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Online Mock CAT 10 - Unproctored
Answers and Explanations
1 5 2 1 3 3 4 5 5 4 6 2 7 4 8 3 9 5 10 5
11 4 12 5 13 2 14 1 15 5 16 4 17 1 18 3 19 2 20 4
21 3 22 1 23 3 24 5 25 4 26 1 27 2 28 3 29 4 30 4
31 4 32 3 33 5 34 2 35 4 36 1 37 2 38 2 39 1 40 5
41 5 42 1 43 4 44 4 45 4 46 5 47 3 48 4 49 1 50 5
51 3 52 4 53 2 54 1 55 2 56 5 57 3 58 4 59 5 60 1
61 5 62 3 63 5 64 3 65 5 66 3 67 5 68 5 69 4 70 1
71 3 72 2 73 3 74 1 75 3
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For questions 1 to 5:
It is given that no red badges were received by members of Rovers
club in the social activities and by members of Cubs club in adventure
activities, hence, in social activities only Cubs club and Scouts club
received red badges and in Adventure activities only Scouts club and
Rovers club received the red badges. Since, the members of the Cubs
club received the same number of badges of different colours in
social activities, we get the two cases for social activities and for
each of the two cases we get four further cases for adventure
activities.
Case - 1
C S R C S R C S R C S R C S R
Red 6 8 0 0 6 5 0 5 6 0 4 7 0 3 8
Blue 6 0 5 7 2 0 6 3 0 5 4 0 4 5 0
Green 0 4 3 1 0 4 2 0 3 3 0 2 4 0 1
SA
AA
a b c d
Case - 2
C S R C S R C S R C S R C S R
Red 6 8 0 0 4 7 0 5 6 0 6 5 0 7 4
Blue 0 4 7 7 0 2 6 0 3 5 0 4 4 0 5
Green 6 0 1 1 4 0 2 3 0 3 2 0 4 1 0
SA
AA
a b c d
Please bear in mind that no colour is given to the same pair of clubs in
both the types of activities.
SA = Social Activities; AA = Adventure Activities
C = Cubs club; S = Scouts club
R = Rovers club
1. 5 It can be either 0 or 4.
2. 1 In both the cases i.e, case 1b and case 2b, Rover club received
6 red badges in adventure activities.
3. 3 It is only possible under case 1a.
4. 5 Maximum possible number = 8
(this is possible under the case 1d).
5. 4 All the cases under the second table satisfy the given condition
(i.e. case 2a, case 2b, case 2c and case 2d).
It can be clearly analyzed from the second table that the first
three statements are definitely true.
For the 4th statement (option 4): The number of the green
coloured badges that the members of Scouts clubs received
is equal to 4, 3, 2 or 1. However the number of blue coloured
badges received by the members of Rovers club is always
greater than 7. So, this statements is definitely false.
For questions 6 to 10:
6. 2 Total number of matches played in the tennis tournament
= 7 + 6 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 28.
7. 4 There are 28 wins and 28 losses in the tennis tournament.
Total number of wins by the players who won exactly five
matches each is 5 × 5 = 25.
So, the total number of wins by the players that did not win
exactly five matches is 3.
So, the possibilities that exist for the players that did not win
exactly five matches are as follows:
Case 1: Three players won exactly one match each.
Case 2: One player won exactly two matches, one player
won exactly one match and one player won none of the
matches.
Note: Number of players winning none of the matches can
never be more than 1.
For questions 8 to 10:
Since, we know that the total number of wins by the players who did
not win exactly five matches is 3, therefore each of the three
players who did not win exactly five matches lost to each of
the players who won exactly five matches (those 3 wins must
have occured in the matches that these 3 players played among
themselves only).
From additional information (1) and (2), we know that G lost its matches
against B, C, D, E and F, which means that G is one out of the three
players that did not win exactly five matches.
From additional information (2), we know that F lost its match against
A.
From the additional information given for questions 8 to 10, we know
that G won its match against H and A lost its matches against both C
and D.
We can conclude that H is one of the three players that did not win
exactly five matches as G won against H and G can win only against
those people who did not win 5 matches.
So, out of B, C, D, E, F and A, there are five players who won exactly
five matches each.
Since F lost its match against A, we can definitely conclude that A is
one of the five players that have won exactly five matches. This is
because if A is one of the players that did not win exactly five matches,
then F is definitely one of the players that won exactly five matches
and this is not possible as F lost its match against A.
Now, since A has lost its match against both C and D, therefore C and
D are also the players who won exactly five matches each.
So, out of B, E and F any two players could have won exactly five
matches.
8. 3 A won exactly five matches in the tennis tournament.
9. 5 The number of matches won by F cannot be uniquely
determined.
10. 5 Given that H won its match against B and C lost its match
against F.
It means that B, G and H are the three players who did not win
exactly five matches.
Each of B, G and H has won one match each.
The five players that have won exactly five matches each
are A, C, D, E and F. Each of these five players won their
matches against B, G and H.
Also, A lost its matches against C and D and hence must have
won against E as he cannot lose more than 2 matches. So E
lost against A, the other player against whom E lost could be
any one of C, D and F.
11. 4 If we compare Selection I and Selection III, we can conclude
that Tim is definitely not the child that has a sibling amongst the
given ten children.
Following the same logic if we compare Selection II and
Selection IV, we can conclude that Bob is definitely not the
child that has a sibling amongst the given ten children.
Now, in selection III we can conclude that Ian and Emy are
siblings.
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The other two pairs of siblings could be (Sam and Den); (Den
and May); (Sam and May); (Ken and Ron); (Ken and Joe) and
(Joe and Ron).
Option (1): Possible if the other two pairs of siblings are
(Sam and May) and (Joe and Ron)
Option (2): Possible if the other two pairs of siblings are
(Sam and Den) and (Ken and Joe)
Option (3): Possible as along with Tim one out of the remaining
three children does not have any sibling.
Option (5): Possible if the other two pairs of siblings are
(Sam and Den) and (Joe and Ron).
Option (4): Is not possible because if Ron and Joe are siblings,
then both Sam and May do not have any sibling which is not
possible, same way if Sam and May are siblings, then both
Ron and Joe do not have any sibling, which is not possible.
12. 5 The alphabets selected by Professor Chaurasia are
A(1), B(2), C(3), E(5), G(7), I(9), K(11), M(13), O(15), Q(17),
S(19), U(21) and W(23).
Therefore, OGVUE is definitely not a word formed by him, as
it contains V.
13. 2 As per the information given in the question, the following
table can be drawn.

Containers C1 C2 C3 C4 C5 C6 C7
Liquids F A E C
Now, since C7 is filled with neither B nor D, therefore, it has to
be filled with G.
For questions 14 and 15:
Revenue Structure of the Mutual Fund Company
Value of
Funds
Purchase
Price
Number of
shares
Current Market
Price
Market
Capitalization
Market
Appreciation
Auto 150000000 200 750000.00 400 300000000 150000000
Chemical 250000000 150 1666666.66 450 750000000 500000000
Pharmaceutical 200000000 250 800000.00 500 400000000 200000000
IT 250000000 700 357142.85 1050 375000000 125000000
Bank 100000000 150 666666.66 600 400000000 300000000
Others 50000000 50 1000000.00 100 100000000 50000000
14. 1 Market Capitalisation is the highest for the ‘Chemical’ sector.
15. 5 Market Appreciation is the lowest for ‘Others’ sector.
For questions 16 to 20:
The number of boxes that are coloured Pink, Yellow, White and Black is 1, 2, 2 and 5 respectively.
It is also given that no two boxes that are coloured with the same color have equal number of coins.
It is also given that the number of coins in each of the ten boxes is one of 12, 15, 20, 25 or 30.
Also, since there are five boxes that are coloured black, the number of coins in these boxes are distinct and equal to 12, 15, 20, 25 and 30.
Let the number of boxes with 12, 15, 20, 25 and 30 coins be
C
12
, C
15
, C
20
, C
25
and C
30
respectively. From table 2 -
C
12
+ C
15
+ C
20
+ C
25
+ C
30
= 10
C
12
+ C
15
= 4
C
20
+ C
25
+ C
30
= 6
C
25
+ C
30
= 5
C
12
+ C
15
+ C
20
+ C
25
= 8
Solving this we get
C
20
= 1, C
25
= 3, C
30
= 2 and C
12
+ C
15
= 4
Hence the following table can be concluded.
Number of Coins Number of Boxes
12 1 - 3
15 1 - 3
20 1
25 3
30 2
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16. 4 The number of boxes that have exactly 20 coins is 1.
17. 1 The total number of coins in all the boxes that are coloured
black = 12 + 15 + 20 + 25 + 30 = 102
18. 3 The total number of coins in all the boxes with Mr. Zero will be
maximum when there are three boxes that have 15 coins
each and there is only box that has 12 coins.
Therefore, the total number of coins with Mr. Zero can at the
most be 1 12 3 15 1 20 3 25 2 30 212 × + × + × + × + ×
19. 2 We already know that the number of coins in 5 boxes that are
colored Black are 12, 15, 20, 25 and 30.
Given that the number of coins in the box that is colored Pink
is 30. So, the only bag with 20 coins is black and the two bags
with 30 coins each are one black and one pink. Hence the
remaining bags have only 12, 15 or 25 coins.
Total number of boxes with Mr. Zero that are colored white is
2.
The total number of coins in the boxes that are colored White
can be (25 + 12 = 37), (25 + 15 = 40) and (12 + 15 = 27)
Hence, option (2) is the correct choice.
20. 4 The total number of coins in the boxes that are colored Yellow
is maximum possible, which means that, the total number of
coins in the boxes that are colored Yellow is 25 + 30 = 55.
Also, since the total number of coins in all the boxes is the
least, therefore the number of boxes in which there are 15
coins and 12 coins is 1 and 3 respectively.
So, the only possibility is that the box colored Pink has 12
coins and the two boxes colored White have 25 and 12 coins.
For questions 21 to 25:
The following table provides information about the number of units of
work completed on each of the twelve given days.
On the Rohan Deepak Tripti Sonal Tarun Total
First day 10 12 5 20 18 65
Second day 12 20 10 5 2 49
Third day 2 18 10 15 24 69
Fourth day 16 2 25 10 4 57
Fifth day 20 32 30 15 2 99
Sixth day 8 36 16 15 45 120
Seventh day 72 20 12 20 5 129
Eighth day 8 16 32 25 12 93
Ninth day 28 16 0 15 3 62
Tenth day 4 8 0 10 5 27
Eleventh day 4 0 0 0 40 44
Twelfth day 16 0 0 0 80 96
21. 3 Maximum units of work done in a single day by all the five
people is 129, on the seventh day.
22. 1 Total units of work done = 200 + 180 + 140 + 150 + 240 = 910
Total number of man days
= 12 + 10 + 8 + 10 + 12 = 52
910
The required quantity 17.50
52

For questions 23 and 24:
By comparing the number of units completed by each of the five
people on each of the twelve days we get the following conclusion.
Rohan is more efficient than both Tripti and Sonal.
Deepak is more efficient than both Rohan and Tripti.
Tripti is more efficient than none of the mentioned people.
Sonal is more efficient than Tarun
Tarun is more efficient than both Tripti and Rohan.
23. 3 Out of the given options, Tarun is more efficient than Rohan
only.
24. 5 There are three people namely Rohan, Deepak and Tarun
who are more efficient than exactly two people.
25. 4 On seven days namely the second, third, fourth, fifth, sixth,
seventh and ninth days the number of units of work completed
by Sonal is more than at least one and at most two of these
people.
26. 1 Let the marked price of 1 meter of cloth be Rs.100.
If he buys 1 meter of cloth, then he gets 1.1 meter of cloth at
the cost of (100 – 5% of 100) = Rs.95.
While selling he sells 0.9 meter of cloth at the price of
(100 – 10% of 100) = Rs.90.
So, he will sell 110 cm of cloth at the price of Rs.110.
( ) 110 – 95
Percentage profit = 100 15.8%.
95
]
×
]
]
27. 2 2
189
has 189 zeroes in the end.
2
89
has 89 zeroes in the end.
⇒ 2
189
– 2
89
will have 89 zeroes in the end and the remaining
100 digits would all be 1s.
28. 3 The sum of first six natural numbers is 21, i.e. multiple of 3.
So, for multiples of 3 in a five digit number, we can remove
either 3 or 6. So, the number of multiples of 3 is 2 × 5!, i.e. 240
numbers.
For multiples of 4:
Out of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 the last two places for divisibility by 4 can
be,
(12, 16, 24, 32, 36, 52, 56, 64), i.e. 8 ways
The remaining 3 places can be filled in
4
3
C 3! ways ×
So, the number of multiples of 4 is
4
3
C 3! 8 × × , i.e. 192
numbers.
For multiples of 12:
If 12, 24 and 52 are the last two digits of the numbers the
other three place can be filled by 2 × 3! ways (selecting only
one number out of 3 & 6 i.e.
2
C
1
and then arrangement of this
number with the other 2 numbers (e.g. 4 and 5 incase of 12)
in 3! ways). So total number is 2 × 3! × 3, i.e. 36.
If 16, 32, 56 and 64 are the last two digits of the numbers. So
other three places can be filled by 3! ways. So total numbers
is 3! × 4, i.e. 24.
If 3 and 6 are the last two digits of the number then the number
cannot be a multiple of 3. This is because of the fact that the
other 3 numbers selected from 1, 2, 4 and 5 will never have a
sum that is divisible by 3.
So, total numbers which are multiple of 12 is 36 + 24 = 60.
Now the number of numbers that are divisible by 3 or 4 but not
both is 240 + 192 – 2(60) = 312. We subtract 60 twice because
these numbers (multiples of 12) were added twice once while
counting all the multiples of 3 and again, while counting multiples
of 4.
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29. 4 Since, m
3113
+ 1 is even (as it has to be divsible by 2
3z
) it is clear
that m is odd.
Now, m
3113
+1 =(m + 1)(m
3112
– m
3111
+......– m + 1).
The second factor involves 3113 terms, all of which are odd
and therefore the second factor is odd.
Thus, 2
3z
divides m
3113
+ 1, if and only if it divides m + 1 and
therefore the smallest such possible value of m is 2
3z
– 1.
30. 4 Let, the price of the basket of peaches, basket of mangoes,
basket of oranges and basket of apples be Rs. x, Rs. y, Rs. z
and Rs. t respectively.
⇒ x + y + z + t = 790
Also, x + 7 = y – 4 = 3 × z
t
2

y = x + 11,
z =
x 7
3
+
and t = 2 × (x + 7)
Now x + x + 11 +
+ x 7
3
+ 2x + 14 = 790 or, 4x + 25 +
+

x 7
790
3
or, 12x + 75 + x + 7 = 2370 or, 13x = 2288
or, x = 176.
31. 4
A
B
C
D
E
H
I
J
F
G
AB
2
+ BC
2
= AC
2
⇒ AB = 12 cm
AH = AI, BI = BJ and CH = CJ
⇒ 13 – AH = 5 – BJ ⇒ AH – BJ = 8 cm
AI + BI = AH + BJ = 12 cm
AH = 10 cm and BJ = 2 cm (as BJ is equal to radius)
Let, EG = y cm, BD = z cm and GF = x cm = FJ.
DG = DI ⇒ 7 – y = z + 2 ⇒ y = 5 – z
In triangle DBF : DB
2
+ BF
2
= DF
2
⇒ z
2
+ (2 + x)
2
= (7 – x – y)
2
= (2 + z – x)
2
(as y = 5 – z)
2z
x
z 4

+
2BD
GF
BD 4

+
Therefore, k = 4.
32. 3 Minimum possible value of x + y + z will be when we maximize
the value of ‘x’. Maximum possible value of x will be 15 and
since x, y and z are distinct positive integers, y = 1 and z = 4.
So, minimum possible value of x + y + z = 15 + 1 + 4
= 20.
Maximum possible value of x + y + z will be when the value of
z is maximized. Maximum possible value of z will be when y
= 2 and x = 1, i.e. z = 72.
Required difference is 75 – 20 = 55.
33. 5 Let the number of sheeps with Ramu in the year 2006 be n.
Number of wool pieces produced in the year 2006
= n × n = n
2
Number of wool pieces produced in the year 2007
= 97 × n
As per the information given in the question, we get that
n
2
– 3500 = 97 n.
⇒ n = 125.
34. 2 Alloy 1 Alloy 2
Gold 2 1
Copper 1 5
Final ratio of gold and copper required.
Gold : Copper 1 : 2
Now, this is a simple alligation problem.
Cosidering proportion of Copper:
1
3
3
5
6
Alloy 1 Alloy 2
1
3
1
6
2
Required ratio = 1 : 2
35. 4 Applying distance formula,
2 2
a b 5 +
So,
2 2
a b 25 +
So, possible solution sets are
( 5, 0), (0, 5) ± ±
( 3, 4) and ( 4, 3) ± ± ± ±
So there are 2 + 2 + 4 + 4 = 12 possible points.
36. 1 In total time of 2 hours the total distance travelled by the
wooden piece is 8 km.
So, the speed of the stream
8
4km/ hr
2
.
37. 2 Here a + (n – 1) d – a = 2 ⇒
2
d =
(n – 1)
The sum of all the even placed terms
= (a + d) + (a + 3d) +. …= 7 …(i)
The sum of all the odd placed terms
= a + (a + 2d)+. …= 8.75 …(ii)
Subtracting equation (i) from (ii), we get
− ]
+ + +…
]
]
(n 1)
a d d terms 1.75
2

⇒ + ×
(n 1)
a d 1.75
2
We know that

2
d
n 1
∴a + 1 = 1.75 or a = 0.75
∴The last term is 2.75
∴Sum of the ‘n’ terms of the AP

n
2
[First term + Last term] = 15.75

n
2
[0.75 + 2.75] = 15.75 ⇒ n = 9
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38. 2 Assume the numbers to be 13 × N and 17 × M, where N and M
are two-digit prime numbers.
There are two possible ways in which 7 can be the unit’s digit
of the product i.e. 1 × 7 or 3 × 9.
Case I: If units digit of N is 3, then units digit of M will be 9.
Then, N = 13, 23, 43, 53, 73 or 83 and M = 19, 29, 59, 79, 89
So, number of distinct products = 6 × 5 = 30
Case II: If units digit of N is 1, then units digit of M will be 7
Then N = 11, 31, 41, 61 or 71 and M = 17, 37, 47, 67 or 97
So, number of distinct products = 5 × 5 = 25
Case III: If unit digits of N is 7, then units digit of M will be 1.
Then N = 17, 37, 47, 67 or 97 and M = 11, 31, 41, 61 or 71
So number of distinct products = 5 × 5 = 25
Case IV: If unit digit of N is 9, then unit digit of M will be 3.
Then N = 19, 29, 59, 79 or 89 and M = 13, 23, 43, 53, 73 or 83
So number of distinct products = 5 × 6 = 30
Here case III and case IV will give the same products as case
II and case I respectively.
∴Total number of distinct products = 55.
39. 1 Let AN = W, NC = y, DN = z and NB = x, as shown in the figure
below:
D C
A B
z
5
w
x
y
6
8
N
Now ∠CAB = ∠BDC and ∠DBA = ∠ACD (as they are the
angles made by the same line segment on the same side of
the circumference.)
∴ ∆NAB and ∆NDC are similar
x w 8 4
y z 6 3

Now w
2
+ x
2
= 8
2
and x
2
+ y
2
= 5
2
Also, x
2
+ y
2
= 5
2

2
4
3
| ·
' J
( J
y
2
+ y
2
= 5
2
⇒ y = 3 and x = 4
2 2
w 8 – 4 4 3 7 ∴ ;
∴ AC = w + y = 7 + 3 = 10
Hence option (1) is the correct choice.
40. 5 Let, b + 3c = P, c + 3a = Q and a + 3b = R.
Assume a = k
1
P + k
2
Q + k
3
R
= k
1
(b + 3c) + k
2
(c + 3a) + k
3
(a + 3b)
⇒ a = (3k
2
+ k
3
)a + (3k
3
+ k
1
)b +(3k
1
+ k
2
)c
Comparing coefficients of a, b and c we get


1 2
3 9
k , k
28 28
and
3
1
k
28
+ −

(R 9Q 3P)
a
28
Similarly we can calculate that
+ −

(P 9R 3Q)
b
28
and
+ −

(Q 9P 3R)
c
28
a b c
b 3c c 3a a 3b
⇒ + +
+ + +
9 9 P Q R 1 R P Q
28 28 R P Q 28 P Q R
− | · | ·
+ + + + + +
' J ' J
( J ( J
≥ Applying A.M. G.M.
Minimum value of + +
P Q R
R P Q
is 3 and minimum value of
+ +
R P Q
is 3.
P Q R
∴ + +
+ + +
a b c
Minimumvalue of
b 3c c 3a a 3b

+ +
9 27 3 21 3
.
28 28 28 28 4
Alternative method:
There is symmetry (any two of a, b and c are interchangeable)
in the expression of which we want to get the extreme value,
therefore put a = b = c and get your answer.
41. 5 EA
2
= 8
2
= 64 and ED × (ED + DC) = 4 × 16 = 64
∴EA
2
= ED × (ED + DC)
Since, DB = BC, therefore keeping B as the center, a circle
can be drawn that passes through the points C, D and A.
C
B
A
E
D
∴ BD = BC = AB = Radius of the circle
Now, in ECA ∆
EA
2
+ AC
2
= EC
2
⇒ AC
2
= 192
AC 8 3 units ⇒
AC 8 3
AB 4 3 units
2 2

Perimeter of the quadrilateral
+ ABDE 12 8 3
( )
4 2 3 3 units +
Alternative method I:
C
B
A
8
60°
4
E
D
12
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Join D and A.
Now in right angled ∆CAE
− ∠ °
2 2
8 1
AC 16 8 8 3, and cos AEC cos60
16 2
⇒ ∠ ° ∠ ∠ ° AEC 60 and ACE BDC 30
⇒ ∠ ° ∠ ° CBD 120 and DBA 60
Now in
∆EDA
° ∠
ED 4 1
cos60 cos AED
EA 8 2
∴∠ ° EDA 90
⇒ ∠ ° − ° − ° ° ADB 180 90 30 60
∴ ∆ In ADB
∠ ∠ ∠ ° DBA BAD ADB 60

8 3
BD DA AB BC 4 3.
2
∴ Perimeter of the quadrilateral + + + ABDE = 4 3 4 3 4 8
+ + 8 3 12 4(2 3 3) units
Alternative method II:
C
B
A
8
4
E
D
12
In ∆CAE
∠ °
8 1
sin ACE sin30
16 2
∴∠ ° ACE 30
− −
2 2 2 2
Now AC EC AE 16 8 8 3
Now in ∆BDC
∠ ∠ ° ⇒ ∠ ° BCD BDC 30 CBD 120
Let BD = BC be of length x
Now applying cosine rule
+ −

2 2 2
BC BD DC
cos CBD
2BC.BD
+ − −

2 2 2 2
2
x x 12 1 2x 144
or, cos120°= or,
2.x.x 2
2x
or, 3x
2
= 144 or, x=4 3
∴ BD 4 3 BC
− Now AB = AC - BC = 8 3 4 3 4 3
∴ Perimeter of quadrilateral
+ + + + ABDE 4 3 4 3 4 8 8 3 12
+ 4(2 3 3) units .
For questions 42 and 43:
Case I:
Sums donated to C and A are Rs.‘x’ and Rs.‘y’ respectively.
Therefore, the sum donated to B = Rs.(x – y).
Also, − < ⇒ <
y 6y
x y x
5 5
Case II:
Sums donated to C and A are Rs. (x + 1) and Rs.‘y’ respectively.
Therefore, the sum donated to B = Rs. (x + 1 – y).
Also, + − > ⇒ > −
y 5y
x 1 y x 1
4 4
Therefore, − < <
5y 6y
1 x
4 5
Also, − < ⇒ <
5y 6y
1 y 20
4 5
At −
5y 6y
y 20 : 1 24
4 5
So, the maximum possible value of ‘x’ is 23.
Now, − < < ⇒ < <
5y 6y 115 96
1 23 y
4 5 6 5
42. 1 Only 19.18 (option 1) lies within the given range of values of
‘y’. All other values given in the options are greater than 20.
43. 4 There are 23 possible values of ‘x’, i.e. from x = 1 to x = 23. For
any value of x in this range, you can get at least one suitable
value of y.
For questions 44 and 45:
Let the number N be denoted by ‘abc’. (where a, b, c are all digits.)
Therefore the number formed by reversing the digits of N will be ‘cba’
Value of ‘abc’ + value of ‘cba’ = 101(a + c) + 20b = k (a + b + c)
101(a c) 20b
k
a b c
+ +

+ +
20(a b c) 81(a c) 81(a c)
20
(a b c) (a b c) (a b c)
+ + + +
+ +
+ + + + + +
44. 4 k will be minimum when (a + c) is minimum and ‘b’ is maximum.
Maximum possible value of b = 9 and minimum possible value
of (a + c) = 3 + 0 = 3.
∴ Minimum value of
81 3 81
k 20 20 40.25
(3 9) 4
×
+ +
+
45. 4 We know that,
81(a c)
k 20
(a b c)
+

+ +
In this problem, the value of
1636
k
17
.
Putting the value of k in the above equation we get,
1636 340 81(a c)
17 17 (a b c)
+

+ +
Or 1296(a b c) 81 17(a c) + + × +
Or 1296 b = 81(a + c)
Or a + c = 16b
Since ‘a’ and ‘c’ are digits, value of (a + c) can never be more
than 18.
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Also, b cannot be ‘0’, because (a + c) ≠ 0.
So, ‘b’ must be equal to 1, and (a + c) = 16.
Only possible values of ‘a’ and ‘c’ are 7 and 9 respectively.

N = 719 and the sum of the digits is 17. Remainder when
719 is divided by 17 is 5.
46. 5
A B
C D
E
F
G
Given that FE =3 2 units.
Let, AD = X units, therefore AC = X 2 units.
Therefore, AE =
X
2
Since, AF is the angular bisector of DAE, ∠ therefore
AD DF
AE FE

X DF
X 3 2
2

| ·
' J
( J
⇒ DF = 6 units, therefore DE = DF + FE = 6 + 3 2 = 3 (2 + 2)
units.
47. 3 Total number of matches played in the football tournament
= 11 + 10 …+ 2 + 1 = 66.
Maximum possible number of points awarded to all the teams
is 66 × 3 = 198. This is possible if no match ended in a tie. But
the total points awarded to all the teams is 189.
So the number of matches that ended in a tie = 198 – 189 = 9.
As a tied match generates only 2 points, which is one less
than number of points generated by a win/loss match.
48. 4 The series can be split into two series, each having a common
ratio less than 1
1 1 1 1
3 1 ..... 2 1 .....
3 9 2 4
| · | ·
+ + + + + + +
' J ' J
( J ( J
3 2
1 1
1 1
3 2
+
− −

a
Since sum to inf inite terms
1 r
]

]

]
= 8.5
49. 1 Here for A,
(m – 4) (a + 5) = ma ⇒ a = (m – 5) +
m
4
The possible solutions for this are
m = 4 … a = 0 (invalid)
m = 8 … a = 5
m = 12 … a = 10
Similarly for B also we would find the same solutions for (n,
b).
Hence the solutions are m = 8; a = 5; n = 12; b = 10 (or)
n = 8; b = 5; m = 12; a = 10
(Since they are distinct integers)
In either case we get the time taken to finish the
job as 3 days and 3 hours.
50. 5 a
1
+ a
2
+ a
3
+ a
4
= 210.
Of the four numbers (a
1
, a
2
, a
3
, a
4
) atleast one has to be 53
or above as average of these numbers is 52.5. Since L.C.M.
of a group of numbers has to be greater than or equal to each
and every number of the group.
∴ L.C.M. of these numbers cannot be below 53.
Now if the L.C.M. is 53, each of the numbers in the group
would be either 53 or 1 (as 53 has only these 2 factors) but
53 + 53 + 53 + 53 > 210
and 53 + 53 + 53 + 1 < 210
∴53 cannot be the L.C.M.
If the L.C.M. is 54
54 + 54 + 54 + 54 > 210
but 54 + 54 + 54 + 27 < 210
----------------------------------
----------------------------------
If the L.C.M. is 59
59 + 59 + 59 + 59 > 210
but 59 + 59 + 59 + 1 < 210
If the L.C.M. is 60
60 + 60 + 60 + 30 = 210
∴ The smallest possible L.C.M. is 60.
51. 3 Though the passage is broadly about ‘Ways through which
knowledge is discovered’, almost 90% of the passage deals
with ‘Rhetoric as a way of discovering knowledge’. Hence
option 3 is correct and apt for the passage . Option 1 becomes
too general for the passage. Option 2 cannot be validated by
the passage since the last line says that even the assumption
in rhetoric has been treated only as an assumption. Option 4
is too specific. The passage does not deal only with rhetoric
and its assumptions. Rhetoric is being explained as a means
to the discovery of knowledge. Option 5 does not capture the
theme of the passage.
52. 4 The passage consists of either the opinions of the author or
Doug Brent. It is entirely opinionated or subjective. Hence
option 4 is correct. The author does not focus on description.
He also does not argue or indulge in arguments/counter-
arguments. Analysis is overshadowed by opinions in the
passage. Skepticism does not characterize the whole
passage. Yes, the author does negate the ‘dualistic mode’,
but even that cannot be called skepticism.
53. 2 Option 1 is incorrect as the ‘duality’ expressed by the initial
lines of the passage does not take into account communal
interactions which are central to the rhetorical mode. Option 3
cannot be validated by the passage. Yes , ‘persuasion’ is one
of the factors central to the discovery of knowledge through
rhetoric. But the passage does not see ‘persuasion’ as an
impeding factor. Option 4 is again far-fetched as the passage
has not spoken about the ‘interest’ factor. This is something
which needs more discussion in the passage. Option 5 is
beyond the scope of the passage as ‘universal love and
brotherhood’ are not the subject matter of the passage. Option
2 can be inferred from the last paragraph and especially the
last line of the passage. The effectiveness of the Rhetor to
influence the audience is based on an assumption. The
assumption has been treated simply as an assumption/ article
of faith. This means that the assumption is open to question, it
is dependent on one’s faith and has not been validated. Hence
the ‘effectiveness of rhetoric’ is ‘suspect’.
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54. 1 Ruddiman believes that early farmers- much before the
industrial revolution- had a significant ability to alter the
environment. The critics believe otherwise. We are looking
for an option which strengthens the critics’ viewpoint and
hence would be supported by them. Option 2 implies that
earlier farmers were less efficient and hence would have
indulged in farming practices which were less efficient- using
more land per person/ causing more harm to the environment.
This would support Ruddiman and not the critics. Option 3 and
option 5 are similar in their import. They imply that earlier farmers
used more land per person- which is not something which the
critics would like to agree with. Option 4 goes beyond the
scope of the passage as the passage discusses only the
impact of agriculture on environment. Option 1 is something
which the critics would agree to. The critics are countering
Ruddiman’s view by saying that ‘small populations’ as regards
farmers had very less ability to alter the environment due to
their insignificant number.The hidden assumption is that land
use earlier was more or less similar to land use today.
55. 2 Statement A is incorrect as it should be ‘used more land per
person’. ‘Used more land’ cannot be validated as we would
require the total amount of land being used then and now.
Statement B is correct and can be inferred from the paragraph.
A current model is the critics’ industrial revolution model in the
second last paragraph. Statement C again talks about ‘total
land used’ which requires more data.
56. 5 The author does not make even a single comment in the
passage. He just presents the views of the researchers,
critics etc. We cannot say anything about his stand on the
issue. Hence option 5 is the best choice
57. 3 B is incorrect as it should be ‘structure to that of the traditional’
Remember, here the scholar compares the structures of the
novel and the traditional five-act play. All the other sentences
are grammatically correct.
58. 4 Only E is incorrect, it should be ‘at’ instead of ‘on’, before ‘100
degrees’ as we are referring to a specific temperature.
59. 5 All the given sentences are grammatically correct.
60. 1 ‘Animal cry’ in A gives the hint. So, AH is the correct match. In
B, ‘roar’ matches clearly with ‘bellowing with rage’ CF and DE
form the correct pair. So (1) is correct.
61. 5 ‘Ethyl ether’ in A matches clearly with ‘Ethereal solution’ in G.
According to the given choices ‘light’ matches with poetry
writing styles as mentioned in E. ‘Heavenly’ is used with ‘beauty’
so CF is correct. ‘Refined’ aptly matches with H. So (5) is the
correct option.
62. 3 DH and CF are obvious pairs so option (1), (2) and (5) are
eliminated. In A ‘assail’ would ‘mean to deliver violent blows’. In
B, the meaning ‘to offer something persistently to’ is reflected
in sentence E. So (3) is the correct option.
63. 5 ‘Gross ways’ in E matches with the meaning provided in B. BE
is the correct choice. We eliminate options (1) and (2). AH
clearly forms a pair. If we replace ‘gross sales’ with ‘total
sales’, then too the sentence makes clear sense. ‘Refinement’,
as used in E, clearly suggests lack of refinement in a person’s
character. ‘Objectionable or offensive’ can describe the
person’s attire. On the basis of this we can eliminate even
option (4).
64. 3 Statements 1 & 4 are verifiable and hence facts. Statements 2
and 3 are personal opinions / judgments.
65. 5 Statements 3 & 4 are clearly facts since they are verifiable.
Statement 1 is a judgment since ‘Reddys being on the
defensive’ could be the writer’s perspective . Statement 2 is
an inference since it bases itself on the report—— it is a
conclusion based on the facts of the report.
66. 3 Statements 1 & 3 are facts. Statement 2 is an opinion expressing
approval and hence a judgment. Statement 4 is an inference –
a conclusion about the unknown based on the reasoning
offered in the statement.
67. 5 Option (1) seems like a repetition of the idea in the last
sentence. Option (2) is vague. Option (3) starts off on a
different track –organized religion. Option (4) talks about man’s
flow being governed by natural laws whereas the paragraph
denies the existence of any rule. Option (5) carries forward
the theme of the paragraph and states a conclusion about the
existentialist which is drawn from the paragraph.
68. 5 In the beginning, the paragraph deals with something that is
not complex, then it moves on to describe a complex process.
Option (5) continues this idea. It talks about the behaviour of
the nonlinear system. Options (1), (2), (3) and (4) are general
in nature and do not specifically continue the idea left off in
the last line of the paragraph.
69. 4 Option (4) effectively follows what is being stated in the
paragraph because it provides further example of how people
prefer to watch reality movies and appreciate them more
especially in a situation where their real lives do not contain
much of actuality.
70. 1 The passage examines both the aspects very minutely, thus
option (1) is most appropriate. Options (2) and (5) are
suggestions whereas options (3) and (4) are the possible
repercussions of the ban.
71. 3 The author is critical of the unjust conservation laws and
programmes. He carries on with this tone through a major
portion of the passage. There is no bitterness, so ‘scathing’ is
out of question. Options (1), (2) and (4) are not reflected in
the passage.
72. 2 The answer is (2). The passage discusses the possibility of
the ban having a boomerang effect. All the other options are
untrue.
73. 3 The passage is mainly concerned with identifying the creation
and the implementation of the Gandhian ideology. We would
be limiting the scope of the passage if we say, that it is a mere
extolment of disciplinary ideas. (1) & (2) are facets of the
same, (4) is incorrect and (5) is nowhere mentioned.
74. 1 The first line of the passage sets the theme, that Gandhi’s
magic cannot be categorized and defined because of its
inherent sublime quality. (2) is incorrect as there is no
resistance and (3) also alludes to resistance which is incorrect,
(4) denotes a kind of breaking of rules which is incorrect and
(5) is a sort of provocation which is not the case.
75. 3 The language in the last paragraph is full of admiration for the
way in which Gandhi had succeeded in evolving an ideology
which was based on the simple tenets of life. All the other
options are incorrect as they cannot be inferred from this
paragraph.

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