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**Online Mock CAT 10 - Unproctored
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Online Mock CAT 10 - Unproctored

Answers and Explanations

1 5 2 1 3 3 4 5 5 4 6 2 7 4 8 3 9 5 10 5

11 4 12 5 13 2 14 1 15 5 16 4 17 1 18 3 19 2 20 4

21 3 22 1 23 3 24 5 25 4 26 1 27 2 28 3 29 4 30 4

31 4 32 3 33 5 34 2 35 4 36 1 37 2 38 2 39 1 40 5

41 5 42 1 43 4 44 4 45 4 46 5 47 3 48 4 49 1 50 5

51 3 52 4 53 2 54 1 55 2 56 5 57 3 58 4 59 5 60 1

61 5 62 3 63 5 64 3 65 5 66 3 67 5 68 5 69 4 70 1

71 3 72 2 73 3 74 1 75 3

Page 2

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For questions 1 to 5:

It is given that no red badges were received by members of Rovers

club in the social activities and by members of Cubs club in adventure

activities, hence, in social activities only Cubs club and Scouts club

received red badges and in Adventure activities only Scouts club and

Rovers club received the red badges. Since, the members of the Cubs

club received the same number of badges of different colours in

social activities, we get the two cases for social activities and for

each of the two cases we get four further cases for adventure

activities.

Case - 1

C S R C S R C S R C S R C S R

Red 6 8 0 0 6 5 0 5 6 0 4 7 0 3 8

Blue 6 0 5 7 2 0 6 3 0 5 4 0 4 5 0

Green 0 4 3 1 0 4 2 0 3 3 0 2 4 0 1

SA

AA

a b c d

Case - 2

C S R C S R C S R C S R C S R

Red 6 8 0 0 4 7 0 5 6 0 6 5 0 7 4

Blue 0 4 7 7 0 2 6 0 3 5 0 4 4 0 5

Green 6 0 1 1 4 0 2 3 0 3 2 0 4 1 0

SA

AA

a b c d

Please bear in mind that no colour is given to the same pair of clubs in

both the types of activities.

SA = Social Activities; AA = Adventure Activities

C = Cubs club; S = Scouts club

R = Rovers club

1. 5 It can be either 0 or 4.

2. 1 In both the cases i.e, case 1b and case 2b, Rover club received

6 red badges in adventure activities.

3. 3 It is only possible under case 1a.

4. 5 Maximum possible number = 8

(this is possible under the case 1d).

5. 4 All the cases under the second table satisfy the given condition

(i.e. case 2a, case 2b, case 2c and case 2d).

It can be clearly analyzed from the second table that the first

three statements are definitely true.

For the 4th statement (option 4): The number of the green

coloured badges that the members of Scouts clubs received

is equal to 4, 3, 2 or 1. However the number of blue coloured

badges received by the members of Rovers club is always

greater than 7. So, this statements is definitely false.

For questions 6 to 10:

6. 2 Total number of matches played in the tennis tournament

= 7 + 6 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 28.

7. 4 There are 28 wins and 28 losses in the tennis tournament.

Total number of wins by the players who won exactly five

matches each is 5 × 5 = 25.

So, the total number of wins by the players that did not win

exactly five matches is 3.

So, the possibilities that exist for the players that did not win

exactly five matches are as follows:

Case 1: Three players won exactly one match each.

Case 2: One player won exactly two matches, one player

won exactly one match and one player won none of the

matches.

Note: Number of players winning none of the matches can

never be more than 1.

For questions 8 to 10:

Since, we know that the total number of wins by the players who did

not win exactly five matches is 3, therefore each of the three

players who did not win exactly five matches lost to each of

the players who won exactly five matches (those 3 wins must

have occured in the matches that these 3 players played among

themselves only).

From additional information (1) and (2), we know that G lost its matches

against B, C, D, E and F, which means that G is one out of the three

players that did not win exactly five matches.

From additional information (2), we know that F lost its match against

A.

From the additional information given for questions 8 to 10, we know

that G won its match against H and A lost its matches against both C

and D.

We can conclude that H is one of the three players that did not win

exactly five matches as G won against H and G can win only against

those people who did not win 5 matches.

So, out of B, C, D, E, F and A, there are five players who won exactly

five matches each.

Since F lost its match against A, we can definitely conclude that A is

one of the five players that have won exactly five matches. This is

because if A is one of the players that did not win exactly five matches,

then F is definitely one of the players that won exactly five matches

and this is not possible as F lost its match against A.

Now, since A has lost its match against both C and D, therefore C and

D are also the players who won exactly five matches each.

So, out of B, E and F any two players could have won exactly five

matches.

8. 3 A won exactly five matches in the tennis tournament.

9. 5 The number of matches won by F cannot be uniquely

determined.

10. 5 Given that H won its match against B and C lost its match

against F.

It means that B, G and H are the three players who did not win

exactly five matches.

Each of B, G and H has won one match each.

The five players that have won exactly five matches each

are A, C, D, E and F. Each of these five players won their

matches against B, G and H.

Also, A lost its matches against C and D and hence must have

won against E as he cannot lose more than 2 matches. So E

lost against A, the other player against whom E lost could be

any one of C, D and F.

11. 4 If we compare Selection I and Selection III, we can conclude

that Tim is definitely not the child that has a sibling amongst the

given ten children.

Following the same logic if we compare Selection II and

Selection IV, we can conclude that Bob is definitely not the

child that has a sibling amongst the given ten children.

Now, in selection III we can conclude that Ian and Emy are

siblings.

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The other two pairs of siblings could be (Sam and Den); (Den

and May); (Sam and May); (Ken and Ron); (Ken and Joe) and

(Joe and Ron).

Option (1): Possible if the other two pairs of siblings are

(Sam and May) and (Joe and Ron)

Option (2): Possible if the other two pairs of siblings are

(Sam and Den) and (Ken and Joe)

Option (3): Possible as along with Tim one out of the remaining

three children does not have any sibling.

Option (5): Possible if the other two pairs of siblings are

(Sam and Den) and (Joe and Ron).

Option (4): Is not possible because if Ron and Joe are siblings,

then both Sam and May do not have any sibling which is not

possible, same way if Sam and May are siblings, then both

Ron and Joe do not have any sibling, which is not possible.

12. 5 The alphabets selected by Professor Chaurasia are

A(1), B(2), C(3), E(5), G(7), I(9), K(11), M(13), O(15), Q(17),

S(19), U(21) and W(23).

Therefore, OGVUE is definitely not a word formed by him, as

it contains V.

13. 2 As per the information given in the question, the following

table can be drawn.

Containers C1 C2 C3 C4 C5 C6 C7

Liquids F A E C

Now, since C7 is filled with neither B nor D, therefore, it has to

be filled with G.

For questions 14 and 15:

Revenue Structure of the Mutual Fund Company

Value of

Funds

Purchase

Price

Number of

shares

Current Market

Price

Market

Capitalization

Market

Appreciation

Auto 150000000 200 750000.00 400 300000000 150000000

Chemical 250000000 150 1666666.66 450 750000000 500000000

Pharmaceutical 200000000 250 800000.00 500 400000000 200000000

IT 250000000 700 357142.85 1050 375000000 125000000

Bank 100000000 150 666666.66 600 400000000 300000000

Others 50000000 50 1000000.00 100 100000000 50000000

14. 1 Market Capitalisation is the highest for the ‘Chemical’ sector.

15. 5 Market Appreciation is the lowest for ‘Others’ sector.

For questions 16 to 20:

The number of boxes that are coloured Pink, Yellow, White and Black is 1, 2, 2 and 5 respectively.

It is also given that no two boxes that are coloured with the same color have equal number of coins.

It is also given that the number of coins in each of the ten boxes is one of 12, 15, 20, 25 or 30.

Also, since there are five boxes that are coloured black, the number of coins in these boxes are distinct and equal to 12, 15, 20, 25 and 30.

Let the number of boxes with 12, 15, 20, 25 and 30 coins be

C

12

, C

15

, C

20

, C

25

and C

30

respectively. From table 2 -

C

12

+ C

15

+ C

20

+ C

25

+ C

30

= 10

C

12

+ C

15

= 4

C

20

+ C

25

+ C

30

= 6

C

25

+ C

30

= 5

C

12

+ C

15

+ C

20

+ C

25

= 8

Solving this we get

C

20

= 1, C

25

= 3, C

30

= 2 and C

12

+ C

15

= 4

Hence the following table can be concluded.

Number of Coins Number of Boxes

12 1 - 3

15 1 - 3

20 1

25 3

30 2

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16. 4 The number of boxes that have exactly 20 coins is 1.

17. 1 The total number of coins in all the boxes that are coloured

black = 12 + 15 + 20 + 25 + 30 = 102

18. 3 The total number of coins in all the boxes with Mr. Zero will be

maximum when there are three boxes that have 15 coins

each and there is only box that has 12 coins.

Therefore, the total number of coins with Mr. Zero can at the

most be 1 12 3 15 1 20 3 25 2 30 212 × + × + × + × + ×

19. 2 We already know that the number of coins in 5 boxes that are

colored Black are 12, 15, 20, 25 and 30.

Given that the number of coins in the box that is colored Pink

is 30. So, the only bag with 20 coins is black and the two bags

with 30 coins each are one black and one pink. Hence the

remaining bags have only 12, 15 or 25 coins.

Total number of boxes with Mr. Zero that are colored white is

2.

The total number of coins in the boxes that are colored White

can be (25 + 12 = 37), (25 + 15 = 40) and (12 + 15 = 27)

Hence, option (2) is the correct choice.

20. 4 The total number of coins in the boxes that are colored Yellow

is maximum possible, which means that, the total number of

coins in the boxes that are colored Yellow is 25 + 30 = 55.

Also, since the total number of coins in all the boxes is the

least, therefore the number of boxes in which there are 15

coins and 12 coins is 1 and 3 respectively.

So, the only possibility is that the box colored Pink has 12

coins and the two boxes colored White have 25 and 12 coins.

For questions 21 to 25:

The following table provides information about the number of units of

work completed on each of the twelve given days.

On the Rohan Deepak Tripti Sonal Tarun Total

First day 10 12 5 20 18 65

Second day 12 20 10 5 2 49

Third day 2 18 10 15 24 69

Fourth day 16 2 25 10 4 57

Fifth day 20 32 30 15 2 99

Sixth day 8 36 16 15 45 120

Seventh day 72 20 12 20 5 129

Eighth day 8 16 32 25 12 93

Ninth day 28 16 0 15 3 62

Tenth day 4 8 0 10 5 27

Eleventh day 4 0 0 0 40 44

Twelfth day 16 0 0 0 80 96

21. 3 Maximum units of work done in a single day by all the five

people is 129, on the seventh day.

22. 1 Total units of work done = 200 + 180 + 140 + 150 + 240 = 910

Total number of man days

= 12 + 10 + 8 + 10 + 12 = 52

910

The required quantity 17.50

52

∴

For questions 23 and 24:

By comparing the number of units completed by each of the five

people on each of the twelve days we get the following conclusion.

Rohan is more efficient than both Tripti and Sonal.

Deepak is more efficient than both Rohan and Tripti.

Tripti is more efficient than none of the mentioned people.

Sonal is more efficient than Tarun

Tarun is more efficient than both Tripti and Rohan.

23. 3 Out of the given options, Tarun is more efficient than Rohan

only.

24. 5 There are three people namely Rohan, Deepak and Tarun

who are more efficient than exactly two people.

25. 4 On seven days namely the second, third, fourth, fifth, sixth,

seventh and ninth days the number of units of work completed

by Sonal is more than at least one and at most two of these

people.

26. 1 Let the marked price of 1 meter of cloth be Rs.100.

If he buys 1 meter of cloth, then he gets 1.1 meter of cloth at

the cost of (100 – 5% of 100) = Rs.95.

While selling he sells 0.9 meter of cloth at the price of

(100 – 10% of 100) = Rs.90.

So, he will sell 110 cm of cloth at the price of Rs.110.

( ) 110 – 95

Percentage profit = 100 15.8%.

95

]

×

]

]

27. 2 2

189

has 189 zeroes in the end.

2

89

has 89 zeroes in the end.

⇒ 2

189

– 2

89

will have 89 zeroes in the end and the remaining

100 digits would all be 1s.

28. 3 The sum of first six natural numbers is 21, i.e. multiple of 3.

So, for multiples of 3 in a five digit number, we can remove

either 3 or 6. So, the number of multiples of 3 is 2 × 5!, i.e. 240

numbers.

For multiples of 4:

Out of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 the last two places for divisibility by 4 can

be,

(12, 16, 24, 32, 36, 52, 56, 64), i.e. 8 ways

The remaining 3 places can be filled in

4

3

C 3! ways ×

So, the number of multiples of 4 is

4

3

C 3! 8 × × , i.e. 192

numbers.

For multiples of 12:

If 12, 24 and 52 are the last two digits of the numbers the

other three place can be filled by 2 × 3! ways (selecting only

one number out of 3 & 6 i.e.

2

C

1

and then arrangement of this

number with the other 2 numbers (e.g. 4 and 5 incase of 12)

in 3! ways). So total number is 2 × 3! × 3, i.e. 36.

If 16, 32, 56 and 64 are the last two digits of the numbers. So

other three places can be filled by 3! ways. So total numbers

is 3! × 4, i.e. 24.

If 3 and 6 are the last two digits of the number then the number

cannot be a multiple of 3. This is because of the fact that the

other 3 numbers selected from 1, 2, 4 and 5 will never have a

sum that is divisible by 3.

So, total numbers which are multiple of 12 is 36 + 24 = 60.

Now the number of numbers that are divisible by 3 or 4 but not

both is 240 + 192 – 2(60) = 312. We subtract 60 twice because

these numbers (multiples of 12) were added twice once while

counting all the multiples of 3 and again, while counting multiples

of 4.

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29. 4 Since, m

3113

+ 1 is even (as it has to be divsible by 2

3z

) it is clear

that m is odd.

Now, m

3113

+1 =(m + 1)(m

3112

– m

3111

+......– m + 1).

The second factor involves 3113 terms, all of which are odd

and therefore the second factor is odd.

Thus, 2

3z

divides m

3113

+ 1, if and only if it divides m + 1 and

therefore the smallest such possible value of m is 2

3z

– 1.

30. 4 Let, the price of the basket of peaches, basket of mangoes,

basket of oranges and basket of apples be Rs. x, Rs. y, Rs. z

and Rs. t respectively.

⇒ x + y + z + t = 790

Also, x + 7 = y – 4 = 3 × z

t

2

y = x + 11,

z =

x 7

3

+

and t = 2 × (x + 7)

Now x + x + 11 +

+ x 7

3

+ 2x + 14 = 790 or, 4x + 25 +

+

x 7

790

3

or, 12x + 75 + x + 7 = 2370 or, 13x = 2288

or, x = 176.

31. 4

A

B

C

D

E

H

I

J

F

G

AB

2

+ BC

2

= AC

2

⇒ AB = 12 cm

AH = AI, BI = BJ and CH = CJ

⇒ 13 – AH = 5 – BJ ⇒ AH – BJ = 8 cm

AI + BI = AH + BJ = 12 cm

AH = 10 cm and BJ = 2 cm (as BJ is equal to radius)

Let, EG = y cm, BD = z cm and GF = x cm = FJ.

DG = DI ⇒ 7 – y = z + 2 ⇒ y = 5 – z

In triangle DBF : DB

2

+ BF

2

= DF

2

⇒ z

2

+ (2 + x)

2

= (7 – x – y)

2

= (2 + z – x)

2

(as y = 5 – z)

2z

x

z 4

⇒

+

2BD

GF

BD 4

∴

+

Therefore, k = 4.

32. 3 Minimum possible value of x + y + z will be when we maximize

the value of ‘x’. Maximum possible value of x will be 15 and

since x, y and z are distinct positive integers, y = 1 and z = 4.

So, minimum possible value of x + y + z = 15 + 1 + 4

= 20.

Maximum possible value of x + y + z will be when the value of

z is maximized. Maximum possible value of z will be when y

= 2 and x = 1, i.e. z = 72.

Required difference is 75 – 20 = 55.

33. 5 Let the number of sheeps with Ramu in the year 2006 be n.

Number of wool pieces produced in the year 2006

= n × n = n

2

Number of wool pieces produced in the year 2007

= 97 × n

As per the information given in the question, we get that

n

2

– 3500 = 97 n.

⇒ n = 125.

34. 2 Alloy 1 Alloy 2

Gold 2 1

Copper 1 5

Final ratio of gold and copper required.

Gold : Copper 1 : 2

Now, this is a simple alligation problem.

Cosidering proportion of Copper:

1

3

3

5

6

Alloy 1 Alloy 2

1

3

1

6

2

Required ratio = 1 : 2

35. 4 Applying distance formula,

2 2

a b 5 +

So,

2 2

a b 25 +

So, possible solution sets are

( 5, 0), (0, 5) ± ±

( 3, 4) and ( 4, 3) ± ± ± ±

So there are 2 + 2 + 4 + 4 = 12 possible points.

36. 1 In total time of 2 hours the total distance travelled by the

wooden piece is 8 km.

So, the speed of the stream

8

4km/ hr

2

.

37. 2 Here a + (n – 1) d – a = 2 ⇒

2

d =

(n – 1)

The sum of all the even placed terms

= (a + d) + (a + 3d) +. …= 7 …(i)

The sum of all the odd placed terms

= a + (a + 2d)+. …= 8.75 …(ii)

Subtracting equation (i) from (ii), we get

− ]

+ + +…

]

]

(n 1)

a d d terms 1.75

2

−

⇒ + ×

(n 1)

a d 1.75

2

We know that

−

2

d

n 1

∴a + 1 = 1.75 or a = 0.75

∴The last term is 2.75

∴Sum of the ‘n’ terms of the AP

n

2

[First term + Last term] = 15.75

n

2

[0.75 + 2.75] = 15.75 ⇒ n = 9

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38. 2 Assume the numbers to be 13 × N and 17 × M, where N and M

are two-digit prime numbers.

There are two possible ways in which 7 can be the unit’s digit

of the product i.e. 1 × 7 or 3 × 9.

Case I: If units digit of N is 3, then units digit of M will be 9.

Then, N = 13, 23, 43, 53, 73 or 83 and M = 19, 29, 59, 79, 89

So, number of distinct products = 6 × 5 = 30

Case II: If units digit of N is 1, then units digit of M will be 7

Then N = 11, 31, 41, 61 or 71 and M = 17, 37, 47, 67 or 97

So, number of distinct products = 5 × 5 = 25

Case III: If unit digits of N is 7, then units digit of M will be 1.

Then N = 17, 37, 47, 67 or 97 and M = 11, 31, 41, 61 or 71

So number of distinct products = 5 × 5 = 25

Case IV: If unit digit of N is 9, then unit digit of M will be 3.

Then N = 19, 29, 59, 79 or 89 and M = 13, 23, 43, 53, 73 or 83

So number of distinct products = 5 × 6 = 30

Here case III and case IV will give the same products as case

II and case I respectively.

∴Total number of distinct products = 55.

39. 1 Let AN = W, NC = y, DN = z and NB = x, as shown in the figure

below:

D C

A B

z

5

w

x

y

6

8

N

Now ∠CAB = ∠BDC and ∠DBA = ∠ACD (as they are the

angles made by the same line segment on the same side of

the circumference.)

∴ ∆NAB and ∆NDC are similar

x w 8 4

y z 6 3

∴

Now w

2

+ x

2

= 8

2

and x

2

+ y

2

= 5

2

Also, x

2

+ y

2

= 5

2

⇒

2

4

3

| ·

' J

( J

y

2

+ y

2

= 5

2

⇒ y = 3 and x = 4

2 2

w 8 – 4 4 3 7 ∴ ;

∴ AC = w + y = 7 + 3 = 10

Hence option (1) is the correct choice.

40. 5 Let, b + 3c = P, c + 3a = Q and a + 3b = R.

Assume a = k

1

P + k

2

Q + k

3

R

= k

1

(b + 3c) + k

2

(c + 3a) + k

3

(a + 3b)

⇒ a = (3k

2

+ k

3

)a + (3k

3

+ k

1

)b +(3k

1

+ k

2

)c

Comparing coefficients of a, b and c we get

−

1 2

3 9

k , k

28 28

and

3

1

k

28

+ −

⇒

(R 9Q 3P)

a

28

Similarly we can calculate that

+ −

(P 9R 3Q)

b

28

and

+ −

(Q 9P 3R)

c

28

a b c

b 3c c 3a a 3b

⇒ + +

+ + +

9 9 P Q R 1 R P Q

28 28 R P Q 28 P Q R

− | · | ·

+ + + + + +

' J ' J

( J ( J

≥ Applying A.M. G.M.

Minimum value of + +

P Q R

R P Q

is 3 and minimum value of

+ +

R P Q

is 3.

P Q R

∴ + +

+ + +

a b c

Minimumvalue of

b 3c c 3a a 3b

−

+ +

9 27 3 21 3

.

28 28 28 28 4

Alternative method:

There is symmetry (any two of a, b and c are interchangeable)

in the expression of which we want to get the extreme value,

therefore put a = b = c and get your answer.

41. 5 EA

2

= 8

2

= 64 and ED × (ED + DC) = 4 × 16 = 64

∴EA

2

= ED × (ED + DC)

Since, DB = BC, therefore keeping B as the center, a circle

can be drawn that passes through the points C, D and A.

C

B

A

E

D

∴ BD = BC = AB = Radius of the circle

Now, in ECA ∆

EA

2

+ AC

2

= EC

2

⇒ AC

2

= 192

AC 8 3 units ⇒

AC 8 3

AB 4 3 units

2 2

∴

Perimeter of the quadrilateral

+ ABDE 12 8 3

( )

4 2 3 3 units +

Alternative method I:

C

B

A

8

60°

4

E

D

12

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Join D and A.

Now in right angled ∆CAE

− ∠ °

2 2

8 1

AC 16 8 8 3, and cos AEC cos60

16 2

⇒ ∠ ° ∠ ∠ ° AEC 60 and ACE BDC 30

⇒ ∠ ° ∠ ° CBD 120 and DBA 60

Now in

∆EDA

° ∠

ED 4 1

cos60 cos AED

EA 8 2

∴∠ ° EDA 90

⇒ ∠ ° − ° − ° ° ADB 180 90 30 60

∴ ∆ In ADB

∠ ∠ ∠ ° DBA BAD ADB 60

∴

8 3

BD DA AB BC 4 3.

2

∴ Perimeter of the quadrilateral + + + ABDE = 4 3 4 3 4 8

+ + 8 3 12 4(2 3 3) units

Alternative method II:

C

B

A

8

4

E

D

12

In ∆CAE

∠ °

8 1

sin ACE sin30

16 2

∴∠ ° ACE 30

− −

2 2 2 2

Now AC EC AE 16 8 8 3

Now in ∆BDC

∠ ∠ ° ⇒ ∠ ° BCD BDC 30 CBD 120

Let BD = BC be of length x

Now applying cosine rule

+ −

∠

2 2 2

BC BD DC

cos CBD

2BC.BD

+ − −

−

2 2 2 2

2

x x 12 1 2x 144

or, cos120°= or,

2.x.x 2

2x

or, 3x

2

= 144 or, x=4 3

∴ BD 4 3 BC

− Now AB = AC - BC = 8 3 4 3 4 3

∴ Perimeter of quadrilateral

+ + + + ABDE 4 3 4 3 4 8 8 3 12

+ 4(2 3 3) units .

For questions 42 and 43:

Case I:

Sums donated to C and A are Rs.‘x’ and Rs.‘y’ respectively.

Therefore, the sum donated to B = Rs.(x – y).

Also, − < ⇒ <

y 6y

x y x

5 5

Case II:

Sums donated to C and A are Rs. (x + 1) and Rs.‘y’ respectively.

Therefore, the sum donated to B = Rs. (x + 1 – y).

Also, + − > ⇒ > −

y 5y

x 1 y x 1

4 4

Therefore, − < <

5y 6y

1 x

4 5

Also, − < ⇒ <

5y 6y

1 y 20

4 5

At −

5y 6y

y 20 : 1 24

4 5

So, the maximum possible value of ‘x’ is 23.

Now, − < < ⇒ < <

5y 6y 115 96

1 23 y

4 5 6 5

42. 1 Only 19.18 (option 1) lies within the given range of values of

‘y’. All other values given in the options are greater than 20.

43. 4 There are 23 possible values of ‘x’, i.e. from x = 1 to x = 23. For

any value of x in this range, you can get at least one suitable

value of y.

For questions 44 and 45:

Let the number N be denoted by ‘abc’. (where a, b, c are all digits.)

Therefore the number formed by reversing the digits of N will be ‘cba’

Value of ‘abc’ + value of ‘cba’ = 101(a + c) + 20b = k (a + b + c)

101(a c) 20b

k

a b c

+ +

⇒

+ +

20(a b c) 81(a c) 81(a c)

20

(a b c) (a b c) (a b c)

+ + + +

+ +

+ + + + + +

44. 4 k will be minimum when (a + c) is minimum and ‘b’ is maximum.

Maximum possible value of b = 9 and minimum possible value

of (a + c) = 3 + 0 = 3.

∴ Minimum value of

81 3 81

k 20 20 40.25

(3 9) 4

×

+ +

+

45. 4 We know that,

81(a c)

k 20

(a b c)

+

−

+ +

In this problem, the value of

1636

k

17

.

Putting the value of k in the above equation we get,

1636 340 81(a c)

17 17 (a b c)

+

−

+ +

Or 1296(a b c) 81 17(a c) + + × +

Or 1296 b = 81(a + c)

Or a + c = 16b

Since ‘a’ and ‘c’ are digits, value of (a + c) can never be more

than 18.

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Also, b cannot be ‘0’, because (a + c) ≠ 0.

So, ‘b’ must be equal to 1, and (a + c) = 16.

Only possible values of ‘a’ and ‘c’ are 7 and 9 respectively.

∴

N = 719 and the sum of the digits is 17. Remainder when

719 is divided by 17 is 5.

46. 5

A B

C D

E

F

G

Given that FE =3 2 units.

Let, AD = X units, therefore AC = X 2 units.

Therefore, AE =

X

2

Since, AF is the angular bisector of DAE, ∠ therefore

AD DF

AE FE

X DF

X 3 2

2

⇒

| ·

' J

( J

⇒ DF = 6 units, therefore DE = DF + FE = 6 + 3 2 = 3 (2 + 2)

units.

47. 3 Total number of matches played in the football tournament

= 11 + 10 …+ 2 + 1 = 66.

Maximum possible number of points awarded to all the teams

is 66 × 3 = 198. This is possible if no match ended in a tie. But

the total points awarded to all the teams is 189.

So the number of matches that ended in a tie = 198 – 189 = 9.

As a tied match generates only 2 points, which is one less

than number of points generated by a win/loss match.

48. 4 The series can be split into two series, each having a common

ratio less than 1

1 1 1 1

3 1 ..... 2 1 .....

3 9 2 4

| · | ·

+ + + + + + +

' J ' J

( J ( J

3 2

1 1

1 1

3 2

+

− −

a

Since sum to inf inite terms

1 r

]

]

−

]

= 8.5

49. 1 Here for A,

(m – 4) (a + 5) = ma ⇒ a = (m – 5) +

m

4

The possible solutions for this are

m = 4 … a = 0 (invalid)

m = 8 … a = 5

m = 12 … a = 10

Similarly for B also we would find the same solutions for (n,

b).

Hence the solutions are m = 8; a = 5; n = 12; b = 10 (or)

n = 8; b = 5; m = 12; a = 10

(Since they are distinct integers)

In either case we get the time taken to finish the

job as 3 days and 3 hours.

50. 5 a

1

+ a

2

+ a

3

+ a

4

= 210.

Of the four numbers (a

1

, a

2

, a

3

, a

4

) atleast one has to be 53

or above as average of these numbers is 52.5. Since L.C.M.

of a group of numbers has to be greater than or equal to each

and every number of the group.

∴ L.C.M. of these numbers cannot be below 53.

Now if the L.C.M. is 53, each of the numbers in the group

would be either 53 or 1 (as 53 has only these 2 factors) but

53 + 53 + 53 + 53 > 210

and 53 + 53 + 53 + 1 < 210

∴53 cannot be the L.C.M.

If the L.C.M. is 54

54 + 54 + 54 + 54 > 210

but 54 + 54 + 54 + 27 < 210

----------------------------------

----------------------------------

If the L.C.M. is 59

59 + 59 + 59 + 59 > 210

but 59 + 59 + 59 + 1 < 210

If the L.C.M. is 60

60 + 60 + 60 + 30 = 210

∴ The smallest possible L.C.M. is 60.

51. 3 Though the passage is broadly about ‘Ways through which

knowledge is discovered’, almost 90% of the passage deals

with ‘Rhetoric as a way of discovering knowledge’. Hence

option 3 is correct and apt for the passage . Option 1 becomes

too general for the passage. Option 2 cannot be validated by

the passage since the last line says that even the assumption

in rhetoric has been treated only as an assumption. Option 4

is too specific. The passage does not deal only with rhetoric

and its assumptions. Rhetoric is being explained as a means

to the discovery of knowledge. Option 5 does not capture the

theme of the passage.

52. 4 The passage consists of either the opinions of the author or

Doug Brent. It is entirely opinionated or subjective. Hence

option 4 is correct. The author does not focus on description.

He also does not argue or indulge in arguments/counter-

arguments. Analysis is overshadowed by opinions in the

passage. Skepticism does not characterize the whole

passage. Yes, the author does negate the ‘dualistic mode’,

but even that cannot be called skepticism.

53. 2 Option 1 is incorrect as the ‘duality’ expressed by the initial

lines of the passage does not take into account communal

interactions which are central to the rhetorical mode. Option 3

cannot be validated by the passage. Yes , ‘persuasion’ is one

of the factors central to the discovery of knowledge through

rhetoric. But the passage does not see ‘persuasion’ as an

impeding factor. Option 4 is again far-fetched as the passage

has not spoken about the ‘interest’ factor. This is something

which needs more discussion in the passage. Option 5 is

beyond the scope of the passage as ‘universal love and

brotherhood’ are not the subject matter of the passage. Option

2 can be inferred from the last paragraph and especially the

last line of the passage. The effectiveness of the Rhetor to

influence the audience is based on an assumption. The

assumption has been treated simply as an assumption/ article

of faith. This means that the assumption is open to question, it

is dependent on one’s faith and has not been validated. Hence

the ‘effectiveness of rhetoric’ is ‘suspect’.

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54. 1 Ruddiman believes that early farmers- much before the

industrial revolution- had a significant ability to alter the

environment. The critics believe otherwise. We are looking

for an option which strengthens the critics’ viewpoint and

hence would be supported by them. Option 2 implies that

earlier farmers were less efficient and hence would have

indulged in farming practices which were less efficient- using

more land per person/ causing more harm to the environment.

This would support Ruddiman and not the critics. Option 3 and

option 5 are similar in their import. They imply that earlier farmers

used more land per person- which is not something which the

critics would like to agree with. Option 4 goes beyond the

scope of the passage as the passage discusses only the

impact of agriculture on environment. Option 1 is something

which the critics would agree to. The critics are countering

Ruddiman’s view by saying that ‘small populations’ as regards

farmers had very less ability to alter the environment due to

their insignificant number.The hidden assumption is that land

use earlier was more or less similar to land use today.

55. 2 Statement A is incorrect as it should be ‘used more land per

person’. ‘Used more land’ cannot be validated as we would

require the total amount of land being used then and now.

Statement B is correct and can be inferred from the paragraph.

A current model is the critics’ industrial revolution model in the

second last paragraph. Statement C again talks about ‘total

land used’ which requires more data.

56. 5 The author does not make even a single comment in the

passage. He just presents the views of the researchers,

critics etc. We cannot say anything about his stand on the

issue. Hence option 5 is the best choice

57. 3 B is incorrect as it should be ‘structure to that of the traditional’

Remember, here the scholar compares the structures of the

novel and the traditional five-act play. All the other sentences

are grammatically correct.

58. 4 Only E is incorrect, it should be ‘at’ instead of ‘on’, before ‘100

degrees’ as we are referring to a specific temperature.

59. 5 All the given sentences are grammatically correct.

60. 1 ‘Animal cry’ in A gives the hint. So, AH is the correct match. In

B, ‘roar’ matches clearly with ‘bellowing with rage’ CF and DE

form the correct pair. So (1) is correct.

61. 5 ‘Ethyl ether’ in A matches clearly with ‘Ethereal solution’ in G.

According to the given choices ‘light’ matches with poetry

writing styles as mentioned in E. ‘Heavenly’ is used with ‘beauty’

so CF is correct. ‘Refined’ aptly matches with H. So (5) is the

correct option.

62. 3 DH and CF are obvious pairs so option (1), (2) and (5) are

eliminated. In A ‘assail’ would ‘mean to deliver violent blows’. In

B, the meaning ‘to offer something persistently to’ is reflected

in sentence E. So (3) is the correct option.

63. 5 ‘Gross ways’ in E matches with the meaning provided in B. BE

is the correct choice. We eliminate options (1) and (2). AH

clearly forms a pair. If we replace ‘gross sales’ with ‘total

sales’, then too the sentence makes clear sense. ‘Refinement’,

as used in E, clearly suggests lack of refinement in a person’s

character. ‘Objectionable or offensive’ can describe the

person’s attire. On the basis of this we can eliminate even

option (4).

64. 3 Statements 1 & 4 are verifiable and hence facts. Statements 2

and 3 are personal opinions / judgments.

65. 5 Statements 3 & 4 are clearly facts since they are verifiable.

Statement 1 is a judgment since ‘Reddys being on the

defensive’ could be the writer’s perspective . Statement 2 is

an inference since it bases itself on the report—— it is a

conclusion based on the facts of the report.

66. 3 Statements 1 & 3 are facts. Statement 2 is an opinion expressing

approval and hence a judgment. Statement 4 is an inference –

a conclusion about the unknown based on the reasoning

offered in the statement.

67. 5 Option (1) seems like a repetition of the idea in the last

sentence. Option (2) is vague. Option (3) starts off on a

different track –organized religion. Option (4) talks about man’s

flow being governed by natural laws whereas the paragraph

denies the existence of any rule. Option (5) carries forward

the theme of the paragraph and states a conclusion about the

existentialist which is drawn from the paragraph.

68. 5 In the beginning, the paragraph deals with something that is

not complex, then it moves on to describe a complex process.

Option (5) continues this idea. It talks about the behaviour of

the nonlinear system. Options (1), (2), (3) and (4) are general

in nature and do not specifically continue the idea left off in

the last line of the paragraph.

69. 4 Option (4) effectively follows what is being stated in the

paragraph because it provides further example of how people

prefer to watch reality movies and appreciate them more

especially in a situation where their real lives do not contain

much of actuality.

70. 1 The passage examines both the aspects very minutely, thus

option (1) is most appropriate. Options (2) and (5) are

suggestions whereas options (3) and (4) are the possible

repercussions of the ban.

71. 3 The author is critical of the unjust conservation laws and

programmes. He carries on with this tone through a major

portion of the passage. There is no bitterness, so ‘scathing’ is

out of question. Options (1), (2) and (4) are not reflected in

the passage.

72. 2 The answer is (2). The passage discusses the possibility of

the ban having a boomerang effect. All the other options are

untrue.

73. 3 The passage is mainly concerned with identifying the creation

and the implementation of the Gandhian ideology. We would

be limiting the scope of the passage if we say, that it is a mere

extolment of disciplinary ideas. (1) & (2) are facets of the

same, (4) is incorrect and (5) is nowhere mentioned.

74. 1 The first line of the passage sets the theme, that Gandhi’s

magic cannot be categorized and defined because of its

inherent sublime quality. (2) is incorrect as there is no

resistance and (3) also alludes to resistance which is incorrect,

(4) denotes a kind of breaking of rules which is incorrect and

(5) is a sort of provocation which is not the case.

75. 3 The language in the last paragraph is full of admiration for the

way in which Gandhi had succeeded in evolving an ideology

which was based on the simple tenets of life. All the other

options are incorrect as they cannot be inferred from this

paragraph.

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