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Question

The reabsorption of sodium from the distal tubule and


collecting duct is regulated primarily via:

Which of the following hypothalamic factors is not a


peptide?

T effector lymphocytes

Scurvy is caused due to a deficiency of:

Atropine

In the treatment of failing heart the following drug is not


effective
Anxiolytics produce their effect by

Which of the following is classified as a neuroleptic

Fluvoxamine acts by selectively

Which statement concerning Frusemide is correct?

Which statement is incorrect concerning the body's


response to 20% haemorrhage?

Which one of the following tissues contains discontinuous


cappillaries?
The glomeruli of the nephron are located in which area of
the kidney:

Which of the following would increase capillary


ultrafiltration?

What bony landmark is often used in the inferior alveolar


block to help gague the optimal height for the injection
(6-10mm above the occlusal plane)?

Which one of the following is true?

In cross section, the shape of a hydroxyapatite crystallite


of the enamel is:

Why are plasticizers incorporated in monomers before


polymerisation?
Brittle fracture is the most common mode of failure for
ceramics. Which of the following is not true of brittle
fractures?

Dental gold allows can be heat hardened by order


hardening, which of the following metals needs to be
present in the alloy for it to be possible?

What is the axial skeleton composed of?

Choose the correct statement about orbits:

Which vertebra has no body?

Which capsule encloses the temporal mandibular joint


like a tube?
Which artery branches off to the posterior superior
alveolar artery and the inferior alveolar artery?

Mixed cranial nerves contain both sensory and motor


fibres except which of the following:

Which amino acid is important in the buffering action of


proteins at physiological pH values?

Which of the following is a ketogenic amino acid?

A protein domain is defined as:


In competitive enzyme inhibition, Km:

A prosthetic group is defined as:

Sugar acids are monosaccharides that have:

Which of these statements are false?

Pyruvate dehydrogenase is made up of which 3


enzymes?

If DeltaG for a reaction is positive, the reaction is said to


be?
Conversion of Phosphoenol pyruvate into pyruvate is the
last reaction of glycolysis. This reaction is catalysed by:

An example of peripheral membrane protein is:

Specialised membrane transport proteins, termed


channel proteins:

Concerning ion-gated channels, which of the following


statements is false?

Ionotropic receptors:

Which ion controls the membrane potential?


Which of the following is not part of the basal ganglia?

A quaternary ammonium compound can only be


delivered by the following route:

Which of the following statements concerning Atropine is


false?

Which of the following statements about the autonomic


nervous system is false?

Stimulation of 2-adrenoreceptors:

The alpha adrenergic receptor antagonist phentolamine


causes which one of the following effects:
What is the mesothelium derived from?

What lines the lungs and alveoli?

What is the most common type of cell in skin?

Which of the following muscles are involved in producing


horizontal wrinkles on the forehead?

What do the geniohyoid, hyoglossus and stylohoid


muscles have in common?

Posterior ethmoidal paranasal sinuses drain into the:


Which of the following is true about paranasal sinuses?

Which salivary gland(s) produces the most saliva in


unstimulated saliva?

Which salivary gland(s) produces the most saliva in


stimulated saliva?

Which of the following is true?

The deep part of the submandibular salivary gland lies


between the mylohoid and which of the following
muscles?

Pyruvate dehydrogenate complex converts pyruvate to:


In gluconeogenesis pyruvate is converted to
oxaloacetate in which cellular compartment?

How many ATP molecules are used in one turn of the


urea cycle?

Parathyroid Hormone: 70%

Metaphase is when:

Which of the following is a purine nucleoside?

Which of the following is true?


Oxidative deamination involves:

Calcitonin is a relatively small polypeptide which:

Which of the following is false?

Suxamethonium:
Which of the following statements is correct?

The mechanism of action of ipratropium in the treatment


of asthma is:

Antibiotics that act by inhibiting the RNA polymerase


enzyme include:

Which of the following statements is correct?

In smooth muscle contraction, Ca2+ binds to:

The bronchus, pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein are


in close proximity to one another in the?
Which best describes the space that the heart occupies?

What constitutes the primary muscle of respiration?

Small increases in the pulmonary venous pressure can


result in considerable changes to the driving pressure
because?

How and why can increased alveolar pressure affect


alveolar blood flow?

During normal quiet breathing, the volume of air that is


moved between inspiration and expiration is known as:
Concerning the structure of the oral mucosa, the
_____________ separates the epithelium from the
underlying connective tissue:

Within the tooth, the hyaline layer is the:

The oblique ridges are features of:

Which of the following teeth usually have two root


branches that are bifurcated in the apical third?

The principal difference between bone and cementum is


that the latter lacks:

Electrochemical reactions are primarily hazardous to:


Abrasives are added to toothpastes to remove plaque
and polish the tooth surface, Which of the materials
listed below is not commonly used as an abrasive in
toothpastes?

Sodium hypochlorite is used as a disinfecting agent, not


only for materials but clinically (eg root canals). Problems
are associated with it. Which of the following is incorrect?

Psychrophilic bacteria are able to grow best at:

The initial stage of the virus growth cycle is:

During protein synthesis, which of the following is TRUE?


Which of the following statements is correct?

Concerning the spinal cord: which statement is correct?

Which nerve is tested for its sensory function in the


corneal reflex?

Which one of the following somatic-motor tract controls


facial expression?

Damage to the cerebellum does not show the following


sign:
Concerning control of ventilation:

Which one of the following statements about CO2 is


correct?

Coronary blood flow is related to:

Left cardiac sympathetic nerve stimulation regulates:

Pyruvate dehydrogenase is a complex of which three


different enzymes?
Which of these can enter the membrane without the use
of a transport protein?

Which of the following is incorrect:


Which is a ketogenic amino acid?
What does the parasympathetic system not affect?
How do you work out pH?
Which enzyme converts phosphoenolpyruvate to
pyruvate?
Which is not part of basal ganglia?
What does the charge relay system consist of?

Which of the following about acetylcholine is correct?


The connective tissue sheath around the peripheral
nerve is called the:
Which of these enzymes are inhibited by NADH and ATP
in the TCA cycle?
What type of collagen is most abundant in the basement
membrane?
2 sources of glucose in the body:
What type of tissue holds most organs together?
Which of the following is not part of the epidermis?
Something about sublingual method of taking a drug
What do geniohyoid, stylohyoid and hypoglossus have in
common?
How does salbutamol produce its anti-inflammatory
effect?
Attachment of the superior pteryomandibular raphe?
Which one of these is a purine?

What is the consequence of a decreased binding of 2,3


BPG?
Why is right ventricle less muscular than left ventricle?
What inhibits respiration?
What does left atrium receive?
What is not required in translation?
Where is sensory information from the maxillary molars
supplied from?

Which of the following subdural venous sinuses drains


into the internal jugular vein after passing through the
jugular foramen

What causes hyper responsiveness in asthma?


Regarding nucleotides which is the following is true:

How and why does the alveolar pressure affect alveolar


blood flow?

Why does a small increase in venous pressure cause


large changes in driving pressure?

What describes the suprahyoid muscles?

Sphenoid and ethmoidal paranasal sinuses drain into


what?
What cannot be measured by a spirometer?
What is the mode of action of Ipratropium?
What inhibits respiration?
How does the internal carotid enter the cranial cavity?
Muscle responsible for wrinkling forehead?
The skin overlying the mandible is innervated by the
branch of which nerve?
What happens in interphase?

Which part of the ECG represents the atrial contractions?

Which of the following is false?

What is in the carotid sheath?


What occurs in anaphase?

Where does lymph from lymph nodes go?

What is the tRNA nucleotide sequence that specifies the


AA methiosine that initiates the translation sequence?

According to frank starling's law, what affects force of


ventricular muscle contraction?
What does the deep part of the submandibular gland lie
in between?
Which one of these is true of mucins?
Type of dentine that develops in response to external
stimuli has a protective role. /What type of dentin is
produced in response to external trauma and has a
protective function?
What is the most mineralized tissues?
FDI system for lower right first molar
What is the area between teeth called?
The difference between the bone and the cementum is
that the latter has no:
What is the role of humectant in toothpastes?
Properties of Enamel and dentin

What statement about sodium hyperchlorite is wrong?

Some polymers contain cross-links. What are cross-links?


What is an advantage of flora?
What is IgA?
Why are vitamins important in diet?
What Parathyroid hormone does PTH / The effects of
parathyroid hormone?

Which of these about CSF is false?


What innervates facial expression?
Fibres associated with dull pain

Muscle spindle only sensory organ:

Antibiotics that affect RNA polymerase activity include?


Which is incorrect about capillaries?
Left cardiac sympathetic nerve stimulates
Which of the following produces vasoconstriction?
Which of the following statements is correct

Which of the following tissues contains discontinuous


capillaries?
In what form would a polymer be if it's Tg is greater than
room temp?
Which of the following nerves has its nucleus in the
pons?
What do the calyces form in the kidney?

The following about colonic bacteria is false:


Example of a loop diuretic
An example of a glass modifier
Naloxone is a
Over time fluoride builds up in:

What is the grass-like structure at the enamel dentine


junction called?
Question about the Gold + amalgam reaction

What does a plasticizer do?

What is the symptom of a Lower Motor Neuron lesion?


Something to do with what is the thin outer layer of
cortical bone

Parotid/submandibular/sublingual gland - which is mixed?


Measurement of the CEJ??
In the reaction with HIGH concentrations of fluoride, what
is replaced?

What is not anaesthetised in an inferior alveolar block?


Structures that look like tufts in the enamel are called
What are ridges

Difference in surface enamel and junctional enamel


Formation of a crown takes how long?
If a persons eyes turn medial to give a cross-eyed
appearance, it is indicative of damage to the?
Which nerve has its nucleus in the pons?
Gram positive cell has a . . . .(thick or thin peptidoglycan
layer in the cell wall)
What suture joins the parietal bone?
In long bones what is the shaft called?
Which one of these models forms during endochondral
ossification?
Vertebrae for rotational movement?
Which vertebrae does not have a body?
Where is simple squamous epithelia found?
Where are keratinocytes formed?
A girl sticks out her tongue at you, what muscle is she
using?

Which sinus leaves at the jugular foramen?


Which arteries give the branches of the posterior
superior alveolar arteries and the inferior alveolar
arteries?
A person is hit in the face, his eye and mouth droops.
Which cranial nerve is damaged?
Which muscle does the parotid gland pierce?
Which muscle is pierced when an inferior alveolar nerve
block is administered?

What is the main inorganic mineral in the tooth enamel?

What is true about fluoride?

What are the properties of rubber?

Which bond is dipolar but not electron sharing?

What are the properties of glass?


What is true about ceramics?
What is the function of the alveolar bone?

Which ones of these are correct?


At what age is the deciduous dentition complete?

What is leeway space?

What is true about permanent incisors?


Who is most at risk from hazards in the dental clinic?
Which paranasal sinuses do not drain into the middle
meatus?
Which salivary gland produces the most un-stimulated
saliva?
What is not the function of sodium lauryl sulphate?
Where does the parotid gland open?
What type of collagen is present in the periodontal
ligament?

What are the ways that 2-paste impression materials can


be dispensed?
What is the measure of rigidity?
What property is a measure of transient heat flow?
What is hypogammaglobulaemia?
What is IgA?
What is the function of plasma cells?
What are the features of neutrophils?

What is in the larynx?


Where does the auditory tube open into?

What is a feature of mucins?


The amount of an acid or base that can be added to a
volume of a buffer solution before its pH changes
significantly is defined as the:
Which disease is common in Wales - the typical "fair hair
and blue eyes" and causes mental retardation?
Which enzyme is deficient in Von Gierke's disease?

Know the symptoms of hyper/hypothyroidism.

Structure of insulin molecule.

A buffer is a . . .
Ribosomes are . . .
The amount of an acid or base that can be added to a
volume of a buffer solution before its pH changes
significantly is defined as the
What is the major buffer in saliva
Which amino acid does not have an asymmetric carbon
atom
Two spatially distinct but chemically identical
arrangements of atoms which are mirror images of each
other are called . . .
Which amino acid causes a bend in the peptide chain

Which amino acid is involved in physiological buffering


Ions travel across the plasma membrane . . . how?
Glucose enters cells by
Ketogenesis takes place in the

Negative nitrogen balance is


What is the optically inactive amino acid?

What amino acid causes a bend in a polypeptide chain?


What happens to enzymes after a reaction?
The organelle in which complex carbohydrates such as
GAGs are synthesized in?
What is a zymogen?
What protein has a site for the formation of cross-
bridges?
What is the Major buffer in saliva?
What is the major buffer (amino acid) in humans at
physiological conditions?
In anaerobic conditions what happens to pyruvate?
Which of these best describes where peripheral proteins
are joined?

Patient presents with bleeding gums and bruising, what


vitamin deficiency?
Which enzyme converts PEP to pyruvate?
How many molecules of NADH are produced in glycolysis
and the TCA cycle per glucose molecule?
What amino acids are involved in the charge relay
system in chymotrypsin?
How does lymph leave the lymph nodes?

What does Km measure?


What activates PFK 1?
What are the two sources of glucose for the body?
XXX reduces the enzyme effect but inhibition is 95%
reversed when the substrate is increased by 1000 fold.
What inhibition is this?
What does competitive inhibition do to the Km?
What is an example of oxidative deamination?
What enzyme is deficient in Von-Giercke's disease?
What enzyme is deficient in fructose intolerance
disorder?
What enzyme is deficient in galactosaemia?

What is the function of calcitonin?


What are the differences between upper/lower motor
neuron
What does the reticular formation NOT perform?

What connects the Wernicke and Broca's area together?

What are the characteristics of Broca's (expressive)


aphasia?

What are the characteristics of Wernicke (receptive


aphasia)?
Which cortex is affected if the patient shows abnormal
perseverance?
Amino acids have negative and positively charged ends
but are able to cross capillaries in the brain because
Decussation of the corticospinal tract is at?

Refractory period is defined as?


What does the parotid gland go via?
Which tract is involved in the movement of the facial
muscles?
Skeletal muscle is under what control?
What is the structure of the nerve in the somatic nervous
system?
Which one of these is not a second messenger?

What structures are in the basal ganglia?


Which tract is a pyramidal tract?
What connects the 2 language areas of the brain?
What is the area of language expression?
What is associated with the monosynaptic patellar
reflex?

What is not a mechanoreceptor?

What surrounds the capillaries in the blood brain barrier


(BBB)?
What features are C-fibres associated with?

Which structure does not belong to the brain stem?


Diagnosis for a patient presenting with an impaired FEV1
but normal FVC with coughing and wheezing?

Which valves closing cause the "lub dub" sound of the


heartbeat?
What does the QRS wave on an ECG represent?

What does the P waves on an ECG represent?


What do the T wave on an ECG represent?
Pneumotaxic centre is for expiration/inspiration?
What is the most potent vasoconstrictor?

What does the bronchial circulation not supply?

What is the role of Cholecystokinin (CCK)?

What is Glaucoma?

What do Enterokinases do?

Which diuretic works on the distal tubule?


Which diuretics works on the ascending loop of Henle?
Where on the kidney nephrons are the Na and Cl
channels found?
Where on the kidney nephrons are the Na+-K+ channels
found?
What kind of transporter is on the distal tubule?
What does colonic bacteria NOT do?

What do you use to measure glomerular filtration rate in


a clinical situation?
Which of the following has an endocrine function?
Question about kidney calices? (not fully recalled)
What does spirometry not measure?
Which of these is NOT true about the dorsal respiratory
group?
The portal tract/triad contains hepatic artery, portal vein
and
What type of bone is first laid down?
Tropomyosin blocks the myosin binding site

What happens to interpleurae pressure upon inspiration?


Which cavity is the heart in?

What is the Haldane effect?

What is the respiratory exchange ratio (RER)?

What are the 3 pressures that affect pulmonary


ventilation?
The right ventricle is thinner, how does this affect the
pulmonary circulation?
What is external respiration?
What is left behind after a forced expiration?

What is vital capacity?

What does not affect ventilation/diffusion rate?

What is passive diffusion?


What does hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction do?

Why does arterial PO2 differ from alveolar PO2?


Where is urea mostly absorbed?
Where in the body is angiotensinogen produced?
Which cells in the kidney detect changes in Na+
concentration?
Which part of the body receives reduced blood flow
during moderate exercise?
What is the condition where H+ are excreted and HCO3-
is retained?
What prevents heart burn?

What does gastric juice consist of?

How do we calculate stroke volume?


What phases are not in a pacemaker tissue?
What is the primary pacemaker in a healthy heart?

Which is true about the baroreceptors


What can cause ventricular filling to be impaired?
What controls cardiac contraction?
Which drug used to treat asthma causes
bronchodilation?
What does Phenelzine do?
Name a hypnotic which is short acting and has no
metabolites?
Diazepam is NOT a ......?
Where does Spironolactone work?
What do you give L-dopa with?
Which is a selective alpha-1 antagonist?
Which is an acetylcholine antagonist?

Which method of drug administration avoids first pass


metabolism
What effect does lignocaine have?
What does stimulation of B1 receptor cause?
Which one of these is a muscarinic antagonist?
How is acetylcholine associated with the
parasympathetic nervous system?
How is noradrenaline associated with the sympathetic
nervous system?

The antidepressant effect of amitriptyline is produced by


the following action
What are phase 2 reactions?

What is the action of salbutamol? Beta-2 adrenoreceptor


agonist

What is asthma?

What is true?

What does tubocurare do?

Which drug action is correct?

What best describes the neuromuscular junction?


Which drug is used to treat Parkinsons?

What is diazepam?
What is phenytoin?

What is digoxin?

What are Tricyclic Antidepressants?

What are the effects of morphine?


What is an adrenoceptor neurone blocker?

What is chlorpromazine?
Which drugs are used to treat hypertension?

What drugs are used to treat depression?

Which of the following is a short-acting organic nitrate


used in the treatment of angina?
Which diuretic acts on the ascending limb of the loop of
Henle?

Which diuretic increases Na+ and K+ exchange?


Which of is not a type of connective tissue:

What type of cell lines blood vessels and alveoli

What cell synthesises collagens, elastin and


proteoglycans in the skin:

What collagen makes up the basement membrane:

What makes up the axial skeleton?

What are the orbits made up of?


If the superior orbital fissure is connect by the frontal
and sphenoid bone, what is the inferior orbital fissure
connected with as well as the sphenoid bone?
Where does the optic nerve exit the skull?

Which vertebra does not have a body?

The vertical plane running from side to side that


separates the body or parts of the body into anterior and
posterior aspects is called the:

What is the main buffer in stimulated saliva?

Which AA has buffer properties?

Where is pyruvate converted to oxaloacetate?

Which of the following about protein domains is true:


An inhibitor stops working when substrate concentration
is increased x1000. What kind of inhibitor is it?

Which of these amino acids do not have D dextrorotatory


right-handed optical isomerism?

What is a sugar acid?

Which one of these is false

Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is made up of what


three eznymes?
An enzyme with a high km has a..

If deltaG is positive, the reaction is considered...


PDC catalyses the conversion of pyruvate into?
What is the linkage for branching in glycogen?
What protein held in the membrane can be removed
without interruption of the lipid bilayer

If deltaG is close to 0 what affects the reaction?


What is a feature of specialised channel proteins?

The connective tissue sheath around a peripheral nerve


is:

Which statement is correct:


Which neurotransmitter opens ligand gated chloride ion
channels?

Which is not a 2nd messenger:

Which of these routes of administration is used for at


quaternary ammonium compound?

Which of the following is incorrect:


Which one of the statements false of AN System?

Which is not supported by bronchial blood supply?

How and why can increased alveolar pressure affect


alveolar blood flow?

The lung has non-respiratory function. Which of these is


NOT a non-respiratory function?

During inspiration pleural pressure:

What causes cleft lip? Incomplete joining of

What does the carotid sheath contain?


How does the internal carotid artery enter the skull?

The emissary veins bring extra-cranial infection to the


skull because...

Which of the following subdural venous sinuses drains


into the internal jugular vein after passing through the
jugular foramen

How do you test hypoglossal nerve damage?

Mixed cranial nerves have both sensory and motor


neurones, which of the following are not mixed cranial
nerves:
Skin over the angle of mandible is innervated by which
nerve?
Which muscle causes horizontal wrinkles on the
forehead?

What happens in interphase?


What is metaphase?
Name a purine nucleoside
Which of these isn't a nucleoside in mRNA?

Which one is false:


What enzyme is absent in galactosaemia?

What does stimulation of beta 2 adrenoreceptors cause?

Stimulation of the nicotinic ganglion does not produce?


Which of these drugs is not used in asthma

In control of ventilation:
What inhibits inspiration?

What is a result of reduced 2,3 bisphosphoglycerate?


What is the pulse behind the knee called?

Coronary blood flow is dependent on....


According to frank starling's law, what affects force of
ventricular muscle contraction?
In the ECG, what is the part between the beginning of
atrial contraction and beginning of ventricular
contraction called:
In ECG, what shows atrial excitation?

How does salbutamol produce its effects

Where is noradrenline synthesized?

What is the effect of Atropine?

Which drug can reduce nausea and vomiting?

If there is 40% cysteine in a length of DNA, what


percentage is adenine?

Which chamber of the heart has the thinnest wall?

What is the action of salbutamol? Beta-2 adrenoreceptor


agonist
Why is it important to have vitamins in your diet

Deficiency of which vitamin causes scurvy

Parathyroid hormone causes

What do the geniohyoid, hyoglossus, and stylohyoid


muscles have in common?

Posterior ethmoidal sinus drains into

Which one isn't an organic polymer:

Why is true of mucins:

What is a virus?
What cannot be found on a stress strain plot

Who's at greatest risk from freshly mixed amalgam

For Sodium hypochlorite, which statement is incorrect


Characteristics of gram negative bacteria cell envelope:

The characteristics of t effector lymphocytes


Where does the corticospinal tract decussate?

Where is the cell body for the primary neurones in the


spinothalamic tract

The afferent nerve in tendon organ reflex is the:

Which statement about the spinal cord is incorrect?

What isn't used to cause vasodilation of blood vessels?

In hypovoleamic shock which is incorrect:


Which of these is not correct about BBB

According to frank starling, what affects cardiac output?


Which is not a mechanoreceptor?

Types of submandibular gland secretion

Where do you find discontinuous capillaries

What is true about the BBB:

What is the name of the reaction that forms a new


product and a by product

Which one of these drugs inhibits RNA polymerase


synthesis

Which shows the relationship between resistance and


blood pressure

Which of these has most increased blood flow in exercise


Which vessel is not a part of the circle of Willis?

The functional classification of mucosa of hard palate is

Inorganic part of enamel

According to definition a cusp is:

What tooth has two roots that may become bifurcated

What are the first teeth to erupt

What is the mineral content of dentine


Which of these is a property of rubber?

Which is true?

Binary alloy formed when 2 metals are insoluble in each


other

Lower motor neurone lesion


Light and lasers cause damage to

Whats the main sensory receptor in monosynaptic reflex

What do you call elevated pC02 and low ventilation

Which one is a loop diuretic


Which is not a major organ of the gastrointestinal tract?
Where does the corticospinal tract decussate
Which hypothalamic factor is not a peptide?

Which is true?

When arterial systemic pressure increases, GFR and rate


of glomerulus filtration is unchanged through the
compensation of what?

Which method avoids first pass metabolism?

How is Salbutamol given?

Which drug is totally metabolised in first pass


metabolism?
What is the ratio of distribution of aspirin across
biological membrane?

Which drug can be absorbed from stomach?

What do acidic drugs bind to?

What do basic drugs bind to?

In which process is there the introduction of groups so


that it can undergo phase 2 reactions?

What does conjugation reactions involve?


Name a drug that can proceed without phase 1 reaction?

An unusal site of excretion?

What is salicyclic acid?

How can amphetamine be made acidic?

Which is not the factor that affects drug concentration in


blood plasma?

What is the loading dose?


Which is not a factor of multiple dosing (long 0.5t)?

Which is not a factor of multiple dosing (short 0.5t)?

Ionisation effects

Where does the hydrolysis of aspirin take place?

Which is not a property of amphetamine?

Which is not a property of pyridostigmine?


Which is not a structure of quarternary ammonium ions

The ANS can be:

The ANS is controlled by

The SNS can be

The SNS is controlled by

What do SNS terminals produce


What do ANS terminals produce

Which cranial nerve is not involved in parasympathetic


innervations?

Which divisions of the hypothalamus has direct


parasympathetic innervations?

Which divisions of the hypothalamus has direct


sympathetic innervations?

What is the function of occulomotor nerve?

What is the function of facial nerve?


What is the function of glossopharngeal nerve?

What produces achetylcholine neurotransmitter

Excess production of acetylcholine neurotransmitter


doesnt result in

NM junctions function by

NN junctions function by

The M1/M3/M5 receptors function by:


The M2/M4 receptors function by:

Which is not a muscarinic agonist

Which cranial nerve innervates parotid salivary gland?

Which cranial nerve innervates parotid iris radial muscle


and ciliary muscle?

Which is the rate limiting enzyme in synthesis pathway


for noraddrenaline?

Which is the cofactor for tyrosine hydroxylase


Which is the cofactor for dopa decarboxylase

Which is the cofactor for dopa beta-hydroxylase

Selective agonists of alpha-1> alpha-2

Selective agonists of alpha-2> alpha-1

Selective agonists of beta-1= beta-2

Selective agonists of beta-1> beta-2


What is the resting membrane potential

How does cocaine cause vasoconstriction?

Risk of seizure and cardiovascular collapse is increased


by

Where does acetylcholine neurotransmitter get broken


down

Selective agonists of alpha-1, alpha-2, beta-1

How does hemicholinium function?


How does botulinum toxin function?

How does streptomycin/tetracycline function?

How does Black widow spider function?

Which is an example of competitive non depolarising


antagonist

Which is not a side effect of depolarising blocker

Which is not a clinical function of NMJ blockers


What is eMax?

pAx values can only be determined for:

Effects of beta 2 adrenoceptor agonists dont include

How does theophylline function

Which is an anti-cholinergic drug

Which is an anti-inflammatory drug?


Which form of drug is vancomycin/teicoplanin

Which form of drug is penicillin?

Which form of drug is cephalosporin

Example of an antiviral agent includes

What doesnt uncontrolled hypertension result in?

Which drugs dont cause hypertension?


Which is the site where antihypertensive drugs can
function?

Which is an adverse effect of alpha-2 adrenergic agonists

Which is a cGMP stimulator?

Which is not a k+ channel opener?

Which is not an effect of angiotensin II?

Which is a risk factor for angina?


Which is not used for the pharmacological treatment of
angina

How do organic nitrates function?

Which is not a side effect of calcium channel blockers?

Factors which affect stroke volume include

What is used to increase contractility of cardiac muscle

What is used to reduce afterload?


How does thiazide function?

How do loop diuretics function?

Which is not used for pharmacological treatment of


anxiety

Which is not a characteristic of barbiturates

Which drug is used in status ellipticus

What does overdose of diazepam result in


What is a benzodiazepine antagonist

What does buspirone function on

What is epilepsy

What is partial seizure?

A drug that doesnt reduce frequency of nerve impulses


by acting on sodium gated channels include

Which drug is used to treat neuropathic pain


Which drug works by inhibiting GABA transaminase?

How is phenytoin removed?

Which drug works by use dependent blockage?

Which genes cause Schizophrenia?

What does Schizophrenia not involve?

Which dopaminergic system has positive effects


Which dopaminergic system is derived from ventral
tegmental area

Which drug increases dopamine release and causes


schizophrenia like symptoms?

What is dystonia?

Which is not an antimuscarinic effect?

Alpha-adrenoreceptor antagonism results in

What % of filtered sodium is removed by diuretics?


How do loop diuretics function?

How does thiazide function?

Name a Carbonic Anhydrase inhibitor?

Where does osmotic diuretic work?

Which was the first drug that was used to treat TB that
also proved to be effective in elevating the moods of
patients?

Which treatment is used for mania mood disorders

What is an example of TCA?


Which is not an example of SSRIs (5-HT selective uptake
inhibitors)?

Which drug is a selective noradrenaline reuptake


inhibitor?

What does MAO-A breakdown?

What does MAO-B breakdown?

What is the mechanism of lithum?

Which is not a form of hyperkinetic movement?

Treatment for Parkinsons disease includes


Which is not a D1/D2 agonist?

What sort of drug is amantadine?

Which drug causes drug induced Parkinsonism?

Which are the three main classes of opiod receptors?

What is not the synaptic activity of meu-agonists

What is miosis (papillary constriction) caused by?

What is the effect of opioids on stomach (GIT)?


What is the effect of opioids on small intestine?

What is the effect of opioids on smooth muscles?

Which is the active form of morphine?

Which is the inactive form of morphine?

Which is the bacterium that causes peptic ulcers?


How are hydrogen ions pumped out of cell into canaculi?

Histaminocytes are stimulated by

Parietal cell is stimulated by

What is parietal cell secretion inhibited by?

Which are histamine antagonists

Muscarinic receptor antagonist includes


Gastrin receptor antagonist includes

Which of these is a Proton pump inhibitor

What is the name of the antibiotic that is used to destroy


anaerobic bacteria?

Which one is not one of the four biologically important


organic molecules?

Which is a system involved in homeostasis?

Porins can be found in


What does Beta-Lactams affect?

The carbonic acid concentration in the mouth is


approximately

What is an alpha carbon?

The majority of amino acids in the body are

The pK value for carboxylic acid is

The pK value for amino group is


Which is not an example of an aliphatic amino acid?

Example of an aromatic amino acid includes

Which amino acid has a weakly acidic hydroxyl group?

Example of an imino acid includes

Acidic amino acids carry a

Which amino acid is not involved in the addition of


sugars
Secondary structure of proteins involves

Tertiary structure of proteins involves

Disulphide bonds can be formed by

Protein domains are formed in

Keratin is an

Collagen is an
Which is not a condition for bacterial cell walls

Chymotrypsinogen is made up of

The number of disulphide bonds in chymotrypsinogen is

High Km values show

Glucokinase is found in

Which enzyme is involved in the phosphorylation of


glucose?
Reversible inhibition involves

Irreversible inhibition involves

Malonate is a competitor inhibitor that inhibits

Alanine is a non-competitive inhibitor of

N-acetyl sugars are made up of


Anomers are

Heparin is used to

Maltose is a

Glycogen branches every

Starch branches every


Simplest GAG is

Which glycosaminoglycan is used for the treatment of


osteoarthritis?

Which glycosaminoglycan is used as an anti-coagulant?

What is esterification?

Fatty acids get converted into acetyl CoA by

What causes the release of lactate?


The Cori Cycle works between

GLUT 4 is present on

Which two enzymes are not part of the pyruvate


dehydrogenase and oxidation of pyruvate?

Coupled reactions usually involve

GLUT 3 is present on

GLUT 2 is present on
Where does glucokinase work?

Which is the rate limiting factor of glycolysis?

Rate limiting step for glycogen synthesis is

Glucose 6-phosphatase is predominantly found in

Where is pyruvate carboxylase found?

Where is glucose 6-phosphatase found?


Pyruvate Kinase can be split into

The limiting factor for Krebs cycle is

Pyruvate is converted into lactate by

Which is not a glucogenic amino acid?

Pyruvate is converted into PEP by

Which reaction is known as Claisen Condensation?


Which reaction involves the addition of water molecule
to double bond?

Which is an enzyme for transamination reaction?

Phenylalanine hydroxlase catalyses

Which is not a key point for urea cycle?

Which is not included in nucleosides?

Which is not an example of a purine?


What is a nicotinamide?

The phosphate groups in ADP and ATP are linked by

Where does uric acid get produced?

What is uric acid produced from?

Which is the common form of DNA

The nucleotides are linked by


The role of helicase is to

The role of DNA Polymerase I and RNAse H is to

The role of RNA primase is to

In which direction does DNA synthesis take place

Recognition and attachment of the correct amino acid


depends on enzyme called

The function of the small subunit of RNA is to


The function of the large subunit of RNA is to

Which amino acid is needed as an initiator for human


DNA replication

Von Gierkes disease occurs in response to

Alkaptorunia occurs in response to

Fructose intolerance occurs in response to

Familial hypercholesterolaemia occurs in response to


Alpha cells in the pancreas are responsible for secreting

Delta cells are responsible for secreting

F cells in the pancreas are responsible for secreting

The pancreas is involved in secreting

Insulin secretion is stimulated by

What is glycogenolysis?

What is gluconeogenesis?
Which is a factor involved in gestational diabetes?

Secondary Diabetes Mellitus does not arise from

Lipid soluble vitamins include

Which is not a factor for lipid soluble vitamin?

Water soluble vitamins include

Which is not an insulin counter regulatory hormone?


Where is epinephrine secreted from?

Which cells does ILGF stimulate to produce glucose into


blood?

Which is not a correct statement of fat soluble vitamins?

What is the RDA of vitamin A for women?

Which is the only vitamin we can synthesise ourself?

In which part of the body is vitamin D3 activated?


Which vitamin is synthesised by intestinal bacteria?

Which vitamin is involved in vision?

Which is the main function of calcium?

Which is the main protein that calcium is bound to?

What does parafollicular cells secrete?

Which of these is not associated with hair follicles?

Which of these are not in epidermis?


Which substance in ligaments and tendons allow them to
withstand a high tension?

Compared with the basement membrane, epithelial cells


share the following features except

Which epithelium cells is the outer layer of skin


comprised of?

At which week does the bell stage first get reached

Which stage does enamel formation begin in

The PDL space is widest at which points:

What is the superior attachment of the pteryoidal raphe

Which of these is not a component of dental porcelain


What feature does a maxillary central incisor NOT have

Cleft lip arises when which of these fail to fuse together:


Answer Options
a) Aldosterone
b) Vasopressin (ADH)
c) Catecholamines
d) Nitric Oxide
e) Endothelin
a) Corticotrophin releasing factor
b) Gonadotrophin releasing factor
c) Growth hormone releasing inhibitory factor
d) Thyrotrophin releasing factor
e) Prolactin releasing inhibitory factor
a) Have small amounts of rough ER
b) Can act as helper cells for antibody production
c) Have a short life span of a few hours only
d) Have no nucleus
e) Are not cytotoxic
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin K
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D
e) Vitamin E
a) Is a general anaesthetic
b) Is used as a premedicant to reduce anxiety
c) Is used as an anti-emetic
d) Will reduce the effect of vagal stimulation
e) Has potent analgesic properties
a) Nifedipine
b) Digoxin
c) Captopril
d) Isosorbide Dinitrate
e) Thiazide Diuretics
a) Acting as antafonists at glutamate receptors
b) Ptentiating the action of local endorphins
c) Potentiating the action of GABA
d) Stimulating GABA-A receptors
e) Stimulating GABA-B receptors
a) Amitriptyline
b) Chlorpromazine
c) Carbamazepine
d) Phenytoin
e) Sodium Valproate
a) Inhibiting the enzyme monoamine oxidase
b) Inhibiting the re-uptake of noradrenaline
c) Inhibiting the re-uptake of 5-HT (serotonin)
d) Stimulating alpha2 autoreceptors
e) Blocking 5-HT1 somatodendritic autoreceptors
a) Frusemide acts as a diuretic by increasing the osmotic tension
within the lumen of the nephron
b) Frusemide increases the permeability of the distal convuluted
tubule to water
c) Frusemide belongs to thiazide class fo diuretics
d) Frusemide blocks the reabsorption of chloride ions in the
ascending loop of Henle
e) Frusemide inhibits the reabsorption of sodium ions in the distal
convoluted tubule
a) Autotransfusion of fluid from interstitial fluid by reabsorption
b) Synthesis of plasma proteins
c) Replacement of red blood cells
d) Increased excretion of salts and water by the kidneys
e) Activation of baroreceptors to maintain blood pressure
a) Brain
b) Heart
c) Kidney
d) Liver
e) Lung
a) Renal pyramids
b) Renal columns
c) Medulla
d) Renal pelvis
e) Cortex
a) An increase in peripheral venous pressure
b) A reduction in lymphatic drainage
c) An increase in arteriolar resistance
d) An increase in plasma protein concentration
e) Heamorrhage
a) Mylohyoid bone
b) Genial tubercle
c) Coronoid notch
d) Mandibular notch
e) Mental protruberance
a) Fluoride is produced by the salivary glands
b) Fluoride substitutes for the Ca atoms in the calcium
hyrdoxyapatite lattice
c) Fluoride substitutes for the phosphate ions in the calcium
hydroxyapatite lattice
d) Calcium Fluoride is insoluble
e) The fluoride concentration is greatest at EDJ18
a) Circular
b) Hexagonal
c) Rectangular
d) Square
e) Triangular
a) To make the polymer strong
b) To make the polymer soft and rubbery by depressing its Tg
c) To make the polymer soft and rubbery by increasing its Tg
d) To make the polymer rigid by depressing its Tg
e) To make the polymer rigid by increasing its Tg
a) Stress is releived by deformation
b) There is no plastic flow
c) The stress-strain plot is mainly linear
d) Propagation and growth of microcracks, mainly from the surface
inwards
e) Occurs at a lower stress than calculated from atomic bond
strengths
a) Platinum
b) Zinc
c) Silver
d) Copper
e) Palladium
a) Skull, spinal column, ribcage
b) Skull, spinal column, pelvis
c) Shoulder blade and
d) Arms, legs, hands, feet
e) Shoulder blades, arms and
a) Orbit is made up of facial and cranial bones
b) Orbit is made up of only cartilage
c) Orbit is made up of facial bones only
d) Orbit is made up of cranial bones only
a) Atlas
b) Axis
c) Last lumbar
d) Last cervical
e) None of the above
a) Bowmans capsule
b) Crossby capsule
c) Hyelin capsule
d) Fibrous capsule
e) Synovial capsule
a) Facial artery
b) Lingual artery
c) Maxillary artery
d) Buccal artery
e) None of the above
a) Olfactory
b) Vagus
c) Trigeminal
d) Facial
e) Glossopharyngeal
a) Histidine
b) Glutamic acid
c) Lysine
d) Serine
e) Proline
a) Aspartate
b) Glycine
c) Alanine
d) Glutamate
e) Lysine

a) An independent folded structure within a polypeptide with an


independent function
b) An independently folded protein structure which can interact with
other similar structure via non-covalent interactions
c) An independently folded protein structure which can increase the
rate of reaction by reducing the activation energy
d) An independently folded protein structure which can couple two
reactions
e) An independently folded protein structure which is extremely rich
in beta pleated sheets and undergoes conformation change at a low
pH
a) Does not change
b) Always goes down
c) Always goes up
d) Has no significance
e) Can predict the direction of reaction
a) A part of polypeptide required for its biological function
b) Non-protein component bound to a protein for its activity
MISSING THREE ANSWER OPTIONS
a) A carbonyl group reduced to a primary hydroxyl group
b) A carbonyl group reduced to a secondary hydroxyl group
c) A hydroxyl group replaced with a hydrogen
d) A hydroxyl group oxidized to a carbonyl group
e) A phosphate group attached
a) Active transport requires ATP
b) Facilitated diffusion requires GTP
c) Transport of water inside a cell takes place by simple diffusion
d) Transport of CO2 inside a cell takes place by simple diffusion
e) Amino acids are transported by active transport
a) Pyruvate decarboxylase, dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase &
lipoamide reductase
b) Pyruvate carbokinase, dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase and
lipoamide reductase transacetylase
c) Pyruvate decarboxylase, dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase and
lipoamide reductase transacetylase
d) Pyruvate kinase, dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase and lipoamide
reductase transacetylase
e) Lactate dehydrogenase, dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase and
lipoamide reductase transacetylase
a) Endergonic
b) Exergonic
c) Endothermic
d) Exothermic
e) Reversible
a) Pyruvate carboxykinase
b) Pyruvate carboxylase
c) Pyruvate decarboxylase
d) Pyruvate kinase
e) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
a) Band 3 protein
b) Haemoglobin
c) Glycophorin
d) Spectrin
e) Na+-K+ pump
a) Are responsible for transferring solutes across cell membrane
b) Tend to interact weakly with the solute to be transported
c) Form aqueous pores that extend across the lipid bilayer
d) Allow specific solutes (usually inorganic ions of appropriate size
and charge) to pass through them
e) All of the above
a) Na+ and K+ ion channels are voltage gated
b) Ca2+ ion channels are voltage gated
c) Ion channels can open or close in response to an internal signal
d) The ligand gated Cl- ion channels are activated by glutamate
e) Voltage gated channels open in response to depolarisation of the
membrane
a) Are associated with G-proteins
b) Mediate an increase in cGMP levels
c) Are intracellular receptors
d) Include for example the nicotinic receptor
e) Mediate the action of adrenaline
a) Na+
b) K+
c) Ca2+
d) Cl-
e) *missing 1 option
a) Midbrain
b) Substantial nigra
c) Subthalamic nuclei
d) Globus pallidus
e) *missing 1 option
a) Oral
b) Buccal
c) Rectal
d) Intravenous
e) Transdermal
a) It is a competitive antagonist at muscarinic receptor
b) It is readily absorbed from the gastro-intestinal tract
c) Effect can be reversed by anticholinerase drugs
d) Paralyses skeletal muscle
e) Produces a drying of the mouth compound

a) It contains components from both the sympathetic and


parasympathetic nervous system
b) Motor neurones consist of a pre- and post-ganglionic fibre
c) The neurotransmitter at the pre-ganglionic fibre is acetylcholine
d) Both the pre- and post-ganglionic fibres are non-myelinated
e) The receptor stimulated by acetylcholine at the ganglia is
nicotinic
a) Increases heart rate
b) Dilates bronchiolar smooth muscle
c) Is produced by the agonist, prazosin
d) Increases gastric mobility
e) Causes contraction of arterioles in skeletal muscle
a) Pupil dilation
b) Fall in blood pressure in pheochromocytoma
c) Vasoconstriction
d) Increase in heart rate
*missing 1 option
a) Ectoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Embryonic epithelium
d) Mesoderm
e) Fibroblasts
a) Columnar
b) Simple squamous
c) Simple cuboidal
d) Stratified cuboidal
e) Stratified squamous
a) Keratinocytes
b) Melanocytes
c) Mast cells
d) Merkel cells
e) Langerhans cells
a) Zygomaticus major
b) The frontal belly of the occipito-frontalis muscle
c) Buccinator
d) Temporalis
e) Orbicularis oris
a) All act on the tongue
b) All names indicate relative size of the muscle
c) All names reflect direction of muscle fibres
d) Each acts synergistically to elevate the jaw
e) All are attached to the styloid process
a) Middle meatus
b) Inferior meatus
c) Superior meatus
d) Frontal sinus
e) Maxillary sinus
a) Paranasal sinuses are found in maxillary, ethmoid and lacrimal
bones
b) Paranasal sinuses contain passages acting as one-way valves
c) Paranasal sinuses open into the oral cavity
d) Paranasal sinuses enhance the resonance of the voice and lighte
the skull
e) Paranasal sinuses collect venous blood
a) Minor glands
b) Parotid
c) Pituitary glands
d) Sublingual
e) Submandibular
a) Minor glands
b) Parotid
c) Pituitary glands
d) Sublingual
e) Submandibular
a) Mucins are polysaccharides
b) Mucins are hydrophobic
c) Mucins have a complex tertiary structure
a) Constrictor
b) Hyoglossus
c) Palatoglossus
d) Styloglossus
e) Stylopharyngeus
a) NADH, ATP and Acetyl CoA
b) CO2, ATP and NADH
c) CO2, NADH and Acetyl CoA
d) ATP and NASH
e) CO2 and Acetyl CoA
a) Golgi complex
b) Endoplasmic reticulum
c) Lysosome
d) Mitochondria
e) Cytoplasm
a) 2 ATPs
b) 3 ATPS
c) 4 ATPs
d) 5 ATPs
e) 6 ATPs
a) Stimulates osteclastic bone resorption
b) Secretion is stimulated by a rise in circulating Ca2+ levels
c) Inhibits D3 formation
d) Stimulates lipolysis
e) Causes rickets

a) The cell synthesises DNA


b) The centromeres divide
c) Identical sets of chromosomes move to opposite poles of the cell
d) Centromeres of chromatids line up at the midline of the cell
e) Chromosomes resume chromatin form
a) Adenine
b) Guanosine
c) Cytidine
d) Thymidine
e) Uridine
a) Euchromatin usually contains DNA with inactive genes
b) Nucleolus is enclosed within a membrane structure inside the
nucleus
c) Genes are present in both the nuclear and mitochondrial DNA
d) Some genes contain only introns
e) All genes encode proteins
a) Conversion of pyruvate into acetyl Co
b) Conversion of glutamate into glutamine
c) Conversion of aspartate into asparagine
d) Conversion of glutamate into alpha-ketoglutarate and ammonia
e) Conversion of ammonia into urea
a) Increases bone resorption and increase Ca2+ secretion from the
kidneys
b) Increases bone resorption by inducing osteoclast activity
c) Decreases bone resorption by inhibiting osteoclast activity and
increases calcium excretion by the kidneys
d) Does not influence calcium excretion
e) Suppresses osteoblast activity

a) Inheritance material in bacteria can be destroyed by


deoxyribonuclease
b) At the 2 carbon position of a DNA nucleotide is linked to a
hydrogen atom
c) In a DNA double helix molecule, the sugar-phosphate backbones
are responsible for holding the two DNA strands together
d) During DNA polymerisation, new nucleotides are added to the 3-
carbon of the existing polynucleotide
e) During DNA replication, both strands of DNA are used as
templates for DNA synthesis
a) Is a selective muscarinic receptor agonist
b) Is a competitive antagonist at ganglionic nicotinic receptors
c) Is a depolarising blocker at neuromuscular junction end-plate
d) Is only hydrolysed by acetylcholinesterase in the liver
e) Its effects can be reversed by injecting neostigmine
a) For a maximum response all of the receptors on a tissue must be
stimulated
b) Physiological antagonism is exhibited by salbutamol in asthma
c) Tubocurare is active when given orally
d) Competitic antagonists displace Dose-Response curves in a non-
parallel manner
e) Metabolic antagonism is due to reduced liver function
a) Relaxation of smooth muscle by stimulation of B2
adrenoreceptors
b) Reduction in the release of inflammatory mediators
c) Membrane stabilisation of the mast cell
d) Inhibition of the effect of the vagus
e) Inhibition of the phosphodiesterase enzyme
a) Erythromycin
b) Metronidazole
c) Penicillin G
d) Rifampicin
e) Vancomycin
a) Omeprazole is an antacid
b) Histamine release from mast cells stimulates H2 receptors on the
parietal cell
c) Prostaglandin E increases the production of gastric acid
d) Pirenzapine is a proton pump inhibitor
e) Carbenoloxone inhibits the effect of the vagus on the pancreas
a) Myosin
b) Actin
c) Calmodulin
d) Tropomyosin
e) Troponin
a) Hilum
b) Apex
c) Inferior lobe
d) Base
e) Oblique fissure
a) Anterior mediastinum
b) Posterior mediastinum
c) Inferior mediastinum
d) Superior mediastinum
e) Middle mediastinum
a) Innermost intercostal
b) Internal intercostal
c) External intercostal
d) Diaphragm
e) Abdominal

a) Blood flow is related to the fourth power of the radius of the


vessel
b) The pressure difference between the pulmonary artery and
capillary is small
c) Gravity exerts an influence on the blood distribution in the lungs
d) The lungs are able to recruit vessels to reduce blood pressure
e) Feedback mechanisms increase cardiac output
a) Decrease blood flow by compressing alveolar vessels
b) Decrease blood flow because there is a higher partial pressure of
oxygen
c) Increase blood flow to compensate for lower carbon dioxide parti
pressure
d) Increase blood flow to supply the heart with more oxygen
e) Decrease blood flow to reduce pulmonary blood pressure
a) Vital capacity
b) Inspiratory reserve volume
c) Expiratory reserve volume
d) Functional reserve volume
e) Tidal volume
a) Basement membrane
b) Lamina propria
c) Stratum corneum
d) Stratum germinativum
e) Submucosa
a) Basic uniform structure of dentine
b) Dentine surrounding the dentinal tubules
c) Innermost unmineralised layer of dentine next to the pulp
d) Outer layer of dentine next to the cementum-dentine junction
e) Outer layer of dentine next to the enamel-dentine junction
a) Mandibular posterior teeth
b) Mandibular first and second molars
c) Maxillary posterior teeth
d) Maxillary first and second molars
e) Maxillary and mandibular first and second molars
a) Mandibular first premolar
b) Maxillary first premolar
c) Mandibular second premolar
d) Maxillary second premolar
e) Maxillary third premolar
a) Blood and nerve supply
b) Cells
c) Collagen
d) Mineralisation
e) Sharpeys fibres
a) The dentist
b) The dental nurse
c) The patient
d) The porter
e) The dental technician
a) Calcium carbonate
b) Sodium phosphate
c) Hydrated silica
d) Calcium phosphate
e) Potassium nitrate
a) Causes pain
b) Periapical tissue bleeding
c) Extensive swelling
d) Does not wet dentine well
e) Does not deplete organic constituents of dentine
a) Temperatures above 45C
b) Temperatures below 20C
c) In high salt conditions
d) Under acidic conditions
e) Under alkaline conditions
a) Entry
b) Assembly
c) Attachment
d) Synthesis of virus components
e) Release
a) tRNA is a double stranded RNA molecule involved in protein
translation
b) tRNA contains codon that pairs with anticodon on an mRNA
sequence
c) During translation, rRNA is decoded into protein
d) Stop codon is recognised by tRNA which does not carry amino
acid thereby terminating translation
e) During translation, new amino acid is added to the C-terminal of
polypeptide chain
a) Glucagon produces its effect via an intracellular receptor
b) Glucagon decreases circulating glucose levels
c) Insulin produces its effect by activating a G-protein mediated
receptor
d) Glucose enters cells in the islet of Langerhans via GLUT2
transporters
e) GLUT4 transporters are only found associated with cell
membranes
a) The dorsal spinocerebellar tract decussates immediately on entry
into spinal cord
b) Pain sensation is transmitted to the thalamus by the rubrospinal
tract
c) Information regarding balance is transmitted to the cerebral
cortex via the dorsal spinocerebellar tract
d) All corticospinal tracts decussate in the medulla
e) Vestibulospinal tract is known as a pyramidal tract
a) Facial nerve
b) Trigeminal nerve
c) Vagus nerve
d) Oculomotor nerve
e) Glossopharyngeal nerve
a) Lateral corticospinal
b) Anterior corticospinal
c) Corticobulbar
d) Rubrospinal
e) Lateral reticulospinal
a) Unbalanced gait
b) Slurred speech
c) Intention tremor
d) Amnesia
e) Lack of co-ordination of movement
a) The apneustic and pneumotaxic centres actively control the
muscle associated with expiration
b) Muscles associated with inspiration are the internal intercostals
and diaphragm
c) The accessory muscles are important in forced breathing
d) All muscles associated with ventilation are smooth muscles
e) The medulla oblongata contains both the apneustic and
pneumotaxic centres

a) At their respective partial pressures in arterial blood, less CO2 is


dissolved than O2
b) The ability of haemoglobin to carry CO2 is greater within the
capillaries of metabolically active tissues than in alveolar capillaries
c) CO2 produced by metabolism is transported in the blood primaril
as carbamino compound
d) The Bohr Effect reduces the ability of haemoglobin to bind CO2
e) The sigmoidal shape of the CO2 dissociation curve prevents
hyperventilation from significantly reducing the CO2 content of the
blood
a) O2 demand
b) Blood pressure
c) CO2 levels in the blood
d) O2 levels in the blood
e) Force of left ventricle contraction
a) The sinoatrial node
b) The atrioventricular node
c) Ventricular contractility
d) Intrinsic heart rate
e) AV conduction

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a) Taken up by neuronal uptake
b) Enzyme that terminates Ach found in synapse
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a) Cavernous sinus
b) Sigmoidal sinus
c) Straight sinus
d) Transverse
e) None of the above

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Afferent/Efferent (this is part of the options that were


remembered)

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Venous return
Length of muscle fibres
Options missing

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Nerve supply
Collagen
Sharpey's fibers
Missing answer options
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Secreted by choriod plexus
It is absorbed into superior saggital sinus through the arachnoid
granules/villi
It has the same make up as the plasma
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a) Very Sensitive to contraction
b) Aware of limb position
c) Active Clasp-Knife reflex
Options missing

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a) Spinothalmic tract carries motor information from the ce..
b) Coticobulbar tracts carry sensory information from the fa..
c) Spinothlamic tract is associated with sensory information <?
Receptors
d) Rubrospinal tracts are part of the pyramidal system
e) Spinothalamic information is transmitted contralaterally
a) Kidney
b) Liver
c) Stomach
d) Brain
Solid
Glass

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Converts carbohydrates to hydrogen sulphide,
Converts amino acids to something
Answer options missing
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a) Enamel crack
b) Enamel cap,
c) Enamel spindle
d) Enamel tuft
Options missing
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Decreases Tg
Gets in between chains
Paralysis
Ataxia
Options missing
Lamina Dura
Periosteum

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a) It is found mostly at the CEJ
b) substitutes PO43- in remineralisation
c) CaF is insoluble
d) It replaces Ca2+
a) Easy to deform (weak intermolecular forces)
b) Youngs modulus in MPa
c) Deformation is reversible
Answer options missing
a) Metallic
b) van Der Waals
c) Ionic
d) Covalent
e) None of the above
Inorganic and non-metallic
Non-crystalline
Answer options missing
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a) Amelogenin is a low molecular weight protein
b) Amelogenin has a mixture of hydrophobic and hydophillic
domains
c) Amelogenin only has hydrophobic domains
d) Amelogenin only has hydrophilic domains
e) Amelogenin is present in both dentine and enamel
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a) Cricoid cartilage
b) Adams apple
c) Uvula
d) Thyroid
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Polysaccharide
Hydrophobic
Answer options missing
a) Dissociation constant
b) Ionization constant
c) Buffer capacity
d) Critical pH
e) Isoelectric point

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C-fibres
Ruffini ending (corpuscle)
Merkel's disks
Pacinian corpuscle

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a) Cerebellum
b) Medulla oblongata
c) Pons
d) Midbrain

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a) Loop diuretics
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Potassium Sparing Diuretics
d) Osmotic Diuretics
a) Loop diuretics
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Potassium Sparing Diuretics
d) Osmotic Diuretics

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a) Haematocrit
b) Diffusion distance
c) Particle size
d) Surface area

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Bile
Pepsinogen
Mucous
Parietal cells
Chief cells

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Release Angiotensin II
Innervated by the Trigeminal nerve
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a) Inhibition of the enzyme monoamine oxidase


b) Inhibition of the enzyme catechol amine transferase
c) Inhibition of the selective uptake1 transporter for noradrenaline
d) Antagonism of 5HT3 receptors
e) Inhibition of the uptake 1 transporter for both 5HT and
noradrenaline
a) Conjugation
b) Hydrolysis of aspirin
c) Make more water soluble
Missing one answer option
bronchodilation
Inhibit mediator release from mast cells
Increased mucociliary clearance
Microvascular leakage
Solely bronchoconstriction
Solely inflammation
Missing two answer options
a) Neurotransmitters at the NMJ is NA
b) NA works on muscarinic receptors
c) ACh works on nicotinic receptor
Missing an answer option

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(a) Propanolol inhibits beta2 receptors
(b) Sodium cromoglycate inhibits platelet activating factors (PAF)

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a) Isosorbide dinitrate (long acting)
b) Glyceryl trinitrate (short acting)
c) Atenolol (selective beta blocker)
d) Propanolol (non-selective beta blocker)
e) Nifedipine (calcium channel blocker)

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a) Chlorthiazide
b) Mannitol
c) Furosemide
d) Spironolactone
A - blood
B - bone
C - muscle
D - cartilage
E - adipose
A - columnar
B - stratified cuboidal
C - stratified squamous
D - simple squamous
E - simple cuboidal
A - langerhans cells
B - merkel cells
C - keratinocytes
D - epitheleal cells
E - fibroblasts
A - type I
B - type II
C - type III
D - type IV
E - type XXI
A - skull, spinal column, ribcage
B - skull, spinal column, pelvis
C - shoulder blade and ...
D - arms, legs, hands, feet
E - shoulder blade, arms and
a) Cranial bones
b) Facial bones
c) cartilage
d) neither
e) both
A) zygomatic
b) maxilla
C) ethmoid
D) lacramel
E) frontal
ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE
a) Axis
b) Atlas
c) The lasr cervical
d) The last lumbar
e) None of the above
a) Saggital
b) Medial
c) Coronal
d) Paramedial
e) Axial
a) Amino acids
b) Salivary proteins
c) Bicarbonate
d) Phosphate
e) Haemoglobin
a) Serine
b) Glycine
c) Glutamic Acid
d) Histidine
e) Proline
a) Mitochondria
b) Lysosome
c) Cytoplasm
Other options not available

ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE


a) Competitive
b) Non-Competitive
c) Un-Competitive
d) Irreversible
a) Glycine
b) Proline
c) Lysine
d) Aspartic Acid
e) None of the above

ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE


a) Active transport used ATP
b) Facilitated diffusion uses GTP
c) Amino acids use active transporters
Other options not available

ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE


ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE
a) Endothermic
b) Exothermic
c) Endergonic
d) Exergonic
e) Reversible
ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE
ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE

ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE


pH
Temp
Ionic charge
Conc of substrate and enzyme
A. Transports solutes across membranes
B. Interact weakly with solute
C. Across whole membrane
D. Specific solute
E. All of the above
A. Epineurium
B. Perineurium
C. Endoneurium
D. Neuroneurium
E. Oligoneurium
a) GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter primarily associated with
spinal cord
b) GABA is an excitatory amino acid neurotransmitter
c) GABAA receptor is associated with a G protein receptor
d) GABAA receptors depolarize the neuronal membrane by opening
k+ channels
e) GABAA receptors hyperpolarise the neuronal membrane by
opening cl- channels

ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE


a) Ca2+
b) IP3
c) DAG
d) Adenyl Cyclase
e) cGMP
a) Buccal
b) Rectal
c) Transdermal
d) Oral
e) Intravenous
a) The pH of solution and pKa both determine ion dissociation
b) All ionised drugs are lipid soluble
c) At pKa 50% are ionised
Other options not recalled
a) Has sympathetic and parasympathetic systems
b) Has pre- and post- ganglionic fibres
c) Is non myelinated, pre and post ganglion
d) Has ACh in pre ganglionic
e) Has nicotinic receptor in preganglia for ACh
a) Upper airways
b) Trachea
c) Pharynx
d) Lung parenchymal
e) Alveolary capillary

ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE


a) Blood reservoir
b) Aid lung fluid
c) Site of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
d) Erythropoietin

a) Increase
b) Decreases
c) Stays same
d) Becomes more negative
e) Becomes less negative
a) Frontal process and median nasal process
b) Median nasal and lateral nasal process
c) Frontal process and lateral nasal process
d) Mastoid and styloid process
e) None of the above
a) Sternocleinomastoid
b) Carotid Artery
c) External Jugular Vein
a) Foramen Magnum
b) Internal auditory meatus
c) Carotid canal
d) Jugular foramen
e) Foramen Lacerum
a) They are large veins
b) Valveless veins
c) Its connected to veins outside the skull
d) Its connected to the confluens sinus
a) Cavernous sinus
b) Sigmoidal sinus
c) Straight sinus
d) Transverse sinus
e) None of the above
a) Stick your tongue out
b) Check gag reflex
c) Check swallowing
a) Olfactory
b) Oculomotor
c) Trigeminal
d) Facial
e) Glossopharyngeal
a) Facial
b) trigeminal

ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE


a) Prepare for mitosis
b) Prepare for DNA synthesis
c) In G0
d) Cycling but not in mitosis
ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE
ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE
a) Adenosine
b) Thymidine
c) Guanosine
d) Uridine
e) Cytidine

ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE


ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE
a) Dilation of bronchiole smooth muscle
b) Increased heart rate
Other options not recalled
a) Increased salivation
b) Increased sweating
c) Increased peristalsis
d) Increased noradrenaline release
e) Increased skeletal muscle tone
ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE
a) Medulla oblongata - AC (apneustic centre) and PC (pneumotaxic
centre)
b) Inspiration muscles - intercostal internal and diaphragm
c) AC and PC for expiration
d) Something about forced expiration (not fully recalled)
ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE
a) Reduced affinity for oxygen
b) Oxygen dissociation curve moves to the left,
c) Co2 curve moves to the right
ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE
a) Force of left ventricle contraction
b) O2 level in blood
c) Co2 level in blood
d) O2 demand
e) Blood pressure
a) Venous Return
b) Length of Muscle Fibres
ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE
ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE
a) Stimulations of beta2 adrenoreceptors
b) Increase cAMP levels
c) Increase cGMP levels
d) Increase IP3
a) Pre/postganglionic of parasympathetic fibres
b) Sympathetic - vesicle
c) Preganglionic neurone
d) Cytoplasm
a) Increase saliva
b) Decrease sweat
c) Bradycardia
d) Hypotension
e) Increase gut motility
a) Halothane
b) Dopamine receptor agonist
c) L-dopa
d) Something that begins with M (not recalled)
e) Prazosin
a) 10%
b) 40%
c) 60%
d) 5%
a) Left atrium
b) Left ventricle
c) Right atrium
d) Right ventricle
a) Bronchodilation
b) Inhibit mediator release from mast cells
c) Increased mucociliary clearance
d) Microvascular leakage
ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE
a) Vitamin K
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin A
e) Vitamin E

ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE


a) All associated with tongue
b) Shows direction of muscle fibres
c) Collectively cause elevation of palate
d) All attached to the hyoid
a) The superior meatus
b) Sphenoethmoidal meatus
c) Middle meatus
a) Metals
b) Gases
c) Ceramics
a) Peptide with low molecular weight
b) Hydrophobic
c) Complex tertiary structure
d) Polysaccharide
a) Simplest living infectious agent
b) Obligate intracellular parasite
c) Isohedral
d) Able to infect all cell types
ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE
a) Dentist and nurse
b) Patients and dentist
c) Dentist and technician etc.

ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE


a) 2 cell membranes
b) High peptidoglycan
Other options not recalled
a) Has low rER
b) Can act as helper cell in antibody production
c) Has no nucleus
d) Short life span of a few hours
ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE
a) Dorsal root ganglion
b) Ventral horn
c) Dorsal horn
a) 1a
b) A alpha
c) A gamma
d) A beta
e) 1b
a) Dorsal spinocerebellar decussates immediately on entering the
spinal cord
b) Nociceptive afferents terminate in lamina 3,5,6
Other options not recalled
a) Nitric Oxide
b) Angiotensin II
Other options not available
a) Decrease in ADH
b) Activation of coagulation cascade
c) Activation of baroreceptors
d) Redistribution of blood
Other option not recalled
ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE

ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE


a) Nociceptors
b) Hair follicle
c) Meissners corpuscle
d) Ruffinian corpuscle
e) Pacinian corpuscle
a) Serous
b) Mucous
c) Watery
d) Oily
e) Mixed
a) Liver
b) Kidney
c) Gut
d) Muscles
e) Brain
a) Pericytes there for support
b) BBB has no gap junctions
c) BBB surrounded by basement membrane
a) Addition polymerization
b) Condensation polymerization
Other options not recalled
a) Metronidazole
b) Rifampin
c) Erythromycin
Other options not recalled
a) Resistance is proportional to r^4
b) Prop to r^2
c) Prop to l^2
d) Prop to l^4
e) Prop to blood pressure
a) Skeletal muscles
b) Liver
c) Kidneys
d) Brain
a) Internal carotid
b) Middle cerebral
c) Posterior inferior cerebellar
d) Subclavian
a) Lining
b) Masticatory
c) Palatal
d) Parakeratinised
e) Specialized
a) Calcium carbonate
b) Calcium hydroxide
c) Calcium fluoride
d) Calcium hydroxyapatite
e) Calcium sulfonate
a) Depression
b) A pointed projection of a crown
c) An elongated projection
Other options not recalled
a) Mandibular 1st pre molar
b) Mandibular 2nd pre molar
c) Maxillary 1st pre molar
d) Maxillary 2nd pre molar
e) Maxillary 3rd pre molar
a) Permanent lower central incisor
b) Permanent upper molar
c) Deciduous lower central incisor
d) Deciduous upper molar
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 70%
d) 80%
e) 90%
a) No tg
b) Easy to deform
c) Youngs modulus in gpa
d) Hard to deform
a) Fluoride is secreted by the salivary glands,
b) Fluoride replaces calcium in calcium HAP crystal,
c) Fluoride replaces phosphate in calcium HAP crystal,
d) Calcium fluoride is insoluble
e) Fluoride concentration is the greatest at EDJ18
a) Random solid solution
b) Interstitial solid solution
c) Ordered solid solution
d) Eutectic
e) Inter metallic compound
a) Ataxia
b) Tremor
c) Paralysis
d) Hyper reflex something
Last option not recalled
ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE
a) Golgi tendon
b) Muscle spindle
c) Ruffini
d) Pascinian
e) Meissners
a) Respiratory acidosis
b) Metabolic acidosis
c) Alkalosis
Other options not recalled
a) Furosemide
b) Thiazide
c) Spironolactone
a) Gall bladder
b) Oesophagus
c) Stomach
d) Small intestine
e) Large intestine
ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE
ANSWER OPTIONS NOT AVAILABLE
a) Chlorpromazine is dopamine antagonist
b) Halothane is intravenous general anaesthetic
c) Naloxone counter BDZ effect
d) Ondansetron is used to treat migraine
e) Phenelzine is an adrenergic neuronal uptake inhibitor
a) Prostaglandin induced dilation of afferent arteriole
b) Neuropeptide induced constriction of the afferent arteriole
c) Oncotic pressure induced response
d) Myogenic response by constriction of afferent arteriole
e) Angiotensin effect through dilatation of efferent arteriole
a. Intravenous
b. Intramuscular/subcutaneous
c. Sublingual
d. Rectal
e. Transdermal
a) Transdermal
b) Rectal
c) Inhalation
d) Intravenous
e) Intramuscular
a. Glyceryl trinitrate
b. Diazepam
c. Amobarbital
d. Phenelzine
e. Benzodiazepine
a. 99:1
b. 999:1
c. 1000:1
d. 1:1
e. 9900:1
a. Amphetamine
b. Phenelzine
c. Isosorbide dinitrate
d. Aspirin
e. Spirolactone
a. Plasma proteins
b. Albumin
c. Albumin and alpha-acid glycoprotein
d. Other acidic drugs
e. Amphetamine
a. Plasma proteins
b. Albumin
c. Albumin and alpha-acid glycoprotein
d. Benzodiazepine
e. Thiazide
a. Hydrolysis
b. Condensation
c. Functionalisation
d. Conjugation
e. None of the above
a. Breaking of bonds
b. Adding new substances
c. Elimination of hydroxyl groups
d. Generally increase in rate of excretion
e. Decrease in polarity
a. Temazepam
b. Diazepam
c. Amobarbital
d. Choloropromazide
e. Thiazide
a. Kidney
b. Urine
c. Sweat
d. Lungs
e. Milk
a. Amphetamine metabolite
b. Aspirin metabolite
c. Produced by sodium bicarbonate reaction
d. Inhibits urine production
e. None of the above
a. Sodium hydroxide
b. Lithium
c. Salicyclic acid
d. Ammonium chloride
e. Ethanoic acid
a. Metabolism
b. Conjugation
c. Excretion
d. Ionisation
e. Distribution
a. Given continously throughout the process
b. Given at regular intervals
c. Given at the beginning of treatment as one big dose
d. Given in small amounts
e. Other
a. Long half life
b. Hard to maintain in therapeutic window
c. Lag time to onset
d. Loading dose used to avoid lag time
e. All of the above
a. Hard to maintain in therapeutic window
b. Rapid attainment of steady state
c. Small fluctuations between doses
d. Loading dose not given
e. Other
a. Metabolism
b. Distribution
c. Functionalisation
d. Conjugation
e. Elimination
a. Lungs
b. Kidney
c. Liver
d. Heart
e. Bladder
a. Basic
b. Diffuses into stomach
c. Not absorbed from stomach
d. Urinary excretion faster in alkaline conditions
e. Has an amine group in its structure
a. Tertiary ammonium
b. Poorly absorbed from GIT
c. Doesnt cross BBB
d. Carbamate ester
e. Has an aromatic ring structure
a. R group is not an aryl group
b. Permanently charged
c. Polyatomic ions
d. Charged depending on pH of solution
e. Other
a. Excitatory only
b. Inhibitory only
c. Excitatory and inhibitory
d. Neither
e. Excitatory or inhibitory
a. Kidneys
b. Cerbral cortex
c. Homeostatic centres
d. Pituitary gland
e. None of the above
a. Excitatory only
b. Inhibitory only
c. Excitatory and inhibitory
d. Neither
e. Excitatory or inhibitory
a. Kidneys
b. Cerebrum
c. Homeostatic centres
d. Hypothalamus
e. None of the above
a. Noradrenaline
b. Epinephrine
c. Ephedrine
d. Acetylcholine
e. Somatostatin
a. Noradrenaline and Acetylcholine
b. Epinephrine and ephedrine
c. Ephedrine only
d. Acetylcholine
e. Somatostatin
a. Facial
b. Occulomotor
c. Glossophargneal
d. Trigeminal
e. Vagal
a. Anterior and medial regions
b. Anterior
c. Lateral
d. Distal
e. Lateral and Distal
a. Anterior and medial regions
b. Anterior
c. Lateral and posterior regions
d. Distal
e. Lateral and distal regions
a. Innervates facial expression muscles
b. Innervates movement of eyelids
c. Innervates four extrinsic muscles of the eye
d. Innervates tongues muscle
e. Innervates the pharynx and trachea
a. Innervates facial expression muscles
b. Innervates movement of eyelids
c. Innervates four extrinsic muscles of the face
d. Innervates tongues muscle
e. Innervates the pharynx and trachea
a. Innervates facial expression muscles
b. Innervates movement of eyelids
c. Innervates four extrinsic muscles of the throat
d. Innervates tongue and pharynx
e. Innervates the pharynx and trachea
a. Acetyl choline transferase
b. Acetlychoinesterase
c. Choline acetyl transferase
d. Acetylcholintransferase
e. None of the above
a. Anxiety/insomnia
b. Tremors
c. Stimulation of respiratory and cardiovascular centres
d. Headaches
e. None all of the above
a. Sodium-potassium channel
b. Calcium channels
c. Potassium channels
d. Sodium channels
e. cGMP
a. Sodium-potassium channel
b. Calcium channels
c. Potassium channels
d. Sodium channels
e. cGMP
a. Sodium-potassium channel
b. Calcium channels
c. Phospholipase C
d. Sodium channels
e. cGMP
a. cAMP
b. Calcium channels
c. Phospholipase C
d. Sodium channels
e. cGMP
a. Acetylcholine
b. Bethanechol
c. Pilocarpine
d. Benzodiazepine
e. All of the above
a. Facial
b. Glossopharyngeal
c. Vagal
d. Auriculotemporal
e. Occulomotor
a. Facial
b. Glossopharyngeal
c. Vagal
d. Auriculotemporal
e. Occulomotor
a. Tyrosine hydroxylase
b. DOPA
c. Dopa beta-hydroxylase
d. PNMT
e. Dopa alpha-dehydroxylase
a. Biopterin
b. Alpha-methyl p tyrosine
c. Dopamine
d. Ascorbate
e. Diethyldithiocarbamate
a. Biopterin
b. Alpha-methyl p tyrosine
c. Pyridoxine
d. Ascorbate
e. diethyldithiocarbamate
a. Biopterin
b. Alpha-methyl p tyrosine
c. Dopamine
d. Ascorbate
e. diethyldithiocarbamate
a. Noradrenline
b. Phenylephrine
c. Clonidine
d. Isoprenaline
e. Dobutamine
a. Noradrenline
b. Phenylephrine
c. Clonidine
d. Isoprenaline
e. Dobutamine
a. Noradrenline
b. Clonidine
c. Isoprenaline
d. Dobutamine
e. Phenylephrine
a. Noradrenline
b. Phenylephrine
c. Clonidine
d. Isoprenaline
e. Dobutamine
a. -90mv
b. -80mv
c. -90 to -100 mv
d. -60 to -90mv
e. -50mv
a. Blocks calcium channels
b. Blocks uptake one
c. Blocks uptake two
d. Stimulates uptake of sodium ion channels
e. None of the above
a. Hyperoxia
b. Warm temperature
c. Respiratory alkalosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis
e. Hypoxia
a. Vesicles
b. Synaptic Basal Lamina
c. Mitochondria
d. Lamina propria
e. Connective Tissue
a. Noradrenline
b. Phenylephrine
c. Clonidine
d. Isoprenaline
e. Dobutamine
a. Inhibits release presynaptically
b. Inhibits release postsynaptically
c. Competes with choline transporter for uptake
d. Degrades choline
e. Calcium channel blocker
a. Inhibits release presynaptically
b. Inhibits fusion of vesicles at presynaptic membrane
c. Competes with choline transporter for uptake
d. Degrades choline
e. Calcium channel blocker
a. Inhibits release presynaptically
b. Inhibits release postsynaptically
c. Competes with choline transporter for uptake
d. Degrades choline
e. Calcium channel blocker
a. Inhibits release presynaptically
b. Inhibits release postsynaptically
c. Competes with choline transporter for uptake
d. Promotes exocytosis
e. Calcium channel blocker
a. Tubocurare
b. Phenelzine
c. Loop diuretics
d. Morphine
e. Amphetamine
a. Bradycardia
b. Inhibits potassium release
c. Increased intraocular pressure
d. Prolonged paralysis
e. Genetic variation
a. Skeletal muscle relaxant during surgery
b. Actively controls muscle spasms from bacterial infections
c. Hypothermia
d. Orthopaedics (allows positioning of bones)
e. None of the above
a. Maximum effect
b. Maximum antagonism
c. Maximum competitive binding
d. Minimum potency
e. None of the above
a. competitive agonists
b. competitive antagonists
c. non-competitive agonists
d. non-competitive antagonists
e. All of the above
a. Bronchodilation
b. Inhibits micorvascular leakage
c. Inhibitors effect of mediators
d. Increased mucociliary clearance
e. None of the above

a. Phosphodiesterase inhibitor that increases cAMP and cGMP levels


b. Phosphodiesterase stimulator that increases cAMP and cGMP
levels
c. Phosphodiesterase inhibitor that decreases cAMP and cGMP level
d. Phosphodiesterase stimulator that decreases cAMP and cGMP
levels
e. None of the above
a. Ipratropium bromide
b. Beclomethasone dripropionate
c. Theophylline
d. Sodium cromoglycate
e. Salbutamol
a. Ipratropium bromide
b. Beclomethasone dripropionate
c. Theophylline
d. Sodium cromoglycate
e. Salbutamol
a. Glycopeptides
b. Beta-lactams
c. Work on cells walls of bacteria
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
a. Glycopeptides
b. Beta-lactams
c. Work on cells walls of bacteria
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
a. Glycopeptides
b. Beta-lactams
c. Work on cells walls of bacteria
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
a. Acyclovir
b. Azoles
c. Polyenes
d. Rifampicin
e. Trimethoprim
a. Stroke
b. Coronary heart disease
c. Progressive renal failure
d. Liver failure
e. Retinal vascular disease
a. Steroids
b. Carbenoloxone
c. MAOI
d. Directly acting sympathomimetic amines
e. Oral Contraceptives
a. Renal system
b. Cerebral cortex
c. Pituitary gland
d. Smooth muscle in heart
e. Skeletal muscle
a. Hypotension
b. Tachycardia
c. Hypertension
d. Anxiety
e. Nausea
a. Hydralazine
b. Sodium cromoglycate
c. Theophylline
d. Dizepam
e. Morphine
a. Minoxidil
b. Diazoxide
c. Phenytoin
d. Pinacidil
e. None of the above
a. Increased ADH
b. Increased sympathetic function
c. Decreased sympathetic function
d. Increased aldosterone
e. Increased vasoconstriction
a. Alcohol
b. Liver disease
c. Viral infections
d. Anorexia
e. Diabetes Mellitus
a. Alpha-adrenergic blockers
b. Organic nitrates
c. Calcium channel blockers
d. Antiplatelets
e. Antilipidemic
a. Increases cGMP
b. Increases afterload
c. Increases preload
d. Peripheral vasodilation
e. None of the above
a. Hypotension
b. AV block
c. Tachycardia
d. Constipation
e. Gastric distress
a. Preload
b. Afterload
c. Contractility
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
a. Cardiac glycosides
b. ACE inhibitors
c. Vasodilators
d. Diuretics
e. Encarpil
a. Cardiac glycosides
b. ACE inhibitors
c. Vasodilators
d. Diuretics
e. Encarpil
a. Increases sodium excretion, increases potassium excretion
b. Decreases sodium excretion, increases potassium excretion
c. Increases sodium excretion, decreases potassium excretion
d. Decreases sodium excretion, Decreases potassium excretion
e. Increases sodium reabsorption, increases potassium excretion
a. Increases sodium excretion, increases potassium excretion
b. Decreases sodium excretion, increases potassium excretion
c. Increases sodium excretion, decreases potassium excretion
d. Decreases sodium excretion, Decreases potassium excretion
e. Increases sodium reabsorption, increases potassium excretion
a. Barbiturates
b. Benzodiazepines
c. Buspirone
d. Tricyclic Antidpressant
e. Beta-adrenergic agonists

a. Used as a hypnotic
b. CNS depressants
c. Causes coma and death by medullary and respiratory depression
d. Lacks withdrawal symptoms
e. Enzyme inducers
a. Diazepam
b. Clonezapem
c. Triazolam
d. Temezepam
e. Midazolam
a. Death
b. Coma
c. Prolonged sleep
d. Dizziness
e. Anxiety
a. Acetylcholine
b. Flumazenil
c. Alprazolam
d. Barbiturates
e. Noradrenaline
a. Serotonin pathway
b. Noradrenaline pathway
c. Acetylcholine pathay
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
a. Large groups of neurones are inhibited repeatedly
b. Excess stimulation of inhibitory interneurones
c. Lack of EEG activity
d. Low frequency in brain
e. Neurones are activated repeatedly
a. Not confined to one part of the brain
b. Occurs all over the brain
c. Excess EEG activity in frontal part of brain
d. Localised to one part of the brain
e. Disrupts consciousness
a. Phenytoin
b. Carbamezapine
c. Lorezepam
d. Lamotrigine
e. All of the above
a. Phenytoin
b. Carbamezapine
c. Gabapentin
d. Lamotrigine
e. Nidazolam
a. Valproic acid
b. Gabapentin
c. Lorazepam
d. Phenytoin
e. Ethosuximide
a. Hepatic metabolism
b. Liver
c. Kidneys
d. Intestinal enzymes
e. Pancreatic Enzymes
a. Phenytoin
b. Carbamezapine
c. Lorezepam
d. Lamotrigine
e. Nidazolam
a. Chromosome 6
b. Chromosome 16
c. Chromosome 16 and 22
d. Chromosome 6 and 22
e. Chromosome 6 and 26
a. Loss of dendrites
b. Cell death and gliosis
c. Frontal cortex damage
d. Damage to limbic system
e. None of the above
a. Mesocortical
b. Mesolimbic
c. Nigrostriatal
d. Tuberoinfundibular
e. Weinberg
a. Mesocortical
b. Mesolimbic
c. Nigrostriatal
d. Tuberoinfundibular
e. All of the above
a. Aspirin
b. Amphetamine
c. Ammonium chloride
d. Dopamine receptor agonists
e. None of the above
a. Spasm of leg
b. Over activity of eye
c. Irregular spasm in head, neck and trunk muscles
d. Postural hyptension
e. Tremors
a. Dry mouth
b. Urine retention
c. Blurred vision
d. Constipation
e. Tremors
a. Hypertension
b. Hypotension
c. Tachycardia
d. Blurred vision
e. Urine retention
a. 15-20%
b. 17-19%
c. 10-15%
d. >45%
e. 100%
a. Inhibit Na+/K+/2Cl-
b. Stimulate Na+/K+/2Cl-
c. Inhibit Na+/K+ ATPase
d. Stimulate Na+/K+ ATPase
e. Inhibit Na+/K+ channels
a. Inhibit Na+/K+ ATPase
b. Inhibit Na+/Cl-
c. Stimulate Na+/Cl-
d. Stimulate Na+/K+ ATPase
e. Inhibit Na+/K+ channels
a. Spironolactone
b. Traimterene and Amiloride
c. Flumezenil
d. Acetozolamide
e. Prolactin
a. In water impermeable but not in water permeable section
b. In both water permeable and impermeable sections
c. In neither water permeable and impermeable sections
d. In water permeable but not in water impermeable section
a. Iproniazid
b. Imprazolam
c. Aldosterone
d. Phenelzine
e. Morphine
a. TCAs
b. Lithium
c. ECT
d. MAOIs
e. Atypical antidepressants
a. Amitriptyline
b. Imiprazine
c. Sodium Nitroprusside
d. Ethosuximide
e. Valproic acid
a. Fluvoxamine
b. Citalopram
c. Fluoxetine
d. Midazolam
e. All of the above
a. Reboxetine
b. Mirtazapine
c. Nefazodone
d. Venlafaxine
e. None of the above
a. NA
b. 5HT
c. NA AND 5HT
d. DA
e. NA, DA AND 5HT
a. NA
b. 5HT
c. NA AND 5HT
d. DA
e. NA, DA AND 5HT
a. Reduced cAMP
b. Increased cGMP
c. Increased cAMP
d. Activates guanyl cyclise
e. Increases calcium release
a. Chorea
b. Athetosis
c. Akinesia
d. Ballism
e. Dystonia
a. Increased dopaminergic, increased cholinergic activity
b. Increased dopaminergic, decreased cholinergic activity
c. Decreased dopaminergic, increased cholinergic activity
d. Decreased dopaminergic, decreased cholinergic activity
a. Bromocrpitine
b. Pergolide
c. Apomorphine
d. Rasagiline
e. All of the above
a. Antiviral drug
b. Antibacterial drug
c. Antifungal drug
d. Inhibits DNA replication
e. None of the above
a. Benzotropine
b. Alprazolam
c. Midazolam
d. Tiagabine
e. Chlorpromazine
a. K, DELTA, MEU
b. K,DELTA,BETA
c. K, BETA, ALPHA
d. DELTA, BETA, ALPHA
e. ALPHA AND MEU
a. Opens k+ channels
b. Increased opening of calcium ion channels
c. Reduced release of neurotransmitters
d. Hyperpolarisation
e. Inhibition
a. Meu/k/delta agonists and morphine
b. Morphine and delta agonists
c. Morphine and meu/k agonists
d. Delta and meu agonists
e. Morphine and atropine
a. Gastric motility increased and emptying time decreased
b. Gastric motility decreased and emptying time decreased
c. Gastric motility decreased and emptying time increased
d. Gastric motility increased and emptying time increased
a. Decreased pancreatic, biliary and intestinal secretions
b. Decreased biliary and intestinal secretion but increased
pancreatic secretion
c. Decreased biliary and pancreatic secretion but increased intestina
secretion
d. Increased pancreatic, biliary and intestinal secretion
e. Increased pancreatic and gall bladder secretions but no change in
other secretions

a. Increases tone of Sphincter of Oddi and decreased biliary pressur


b. Increases tone of Sphincter of Oddi and increased biliary pressure
c. Decreases tone of Sphincter of Oddi and decreased biliary
pressure
d. Decreases tone of Sphincter of Oddi and increased biliary
pressure
a. Morphine 6- glucuronide
b. Morphine 2- glucuronide
c. Morphine 3- glucuronide
d. Morphine 1- glucuronide
e. Morphine 9- glucuronide
a. Morphine 6- glucuronide
b. Morphine 2- glucuronide
c. Morphine 3- glucuronide
d. Morphine 1- glucuronide
e. Morphine 9- glucuronide
a. Helicobacter bacilli
b. Helicobacter pylori
c. Helicobacterium bacteri
d. Helicobacter staph
e. None of the above
a. H+ CHANNELS
b. H+/K+ ATPase
c. H+/Na+ ATPase
d. Na+ channels
e. Na+/K+ channels
a. ACH and gastrin
b. Histamine, Ach and gastrin
c. Prostaglandin
d. Ach and Prostaglandin
e. Gastrin
a. Ach
b. Histamine, Ach and gastrin
c. Prostaglandin
d. Ach and Prostaglandin
e. Gastrin
a. Histamine, Ach and gastrin
b. Prostaglandin
c. Ach and Prostaglandin
d. Gastrin
e. Ach
a. Pirenzipine
b. Proglumide
c. Omeprazole
d. Cimetidine/Ranitidine
e. Theophylline
a. Pirenzipine
b. Proglumide
c. Omeprazole
d. Cimetidine/Ranitidine
e. Theophylline
a. Pirenzipine
b. Proglumide
c. Omeprazole
d. Cimetidine/Ranitidine
e. Theophylline
a. Pirenzipine
b. Proglumide
c. Omeprazole
d. Cimetidine/Ranitidine
e. Theophylline
a. Metronidazole
b. Clarithromycin
c. Polyenes
d. Tetracycline
e. Streptomycin
a. Fats
b. Carbohydrates
c. Lipids
d. Proteins
e. Nucleic acids
a. Respiratory system
b. Endocrine system
c. Integumentary system
d. Digestive system
e. None of the above
a. Fungal cell membrane
b. Gram positive cell wall
c. Epithelial cell membrane
d. Gram negative cell wall
e. All of the above
a. Joining of peptidoglycan subunits to form cell wall
b. DNA transcription
c. RNA transcription
d. Cell replication
e. Prevents movement of flagella
a. 1.2mMol/L
b. 2.1 mMol/L
c. 1.33 mMol/L
d. 1.3 mMol/L
e. 4 mMol/L
a. Has the carboxylic acid group attached to it
b. First carbon atom of the chain
c. The atom with the most different groups attached
d. The carbon with four different groups attached to it
e. Carbon to which the amino and carboxylic groups are attached
a. L
b. D
c. Alpha
d. Beta
e. Gamma
a. 2.2
b. 9.4
c. 8.4
d. 8.8
e. 7.4
a. 2.2
b. 9.4
c. 8.4
d. 8.8
e. 7.4
a. Leucine
b. Lysine
c. Valine
d. Alanine
e. Glycine
a. Glycine
b. Alanine
c. Phenylalanine
d. Isoleucine
e. Aspartic acid
a. Tyrosine
b. Alanine
c. Phenylalanine
d. Isoleucine
e. Aspartic acid
a. Praline
b. Isoline
c. Theoline
d. Proline
e. Deoline
a. Positive charge
b. Negative charge
c. Neutral charge
d. Charge depends on neighbouring amino acids
e. Charge is altering and dependent on an unknown factor
a. Tyrosine
b. Serine
c. Threonine
d. Asparagines
e. Glutamine
a. Ionic bonding
b. Hydrogen bonding
c. Van der waal forces
d. Induced dipole-dipole moment
e. Metallic bonding
a. Covalent interactions
b. Hydrogen bonding
c. Van der waal forces
d. Induced dipole-dipole moment
e. Non-covalent interactions
a. Isoleucine
b. Imidazole
c. Tyrptophan
d. Tyrosine
e. Cysteine
a. Primary structure
b. Secondary structure
c. Tertiary structure
d. Quarternary structure
e. None of the above
a. Globular protein
b. Membrane associated protein
c. Fibrous protein
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
a. Globular protein
b. Membrane associated protein
c. Fibrous protein
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
a. 3-4M of bicarbonate ions
b. 3-4M of HCl
c. 105C in sealed tube
d. Forced conditions
e. 12 hours
a. 150 amino acids
b. 245 amino acids
c. 345 amino acids
d. 145 amino acids
e. 3 amino acids
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
a. Weak binding
b. Weak dissociation
c. Strong binding
d. Strong dissociation
e. None of the above
a. Kidneys
b. Liver
c. Lungs
d. Blood
e. Pancreas
a. PKA
b. Glycogen synthase
c. Hexokinase
d. Glucopropase
e. Hexogenase
a. Covalent interactions
b. Hydrogen bonding
c. Van der waal forces
d. Induced dipole-dipole moment
e. Non-covalent interactions
a. Covalent interactions
b. Hydrogen bonding
c. Van der waal forces
d. Induced dipole-dipole moment
e. Non-covalent interactions
a. PKA
b. Hexokinase
c. Glucokinase
d. Succinate dehydrogenase
e. Succinase
a. PKA
b. Pyruvate kinase
c. Glucokinase
d. Succinate dehydrogenase
e. Succinase
a. 4C
b. 5C
c. 6C
d. 7C
e. 8C
a. Polymers that have different orientation of hydroxyl at carbon on
b. Stereoisomers that have different orientation of hydroxyl at
carbon one
c. Polymers that have different orientation of hydrogen at carbon six
d. Stereoisomers that have different orientation of hydrogen at
carbon one
e. Stereoisomers that have different orientation of hydroxyl at
carbon six
a. Treat osteoarthritis
b. Increase RBC count
c. Anti-coagulant
d. Used in amniotic fluid as shock absorber
e. Produce cartilage
a. Monosaccharide
b. Polysaccheride
c. Disaccheride
d. Sugar chain
e. Insoluble sugar
a. 5 residues
b. 24 residues
c. 10 residues
d. 3 residues
e. 8 residues
a. 5 residues
b. 24 residues
c. 10 residues
d. 3 residues
e. 8 residues
a. Heparin
b. Hyaluronic acid
c. Chondroitin sulphate
d. Peptidoglycan
e. NAM
a. Heparin
b. Hyaluronic acid
c. Chondroitin sulphate
d. Peptidoglycan
e. NAM
a. Heparin
b. Hyaluronic acid
c. Chondroitin sulphate
d. Peptidoglycan
e. NAM
a. Glycogen synthesis
b. Triacylglycerol synthesis
c. Triacylglycerol breakdown
d. Fatty acid synthesis
e. Glycogen breakdown
a. Glycogenolysis
b. Lipolysis
c. Beta-oxidation
d. Proteolysis
e. Alpha-oxidation
a. Kidneys
b. Liver
c. Skeletal muscle
d. Sweat
e. Aerobic respiration
a. Liver and skeletal muscle
b. Liver and lungs
c. Liver and kidneys
d. Skeletal muscle and kidneys
e. Kidneys and lungs
a. Plasma membrane
b. Liver and pancreatic beta cells
c. Skeletal muscle and adipose tissue
d. Lungs
e. Heart surface
a. Lipoamide reductase transacetylase
b. Lipoamide oxidase transacetylase
c. Pyruvate decarboxylase
d. Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase
e. All of the above
a. Hydrolysis of water
b. Hydrolysis of ATP
c. Hydrolysis of ADP
d. Condensation of ATP
e. Condensation of water
a. Plasma membrane
b. Liver and pancreatic beta cells
c. Skeletal muscle and adipose tissue
d. Lungs
e. Heart surface
a. Plasma membrane
b. Liver and pancreatic beta cells
c. Skeletal muscle and adipose tissue
d. Lungs
e. Heart surface
a. Lungs
b. Heart
c. Liver
d. Kidneys
e. Brain
a. Phosphoglucose isomerise
b. Phosphofructomutase
c. Phosphofructokinase
d. Triosephosphate isomerise
e. Pyruvate kinase
a. Glycogen synthase
b. Glycogen lyase
c. Phosphofructokinase
d. Phosphofructomutase
e. Glycogenolase
a. Lungs
b. Kidneys
c. Brain
d. Liver
e. Heart
a. Cytoplasmic
b. Endoplasmic Reticulum
c. Mitochondria
d. Cell membrane
e. Nucleus
a. Cytoplasmic
b. Endoplasmic Reticulum
c. Mitochondria
d. Cell membrane
e. Nucleus
a. Pyruvate decarboxylase and pyruvate carboxylase
b. Pyruvate decarboxylase and pyruvate dehydrogenase
c. PEP carboxykinase and pyruvate carboxylase
d. PEP carboxykinase and pyruvate dehydrogenase
e. Pyruvate carboxylase and pyruvate dehydrogenase
a. Citrate
b. Isocitrate
c. Pyruvate
d. Glucose 6P
e. Oxaloacetate
a. Lactate hydrogenase
b. Glycogen synthase
c. Glucose 6-phosphatase
d. Lactate dehydrogenase
e. Gluconeogenesis
a. Alanine
b. Glutamine
c. Leucine
d. Isoleucine
e. Valine
a. PEPCK, PDC, MDH
b. LH, PC, PEPCK
c. PEPCK,PC, MDH
d. MH, PEPCK, PDC
e. PC, MH, PEPCK
a. Citrate synthase
b. Aconitase
c. Fumarase
d. Malate dehydrogenase
e. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
a. Citrate synthase
b. Aconitase
c. Fumarase
d. Malate dehydrogenase
e. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
a. Amino esterase
b. Aminase
c. Amino carboxylase
d. Amino transferase
e. Amino reductase
a. Phenylalanine to valine
b. Valine to threonine
c. Phenylalanine to alanine
d. Phenylalanine to tyrosine
e. Alanine to tyrosine
a. Takes place in liver
b. Produces urea
c. Includes arginine as an intermediate
d. Requires ATP
e. Reabsorbs ammonia into body
a. Base
b. Sugar
c. Phosphate
d. Hydrogen bonds
e. None of the above
a. Cytosine
b. Guanine
c. Hypoxnthine
d. adenine
e. All of the above
a. Two purines joined together
b. Two pyrimidines joined together
c. Two nucleotides joined together
d. Two nicotinic amides joined together
e. Two amine groups joined together
a. Phosphodiester bonds
b. Phosphoanhydride bonds
c. Hydrogen bonds
d. Van der waal forces
e. Ionic bonding
a. Liver
b. Kidneys
c. Gallbladder
d. Pancreas
e. Small intestine
a. Pyrimidines
b. Purines
c. Nucleotides
d. Nucleosides
e. Nicotinamides
a. A
b. B
c. Z
d. A,B
e. A,B,Z
a. Phosphoanhydride bonds
b. Hydrogen bonds
c. Van der waal forces
d. Ionic bonding
e. Phosphodiester bonds
a. Prevent reannealing of DNA
b. Replaces RNA primers with DNA
c. Joins the fragments together
d. Separates the fragments
e. Synthesises small portions of RNA primer required for initiation

a. Prevent reannealing of DNA


b. Replaces RNA primers with DNA
c. Joins the fragments together
d. Separates the fragments
e. Synthesises small portions of RNA primer required for initiation

a. Prevents reannealing of DNA


b. Replaces RNA primers with DNA
c. Joins the fragments together
d. Separates the fragments
e. Synthesises small portions of RNA primer required for initiation
a. 1-2
b. 2-1
c. 3-5
d. 5-3
e. No particular order
a. aminoacyl synthetase
b. aminoacyl mRNA synthetase
c. aminoacyl rRNA synthetase
d. aminoacyl siRNA synthetase
e. aminoacyl tRNA synthetase

a. Forms peptide bonds


b. Checks whether the match between mRNA and tRNA is correct
c. Provides framework on which codon can be matched to anticodon
d. Attach mRNA to tRNA
e. All of the above
a. Forms peptide bonds
b. Checks whether the match between mRNA and tRNA is correct
c. Provides framework on which codon can be matched to anticodon
d. Attach mRNA to tRNA
e. All of the above
a. Valine
b. Glycine
c. Methionine
d. Formylmethionine
e. Alanine
a. Malfunctioning of phenylalanine hydroxylase
b. Absence of aldolase
c. Accumulation of homegentisic acid
d. Reduced LDL receptors
e. Deficiency of glucose 6-phosphatase
a. Malfunctioning of phenylalanine hydroxylase
b. Absence of aldolase
c. Breakdown of homegentisic acid
d. Reduced LDL receptors
e. Deficiency of glucose 6-phosphatase
a. Malfunctioning of phenylalanine hydroxylase
b. Absence of aldolase
c. Breakdown of homegentisic acid
d. Reduced LDL receptors
e. Deficiency of glucose 6-phosphatase
a. Malfunctioning of phenylalanine hydroxylase
b. Absence of aldolase
c. Accumulation of homegentisic acid
d. Reduced LDL receptors
e. Deficiency of glucose 6-phosphatase
a. Insulin
b. Glucagon
c. Pancreatic polypeptide
d. Somatostatin
e. All of the above
a. Insulin
b. Glucagon
c. Pancreatic polypeptide
d. Somatostatin
e. All of the above
a. Insulin
b. Glucagon
c. Pancreatic polypeptide
d. Somatostatin
e. All of the above
a. Insulin
b. Glucagon
c. Pancreatic polypeptide
d. Somatostatin
e. All of the above
a. Parasympathetic
b. Sympathetic
a. Breakdown of glycogen in the kidneys
b. Breakdown of glycogen in the liver
c. Production of glucose from amino acids
d. Production of glucose from lipids
e. Production of glucose from fatty acids
a. Breakdown of glycogen in the kidneys
b. Breakdown of glycogen in the liver
c. Production of glucose from amino acids
d. Production of glucose from lipids
e. Production of glucose from fatty acids
a. Sucrose placenta
b. Increased consumption of carbohydrates
c. Excess activity of insulin receptors
d. Lactogen placenta
e. G-protein receptor
a. Pancreatic disease
b. Insulin receptor abnormality
c. Endocrine disease
d. Meningitis
e. Drug therapy
a. Eicosanoids
b. Steroids
c. Thyroid hormones
d. Nitric oxide
e. Vitamin A
a. Receptor inside cells
b. Need to enter cell by diffusion
c. Need to be attached to protein to travel in blood
d. Can be taken orally
e. Need for 2nd messenger system
a. Eicosanoids
b. Peptide hormones
c. Amine hormones
d. Nitric oxide
e. Vitamin B
a. Cortisol
b. Growth hormone
c. Epinephrine
d. Glucagon
e. Insulin
a. Liver
b. Kidneys
c. Adrenal glands
d. Pituitary glands
e. Hypothalamus
a. Kidneys
b. Liver cells
c. Adrenal glands
d. Pituitary cells
e. Subthalamic nucleus
a. Absorbed into lymph
b. Carried in bloodstream
c. Stored in liver and body fat
d. Not excreted in urine
e. None of the above
a. 5mg
b. .3mg
c. 4mg
d. .7mg
e. .6mg
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin D
e. Vitamin K
a. Kidneys
b. Lungs
c. Liver
d. Gall bladder
e. Pancreas
a. B1
b. B2
c. K1
d. K2
e. B12
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin D
e. Vitamin K
a. Regulation of membrane permeability
b. Bone and tooth formation
c. Blood coagulation
d. Regulation of metabolic pathways
e. Release of neurotransmitters
a. Citrate
b. Phosphate
c. Albumin
d. Globulin
e. Other serum constituents
a. Calcitonin
b. PTH
c. Calciterol
d. ADH
e. hGH
a. Apocrine glands
b. Eccrine glands
c. Sebum glands
d. Sebaceous glands
a. Stratum corneum
b. Stratum basale
c. Stratum spinosum
d. Stratum granulosum
e. Reticular dermis
a. Collagen
b. Elastin
a. High amounts of intracellular substance
b. Are comprised of a single kind of cell
c. Only perform a single function
a. Stratified squamous
b. Simple squamous
c. Pseudostratified
d. Stratified columnar
e. Stratified cuboidal
a) 7 weeks
b) 11 weeks
c) 4 weeks
d) 17 weeks
e) 14 weeks
a) Bud
b) Cap
c) Bell
d) Crown
e) Root stage
a) At the root apex
b) At the CEJ
c) At the mid root level
d) It is the width at all points
e) At the root and the CEJ
a) Pteryoid humuculus
b) Sphenoid bone
Other options not recalled

a) Kaolin
b) Boric acid
c) Gypsum
d) Quartz
One other option - not recalled
a) Lingual groove
b) Lingual pit
c) Cingulum
d) Contact Point
Other option not recalled
a) Frontal and medial nasal prominence
b) Lateral nasal prominence and medial nasal prominence
c) None of the above
Other options not recalled
Correct Answer

Aldosterone

PRIF

Can act as helper cells for antibody production


OR
Have a short life span of a few hours only
???

Vitamin C

Will reduce the effect of vagal stimulation

Nifedipine
Potentiating the action of GABA

Chlorpromazine

Inhibiting the re-uptake of 5-HT (serotonin)

Frusemide blocks the reabsorption of chloride


ions in the ascending loop of Henle

Increased excretion of salts and water by the


kidneys

Liver
cortex

An increase in plasma protein concentration

coronoid notch

CaF is insoluble

hexagonal

To make the polymer soft and rubbery by


depressing its Tg
Stress is releived by deformation

Copper

Skull, spinal column, ribcage

Orbit is made up of facial and cranial bones

Atlas

Fibrous capsule
Maxillary Artery

Olfactory

Histidine

Lysine

An independent folded structure within a


polypeptide with an independent function
Always goes up

Non-protein component bound to a protein for


its activity

A hydroxyl group oxidized to a carbonyl group

Facilitated diffusion requires GTP

Pyruvate decarboxylase, dihydrolipoyl


dehydrogenase and lipoamide reductase
transacetylase

Endergonic
Pyruvate Kinase

Spectrin

All of the above

The ligand gated Cl- ion channels are activated


by glutamate

Include for example the nicotinic receptor

Sodium
Midbrain

IV

Paralyses skeletal muscle

Both the pre- and post-ganglionic fibres are


non-myelinated

Dilates bronchiolar smooth muscle

Fall in blood pressure in pheochromocytoma


Mesoderm

Simple squamous

Keratinocytes

The frontal belly of the occipito-frontalis muscle

All act on the tongue

Superior meatus
Paranasal sinuses enhance the resonance of
the voice and lighten the skull

Submandibular

Parotid

Styloglossus

CO2, NADH and Acetyl CoA


Mitochondria

Stimulates osteclastic bone resorption

Centromeres of chromatids line up at the


midline of the cell

Guanosine

Nucleolus is enclosed within a membrane


structure inside the nucleus
Conversion of glutamate into alpha-
ketoglutarate and ammonia

Decreases bone resorption by inhibiting


osteoclast activity and increases calcium
excretion by the kidneys

In a DNA double helix molecule, the sugar-


phosphate backbones are responsible for
holding the two DNA strands together

Is a depolarising blocker at neuromuscular


junction end-plate
Physiological antagonism is exhibited by
salbutamol in asthma

Inhibition of the effect of the vagus

Rifampicin

Histamine release from mast cells stimulates


H2 receptors on the parietal cell

Calmodulin

Hilum
Middle mediastinum

Diaphragm

The pressure difference between the


pulmonary artery and capillary is small

Decrease blood flow by compressing alveolar


vessels

Tidal volume
Basement membrane

Outer layer of dentine next to the cementum-


dentine junction

Maxillary first and second molars

Maxillary first premolar

Blood and nerve supply

Technician
Potassium nitrate

Does not deplete organic constituents of


dentine

Temperatures below 20C

Attachment

During translation, new amino acid is added to


the C-terminal of a polypeptide chain
Glucose enters cells in the islet of Langerhans
via GLUT2 transporters

Information regarding balance is transmitted to


the cerebral cortex via the dorsal
spinocerebellar tract

Trigeminal

Corticobulbar

Amnesia
The accessory muscles are important in forced
breathing

The ability of haemoglobin to carry CO2 is


greater within the capillaries of metabolically
active tissues than in alveolar capillaries

Force of left ventricle contraction

1) Pyruvate decarboxylase
2) Lipoamide reductase transacetylase
3) Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase
Small, lipophilic, non ionic
Hexamethonium is a nicotinic antagonist at
NMJ junctions (WRONG BECAUSE they are
ganglionic antagonists)
Lysine
blood vessels?
pH= -log10(H+)

Pyruvate Kinase
Midbrain
Serine, histidine and aspartate

Enzyme that terminates Ach found in synapse

Epineurium
Alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase and
isocitrate dehydrogenase

Type IV
Diet and Liver
Loose Connective Tissue
Reticular Dermis
Vomiting

All act on the tongue

Inhibition of mediator release from mast cells

Adenine
The Haemoglobin will have an increased
affinity for O2 therefore, less oxygen will
dissociate in tissues
LV pumps blood around whole body

Four pulmonary veins


RNA primer

Posterior superior alveolar nerve

Sigmoidal sinus

Eosinophil cells destroying the epithelial lining


They contain a base sugar and phosphate
Increased alveolar pressure will expand the
alveoli, which will press against the alveolar
vessels reducing the blood flow
Because in the pulmonary system the pressure
drop between pulmonary artery and capillary is
small. So this relatively small change in the
venous pressure can make a considerable
change to the driving pressure.
Form the floor of oral cavity and above hyoid
bone

All paranasal sinuses drain into middle meatus


of nose except sphenoidal sinus (drains into
spheno-ethmoidal recess) and posterior
ethmoidal sinus (drains into superior meatus)
Residual Volume
Anticholinergic Drug
Hering Breuer
Carotid canal through foraman lacerum
Anterior belly of occipito-frontalis

Trigeminal V3 (mandibular branch)


Prepare for mitosis

P wave

siRNA is single stranded (it is double stranded)


Common Carotid artery
Internal jugular vein
Vagus Nerve (CN X)
Internal Carotid Artery
Identical chromosomes separate to poles.

All the lymph nodes of the head and neck drain


into the DCLN (Deep Cervical Lymph Nodes)

UAC

Venous return
Between superficial and mylohyoid muscle
Mylohyoid and the Stylo/Hyo-glossus
High molecular weight proteins

Tertiary
Enamel
46
Interproximal Space
nerve supply
Prevents moisture loss
Thermal Insulator

It does not deplete dentine constituents

Make antibiotics
Is main signature antibody in secretion
They act as co-enzymes

Increases osteoclastic bone reabsoroption

It has the same make up as the plasma


Corticobulbar
C-fibers

Very Sensitive to contraction

Rifampicin
Capillary beds open at all times
Ventricular Contraction
Angiotensin II
Liver

Glass

CN V, CN VI, CN VII
Renal Pelvis

Frusemide
Sodium Oxide
Opioid Receptor Competitive Antagonist
Surface Enamel

Enamel tuft
Galvinisation

Decreases Tg

Paralysis
Periosteum

Submandibular gland

High conc of fluoride will mean CaF is formed


instead of FAP
Long buccal nerve - therefore the buccal
gingiva and posterior mandibular teeth are not
anaesthetised

Surface enamel is aprismatic, is harder, less


porous and has perikymata

CNVI (abducens)
Abducens CN VI

Thick
Saggital suture
Diaphysis

axis
atlas
Alveoli and capillaries

Genioglossus
Sigmoid sinus (and the inferior petrosal
sinus)
Maxillary Artery

CN VII (Facial)
Buccinator

Buccinator

Hydroxyapatite

CaF is insoluble

Easy to deform (weak intermolecular forces)

vanDer Waals

non-crystalline

Protect and Support Teeth

Amelogenin has a mixture of hydrophobic and


hydophillic domains
2.5 years (+/- 6 months)
The difference in length mesio-distally between
c,d,e and 4,5,6

Develop palatally (relative to deciduous teeth)


Dentist and Nurse
Spheno-ethmoidal and the posterior ethmoidal
sinus.

Submandibular gland
To strengthen enamel
Next to the 2nd maxillary molar

Collagen type 1
a) 2 paste cartridge
b) 2 paste penta mix
c) 2 paste (hand-mixed)
d) 2 paste (knead with gloved hands)
b) 2 paste penta mix
c) 2 paste (hand-mixed)
d) 2 paste (knead with gloved hands)
Signature Ig of secretions
Secrete antibodies
2-6 lobes (multi-lobed nuclues)

Cricoid cartilage
Nasopharynx

Hydrophobic
Buffer capacity

PKU (Phenylketonuria)
Glucose-6-phosphatase

It is easy to remember as they pretty much are


characterised by opposite features to each
other.

HYPOTHYROIDISM:
Letharygy, tiredness, Cold intolerance, Slow
pulse, Constipation, Weight Gain
Apathy, Myxoedema (tissue swelling), Elevated
serum TSH

HYPERTHYROIDISM:
Hyperactivity, insomnia, Heat intolerance,
Palpitation, Diarrhea, Weight Loss, Agitation,
Suppressed TSH, elevated T4 (Thyroxine)
Insulin consists of two polypeptide chains, the
A- and B- chains, linked together by disulfide
bonds.
Buffers are chemical compounds that help
stabilise the pH of a solution by removing or
adding protons (H+)
Protein Factories

Buffer capacity
Carbonic Acid
Glycine

Stereoisomers
Proline

Histidine

Glucose transporters
Liver
This is when protein degradation is greater
than protein synthesis
Glycine

Proline
Unaltered

Golgi apparatus
Inactive enzyme

Carbonic Acid

Histidine
Reduced to lactate

Vitamin C
This question has decribed symptoms of Scurvy
Pyruvate Kinase
Glycolysis= 2
TCA cycle= 6
Serine, Histidine, Aspartate
Efferent Lymph Nodes
The strength of attraction between an enzyme
and a substrate
Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate and AMP
Diet and Liver

Competitive Inhibition
Increases it
Glutamate to aKG and NH3
Glucose-6-phosphatase

Aldolase B
Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase
Reduce blood serum levels of Ca2+ and
phosphate by increasing excretion of the ions
and preventing bone resorption
UMN - CNS only
LMN - CNS or PNS
Memory

Arcuate fasciculus
Broca's (a.k.a. Expressive) aphasia is
characterized by the loss of the ability to
produce language (spoken or written).
Wernicke's (a.k.a. receptive) aphasia is when
an individual is unable to understand language
in its written or spoken form

Dorsolateral Cortex
Medulla
Period of hyperpolarisation when the
membrane cannot be excited again (more
negative than -70mV)
Otic ganglion

Corticobulbar
voluntary control

Myelinated, single neuron

Globus pallidus
Substantia nigra
Caudate nucleus
Putamen
Subthalamic nucleus
Nucleus accumbens
Corticobulbar
Arcuate Fasciculus
Broca's Area

C-fibers
Astrocytes foot processes
Pericyte
Brain microvascular endothelial cell (BMEC)
Dull pain
Unmyelinated
Slow transmission

Cerebellum

COPD?

"Lub" heard when closure of mitral and


tricuspid valves at the start of systole.
"Dub" heard when closure of aortic and
pulmonary valves, marking the end of systole

The conduction of the electrical impulse


throughout the atria
The repolarization of the ventricles
inspiration
Endothelin?

Terminal or respiratory bronchioles or alveoli.


Causes release of digestive enzymes and bile
from the pancreas and gallbladder
Increased intraocular pressure damaging optic
nerve
Enterokinase is an enzyme produced by the
mucosa of the small intestine. Its sole function
is to activate trypsinogen to trypsin.

Thiazide diuretics
Loop Diuretics

Ascending limb of Loop of Henle

Ascending limb of Loop of Henle


Na/K-ATPase

Clinically creatinine (metabolite of creatine)


can be used to measure clearance (index of
kidney function)
Pancreas?

Residual Volume

bile duct
Woven
In the absence of calcium

Becomes more negative


Middle mediastinum
The ability of deoxygenated blood to carry
more carbon dioxide than oxygenated blood
The ratio between carbon dioxide exhaled and
oxygen inhaled in one breath
Atmospheric pressure
Intra-alveolar pressure
Intrapleural pressure

Lower pressure
The diffusion of oxygen from the alveoli into
the pulmonary capillaries and the diffusion of
carbon dioxide from the blood in the pulmonary
capillaries to the alveoli
Residual volume
Tidal volume+ Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
+ Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

Haematocrit
Does not require ATP
Movement down the concentration gradient
Does not achieve saturation
Match ventilation and perfusion
Physiological shunt-blood from the bronchial
circulation enters the pulmonary vein
Collecting duct
Liver

Macula Densa

Kidney

Metabolic Alkalosis
Lower oesophagus, sphincter and diaphragm

Pepsinogen (and HCl)


End diastolic volume (EDV) End systolic
volume (ESV)
Phases 1 and 2
Sinoatrial Node (SAN)

HR higher than 180bpm


SAN (pacemaker tissue)

salbutamol
MAOI (antidepressant)

Temazepam

Collecting Ducts (principal cells)


Carbodopa
Prazosin
Benztropine
IV and IM - most avoid First Pass, only orally
administered drugs will be subject to First pass
metabolism
Answer may be Buccal - depends on what
answer options are shown.
Local anaesthetic
Increased HR
Benztropine

NT at the pre- and post- ganglionic receptors

The NT at the post-ganglionic receptors

Inhibition of the uptake 1 transporter for both


5HT and noradrenaline
Conjugation

bronchodilation

ACh works on nicotinic receptor


It is a competitive antagonist of the Ach
receptors (Non-depolarising neuromuscular
blockers)
Sodium cromoglycate inhibits platelet
activating factors (PAF)
The junction between a motor neuron and the
muscle it innervates
MAO(B) inhibitor= Selegiline
a) Anti-axiolytic drug from the class of
benzodiazepines
b) Long acting drug
c) Used to treat tetanus muscle spasms and
staticus epilepticus (condition where the brain
is in a persistent seizure)
d) Used as a pre-medicant (for endoscopy, GA
and ECT)
e) Acts on GABA receptors
Antiepileptic drug/anticonvulsant therapy
Used in all types of seizures except Petit Mal
(loss of consciousness without loss of postural
control)
Mechanism of action: controls membrane
excitability by decreasing Na+ conductance
(use dependent)
Cardiac glycoside used to treat heart failure
Binds competitively to K+ site at Na+/K+
ATPase
Results in net increase of [Ca2+], therefore
force of contraction increases without increase
in O2 demand
Mechanism of action: inhibit reuptake of both
5-HT and NA
Antimuscarinic effects
Imipramine (NA>> 5-HT) ~metabolite=
Desipramine, Amitriptyline (5-HT and NA)
Euphoria
Anti-tussive
Analgesic
Miosis
Emesis
Morphine-induced constipation-GIT motility
decreased, secretions decreased
used as hypertensive drugs
Dopamine antagonist, used as antipsychotic
and to treat schizophrenia
Belongs to the phenothiazine class of drugs
Anti-emetic, sedative, inhibit extrapyramidal
pathways, hypotension
MAOI
Indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines
Alpha-adrenoceptor antagonist (Guanethidine,
Phenoxybenzamine, phenotolamine, prazosin,
labetolol) Beta-adrenoceptor (Propanolol,
atenolol)
Calcium channel blockers (nifedipine, diltiazem,
verapamil)
cGMP stimulators (hydralazine, sodium
nitroprusside)
Diuretics (K+ sparring: spironolactone,
Thiazides:hydrochlorothiazide)
ACE inhibitors (Captopril/Enlarpil)
TCAs (Imipramine, Amitriptyline)
SSRIs (Fluvoxamine, Fluxetine, Citalopram),
SNaRIs (Venlafaxine, Nefazodone), NaSSAs
(Mirtazapine), NaRIs (Reboxetine)
MAOIs (Phenelzine, Tranylcypromine)
Atypical antidepressants (Mianserin,
Nomifensine)
Lithium
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

GTN (gyceryl trinitrate)

Loop Diuretics (Frusemide)

Spironolactone
Muscle

Simple squamous

Fibroblasts

Type IV

skull, spinal column, ribcage

Both
Maxilla
Optic canal

Atlas

Coronal plane

Bicarbonate

Histidine

Mitochondria
Independent subunits with independent
function
Competitive Inhibition

Glycine
when a hydroxyl group oxidised to a carboxyl
group

Facilitated diffusion uses GTP


Pyruvate Dehydrogenase
Dihydrolipoyl Dehyrdrogenase
Dihydrolipoyl Transacetylase
Low affinity

Endergonic
Acetyl CoA
alpha 2->6

peripheral protein
All of the above

Endoneurium

GABA-A receptors hyperpolarise the neuronal


membrane by opening cl- channels

GABA

Adenyl Cyclase

Intravenous

All ionised drugs are lipid soluble


Is non myelinated, pre and post ganglion

Pharynx
Increased alveolar pressure will expand the
alveoli, which will press against the alveolar
vessels reducing the blood flow

Erythropoietin

Becomes more negative

None of the above?


It is incomplete joining of the maxillary and
medial nasal processes

carotid artery
carotid canal

Its connected to veins outside the skull


(misconception that they are valveless, they
are not!)

Sigmoidal sinus

Stick tongue out

Olfactory

Trigeminal (CN V)

Occipitofrontalis

Prepare for mitosis


When the centromere line up at equator
Guanosine
Thymidine
Phosphate backbone holds DNA strands
together
Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase

Dilation of bronchiole smooth muscle

Increased noradrenaline release


Propranolol

Reduced affinity for oxygen


Popliteal Pulse

Force of left ventricle contraction

Venous return
PR interval
P wave

Stimulations of beta2 adrenoreceptors

Preganglionic Neurone

Decrease sweat

Dopamine Receptor Antagonist

10%

Right Atrium

Bronchodilation
Because they are co enzymes

Vitamin C
Increased osteoclast bone resorption
Increased excretion of phosphate by kidneys

All associated with tongue

Superior meatus

Polysaccharide

Obligate intracellular parasite


Fatigue strength

Dentist and Nurse

Doesn't cause Depletion of organicconstituents


2 cell membranes

Can act as helper cell in antibody production


Medulla

Dorsal horn

1b

Angiotensin II

Decrease in ADH
Multiple endothelial cells

Venous return
Nociceptors

Mixed (i.e. serous and mucous)

Liver

BBB surrounded by basement membrane

Condensation polymerisation

Rifampin

Resistance is proportional to r^4

Skeletal muscles
Subclavian
Hint: even if you cant remember this is the
answer, the name hints that it is "sub"
(under/below) "clavian" (clavicle bone i.e. collar
bone) which suggests it is not in skull

Parakeratinisied

Calcium hydroxyapatite

A pointed projection of a crown

Maxillary 1st pre molar

Deciduous lower central incisor (6 months 6


months)

70%
Easy to deform

CaF is insoluble

Eutectic

Paralysis
Eyes

Muscle spindle

Respiratory Acidosis

Furosemide
Gall bladder
Medulla
PRIF

Chlorpromazine is dopamine antagonist

Myogenic response by constriction of afferent


arteriole

Sublingual

Inhalation

GTN (glyceryl trinitrate)


9900:01:00

Aspirin

Albumin

Albumin and alpha-acid glycoprotein

Functionalisation

Generally increase in rate of excretion


Temazepam

Sweat

Aspirin metabolite

Ammonium chloride

Conjugation

Given at the beginning of treatment as one big


dose
Hard to maintain in therapeutic window

Small fluctuations between doses

Distribution

Liver

Urinary excretion faster in alkaline conditions

Tertiary Ammonium
R group is not an aryl group

Excitatory or inhibitory

Homeostatic Centres

Excitatory only

Cerebrum

Acetylcholine
NA and acetylcholine

Trigeminal (CN V)

Anterior and medial regions

Lateral and posterior regions

Innervates four extrinsic muscles of the eye

Innervates facial expression muscles


Innervates tongue and pharynx

Choline acetyl transferase

Stimulation of respiratory and cardiovascular


centres

Sodium-potassium channel

Sodium-potassium channel

Phospholipase C
cAMP

BDZ

Glossopharyngeal

Occulomotor

Tyrosine Hydroxylase

Biopterin
Pyroxidine

Ascorbate

Phenylephrine

Clonidine

Isoprenaline

Dobutamine
negative60 to negative 90 mV

Blocks uptake one

Hypoxia

Synaptic basal lamina

NA

Competes with choline transporter for uptake


Inhibits fusion of vesicles at presynaptic
membrane

Calcium channel blocker

Promotes exocytosis

Tubocurare

Inhibits potassium release

Hypothermia
Max effect

Competitive antagonists

None of the above

Phosphodiesterase inhibitor that increases


cAMP and cGMP levels

Ipratropium bromide

Beclomethasone dripropionate
Glycopeptides

Beta lactams

Beta lactams

Acyclovir

Liver failure

Directly acting sympathomimetic amines


Renal System

Hypotension

Hydralazine

Phenytoin

Decreased sympathetic function

DM
Alpha-adrenergic blockers

None of the above

Tachycardia

All of the above

Cardiac glycosides

Diuretics
Increases sodium excretion, increases
potassium excretion

Increases sodium excretion, increases


potassium excretion

Beta-adrenergic agonists

Lacks withdrawal symptoms

diazepam

Prolonged sleep
Flumazenil

Serotonin pathway

Neurones are activated repeatedly

Localised to one part of the brain

Lorezepam

Gabapentin
Valproic acid

Hepatic metabolism

Phenytoin

Chromosome 6 and 22

Cell death and gliosis

Mesolimbic
Mesocortical

Amphetamine

Irregular spasm in head, neck and trunk


muscles

Tremors

Hypotension

15-20%
Inhibit Na+/K+/2Cl-

Inhibit Na+/Cl-

Acetozolamide

In both water permeable and impermeable


sections

Iproniazid

Lithium

Amitryptiline
Midalozam

Reboxitine

5-HT and NA

NA, DA AND 5HT

Reduced cAMP

Akinesia

Increased dopaminergic, decreased cholinergic


activity
Rasagiline

Antiviral drug

Chlorpromazine

K, DELTA, MEU

Increased opening of calcium ion channels

Morphine and meu/k agonists

Gastric motility decreased and emptying time


increased
Decreased pancreatic, biliary and intestinal
secretions

Increases tone of Sphincter of Oddi and


increased biliary pressure

Morphine 6- glucuronide

Morphine 3- glucuronide

Helicobacter pylori
H+/K+ ATPase

ACh and Gastrin

Histamine, Ach and gastrin

Prostaglandin

Cimetidine/Ranitidine

Pirenzipine
Proglumide

Omeprazole

Metronidazole

Fats

Endocrine system

Gram negative cell wall


Joining of peptidoglycan subunits to form cell
wall

1.3 mMol/L

Carbon to which the amino and carboxylic


groups are attached

2.2

9.4
Lysine

Phenylalanine

Tyrosine

Proline

Negative charge

Tyrosine
Hydrogen bonds

Non-covalent interactions

Cysteine

Tertiary structure

Fibrous protein

Fibrous protein
3-4M of bicarbonate ions

245 Aas

Weak bonds
Low Affinity to be more specific therefore
maybe the answer should be "none of the
above"

Liver

Hexokinase
Non-covalent interactions

Covalent interactions

Succinate dehydrogenase

Pyruvate Kinase

8C
Stereoisomers that have different orientation of
hydroxyl at carbon one

Anti-coagulant

Disaccharide

10 residues

24 residues
HA (hyaluronic acid)

Chondroitin Sulphate

Heparin

Triacylglycerol synthesis

Beta oxidation

Skeletal muscle
Liver and skeletal muscle

Skeletal muscle and adipose tissue

Lipoamide oxidase transacetylase

Hydrolysis of ATP

Plasma membrane

Liver and pancreatic beta cells


Liver

PFK

Glycogen synthase

Liver

Mitochondria

ER
PEP carboxykinase and pyruvate carboxylase

Oxaloacetate

Lactate dehydrogenase

Leucine

PEPCK,PC, MDH

Citrate synthase
Fumarase

Amino Transferase

Phenylalanine to tyrosine

Reabsorbs ammonia into body

Phosphate

Cytosine
Two nucleotides joined together

Phosphoanhydride bonds

Liver

Purines

Phosphodiester bonds
Separates the fragments

Replaces RNA primers with DNA

Synthesises small portions of RNA primer


required for initiation

5' to 3'

aminoacyl tRNA synthetase

Provides framework on which codon can be


matched to anticodon
Forms peptide bonds

Methionine

Deficiency of glucose 6-phosphatase

Malfunctioning of phenylalanine hydroxylase

Absence of aldolase B

Reduced LDL receptors


Glucagon

Somatostatin

Pancreatic polypeptide

All of the above

Parasympathetic

Breakdown of glycogen in the liver

Production of glucose from amino acids


Lactogen placenta

Meningitis

Vitamin A

Need for 2nd messenger system

Vitamin B

Insulin
Adrenal glands

Liver cells

Carried in blood stream

.6mg

VitD

Liver
K2

VitA

Bone and tooth formation

Albumin

Calcitonin

Eccrine glands

Reticular dermis
Collagen

Stratified squamous

At the root and the CEJ

Pteryoid humuculus
None of the above
ICA# Module

Pharmacology

Dental Materials

Systems Physiology

Biochemistry

2
Neurophysiology

3
Dental Materials

Systems Physiology

4
Dental Materials

Systems Physiology

3
Oral Biology

Oral Biology

2
Oral Biology

Oral Biology
2

Oral Biology

Oral Biology

Oral Biology
4

Oral Biology

3
Biochemistry

Biochemistry

Biochemistry

1
Biochemistry

Biochemistry

Biochemistry

2
Neurophysiology

3
Neurophysiology

3
Neurophysiology

Neurophysiology

2
Neurophysiology
2

Pharmacology

Pharmacology

4
Pharmacology
2

Pharmacology

1
Pharmacology

1
Systems Physiology

Systems Physiology

Systems Physiology
4

Systems Physiology
3

Systems Physiology
3
Systems Physiology
3

Systems Physiology

Systems Physiology
3
Biochemistry
Biochemistry

Biochemistry

3
Biochemistry

Oral Biology
Neurophysiology
Neurophysiology

Biochemistry
Biochemistry

Biochemistry
Biochemistry
Neurophysiology
Neurophysiology
Oral Biology
Neurophysiology

Oral Biology

3
Oral Biology

Oral Biology

3
Oral Biology

Oral Biology

3
Dental Materials

3
Dental Materials

Oral Biology

4
Oral Biology

4
Systems Physiology

Systems Physiology

3
Systems Physiology

Pharmacology

2
Pharmacology

Pharmacology

4
Pharmacology

Oral Biology

3
Oral Biology

3
Oral Biology

3
Oral Biology

3
Oral Biology

2
Oral Biology

Neurophysiology

2
Neurophysiology

Biochemistry

1
Biochemistry

Biochemistry

3
Neurophysiology

4
Question

a) Briefly describe the pathology and symptoms produced by Parkinson's


disease (6 marks)

b) Why are Carbidopa and Domperidone used in the treatment of


Parkinsonism (4 marks)

a) Distinguish between addition and condensation reactions. Silicone


impression materials can be addition or condensation cured, which is more
dimensionally stable? Explain why. (5 marks)

b) Describe the mechanism involved when metals and alloys undergo


permanent deformation? Define what is meant by work (strain) hardening (5
marks)

a) Name 3 types of bone cell and describe their functions. (3 marks)

b) With the aid of a diagram, describe an osteon and its formation. (7 marks)

a) Succinctly describe DNA replication. (2 marks)

b) Name 4 key factors involved in DNA replication and briefly describe their
roles. (8 marks)
a) Draw and label a diagram of a monosynaptic reflex. (6 marks)

b) How does the muscle spindle maintain its sensitivity to stretch? (4 marks)
a) List FIVE desirable properties of a restorative filling material and briefly
describe each one. (5 marks)

b) Describe the hazards of monomers/polymers. (5 marks)

a) Why doesnt blood clot in a normal blood vessel?


B) Describe the role of platelets in clotting and the effects of aspirin on
clotting.
How are glass formed and how does cooling rate affects properties?

Glass has 3 different bits: Former, intermediate, and modifier.

Give example of former and modifier and the affect a modifier has on
properties

a) Define stroke volume

b) Name the 2 pumps involved in venous return and describe how they work

c) Define preload and after load and describe factors affecting preload
3 types of dentinogenesis (8 marks)

What is pre-dentine and what is mantle dentine? (2 marks)

Sketch a diagram of the TMJ and label ligaments (2 marks)

The mandible can be elevated, depressed and moved side-to-side. Name the
muscles involved and their origin, insertion and innervation (8 marks)
Outline the layers of the scalp

What are the 2 parts of the occipitofrontalis muscle, what their origin and
insertion and what is their function

What are the 4 layers of the epidermis (4 marks)

What other cell types are there found in the epidermis?

Outline the difference between addition and condensation polymerisation.


Silica can be formed by either one of these methods which one would form
a stronger product? (5)

Define commensal, opportunistic, one other one that I cant remember (5


marks)

Explain why resident microflora are beneficial (5 marks)


How is a dipeptide formed

Explain two types of bonding/interactions between them above secondary


structure.

Give an example of a globular, fibrous/filamentous and membrane


associated protein, and then explain how they are adapted for their function.
Mitosis (10 marks)

Write the features of pyruvate dehydrogenase (5 marks?)

Oxidative Phosphorylation (5 marks?)


Knee jerk ( marks)
Describe the differences between: UMN vs LMN (5 marks)
Pain modulation (10 marks)

4 types of intercellular signalling (5 marks)


Compare two named examples of the types of intercellular signalling and
how each can have a specific response inside the body (5 marks)

Drug interaction of amitriptyline and Guanethidine (5 marks)

Drug interaction of tyramine and phenelzine (5 marks)

Explain how an indirect acting sympathomimetic works (5 marks)

Describe synthesis, storage, release and breakdown of ACh (5 marks)


Explain how drugs can alter neuromuscular transmission (10 marks)
Explain how ultrafiltrate forms, draw a glomerulus and Bowmans capsule

Define glomerular filtration rate and what factors affect it.

State the systolic pressure in the aorta and the pulmonary artery (1 mark)

Explain why a small change in pressure in the pulmonary circulation results


in a dramatic change in driving pressure (2 mark)

Explain two ways in which the pulmonary circulation is adapted to maintain


low blood pressure (3 marks)
In systemic circulation, the body reacts to hypoxia by vasodilation.
Explain how the pulmonary circulation responds to hypoxia and explain why
(5 marks)

Explain the difference between Ventricular and SAN action potentials (10
marks)

What are the effects of Noradrenaline and ACh on the rate of firing at the
SAN?
Free energy
a) Explain what free energy is and how it can be used to predict whether a
reaction will occur (6 marks)

b) How does ATP hydrolysis help make an energetically unfavourable


reaction occur? (4 marks)
DNA
a) List 4 difference between RNA and DNA and explain the Central Dogma
theory (5 marks)

b) Outline the differences in structure between a nucleotide and a nucleoside


(2 marks)

c) Outline the bonding in a polynucleotide (3 marks)

What is obesity and what are the effects it can have on CHD (10 marks)
Explain the difference between fat soluble and water soluble vitamins and
explain the effect of Vitamin D deficiency (10 marks)

Using a diagram, explain the effects on the pupillary light reflex if light is
shined into the left eye a) if the left optic nerve is damage and b) if the left
oculomotor nerve is damaged (10 marks)
Brainstem
a) What are the roles of the brainstem? (6 marks)

b) Explain the effects of an Upper Motor Lesion (4 marks)


Axon
a) Draw and label a typical myelinated axon (4 marks)

b) With the aid of a diagram, explain the ionic changes during an action
potential (6 marks)

What is the role of interphase in the cell cycle and what each phase signifies
(10 marks)
Explain what a Fischer projection is and the differences between D-glucose
and D-galactose and draw a Fischer projection of each (10 marks)

Protein synthesis
a) What is protein synthesis and where does it take place in the cell (2
marks)

b) Briefly outline three of the components involved in protein synthesis (6


marks)

c) Explain what is meant by degeneracy (2 marks)


Glycolysis
a) What does phosphofructokinase I catalyse in glycolysis and how is it
regulated according to the production of ATP in glycolysis and the TCA cycle?
(7 marks)

b) What two reactions in glycolysis produce ATP by substrate level


phosphorylation? (3 marks)
Neurotransmitters
a) What are the parameters that classify a neurotransmitter? (6 marks)

b) What is the role of granules in neurotransmission? (4 marks)


Explain the mechanism by which G-proteins can lead to the activation of
second messengers (10 marks)
Briefly explain the functions of the trigeminal nerve (10 marks)
Association cortex
a) What is the function of the frontal association cortex? (6 marks)

b) Briefly explain what agnosia is and outline the two main types of agnosia
(4 marks)

Incisors
a) What is the first permanent incisor to erupt? (1 mark)

b) What are the differences between permanent maxillary central and lateral
incisors? (3 marks)

c) How can you tell a left from right permanent maxillary lateral incisor? (3
marks)

d) Name THREE differences between permanent mandibular central and


lateral incisors? (3 marks)
Permanent dentition
a) List the differences in morphology between deciduous and permanent
molars (3 marks)

b) Explain the changes in structure of the oral mucosa when deciduous teeth
are replaced by permanent teeth and name the process by which teeth are
replaced in humans? (4 marks)

c) Name the permanent dentition that replaces the deciduous dentition in


each quadrant (3 marks)

Parotid
a) Describe the location of the parotid gland and the passage of the parotid
duct (6 marks)

b) What is the parotid capsule? (2 marks)

c) Name the structures that pass through the parotid gland (2 marks)
Damage to facial nerve of a man from operation on parotid tumour; he finds
it hard to move food around mouth and close eye on that side

a) Why is there loss of sensation and which facial muscles control affected
parts (3 marks)

b) What tests should be carried out to assess nerve damage and which other
roles of the facial nerve should be tested (7 marks)

Occlusion
a) Chart the expected dentition of an 8 year old girl (2 marks)

b) How is room made for the increased width of the permanent central
incisors? (2 marks)

c) What is the leeway space and its significance in the relationship of the
molars? (4 marks)

d) Explain the purpose of the second deciduous molars in eruption of the first
permanent molar? (2 marks)
Dental materials
a) List FIVE desired properties of a restoration and give a brief description of
each (5 marks)

b) What is the difference between Clinical research and International


Standards laboratory research? (5 marks)
Dental materials
a) What do you understand by allergic dermatitis? Name a metal that can
cause this, and give two examples of materials that can cause this by
inhalation of dust (5 marks)

b) Explain the hazards of monomers/polymers (5 marks)

Microbes
a) Explain the mechanical defences of the body that affect the microbial flora
(5 marks)

b) Using examples, name some uses of microorganisms that help in the


development of food, drink, medicine and the environment (5 marks)
Antibodies
a) Illustrate the parts of an antibody (5)

b) Explain what happens at the PRIMARY and SECONDARY response (5)


Describe the structure of the nephron and roles of each region of the
structure (10 marks)

What is intrapleural pressure and what is its significance (4 marks)

What happens to the intrapleural pressure when there is inspiration


/expiration/forced expiration (3 marks)

What happens to the lungs if there is a hole pierced through the thorax (3
marks)
What are the main cells in the epidermis and what are the four main cell
types in the epidermis (5 marks)

Which cell type of the epidermis is responsible for the cell proliferation.
What are stem cells and transmit amplifying cells (3 marks)

What are two other cells in the skin and what is their function (2 marks)

Describe the criteria for a neurotransmitter using noradrenaline as an


example (10 marks)
Describe the mechanism of action of a local anaesthetic (7marks)

How does inflammation affect the action/efficacy of the Las (3 marks)

Write brief notes on phenytoin (5 marks)


Write brief notes on diazepam (5 marks)

Differences between the central and lateral maxillary incisors (3 marks)

Differences between the central and later mandibular incisors (3 marks)

How can you tell the right from the left incisors? (3 marks)
What are the striae of retzius (1 mark)

What are Hunter Schraeger bands (1/2 marks)

What are enamel spindles and lamellae and how do they form (4 marks)
Describe the THREE patterns of enamel and cementum at the CEJ (6 marks)
What are typing and identification (4 marks )

Describe the steps for how to isolate bacteria from a clinical specimen (6
marks)
Briefly make notes on the divisions of the trigeminal nerve (10 marks)
Describe the boundaries of the nasal cavity and the blood and nerve supply
to it (7 marks )

Paranasal sinuses importance and roles (3 marks )

Using a diagram, describe how a G protein coupled receptor is able to


activate a second messenger (10 marks)
Describe the two ways in which an action potential can be propagated either
by temporal summation or spatial summation (4marks)

What is the differ nice between an upper motor neuron and lower motor
neuron lesion and give two signs/symptoms of each (4 marks)

What is the difference between a dermatome and a receptive field (2marks)

What is a buffer, show/describe how they are able to maintain a pH


environment (3 marks)

Give three examples of biological buffers and describe how they work (3
marks)

The pH in mouth is 6.3 which buffers maintain, what buffer is responsible for
maintaining this pH (4 marks)
What is the importance physiologically of converting glycogen to lactate in
the fasted state (4marks)

Why is glycogen not metabolised to glucose in skeletal muscle (2marks)

Describe how glycogen is metabolised into glucose by TWO enzymes and


describe how these enzymes are regulated and how they control how much
glucose is formed - in fasted state (5 marks)

Describe what is meant by the term translation (2 marks)

Describe three features involved with the translation process and what they
do (6marks)

Describe the degeneracy of the codons (2 marks)


Part (a) cannot remember (5/6marks)

(b) What is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS and how does it
have its effects? (2/3 marks)

How do benzodiazepines affect the action of the inhibitory neurotransmitter


of the CNS from part (b) (2marks)
Correct Answer (relevant information that answer must include)
Parkinson's is a condition where the dopaminergic cell bodies in the substant
striatum.
Symptoms of PD include: Tremor at rest (Known as "pill rolling"), rigidity, akin
Carbidopa: Given in combination with L-Dopa, it acts by preventing the conve
across the BBB where it can then be converted to Dopamine, this is importan
Domperidone: This is a D2 receptor antagonist which acts as an anti-emetic

(a)
In addition reactions, the two reactants will combine together forming a prod
In a condensation reaction, the reactants will react together forming a produc

(b)
When a force is applied above its elastic limit a metal becomes permanently
Metals can become deformed by dislocations.

Work hardening is:


Repeated deformation (strain) moves existing dislocations and produces man
boundary. Wrought alloys work harden during forming
The effects of work hardening can be reversed by a process known as anneal
Osteoblast: Lay down/secretes new bone
Osteoclast: Bone resorption
Osteocyte: Bone cells that are embedded in bone secreted by osteoblasts

An osteon is the function unit of of compact bone:


Things to include in drawing: Haversian canal in centre, lined by osteoclasts a
canal for completeness.Annotate canniliculi too.
DNA replication takes places by a process known as Semi-Conservative Replic
made.
Factors involved in DNA replication:
Helicase: unwinds the dsDNA
Ligase: the enzyme that binds the DNA strands together by formation of phos
DNA polymerase: the enzyme that uses a single strand of "mother" DNA as a
Okazaki fragments: These are the short DNA fragments used to create the lag
.
There are slightly different desirable properties for a restorative filling materi

For anterior teeth, it is desirable to:


Colour match
Be natural looking in different light conditions
It is not so important for an anterior restorative material to have hugely high

Converselt for posterior teeth:


It is desirable that the material has high compressive strength to be able to la
Aesthetics are not the main priority for posterior fillings, as they are not so vi

Hazards of monomers/polymers include:


During the polymerisation process, not all the monomers may be incorporate
important if it is a free radical polymersation process, since free radicals can

The patient may have an allergic reaction to the monomer/polymer

Over time the polymer may leach monomers into the systemic circulation, ca

The polymer might be carcinogenic and cause a localised carconima in the or

The patient can have a dermatoses

If there is a volatile methylmethacrylate monomer, it could cause the patient

In a normal vessel, the blood doesnt clot because the epithelial cell lining of
The blood will begin to form a clot when the vessel wall is damaged and expo

In clotting, platelets, which are small ciruclating cell fragments that have ma
activated. Platelets are essential for haemostasis, they contain 2 types of ves
fibrinogen and factor V

Aspirin is an anti-platelet drug that acts to destroy cyclo-oxygenase enzyme


Glasses are formed when a high viscosity melt is cooled rapidly above a critic
increases, until they become rigid solids They are sometimes called superco

Glass transformation (transition) point (Tg) depends on cooling rate. Glasses


quickly enough to pack closer together (shrinkage rate lower)

Oxide glass composition comprises up to 3 different types of oxide: Former, I

An example of a former is: SiO2


An example of a modifier is: K2O, CaO
Glass modifiers disrupts the 3-D network, they reduce connectivity
(breaks bonds), reduce the viscosity and fusing (softening) temperature and

Cardiac Output is the product of: Stroke Volume x Heart Rate

Stroke volume is determined by the venous return, which is controlled by blo


the body with each contraction.

The skeletal muscle pump is a physiological mechanism by which the veins (w


blood in one direction, back towards the right atrium. The lower valve preven

The second pump is the Respiratory pump - Intrathoracic pressure decreases


increase blood flow towards the right atrium.

Preload is the volume of blood filling within the ventricles prior to ventricular
the blood is ejected.

Preload is affeced by the venous BP, by venous return


Dentinogenesis is the process of dentine formation:
Primary dentinogenesis is the formation of dentine prior to the eruption of th
Secondary dentinogenesis is the formation of dentine taking place from when
tubules
Tertiary dentinogenesis is the formation of dentine in response to an external

PREDENTINE:
Predentine is the innermost layer which is unmineralised, it is where new den

MANTLE DENTINE:
This is the first-formed layer of dentine in the crown region of the tooth

This is a broad, radiating muscle, situated at the side of the head.


The action of the temporalis is to elevate the mandible thus closing the mout
Origin: It arises from the whole of the temporal fossa and the deep surface of
Insertion: Its fibers converge as they descend, and end in a tendon, which pa
the ant. Border of mandibular ramus

It is innervated by the deep temporal branches of mandibular nerve.

Medial pterygoid muscle:


This muscle has two heads: superficial and deep
Origin: the superficial head arises from the maxillary tuberosity. The deep he

Insertion: Fibers run downward, backward and laterally and are inserted into

Innervation: was by the main trunk of mandibular nerve through nerve to me

Lateral pterygoid muscle:


This muscle has two heads: superior and inferior
Acting together they protrude and depress the mandible;
acting alone and alternatively they produce side to side movements of the m
Origin: the superior head arises from greater wing of sphenoid bone while the
Insertion: fibers pass backward to be inserted into the neck of mandible and
This muscle is innervated by the ant. division of mandibular nerve through la
S: Skin (outer most layer, includes hair, sebaceous glands and sweat glands)
C: Connective Tissue (close network of fibro-fatty tissue, connects overlying s
A: Apponeurosis (Epicranius muscle and apponeurosis is the occipito-frontalis
L: Loose Areolar Tissue
P: Pericranium (periosteoum of the skull, it is continuous with the endosteoum
2 parts of the occipto-frontalise muscle are:
FRONTALIS (origin = galea aponeurotica, insertion = skin near eyebrows and
OCCIPITALIS: (origin=occipital bone, insertion = galea aponeurotica, Action =
The epidermis is stratified squamous epithelium. The main cells of the epider

Moving from the lower layers upwards to the surface, the 4 layers of the epid
>stratum basale (basal or germinativum cell layer)
>stratum spinosum (spinous or prickle cell layer)
>stratum granulosum (granular cell layer)
>stratum corneum (horny layer)
In addition, to the epidermis layer, there is the stratum lucidum, which is a th
corneum and is not usually seen in thin epidermis.

Below the epidermis, there is the basement membrane under which it is the d
subcutaneous layer (loose connective tissue)

Addition polymerisation involves the addition of monomers to a growing poly


condensation polymerisation whereby the monomers bind together, forming
Silica formed through an addition polymerisation would form a stronger produ

Commensals: These are microbes that are normally found colonizing a host a
NB opportunistic pathogens e.g. oral flora caries, periodontal disease, syste

Opportunistic Pathogen:
A microorganism that only causes disease when the host resistance is impair
organisms in the urinary tract, or oral organisms on heart valves)

The resident microflora includes commensal organisms that are regularly pre
mechanism by which the resident microflora of the body acts as a barrier (de

The resident microflora also is important for gut health and development, and
A dipeptide bond is formed as a condensation reaction between two amino ac
text. It is formed between the carboxyl group of one AA and the amino group

In the secondary structure of a protein which is essentially a long chain of am

These two structures are formed by Hydrogen bonds.


The -helix is a polypeptide twist around a spiral each turn consists of 3.6 A
four residues ahead of it in the chain. Whilst the beta sheets are layered "she

Globular proteins:
Nearly all enzymes in the body are globular proteins, an example being carbo
Haemaglobin, which is made up from 4 globular subunits with associated hae

Filamentous Proteins:
Fibrous proteins form rod or wire like shapes and are usually structural or
structures (eg. Collagen triple helix). These structures often contain cross-lin
fibres. An example of a filamentous protein is keratin, which are a family of fi
in hair and nails.

Membrane-Associated Proteins:
These include: Transmembrane proteins (intrinsic proteins), Lipid-associated
Mitosis takes place during the M phase of the cell cycle, this is where the cell
PROPHASE = chromatin fibres condense, nucleolus and nucleus membrane
METAPHASE = Centromeres of chromatids line up at the midline of the cell-
ANAPHASE = centromeres divide, Identical sets of chromosomes move to op
TELOPHASE = nuclear envelopes reappears, Chromosomes resume chromat
The process ends with cytokinesis which involves the cell splitting into two
PDC is an enzyme complex consisting of three different enzymes:
Pyruvate decarboxylase, lipoamide reductase transacetylase, dihydrolipoyl d

The PDC complex converts pyruvate into acetyl-CoA by a process called pyru
Acetyl-CoA may then be used in the citric acid cycle to carry out cellular resp
This is a process that is also commonly reffered to as the ETC (electron transp
It takes place in the mitochondrial membrane and the ultimate product is ATP
There is a cascade involving 4 enzyme complexes that carry out oxidative ph
Complex I (NADH dehydrogenase)
Complex II (succinate dehydrogenase)
Complex III (coenzyme Q reductase)
Complex IV (cytochrome C reductase)
The knee jerk reflex - STRETCH REFLEX
When we tap the patella the muscle spindles in the quadriceps muscles are s
connections. At the same time they inhibit antagonistic (flexor) muscles via a
Both these receptor types have free nerve endings. They are high-threshold r
The pain signals are then received by either WDR neurones or NS (nociceptiv

The ascending and descending pathways of pain diagram is a good one to lea

Intercellular signalling is the communications that happen between cells.


1) Contact Dependent signalling: both the ligand and the receptor are memb
membrane of the signalling cell (or may even form part of the extracellular m
signalling is the Antibody-Antigen response.

2) Paracrine signalling: This is when the cell secretes signalling molecules tha
important for mediating a local inflammatory response in situations such as w

3) Neuronal/Synaptic Signalling: Nerve cells typically extend long processes (


cells, a neuron sends electrical impulses (action potentials) rapidly along its a
signal called a neurotransmitter. These signals are secreted at specialized ce
target cell.

4) Endocrine signalling: These cells secrete their signal molecules, called horm
release of insulin from the beta cells of the islets of langerhans in the pancrea
To specify two examples:
The release of acetylcholine from presynaptic terminals which then bind to AC
potential.
The release of insulin from the beta cells of the islets of langerhans in the pan
Amitriptyline is a non-selective NA and 5-HT reuptake inhibitor, therefore it w
(tri-cyclic antidpressants).

Guanethidine works by replacing the NA in the pre-synaptic vesicles, therefor


reduced since there is less NT for the guanethidine to compete with.

Phenelzine is used today as an antidepressant drug. It works by non-selective

Tyramine is also broken down by MOA, so if the individual consumes foods ric
enter the blood stream.
Indirect acting sympathomimetics such as Tyramine work by entering the pre
forces the NA neurotransmitter to exit the vesicles and enter the synapse. So
The ultrafiltrate forms at the nephrons within the renal corpuscle, which cons
As the blood flows into the glomerulus via the efferent arteriole, it passes acr
that is within the blood stream passes across, except for this molecules that a

GFR is the rate at which the ultrafiltrate is formed as it passes from the glom
GFR is autoregulated and factors that affect it include:
Plasma oncotic pressure (determined by plasma proteins mainly)
Glomerular capillary pressure determined in turn by Systemic blood pressure
Glomerular capillary surface area (which can be affected in a damaged/disea
Systemic Arterial pressure: 120/80mmHg
The output of the right side of the heart serves the relatively low pressure pu

In the pulmonary system the pressure drop between pulmonary artery and ca
The lack of high resistance arterioles minimizes active regulation of lung bloo

The right ventricle muscle tone is adapted to be lower than the tone of the LV
Pulmonary vessels have the ability to distend much more than systemic vess
More vessels can be recruited that are normally closed and this in turn cause
Arterioles in the lung vasoconstrict in response to hypoxia. This tends to direc
Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction tends to promote an optimum V/Q ratio

In the normal heart the SAN serves as the cardiac primary pacemaker and de
node, high in the right atrium. The SA node is the natural pacemaker of the h
muscular contraction.

This is different ot the ventricular contraction, which occurs after the SAN has
the atrioventricular or AV node. The AV node acts as a conductor of impulses
allows the ventricles to fill with blood after the atria have contracted.

The SAN AP is signified on an ECG by the P wave, and then the ventricular co

Two nerves carry impulses from the brain to the SAN. One of these is the vag
cells and makes the SAN pacemaker tissue beat more slowly.

The other nerve is the sympathetic nerve, which releases NA which has the o
Free Energy: It is a measure of energy contained in a molecule, due to its vibr
free energy) kcal.

G (Delta G): Changes in free energy occurring in a reaction are defined as


G= free energy (C + D) - free energy (A + B)

G = Negative (Exergonic)
G = positive (Endergonic)

A reaction that occurs spontaneously must have negative G. Or G product -G

ATP Hydrolysis:
The G for hydrolysis of ATP to ADP and Pi usually= -11 to -13 kcal/mole.
In principle hydrolysis of ATP can be used to drive an energetically unfavoura
Many physiological reactions are coupled with the hydrolysis of ATP molecule

And example of such a reaction is the synthesis of a polynucleotide, RNA or D


In the first step, a nucleoside monophosphate is activated by the sequential t
The high-energy intermediate formed, a nucleoside triphosphate, exists free
Hydrolysis of the latter to inorganic phosphate is highly favourable and helps
The central dogma theory states that "the coded genetic information hard-wi
contains the program for synthesis of a particular protein (or small number o
DNARNAProteinsOrganism

Four differences between DNA and RNA:


1) DNA made up from 4 bases: A, T, C, G - whereas RNA made up from 4 base
2) The DNA backbone sugar is deoxyribose, whereas in RNA it is ribose
3) There is essentially only one type of DNA, whereas RNA can be in one of th
4) DNA is double stranded typically, RNA is typically single stranded

Nucleotide: consists of a base, sugar (ribose/deoxyribose) and a phosphate g


Nucleoside: consists of a base, sugar (ribose/deoxyribose)

Nucleotides are linked together by phosphodiester bonds to form a DNA poly


of what becomes ssDNA. DNA synthesis occurs in the 5 to 3 direction, with e

Obesity is defined as the excessive accumulation of body fat.It can be assess

Obesity can have a number of serious clinical results, which include:


Hypertension: since there is an increased heart workload and there will be fa
This can lead to a stroke!

The increased body mass in obese people is associated with an increase in bl


which all also lead to increased BP (hypertension)

These problems, all eventually lead to coronary heart disease (CHD), because
Coronary arteries fail to sustain te heart, there will be a lack of blood reachin
The heart tissue will become more rigid, losing its elasticity, as the left ventri
blood will be pumped around the body.

It can lead to serious issues, such as cardiac necrosis, where the hearts tissue
Fat Soluble Vitamins:
These include Vitamins A, D, E and K.
They can be found in fats and oils of food. They are absorbed into the lymph
They are stored in the liver and in body fat (adipose tissue) - if they are accum
They are not excreted in urine - they are not easily excreted.

Water soluble Vitamins:


These include Vitamins C and the B complexes
These can be found in vegetables, fruit, grains and meat.
They are absorbed directly into the blood streat.
Unlike fat soluble vitamins, they are not stored in the body, so therefore do n
Alcohol can increase elimination of them, whilst smoking can decrease their a
They can be excreted via urine.

Vitamin D:
The main role of vitamin D is to maintain calcium and potassium levels. A defi
associated with a VitD deficiency.

Rickets:
During growth of children, the bones increase in size, and their growth depen
immature bone (osteoid). So insufficient VitD leads to deformed bones, with r

OsteoMalacia:
This is due to insufficient vitD in adults, and it causes the individuals to have
The brainstem has a number of key functions. It is a conduit that connects th
1. Cranial nerve functions contains functional centres associated with 10 of
2. Conduit function contains ascending & descending pathways that transm
3. Integrative functions respiratory and cardiovascular activities, consciousn

The brainstem consists of 3 distinct regions:


1. Midbrain (mesencephalon)
2. Pons
3. Medulla

Upper Motor Neuron (UMN) Lesion


Results from damage to neuronal cell bodies in the cortex or their axons that
With an UMN lesion, voluntary control of only the lower muscles of facial expr
Voluntary control of muscles of the forehead will be spared due to the bilater
(This is the most important sign to distinguish upper and lower facial motor n
UMN lesions are usually the result of a stroke.
Draw a diagram like this below, with the key annotations for the 4 marks:

Action potential ionic changes:


Draw an action potential graph, depicting the stages and annotate the diagra
Describe the starting point, with the resting membrane potential which is typ
This is the initial stage, when there is a huge influx of sodium ions, causing th
threshold is reached. At this stage the sodium channels close by the deactiva
causes potassium channels to open (voltage gated) and this causes potassiu
resting potential, however before reaching resting potential, it hyperpolarises
relatively slowly acting Na-K-ATPase

Interphase is a state of high metabolic activity during which the cell does mu
Interphase consists of 3 stages: G1, S (when DNA is Synthesised) and G2

G1 and G2 stand for a gap or interruption in DNA synthesis (i.e. there is no D


G1 phase: Lasts 8-10 hours*. The cell replicates its organelles and cytosol bu
S phase: Lasts 6-8 hours*. The cell replicates its DNA
G2 phase: Lasts 4-6 hours. The cell enlarges and synthesises enzymes and pr
* Typical values for a cell cycle of 24 hours. However, there is considerable va

G0 Phase: this is when a cell exits the cell cycle for a period of time. Usually c
Having said this, cells that enter G0 usually terminally differentiate

The other stages of the cell cycle are within the M phase, which is when mito
worth mentioning for a mark.
A fischer projection is a 2D representation of a 3D organic molecule by projec

Below is a diagram that depicts the fischer projections for D-glucose, and for
are in this rigid format so NOT interchangable, but in fact actually two distinc

Protein synthesis is the formation of proteins within cells of the human body.
amino group of one AA and the carboxyl group of another AA. There are 20 A

Three components involved in protein synthesis:


1) Ribosomes: these are organelles present in the cytoplasm of eurkaryotic
combined when the cell is synthesising protein.
2) tRNA: these are single stranded RNA molecules that exist in a folded stru
they ensure the correct AA is added to a growing polypeptide chain in protein
3) mRNA: this is single stranded, and is formed during transcription (taking
sequence they are in on the mRNA molecule is specific for a unique polypept

Degeneracy of the Genetic Code:


This is the redundancy of the genetic code, exhibited as the multiplicity of th
Maybe worth giving an example: eg TCT and TCC both code for the same ami
PHOSPHOFRUCTOKINASE (PFK) catalyses: F6P + ATP Fructose-1,6-bisP (F1,

This is a highly spontaneous reaction


This is the RATE-LIMITING STEP for glycolysis - it is the most important step in
This step is IRREVERSIBLE
As a result, the PFK1 enzyme is highly regulated.

ATP is a substrate - High conc. of ATP inhibits PFK by allosteric mechanism b


On the other hand, ADP and AMP relieve inhibition by ATP.

In glycolysis, there is a net production of only 2xATP molecules. These are for
One of the ATP molecules is formed in this step of glycolysis:
PHOSPHOGLYCERATE KINASE catalyses: 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate + ADP to 3-

The other ATP molecule is formed in this step:


PYRUVATE KINASE catalyses: phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) + ADP to pyruvate +
NTs are also known as chemical messengers. They are endogenous chemicals
NTs transmit signals across a chemical synapse (eg. NMJ), from one neuron to

NTs are released from synaptic vesicles in synapses into the synaptic cleft, w
Many NTs are synthesized from simple and plentiful precursors such as amino
play a major role in shaping everyday life and functions.

Most of the neurotransmitters have very similar mechanisms for production,

The common NTs include:


Amino acid NTs: GABA (inhibitory), Glycine (inhibitory), Glutamate (excitatory
Monoamine NTs: DA, NA, Adrenaline, Serotonin (5-HT), Histamine

NTs can be stored in presynaptic granules, once they are formed, and this pro
released upon Calcium uptake to the presynpatic terminal. The granules are
IN THE EXAM, IT IS PROBABLY BEST TO DRAW OUT A DIAGRAM AND USE THIS
G-proteins (a.k.a. GTP-binding proteins) are trimeric - i.e. they are made up fr

In the un-stimulated state, the -subunit has GDP bound and the G-protein is

These G proteins are attached to the cytoplasmic face of the plasma membra

When stimulated by an activated receptor, the -subunit releases its bound G


subunit and a -complex. The activated -subunit activates its target protei
this in turn will activate the second messenger cAMP.

After the -subunit has carried out its action, it shuts itself off by hydrolysing
an inactive G protein.

These 2nd messengers are associated with different enzymes, which are:
Adenylate cyclase (for cAMP)
Guanylate cyclase (for cGMP)
Phospholipase C (for IP3 AND DAG)
Phospholipase A2 (for prostaglandins)
The trigeminal nerve is one of the 12 cranial nerves. It is number 5, common

It has three main branches: Ophthalmic (sensory), Maxillary (sensory), Mandi

The sensory function of CNV is to provide tactile, proprioceptive and nocicept


The motor function of CNV is to activate the muscles of mastication, the tens

Ophthalmic branch: CN V1
Innervates the mucosa of the nose, the skin of the forehead, the upper eyelid

The Maxillary Branch: CN V2 (it has a number of sub-branches, a few of which


Infraorbital nerve - sensation to skin of middle face, and labial mucosa
Anterior Superior Alveolar Nerve - the maxillary canines and incisors, as well
The middle superior alveolar nerve - sensation to the maxillary premolars, th
The posterior superior alveolar nerve - the maxillary sinus, the upper molars

Mandibular branch: CN V3
This has a number of sub-branches too:
Auriculotemporal, buccal, lingual, inferior alveolar, nerve of masticatory mus
The auriculotemporal nerve innervates the secretomotor fibres of the parotid
There are two sections to the frontal association cortex:
1) The dorsolateral cortex
It is responsible for forward planning and ability to conceptualise different fut
brain.

2) The orbitofrontal cortex


This is immediately above the eye sockets (orbits). It is closely connected wit
over our primitive motivational and emotional drives. It restricts our behaviou
acceptable levels.

Failure to visually recognise an object is called AGNOSIA.


There two main kinds of agnosia:
1) Apperceptive agnosia is strongly correlated with damage to the RIGHT p
in unusual orientations, or obscured by shadows, or otherwise viewed in an u

2) Associative agnosia. This is the inability to NAME an object or assign me


right hemisphere (parietal lobe) in order for object/background extraction to
be caused by a lesion in either hemisphere, as the information has to go thro

The first permanent incisor to erupt is typically the lower central incisor

Three differences between the maxillary central and lateral (permanent) incis
1) The crowns of the central incisors are typically wider and larger
2) The lingual fossa are deeper on the lateral incisors
3) The mesial angle is typically more of a sharp 90degree angle on the centra
4) The distal angle is typically more of a distinctly rounded on the laterals com

The mesial angles are more of a sharp 90degree, also the roots are typically

Three key differences between the mandibular central and lateral incisors inc
1) The laterals tyically are larger, but not always obviously so.
2) The central incisors typically are first to erupt
3) The lateral's crown is rotated towards the canines slightly
A few differences between the permanent and deciduous molars are (pick thr
The deciduous molars are larger than the permanent premolars which replac
The permanent molars are larger than the deciduous molars (i.e. they have la
The crowns or the deciduous teeth are more bulbous - this gives particular em
The deciduous teeth are less mineralised than the permanent teeth, so the cr
The roots of the deciduous molars are divergent, allowing space for the deve
The roots of the deciduous teeth are smaller and thinner typically

The process when the deciduous teeth are lost is known as exfoliation and th

Answer to (b) not available, not sure about this to confidently answer here

To answer part three of the SAQ, it is probably best to draw the deciduous an
there are no premolars in the primary dentition.
1 (central incisor) replaces a
2 (lateral incisor) replaces b
3 (canine) replaces c
4 (first premolar) replaces d
5 (second premolar) replaces e
6, 7, 8 do not replace any decidous teeth.

The parotid duct has a triangular/pyramidal shape. I would probably draw it o


Superior to the parotid gland is the EAM (external acoustic meatus) and the T
Anteriorly, the parotid gland overlies the mandible and overlies the masseter
Inferiorly it overflows the posterior belly of the digastric
Medially lies the styloid process and its msucles, which seperate the parotid g

The parotid duct that allows the flow of saliva into the oral cavity is known as
masseter muscle, then it pierces through the buccinator to enter the oral cav

The Parotid gland is surrounded by 2 capsules, the first is a connective tissue


the gland, ensuring the saliva output flows only into the mouth via stensen's

Structures that course through the parotid gland include:


The facial nerve (CN VII)
The retromandibular vein
The external carotid artery
The auriculotemporal nerve (a sub-branch of CN V3)
There is a loss of sensation as the sensory fibres of the nerve have been obst

Based on the information given, it seems most likelt that the affected cranial
mixed nerve (i.e. has both sensory and motor fibres)
There is motor innervation to the parotid gland through the parotid nerve ple

The muscles that are affected which are associated with the eye lid are those
supports eyelid protraction. The temporal and zygomatic branches of the fac
procerus, both of which secondarily contribute to upper eyelid protraction.

The muscles of the facial nerve affected that are responsible for helping to m

Clinical tests to carry out in order to assess the health and functioning of the
Test the motor functions by asking pt to close eyes, smile, frown, whistle, rais

Charting the 8 year old's dentition is a way of testing if we remember what te


teeth. This is the most likely - Permanent teeth will be the Maxillary and Mand

Room is made available for the permanent central incisors via primate spacin

The leeway space is the difference between the combined mesio-distal width
In the lower arch: 2mm per quadrant whereas in the upper arch: 1mm per qu
The Leeway space is present because the deciduous c, d, e are wider than th
mandibular arch).There is more space in the mandibular arch and this allows
the maxillary teeth to there being a biting overlap (with each mandibular too

The permanent molars are guided in to unit class II relation by the flush te
relation. Class I relation describes how the mandibular teeth are a little more
Ideal/desirable properties of dental material used in restorations include:
1) Longevity - will the restoration last a good amount of time or will it be sho
2) Aesthetics - ideally the restorations should match the natural tissue, be i
3) Strength - restorations such as crowns and bridges for example need to b
4) Thermal Conductvity - this needs to be similar to the thermal conductivi
very hot or cold things.
5) Biocompatibility - the restoration material should be relatively inert with
6) Chemically resistant - the material should be resistant to chemicals that
7) Dimensionally Stable - it is very important that the restoration material
moisture and expand, nor should it decrease in size (which would be far from

Laboratory tests (according to standards), include in-vitro testing of new mat


These are tests done ina lab, using the material to find out if it has the appro

This is different to clinical research of dental materials. International standard


Clinical research evaluates how well the material is at doing its job inside pat
effects in patients).

Laboratory research: test of new materials eg physico- mechanical and bio


Clinical research: evidence accurate and more efficacious depending on a n
Allergic dermatitis can be characterised by dermatoses which are allergic, as
inorganic or organic molecule that alone is not antigenic but which when link
The tissue develops antigens - by contact with dermal proteins (i.e. type IV d
produce an allergic reaction

Cobalt-chrome dentures, are a metal that has been known to be the cause fo
Inhalation of dust can cause allergic dermatitis: examples of materials - the p
mites)

Free (residual monomer) may cause a wide range of adverse effects eg: irrita
The free monomers may be present in the mouth as they are not incorporate

Hazards of monomers/polymers include:


During the polymerisation process, not all the monomers may be incorporate
important if it is a free radical polymersation process, since free radicals can
The patient may have an allergic reaction to the monomer/polymer
Over time the polymer may leach monomers into the systemic circulation, ca
The polymer might be carcinogenic and cause a localised carconima in the or
The patient can have a dermatoses
If there is a volatile methylmethacrylate monomer, it could cause the patient

Mechanical defences in the body include:


The skin is a mechanical barrier blocking entry of microbes
Flushing action of liquids: saliva, urine, Peristalsis of gut, Skin an impermea

Saliva: contains antibacterial components


Tears contain lysozyme that destroys microbes in the eyes
The acidic environement of the stomach will kill most microorganisms that ca

I believe in the 2012 cirriculum, we dont need to learn and remember examp
Microbes can be used in the production of some food and drinks (inc. brewing
They can also be important in medicine (e.g. antibiotics, insulin) as well as fo

Lactic acid and acetic acid bacteria (AAB) are the only families of bacteria fou
A good diagram to draw and annotate is below:

The immune response is divided into two phases


Primary response when the antigen is seen for the first time
The immune system takes longer to respond initially as the antibodies need t

Secondary response where repeated exposure (or vaccination) induces a m


This is a rapid response, the specific Abs are produced quickly from memory
Draw a nephron and describe the roles and functions at the diffferent regions
Regions to include and discuss are any transporters recalled and also the ma
afferent arterioles and there are mesngial cells in this region

Intrapleural presure (Ppl): is the pressure in the small amount of fluid betwee
Intrapleural pressure is usually negative with respect to the atmosphere (and

Intrapleural pressure becomes more negative to bring about inspiration.


Intrapleural pressure becomes less negative to lead to quiet expiration.
In forced expiration the intrapleural pressure becomes positive thus forcing

If the pluera is punctured, this is a pneumothorax. When it happens, air enter


collapse partially or completely. Pneumothorax can be either spontaneous or
EPIDERMIS:
Stratified Squamous Epithelium
Major cell type: keratinocyte

Four main layers


1. Stratum Basale, SB (basal layer)
2. Stratum Spinosum, SS (spinous layer)
3. Stratum Granulosum, SG (granular layer)
4. Stratum Corneum, SC (cornified layer)

The stratum basale is the cell type that is responsible for proliferation - it con
Stem cells ability for unlimited self-renewal
TAs have limited cell division before undergoing terminal differentiation

FIBROBLASTS - Most abundant cell in dermis - Responsible for repair the derm
LANGERHAN CELLS: Dendritic, Basal and spinous layers, Antigen presenting c
MERKEL CELLS: Located at the Stratum basale layer, Involved with sensory p
MAST CELLS: Found in the Dermis, Involved with the Immune response, Secre

Criteria to Define NTs:


1. The NT must be synthesised in the neuron
2. Storage of neurotransmitter or precursor in the presynaptic nerve terminal
3. Release of the NT into the synaptic cleft is CA2+-DEPENDENT RELEASE E
4. There must be a Mechanism of removal of transmitter from the synaptic cl
5. There must be a Mechanism to metabolise the neurotransmitter (MAO in th
6. Exogenous application of neurotransmitter mimics the action of endogenou
LAs blocks the sodium channel
They have a wide ranging effects on the nervous system

LA blocks the channel from the intracellular side, therefore must enter the ne
Increased lipophilicity is associated with increased potency, since the LA mor
LA bind most strongly to inactivated channels and so the proportion of inactiv
The more a nerve is stimulated the faster the onset of anaesthesia use dep
The LA works best on a fast acting neuron, which fires more because there is

Since LAs block the channel from the intracellular side, in order to penetrate

So the pH and pKa are critical. The majority are weak bases, (pKa 8-9). Inflam

Phenytoin:
It is used in all types of seizure except Petit Mal.
Also used as anti- dysrhythmic (i.e. for a heart condition)

Mechanism of action
a. Controls membrane excitability rather than synaptic transmission.
b. Blocks increase in Na+ conductance that is required for action potentials.
c. Use dependent blockade -- effectiveness increases with high rate discharge

USE-DEPENDENT - The greater the neuronal activity, the greater the blockade
Phenytoin is well absorbed orally, 80-90% plasma protein bound.
Readily displaced by salicylates, valproate --> increased toxicity.
Eliminated primarily by hepatic metabolism.
Metabolism/elimination processes exhibit saturation kinetics (zero order and
Therefore, there will be an accumulation of the drug in the body if too much i

Phenytoin is an enzyme inducer - It increases the metabolism of sex hormone

Adverse Effects: Megaloblastic anaemia (therefore folic acid given), Hirsutism


Diazepam is a Benzodiazepine
Used in Status Epilepticus -- life threatening.
Diazepam given intravenously acts fast however it is also a sedative.
Has muscle relaxing action.
The benefit of muscle relaxation is that the patient will be prevented from do

Mechanism of action.
Augments inhibitory action of GABA at GABAA receptors.
Increases frequency of opening

Maxillary central v.s. lateral:


lateral is smaller in size than max central
lateral has a more distinct lingual anatomy
lateral has presence of deeper lingual fossa
lateral has presence of lingual pit
Incisal outline more rounded on lateral
M and D outlines more rounded on lateral
Central incisor crown is more symmetrical relative to laterals
Central's root is less curved distally than the lateral

Mandibular Central v.s. Lateral:


Laterals have a wider crown (mesio-distallly)
Laterals have longer roots,
Centrals are more symmetrical than laterals

Left v.s. Right Incisor:


MI corner sharper than DI corner*
Mesial height of contour more incisal than distals*
Distal outline more convex*
Apex deflected distally
Striae of Retzius:
Although the surface enamel is aprismatic, the incremental striae of Retzius r
junction.
The perikymata grooves are separated from each other by the wave-like peri

Hunter Scchreger Bands:


They are groups of enamel rods decussate (cross over/intersect)
Hunter Schreger bands are an optical phenomenon observed in mammalian t

Enamel Spindles:
These are narrow, round, sometimes club-shaped tubules.
They can extend up to 25um into the enamel
They are not aligned with prisms and are thought to be the result of odonto

Enamel Lamellae:
These are sheet-like, apparent faults that run through the entire thickness o
They are hypomineralised and narrower, longer and less common than ena
Cemento-Enamel Junction (CEJ):
3 arrangements of the junction between cementum & enamel

Pattern 1 - cementum overlaps (60% predominant arrangement)


Pattern 2 - C & E meet and join (30%)
Pattern 3 - C & E fail to meet (10%) (Sensitivity with the slightest root exposu
The term usually applied to the process by which a bacterial isolate is assigne

Typing:
The term given to the process by which different strains of a particular bacte

Isolating Bacteria:
To answer this, describe the processes taking place in the diagrams below an
NOTE: THE NOTES BELOW ARE MUCH MORE THAT WOULD BE NEEDED TO GA
THAN 10 POSSIBLE MARKS AVAIALBLE
The trigeminal nerve is the fifth cranial nerve - CN V - it is the largest cranial
Its nuclei are present in the anterior pons, the senory root is relatively large c
It has three main branches: CNV1 (ophthalmic), CNV2 (maxillary), CNV3 (man

Ophthalmic Division (CNV1):


This is purely sensory, it leaves the skull via the superior orbital fissure and e
The main branches of it are the frontal nerve (which become the supratrochle
anterior/posterior ethmoid nerves
It provides sensory innervation for mucosa of the nose, the skin of the forehe

Maxillary Division (CNV2):


This is purely sensiry, it leaves the skull via the foramen rotundum and the m
this are the nasopalatine, greater/lesser palatine nerves.
It provides sensory innervations from the lower eyelids, zygomae and the upp

Mandibular Division (CNV3):


This is a mixed division, which has both sensory and motor roots. It leaves th
lingual, inferior alveolar nerves and the nerves for the masticatory muscles (M
The auriculutemporal nerve branch has secretomotor fibres to the parotid gla
It provides sensory innervation of the auriculotemporal region (external acou
the mouth
The motor nerve branch of CNV3 innervates the masticatory muscles (masse
Boundaries of the Nasal Cavity:
Medially (the nasal septum): this is oriented vertically in the median sagg
Septum conists of: septal cartilage, vertical plate of ethmoid bone, vomer
Floor: palatine process of the maxilla, and the horizontal plate of the palatin
Roof: This is narrow, it is formed by the cribriform plate fo the ethmoid bone

Arteries of the Nasal Cavity:


branches of the maxillary artery, the main supply is from the sphenopalatine
Septal branch from the facial artery
Ethmoidal branches from the ophthalmic artery

Innervation for the nasal cavity:


Sensory nerves from the ophthalmic (CNV1) and maxillary (CNV2) branches o
Olfactory nerve (CN I) - this is the nerve that provides the special sense of sm

Functional importance of the paranasal air sinuses:


They make the skull lighter as they are filled with air
They act as resonating chambers for the voice
They increase the surface area of the nasal mucous membrane, and therefor
Spatial summation occurs when excitatory potentials from many different p
Temporal summation occurs when a single presynaptic neuron fires many

As an analogy, spatial summation is like using many shovels to fill up a hole a


(the postsynaptic neuron reaches its action potential threshold).

UMN lesion can be in CNS only, whereas a LMN lesion can be in the CNS or PN
When lower motor neurones are damaged tone is reduced or becomes com
Many lesions of upper motor neurones produce syndromes where there a

Dermatome: A dermatome is an area of skin that is mainly supplied by a sin


Receptive Field: The receptive field of an individual sensory neuron is the p
neuron. Receptive fields of individual nerve fibres overlap, so that damage to

Buffers are chemical compounds that help stabilise the pH of a solution by re


Usually a solution of a weak acid and its conjugate base (salt) act as a buffer.
Biological fluids have endogenous buffers
The weak acid, acetic acid (CH3COOH) and its salt, sodium acetate (CH3COO
If H+ are added: CH3COO- + H+ CH3COOH
If OH- are added: OH- + H+ H2O

Biological Buffers include:


Haemoglobin: Hb + H+ --> HHb (Interior of RBCs)
Proteins Prot + H+ --> HProt (Intracellular Fluid)
Phosphate HPO42- + H+ --> H2PO4- (Intracellular Fluid)
BICARBONATE* CO2H2CO3 HCO3- Blood plasma (and other interstitial fluids

Buffer in oral cavity responsible for maintaining pH 6.3 is Bicarbonate ions


The critical pH is normally in the region of pH 5.2-5.5 depending on the partic
As the fluid surrounding of the tooth becomes increasingly acidic a point is re
mineral will begin to dissolve.
Glucose is degraded to pyruvate but not fully oxidized (anaerobic glycolysis).
(from glycogen or blood glucose). The lactate enters gluconeogenesis to be r
It is important to generate glucose in the fasted state via gluconeogenesis pa

Glycogen is not converted to glucose in skeletal muscle because the skeletal

TRANSLATION:
In molecular biology and genetics, translation is the process in which cellular
ribosome to produce a specific amino acid chain, or polypeptide.

Three features that can be used to answer part (b) are:


1) mRNA - single stranded RNA molecule, made up of nucleotides (A,U,C,G) t
2) tRNA - single stranded RNA molecule in a clover-leaf like strucuture, with a
3) Ribosomes - cytosolic organelles, the site where translation takes place, us
4) aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase - the enzyme that binds an amino acid to the t

Degeneracy of the Genetic Code:


Only 20 different amino acids are commonly found in proteins, so the decodin
There are 4^3 possible triplet codons, therefore 64 possible triplet sequences
Main inhibitory NT in brain is GABA, it acts by binding to GABA receptors, whi
hyperpolarise and this action inhibits the nerve.

Benzodiazepines work by binding to the a BDZ binding site on the GABA rece
Stations
Describe the parts and function of the dental chair
Chart teeth
Identify surfaces and function of teeth
Set up bay
Identify bits of equipment from the dental kit
Dental Materials Practical: Mix alginate and answer a question e.g
4 handed dentistry
LA needle
Ask for consent doing a survey
Wash hands
Blood pressure (and ulnar and radial pulse)
Reporting Problems with bay
Respiratory - Peak Flow
Isolation Techniques: Rubber Dams, Cotton Wool, Triguard, Gauze et
Identify hard tissues in oral cavity

Below are the 2016 OSCE Stations


STATION: Acid Attack Role Play
Instructions for station: Mr/Mrs Jones have come in and you have di
for this appointments). Assume that you have already talked with th
discuss the fact that their chart shows they drink 5/6 cans of Diet C
STATION: STATION: Obtaining Consent (Role Play)
Instructions: You are about to talk with a person as you want to obta
they made to the dentist to find out what their experience was like

Role play actor involved, she asked me:


"Is the conversation going to be confidential ?"
"May I have a copy of the tape after we talk?"
STATION: Setting up a bay
We had to switch on the dental chair (switches in wall and on chair)
Then wipe down dirt zone, replace gloves then wipe the chair etc
We had to position the chair and move the foot switches from under
STATION: Charting Teeth
We are given a model of the maxillary arch of teeth with various thi
Charting included:
Stainless steel crown
Amalgam filling
Composite fillings
Missing teeth
Fractured incisor
Caries
STATION: Local Anaesthetic Set up
Set up and dismantle LA cartridge
No need for gloves
STATION: Mixing Alginate
Instructions only state we need to use two parts of Alginate
Therefore we need to know it's always one part Alginate for one par
Once mixed we got asked: what difference would there be (if any) if
STATION: Identifying Dental Instruments
Instructions: We have been told to teach a new dental nurse studen
We should identify each instrument by name then give one use for i
Then we need to place all instruments back into the kit and close
College Tweezers
Flat Plastic
Straight Probe
Williams Probe/BPE probe
Dental Mirror
STATION: Identification of Teeth
There is a model of the maxillary dentition and there are two markin
For the two marked teeth we had to identify:
Which tooth it was is? I.e. Maxillary (upper) central incisor (left or
What surface of the tooth is the dot on? (Eg. Palatal/buccal)
STATION: Obtaining Consent (Role Play)
Instructions: You are about to talk with a person as you want to obta
they made to the dentist to find out what their experience was like
STATION: Measuring Blood Pressure
Systolic Blood Pressure station using a Sphyngamomometer
Actor in dental chair
Instructions said:
"You are taking the systolic blood pressure of a patient on a routine
removed under GA"
Then tell examiner what the BP was
STATION: Disposal of waste in the appropriate places
Instructions: You have just seen a patient and applied a fluoride var
you must now properly dispose of then items you used.
Items that were on the tray:
Apron and mask - clinical waste
Tooth floss -- clinical waste
Disposable yellow small tray for the fluoride varnish
Disposable brush (that was used to apply the fluoride varnish) -- c
Disposable dental instrument -- put these in sharps
STATION: Finger Rests, Correct Postural Positioning
Instructions: we need to use indirect vision to asses the occlusal sur
We are examined on our use of the dental mirror, proper finger rest
We also get marks for remembering to use the light and moving the
examining the UR4 of the phantom head
Questions:

What is Evidence based dentistry?

What is the purpose of EBD?

What is a cohort study?

What type of information does a database include?

PICO etc

What is the IMRAD structure for clinical questions (5 marks)


What are 5 types of study and list them in hierarchical order (5 mar
Describe five studies types and discuss how they are designed (10 m
What is the difference between a risk factor question and a prevalen
question (2/3 marks)
What are the 5 steps a dentist/clinician takes when implementing e
based dentistry (5 marks)
Read the case scenario and answer all four sections below. Each sec
carries 10 marks and you should spend about 10 minutes on each s

Case Scenario
"Mrs Jones is aged 75. She has recently had her teeth treated by a d
student six months ago at the Royal London Hospital. She has now
appointment for a routine check-up. She is nervous coming to the d
but enjoys being treated by students."

You will consider this case under the following headings:

Professionalism (10marks):
List seven professional responsibilities that you have toward Mrs Jon
should refer to General Dental councils standards and principles) (7
What are the three main roles of the General Dental Council? (3 ma
Teamwork (10marks):
What do you understand by the term scope of practice (2 marks)
List two key tasks for each of these team members-
Dental hygienists (2 marks)
Dental therapists (2 marks)
Dental nurses (2marks)
Why is teamwork important in healthcare? (2marks)

Communication Skills (10marks):


1. List four possible communication challenges when speaking to an
patient? (4 marks)
2. How would you seek to overcome each of these? (4 marks)
3. Why is it important to build a good relationship with Mrs Jones? (2
Social Responsibility (10 marks):
1. What do you understand by the term social responsibility? (2 m
2. How would this understanding of your local community help yo
ensure access to dental care for Mrs Jones as she grows older? (8ma

Read the case scenario and answer all four sections below. Each sec
carries 10 marks and you should spend about 10 minutes on each s

Scenario from 2016 PTSR Exam


"Mrs Begum is a 60 year old lady patient who coming into the denta
at Whitechapel and is nervous about coming in for her next dental
appointment in which it is planned for her to have a tooth extracted
come loose and cannot be saved.
What are two factors that hinder good communication and what are
factors that are important for good communication (4marks)
Why is teamwork important for the dental team (2 marks)
Define social responsibility (2 marks)

Briefly discuss how social responsibility is important for Mrs Begum


old lady from the scenario) and how it will ensure she gets access to
care as she grows older (8 marks)
Define Scope of Practice (2 marks)

Who are two dental professional members of the team and describe
skills they must have (4 marks)
If Mrs Begum said: "I'm very nervous that I'm going to be in a lot of
when you pull my tooth out" - how would you respond using good
communication (2/3 marks)
Answers:

Evidence-based dentistry (EBD) uses current scientific evidence to g


approach to oral health that requires the application and examinatio
the patient's oral and medical health. Along with the dentist's profe
dentists to stay up to date on the latest procedures and patients to
To allow the clinician to make decisions which have sound scientific
and successful - the ultimate aim is to treat patients in the best way
assess all the available evidence
A cohort study is one in which a group of subjects, selected to repre
over time. Much like a cross-sectional study, information is collected
exposure to risk factors, but in cohort studies subjects are followed
All sorts of info, this could be answered easily> just discuss the jour
publication, etc etc etc
Formulate information needs/questions into four part questions to id
mnemonically as the PICO questions.
Patient/problem (P)
Intervention (I)
Comparison (C)
Outcomes (O)
In the past scientific reporting was more informal; the structure read
narrative of the author's experiences and findings. It became appa
reading of papers should be introduced. Around the 1950's the IMR
reporting into distinct sections:
Introduction
Methods
Results
and Discussion
Questions
Where will you find the guidelines outlining the
responsibilities of practice? (1)
Name the members of the dental team required to be
registered with the GDC (5)
How often must they register with the GDC? (1)
Name 3 other members of the dental team that do not
need to register with the GDC (3)
Learn the roles of each different member of the dental
team.

Learn the 9 GDC principles all registered dental


professionals must keep at all times:

What are the three main roles of the GDC (3 marks)


What are the roles of the GDC and how do they put these
into practice
Answers

GDC website
Dentists, dental nurses, dental hygeinists, dental therapists, dental
orthodontic therapists
Every 5 years providing the requored CPD has been done

Receptionists, Practice managers, oral health promoters


Refer to the GDC scope of practice PDF document that can be found
outlines each team member's roles extensively.
1) Put Patient's Interests First
2) Communicate effectively with patients
3) Obtain Valid Consent
4) Maintain and protect patient's information
5) Have a clear and effective complaints procedure
6) Work with colleagues in a way that is in the patient's best interes
7) Maintain, develop and work within your professional knowledge a
8) Raise concerns if patients are at risk
9) Make sure your personal behaviour maintains patient's confidenc
the dental profession
The GDC is tasked with:
o Ensuring that all dental professionals maintain up to date knowled
o Controlling the quality of dental education in the country
o Ensuring a proper quality of care is given to the patients
o Helping any patient who has questions or complaints
Below are some notes on the Spotter Exam:

The Spotter exam is not a separate exam, it is a sub-section of the fi


It is a multiple choice style section.
It is all on paper, using the standard multiple choice pink answer sh
There are 40 questions in total each question revolves around an im
The images are on printed paper but they are printed in high quality
it.
The images can be literally any picture that has been used in any le
It is a mixed bag based on the 2016 questions, some are very easy
difficult ones should be answerable since you have 5 answer option
even it comes down to being an educated guess.
To reassure you, the question will always sepcify what it is an image
especially if they are microanatomy images!

Below are some of the images I remember seeing in t


Questions showing a diagram of deciduous teeth and there were two SBAs on
Diagram showing the DNA and RNA viruses (taken from one of Prof Alaker's le
Diagram showing the skull side and we had to identify the bone that there wa
Arrow pointing to the Sphenoid bone(superior view) and we had to identify th
Diagram of teeth (maxillary and mandibular) and we had to identify the corre
Diagram of a developing mandible and we had to identify the cell type (micro
Diagram of a bile duct and we had to identify the epithelial cell type
Diagram showing a local anaesthetic from which we had to identify which ner
Diagram of a tooth and we had to identify the arrow pointing to the odontobl
pts at 18 months

n was into the anterior region of the palate)