round clavicle spleen was palpable. * CHF. CHF. Aortic stenosis E. Which diagnosis corresponds to such symptoms? A. * Acute rheumatic heart disease E. Aspirin C. shin edema. On examination: t° — 39° С. system form that manifests by expressed deformation and pain in knees. * Subacute bacterial endocarditis 203. patient of rheumatic heart disease complains of anorexia. Mitral stenosis C. CRP (+++). acute duration 201. A 10 y.1 E. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Reactive arthritis 204. hepatosplenomegaly. pulse is 120/min. high temperature. enlargement of cardiac dullness on 2 cm. Fibroelastosis of endomyocardium E. heart pains. Ps . Physical examination: orthopnea. gallop rhythm. What is the stage of chronic heart failure (CHF)? A. CHF. cervical part of the spine. Septic endomyocarditis D. Methothrexat B. * Prednisolone pulse-therapy 202.38. A 12 year old patient complains of rest dyspnea.o. seromucoid 1. Macropen D. Reiter's disease C.2 А C.

Heart borders are dilated. Seromucoid B.4 mm/h. Rheumatoid vasculitis D. with reduced ranges of motions ESR of 45 mm/h. A 7 y. Rheumatic factor E.o. ankle joints and knee joint. rhythmic.o. A 14 year old patient complains of chest pain. 5°C. * Antistreptolysine-0 209. * Rheumatic pancarditis 207. Rheumatic endocarditis C. A 15 y. male patient complains of pain in knee and ankle joints. soft systolic apical murmur. Atlanto-axial subluxation of cervical spine B. pulse — 106 bpm. ESR . He is in grave condition. hot. Sensory peripheral neuropathy C. temperature elevation to 39. Septic arthritis B. The most likely cause is? A. A 14 year old female fell ill 3 months ago after cold exposure. swollen knee and ankle joints. * Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs 206. Vaaler- Rouse test of 1:128. Rheumatic myocarditis E. sounds are weakened. female with rheumatoid arthritis of five years duration complains of pain in the first three fingers of her right hand over past 6 weeks. The skin is pale. What indicator is connected with possible etiology of the process? A. Tetracyclines C. heart sounds are quiet. He had acute tonsillitis 2 weeks ago. Cephalosporines E. heart borders without changes. Rheumatoid arthritis without complication E.0 - 1260. temperature up to 38. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. breathlessness. Rheumatic pericarditis D.205. Electrocardiogram\: the descent of QRS voltage. Above total heart area you can hear pericardium friction sound. Interphalangeal. Septic endocarditis B. On examination: temperature — 38. metacarpophalangeal and knee joints are swollen. 1-antitrypsine D. Your diagnosis: A. She complained of pain in her hand and knee joints. * Carpal tunnel syndrome 208. Fluorchinolones D. pain in the upper part of the sternum and cervical part of the spinal column. morning stiffness and fever up to 38oC. AP — 90/60 mm Hg.5°C. the inversiont. What group of medicines would you recommend the patient? A. CRP (+++). child had elevation of temperature tol 40°C in anamnesis. The liver is enlarged by 3 cm. ASL . For the last 3 months he presents fusiform swelling of fingers. Creatinkinase C.5 week ago. Toxic synovitis . The pain seems especially severe at night often awakening her from sleep.5oC. He had a respiratory disease 1. C-reactive protein +++. A 16 y. Sulfonamides B.o.

Bronchiolitis D. What medication should be prescribed? A. acrocyanosis.50/min. What is the most likely reason of child condition worsening? A. Erythromycin B. primary rheumocarditis. Diprazinum D. Ventricular septal defect C. edema of joints. Osteoarthrits E. Rheumatic fever D. * Prednisone 211. clean. radix pulmonis resembles butterfly wings. * Juvenile rheumatic arthritis 210. What diagnosis is possible to suspect? . In 2 weeks he started complaining of migratory joint pain. activity of the III-rd degree.C.100 from І normal pregnancy. periodic cyanosis of the child during feeding. Cefazolin C. Erythromycin D. The neonatal boy was born with weight 3. * Tetralogy of Fallot B. The boy of 3 months has poor increase in mass at satisfactory appetite. Delagil B. Suddenly he develops anxiety. * Prednisone 213. On X-ray: cardiomegaly.132 per min. polyarthritis. BR . Delagyl E. Coarctation of aorta E. Ps. activity of the III-rd degree. skin pink. What diagnosis is possible to suspect? A. pO2 60 mmHg. acute course of disease. In 2 weeks he started complaining of migratory joint pain. cardiovascular failure II A. rough systolic murmur in ІІ intercostal to the left of a breast bone. polyarthritis acute course of disease. amplification of lung pattern. is maximum in ІІІ left intercostal area. A 8-year-old boy has suffered from tonsillitis. fever. rough systolic murmur in all points. Pulmonary abscess B. On examination: an acute rheumatic heart disease. cardiovascular failure IIA. paleness and xeroderma. * Pulmonary edema C. an acute rheumatic heart disease. Cefazolin E. which one past with toxicosis during the first trimester. A 1-year-old child with fibroelastosis fell ill with acute respiratory viral infection. What medication is to be prescribed? A. edema of joints. A 6-year-old boy has suffered from tonsillitis. the changes on the part of heart are auscultated from birth. Angioneurotic (Quincke's) edema 212. restriction of movements. deficit of weight 15 %. pCO2 55mm Hg. has cried at once. Stenosis of pulmonary artery D. On examination. Diprazinum C. small bubbling rales in lower lungs. fever. primary rheumocarditis. Double-sided pneumonia E. Atrial septal defect 214. restriction of movements.

EchoCG: moderate dilatation of the left ventricle. A 1. deficiency of mass 24%. Birth trauma E. Anemia of pregnant women 216.5 years girl with problematic obstetrics anamnesis. Ventricular septum defect C. Subacute C. Over the last 2 years he has had 3 rheumatic attacks. without the morphological changes. A 14-year-old boy has rheumatic fever. Exudative perycarditis D. Latent E. edema.A. What diagnosis the most probable in this case? A. Patent ductus arterioses B. Coarctation of aorta D. Pheochromocytoma E. Late congenital carditis was diagnosed. What can be the reason of late congenital carditis? A. Rheumatic myocarditis B. arterial pressure on hands-180/100. What disease can be in this case? A. decrease of physical development. * Fibroelastosis 217. a hypersthenic constitution. Persistent-reccurent . Hereditary predilection B. with the tendency to increase. expressed cardiomegalia. * Prolonged B. * Acute respiratory infection in the last trimester of pregnancy C. systolic murmur on apex and between scapulae. Renal hypertension C. dizziness. Prenatal malnutrition D. a tachycardia. Hereditary nonrheumatic carditis E. What course of rheumatic fever does the patient have? A. such complaints are present during 6 months. * Atrial septal defect 215. and quantity of heart beating-145. noise in ears. liver +4sm. physical development normal. which are interrupted by medicines. The 10-year-old girl marks a frequent headache. proof arrhythmias from birth. During objective examination: paleness of skin and mucus. Essentsial hypertension B. Child 2 month was born premature. * Coartation of aorta D. cardiomegalia. Stenosis of pulmonary artery E. Clinically: mild cardiomegaly. quantity of breathing-52 per minute with participation of additional muscles. Acute D. hypokinesia of its walls. Acute no rheumatic carditis C. Stenosis of aorta 218.

sense of heat in the upper half of body. A 27-year-old patient with a history of bronchial asthma was stung by a bee. Percussion sound is shortened in the right infrascapular region. ECG shows overload of the left heart. * Infectious endocarditis C. Methylxanthines 221. Bronchiolitis 220. X-ray picture shows non-homogeneous segment infiltration 8-10 mm on the right. Aortic regurgitation 223. He is pale. Rheumatic fever B. cyanotic. spleen is palpable. Acute nephritis D. Objectively: skin and visible mucous membranes are of normal colour. Cardiac glycosides E. systolic and diastolic murmurs above aorta. Your diagnosis: A. The child has had cardiac murmur since birth. There are crepitative fine bubbling rales on auscultation. Ps.90/60 mm Hg. * Aortal insufficiency E. dizziness. BP of 140/30 mm Hg. AP . sibilant rales. Mitral stenosis B. tachycardia. Auscultation revealed systolo. difficult expiration. Interstitial pneumonia C. cough. Liver is enlarged by 3 cm. Grippe B. An 18-month-old child was taken to a hospital on the 4-th day of the disease.diastolic murmur and diastolic shock above the pulmonary artery. What drug group should be administered in the first place? A. convulsions. Anticonvulsive B.219. rough respiration above lungs. breath shortage. * Glucocorticoids D. Petechial rash occurs after measurement of blood pressure. * Segmentary pneumonia D. A boy is 8 year old. the intensification of lung pattern. AP- 100/70 mm Hg. Auscultation revealed weak rhythmic heart sounds. What heart failure does the child have? A. Mitral insufficiency C. weakness. His physical development is compliant with his age. abdominal pain. has had febrile temperature for over 3 days.110 bpm. Rheumatic fever 222. Acute hepatitis E. apparent itch. breathlessness. dyspnea. Objectively: noisy wheezing breath. He had a sensation of chest compression. Urine is brown-yellow. Aortal stenosis D. A 16-year-old boy with a history of rheumatic fever complains of fever up to 38-39oC. What is the most likely diagnosis? . heart shadow of normal form. Roentgenoscopy shows coarsening of the lung pattern. Bronchitis E. The patient with aquired heart failure has diastolic pressure of 0 mm Hg. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Analgetics C. The disease began acutely with temperature 39. Heart borders are displaced to the left by 2 cm.

What is the most probable diagnosis? A. ANA 1:640 speckled.. * 1 cm left from the left medioclavicular line D. Patent ductus arteriosus 224. Physical examination demonstrates swelling of her right knee. tachycardia. Lab. flexion contracture of 10 degrees and flexion to 120 degrees. Rheum. Hgb 120 g/l. data: WBC 8 g/l. * Ventricular septal defect D. 1 cm right from the left parasternal line 226. This murmur is conducted above the whole cardiac region to the back. Examination of a 9-month-old girl revealed skin pallor. Aorta coarctation E. What congenital cardiac pathology can be suspected? A.A. 47 lymphs\%. suffers from rheumatic fever. * Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis E. An infant was born with body mass 3 kg and body length 50 cm. Pulmonary artery stenosis C. Coarctation of aorta B. Rheumatic fever C. Pulmonary artery stenosis C.. 1 cm left from he left parasternal line B. Now he is 3 years old. cyanosis during excitement. A 4 year old female has been limping with swelling of her right knee for several months. Atrial septal defect 225. 1 cm right from the left medioclavicular line C. Percussion revealed transverse dilatation of cardiac borders. * Atrio-septal defect D. During examination at a military commissariat a 15-year-old teenager was found to have interval systolic murmur on the cardiac apex. Rheography E. Mother asked the doctor for a cardiac check up of the 3- year-old son. Infection Arthritis . His brother is 7 years old. * Echocardiography 227. ESR 20mm/h. Tetralogy of Fallot E. factor neg. Where is the left relative heart border located? A. Fallot's tetrad B. with 45\% neutr. 8\% mon. Electrocardigraphy D. Phonocardiography C. Auscultation revealed continuous systolic murmur on the left from the breastbone in the 3-4 intercostal space. Lupus D. Which of the supplemental examination methods will be the most informative for the diagnosis specification? A. Along the left medioclavicular line E. Osteomyelitis B. diastolic shock above the pulmonary artery. Roengenography B.

An 1 month old female presents to the intensive care unit with severe cyanosis. Systemic lupus erythematosus E. A 9 year old boy is ill for 3 days. knee joints pain. The administration of bicillin-5 every month during 3 years D. systemic lupus erythematodes . * Tetralogy of Fallot E. hypertrophia of right ventricle. Systolic murmur in 3rd intercostal interspace on the left side. The administration of bicillin-5 every month during a year C. He has complaints on pain and restriction of movements in right knee and left elbow joints. * Acute rheumatic fever B. The electrocardiogram shows right axis deviation and right ventricular hyperthrophy. Complaints of parents: low weight gain. There are fever (38. a day before ankle pain. She was treated in-patient department within 1. normal first sound. congestive heart failure. common weakness and cardiac pain. systolic murmur under 2nd intercostals interspace on the right side of the sternum. Pneumonia D. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Now-rheumatic carditis C. left to right shunt B. ventricular septal defect D.228. An 8 years old girl had had a rheumatic fever manifested with chorea and carditis 6 months ago. It is known he was ill with acute tonsillitis two weeks ago. Congenital lung malformation E. The administration of bicillin-3 every month during a year E. attacks of dyspnoea and cyanosis which amplify at a physical load. What disease should be suspected? A. The thoracic roentgenogram shows cardiomegaly with narrow base and plethoric lung fields. right to left shunt C. * Congenital heart disease. dyspnoea. HR . Rheumatoid arthritis. weakness of 1st sound. extension of the borders of cordial dullness on 2 cm left. Reactive arthritis 231. What diagnosis should be suspected? A. Congenital heart disease.110 per 1 min. infectious endocarditis C. Now she is under long term observation by the rheumocardiologist in children out-patient department. The prevention therapy of rheumatic fever relapse foresees: A.5 months.00C. tenderness in active and passive movements. single second sound and an insignificant one to two ejection systolic murmur. A 3 month old child has admitted to hospital to diagnose the reason for cardiac murmur. What diagnosis should be suspected? A. oedema of joints. The administration of bicillin-3 every month during 3 years B. Physical examination reveals left heart border external shift. Bronchiolitis 229. D. He was suffered from acute tonsillitis 2 weeks ago. non frequent cardiac premature bites. atrial septal defect 230. hypertrophyc cardiomyopathy B. * Rheumatic fever B.5 C). * The administration of bicillin-5 every month during 5 years 232. "soft" systolic murmur on an apex. A 12 yr old boy complains of slight fever up to 38.

an absent pulsation on the femoral arteries. Myocardium and pericardium E. Acute nonrheumatic carditis was diagnosed. These complaints developed gradually. Kawasaki illness B. Acute nonrheumatic carditis was diagnosed. Cardiac sclerosis D. What pathology can be suspected at the patient? A. cardiomegalia. A 6 month old girl is ill during 10 days. Acute myocarditis B. juvenile rheumatoid arthritis D. a hypotonia of muscles of the feet. * Coartation of aorta 234. Parents of the 7-year-old boy come to the neurologist with complaints of decrease in his movement activity. The forecast during acute nonrheumatic carditis . progressive left-heart cardiac insufficiency. Aneurysm of aorta D. soft systolic murmur on the apex. * Pain in joints 237. Early hereditary carditis belongs to: A. Clinically it was revealed cardiomegaly. During nonrheumatic carditis is surprised more often: A. soft systolic murmur on the apex. arrhythmias. The disease began acutely with high temperature and catarrhal syndrome. systolic murmur in intrascapular region. For acute nonrheumatic carditis is not characteristic: A. Endartereitis of femoral arteries E. Clinically it was revealed cardiomegaly. refraction to the therapy. shortness of breath. Bradycardia E. Tachycardia B. Chronic myocarditis 236. Pericardium D. weakness of heart tones. At examination: irregularity of development of the upper and lower parts of body. decline of appetite. without any reason. A 2 month old child. formation of cardiac hump. decline of appetite.C. Reiter’s disease E. Endocardium C. During objective examination: paleness of skin and mucus. Child 5 yrs old was entered to the hospital with complaints of weakness. * Myocardium 235. weakness of heart tones. arrhythmias. reactive arthritis 233. Child 8 yrs old was entered to the hospital with complaints of weakness. Dullness of heart tones D. All covers of heart B. Takajasu Illness C. * Fibroelastosis C. its rapid progress. shortness of breath. Myocardiodistrophy E. Cardiomegalia C. dyspnea. disturbance of walking. acrocyanosis. Clinically: cardiomegaly at birth.

weakness of heart tones. Death till 6 years 238. Digoxin C. Fibroelastosis was diagnosed. arrhythmias. Indometacin . progressive left-heart cardiac insufficiency. Digoxin D. Death till 1 year E. Death till 3 years D. * Delagil E. Clinically it was revealed cardiomegaly. Cardinal in treatment of fibroelastosis is: A. * Recovering 239. weak heart tones. tachyarrhythmia. Preparation of choise is: A. Death till 1 year D. Child 7 yrs old was entered to the hospital with complaints of weakness. formation of cardiac hump. Chronic nonrheumatic carditis is diagnosed. Delagil D. Mother interrupted therapy after 1 month of treatment. shortness of breath. Preparation of choise during acute nonrheumatic carditis is: A. Clinically it is observed periodic cardialgias. Clinically: cardiomegaly at birth. Catheterisation of heart cavities C. Cardiac insufficiency C. * Aspirin 241. Death till 3 years C. Child 7 yrs old had acute nonrheumatic carditis 2 year ago. Mother interrupted therapy after 1 month of treatment. Child 7 yrs old had acute nonrheumatic carditis 1 year ago. A. decline of appetite. its rapid progress. Antibiotic therapy 240. cardiac hump and signs of cardiac failure. * Heart transplantation D. Prednisolone C.A. 1 year ago it was relapse of carditis. * Recovering B. Child is 3 month old. Clinically it is revealed physical retardation. functional systolic murmur. Surgical correction of infringements of hemodynamics B. Hormones therapy E. Aspirin B. soft systolic murmur on the apex. Lasix E. Planquenil B. Acute nonrheumatic carditis was diagnosed. Subacute nonrheumatic carditis is diagnosed. The illness during all life E. refraction to the therapy. The forecast is: B.

How can you characterize the patent ductus arteriosus? A. * Acyanotic heart defect with left-to-right shunt D. Clinical examination permits to suspect congenital heart disease. shortness of breath. 5 mg/kg E. erythrocytopenia C. Instrumental observations were prescribed. cardiac hump and signs of cardiac failure. Cyanotic heart defect with right-to-left shunt B. 1 year ago it was relapse of carditis.5 – 4. arrhythmia. Child 9 yrs old was entered to the hospital with complaints of weakness. Cardonat E. * Polycythemia. What heart defect is characterized by round.242. Acquired heart disease C. Thrombocytosis. * Metiluracil B. The daily dose of prednisolon during acute nonrheumatic carditis is: A. From 2 weeks sudden episodes of bluish skin from crying or feeding was observed.5 – 2. Acute nonrheumatic carditis was diagnosed.5 mg/kg C. Fosphaden D. continuous machine-like murmur. Clinical examination of child has revealed tachycardia. * 0. Aortic stenosis E. weakness of heart tones. apple-shaped heart during X-ray examination? A. Chronic nonrheumatic carditis is diagnosed. arrhythmias. Clinically it is revealed physical retardation.5 – 1. 1. Hypohemoglobinemia. high blood viscosity 245. shortness of breath. 3. cardiomegaly. Drug which does not improve function of myocardium is: A. elevation of ESR B. Fallout tetralogy B. * Tricuspid atresia 246. high blood viscosity D. decline of appetite.5 – 3. What are the blood compensatory mechanisms in cyanotic defects? A. Atrial septal defect D. 2. respiratory problems. Leucocytosis with left shift.5 mg/kg B. low blood viscosity.5 mg/kg 243. Child was born in term. Clinically it is observed tachycardia. Riboxin 244. hyperhemoglobinemia. Child 1 month was born in term.5 mg/kg D. Child 10 yrs old had acute nonrheumatic carditis 2 year ago. Hypohemoglobinemia E. Patent ductus arteriosus is diagnosed clinically. Mildronat C. soft systolic murmur on the apex. Leucocytopenia. Clinically it was revealed cardiomegaly. Pulmonary stenosis C. Mother interrupted therapy after 1 month of treatment. Acyanotic heart defect without shunt . dyspnea at physical activity.

The I degree of heart failure B. A patient. nausea. Botulism . Carditis B. The 0 degree of heart failure E. 2A C. Seduxen B. P wave is absent. On ECG: tachycardia with heartbeat rate of 220/min.. On ECG: changes in the form of a trough-shaped displacement of ST segment below isoline and frequent ventricular extrasystoles. Myocardiodystrophy D. 4th 250. Novocainamides D. The III degree of heart failure D. Early inborn carditis was diagnosed. diminished heart sounds and rough systolic murmur on the apex and Erb’s point. steadfast tachyarrythmia. dyspnea. undergoes inpatient treatment. * Cardiac glycosides overdose E. increasing liver to 3cm. * 2-B E. A 5-year-old child had an attack of palpitation with nausea. Acute renal failure B. Myocardiosclerosis 248. The II B degree of heart failure 251. liquid emptying. 3rd D. Such clinical findings are character to: A. Acute meningoencephalitis D. Strophantin E. * The II A degree of heart failure C. What is the most probable cause of these changes? A. Potassium overdose C. hepatomegaly +2 cm. disturbance of color vision. respiratory rate is 47 per min. Isoptin C. During examination of the 4 months old boy were revealed: cardiomegaly. headache.E. moderate edema on legs. ventricle complexes are deformed and widened. auscultation: normal lung sound. * Lidocain 249. suffering from heart failure. Exacerbation of underlying disease C. Complication of the congenital heart disease 247. Girl 7 years in the hospital with congestive heart failure is receiving digoxin. generalized fatigue. During examination of 1 year child next findings were observed: mild peryoral cyanosis.. What medication is to be prescribed to provide first aid? A. What is the most likely cause of this complication? A. anorexia. On the fifth day of treatment there were vomiting. What degree of the cardiac insufficiency has this child? A. 1st B. dizziness. 14 yrs old. stagnant wheezes in lungs. pulse rate is 144 beats/min.

Bronchiolitis C. A child 12 years old suffers from rheumatic mitral heart defect. bubbling breath. There are air of long suffering on his face and cyanosis of the lips. Heart rate is 150 per 1 min. Liver is on the costal arch. After exercise there was shortness of breath. What did cause the deterioration of the patient? A. A child is 13 years old. * Dygitalis intoxication 252. * Pulmonary edema E. What emergency state has developed in a child? A. On the background of acute respiratory viral infections increased shortness of breath. cough with frothy sputum release. Total acute heart failure C. * Acute left ventricular failure 253. left ventricular type C.E. * Acute left ventricular heart failure D. Acute vascular insufficiency E. fine moist rales in the lower areas of lungs. general weakness. Angioneurotic edema D. Acute right ventricular heart failure B. unproductive cough. Acute heart failure is a total type B. roots are as butterfly wings.110/60mm Hg. In the lungs on the background of hard breathing in low back areas variegated moist rales are listened. On X-ray: . Acute heart failure. there was a feeling of tightness in the chest. Lung abscess 254. Exacerbation is the result of: A. Acute vascular insufficiency D. He has combined rheumatic mitral valve defects with predominance of failure. What emergency state has developed in a child? A. pCO2 55mm Hg. The position is semi-sitting. a dry cough. Both sides pneumonia B. increased pulmonary pattern. pulse 132 per minute. AP . Increase in total peripheral resistance E. Bronchoobstructive syndrome C. HR . Pulse on peripheral vascular is weak filling. A 16-year old girl with mitral stenosis after exercise there was a mixed attack of breathlessness.cardiomegaly. * Acute heart failure. Left auricular acute failure B. On auscultation on the background of hard breathing there are different-sized moist rales. In children 1 year with fibroelastosis on the background of ARI suddenly appeared anxious. AP is 140/95mm Hg. Acute right ventricular failure D. paroxysmal cough. Acute respiratory failure E. acrocyanosis. right ventricular type 255. Chronic left ventricular failure . pO2 60mm Hg. BR 50 per min.120 per 1 minute.

256. * Cancel digoxin. nausea. In the 2-month age appeared dyspnea to 60 per minute. wave P merges with T. increasing of liver 3cm below costal arch edge. Ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia E. bubbling secreations on the lips. vomiting. prescribe potassium preparations. Your tactics is: A. swelling of neck veins. Acute respiratory failure 257. Patient 15 years with mitral heart defect is treated by digoxin (0. Ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia . Acute heart right-type insufficiency E. constricting pain in the chest. Add to digoxin indomethacin B. Put the diagnosis. What complication did occur? A. frequent ventricular extrasystoles. ECG pulse is 240 per 1 minute. vomiting. vomiting. prescribe atropine subcutaneously D. feels a lack of air. On ECG pulse is 260 per 1 minute. At 10 day of treatment appeared acute heartbeat. Acute right heart failure with sinus tachycardia C. pain in the epigastric region. dizziness. Acute left heart failure with sinus tachycardia B. Preparation of potassium B. The most likely cause of worsening of the child condition is associated with: A. Total heart failure with sinus tachycardia D. * Supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia D.04g twice a week). Child feels fear. there are acrocyanosis. Pulse is weak. The boy in the maternity hospital was diagnosed congenital heart defects (ventricular septum defect). suffering from mitral stenosis.00025g twice daily) and furosemid (0. Nonsteroid anti-inflammatory drugs C. Total heart failure with sinus tachycardia 260. Reduce digoxin dose in 2 times C. tachycardia to 170 beats per minute. Skin is pale. Replace digoxin on strophantin i/v E. Cancel digoxin. attack and dyspnea. unitiol i/m 258. Glucocorticoids E. heart rate can not be counting. Acute left heart failure with sinus tachycardia B. pain in the epigastric region. dizziness. after playing basketball has increasing breathing. Acute right heart failure with sinus tachycardia C. Child 10yrs old with acute carditis complains of discomfort in the heart. constricting pain in the chest. A. Cardiac total insufficiency C. The boy 12 years. * Cardiac glycosides 259. Beta-blockers D. What preparations should be priority to the child? A. Child 10yrs old with acute carditis complains of discomfort in the heart. Acute vascular insufficiency B. In the lungs (back basal areas) there are fine moist rales. * Cardiac left-type insufficiency D. complexes QRS are not changed.

complexes QRS are changed (ventricular extrasystoles).E. Novocainamid B. vomiting. Acute right heart failure with sinus tachycardia C. What treatment must be prescribed? A. Isoptin B. fear. Child 10 yrs old with acute carditis complains of heart beating. pain in the epigastric region. dizziness. constricting pain in the chest. Syndrome of premature ventricular excitation was diagnosed. What medicines must be introduced intravenously first of all? A. * Amiodaron . Supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia C. He has a history of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation from 4 days of age. lack of air. pain in the epigastric region. Acute left heart failure with sinus tachycardia B. constricting pain in the chest. Child 10yrs old with acute carditis complains of discomfort in the heart. dizziness. constricting pain in the chest. He was treated for "family convulsant syndrome". Lidocain E. * Cordaron 265. frequent isolated ectopic extrasystoles (more than 5 per min). wave P is absent. Ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia B. Child 10yrs old with acute carditis complains of discomfort in the heart. Put the diagnosis. Isoptin C. wave P merges with T. Child 10yrs old with acute carditis complains of discomfort in the heart. ECG pulse is 240 per 1 minute. Potassium orotatis E. complexes QRS are changed (ventricular extrasystoles). * Lidocain C. Phenobarbital D. On ECG all T-wave are abnormal. wave P is absent. Corglucon D. dizziness. * Congenital elongation of QT interval E. superimposed on T waves preceding cardiac cycle. the final part of the T wave in V-4 lead is greater in amplitude than the initial part. constricting pain in the chest. Total heart failure with sinus tachycardia D. Corglucon D. Lidocain C. A. and group polytopic extrasystoles. * Supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia 261. Congenital carditis 263. vomiting. Congenital sinus tachycardia D. A. Novocainamid B. Put the diagnosis. What medicines must be introduced intravenously first of all? A. The 12-year-old boy had a first episode of syncope in 10 years. * Ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia 262. complexes QRS are not changed. ECG pulse is 180 per 1 minute. ECG: early ventricular extrasystoles. pain in the epigastric region. T wave in V-4 lead is particularly changed. vomiting. Supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia E. ECG pulse is 180 per 1 minute. Isoptin 264.

Child is 1yr old. Put diagnose. bradycardia. To restore vascular tone it is necessary to enter: A. tinnitus with the following brief loss of consciousness. Ventricular fibrillations B. Post hemorrhagic collapse E. Atrial fibrillations B. Blood pressure is lowered. On background of severe pneumonia child became adinamic. urine output is significantly reduced. The patient falls to the floor. vomiting. cold. Put the diagnosis. Acute heart failure C. react to light. Marbling of the skin. The first heart tone is flapping. consciousness is darkened. dizziness. Extremities are cold. nausea. Ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia 267. A. Heart sounds are loud. tonic seizures occur. Neurotoxicosis E. Sympatotonic collapse 269. * Syncope D. tense. dizziness. facial features are sharp. convulsions. cyanosis of nasolabial triangle and vomiting. * Mezaton or adrenalin . pale skin. A. vomiting appear. Breathing is shallow. Child is 6yrs old. bradypnea. Vagotonic collapse D. Skin is pale. Right heart failure D. Paralytic collapse B. Child 10 yrs old with acute carditis complains of discomfort in the heart. blood pressure is decreased. What complication did occur? A. pallor cyanosis. n the ECG there is the replacement of normal P wave rapid oscillations. Sinus tachycardia E. Acute renal failure B. A. refusal to eat. Electric defibrillation 266. tachycardia 160 per min. reflexes are increased. stop respiratory rhythm. tachypnea. wave P merges with T. complexes QRS are not changed. Patient is exiting. Vagotonic collapse C.E. Supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia D. pulse is thready. the empty veins are observed . Put the diagnosis. * Atrial fibrillations C. urine output is decreased. Heart sounds are muffled. pain in the epigastric region. cool extremities. ECG pulse is 240 per 1 minute. excessive sweating. clammy sweat. Suddenly loss of consciousness. Mother complaints of marked anxiety. Put the diagnosis. weak pulse. rising of systolic blood pressure. constricting pain in the chest. Total heart failure E. This is accompanied by a darkening of the eyes. During procedure of taking blood in boy for general blood analysis weakness. * Morgagni-Adams-Stokes syndrome 268. blood pressure is not determined. * Sympatotonic collapse 270. On background of severe pneumonia there is marked pallor. Left heart failure C. Child is 6 yrs old. his pupils are dilated.

dyspnea. Systemic lupus eritematodes C. Blood count\: leukocytes . Which diagnose is the most correct? A. ESR . All that is mentioned 271. Leukocytosis D. Reopolyglucin D. morning awkwardness. systolic murmur on the apex and in the V point are present. CRP ++. antystreptolysin O 420 units. patient complains of acute pain in the knee joint and t°. * Carditis 273.B. During laboratory examinations of the 13-years old boy with rheumatic carditis and polyarthritis was found\: leukocytes 10х10 9/l. ANA are positive in blood serum. mono articular form that manifests by deformation of the left feet joint over 6 months. 4th degree D. seromucoid 0. What degree of the disease activity? A. temperature rise up to 38oC. Carditis E. Infectious-allergic polyarthritis E. Objectively: deformation and swelling of the knee joints with skin hyperemia.o.38°C. Fever B. * 2nd degree 274. Nephritis D.20. Prednisolon C. Accelerated ESR C. An 8 year old girl complains about joint pain.18 mm/h. Reactive polyarthritis B. Small movement causes an acute pain in the joints. 3rd degree C. He was ill with angina 3 weeks ago. In 14 years old girl is diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis. * Uveitis . tachycardia. 5th degree E. Pulmonitis C.0*109/l. Objectively\: the left cardiac border is deviated by 2. syalic acids 230 units. polyarthritis 272. What sign gives the most substantial proof for rheumatic fever diagnosis? A. ESR 26 mm/hour. What complication is the most possible to reveal in such form of disease? A. Stomatitis B.5 cm to the left. 1st degree B. * Rheumatic fever. A17 y. Sodium ascorbinati E. Rheumathoid arthritis D. Arthralgia E.45 units.

drowsy on cheeks. migrating joint intumescence and pain . has got the treatment\: erythromycin. edematous. He suffer from the disease during 1 year. does not fall after using antipyretics edema and restriction of movements in feet joints rashes on the face. which dominates in the night. Reiter syndrome D. On physical exam: cyanosis of lips. aspirin.275. the child is faded. rhythmical. pulse is weak. pain. What etiologic factor caused this pathological process in the most probable way? A. The boy. The left heart border is moved outwards from mediaclavicular line for 1 cm. Delagyl D. hepatosplenomegaly. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. * JRA. exists: high temperature (39 . In the boy. 6 years old. Fungus E. * Beta hemolytic streptococcus 276. soft systolic murmur is auscultated. JRA. hot when palpated the heart borders are enlarged. has rheumatoid arthritis. left knee joint).5 months. The disease has begun acutely with increasing of the temperature and catarrhal phenomena. * JRA. polyarticular form (deformation and morning awkwardness in both elbows. What is most reasonable to prescribe for long-term therapy? A. Still syndrome 277. The boy. bicillin-1. Rheumatic fever E. In 2 weeks after pharyngitis a 15. Alergosepsis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Objectively: general condition is severe. but improvement did not approach. trunk and limbs. abdomen and hips diffuse papulous rashes feet joints are painful.year-old patient started complaining of rise in temperature to 33°C. Still syndrome C. tachycardia. Sound I on the apex is weakened. fatigue. Azulfadine C. 2 years old. Pneumococcus D. What is the most probable diagnosis? A.40 oC). 2 days ago has noted the pain in cervical part of the spinal cord. hands. Aspirin B. Spondylitis deformans (Bechterew's disease) B. Rheumatic fever B. 5 years old. restriction of the movements in feet and wrists joints. Prednisolon pulse-therapy E. Pseudotuberculosis E. Virus B. shortness of breath during walking. Staphylococcus C. polyarticular form 278. 100 bpm. the combination of ibuprofen and plaquenil is not effective. * Methothrexat . He is ill for 2. notes the edema. He is ill for 10 days.

She is ill during 4 months.. Prednisolon 1 mg/kg 10 days C. reduction was accompanied with perspiration. but ineffectively. and spotted-papulous rashes on trunk. m. The disease has begun with damage of the knee joint.-10%. She has entered in clinic with complaints on pain and edema in right knee and hand joints. movements are moderately limited because of pain. Systemic scleroderma E. Put the previous diagnosis A. Still syndrome 282. JRA. CCP-test is positive.5 ?С. spleen +1 cm. During the day temperature changed on 2-2. The blood test\: Hb 112 g/l. in a week was joined pain in all groups of joints and in spine. The disease has begun 3 weeks ago. all groups of lymph nodes are palpated. from temperature 39 ?С. CRP (++++). morning stiffness (limitation of motions). Systemic lupus erythematosus D. liver +2 cm. Tuberculosis E. Leukemia D. e. Prednisolon 2. Prednisolon 2 mg/kg 10 days D. ESR 54 mm/hour.-35%. quick malaise. l. To the 10-years old boy rheumatic fever. subsepsis B. The girl is 4 years. * JRA. headache. Rheumatic fever B. the active phase. In 3 months the process extended to hand joints. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. the girl received the aspirin. movements in them are vastly limited. Prednisolon 1 mg/kg 10 days. Still syndrome 280. acute duration.279. with the following reduction of the dose . She is ill for 2 months.5 mg/kg masses 10 days. different in size and localization joints (knees. The child is four years old. Infectious-allergic arthritis C.6%. feet. Objectively: diffuse pallor of the skin and mucous membranes. b.-1%. myocarditis. A.9х109/l. cardiac insufficiency 2A st. What from these schemes is correct? A. hepatosplenomegaly. disease has begun acutely with high temperature. this disease connected with influenza. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. There is enlargement of peripheral lymph nodes. polyarthritis. The girl. Rheumatic fever. 12 years old. with the following reduction of the dose. ample rashes on trunk.48%. er. activity. Feet joints are painful. Indicate the most reliable diagnosis. endomyocarditis. leukocytes 12. 514. E. Alergosepsis B. Periodically appeared pink rash. The pain lasted 1-2 days. active phase E. * JRA. The treatment of the rheumatic fever was slight effective. with the following reduction of the dose B. * Prednisolon 2 mg/kg 10 days. subfebril temperature. Objectively: the temperature is 39 ?С. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. joints are of usual form. antistreptolysin-O titer is negative. hands) were painful and edematous.. 3rd st. has entered in clinic with diagnosis Rheumatic fever. * Rheumatoid arthritis 281. Reactive arthritis D. their function was poor. 3. ESR-28 mm/hour. s. was diagnosed.9х1012 l.

09-0. In the beginning of the treatment the most reasonable is to combine it with: A.08 mg\kg\day D. E. What changes on ECG are typical for this case? A.07-0. 11 years old boy. prednisolon 2 mg/kg/day C.1 mg\kg\day E. endomyocarditis. * Antibacterial. cardiac insufficiency 2B st. diffuse damage of large and middle-sized joints. the active phase 3rd st. symptomatic therapy. * 0. Dose of digoxin saturation is: A. with high temperature. Prednisolon 2 mg/kg 10 days. Blocade of the right drumstick of the Gis bunch E. Blocade of the left drumstick of the Gis bunch B. lengthening of the segment PQ. with the following reduction of the dose. E.05-0. brady. hormons 284.or tachyarrythmia 285. of activity. polyarthritis. active phase. A. Aspirin 100 mg/kg. symptomatic therapy D. To the12-years old girl was diagnosed rheumatic fever. languor.03-0. To the 9-year old girl who has systemic form of rheumatoid arthritis. * Voltage reduction. 0. 1st stage activity. 0. acute duration. prednisolon 2 mg/kg/day D.01-0. active phase.04 mg\kg\day C. Diagnosis: "Rheumatic fever. acute duration". What from these schemes of antiinflammatory treatment is correct? A. decompensation. Antibacterial. Lengthenings of the segment PQ C. Indicate the main treatment.5 years girl was administrated to hospital with defect of intraventricular septum. cardiac insufficiency 2B stage. Auranofin B. Hormons. urticarial rashes on skin. endomyocarditis. B. * Aspirin 286. antiinflammatory preparations B. Aspirin 100 mg/kg 3-4 weeks. lymphadenopathy. Penicillin 30 000 IU/kg. hepatomegaly. antiinflammatory. Voltage reduction D.02 mg\kg\day B. was prescribed prednisolon pulse-therapy.283.06 mg\kg\day . chorea. hormons C. 1. Enterosorbents D.2 weeks 287. antiinflammatory therapy. Polyvitamines E. Antibacterial. Antibiotics C. overloading of the left ventricle. Antibacterial therapy. antiinflammatory. To the 12-years old girl was diagnosed rheumatic fever. 0. 0. afterwards 2/3 doses . * Aspirin 50 mg/kg 3-4 weeks. acute duration.

and refusal of foods. During objective examination: dyspnoe. anxiety. Mitral stenosis C. and quantity of heart beating-145. 1. * Increasing of the LDG1 level 290. His condition grew worse on the 3rd day of the disease. and quantity of heart beating is 160 per min. pulse is 120/min. edema. 3 E. exiting. 1A B. On examination: t° — 39° С. overloading of left ventricle.. quantity of breathing is 84 per min. cardiomegaly. Increasing of the AST and ALT level B. 5 mg\kg\day E. breathless and swelling of feet. 1B C. 2A D. Exudative perycarditis D. On ECG . 2 mg\kg\day B. dyspnea. liver +3sm. Hypoglycemia E. cardiomegaly. cardiac activity is rhythmic. Thrombocytopenia purpure D. tooth extraction one month ago. A 10 y. the great quantity of moist rales in lungs. Petechical lesion a round clavicle spleen was palpable. The biochemical blood test is prescribed. What change is possible to expect? A. moderate per oral cyanosis.sinus tachycardia. cough. He is ill by the upper respiratory tract viral infection. * 0. 2 years boy has acute norheumatic carditis. 1 mg\kg\day D. What disease can you suspect? A. Ascultation: diastolic murmur in the mitral area. 3 mg\kg\day C. What dose of prednisolone must be at the beginning of treatment? A. Recurrence of rheumatic fever B. myocardial hypoxia. What stage of cardiac insufficiency in this case? A. Presence of the C-reactive protein D. During objective examination: paleness of skin and mucous. decrease of physical development. Hereditary nonrheumatic carditis E. * 2B 292. patient of rheumatic heart disease complains of anorexia.5 years old girl with problematic obstetrics anamnesis. Rheumatic myocarditis B. cardiac rate is 156 per 1 min.5 mg\kg\day 291. left border of the heart is on the front axillary line.o. liver +4sm. A. Aortic stenosis . edema of legs. quantity of breathing-52 per minute with participation of additional muscles. 10 month old child was hospitalized with complaints on weakness. Hypercholesterolemia C. weakness and loss of weight. Acute no rheumatic carditis C. 7 months girl has defect of intraventricular septum. * Fibroelastosis 289.288. deficiency of mass 24%. Objectively\: pallor of the skin.

80/45 mm Hg.36. Ichemic heart disease. What is the stage of chronic heart failure (CHF)? A. HR 90/min. pain in the right rib arc place. Rheumatic fever. Cardiac sounds are weakened. angina pectoris D. AP .5 cm left side. heart rate 108 bpm. female complains of shooting heart pain.112. the liver is enlarged by 7 cm. sedimentation rate-21 mm/hour. systolic murmur above the apex. shin edema. On exam: cyanosis. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy E. RR 28/min. Climacteric myocardiodystrophia C.o. mitral stenosis C. * Acute viral myocarditis 294.E. What is the most likely preliminary diagnosis? A. t . What is the most probable diagnosis? A. soft systolic murmur is present.3 B.6°C. Infectious endocarditis B. Bilateral pulmonary rales on lower lungs. Acute myocarditis D. She had acute respiratory disease a month ago. and irregularities in the heart activity. Heart borders are displaced to the left and to the right. What complication is indicated by these clinical presentations? A. 3 years ago he had myocardial infarction. CHF.7*109/L. * Subacute bacterial endocarditis 293. heart boarders +1. On examination: AP-120/80 mm Hg. dyspnea. He was treated for rheumatic fever without effect. acrocyanosis. Ps . CHF. Liver isn't palpated. Acute allergic infectious myocarditis B. Acute pericarditis E. Neurocirculatory dystonia E. * Acute myocarditis . BP 90/50 mm Hg. * CHF. Objectively: Ps . Idiopathic myocarditis D.1 E. Myocardiopathy C. A 10 year old girl ill with influenza felt palpitation and dull cardiac pain during moderate physical exercise. A 13 y. heart pains. A 10-year-old patient complains of shortness of breath. Physical examination: orthopnea.0 D. mitral insufficiency B. total heart enlargement. dry cough and leg edema. CHF. The first sound is quiet above the apex. Blood test: WBC — 6. edema of the legs. swollen cervical veins. * Dilated (congestive) cardiomyopathy 295. soft systolic murmur at apex and Botkin's area sporadic extrasystoles.2 А C. there is no edema. Rheumatic fever. progressive fatigue during 3 weeks. He has been ill for 2 months. sounds are muffled. CHF.2 B 296.106 bpm. A 12 year old patient complains of rest dyspnea.

and pain in the left chest half with irradiation to the left scapula. In blood: Hb . Atrial septal defect D. * Echocardiography 298. constant ache in precardiac area.115/75 mm Hg. The heart size is normal E. hyperthelorismus) has systolic murmur in the second intercostal to the right of the sternum. A 14 y.o. What method of examination is the most informative in this case? A.297. lowering of the amplitude of T wave in V2-V6. * Aortic stenosis 300. aortic systolic murmur. A 5-year-old girl has a small ventricular septal defect (VSD). Her pulmonary vascular resistance is increased C. Coarctation of the aorta E. female is suffering from squeezing substernal pain on physical exertion. BP on the right arm is 110/60 mm Hg. The liver is +2 cm. heart rate *pulse rate 72 bpm. The pulse on the left brachial artery is weakened. Veloergometry D. What is the most likely diagnosis? . decreased voltage. Ps — 100/min. BP . Her growth and development are normal. Sound 1 on the apex is weakened. Ventricular septal defect C. ECG-signs of the left venticle hypertrophy. swelling on shanks. On physical exam\: heart's sounds are diminished. Coronarography B. thick lips. soft systolic murmur on the apex. Heart borders without changes. * Echocardiography 299. Phonocardiography C. A 17-year-old male complains of shortness of breath. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Electrocardiogram (ECG): leftventricled extrasystolia. * She does not need endocarditis prophylaxis before dental work because the shunt is small 301. irregularity in cardiac work. What congenital heart disease is the most probable? A. Which of the following is a true statement? A. Two weeks after pneumonia developed shortness of breath during walking. Treatment is ineffective. pulsation is weak. Her ECG demonstrated atrial enlargement due to the left-to-right shunt B. and she has normal activity levels. On examination: t°*37. skin edema. A female patient. Coronarography E. Sphygmography B. A 5-year-old child with stigmas of dysembryogenesis (small chin. aged 15. arrhythmical. X-ray kymography C. WBC . ESR -18 mm/h. ECG: atrioventricular heart block I degree. 2°C. 68 *109/L. The ventricular septal defect may close spontaneously D. on the left -100/60 mm Hg. ECG results: hypertrophy of the right ventricle. heart boarders are dilated to the left side.124 g/L. What method of investigation is necessary to do to determine the diagnosis? A. The murmur passes to the neck and along the sternum left edge. Roentgenoscopy: enlargement of heart shadow to all sides. ECG in the dynamics E.5. On examination: AP-130/80 mm Hg. X-ray D. opened mouth. painful.

5oC. What stage of the cardiac insufficiency has this child? . Early inborn carditis was diagnosed. respiratory rate is 31 per min. S1 is clapping S2 is accentuated in the aortic area opening snap. The I degree of heart failure B. CHD: unstable angina B. * Developing of cardiac insufficiency 304. The 0 degree of heart failure E. ECG E. marked edema. During examination of the 4 months old boy were revealed\: cardiomegaly. complains of fever of 37. diminished heart sounds and rough systolic murmur on the apex and Erb’s point hepatomegaly +2 cm.A. Shunting D. During dynamic investigation of a patient the increase of central venous pressure is combined with the decrease of arterial pressure. auscultation: normal lung sound. pulse rate is 144 beats/min. The 0 degree of heart failure E. Presence of hypervolemia C. respiratory rate is 47 per min. The II A degree of heart failure C. Increase of bleeding speed E. moderate edema on legs. Pulmonary embolism D. The I degree of heart failure B. increased liver to 3 cm. Chest X-ray C. Such clinical findings are character for: A. aged 9. dyspnea. auscultation: moist rales in the lungs. oliguria.. What is the most efficient examination for valvular disorder assessment? A. During examination of 6 years child next findings were observed: acrocyanosis. stagnant rales in both lungs. Metabolic cardiopathy E. During examination of 1 year child next findings were observed: mild perioral cyanosis.. * Echocardiography + Doppler-Echocardiography 303. diminished heart sounds and rough systolic murmur on the apex and Erb’s point hepatomegaly +4 cm. What process is proved by such combination? A. Ballistocardiogram B. * The II B degree of heart failure 306.. The III degree of heart failure D. pulse rate is 119 beats/min. Depositing of blood in venous channel B. The III degree of heart failure D. dyspnea. A patient. Phonocardiography D. * Acute myocarditis 302. Infective endocarditis C. Such clinical findings are character to: A. steadfast tachyarrythmia. * The II A degree of heart failure 305. The II B degree of heart failure C. presystolic murmur can be auscultated.. heart pain.

* Acute nonrheumatic carditis . an absent pulsation on the femoral arteries. RR -48/min. Nothing of these E. * 8 mg/kg/day 308. systolic a noise in V point. In 12 years old girl was diagnosed chronic nonrheumatic carditis. At examination: irregularity of development of the upper and lower parts of body. cardiomegaly. dyspnea. What disease can you suspect? A. 2A st C. without any reason.A. * Coartation of the aorta 309. 3rd st D. Fibroelastosis E.148/min. poor appetite. 4th st E. Takajasu disease C. What plaquenil dose must be used in this case? A. Parents of the 7-year-old boy come to the neurologist with complaints on decrease in his movement activity. Bronhiolitis C. The girl of 6 month old is ill during 10 days. During objective examination: paleness of skin and mucous. skin is cyanotic. pulse . 5 mg/kg/day B. Aneurysm of aorta D. cardiac insufficiency of the 3rd stage. What diagnosis is possible to suspect? A. Hereditary carditis D. disturbance of walking. Exudative perycarditis C. the dyspnea. Acute pneumonia E. was born with weight 3. He was treated twice with pneumonia. 1st st B.. in mild asperous breathing with rales. systolic murmur in intrascapular region. is conducted in scapular segment. hypotonia of muscles of the feet. * Congenital heart disease with the left-to-right shunt 310.5 mg/kg/day E. The disease began acutely with high temperature and catarrhal syndrome. * 2-B st 307. Six-month boy with often unproductive cough. Accent ІІ of tone above pulmonary artery. 0. dyspnoe. left-hand border of heart on forward axially line. Cystic fibrosis B. 2 mg/kg/day D. These complaints developed gradually. irritibility. Rheumatic myocarditis B. acrocyanosis. Hereditary nonrheumatic carditis D. 10 mg/kg/day C.200 now a weight deficit is 18 %. What pathology may be suspected in the patient? A. Kawasaki disease B.

To the neuropathologist parents of the 7-year-old boy with complaints to decrease in its movement activity. Aspiration of meconij B. Systolic murmur in ІІ intercostal to the left of sternum. growth 50 sm.311. cardiomegalia. systolic murmur in intrascapular region. What disease may you suspect? A. Intraatrium septal defect C. narrowing of a vascular bunch of heart. an absent pulsation on the femoral arteries.pulmonary picture- transparent. These complaints developed gradually. clean. liver +3sm. Rheumatic carditis C. Late hereditary carditis B. tone of heart clear. Intraventricular septum defect B. dyspnoe. Disease of Kawasaki B. Mitral stenosis E. What heart failure does the child have? A. a hypotonia of muscles of the feet. Acute no rheumatic carditis D. What pathology can be suspected at the patient? A. in lungs pueral breathing. The patient with aquired heart failure has diastolic pressure 0 mm Hg. What diagnosis is possible to suspect? A.180. but peroral cyanosis was from the moment of birth. Rheumatism B. At examination\: irregularity of development of the upper and lower parts of body. * Aortal insufficiency 315. * Patent ductus arterioses 313. X-ray. which was pasted with hestosis during the first trimester without asphyxia. The newborn girl from І normal pregnancy was born in time of gestation 39-40 weeks with weight 3 kg. Secondary fermentopathy E. The girl of 6 months was administrated to hospital with complaints of mother to general exiting. The newborn boy was born with weight 3. and 7 on 5 min. an estimation behind a scale of Apgar 6 on 1min. without any reason. * Early hereditary carditis 312. Tetralogy of Fallott C. * A transposition of main vessels 314. What it is possible to suspect? The disease of gialin membranes A. Stenosis of pulmonary artery E. quantity of heart beating-160 . Defect of intraventricular septum D. and quantity of heart beating-175. Disease of Takajasu . It is observed proof cyanose which does not decrease at oxygen inhalation quantity of breathing. Aortal i stenosis C. During objective examination: paleness of skin and mucus. Mitral insufficiency D. skin is pink.70. Anamnesis of disease – 1 week.100 from І normal pregnancy. Coarctation of aorta D. disturbance of walking. quantity of breathing is 52 per minute with participation of additional muscles.

Cardiac glycoside D. nasal haemorrhages. He is asthenic. Protodiastolic gallop rhythm D. Accelerated ESR C. Arthralgia 318.18 mm/h. * Coartation of aorta 316.15 s after the second one above the apex. lower extremities are hypotrophied. * Procedure of Rashkinde 317. Coarctation of pulmonary artery B. ductus artheriosus does not function. Lungs ventilation C. Aortal stenosis E. Aneurysm of aorta D. IV physiological sound B. Systolic murmur can be auscultated above carotid arteries. difficult breathing. On an apex and Erb’s point is listening systolic murmur. ESR . * III physiological sound . temperature rise up to 38oC. Pulsation on the pedal and femoral arteries is sharply dampened. Objectively: the patient has signs of malnutrition. sense of coldness on lower extremities. A 15 years old patient suffers from headache. Diuretic E. Reduplication of the 2nd sound C. * Carditis E. An 8 years old girl has complains about joint pain. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. What it is necessary to spend to the newborn during the first hours of life? A. What sign gives the most substantial proof for rheumatism diagnosis? A. Ingalations of oxygen B. Cardiac border is normal. Fever B. Objectively the left cardiac border is deviated by 2. ECG shows no pathological changes. AP is 150/90 mm Hg on the arms and 90/60 on the legs.20. Auscultation above the cardiac apex reveals three sounds but cardiac murmur is absent.C. Ps is 80 per minute. Endartereit of femoral arteries E. Tachycardia is present. How are these changes called? A. AP is 110/70 mm Hg. Blood count: leukocytes . Aortal insufficiency C. Phonocardiogram shows that the third sound comes 0.5 cm to the left. Atrial gallop rhythm E. * Aorta coarctation D. Objectively: muscles of shoulder girdle are developed. During preventive examination a 16 year old patient presented no problems.0x109/l. To the newborn child with a syndrome of respiratory frustration EhoCG that has helped to diagnose a hereditary heart disease: a transposition of the main vessels. Aorta aneurism 319. Leukocytosis D.

rough systolic noise in ІІ intercostal to the left of a breast bone. skin pink. What deformation of the thorax is typical for Ehlers-Danlos syndrome? A. left-hand border of heart on forward axially line. the changes on the part of heart are auscultated from birth. pulse . After birth the newborn has heart rate 110 per minute. An increase in joints’ volume 324. sneezing in answer to the clearing of airways. he is crying. * Hyperextension of interphalangeal joints B. The boy of 3 months has poor increase in mass at satisfactory appetite. poor appetite. was born with weight 3. Acute pneumonia 321. Coarctation of the aorta 322. What diagnosis is possible to suspect? A. skin of body has pink color. atrial septal defect B. The six-month boy suffers from unproductive tussis. According to mother explanation the child was born with 3200 g of body weight. skin is cyanotic. is conducted in scapular segment. twice was treated with pneumonia. Contractures of knee-joints C. paleness and xeroderma. Hereditary carditis E. has cried at once. Deformations of collar-bones and ribs E.148/min. Fusiform deformation of elbows E. periodic cyanosis of the child during feeding. The neonatal boy. Ventricular septal defect C. * Congenital heart diseases with reset of blood on the left right B. Cystic fibrosis C. breath-48/min. What will be 1- st minute Apgar score? A. Bronchiolitis D. 6 . * Patent Ductus Arteriosus B. Rachitic rosary 325. it is maximum in ІІІ left intercostal space to the left.100 from І normal pregnancy. dyspnea. art – rough systolic murmur in all points.320. * Ventricular septal defect D. Barrel chest C. Accent ІІ of tone above pulmonary artery. What deformations of joints are typical for Ehlers-Danlos syndrome? A. * Flat back D. systolic murmur in V point. deficit of weight 15 %. pulmonary stenosis 323. Now deficit of mass is 18 %. Coarctation of the aorta E. Keeled chest B. atrial septal defect D. Arthralgia D. What diagnosis is possible to suspect? A. tetralogy of Fallot C. What diagnosis is possible to suspect? A. in mild hard breathing with rhonchus. which one flowed past with gessoes during the first trimester. disturbing. pulmonary stenosis E. extremities are blue. has active movements. the dyspnea.. clean.

6 B. 2 C. After birth the newborn has heart rate 90 per minute. he is crying. skin of body has pink color. 6 B. 10 327. What will be 1-st minute Apgar score? A. he has irregular breathing.B. has active movements. skin of body has pink color. he is crying. After birth the newborn has heart rate 126 per minute. 8 D. extremities are blue. there is no answer to the clearing of airways. sneezing in answer to the clearing of airways. skin of body has pink color. 7 C. 5 329. 9 E. 9 E. 7 C. 8 . 10 330. After birth the newborn has heart rate 90 per minute. * 9 E. 9 E. * 8 D. 4 E. * 7 C. What will be 1-st minute Apgar score? A. has active movements. sneezing in answer to the clearing of airways. 8 D. has weak movements. sneezing in answer to the clearing of airways. After birth the newborn has heart rate 110 per minute. 6 B. 7 C. doesn’t move. * 1 B. sneezing in answer to the clearing of airways. skin of body has pink color. he is crying. What will be 1-st minute Apgar score? A. extremities are blue. he doesn’t breathe. extremities are blue. skin of body is pale. * 8 D. 10 326. 3 D. has active movements. 6 B. After birth the newborn has heart rate 26 per minute. 10 328. 7 C. What will be 1-st minute Apgar score? A. What will be 1-st minute Apgar score? A.

9 E. grimace in answer to the clearing of airways. weak movements. What will be 1-st minute Apgar score? A. * 5 B. 7 C. he is crying. * 9 E. 6 C. After birth the newborn has heart rate 80 per minute. 8 D. 6 D. What will be 1-st minute Apgar score? A. 8 D. 9 E. sneezing in answer to the clearing of airways. 8 E. 9 332. After birth the newborn has heart rate 84 per minute. 10 334. grimace in answer to the clearing of airways. he is crying.D. he has irregular breathing. he is crying. skin of body has pink color. has active movements. 10 335. After birth the newborn has heart rate 85 per minute. What will be 1-st minute Apgar score? A. 7 C. 7 C. 8 333. After birth the newborn has heart rate 116 per minute. skin of body has blue color. 6 B. 9 . extremities are hanging down. What will be 1-st minute Apgar score? A. 7 D. 6 B. grimace in answer to the clearing of airways. 5 C. he has irregular breathing. What will be 1-st minute Apgar score? A. * 4 B. skin of body has pink color. 7 E. skin of body has pink color. has active movements. muscle hypotonia. extremities are blue. * 6 B. grimace in answer to the clearing of airways. * 8 D. extremities are blue. extremities are blue. * 10 331. After birth the newborn has heart rate 96 per minute. skin of body has pink color.

warming of the child C. 7 points C. circulation. * airways.38. gastroduodenal disease B. The patient with aquired heart failure has diastolic pressure of 0 mm Hg. Femoral artery B. Brachial artery E. 6 points E. Which diagnosis corresponds to such symptoms? A. malnutrition E. breathing. injection of adrenaline E. airways C. Estimate the child’s Apgar score. oxygen therapy D. breathing B. airways. infection disease 341. circulation D. Cardiac rate is 128 in a minute. breathing. * clearing the airways B. circulation 339.5°C and ankle dysfunction. gallop rhythm. circulation. The muscular tone is reduced. * Radial artery 338. weakness of Sound 1. What is the appropriate order for checking of vital signs before the beginning of cardio-vascular resuscitation? A. 9 points D. Mitral stenosis B.E. What is the first step of resuscitation in this case? A. A 10-year-old boy complains of joint pain and impossibility of movement in left knee and right elbow. airways. Clavicular artery D. kidney disease C. What heart failure does the child have? A. A. tachycardia. circulation. What is the right place for the checking of presence of pulse for assessment of unconscious patient? A. 2 weeks ago he had tonsillitis Physical examination: t . * Cardiovascular disease D. Mitral insufficiency . 10 336. breathing E. * 8 points B. tactile stimulation 340. 5 points 337. airways. weak systolic murmur near apex. enlargement of cardiac dullness on 2 cm. During nosal catheter usuge he is crying. breathing. The newborn with expressed acrocyanosis had cried immediately after birth. Carotid artery C.

* Aortal insufficiency E. He has complaints on pain and restriction of movements in right knee and left elbow joints. Pneumococcus E. systemic lupus erythematodes C.110 per 1 min. Physical examination demonstrates swelling of her right knee. What is the most likely etiological factor in this case? A. rhythmical. There are fever (38. extension of the borders of cordial dullness on 2 cm left. It is known from the anamnesis that two weeks ago she had exacerbation of chronic tonsillitis. He was suffered from acute tonsillitis 2 weeks ago. Osteomyelitis B. with 45\% neutr. oedema of joints. dyspnoea. ESR 20mm/h. Infection Arthritis 344. * Streptococcus 343. Staphylococcus B. A 4 year old female has been limping with swelling of her right knee for several months.C. Rheum. On physical exam: cyanosis of lips. flexion contracture of 10 degrees and flexion to 120 degrees. The boy of 9 years old. 8\% mon.5 C). Reiter’s disease E. Virus D. In 2 weeks after pharyngitis a 15-year-old patient started complaining of rise in temperature to 38° C. What diagnosis should be suspected? A. What ethiological factor caused this pathological process in the most probable way? A. reactive arthritis 345. Rheumatism C. Aortal stenosis D. * Acute rheumatic fever B. He is ill for 3 days. Proteus C. Fungus E. * Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis E. HR . Lab. juvenile rheumatoid arthritis D. 100 bpm. fatigue. Staphylococcus B. * Betha hemolytic streptococcus . migrating joint intumescence and pain .. Hgb 120 g/l. "soft" systolic murmur on an apex. ANA 1:640 speckled. 47 lymphs\%. data: WBC 8 g/l. soft systolic murmur is ausculated. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. factor neg. weakness of 1st sound. Klebsiella D. Sound I on the apex is weakened. The left heart border is moved outwards from medi-aclavicular line for 1 cm.. A 10-year-old girl was admitted to a hospital with carditis presentations. Rheumatic fever 342. shortness of breath during walking. Pneumococcus C. Lupus D. pulse is weak.

What is the most likely diagnosis? A. General protein of blood – 44. hematuria and arterial hypertension 350. * Allergic reaction to novocaine B.5\% novocaine solution the child presented with motor anxiety. The symptoms: pain in abdomen. Protein in day's urine – 0. * Allergies B. A 5-year-old child had to undergo an operated for ankyloglossya. Objectively: the child is conscious.78 gr. Nechiporenko test . Pain shock C. Viral D. temperature 38оС. cylinders 1 – 2 in field of view. * Acute glomerulonephritis with nefrotic syndrome C. There were no external symptoms of preoperative anxiety. Aafter injection of 1. Acute glomerulonephritis with isolated urine syndrome 349. What investigation it is necessary to prescribe for making of etiotropic treatment? A. What clinical variant of acute glomerulonephritis does take place probably? A. Overdosage of anesthetics 347. cholesterol of blood – 8.2 g\l.5 ml of 0. protein – 0.6 mmol\l. Diagnose – acute pielonephritis. Bacterial infection C. face and neck skin is hyperemic. red corpuscles 1-2 in field of view. protein – 1. In the general analysis of urine: protein – 6. Cardiovascular collapse D. Blood pressure . except: A.95/60. The child of 10 years is ill during one week. For a boy 7 years in 2 weeks after the carried tonsillitis edema appeared on face. leucocytes 2-3 in field of view. Vaccination 348. Urogrphia C.33 g/l. albumen – 38. Blood pressure . Acute glomerulonephritis with nephritic syndrome B. pulse is rapid. tachypnoe is present. Acute glomerulonephritis with nefrotic syndrome. The boy of 3 has an edema syndrome like as anasarca. red corpuscles cover all field of view.140/80.2-3 in field of view. Zimnitskiy test D. Cistographia B.3 g\l. ?All of the following conditions are causes of glomemlonephritis. stomachache.346. vomiturition. The state is heavy. The disease appears after cooling. predefined by intoxication syndrome. hematuria and arterial hypertension D.1%. In analysis of urine: leucocytes – 25-30 in field of view. Acute glomerulonephritis with nefrotic syndrome. cylinders . Acute glomerulonephritis with nefrotic syndrome B. Giddiness E. What most reliable diagnosis? A. * Acute glomerulonephritis with nephritic syndrome E. Urine of brown color. lower extremities. Stones disease C. General analysis of urine: specific gravity -1015. Fungal E. back.2 g/l. Acute glomerulonephritis with isolated urine syndrome D.

A 10 years old boy has acute glomerulonephritis during a mouth. that 3 weeks ago had an tonsillitis. Acute glomerulonephritis is diagnosed. What variant of acute glomerulonephritis is more reliable in the child? A. * Endogenous creatinin clearance C. What from this medicine must be appointed to the child in the complex of pathogenetical therapy? A. leuc. in the biochemical blood test: total protein – 48 g/l. erythr. painless of skin. In urine –2-3. arterial blood presser 100|50. on 1/2 of field of view. What investigation must be performed to confirm the kidneys dysfunction during chronic glomerulonephritis? A. Heparin E. General analysis of urine B. E. Respiratory viruses D. What from the resulted investigations is informing for kidneys function estimation? A. * Zimnitskiy test E. Coli 356. blood pressure 130/90. * Prednisolon D. hypothermia. * Indometacin . Estimation of daily proteinuria E. Plaquenyl C. Estimation of cholesterol 355. Estimation of daily diuresis 352. What can lead to such changes? A. One month before was tonsillitis. General analysis of urine B. leuk. – 2-3. Nechiporenko test D. Nechiporenko test D. consistency of urine – 1018. hyaline casts 1-2 in field of view. Delagyl B. Enteroviruses C. On all field of view. protein-0. The girl of 10 years. casts gialine 2-3. Protein estimation in day’s urine C. * Streptococci B. erythr. In general analysis of urine: protein-2.98 g|l. blood pressure – 140/90. Staphylococci E. red urine. erythrocytes on 1/3 in field of view. * Bacteriological test of urine 351.9. The 7 years boy with edema.5 g/l. The 10 day before were pain in throat. leucocytes 3-2 in field of view. in the complete analysis of urine: protein is 0. cholesterol. Curantil 353.8 mmol|l.E. * Nephritic 354. He has edema. 91 g/l. In urine: protein – 2. Dark color of urine is observed at a 9 years boy. What drug it is necessary to give: A. Nefrotic B.5 g/l. headache. Last 2 weeks general malaise.

* №5 359. Heparin E. * 100-300 IU/kg C. 50-100 IU/kg B. During the expressed edema and hyper coagulation it is necessary to prescribe heparin E. Prednisolone C. Lejkeran 357. 10-20 IU/kg D. X. Curantil 363. 500-600 IU/kg E. №2 B. Plackvenil E. During the hormone depending nephrotic form of chronic glomerulonephritis with the prednisolone it is necessary to prescribe: A. * To all patients with nephrotic syndrome it is necessary to prescribe citostatics D.B. Excretory X. Prednisolone and citostatic C.ray of kidneys . 250-500 IU/kg 358. №9 D. Prednisolone and heparin with curantil E. What from the methods of researches is most informing at the syndrome of malignant hypertension: A. What sign is present during acute pielonephritis? A. No steroid antiinflamation drugs B. Preparates of aminohinoline groope C. №7 C. Chlorbutin D. * Prednisolone and heparin with curantil and citostatic 361. What diet it is it is necessary to prescribe during acute pielonephritis? A. Prednisolone B. What from the resulted positions incorrect in relation to treatment of nephrotic syndrome: A. * Proteinuria 360. Corticosteroid therapy is appointed B. * Citostatics D. What dose of heparin it is necessary to prescribe during acute glomerulonephritis? A. №10 E. Prednisolone and heparin D. It is necessary to prescribe citostatics according the needing 362.ray of kidneys B. The dose of diuretics is depending from an effect C. What from the variants of therapy most expedient at the mixed form of chronic glomerulonephritis: A.

. In. Edema syndrome more frequent is moderately expressed B. There is hypercholesterinemia 367.There is hypoproteinemia disproteinemi E. At the sclerosis of what amount of nephrons and what level of creatininemia there is the stage of decompensation of chronic kidney insufficiency: A. 22 – 0. What position relatively to nephrotic variant of edema syndrome is incorrect: A. * Prednisolone and citostatic C. In.0. In the basic of mechanism of such edema hypoproteinemia is not important E. Mixed form of chronic glomerulonephritis C. Prednisolone and heparin D. * In genesis of such edema In genesis of such edema hypoproteinemia has a great role D. The dose of diuretics prescribes depending of effect C. Monotherapy of prednizolone B. In genesis of such edema hypoproteinemia has a great role C.40 mmol\l D.177 mmol\l B. Prednisolone and heparin with curantil and citostatic 368. * In the basic of mechanism of such edema lies hypoproteinemia D. Nephrotic syndrome of acute glomerulonephritis B. 25 – 0. the basic of mechanism of such edema is violation of the vascular penetrating C. During edema syndrome and hyper coagulation it is necessary to prescribe heparin E. Citostatics are prescribing only according indications . * Citostatics are prescribing to all patients D. Edemas more frequent are expressed: from peripheral till anasarca B. What from the resulted positions incorrect in relation to treatment of nephrotic syndrome: A. Nephrotic syndrome of chronic glomerulonephritis 365. What from the variants of therapy most expedient during the mixed form of chronic glomerulonephritis: A. the basic of mechanism of such edema is and increase of pressure 366. What from the diseases is contra-indication for prescribing of heparin: A.44-0. Ultrasound investigation of kidneys E. * 80-90% of nephrons and creatinin of blood . Biochemical analysis of blood 364.0. 75% of nephrons and creatinin of blood .177 mmol\l E. Corticosteroid therapy is appointed B. * Aplastic anemia E.0. 20% of nephrons and creatinin of blood till 0.44 mmol\l C.0.707 mmol\l 369. 50% of nephrons and creatinin of blood .C. Sub acute malignant glomerulonephritis D. * Angiographies D. What position relatively to nephritic variant of edema syndrome is incorrect: A. Prednisolone and heparin with curantil E. 50% of nephrons and creatinin of blood .

Urine syndrome E. * Nephritic syndrome C. Arterial hypertension B. Violation of desintoxication function of kidneys in the beginning of glomerulonephritis is characteristic for: A.66-17. Leucocytes 2000 in 1 ml. What from such biochemical tests cannot demonstrate activity of inflammatory process during glomerulonephritis: A. Leucocytes 3000 in 1 ml. The children of school age have normal contents of urea in the blood: A. Leucocytes 2000 in 1 ml. Isolated urinary syndrome B. * 21. red corpuscles 500 in 1 ml C. red corpuscles 2000 in 1 ml B.33-8. red corpuscles 500 in 1 ml 375. Protein and its fractions B. * The absence of hypoproteinemia with disproteinemia D. * Citostatics D. Antibiotics 371. Seromucoid D.370. * Ca and P of blood 374. The children of school age have a normal contents of creatinin in the blood: . Heparin E. During hormone depending nephrotic form of chronic glomerulonephritis it is necessary to prescribe with prednisolone: A. red corpuscles 1000 in 1 ml E. Edema syndrome C.43-3. No steroid antiinflamation drugs B. * Leucocytes 4000 in 1 ml. red corpuscles 1000 in 1 ml D. 1.87 mmol/l E. ESR E.45 mmol/l D. Mixed form E.76 mmol/l B. 3. Normal indexes of analysis of urine about Nechiporenko are: A. Nephrotic syndrome with arterial hypertension 373. What from the resulted signs not characteristic for the mixed form of glomerulonephritis: A. 15.44-32. Nephrotic syndrome D. Hematuria 372.76-2. Leucocytes 1000 in 1 ml.32 mmol/l C.76mmol/l 376. Preparate of aminohinolin group C. C – reactive protein C. 2.

600х(п+10).3 mmol/l E. where n-amount of years C. 4. Disposed mainly on place of sex organs 382. Proteinuria E. 600х(п+5). * Till 0. Main features of kidney edema: A. 2. Excretory urographia allows to estimate: A. Functional state of urinary tract D.3-7. Nephroptos . 4. * 600+100(n-1). Eritrocituria D. form of kidneys B. State of nephrons C. * Suspicion on the defects of development or disease of vessels B. where n-amount of years B.A. mass +10 D. where n-amount of years 378. State of urinary bladder E. * Anomaly of kidney vessels E. Cilindruria 381. Kidney angiographies is an main investigation during:: A. B. where n-amount of years E.2 mmol/l C.1 mmol/l B. * Appear at morning. Dense D.1.2. Disposed mainly on trunk E. Appear in the second half of day. State of urinary bladder 380. cyanotic C. cold. warm.0-17. Hematuria C. 15. What from formulas is necessary for the calculation of day's amount of urine for children: A.3 mmol/l D. sizes. Functional state of urodinamics 379. State of nephrons C. * Leikocituria B.1-3. 500х(п+5). pale B. Arterial hypertension C. Main sign of pielonephritis is: A. Ecskretory urographia does not allow to discover: A.1 mmol/l 377. Functional state of urinary tract D. * Anatomical state of urinary tract and urodinamics B. Position.

Cefatoxin D. * Meat 388. Diet 386. Prednisolone B. Kidney stones disiease B. What from such points is not used at treatment of acute pyelonephritis: A. Ampicillin B. * Suprastin E. Vegetable puree D. Penicillin C. Amicin C. The main role in etiology of pielonephritis is: A. What from these products are eliminated in a diet 7: A. Egg E. Antiinflamation drugs E. Nephritis E. Ascorutin 384. Porridge C. Curantil D. Uroseptics C. Antibiotics B.D. What drug we use in the case of nehprotic syndrome for pathogenetical treatment: A. What from such drugs is ineffective at treatment of pyelonephritis: A. Fungi’s 389. * Hereditary nephritis E. * Levomicetin E. What from diseases more frequent in all can result in development of chronic kidney insufficiency: . Glomerulonephritis 383. Reflux D. Viruses C. * Hormones D. Dismetabolic nephropathies C. What from the resulted pathological states cannot become reason of the secondary pyelonephritis: A. Micoplasma D. Rice B. Ocsalaturia 385. * Bakeries B. Parasites E. Loracin 387.

15-20 mg/kg/day E. The middle age dose of amicin is: A. 200ml. The middle age dose of nitrofurans is: A. * Linecs 394. C.5-1 mg/kg/day E. * . 0. What is the volume of the urinary bladder in 1-3years old children? A. 1-2 mg/kg/day D.A. 395. Kidney stones disease B. 4-5 mg/kg/day C. Ocsalaturia 390. 100-150ml. Aspirin E. 50-90 ml. C. Reflux D. 50-100 mg/kg/day C. B. 15-10 mg/kg/day B. 30ml. * 20-50 mg/kg/day 393. D. B. 8 mg/kg/day B. 10 mg/kg/day D. Metabolic nephropathies C. Bicilin D.5-1 mg/kg/day E. Kanefron B. 4-5 mg/kg/day C. 0. * 50-90 ml.5mg/kg/day 391.Glomerulonephritis chroni E. * 1-2 mg/kg/day B. * 35-50 ml. 35-50 ml. . Penicillin C. E. * 0.5 mg/day 392. The preparetate for treatment of dismetabolic nephropathies is: A. 30ml. 10 mg/kg/day D. The middle age dose of lasics is: A. What is the volume of the urinary bladder in 1 year old children? A. 0.

C. D. and lead microscopy B. * 100-125 ml/min/kidney. What is the rate of blood plasma filtration in elder children and adults? A. 34-40 ml/min/kidney. Urineanalysis B. D. Use for investigate “minute leukocyturia” formed elements which excreted of urine for 3 hours D. E. * Zimnitsky’s test D. What test will you prescribe to evaluate concentrative function of kidneys? A. * Rebergs test 400. Nechiporenco C. C. investigate physical properties. 396. which was excreted of urine while 10 night’s hours (from 22 to 8). 5000 of microbes in 1 ml of urine. Creatinine clerance test E. Rebergs test 399. Creatinine clerance test E. middle portion. Nechiporenco C. Urineanalysis B. 25000 of microbes in 1 ml of urine. In the clear bottle collect urine. How collect urine for urinanalysis (general analyses of the urine): A. 70-100 ml/min/kidney. 401. B. Taking middle portion of morning urine.D. Bacteriuria is considered significant if there are A. E. Urineanalysis B. near 2-3 ml . Rebergs test 398. 200ml. 60-70 ml/min/kidney. A. 40-50 ml/min/kidney. 1000 of microbes in 1 ml of urine. Nechiporenco C. C. * 50000 of microbes in 1 ml of urine. 100-150ml. What test will you prescribe to confirm orthostatic proteinuria? A. E. B. Creatinine clerance test E. * Zimnitsky’s test D. Zimnitsky’s test D. 10000 of microbes in 1 ml of urine. 397. * Collect the morning urine.

urethritis C. * daily urine volume 403. C. Urinanalysis determines such data. proteinuria C. * arterial hypertension 407. urinary urgency D. casturia E. cylinders. hypoproteinemia D. casturia 406. Mild proteinuria cannot be a symptom of? A. specific gravity C. endotelial cells E. significant proteinuria (more than 3 g/l) C. sugar. * painful urination B. * significant proteinuria E. microscopy of sediment: leukocytes. edema. 402. mild proteinuria. erythrocytes. colour of urine B. Nephritic syndrome doesn’t include A. Significant proteinuria is the symptom of A. hypercholesterolemia E. level of protein. glucose. vulvovaginitis D. pyelopephritis 408. heamaturia D. ketone bodies D. * poliuria C. Nephrotic syndrome doesn’t include A. enuresis 404. hematuria. except: A. cystitis . Dysuria doesn’t includes symptom of: A. B. * glomerulonephritis E. leukocyturia 405. arterial hypertension. D.E. Syndrome of urine changes doesn’t includes A. painful urination B. incomplete voiding E. massive edema B. Collect 8-portion urine while 24 hours. cystitis B.

decreased filtrative function of the kidneys C. pyelopephritis 413. Bright red colour of urine can be the symptom of A. except? A. urethritis C. TB of kidney B. hyperkalemia. Dark-violet discoloration of urine can be the symptom of A. * glomerulonephritis E. cystitis 411. hypocalcemia B. urethritis C. hyperphosphatemia. orthostatic D. vulvovaginitis D. Coca-Cola-like colour of urine can be the symptom of A. cystitis B. renal-tumor D. proteinuria of newborn B. What is the main diagnostic criterion for chronic renal failure? A. * hemolysis incase of poisoning C. Dark-brown colour of urine can be the symptom of A. * glomerulonephritis with nephrotic syndrome C. polyuria 412. anemia D. virus hepatitis .B. hemolysis incase of poisoning C. glomerulonephritis with nephritic syndrome D. Heamaturia isn’t a symptom of? A. The reasons of functional proteinuria are next. pyelopephritis 409. * glomerulonephritis with nephrotic syndrome E. glomerulonephritis E. renal-tumor D. febrile temperature E. alimentary C. * nephroptosis 410. * increased level of creatinin and urea. pyelopephritis 414. metabolic acidosis E. vulvovaginitis D. virus hepatitis B. pyelopephritis 415. * virus hepatitis B. glomerulonephritis E. renal bleeding E.

who has on chronic cholecystocholangitis the biochemical blood analysis is performed. Hepatitis В is suspected. What parameters will be increased? A. 417. The child. Hypotonic C. The child. the kind of analysis (urinanalysys. D. 3 months. Hypokinetic D. 418. the ward unit. Thymol test . He discharges from the hospital on 24th day in satisfactory condition. 12 years old. Nechiporenko or Amburgeau test) B. * Hypotonic-Hypokinetic 420.B. complaints of the skin and mucous membranes jaundice. C. To the child of 5 years. what examination will realistically confirm the diagnosis? A. Syndrome of cholestasis is detected. * 6 months. Jaundice has appeared on the 10th day of the disease. Hyperkinetic E. To the child in the age of 6 years with complaints on acute pains in the right subcostal area was made fraction duodenal probing. 18 months. B. Investigation of Anti-HAV Ig M. Three months ago was performed hemotransfusion because of bleeding. Indicate the type of a dyskinesia. * renal-tumor D. The liver +3 cm. C. 419. glomerulonephritis E. 12 years old. Diastase C. pyelopephritis 416. The labels for analysis of urine shouldn’t contain the following information: A. 2 and 3-rd phases of fraction examination with decreasing of a volume of bile in 1-st and 2 phases. * diagnosis E. Thrombinogen D. was treated because of the hepatitis А. C. E. Transaminase B. D. Investigation of Anti-HAV Ig G E. clay-colored feces and dark color of the urine. He is ill for 2 weeks. 9 months. 12 months. spleen +1 cm. weakness. Hypertonic B. D. as a result of which is the elongation of 1-st. What is the duration of dispensary observation? A. the child’s name. The urinalysis on bile pigments. B. The biochemical blood test. hemolysis incase of poisoning C. * Polymerase Chain Reaction. the date and hour of collection. A.

alkaline phosphotase — 4. nausea. * Chronic viral hepatitis B. traces of scratches. The blood analysis revealed total bilirubin 160 mkmol/L. Last week the attacks repeated every day and became more painful. * Primary biliary liver cirrhosis B.1 mmol/L per hour. Cytolytic . enlarged firm liver.0 mmol/L. A 10 year old girl complained of attacks of right subcostal pain after fatty meal she has been suffering from for a year. jaundice. ALT-1. * Ultrasound examination of the gallbladder D. vitamin therapy E. Liver function tests E. Hemosorbtion.8 mmol/L. Acute viral hepatitis D. Alcoholic liver cirrhosis 422. In blood: alkaline phosphatase — 2. History: disease started with jaundice in 2 months after appendectomy. X-ray examination of the gastrointestinal tract B. direct — 110 mkmol/L. Blood test: A/G ratio 0. generalized weakness. bone pain.9.E.3 mmol/L. On examination: skin is jaundice. There are multiple xanthelasma palpebrae. What is your preliminary diagnosis? A. What is the probable diagnosis? A. A 12-year-old girl complains of dull right subcostal pain. Chronic viral hepatitis В E. * Alkaline phosphatase 421. Ultrasound study of the pancreas C. The skin is hyperpigmentated. What is the leading syndrome in the patient? A. antimitochondrial antibodies M2 in a high titer. Chronic cholangitis C. ?17 year old patient complains of intensive skin itching. discomfort in the right subcostal area.6 mmol/L per hour. The liver is +6 cm enlarged with acute edge. 1 year later present complaints have developed. AST (asparate aminotransferase) — 2. What is the most effective means in treatment? A. jaundice. Physical examination: subicteric sclerae. AST — 1. Calculous cholecystitis E. liver is +5 cm. decreased appetite.2 mmol/L. Primary liver cancer C. Antibacterial medication D.8 mmol/L. general bilirubin — 60 mkmol/L. A 10-year-old boy is ill with autoimmune hepatitis. cytostatics B.8.0 mmol/hour/L. What diagnostic study would you recommend? A. * Glucocorticoids. A 14 year-old patient was admitted to the gasteroenterology with skin itching. splin is 6x8cm. transaminase: ALT — 2. Hepatoprotectors C. cholesterol. bilirubin — 42 mkmol/L. cholesterol — 8. She was treated in an infectious hospital. Blood cell count 423. Acute viral hepatitis В D. Antiviral medications 424. Gilbert's disease 425.

Three months ago had hemotransfusion because of bleeding. hypertonic type. The biochemical blood test B. A 17-years old patient has sudden acute pain in the right epigastric area after having fatty food. Sedative and cholikinetics B. glossy. Asthenic 430. What examination will realistically confirm the diagnosis? A. Syndrome of lactase deficiency B. Radionuclide C. A 15 year old patient has been suffering from chronic pancreatitis for 5 years. spleen +1cm. The liver is +3 cm. ice-cream. * Spasmolitics and choleretics D. Roentgenological E. * Ultrasonic B. For what type of dyskinesia these complaints are typical? A. 7 years old child complains of an acute abdominal pain. The child 12 years old complaints of the skin and mucous membranes jaundice. The boy of 12 years complains of a periodic short-lived cutting pain in the right subcostal area. Hepatalgic E. * Cholestatic 426. Change of symptom set is caused by joining of: A. Dystonic D. Mesenchymal inflammatory D. During the last 5 years he has been observing abatement of pain syndrome. Antibiotics 429. What drugs should be assigned first of all for treatment? A. The diagnosis: Dyskinesia of gallbladder. Hypotonic C. Thermographic 428. use of cold drinks. * Irritable bowels syndrome 427. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency C. Jaundice has appeared on the 10th day of the disease. Choleretics and cholikinetics C. * Hypertonic B. Magnetic-resonance D. clay-colored feces and dark color of the urine.B. Chronic enterocolitis D. progressing weight loss. weakness. He is ill for 2 weeks. The urinalysis on bile pigments . Hepatitis В is suspected. Asthenic C. Endocrine pancreatic insufficiency E. which occurs after the greasy food. abdominal swelling. with admixtures of undigested food). which arises after mental loading. What method of investigation is to be used on the first stage of examining the patient? A. frequent defecations up to 3-4 times a day (feces are grey. Antioxidants E. Liver-cells insufficiency E.

Investigation of Anti-HAV Ig G 431. A mild muscle strain of the abdominal wall in the right hypochondrium is palpated. * Introduction of the obturator through the nasogastric tube B. 6 months B. Investigation of Anti-HAV Ig M E. Acute appendicitis B. Put a preliminary diagnosis. The child. The source of bleeding . Stomach ulcer penetration D. It was vomiting without relief. * Acute cholecystitis E. 9 months C. Cholekinetics D.6°C. Hemostatic therapy 434. Which of the following is inappropriate in the complex therapy? A. * Antispasmodic drugs B. Patient complains of pain in the epigastric region. What is the most effective method to control bleeding? A. in the right hypochondrium radiating to the right scapula.veins of the esophagus. He discharges from the hospital on the 24th day in satisfactory condition. What parameters will be increased? A. * Polymerase Chain Reaction D. * Alkaline phosphatase C. was treated because of the chronic hepatitis. Operation E. The body temperature is 37. Fresh frozen plasma I/V D. 3 years E. 12 years old. Physiotherapy of tonic type C. Ortner’s symptom is positive. * 5 years 432. tense and painful in the epigastrium and right hypochondrium. He has been ill hepatitis B for the last 5 years. Diastase D. Acute intestinal obstruction 435. The abdomen is moderately distended. 1 year D. A. 7 years old girl is ill during 3 years. Thrombinogen E. What is the duration of dispensary observation? A. Thymol test 433. Intravenous pituitrin C. Acute pancreatitis C. To the child of 5 years.C. Hypotonic type of gallbladder dyskinesia was diagnosed. Duodenal intubation . Syndrome of cholestasis is detected. 14-year-old patient has admitted to the intensive care unit with hemorrhagic shock due to gastric bleeding. who has chronic cholecystocholangitis the biochemical blood analysis is performed. Transaminase B.

An objective examination revealed no abnormalities. What of the following methods will be the most reliable way to exclude choledocholithiasis in this case? A. the time of its excretion . At ultrasound: the liver and the pancreas are not changed. 15 years old girl has gallstone disease. Chronic hepatitis . Hemolytic jaundice 437. Blood bilirubin is 45 mmol / l. * Choledocholithiasis C. * Biliary dyskinesia E. * Cholelithiasis E. Ortner’s. leucocytes -18 x 10 9/L. These complaints appear after overeating. periodic jaundice with fever. Symptoms of peritonitis are negative. sclera are yellowish. In the blood there is the high level of direct bilirubin. Kera’s symptoms are positive. Chronic pancreatitis B. Acute cholangitis E. After the next exacerbation and examination in the hospital a surgical method of treatment was recommended. darkening of urine color was observed. Urolithiasis C. Gastric ulcer D. a tendency to constipation. metallic taste in the mouth. Patient 16yrs old is suffering from chronic calculous cholecystitis with periodic exacerbations. local tenderness in the right hypochondrium. * Cholecystocholangiography 439. gall bladder is enlarged. jaundice during three days.90 ml. Subhepatic abscess D. Chronic cholecystitis D. Patient 12yrs old is feeling heaviness in the right hypochondrium and sometimes nausea or bitterness in his mouth. Perforation of the gallbladder B. She has chills. Mineral water of high salinity 436. Laparoscopy C. Patient 14yrs old complained of recurrent pain in the right hypochondrium.E. increase body temperature up to 38° C. After colic sclera and palate icteric. the pain is not increased. with parietal cholestasis. What kind of complications should be considered? A. as a short-term biliary colic. OBJECTIVE: a patient is being overweight. What kind of diseases you can think about? A. Chronic pancreatitis B. hypotonic. Which disease is possible? A. Duodenal intubation E. which irradiates to the right shoulder.50 minutes with no changes in the bile microscopy. Fibrogastroduodenoscopy B. At duodenal intubation: fraction B . Hemolytic jaundice 438. Giardiasis C. Ultrasound of the liver and biliary tract D.

440. The doctor on duty has diagnosed acute calculous cholecystitis. that for a long time has been suffering from the liver cirrhosis. * Transaminases E. tender in the right hypochondrium. * Ultrasound 443. The 10 years old boy has chronic viral hepatitis B with maximum activity. Thermography D. A few hours later the pain was localized in the right iliac region. pain in the right hypochondrium. Radionuclide diagnosis C. At ultrasonography: extended portal vein. Veltman’s test C. In patient 11yrsold. Abdomen is soft at palpation. constant flatulence. Acute appendicitis B. Acute pancreatitis C. enlarged liver and spleen. * Acute cholecystitis E. Bleeding from esophageal varices B. Grekov-Ortner’s. vomiting. Right-sided renal colic E. Prothrombin B. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Put the correct diagnosis. with a shift to the left. when there were the same complaints. Kera’s signs are positive. has recently appeared complaints of moderate pain in the epigastric region. she ate greasy and fried dishes. * Acute appendicitis 442. Which of the invasive methods of radiology screening of the patient should do? A. Which laboratory tests accurately characterizes the degree of cytolysis in a patient? A. Computed tomography B. The patient 10 years old suddenly fell ill about 12 hours ago. She has been ill for the last 3 days. What kind of cirrhosis complications has this patient? A. Duodenal ulcer D. Perforated ulcer D. There was a pain in the epigastric region. Acute pancreatitis B. with a shift to the left. A. OBJECTIVE: Symptoms of free fluid in the abdomen. In the blood analysis: leukocytosis 14 x 109/l. Prior to this.2 x 109/l. Acute cholecystitis C. Magnetic resonance imaging E. Takata-Ara’s test D. Intestinal dysbacteriosis . nausea. single vomiting. Total protein 444. Stomach ulcer 441. In the blood analysis: leukocytosis 12. Patient 15 years old was brought by an ambulance to the pediatric department with acute pain in the right hypochondrium and vomiting. which intensifies after meals. enlarged liver and spleen. Objectively: the patient's state is moderate. Patient 17yrs old was hospitalized to the surgical department with complaints of nausea. where now the positive symptoms of peritoneum irritation are determined.

* Chronic pancreatitis D. Chronic gastritis C. He notes nausea. 8 years old boy was ill with hepatitis B a year ago. diarrhea. Skin is without jaundice. OBJECTIVE: t ° = 37. Cholelithiasis. BP 125/75 mm Hg. What is the reason of jaundice? A. not painful. brick-colored urine. Appointment of trental and heparin C. The development of cirrhosis 448. decreased appetite. He has been ill for over 5 years. Dyskinesia of bile ducts D. appetite loss. Macronodular cirrhosis D.9. he became drowsy during the day. * Development of chronic hepatitis B B. Exacerbation has developed because of errors in the diet. he is complaining about fatigue. weight loss. In the blood: leuk. * Viral hepatitis E.4 x 109/l. liver and spleen were palpable 1cm below the costal edge. The liver is uniformly decreased. Laferon appointment D. Peritonitis D. A. Hepatocellular failure E. In a patient with chronic hepatitis B jaundice was growing.0°C. Skin and sclera are yellowish. Stomach ulcer B. ESR 22 mm/hour. This situation can be regarded as: A. Residual phenomena of acute hepatitis E. Diuresis is normal. which irradiates to the back. nausea. 10. Skin is pale. vomiting without relief.C. hemolytic anemia B. student. sleep disturbance. Patient 17yrs old. obstructive jaundice C. 15 years old patient was hospitalized with straining pain in the left hypochondrium. Appointment of legalon and essentiale 446. ALT – 2. Recurrence of hepatitis B C. increased weakness and fatigue. In the blood analysis: hyperbilirubinemia (35 mcmol/L) with the predominance of direct bilirubin. Appointment of choleretic and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug B. The last 4 days has being complained of general weakness. Chronic enterocolitis . In the past two months. pulse rate 94 per minute. Malaria. pain in the epigastrium.2 mmol/L. fatigue and impaired appetite. Name the further tactics of the patient’s treatment. * Portal hypertension 445. Chronic cholecystitis E. right and left hypochondrium. AST – 1. The worsening of what disease is the most likely in this case? A. Hemolytic anemia 447. * Appointment of prednisolone and increased detoxification E. ALT is 2. especially in the morning.1. came to the clinic of the University.

pulse 120 per min. pH 4. A child has a measles.2.449. trunk. On what day of this period a rash will spread on a trunk. On the 5th 5. scalp C. A. Laboratory results: metabolic acidosis. Hoarse voice. paroxysmal cough. pigmentation E. period of exanthema. catarrhal period. 1st day of exanthema. anymore in skin folds. ALT 2. * Rhinitis. cold D. hoarse. disturbs in the morning. all over the body. all over the body 4. pale perioral triangle B. catarrhal period and period of exanthema 2. skin and sclera are yellow. scleritis E. On the 4th E. proximal parts of arms? A. * In the end of incubation period. tachycardia. When is it possible to select a measles virus from children that are infected by measles? A. Acute renal failure Назва наукового напрямку (модуля): Семестр: 11 2016 6 year Pediatrics . A.Infectious . Thyreotoxic crisis D. In the incubation period. CVF III st B. AST 1. Indicate the term of blood taking for serological tests in case of measles. dry cough. period of exanthema. first days of exanthema period B. barking cough 3. proximal parts of arms E.1 mmol/L. The worsening of condition is due to? A. hemorrhagic syndrome. bilirubin 334. catarrhal period C. erythema of palms. Name characteristic catarrhal symptoms in catarrhal period of measles. snoring in asleep B. Indicate localization of the rashes in measles.2 mcmol/L. There are respiratory arrythmia. test Опис: Exam Перелік питань: 1. Laboring nasal breath. On the 1st B. * On the 2nd C.8 mmol/L. On face. Violation of cerebral circulation C. In the period of exanthema. AP 90/40 mm Hg. In the catarrhal period. Liver is enlarged. behind the ears. blood serum sodium 90 mmol/L. At the inspection: absent conscious. * Hepatic coma E. anymore disturbs at night C. conjunctivitis. pigmentation D. Moist productive cough. * On face. potassium blood serum 5. In the incubation.9 mmol/L. neck D. splenomegaly and ascites. . all over the body. Boy 12 years old was entered to the intensive care unit in extreme severe condition. On the 3rd D.

On all catarrhal period 9. mild illness at the child of senior age E. Early age child. orthomyxovirus E. Measles pneumonia C. Till 5th day from the beginning of rashes C. Croup syndrome B. * togavirus of the Rubivirus family 11. moderate disease D. What is the mechanism of the aquired rubella transmission? A. Indicate the term of patient's isolation in case of uncomplicated measles. * Early age. hemocontact B. In what cases a measles patient can be treated at home? A. In the first days of illness B. What is the evidence to give immunoglobulin to a child of 10 months who has the uncomplicated measles? A. * Till 5th day from the beginning of rashes D. On all catarrhal period B. severe disease 8. 5 days from the beginning of illness D. without complications C. 5 days from the beginning of illness B.A. 10 days from the beginning of rashes E. After 10 days of illnesses D. A. alimentary . A. paramyxovirus of the Morbillivirus family C. 15 days of illness 6. Indicate the term of patient's isolation in case of measles. complicated by pneumonia. * Uncomplicated. transplacental C. A. mild or moderate measles in any age B. On 10. Early age. Child from socially unprotected family E. * In the first days of illness. severe disease at the child of senior age D. Child of early age from the socially protected family 7. . On the 7th day of illness C. Name the etiology of rubella. in 10-14 days E. * On 10 days from the beginning of rashes 10. 9 days from the beginning of illness E. paramyxovirus of the Paramyxovirus family D. 9 days from the beginning of illness C. paramyxovirus of the Pneumophilus family B.

Mainly on the flexor surfaces of extremities. plasmocytosis. Mainly on the face. protease inhibitors C. antibiotics of wide spectrum E. congenital heart defects D. adenoiditis. microcephaly. anaemia 17. Till 10th day after appearance of rashes 13. * Mainly on the extensor surfaces of limbs. lymphocytosis. recombinant interferon .D. Indicate the term of patient's contagiousness in case of the aquired rubella. back. buttocks B. * enlargement and tenderness of the posterior cervical and occipital lymph nodes 16. catarrhal. pale perioral triangle E. What is characteristically for the congenital Rubella? A. All over the body including the scalp C. A. follicular or lacunar tonsillitis C. Till 3rd day from the disease beginning B. behind the ears 15. deafness. leucopenia. Till 9th day after the disease beginning E. retinopathy E. corticosteroids B. What pathogenetic treatment does it follow to administer in case of Rubella. neck. lymphocytosis. complicated by arthritis? A. Till 15th day after appearance of the last rash D. What changes in the lymphatic system are typical for Rubella? A. plasmocytosis B. granulomatous inflammation C. lymphadenopathy B. tonsillitis D. hydrocephaly. atypical mononuclear cells D. leucocytosis. What changes in a peripheral blood are typical for Rubella? A. * Till 5th day after appearance of rashes C. In skin folds D. * cataract. neutrophylia E. calcinates in a brain B. hepatosplenomegaly. leucocytosis. enlargement and tenderness of the anterior and posterior cervical lymph nodes E. * NSAIDs D. * leucopenia. * droplet E. exanthema. the CNS damage 14. leucopenia. contact 12. What is the characteristic localization of rashes in case of aquired Rubella? A. lymphomonocytosis C.

* period of crusts D. period of hyperpigmentation 23. 14 days C. period of exanthema C. * droplet B. tonsillitis precedes the rashes development B. Keratoconjunctivitis at a patient with chicken pox is treated by: A. * ointment „Zovirax" and 20% solution of albucid E. rashes are provoked by the use of semisynthetic penicillins D. desquamation on the second week after rashes period 22.18. 2% chloramphenicol ointment B. * acyclovir D. human immunoglobulin E. drops „Tobradex" D. prodromal (initial) period B. 1% tetracycline ointment C. 40% of glucose solution B. 17 days D. vaccine „Varylrix" 21. Typical mechanism of chicken pox transmitting is: A. benzyl penicillin B. For the typical chicken pox is characteristically: A. Indicate medicine for etiologic therapy of chicken pox: A. period of desquamation E. * mannitol D. * new elements of rashes are accompanied by the increase of body temperature E. 20% solution of albucid and 1% tetracycline ointment 24. Koplick's spots appear two days before the rashes C. lasix C. * 21 day E. alimentary . 11 days B. 25 days 20. How long after the contact with a Rubella patient a child cannot go to the rest camp? A. diacarb 19. Neurological complications of chicken pox appear in: A. What preparation from diuretics does it follow to give an advantage in treatment of Rubella that complicated by meningitis? A. chloramphenicol C. verospiron E.

* acyclovir D. parenteral D. spot-erythema-papule-crust B. chloramphenicol C. spot-papule-vesicle-scar E. severe intoxication E. * spot-papule-vesicle-crust D. human immunoglobulin E. spot-papule-crust C. 3-7 days D. 1 mg/kg E. What is the duration of the chicken pox latent period? A. contact E. a few hours B. * asymmetrical skin damage C. What is the single dose of acyclovir for chicken pox treatment? A. * 10 mg/kg B. on 7 days after appearance of the last element of rash D. 200 IU/kg D. 30 days 28. hemorrhagic rashes 29.C. spot-bulla-erosion-scar 27. 5 mg/kg 30. on 11 days after appearance of the last element of rash E. A patient with chicken pox should be isolated: A. presence of the vesicles D. gancyclovir B. What is the chicken pox rashes evolution? A. 100 mg/kg C. * 11-21 day E. on 2 days after appearance of the last element of rash B. Indicate the etiologic therapy of Herpes Zoster. 1-2 days C. „Varylrix" vaccine . on 21 day after appearance of the last element of rash 26. * on 5 days after appearance of the last element of rash C. A. by water 25. fever B. What distinguish herpes zoster from the chicken pox? A.

along oculomotor nerve. drops „Tobradex" D. throat smear C. D. What virus causes genital and neonatal herpes? A. „thick drop"test E. Where is the virus of Herpes simplex persisting in the human organism? A. The Varicella-Zoster Virus belongs to: A. paramyxovirus family 32. 1% tetracycline ointment and 20% albucid solution 33. D. B. * ointment „Zovirax" and a 20% albucid solution E. bacterioscopy of the vesicles contain 34. Herpes simplex 1. 36. along intercostal arteries. D. Cytomegalovirus. Name viruses which do not belong to the herpes family: A. E. C. along facial nerve.31. 37. 2% chloramphenicol ointment B. E. Epstein-Barr virus. . What laboratory method will confirm the diagnosis of Herpes Zoster? A. * Herpes simplex 2. E. B. * Rubella virus . D. A. Epstein-Barr virus. C. 1% tetracycline ointment C. In case of herpetic keratoconjunctivitis it follows to give: A. * immune-fluorescent method D. blood culture B. Indicate the most frequent rashes’ localization at Herpes Zoster. C. * herpesvirus family D. in spleen. adenovirus family B. in bone marrow. Varicella-Zoster virus. * in nervous ganglia. * along intercostal nerves. 35. Cytomegalovirus. in liver. B. B. E. C. Herpes simplex virus. in lymph nodes. along trigeminal nerve. rhinovirus family C. Herpes simplex 4. hepadnavirus family E.

neutropenia. who had scarlet fever. lymphocytosis. on 6 day from the beginning of disease B. myocarditis.38. semisynthetic penicillins provoke the rashes eruption D. eosinophilia 42. is predisposed to confluence . synovitis. normal ESR D. myocarditis B. necrotizing tonsillitis C. * skin. * leucocytosis. only in the period of recovery 40. For typical scarlet fever is characteristically: A. 39. conjunctiva. encephalitis. leucocytosis. on 15 day from the beginning of disease D. Name the primary site of infection in case of herpes simplex: A. otitis E. from the second week of exanthema period E. lymphocytosis. encephalitis. Indicate the typical changes in the blood test in scarlet fever: A. elevated ESR E. skin. the Koplick’s spots appear two days before the rashes period C. on 10 day from the beginning of disease C. elevated ESR. * otitis. purulent lymphadenitis. B. the prolonged period of fever precedes the rashes eruption B. rheumatism D. D. * skin desquamates on the second week after the rashes appear 43. Choose septic complications of scarlet fever: A. mucus membranes of bronchial tubes. leucocytosis. elevated ESR C. new elements of the rash are accompanied by the increased body temperature E. Typical rashes for scarlet fever are: A. macular-papular. prodromal period B. mucus membranes of upper respiratory tract. nephritis. C. skin. otitis. mucus membranes of gastro-intestinal tract. elevated ESR B. When the child. mucus membranes of external sexual organs. leucocytosis. E. may visit the organized child's establishments? A. myocarditis. The symptoms of “scarlet fever” heart (sympatic-phase) appear in: A. hemorrhagic B. necrotizing tonsillitis 41. on 30 day from the beginning of disease 44. nephritis. mucus membranes of upper respiratory tract. arthritis. leucopenia. monocytosis. * first two days of exanthema period C. on 3-4 days of exanthema period D. * on 22 day from the beginning of disease E.

vesicles. small macules D. bacteriemia 50. Name the second phase of the pseudotuberculosis pathogenesis. 100 mg/kg/day C. by water 49. ECG B. papules. droplet B. contact C. How long the symptoms of „scarlet fever" heart (vagus-phase) are present? A. 1-2 weeks E. * 50-100 thousand IU/kg/day E. What is the dose of benzyl penicillin in case of scarlet fever? A. Pharyngeal culture C. 5-6 days C. USI of the heart. Autumn-winter E. * Winter-spring D. polymorphic (spots. * pin-point E. infection E. ECG. generalization D. Name the mechanism of the pseudotuberculosis transmission. Spring C. * enteral C. Blood culture D. 25-50 thousand IU/kg/day D. What seasonality is characteristic for pseudotuberculosis? A. * fecal-oral D. USI of abdominal organs E. 10 days D. What investigations is it necessary to do on the 20-21st day of scarlet fever? A.diphtheriae 47. regional infection B. alimentary E. * Complete blood analysis. A. 3-4 days B. Winter B. No one . 100-200 thousand IU/kg/day 48. crusts) 45. Smear from the nose and throat on C. * 3-4 weeks 46. 10-15 mg/kg/day B. urinanalysis. A.C.

arthralgic form? A. Buttocks. * ibuprophen. epithelium (flat epithelium) in the urine C. leucocyturia. round the joints. What changes in the urine analysis are typical for the toxic damage of kidneys in pseudotuberculosis? A. crystaluria. intestinal invagination (intususseption) C. 9-21 day before exanthema period E. indirect hemagglutination reaction E. indomethacin 57. * Front and back surface of shins. Perforation of the sigmoid colon B. shoulders C. leucocyturia. pyelonephritis E. nimesulid. paracetamol. Indicate the nodular erythema overwhelming localization. At fellow pseudotuberculosis is suspected. Buttocks. bacteriuria B. 11-17 days before exanthema period 52. thighs. What complication is typical for pseudotuberculosis. * immune-enzyme analysis. Forearms. ibuprophen D. diclofenac of sodium E. crystaluria. What investigation should be done for early diagnostics of pseudotuberculosis? A. Front surface of shins. abdominal form? A. thighs. 9-21 day before the disease D.51. epithelium in the urine (kidney epithelium) 54. cefotaxim. proteinuria. Bacteriological examination of excrements. immune-fluorescent test C. urine. indirect hemagglutination reaction with paired sera 56. prednisolone. What is the pathogenetical treatment in case of pseudotuberculosis. agglutination reaction D. casts. leucocyturia. epithelium in the urine E. * acute appendicitis D. glomerulonephritis 53. hands. Rose B. What color at painting by Neisser the corns of volutin in Corynebacterium diphtheria are painted? A. proteinuria. * 3-18 days before the disease C. feet 55. erythrocyturia. A. round the joints E. erythrocyturia (unchanged red cells) D. blood B. 3-7 days ago B. When was he infected? A. shins B. Black . thighs D. * proteinuria. ibuprophen B. chloramphenicol C.

A. severe B. myolisis of cardiomyocytes B. Middle ear B. combined E. * parasympatic influence C. Indicate the disease severity in case of localized tonsilar diphtheria. Spring-summer C. * air-droplet B. Immunity is stabile. Undamaged skin D. water D. moderate C. * Mucous membranes C. air-dust 59. Summer B. Light brown 58. Indicate the most frequent reason of cardiac arrest at diphtheria on 3-5 day of disease. Urinary system 61. Immunity is stabile. unsterile C. typospecific 60. transmissive C. Destruction of myofibrils 63. Gastrointestinal tract E. vertical E. parenchymatose dystrophy D.C. toxic . * Immunity is unstabile E. fatty degeneration of myocardium E. typospecific D. Red E. Indicate the way of Corynebacterium diphtheria transmission: A. * Navy blue D. Indicate the seasonality of diphtheria. Immunity is stabile. A. long-life B. Spring 62. What is an entrance gate (atrium) for the agent of diphtheria? A. * Autumn-winter D. A. * mild D. What immunity will be formed at a child who had diphtheria? A. Summer-autumn E. Immunity is prolonged.

A. excrements. Lethality is high only among new-borns E. 1st day B. 3rd week 68. bile . What cases are typical for infectious mononucleosis? A. Т-lymphocytes D. Lethality is absent D. Lethality is high only in preschool age 67. Which antibiotic is impossible to use for concomitant bacterial infection treatment in infectious mononucleosis? A. Epidemics B. cefasolin 69. tonsillitis 70. * В-lymphocytes E.64. A. exanthema E. СD3-lymphocytes B. Epidemics in the hot time of a year 66. Among the symptoms choose the main diagnostic sign of the infectious mononucleosis. * hepatosplenomegaly C. Lethality is high B. * 1st week D. only single cases C. Epidemics in the cold time of a year E. 2nd week E. 3rd day C. СD4-lymphocytes C. NK-cells 65. * ampicillin E. Urine. roxithromicin C. Indicate the most characteristic time of illness when atypical mononuclears appear in the peripheral blood. The Epstein-Barr virus is characterized by expressed tropism to: A. catarrhal syndrome D. azithromicin B. amikacin D. What fluids of organism is it possible to select a mumps virus from? A. Sporadic only in the cold time of a year D. * Lethality is low. What is the letality in infectious mononucleosis? A. * Sporadic C. short course fever B.

* First 3-5 days of the disease B. CSF C. 1-3 days of the disease D. Skin above the gland has usual color C. First 5-7 days of the disease E. by lymph B. Till 9 day of the disease C. conjunctiva B. external orifices of salivary glands ducts E. Give the description of Filatov's sign in mumps. chewing 75. Mucous membranes of the mouth. Mucous membranes of the mouth. Urine. throat C. excrements. Slight painful swelling D. tonsils D. white points on cheeks mucus C. blood D. nose. blood. Glands of external secretion. ductless glands. nose. External orifices of salivary glands ducts 73. throat. * pain behind and in front an ear-lobe during speech. Which way does a mumps virus spread to the glands? A. nose. What is the entrance gate (atrium) of mumps infection? A. throat. Glands of external secretion C. Saliva. bile 71. Urine. dryness in the mouth. excrements. nervous system D. nose. blood. * Tenderness at palpation is expressed B. nervous system B. 7-9 days of the disease 72.B. * Saliva. edema and hyperemia of the external orifice of Stensen's duct B. Glands of external secretion. * Glands of external secretion. fissures on the tongue D. When the contagiousness of mumps patient is the biggest? A. tear of the tongue bridle (frenula) E. Gland is not firm . by contact way C. CSF E. ductless glands 76. Ductless glands. by a contact way and by blood 74. * by blood D. nervous system E. * Mucous membranes of the mouth. What differs the bacterial parotitis from the mumps parotitis? A. A. Mucous membranes of the mouth. by blood and by lymph E. For mumps is typical the damage of: A. throat.

* 15-20. * 9 days E. Genthamycin. 4 days B. typical form? A. days D. E. * 30 days. In 1 month B. A. 6-8. D. Indicate the daily dose of amikacin (mg/kg) for "Whooping cough" treatment: A. D. Ampicillin.E. The reaction of the complement binding. 81. Amoxicillin. 82. * In 3 months D. 4 days B. Bilateral parotitis 77. 25 days. 14 days. 10-12. In 2 months C. When the first vaccination against whooping cough should be done? A. In 4 months . 1-2. Indicate duration of ill children isolation in case of Whooping cough. E. 79. 21 days. C. E. B. E. Cefotaxim. "Cough plates" method. What antibiotic will be ineffective for the whooping cough treatment? A. B. C. 83. 80. C. Serological method. B. 2-4. D. Buthamirat. Amoxicillin. B. DNA polymerase reaction. * Immune-enzyme method. What medicine is contraindicated for whooping cough treatment in case of apnea attaks? A. D. E. Cefotaxim. 5 days C. * Cefasolin. How many days does it follow to isolate the ill child in case of mumps. C. * Aminazin. D. What from additional methods is better to use for early diagnostic of whooping cough? A. C. Ampicillin. 14 days 78.

infiltrative changes C.5 years after finished vaccination. What antibacterial drug is better for 1 month infant with whooping cough? A. Lymphogenous way C. C. D. Gentamicin 90. At what age children can be ill with whooping cough? A. Influenza A C. through 2. Which of the following diseases is most likely accompanied by lesions of the pancreas? A.E. * Hematogenous way B. Neither one of the above 87. Penicillin C. through 1. What the radiological changes in the lungs are typical for whooping cough? A. in 4 years 85. Colibacteriosis D. Bactrim E. In 5 months 84. * From the first days of life . Cough C. Conjunctivitis D. Migratory eosinophilic infiltrates D. * through 1 year after finished vaccination. Which of the following. is a symptom of mumps? A. Streptomycin D. When the first revaccination against whooping cough should be done? A. Enanthema on the soft palate E. segmental or lobar atelectasis B. through 3 years after finished vaccination E. Dilated roots 89. Mumps virus from the upper respiratory tract spreads by: A. B. Dysentery E. * Mumps B. both with increased parotid glands. Maculopapular rash 88. Increased vascular pattern E. * Azithromycin B. Emphysema. Combination of ascending and haematogenous way E. * Pain while chewing B. * Emphysema. Infectious mononucleosis 86.5-2 years after finished vaccination. Ascending through a Stensen’s duct D.

mainly nontoxigenic diphtheria bacilli play the role C. Broad-spectrum antibiotics C. What is the main cause of asphyxia in diphtheria croup? A. Massive subconjunctival hemorrhages 93. From two years 91. Encephalopathy with seizures E. From one year E. when still antitoxic immunity is high D. Croup is caused by a specific type of pathogen that does not cause toxic forms of diphtheria E. Surgical intervention 94. Complications of whooping cough can be: A. * Fibrinous membrane is easily separated from the mucosa that is covered with single-layered columnar epithelium B. The presence of a viscous secretion C. Croup. Antifungal drugs D. * Surgery B. * All the listed B. Antibiotics penicillins D. Atelectasis C. Corticosteroids E. Frequent complications E. * All the listed B. Diphtheria croup is more common in vaccinated children of 1-5 years.B. Antidiphtheritic serum E. unlike tonsillar diphtheria. Shortening of the incubation and catarrhal period C. What are the features of whooping cough in infants? A. What treatment should be start to a patient with perytonsilliis first of all? A. * Antidiphtheritic serum B. develops usually in children with a mature immune system 96. Why the isolated diphtheria croup has no toxic forms? A. The absence of typical coughing paroxisms 92. Edema of the mucous membrane . The prevalence of severe forms in the course of disease D. * Trachea blockage by fibrinous membrane B. From three months C. In the development of diphtheritic croup. Pneumonia D. From six months D. Corticosteroids C. What treatment should be start without delay to a patient with diphtheria? A. Local treatment 95.

"Cat’s scratches" disease E. Toxic tonsillar diphtheria D. Tonsillar E. The increase of which lymph nodes has the greatest diagnostic value in infectious mononucleosis? A. Exedates in the gaps are yellowish-white D. Throat culture C. Rubella 101. Increasing the temperature to 39-40 oC for 2-3 days E. Local antifungal treatment E. What kind of research will verify the diagnosis of fungal tonsillitis? A. Antidiphtheritic serum C. Necrosis of mucosa 97. Reflex spasm of laryngeal muscles E. Adenovirus infection C. Analysis of peripheral blood D. * None of the above B.D. Enter the earliest complication of diphtheria: A. and the mucosa bleeding B. The agglutination reaction with horses erythrocites E. Polyradiculitis E. Palatoplegia D. In which of the following diseases mainly posterior neck lymph nodes are increased? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Occipital D. almost always vomiting is repeated 102. Axillary 99. * Infectious mononucleosis B. * Myocarditis C. Bright diffuse hyperemia of the throat C. Pneumonia 98. * Membranes are difficulty removed with a spatula. The increased antibody titer to streptococcal antigens 103. * Smear microscopy B. What changes in the peripheral blood can confirm a diagnosis of bacterial tonsillitis? . Steroid hormones D. Antibiotics 100. Supraclavicular C. In severe cases. * Posterior neck B. In lacunary tonsillitis are observed all of the following symptoms except: A. What from the following is used for the treatment of uncomplicated moderate infectious mononucleosis? A.

Serologic tests for infectious mononucleosis E. Nodular 105. Cartilaginoid C. The relatively high percentage (30-40) of atypical forms of mumps D. The number of atypical mononuclear cells in a smear more than 10% 104. Fluctuating E. Firm D. Reduced hemoglobin levels and low color index E. What the swelling consistency is typical for mumps? A. and virus isolation from large drops of saliva B. Enteroviruses D. Rotaviruses E. The causative *agent of mumps belongs to: A. Leukopenia in with lymphocytosis C. * No patients with catarrhal symptoms. heart B. Slightly elevated ESR D. Parainfluenza 109. Pharynx and nose swab bacteriologic test for the diphtheria bacillus C. * Doughy B. * endothelium of blood vessels C. Myxoviruses B. Virus is not stable to the effects of physical and chemical factors E. Diphtheria C. suprarenal glands . Influenza D. Constrictive laryngitis (croup) may be a complication of the following diseases except: A. * Mumps B. Measles E. Microscopy of material from the pharynx D. What is the main cause of low mumps virus distribution in the environment? A. Cytomegalovirus 106. * Neutrophilic leukocytosis with a left shift B. Adenoviruses C. Which of the following is best to do in a presumptive diagnosis of toxic tonsillar diphtheria? A. * Hospitalization without the prior laboratory examination B. What tissues are most sensible to Meningococcal endotoxin? A. Lack of virus transmission via third parties 107.A. Otolaryngologist consultation 108. The virus is transmitted from person to person primarily through contaminated saliva C.

What is the main investigation for laboratory confirmation of Meningococcal infection? A. Express methods D. brain E. ciprofloxacin D. sumamed or genthamicin 111. On the second day of the disease B. What antibiotic is given in case of toxic shock in Meningococcal infection? A. * rifampicin or macrolides E. What dose of prednisolone is injected in case of Meningococcemia without the sings of infectious- toxic shock? A. Biochemical analysis of CSF B. In 2-3 days after the disease beginning C. * 5 mg/kg 116. CSF cultures 115. cefotaxim 114. * Position on side with the thrown back head and knees flexed to the abdomen B. ampicillin thryhidratis B. benzylpenicillin C. A. 10 mg/kg D.D. blood. Knee-elbow position 113. 25 mg/kg B. semisynthetic penicillines B. Indicate typical signs of meningitis in infants. Position on a stomach with the legs flexed to the abdomen D. A. Indicate the typical pose of child at meningococcal meningitis. 15 mg/ kg E. During first two days of the disease D. * nasopharynx mucus. 20 mg/kg C. macrolides or azythromicin D. Immunological tests C. Position on side with the back curved outside E. genthamycin or ofloxacin C. On 3-4 day of the disease E. . * chloramphenicol E. When usually the hemorrhagic rashes at Meningococcemia appear? A. Position on the back with the knees flexed to the abdomen C. * In 4-6 hours after the beginning of the disease 112. cerebellum 110. Latex agglutination of blood E. Indicate antibacterial medicine for treatment of Meningococcal nasopharyngitis.

positive hanging (Lessage) symptom D. The children of what age most often ill with poliomyelitis? A. Nuchal rigidity. positive Mussi symptom. typospecific immunity C. * Through a mouth B. What type of immunity is formed after poliomyelitis? A. Intracutaneously . familyspecific immunity D. Kernig’s symptom B. Nuchal rigidity. In 1 year. * From 3 months triply with an interval 1 month E. What vaccination is done for the prophylaxis of poliomyelitis? A. absent immunity 118. Lymphatic system D. By specific Ig E. Specific active prophylaxis by the killed vaccine 121. in 15-17 years E. What system is most sensible to the virus of poliomyelitis? A. 6 months 122. Kernig’s and Lessage symptom E. in school age D. Unspecific active prophylaxis D.A. 1. Indicate the way of vaccine introduction against poliomyelitis at the third vaccination and next revaccinations. * Nervous system B. 3 and 6 years C. System of blood 120. * Specific active prophylaxis by the living attenuated vaccine C. * persistent immunity E. * Bulging and tension of large fontanel. Specific active prophylaxis by anatoxin B. Bone-muscular system E. and Lessage symptom 117. Cardio-vascular system C. * before 7 years 119. in the first months of life B. Subcutaneously C. From 3 months triply with an interval 1 week B. Positive Mussi. Only by an epidemic testimony D. positive Mussi. First day. Positive Brudzinsky. Kernig’s and Lessage symptom C. unstabile immunity B. in the first year of life C. A. When vaccination against poliomyelitis is performed? A.

Meningeal signs B. E. * By ЕCНО and Coxacie viruses 125. Intramuscularly E. Sings of conjunctivitis and rhinitis C. Gamma-globulin and RNA-sum is specific treatment. Intranasal 123. Only pathogenetic and symptomatic treatment. transmissive and ascending E. What are the typical clinical signs of Enterovirus infection? A. * No diet. More frequent entrance gate (atrium) of Enterovirus infection is: A. C. Medical tactic at enterovirus infection is: A. * Hyperemia of the face and neck. The way of the Enterovirus infection transmission is: A. B. Specific treatment is not present. By herpes virus C. D. Lymphatic and blood circulatory system 127. water. Pose of ballet-dancer D. Antibiotics and symptomatic treatment. Presence of papulous rashes and itch D. domestic and transmissive C. What is the characteristic pose of children who have poliomyelitis? A. Hectic temperature and signs of intoxication E. Antiviral and pathogenetic therapy. By poliomyelitis virus D. Orthopnoe C. Mucus membranes of the intestine E. 129. contact-domestic and water B. air-droplet and domestic 126. Pose of frog E. sometimes with appearance of the maculo-papulous rashes 128. Antibiotics and dehydration treatment. * Mucus membranes of the pharynx and intestine C. Wound surface B. By the respiratory syncitial virus E. Diet. * orally-fecal and air-droplet D. Enterovirus infections are caused: A. By rheovirus B. Mucus membranes of the upper respiratory tracts and stomach D. * A symptom of tripods 124. What is the specific prophylaxis of enterovirus infection? . The Lessage symptom B. Diet.D. A diet is not appointed.

Specific Ig injection in 3 months. Emergency vaccination of those whoi were not vaccinated before E. Hospitalization of sick and contacts for 10 days. Anaferon for 10 days C.A. final disinfection B. Specific Ig for 3 days E. Vaccination by inactivated cultures in age of 3 and 9 years. The supervision after patients. 130. Antibiotics for 5 days D. Posterior horns of the spinal cord 135. Which of prevention is crucial in the eradication of polio? A. * A specific prophylaxis is absent C. isolation of contacts for 7 days. The differential diagnosis of polio acute paralytic form must be made with the following diseases except: A. * Rabies B. * Leaves pigmentation and scaling B. Specific Ig injection in 15 months. * The anterior horns of the spinal cord B. Emergency introduction of the donor immunoglobulin to all contacts 133. It is saved for a few days . * Gamma-globulin and interferon for 14-15 days B. Cerebellum D. smal maculous-papulous and pin-point C. The current and final disinfection in the focus D. B. Supervision after patients and contacts. current disinfection C. Cortex C. Vaccination by inactivated vaccines in age of 1 year. current disinfection D. What medicine is given to the children in the focus of enterovirus infection? A. * Hospitalization of patients. Supervision after patients and contacts. final disinfection E. Pink. Observation of contact at the source of infection for three weeks C. Myelitis 134. Infection polyradiculoneuritis D. E. D. Which of the allegations about the rash in enterovirus infection is wrong? A. A skin Background is not changed D. Specific anatoxin for the first 2 days 132. isolation of contacts for 14 days. Appears simultaneously on the face and trunk E. Encephalitis C. Pia mater E. * Routine vaccination for 96 percent or more B. Indicate preventive measures in the focus of enterovirus infection: A. Myopathy E. giving them interferon 131. In acute paralytic poliomyelitis virus mainly affected: A.

Chest. C. Hands. Vesiculous. Reovirus infection D. Venous stasis. 141. * Petechial. D. What is the most characteristic sign of brain edema? A. 138. C. Single vomiting. D. B. typical form? A. B. C. * Convulsions. C. B. Hypothermia. E. B. * Penicillin. E. B. Astrovirus infection 142. Define the meningitis criteria in infants: A. Chloramphenicol. Confusion. * Legs. E. D. Cyprofloxacin. Bullous. Ceftriaxone. Oliguria. E. Hyperthermia. Parainfluenza. E. What dose of penicillin is used in meningococcemia treatment in children? A. What are the most typical places of rash localization in meningococcemia? A. * Bulging fontanelle. Face. * Influenza. Erythematous. Rhinovirus infection. C. E. What is the most typical version of the rash in meningococcemia. For which viral infections meningeal syndrome is the most typical? A. Streptomycin. Paralysis. Enter the starting antibiotic that should be given for purulent meningitis of unknown etiology: A. B. C. 50 thousand units / kg . 137. 139. 140. Kerning’s Symptom. * 300 thousand units / kg B.136. D. Pustulous. D. Neck.

* Poliomyelitis. D. D. Rhinovirus infection. Cephalosporin Antibiotics. Hyperreflexia. * Enteroviral infection. Which of the following drugs should be used on prehospital stage of meningococcemia treatment? A. E. B. * Chloramphenicol succinate. Select the most typical features of paralysis in poliomyelitis: A. Rhinovirus infection. Hypertension of muscles. D. Verospiron 147. Parainfluenza. E. 200 thousand units / kg 143. C. Hypertension of muscles. Penicillin. B. C. 100 thousand units / kg D. Distal. E. E. Adenovirus infection. C. B. Adenovirus infection. B. Symmetrical C. Violation of sensitivity. Penicillin. For which viral infections meningeal syndrome is the most typical? A. Choose the most characteristic features of paralysis in poliomyelitis: A. Violation of sensitivity. Which viral infections are characterized by meningeal syndrome? A. * Prednisolone. C. Diphenhydramine. E. * Proximal. B. D. D. B. Which of the following drugs should be used on prehospital stage of meningococcemia treatment? A. Rotavirus 148. * Asymmetrical. 144. Hyperreflexia. Dicarboxylic. Dicarboxylic. Respiratory syncytial infection . Diphenhydramine. Parainfluenza. E. D. 146. C. 145.C. 1 million IU / kg E.

Paresis. E. * Haemorrhagic. B. C. Which viral infections are characterized by meningeal syndrome? A. D. D. E. B. D. Head. Define the meningitis criteria in infants: A. Roseolous. . * Repeated vomiting. Face. E. B. Pustular. 152. Vesicular. E. 154. E. Hallucinations. * Enteroviral infections. List illnesses with myositis: A. B. Influenza. What are the most typical places of rash localization in meningococcemia? A. Erythematous C. B. Roseolous. D. Vesiculous. C. * All the ennumerated B. D. Hands. B. Bulging fontanelle. 155. Sunken fontanel. Repeated vomiting. Reovirus infection 150. C.149. * Buttocks. Respiratory syncytial infection C. Excoriated. D. Define the meningitis criteria in infants: A. * Papulous. What is the most typical version of the rash in meningococcemia? A. Excoriated. Chest. Tilting the head. Adenovirus infection. Convulsions. Rotavirus infection E. 153. 151. What is the most typical version of the primary rash in meningococcemia? A. Kerning’s Symptom. * Herpesvius infection. C.

Soft palate C. Oliguria.Coxsackie B viruses) is characterized by the appearance of small vesicles surrounded by a red circle on the mucous membranes with subsequent formation of fast healing erosions. Bulging fontanelle. The only source of infection is a sick person or a virus carrier C. . Herpetic infection. hemagglutinin and reverse transcriptase. The influenza virus contains: A. picornaviruses. * hemagglutinin and neuraminidase. 156. C. Herpangina in children (agent . In nasopharynxl virus stay not more than 1-2 weeks E. Virus secretion with faeces may take several weeks 159. * More likely older children are infected B. 161. What does not belong to criteria of the vaccine associated paralytic polio? A. C. D. Name the incorrect assertion about the epidemiology of poliomyelitis: A. except: A.C. The virus is excreted from the nasopharyngeal or intestinal contents D. E. B. Lack of the disease progression E. Palatal tongue D. * Cheek mucosa B. The influenza virus belongs to: A. 157. D. paramyxoviruses. adenoviruses. * Violation of consciousness. D. Palatal arches E. To contacts with vaccinated this period is extended to 60-day. * ortomyxoviruses. C. Salmonellosis. E. Isolation of vaccine strain polio virus and a 4-fold increase of type-specific antibodies 160. poxviruses. * Vaccine associated paralytic polio (after oral vaccine) is most often associated with type I polio virus B. E. The onset of illness later than 4th and no later than 30th day after receiving the vaccine. What is the most characteristic sign of brain edema? A. Development of flaccid paresis and paralysis without violating sensitivity with persistent (after 2 months) residual effects D. Increased blood pressure. B. Posterior pharyngeal wall 158. B. Hyperthermia. Typhoid fever. Usually the vesicles appear on all sites.

D. E. Name a leading syndrome at patients with the Respiratory-syncitial infection (for children of early age): A. E. poxviruses. paramyxoviruses. * 3 .2 years D. 14 days E. Interferon D. hemolysin and revertase. Laferon E. hemagglutinin and mucinase. Neutralization reaction E. B. * Obstructive. * Influenza immune globulin 164. 5 days C. 3 days B. * picornaviruses. What serological method could be used to put diagnosis of influenza? A. typical form. C. C. 18 days 165.5 years E. How long bed regimen must be prescribed to the child in case of influenza. 1 . severe degree? A. Remantadin B. 162. * Braked hemagglutination reaction B. 14 . Complement binding reaction C. Rhinoviruses belong to the family of: A. Direct hemagglutination reaction 166. Toxic. .C. What etiotrope medicine will be the most effectively in case of severe influenza in the 1 years old child? A. B. Amantadin C.2 months C. Indirect hemagglutination reaction D. adenoviruses. hemolysin and neuraminidase. during all the life 163.21 day B. 167. D. 1 . How many time will last immunity of organism to the influenza B virus after the disease? A. ortomyxoviruses. * 7 days D. Catarrhal syndrome of UR-tract.

* 7-10 days. What term is the duration of parainfluenza latent period? A. C. 4-7 days. 10-14 days. E. Rheovirus. 171. D. E. C. 7-10 days. D. * 2-7 days. B. People and birds with adenoviral infection. B. D. 3-5 days. Asthenia. * Patients with adenoviral infection and transmitters of adenovirus. * Patient with parainfluenza. 170. 173. * DNA-containing. Dyspepsia. 169. 1-2 days. How long is virus transmitting in case of parainfluenza? A. People and small mammals with adenoviral infection. A. Parvovirus. D. Patient with parainfluenza and transmitter. Bacteriological investigation E. The separation of the virus on tissue culture B. RNA-containing. 172. 3-4 days.D. Which method of express-diagnostics is better to use for adenovirus infection diagnosis? A. 168. Sick animals and birds. People and animals with adenoviral infection. E. The source of adenoviral infection is: A. C. 5-7 days. Bacteriosсopy investigation of pharyngeal swab 174. 2-3 days. What features of shigellosis are typical for infantsthis? . C. Serological investigation D. B. People and animals sick with parainfluenza. Myxovirus. B. E. E. * Immunofluorescent method C. Enumerate the sources of parainfluenza infection. What group of viruses does adenovirus belong to? A. Sick people and birds. D. C. E. Patients with the typical and atypical forms of adenoviral infection. B.

If it lasts for 3 months. * If it lasts more than 3 months. If it lasts for 1 month. yellow-orange feces with mucus in a small amount. C. 175. E. A. D. E. 1-10 days. B. Indicate the typical signs of colitis syndrome in case of shigellosis: A. vomiting. nausea. E. 0-12 months B. D. 5-30 days. tenesmus. What is the duration of furazolidone treatment (to the child of 1 year) in case of acute mild shigellosis? A. pain in epigastrium. Expressed vomits and frequent regurgitation.A. 177. C. E. If it lasts from 1. 10-14 years 179. 176. If it lasts for 3 weeks. A continuously relapsed course. B. * 5 days. by water C. 7 days. D. liquid feces with undigested meal. Feces often without fecal mass. 10 days. D. 1-3 days. 3 days. * In 20 % develops neurotoxicosis. by food B. C. E. 7-10 years E. contact-domestic E. B. * a few hours -7 days. * fecal-oral D. Absence of inflammation signs at sigmoscopy. «rectal spit». air-droplet 178. * 2-7 years D. 14 days. B. When the course of shigellosis becomes chronic? A. B. D. C. 180.5 till 3 months. . At children of what age group shigellosis morbidity is the largest? A. watery feces which looks like a rice-water. * paroxysmal stomach-ache. Indicate the mechanism of shigellosis transmission. 1-2 years C. C. 1-5 days. What is the duration of shigellosis incubation period in children? A.

* osteomyelitis. C. B. D. gastrointestinal (gastritis). A basic treatment of acute mild shigellosis (to the child of 6 year) is: A. C. C. D. 185. hyperthermia.181. Main sign of salmonellosis is: A. D. . rash. liquid. B. gastrointestinal (enterocolitis). 186. E. without mucus. dyspepsia. dyspepsia 187. Septic form of salmonellosis is not characterized by: A. B. roseols rush on skin. pancreatin C. 10 days and 2 bacteriological inspections of feces E. hepatosplenomegaly. gastrointestinal (gastroenteritis). typhoid. B. E. What form of salmonellosis is the most often in newborns? A. osteomyelitis. 184. Typhoid form of salmonellosis is not characterized by: A. * bifi-form D. E. B. hectic fever. In typical cases of salmonellosis stools are: A. liquid. E. toxic syndrome. netilmicin E. * dyspepsia. 7 days and 2 bacteriological inspections of feces D. with undigested parts of food. Contact persons in case of shigellosis are observed during: A. polimixin 182. 5 days and 1 bacteriological inspection of feces B. * septic. * 7 days and 1 bacteriological inspection of feces C. disuria. green. C. 14 days and 3 bacteriological inspections of feces 183. toxic syndrome. respiratory syndrome. * roseols on skin. genthamicin B. D.

B. viral diarrhea. What etiological treatment should be used in mild cases of salmonellosis? A. 40-50 mg/kg per day. B. To what family does Escherichia belong? A. Bacteriophage. E. Bacteriological (blood culture). muddy. enzymes. 150 mg/kg per day. B. like spit. 200 mg/kg per day. Name the main laboratory test to prove salmonellosis: A. What diseases hospital salmonellosis is mainly differentiated from? A. What etiological treatment should be used in severe cases of salmonellosis? A. E. cephalosporins. E. Micrococcaceae B. 192. liquid. D. furazolidone. E. Korynebacteriaceae . C. E. C. dysentery. rehydrates. 193. Koprogram. escherichiosis. B. C. D. What dose of fluorquinolones is used to treat severe cases of salmonellosis? A. Serological. 188. D. 189. 191. B. C. * 10-20 mg/kg per day. blood. * Bacteriological (feces culture). 50-100 mg/kg per day. dark-green with mucus. invagination of the bowel. enzymes. E. in a small amount with mucus. Blood analysis. yellow-orange with large amount of water. * Enterobacteriaceae C. C. * liquid. Neisseriaceae D. Vibrionaceae E. * bacteriophage. D. rehydrates. D. D. * staphylococcal diarrhea. furazolidone. 190.C. * cephalosporins.

B. virus carrier. enteroaggregative E. * enterotoxigenic E. * fecal-oral. Microscopic E. B. C. Indicate the source of illness at Rotavirus infection: A. Which from the representatives of the E. Biological C. sick animal. Allergic D.coli C.coli E.coli D. Serological B.coli. January-April. that belong to normal microbiocynosis of intestine B.coli 195. What method will prove the etiology of acute intestinal infection? A.194.coli C.coli D. that belong to normal microbiocynosis of intestine 198. March-June. enterohemolytic E. virus carrier. * sick man. D.coli B.coli E. virus carrier.coli family cause the dysentery-like disease at children elder than 1 year and adults? A. * enteroinvasive E. enterohemolytic E. D.coli C. contact E. enteroinvasive E. 199. The peak of Rotavirus infection morbidity is: A.coli family cause coli enteritis in infants? A. E. B. * enteropathogenic E. transmissive. Indicate the basic mechanism of Rotavirus infection transmission: A. E. Which from the representatives of the E.coli B.coli D. * Bacteriological 196.coli family cause the cholera-like diseases? A. that belong to normal microbiocynosis of intestine 197. enteropathogenic E. .coli E. E. Which from the representatives of the E.coli. sick man. enteropathogenic E. enterohemolytic E. 200. air-droplet. enteroaggregative E. alimentary. sick animal. C. enteroinvasive E.coli. sick birds E.

colorless. D. E. D. July-November. reaction of neutralization. C. in a small amount. with undigested parts of food. containing soya. respiratory. long lasting catharrhal signs. dehydration. sour-milk. What medicine diminishes the excretion of water and electrolytes in the intestine? A. * «sprinkling». expressed catharrhal signs. B. B. 202. dyspepsia. bright-yellow with the two-bit of mucus. B. dehydration. * expressed throat hyperemia. * method of immune-enzyme analysis. with mucus. C. watery. dyspepsia. * November-February. What features of respiratory syndrome are typical for Rotavirus infection? A. respiratory. muddy with large amount of mucus E. dehydration. D. What from laboratory methods are used in early diagnostics of Rotavirus infection? A. bifidum bacterin. mild catharrhal signs. * lactose-free. 205. B. C. C. Rotavirus infection is characterized by such syndromes: A. cardio-vascular. dyspepsia. cardio-vascular. C. dehydration. * loperamide. E. D. E. May-August. 206. . C. E. D. rehydron. E. * toxic. blood. bacteriological. toxic. What formula is given to the children in case of Rotavirus infection? A. What is the stools character in case of Rotavirus infection? A. enterosgel. D. smecta. D. B. reaction of binding the complement. cardio-vascular. koprogram. 201. B. for preterm infants. 203. watery. E. moderate throat hyperemia. 204.C. with probiotics.

small intestinum. stabile C. small intestinum. stabile B. liver. Indicate the etiology of the intestinal yersiniosis. contact E. What changes in complete blod test will be present in case of intestinal yersiniosis? A. * Terminal department of small intestinum. height. liver. What part of the intestinum is damaged more frequently in case of intestinal yersiniosis? A. recovery D. elevated ESR . Yersinia pestis 208. type specific. Indicate the main ways of the intestinal yersiniosis transmission. small intestinum. cecum. fecal-oral. * by food. A. cecum D. leucocytosis. unstabile D. water C. height. recovery. family specific. unstabile E. * Yersinia enterocolitica E. A.207. sygmoid colon 213. family specific. relapses 212. duodenum. height. height. cecum. appendix E. height. What immunity will develope in case of intestinal yersiniosis? A. contact. throat. Incubation. leucocytosis. * type specific. family specific. Yersinia intermedia C. spleen E. kidneys. exacerbation. water D. mesenteric lymphnodes. Incubation. * Initial. Initial. initial. cecum. What organs will be more damaged in case of intestinal yersiniosis? A. heart. Name the clinical periods of intestinal yersiniosis. contact-domestic B. Yersinia frederiksenia B. intestinum. contact 209. kidneys C. spleen B. Initial. mesenteric lymphnodes. recovery B. elevated ESR B. by food. eosynopenia. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis D. lymphomonocytosis. life-long 210. Descending colon. droplet. recovery E. neutrophylosis. ascending and transversal colon B. recovery C. appendix C. A. mesenteric lymphnodes 211. * lymphatic vehicle of the intestinum. spleen D.

lymphocytosis. blood. neutrophylia. 150-200 mcmol/l E. nasopharyngeal mucus E. leucopenia. 100-120 mcmol/l D. asymptomatic E. What fluids and environments does it follow to examine to confirm the intestinal yersiniosis? A. 8-10 days C. plasmocytosis. direct bilirubin 218. * Blood. nasopharyngeal mucus B. normal ESR 214. beta-lipoproteins. 7-21 days E. Bile. elevated ESR D. ASAT. alkaline phosphatase D. ALAT C. excrements C. tymol test. cholesterol. A fellow has Yersiniosis. excrements D. urine. elevated ESR E. blood. lymphocytosis. excrements. effaced C. Name the atypical forms of viral hepatitis A. Diet № 15 216. CSF. Diet № 5p D. excrement. urine. unjaundice D. asymptomatic. more than 200 mcmol/l 219. Diet № 5 C. Hepatitis A incubation period lasts for: A. Level of bilirubin at viral hepatitis A.C. nasopharyngeal mucus 215. Saliva. mild form is: A. generalized. Cholesterol. tymol test B. 3-7 days B. A. urine. The pre-jaundice period of viral hepatitis A is characterized by the increase of: A. eosynophylia. CSF. There is no right answer . 10-15 mcmol/l B. * 10-45 days 217. effaced. hypertoxic. Diet № 10 E. hemorrhagic. 7-14 days D. * Diet № 4 B. indirect bilirubin E. * unjaundice. urine. * ALAT. * leucocytosis. A. subclinical B. blood. effaced. urine. Appoint the diet for him (by Pevsner). leucocytosis. anaemia. Indirect bilirubin. * Not higher than 82 mcmol/l C. excrements. fulminant.

cholecystitis. Which cells are the most often infected by HIV? A. viral RNA C. D. 224. hepatitis Delta. From the 1st day of jaundice period B. . C. leptospirosis. E. D. Does not need to give 223. E. What diseases is it necessary to differentiate with the inborn hepatitis С? A. * Mycobacterium infection. HBsAg. Twenty years 225. What is the most common way of HIV transmission? A. Hepatitis A. biliary dyskinesia B. anti НВс IgM. Е. * Ten years. massive hemorrhages C. B. Contact. From the 2nd week of jaundice period C. Yersinia pseudotubercullosis infection. anti HЕV IgМ. viral RNA D. Oral. anti HВV IgМ and HВV IgG E. 222. biliary atresia. Name hepatitis C markers: A. B. Five years. C. Klebsiella infection. TORCH-infections. 226. hemolytic disease of new-born. CD8+ T lymphocytes. moderate degree? A. From the 4th week of jaundice period E. anti HAV IgМ and anti HAV IgG B. E. hemolytic anemia E. E. Perinatal. When is it necessary to give choleretics in case of hepatitis B. NK cells. * anti HCV IgМ. infectious mononucleosis D. B cells. Macrophages. B. HbeAg.220. Parenteral. * sepsis. IgG 221. Which opportunistic bacterial infection the most often occurs in case of HIV infection? A. * From the 3rd week of jaundice period D. Salmonella infection. * CD4+ T lymphocytes. One year. What is the average incubation period of AIDS? A. Gilbert syndrome. B. pseudotuberculosis. HbcAg. Fifteen years. C. * Sexual. Gardnerella infection. sepsis. D. D. C.

Poliomyelitis. About what disease does it tell us? A. Indinavir. Plague B. * HIV infection C. Does not change E. Enter disease. Candidiasis 233. Radioimmune analysis D.227. In cell culture Vero. Depends on the immunity D. C. Which of these antiviral drugs most commonly are used to inhibit HIV replication? A. * Is variable C. The ELISA test C. Nevirapine. E. E. * Whooping cough . Virological method sometimes is used for the diagnosis of HIV infection. In chicken embryos. 230. Ornitosis D. 228. What method should be used to confirm HIV infection? A. In white mice organism. Electrophoresis of blood proteins in polyacrylamide gels B. * Azidothymidine. B. Changes every 5 years 229. A protein gp120 was found in a test of serum by western blot method. D. * Immune blot 232. In cell culture He-La. Tuberculosis. * In normal lymphocytes. B. Zintevir. D. Changes slowly B. against which for the active immunization is used inactivated vaccine: A. Where HIV is cultivated? A. Pneumocystis carinii were revealed in the analysis of patient’s sputum. C. Legionellosis E. E. Retonavir. Syphilis. C. 231. At which infection could develop pneumonia of this etiology? A. B. D. Coagglutination reaction E. Viral hepatitis B. * HIV infection. Antigenic structure of HIV: A.

1 month. * Measles B. third .. third . Measles D. At what age is recommended vaccination and revaccination against hepatitis B in accordance with Ukrainian immunization schedule? A. * since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days. B.B. in 12-18 months after complete vaccination B. Against Hepatitis B C. 3-7 day of life. At what age is recommended vaccination and revaccination against poliomyelitis in accordance with Ukrainian immunization schedule? A.1 month. At what age is recommended vaccination and revaccination against measles.1 month.6 months. the second . 14 years single dose C. 14 years B. 6 years. in 12-18 months after complete vaccination C. in 18 months. 12 months. the second . 14 years D. 7. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days. in accordance with Ukrainian immunization schedule? .6 months. 6 years 238. * The first dose after birth. 7. 2 months. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days. 7. 14 years C. Rubella C. 6 years. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days. 7. third . in 18 months. third . Tuberculosis E. The first dose after birth. 6 years. in 12-18 months after complete vaccination E. At what age is recommended DPT vaccination and booster in accordance with Ukrainian vaccination schedule? A. The first dose after birth. 12 months. 14 years E.6 months. The first dose after birth. Specify live virus vaccines that are used for routine immunization: A. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days. 3-7 day of life. * 3-7 day of life.. 3-7 day of life. D. the second . 6 years 236. At what age is recommended BCG vaccination and revaccination in accordance with Ukrainian immunization schedule? A. in 18 months. in 12-18 months after complete vaccination D. 6 years 237. 14 years single dose C. 6 years 239. 14 years single dose B. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days.1 month. * since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days.6 months. in 18 months. BCG E. the second . Against Haemophilus influenzae 235. 12 months. DTP D... 14 years single dose D. rubella. Mumps infection 234. E. mumps. E. 6 years.

pertussis. 7. 14 years D. 6 years 241. * since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days.6 months. 6 years. Inactivated vaccine E. polio C. Acute infectious disease at the time of routine vaccination . Polyvalent bacteriophage 242. The first dose after birth. Polyvalent human immunoglobulin C. in 18 months. What is used for active immunization? A. In accordance with the Ukrainian vaccination calendar the child should definitely be vaccinated against all of the following diseases. At what age is recommended Ніb vaccination and booster vaccine in accordance with Ukrainian immunization schedule? A. in 12-18 months after complete vaccination E. Whole blood E.. 14 years single dose C. 6 years B. * Pathologically strong reaction to the earlier introduction of this vaccine B. Which medicine causes the development of an artificial passive immunity? A. 14 years E. the second . 14 years single dose C. Which medicine causes the development of an artificial active immunity? A. 7. Immunoglobulin 244. Live vaccines 243. except: A. Plasma D. 3-7 day of life. the second . * Toxoids B. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days. * 12 months. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days. D. mumps infection 245. Toxoid C. third . 240.. Antitoxic serum C. 6 years. Diphtheria. Acellular vaccine D. in 12-18 months after complete vaccination B. measles.A. Rubella. The first dose after birth. * Inactivated vaccine B. in 18 months. 12 months.6 months. Human specific immunoglobulin D. * Antitoxic serum B. Which of the following is a direct contraindication for prophylactic vaccinations? A. third . Hepatitis B D. tetanus. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days. Hib E.1 month. * Varicella B.1 month. Antitoxic serum E. 3-7 day of life.

Intramuscular D. Intravenously C. Be safe E. What is the recommended method to enter BCG vaccine? A. What is the recommended method to enter polio vaccine (live vaccine)? A. Through a mouth 249. Intramuscular D. Intradermally E. Through a mouth . Intradermally E. Be oral vaccine 247. Call lifelong immunity