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J & K CET

Medical Entrance Exam

Solved Paper 2013

Physics
1. Which of the following physical quantity (a) 19.6 m/s (b) 9.8 m/s
unit is not a fundamental unit? (c) 4.9 m/s (d) 1 m/s
(a) Length (b) Mass
(c) Magnetic field (d) Current 7. Newtons second law of motion is
(a) F = dp / dt (b) F = mv
2. The dimensional formula of electric (c) F = mv 2 (d) F = m2 v
potential is
(a) ML2 T3 A 1 (b) M1L2 T2 A 8. The centripetal force is given by the
(c) M1L2 T2 A 1 (d) ML2 T2 A expression
Mv 2 M2v Mv Mv
3. The motion of a particle in straight line is (a) (b) (c) (d)
R R R2 R
an example of
(a) constant velocity motion 9. Uniform circular motion is an example of
(b) uniformly accelerated motion (a) constant speed motion
(c) non-uniformly accelerated motion (b) constant velocity motion
(d) zero velocity motion (c) non-accelerated motion
(d) zero accelerated motion
4. The velocity vector of the motion described
by the position vector of a particle, 10. The scalar product of two vectors
\$ and B = \$j + k
A = 2\$i + 2\$j k \$ , is given by
r = 2t i\$ + t2 \$j is given by
(a) V = 2 \$i + 2t \$j (b) V = 2t \$i + 2t \$j (a) A B = 3 (b) A B = 4
(c) V = t \$i + t 2 \$j (d) V = 2 \$i + t 2 \$j (c) A B = 4 (d) A B = 3

5. The velocity-time graph of particle comes 11. The linear momentum is conserved in
(a) elastic collisions (b) inelastic collisions
out to be a non-linear curve. The motion is
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) uniform velocity motion
(b) uniformly accelerated motion 12. The power (P) of an engine lifting a mass of
(c) non-uniform accelerated motion 100 kg upto a height of 10 m in 1 min is
(d) nothing can be said about the motion (a) P = 163.3 W
(b) P = 9800 W
6. A projectile is thrown with initial velocity
(c) P = 10000 W
v0 and angle 30 with the horizontal. If it
remains in the air for 1 s, what was its (d) P = 5000 W
initial velocity?
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13. The conservation of angular momentum 21. There are two

demands that identical small holes
(a) the external force on the system must be zero on the opposite sides
(b) the external torque on the system must be zero of a tank containing h
(c) both the external force as well as the external a liquid. The tank is
torque must be zero open at the top. The
(d) neither of them must be zero difference in height
between the two holes is h. As the liquid
14. The moment of inertia (I) and the angular comes out of the two holes, the tank will
momentum (L) are related by the experience a net horizontal force
expression proportional to
(a) I = L (b) L = I (a) h (b) h
(c) L = I 2 (d) = LI (c) h3 / 2 (d) h2
where is the angular velocity.
22. The zeroth law of thermodynamics for three
15. The moment of inertia (I) of a sphere of systems A, B and C in contact demands that
radius R and mass M is given by (a) A and B are in thermal equilibrium
(a) I = MR 2 (b) I = (1 / 2 ) MR 2 (b) B and C are in thermal equilibrium
(c) I = (4 / 3) MR 2 (d) I = (2 / 5) MR 2 (c) A and C are in thermal equilibrium
(d) A, B and C are in thermal equilibrium
16. The universal law of gravitation is the force
law known also as the 23. The efficiency of a Carnot engine kept at
(a) triangular law (b) square law the temperatures of 27C and 127C is
(c) inverse square law (d) parallelogram law (a) 20% (b) 25%
(c) 30% (d) 40%
17. The value of acceleration due to gravity at
the surface of earth 24. The average pressure of an ideal gas is
2
(a) is maximum at the poles (a) p = (1 / 3) mnVav.
(b) is maximum at the equator (b) p = (1 / 2 ) mnVav.
(c) remains constant everywhere on the surface of 2
(c) p = (1 / 4) mnVav.
the earth
(d) p = (1 / 3) mnVav.
(d) is maximum at the intenational timeline
where symbols have their usual meanings.
18. The escape velocity of a particle from the
surface of the earth is given by 25. According to equipartition law of energy
(a) (gR )1/ 2
(b) (2 gR )1/ 2 each particle in a system of particles have
(c) (3gR ) 1/ 2
(d) (gR /2 ) 2 thermal energy E equal to
(a) E = kBT (b) E =(1 / 2 ) kBT
19. The Youngs modulus of a rope of 10 m (c) E = 3 kBT (d) E =(3 / 2 ) kBT
length and having diameter of 2 cm is
200 1011 dyne/cm 2 . If the elongation 26. The velocity of sound in a gas is 1300 m/s at
produced in the rope is 1 cm, the force STP and specific heat at constant pressure
applied on the rope is is 6.84 cal K 1 mol 1. The rms velocity at
(a) 6.28 105 N (b) 6.28 104 N STP is ( R = 1.98 cal K 1 mol 1)
4
(c) 6.28 10 dyne (d) 6.28 105 dyne (a) 1300 m/s (b) 2600 m/s
(c) 1898 m/s (d) 650 m/s
20. The pressure exerted at any point in an
enclosed fluid is transmitted equally in all 27. The time period of a simple pendulum of
directions. This is known as length 9.8 m is
(a) Archimedes principle (b) Law of floatation (a) 0.159 s (b) 3.14 s
(c) Pascals law (d) Bernoullis principle (c) 6.5 s (d) 6.28 s
J&K CET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 | 3

28. The displacement, velocity and acceleration in 34. A hollow sphere of radius 0.1 m has a
a simple harmonic motion are related as the charge of 5 108 C. The potential at a
(a) displacement, velocity and acceleration all act in distance of 5 cm from the centre of the
the same direction 1
(b) displacement and velocity act in the same sphere is = 9 109 Nm 2 C2
direction but acceleration in the opposite
4 0
direction (a) 4000 V (b) 4500 V
(c) velocity and acceleration are parallel and both (c) 5000 V (d) 6000 V
are perpendicular to the displacement
(d) displacement and acceleration are antiparallel 35. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance
and both perpendicular to the velocity 5 microfarad is charged to 120 V and then
connected to another uncharged capacitor.
29. The beats are the examples of If the potential falls to 40 V, and
(a) simple harmonic motion capacitance of the second capacitor is
(b) interference of two or more waves having same (a) 5 microfarad (b) 10 microfarad
amplitude but slightly different frequencies in the (c) 15 microfarad (d) 20 microfarad
same direction
(c) interference of two or more waves having 36. Two identical capacitors are first connected
different amplitude but same frequencies in the in series and then in parallel. The ratio of
same direction equivalent capacitance is
(d) interference of two or more waves having same (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 4
amplitude out slightly different frequencies in the
perpendicular direction 37. An electron revolves in a circle at the rate of
1019 rounds per second. The equivalent
30. The fundamental frequency of an open pipe current is ( e = 1.6 1019 C)
of length 1 m, if the speed of sound in air is (a) 1.0 A (b) 1.6 A
340 m/s is (c) 2.0 A (d) 2.6 A
(a) 340 Hz (b) 170 Hz
(c) 680 Hz (d) 85 Hz 38. A silver wire of radius 0.1 cm carries a
current of 2A. If the charge density in silver
31. A whistle with frequency 1020 Hz is blown is 5.86 1028 m 3, the drift velocity is
at a station. A man travelling in train (a) 0.2 103 m/s (b) 0.4 104 m/s
moving towards the station at 30 m/s hears (c) 0.68 104 m/s (d) 7 104 m/s
the sound of the whistle. If the speed of
sound is 340 m/s, the apparent frequency 39. A 1 m long wire of diameter of 0.31 mm has
heard by him is a resistance of 4.2 . If it is replaced by
(a) 1020 Hz (b) 1110 Hz another wire of same material of length
(c) 2040 Hz (d) 610 Hz 1.5 m and diameter 0.155 mm, the
resistance of wire is
32. An electric charge does not have which of
(a) 25.2 (b) 0.6
hte following properties?
(c) 26.7 (d) 0.8
(a) Total charge conservation
(b) Quantization of charge 40. 24 cells of emf 1.5 V each having internal
(c) Two type of charge resistance of 1 ohm are connected to an
(d) Circular line of force external resistance of 1.5 ohms. To get
maximum current
33. The net electric force on a charge of +3C at
(a) all cells are connected in series combination
the mid-point on the line joining two
(b) all cells are connected in parallel combination
charges of magnitude +2 C and 2 C
(c) 4 cells in each row are connected in series and 6
separated by the distance of 6 mm, is
such rows are connected in parallel
(a) 6000 N (b) 500 N
(d) 6 cells in each row are connected in series and 4
(c) 60 N (d) zero
such rows are connected in parallel
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41. The temperature coefficient of the 48. The induced emf in a coil of 10 H inductance
resistance of a wire is 0.00125 per C. At in which current varies from 9 A to 4 A in
300 K its resistance is 1 . The resistance of 0.2 s is
wire will be 2 at (a) 200 V (b) 250 V
(a) 1154 K (b) 1100 K (c) 300 V (d) 350 V
(c) 1400 K (d) 1127 K
49. The alternating current in a circuit is given
42. A long straight wire is carrying a current of by I = 50 sin 314 t. The peak value and
12 A. The magnetic field at a distance of frequency of the current are
8 cm is ( 0 = 4 107 N/ A 2 ) (a) I0 = 25 A and f = 100 Hz
(a) 2 104 Wb / m2 (b) 3 105 Wb / m2 (b) I0 = 50 A and f = 50 Hz
(c) 4 104 Wb / m2 (d) 4 105 Wb / m2 (c) I0 = 50 A and f = 100 Hz
(d) I0 = 25 A and f = 50 Hz
43. The magnetic field at a point on the axis of a
long solenoid having 5 turns per cm length 50. A 50 Hz AC signal is applied in a circuit of
when a current of 0.8 A flows through it is inductance of (1/ ) H and resistance
(a) 5.024 10 8 2
Wb / m
2100 . The impedance offered by the
circuit is
(b) 6.024 108 Wb / m2 (a) 1500 (b) 1700
(c) 7.024 108 Wb / m2 (c) 2102 (d) 2500
(d) 8.024 108 Wb / m2
51. If the alternating current
44. Two straight wires each 10 cm long are I = I1 cos t + I2 sin t then the rms
parallel to one another and separated by current is given by
I1 + I2 | I1 + I2 |
2 cm. When the current flowing in them is (a) (b)
30 A and 40 A respectively, the force 2 2
experienced by either of the wires is I12 + I22 I12 + I22
(a) 1.2 103 N (b) 12 103 N (c) (d)
2 2
(c) 11.2 103 N (d) 10.2 103 N
52. The transverse nature of electromagnetic
45. The horizontal and vertical components of waves is proved by which of the following?
earths magnetic field at a place are 0.3 G (a) Interference phenomena
and 0.52 G. The earths magnetic field and (b) Diffraction phenomena
the angle of dip are (c) Dispersion phenomena
(a) 0.3 G and = 30 (b) 0.4 G and = 40 (d) Polarization phenomena
(c) 0.5 G and = 50 (d) 0.6 G and = 60
53. Which component of electromagnetic
46. A bar magnet of pole strength 10 Am is cut spectrum have maximum wavelength?
into two equal parts breadthwise. The pole (a) Radio waves (b) Visible spectrum
strength of each magnet is (c) Gamma rays (d) X-rays
(a) 5 Am (b) 10 Am (c) 15 Am (d) 20 Am
54. An object is 8 cm high. It is desired to form a
47. A conductor of length 5 cm is moved real image 4 cm high at 60 cm from the
parallel to itself with a speed of 2 m/s, mirror. The type of mirror needed with the
perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field focal length is
of 103 Wb /m 3. The induced e.m.f. (a) convex mirror with focal length f = 40 cm
generated is (b) convex mirror with focal length f = 20 cm
(a) 2 103 V (b) 1 103 V (c) concave mirror with focal length f = 40 cm
4
(c) 1 10 V (d) 2 104 V (d) concave mirror with focal length f = 20 cm
J&K CET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 | 5

55. When an object is placed 40 cm from a 62. The Brewsters law is given by the
diverging lens, its virtual image is formed expression
20 cm from the lens. The focal length and sin i
(a) = (b) = tan p
power of lens are sin r
(a) F = 20 cm, P = 5 D (c) = cos (d) = sin
(b) F = 40 cm, P = 5D
(c) F = 40 cm, P = 2.5 D 63. Einsteins photoelectric equation is
(d) F = 20 cm, P = 2.5 D (a) Emax = h (b) E = mc 2
1
56. A magnifying glass of focal length 5 cm is (c) E 2 = p2c 2 + m02c 4 (d) E = mv 2
2
used to view an object by a person whose
smallest distance of distinct vision is 25 cm. 64. The Davission-Germer experiment is the
If he holds the glass close to eye, the direct evidence of
magnification is (a) particle nature of electrons
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 2.5 (d) 3 (b) wave nature of electrons
(c) wave nature of light
57. A person has a minimum distance of
distinct vision as 50 cm. The power of lenses (d) particle nature of light
required to read a book at a distance of 65. The Rutherford scattering experiment
25 cm is
porves that an atom consists of
(a) 3 D (b) 1 D
(a) a sphere of positive charge in which electrons
(c) 2 D (d) 4 D
are embedded like seeds of water-melon
58. If two slits in Youngs experiment are (b) a sphere of negative charge in which protons are
0.4 mm apart and fringe width on a screen embedded like seeds of water-melon
200 cm away is 2 mm the wavelength of (c) a sphere of electron cloud in which the positive
light illuminating the slits is charge in placed at the centre of the sphere
(a) 500 nm (b) 600 nm (d) a sphere of neutral charge
(c) 400 nm (d) 300 nm 66. According to Bohr model of hydrogen atom,
59. Electric field strength due to a diple at a only those orbits are permissible which
point on the axial line of dipole is satisfy the condition
(a) from positive charge to negative charge mv 2 h
(a) mv = nh (b) = n
(b) from negative charge to positive charge r 2
(c) along the equatorial line h h
(c) mvr = n (d) mvr 2 = n
(d) at an angle to axial line 2 2

60. The distance of moon form the earth is 67. The radioactive decay of thorium ( A = 232,
3.8 105 km. Supposing that the eye is Z = 90) releases six alpha and four beta
most sensitive to the light of wavelength
particles. The atomic number and mass
550 nm, the separation of two points on the
number of the final product is
moon that can be resolved by a 500 cm
telescope is (a) Z = 80, A = 207
(a) 50 m (b) 55 m (b) Z = 82, A = 208
(c) 51 m (d) 60 m (c) Z = 92, A = 209
(d) Z = 90, A = 207
61. Unpolarized light falls on two polarizing
sheets placed one on top of other. If the 68. Polonium has a half-life of 140 days. If we
intensity of transmitted light is one fourth take 20 g of polonium initially then the
of the incident light, the angle between amount of it that remains after 280 days is
them is (a) 2.5 g (b) 5 g
(a) 35 (b) 40 (c) 45 (d) 50 (c) 10 g (d) 15 g
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69. Based on the band theory of conductors, 73. The length of antenna (L) required to
insulators and semi-conductors, the propagate a signal of wavelength is given
forbidden gap is smallest in as
(a) conductors (b) insulators
(a) L = (b) L = 2
(c) semi-conductors (d) All of these 2

(c) L = (d) L =
70. Based on the I-V characteristics of the 3 4
diode, we can classify diode as
(a) bi-directional device (b) ohmic device
74. The modulation is the process in which the
(a) modulating signal is sent by antenna in the air
(c) non-ohmic device (d) passive element
(b) carrier signal is sent by the antenna in the air
71. The Boolean expression for the XOR gate is (c) modulated signal formed by the mixing of
(a) Y = A + B (b) Y = A B modulating signal with the carrier signal is sent
(c) Y = AB BA (d) Y = A B by the antenna
(d) modulated signal formed by the mixing of
72. Which of the following logic gates are also modulating signal with the carrier signal is
known as the Universal gates? received by a receiver antenna
(a) AND, OR, NOT gate
75. The demodulator or detector circuit
(b) XOR, XNOR gate
consists of a
(c) NAND, NOR gate
(a) resistor (b) transistor
(d) All logic gates
(c) diode (d) capacitor

Chemistry
1. Which of the following would contain the (a) 6.2 108 m
same number of atoms as 20 g of calcium? (b) 7.25 108 m
[At. masses : Ca = 40, Mg = 24, C = 12]
(c) 6.25
(a) 24 g of magnesium (b) 12 g of carbon
(d) None of the above
(c) 24 g of carbon (d) 12 g of magnesium
6. Which of the following pairs is not correctly
2. 100 mL of 1 N H2SO4 is mixed with 100 mL
matched?
of 1 M NaOH solution. The resulting
solution will be (a) Hunds rule In orbitals of equivalent
(a) highly acidic (b) neutral energy electron spins remain
unpaired if possible
(c) highly basic (d) slightly acidic
(b) Paulis exclusion No two electrons can have all
principle the four quantum numbers
3. The bond order of N2+
on the basis of identical
molecular orbital theory is [Atomic number (c) Zeeman effect The effect of magnetic field
of N = 7] on the atomatic spectra
(a) 3 (b) 2.5 (c) 2 (d) 1.5 (d) Uncertainty It is impossible to determine
principle the position of an electron
4. What is the total number of electrons that
can have the values n = 2, l = 1, s = 1/ 2 in 7. The orbital diagram in which Aufbau
the electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2 p3 ? principle is violated is
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7 2s 2p 2s 2p
(a) (b)
5. Calculate the wavelength associated with
an electron moving with a velocity of 106 m/s 2s 2p 2s 2p
(mass of electron = 9.1 1031 kg, (c) (d)
34
h = 6.6 10 kg m 2 s 1)
J&K CET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 | 7

8. The [OH] in a solution is 1 mol L1. The pH 15. Which of the following solutions will have
of the solution is the highest boiling point?
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 14 (d) 1014 (a) 1 M glucose solution
(b) 1 M sodium nitrate solution
9. The solubility of Fe(OH) 3 is x mol L1. Its (c) 1 M barium chloride solution
K sp would be (d) 1 M aluminium chloride solution
(a) 9 x3 (b) 3 x4 (c) 27 x4 (d) 9 x4
16. Which of the following is a colligative
10. In which of the following reactions, property?
increase in pressure will favour the forward (a) Lowering of vapour pressure
reaction? (b) Osmotic pressure
(a) PCl 5 (g )
PCl 3 (g ) + Cl 2 (g ) (c) Boiling point
(b) 2NO(g ) + O 2 (g ) 2NO 2 (g ) (d) Change in entropy

(c) C(s ) + H2O(g )

CO(g ) + H2 (g ) 17. vant Hoff factor for Ca(NO3)2 is
(a) 1 (b) 2
(d) 2HI(g )
H2 ( g ) + I 2 ( g ) (c) 3 (d) 4

11. Which of the following is a Lewis acid? 18. What will be the freezing point of
(a) BF4 (b) OH 1% solution of glucose in water, given that
(c) AlCl 3 (d) RNH2 molal depression constant for water is
1.84 K mol 1
12. According to collision theory of chemical (a) 272.898 K (b) 0.102C
reactions rates of the reaction increase with (c) 273 K (d) 0.108C
increase in the temperature of a reaction
because of 19. If H and S are positive for a reaction, the
(a) increase in the velocity of the reacting molecules reaction will be spontaneous only when
(b) increase in the number of collisions (a) TS = H (b) TS > H
(c) increase in the number of molecules having the (c) TS < H (d) TS is negative
activation energy (threshold energy) 20. Calculate the enthalpy change for the
(d) None of the above reaction,
13. Consider the reaction, C2H4 ( g) + H2 ( g) C2H 6 ( g)
2N2O5 ( g) 4NO2 ( g) + O2 ( g) using the data given below
The rate law for this reaction is C2H4 ( g) + 3O2 ( g) 2CO2 ( g) + 2H2O( l)
rate = k[N2O5 ]. H = 1415 kJ
7
Which of the following statements is true C2H 6 ( g) + O2 ( g) 2CO2 ( g) + 3H2O
regarding the above reaction? 2
(a) Its order is 1 and molecularity is 1 H = 1566 kJ
1
(b) Its order is 1 and molecularity is 2 H2 ( g) + O2 ( g) H2O( l); H = 286 kJ
(c) Its order is 2 and molecularity is 2 2
(d) Its order is 2 and molecularity is 1 (a) 437 kJ (b) 135 kJ
(c) 135 kJ (d) None of these
14. A catalyst is a substance which
21. In thermodynamics, a quantity whose
(a) increases the rate of forward reaction in
reversible reaction
value simply depends upon the initial and
final state of the system is called
(b) increases the rate of both forward and backward
reaction in a reversible reaction (a) a thermodynamic quantity
(c) does not influence a reversible reaction (b) a state function
(c) an adiabatic quantity
(d) increases the rate of backward reaction in a
reversible reaction. (d) a path function
8 | J&K CET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

22. All naturally occurring processes proceed 29. When a cation leaves its normal position in
spontaneously in a direction which leads to the crystal and moves to some interstitial
(a) increase in enthalpy of system space, the defect in the crystal is known as
(b) decrease in entropy of system (a) Schottky defect
(c) decrease in free energy of system (b) F-centre
(d) increase in free energy of system (c) Frenkel defect
(d) non-stoichiometric defect
23. When an electrolytic solution conducts
electricity, the current is carried by 30. Fog is a colloidal system of
(a) the electrons (a) gas in liquid (b) liquid in gas
(b) cations and anions (c) gas in gas (d) gas in solid
(c) neutral molecules
(d) the atoms of the electrolyte 31. The purification of a colloidal solution could
be done by
24. An electrochemical cell has two half cell (a) sedimentation (b) ultrafiltration
reactions as, (c) filtration (d) precipitation
A2 + + 2e A; E0 2+ = 0.34 V
A /A 32. Bakelite is a product of the reaction
2+
X X + 2e ; between
E0 2+ = 2.37 V (a) formaldehyde and NaOH
X /X
(b) aniline and urea
The cell voltage will be
(c) phenol and methanal
(a) 2.71 V (b) 2.03 V
(d) phenol and chloroform
(c) 2.71 V (d) 2.03 V

25. In the electrolysis of dilute H2SO4 using 33. How does electron affinity change when we
platinum electrode move from left to right in a period in the
(a) H2 is liberated at cathode Periodic Table?
(b) O 2 is produced at cathode (a) It increases
(c) Cl 2 is obtained at cathode (b) It decreases
(d) NH3 is produced at anode (c) It remains unchanged
(d) It first increases and then decreases
26. When a solution of sodium hydroxide is
added to acetic acid solution, the 34. Which of the following statements is not
conductivity of the resulting solution will correct?
(a) increase (b) remain unchanged (a) Ionisation energy increases on going down a
(c) decrease (d) become zero group in the Periodic Table
(b) Among alkaline earth metals, reducing
27. The behaviour of a real gas approaches character increases down the group
ideal behaviour at (c) Fluorine is the most electronegative element
(a) low temperature, low pressure
(d) Metallic character increases on going down a
(b) high temperature, high pressure group in the Periodic Table
(c) low temperature, high pressure
(d) high temperature, low pressure 35. Which of the following species has a
trigonal planar shape?
28. Which of the following is not the postulate
of the kinetic theory of gases? (a) CH3 (b) CH+3
(a) Gas molecules are in a permanent state of (c) BF4 (d) SiH4
random motion
(b) Pressure of gas is due to molecular impacts on
36. Which of the following will have maximum
the walls dipole moment?
(c) The molecules are perfectly elastic (a) NF3 (b) NH3
(d) The molecular collisions are elastic (c) CH4 (d) PCl 3
J&K CET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 | 9

37. Which of the following forces is the 45. The transition metal ions are generally
strongest? paramagnetic in nature because
(a) Hydrogen bonding (b) Dipole-dipole forces (a) they have coloured salts
(c) van der Waals forces (d) Coordinate bonding (b) they have one or more unpaired d-electrons
(c) they have one or more paired s-electrons
38. Which of the following statements is (d) they are reducing agents
correct?
(a) sp3 -hybrid orbitals have equal s and p character 46. The most common oxidation state of
(b) The bond angle decreases with the decrease of lanthanides is
s character of a hybridized orbital (a) + 4 (b) + 3
(c) Resonance decreases the stability of a molecule (c) + 6 (d) + 2
(d) Resonance is due to delocalization of sigma
electrons 47. Specify the coordination number of cobalt
in [Co(CN)(H2O)(en)2 ]2 +
39. Which of the following is the correct order of (a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 0 (d) 3
increasing oxidising character of oxoacids
of chlorine? 48. Which of the following complexes is square
(a) HClO 3 <HClO 4 <HClO 2 <HClO planar and diamagnetic?
(b) HClO 4 <HClO 3 <HClO 2 <HClO (a) [NiCl 4 ]2 (b) [Ni(CN)4 ]2
3+
(c) HClO <HClO 4 <HClO 3 <HClO 2 (c) [Cr(NH3 )6 ] (d) [CuCl 4 ]2
(d) HClO <HClO 2 <HClO 3 <HClO 4
49. Which type of isomerism is exhibited by
40. Which of the following oxides of group 16 [Pt(NH 3)2 Cl2 ] ?
has the highest boiling point? (a) Coordination isomerism
(a) H2O (b) H2S (b) Linkage isomerism
(c) H2Se (d) H2 Te (c) Optical isomerism
(d) Geometrical isomerism
41. The +1 oxidation state of thallium is more
stable than its +3 oxidation state because of 50. Ethylene diamine tetraacetate ion is a
(a) its atomic size (b) its ionization potential (a) unidentate ligand (b) bidentate ligand
(c) inert pair effect (d) diagonal relationship (c) pentadentate ligand (d) hexadentate ligand
42. Which of the following statements is false 51. Which of the following is an ore of zinc?
regarding alkali metals? (a) Galena (b) Pyrolusite
(a) Alkali metals are soft and can be cut with the (c) Sphalerite (d) Magnetite
help of knife
(b) Alkali metals do not occur in free state in nature 52. The impurities associated with the ore after
(c) Alkali metals are highly electropositive elements mining are collectively called
(d) Alkali metal hydrides are covalent in character (a) flux (b) slag
(c) minerals (d) gangue
43. Among the following outermost
configurations of transition metals, which 53. During extraction of iron, the iron obtained
shows the highest oxidation state? at the bottom of blast furnace is known as
(a) 3d 3 4s 2 (b) 3d 5 4s1 (a) steel (b) wrought iron
(c) 3d 5 4s 2 (d) 3d 2 4s 2 (c) cast iron (d) None of these

44. The tendency of transition metals to form 54. Select the molecule which has only one
stable complexes is due to their -bond
(a) low ionization energies (a) CH CH
(b) variable oxidation states (b) CH2 ==CHCHO
(c) strong electropositive nature (c) CH3 CH==CH2
(d) high charge/size ratio and vacant d orbitals (d) CH3 CH==CHCOOH
10 | J&K CET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

55. Which of the following groups is ortho and 64. Which of the following compounds will be
para directing? formed when methoxy benzene is reacted
(a) COCl (b) CHO with HBr?
(c) OH (d) COCH3 (a) Phenol and bromomethane
(b) Methanol and bromobenzene
56. Amongst the given cations, the most stable (c) Phenol and methanol
carbonium ion is (d) Bromobenzene and bromomethane
+
(a) CH3 (b) (CH3 )3 C+
+ +
(c) CH3 CH2 (d) (CH3 )2 CH 65. When ethanol and I2 are heated in the
presence of Na2CO3, the yellow crystals
57. The hybridization of carbon atoms in CC obtained are of
single bond of HC CCH==CH2 is (a) C 2H5I (b) CH3I
(a) sp3 - sp2 (b) sp2 - sp3 (c) CHI3 (d) CH2I2

(c) sp- sp2 (d) sp3 - sp3 66. Identify B in the following series of reaction
CH 3MgX HOH
58. The number of optical isomers of the CH 3CHO A B
compound CH 3CHBrCHBrCOOH is (a) 2-propanol (b) 1-propanol
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) ethanol (d) None of these
(c) 3 (d) 4
67. Which of the following compounds has
59. Electrolysis of an aqueous solution of maximum acidic character?
sodium ethanoate gives (a) Dichloroacetic acid (b) Acetic acid
(a) methane (b) ethane (c) Trichloroacetic acid (d) Triflouoroacetic acid
(c) butane (d) methyl ethanoate
68. Among the following, the least reactive
60. Which of the following compounds will aldehyde is
exhibit cis-trans (geometrical) isomerism? (a) HCHO (b) C 6H5CHO
(a) 2-butene (b) 2-butyne (c) CH3CHO (d) C 2H5CHO
(c) 2-butanol (d) 1-butanol
69. Propanal on reaction with lithium
61. The reaction given below is an example of aluminium hydride gives
which of the following? (a) 1-propanol
dry ether (b) 2-propanol
2CH 3Br + 2Na C2H 6 + 2NaBr
(c) ethanol
(a) Reimer-Tiemann reaction (d) butanol
(b) Wurtz reaction
(c) Hoffman bromamide reaction 70. Idenitfy Z in the following sequence
(d) Aldol condensation KCN H 3O + /H2O
CH 3CH2I X Y
62. Chlorobenzene can be prepared by reacting
H 3O + /H2O
aniline with Z
(a) hydrochloric acid in the presence of nitrous acid
(b) cuprous chloride in the presence of aluminium (a) CH3COCl (b) CH3CONH2
chloride (c) CH3COOH (d) CH3CH2COOH
(c) chlorine in the presence of aluminium chloride
(d) nitrous acid followed by heating with cuprous
71. Treatment of aniline with bromine water
chloride produces
(a) 2,4,6-tribromoaniline
63. Phenol on treatment with conc. HNO3 gives (b) a mixture of ortho and para bromoaniline
(a) o-nitrophenol (b) p-nitrophenol (c) bromobenzene
(c) o- and p-nitrophenol (d) 2,4,6-trinitrophenol (d) N-bromoaniline
J&K CET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 | 11

3 NH
2 5 Ni PO 74. Nucleic acids are polymers of
72. C6H5COCl X Y Z
H2 (a) nucleotides
(b) nucleosides
The end product in the above sequence of (c) nuclei of heavy metals
reactions is (d) proteins
(a) benzoic acid (b) aniline
(c) benzyl amine (d) benzonitrile 75. Which of the following enzymes helps in
digestion of proteins?
73. Which of the following is least reactive to (a) Invertase
nitration? (b) Trypsin
(a) Benzene (b) Nitrobenzene (c) Tryosinase
(c) Chlorobenzene (d) Aniline (d) Urease

Biology
1. Unicellular algae, diatoms and protozoans 7. Cladode is a modification of
are the members of (a) stem (b) root (c) leaf (d) petiole
(a) Monera (b) Fungi
(c) Protista (d) Plantae 8. Movement of water through
semipermeable membrane produces
2. Which of the following is also known as (a) wall pressure (b) turgor pressure
amphibian of the plant kingdom? (c) suction pressure (d) osmotic pressure
(a) Algae (b) Bryophytes
(c) Pteridophytes (d) Gymnosperms 9. Rate of transpiration is measured by which
the following apparatus?
3. Yeast is not included in protozoas in fungi (a) Porometer (b) Respirometer
because (c) Ganongs potometer (d) Auxanometer
(a) chlorophyll is absent
(b) it has eukaryotic organisation 10. Which of the following in the site for
(c) cell wall is made up of cellulose and reserve food glycolysis or EMP?
material as starch (a) Mitochondria (b) Cytoplasm
(d) some fungal hyphae grow in such a way that (c) Nucleus (d) Chloroplast
they give the appearance of pseudomycelium
11. In C4 plants, chloroplast also occurs in
4. An association between roots of higher (a) epidermis (b) guard cells
plants and fungi is called (c) spongy parenchyma (d) bundle sheath cells
(a) lichen (b) fern
(c) mycorrhiza (d) None of these
12. Quantasomes occur on the surface of
(a) cristae (b) thylakoids
5. The arrangement of vascular bundles in (c) plasmalemma (d) nuclear envelope
dicot roots are
(a) conjoint (b) collateral 13. Which is the direction of food through the
(c) radial (d) bicollateral
phloem?
(a) From below upward (b) From tip to bottom
6. An inflorescence with a single central (c) From leaves to roots (d) From roots to stem
achlamydeous female flower surrounded by
a member of achlamydeous male flower is 14. Plant cooling is due to
(a) cyathium (b) hypanthodium (a) assimilation (b) guttation
(c) spadix (d) verticillaster (c) photorespiration (d) transpiration
12 | J&K CET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

15. In short day plants, flowering is inhibited (a) Nitrosomonas and Azotobacter
by interruption of dark by (b) Klebsiella and Rhizobium
(a) white or red light (c) Escherichia and Agrobacterium
(b) far-red light (d) Diplococcus and Nitrosomonas
(c) red light followed by far-red light
22. If a heterozygous tall plant is crossed with a
(d) far red light, then red light and again by far red
homozygous dwarf plant, the proportion of
light
dwarf progeny will be
16. In angiosperms, triple fusion is required for (a) 25% (b) 50%
(a) embryo (b) endosperm (c) 75% (d) 100%
(c) suspensor (d) fruit wall
23. The process that involves the transfer of
17. Which of the following is the function of genetic material from one bacterium to
tapetum? another through the agency of
(a) Respiratory (b) Nutritive bacteriophage is
(c) Reproductive (d) Protective (a) transformation (b) transcription
(c) transduction (d) translocation
18. Which of the following presents premature
fall of fruit? 24. Genes that are involved in turning on or off
(a) GA 3 (b) Zeatin the transcription of a set of structural genes
(c) NAA (d) Ethylene are called
(a) polymorphic genes (b) operator genes
19. Which part of the plant shows (c) repressor genes (d) regulatory genes
thigmotropism?
(a) Leaf lamina (b) Tendrils 25. Which of the following enzymes cleaves
(c) Root apex (d) Thoms DNA at specific sites producing sticky end?
(a) Lyases
20. Given below is the diagram of a embryo sac. (b) Proteases
Choose the option in which all the four (c) Restriction endonuclease
parts A, B, C and D are correctly identified. (d) Cleaving enzyme
A
26. A man, whose father is colourblind, marries
B a lady who is daughter of a colour
blindman. Their offsprings will be
(a) all normal
C
(b) all colourblind
(c) all sons colourblind
D (d) some sons colourblind and some normal

27. A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to

the shell lining of hermit crab. The
(a) ASynergids, BAntipodal cells, CEgg cell, association is called
DPolar nuclei (a) symbiosis (b) commensalism
(b) AEgg cell, BSynergids, CPolar nuclei, (c) parasitism (d) ectoparasitism
DAntipodal cells
(c) AEgg cell, BPolar nuclei, CSynergids, 28. Pseudomonas is an important component of
DAntipodal cells nitrogen cycle. It
(d) AAntipodal cells, BEgg cell, CPolar nuclei, (a) fixes elemental nitrogen
DSynergids (b) produces elemental nitrogen
(c) transfers elemental nitrogen
21. Which of the following pairs of bacteria are
(d) changes ammonium nitrogen to nitrate state
generally used in genetic engineering
experiments?
J&K CET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 | 13

29. Biochemical oxygen demand measures 37. Which of the following is an auto-immune
(a) air pollution disease?
(b) industrial pollution (a) AIDS (b) Haemophilia
(c) pollution capacity of effluents (c) Allergy (d) Rheumatoid arthritis
(d) dissolved oxygen needed by microbes to
decompost wastes 38. Taxon is the unit of
(a) species (b) order
30. The most common indicator organism (c) genus (d) taxonomy
which represents polluted water is
(a) S. typhi 39. A virus can be considered a living organism
(b) Vibrio cholerae because it
(c) E. coli (a) respires
(d) Entamoeba histolytica (b) responds to touch stimuli
(c) can cause disease
31. Submerged hydrophytes have a well (d) reproduces (inside the host)
developed
(a) root system (b) aerenchyma 40. The basic unit or the lowest taxonomic
(c) stomata (d) vascular system category is
(a) species (b) family
32. Dominant species represents most (c) order (d) kingdom
abundant
(a) first tree 41. The excretory organ of cockroach and other
(b) shrub that appears for the first time insects are
(c) herb that binds the soil and provides organic (a) nephridia (b) gizzard
matter to it (c) flame cells (d) malpighian tubules
(d) species having major effect on physical
environment
42. The clitellum of Pheretima is present in
segments
33. The mammals (animals) from colder (a) 12, 13 and 14 (b) 13, 14 and 15
climate generally have shorter hair and not (c) 14, 15 and 16 (d) 15, 16 and 17
fully developed ear, eyes and other
phenotypic characters. This known as 43. Which of the following is a loose connective
(a) Dalls law (b) Allens rule
tissue?
(a) Adipose tissue (b) Areolar tissue
(c) Copes law (d) Bergmanns law
(c) Blood (d) Nervous tissue
34. Which of the following is the causative
organism of influenza? 44. Where does the synthesis of ATP in
(a) Salmonella (b) Streptococcus
mitochondria takes place?
(a) In matrix (b) In intercristal space
(c) Myxovirus influenzae (d) Rhinovirus
(c) Upon cristae (d) At outer membrane
(a) hallucination
45. Golgi apparatus is specialised for
(a) energy transduction
(b) damage to kidneys
(b) digestion of protein
(c) damage to lungs
(c) glycosidation of proteins and lipids
(d) mental and emotional disturbances
(d) digestion of carbohydrates
36. A disease sometimes found in persons
above 40 years of age and is characterised 46. Exchange of paternal and maternal
by poor. GNS coordination, forgetfulness chromosomes material during cell division
and tremor of hands is is called
(a) epilepsy (b) alzheimers disease (a) dyad formation (b) bivalent formation
(c) migraine (d) schizophrenia (c) synapsis (d) crossing over
14 | J&K CET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

47. In mitosis, where does the chromosome 55. Which of the following vertebrate organs
duplication occur? receives only oxygenated blood?
(a) Interphase (a) Gill (b) Lung
(b) Prophase (c) Liver (d) Spleen
(c) Late prophase
(d) Late telophase 56. Which of the following is agranulocyte?
(a) Lymphocyte (b) Eosinophill
48. Linoleic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid (c) Basophill (d) Neutrophill
and its content is highest in
(a) coconut oil (b) sunflower oil 57. The rate of heart beat is determined by
(c) groundnut oil (d) cotton oil (a) SA node (b) AV node
(c) Purkinje fibre (d) Papillary muscles
49. The product of an enzyme-catalysed
reaction can act as an inhibitor of the 58. The middle piece of the sperm contains
reaction. This mechanism of control is (a) centriole (b) nucleus
known as (c) protein (d) mitochondria
(a) feed back inhibition
59. Secretion of progesterone by corpus luteum
(b) competitive inhibition
is initiated by
(c) represssion
(a) Gh (b) LH
(d) non-competitive inhibition
(c) thyroxine (d) testosterone
50. The respiratory centre in brain is
60. The function of oxytocin is to help in
stimulated by
(a) child birth (b) growth
(a) CO 2 concentration in venous blood
(c) lactation (d) gametogenesis
(b) O 2 concentration in venous blood
(c) O 2 concentration is arterial blood 61. Human gametes differ from all other body
(d) CO 2 concentration in arterial blood cells as they are
(a) motile (b) diploid
51. Glucose present in glomerular filterate is
(c) haploid (d) without cell wall
reabsorbed in
(a) Bowmans capsule 62. Which one of the following is initiated by
(b) Henles loop secretion of trophoblast?
(c) proximal convoluted tubule (a) Blastulation (b) Gastrulation
(d) distal convoluted tubule (c) Implantation (d) Cleavage

52. Which is the largest bone in middle ear? 63. Spermatogenesis changes
(a) Incus (b) Malleus (a) spermatogonium to primary spermatocyte
(c) Stapes (d) Cochlea (b) primary spermatocyte to secondary
spermatocyte
53. Which of the following activities in (c) secondary spermatocyte to spermatid
disturbed, if parathyroid gland (d) spermatid to spermatozoa
degenerates?
(a) Growth 64. Which of the following is a hormone
(b) Sodium concentration releasing IUD?
(c) Potassium concentration (a) Multiload 375 (b) Cu-7
(d) Calcium concentration (c) LNG-20 (d) Cu T

54. Retina is composed of 65. Plasmids present in the bacterial cells are
(a) rods only (a) linear double helical RNA molecules
(b) cones only (b) linear double helical DNA molecules
(c) rods and cones (c) circular double helical DNA molecules
(d) rods, cones and neuroganglion cells (d) circular double helical RNA molecules
J&K CET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 | 15

66. In which of the following diseases, the man (c) farm yard manure consisting of mixture of cattle
has an extra X-chromosome? dung and crop
(a) Bleeders disease (d) green manure in which a quickly growing crop is
(b) Turners syndrome cultivated and ploughed under
(c) Downs syndrome 72. Which one of the following drugs depresses
(d) Klinefelters syndrome (switch off) the activities of central nervous
system, is known as sedative and also gives
67. Which of the following takes place in DNA
feeling of calmness, relaxation of
fingerprinting?
drowsiness?
(a) A positive identification can be made
(a) Opium
(b) Multiple restriction enzyme digests/generates
(b) Barbiturate
unique fragments
(c) Heroin
(c) The polymerase chain reaction amplifies fewer
DNA (d) Cocaine
(d) The verability of repeated sequences between 73. Which of the following techniques is used to
two restriction sites is evaluated
make numerous copies of a specific segment
68. The scientist related with the theory of of DNA quickly and accurately?
biogenesis and who has done experiment (a) Translation
with swan-necked flask is (b) Transcription
(a) Haeckel (c) Polymerase chain reaction
(b) Louis Pasteur (d) Ligase chain reaction
(c) van Helmont
74. Which of the following recent technique is
(d) Miller
used for separating fragments of DNA?
69. A plant hormone used for inducing (a) Eastern blotting
morphogenesis in plant tissue culture is (b) Northern blotting
(a) ABA (b) gibberellins (c) Southern blotting
(c) cytokinins (d) ethylene (d) Western blotting

70. Triticale is obtained by crossing wheat with 75. In case of Bacillus thuringiensis, Bacillus
(a) oat (b) maize itself is not killed by the toxic protein
(c) barley (d) rye crystals produced by it because Bt toxin
(a) protein is not produced in the Bacillus
71. A bio-fertiliser is (b) cannot causes and damage to Bacillus
(a) a cyanobacteria like Anabaena species living in (c) protein is produced in very less amount in the
cavities of Azolla leaves Bacillus
(b) symbiotic association like Azotobacter which (d) exist as the inactive toxin
fixed atmospheric nitrogen
Physics
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (d)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (c)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (a) 54. (a) 55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (b)
61. (*) 62. (b) 63. (a) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (c)
71. (d) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (c,d)

Chemistry
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (b)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (a)
41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (d)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (a)
61. (b) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (a) 65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (d) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (d)
71. (a) 72. (c) 73. (d) 74. (a) 75. (b)

Biology
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (a)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (d)
51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (d) 56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (a)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (d)
71. (a) 72. (b) 73. (c) 74. (c) 75. (d)

Hints & Solutions

Physics
1. Standards which are used to measure the 3. When changes in velocity of a body in equal
fundamental quantities are called as fundamental intervals of time are same, then the body is said to
units which are length, mass, time, temperature, have uniform acceleration, this holds true for
current, luminous intensity, quantity of matter. straight line motion.
Hence, magnetic field is not a fundamental
4. Given r = 2t \$i + t 2 \$j
quantity.
dr d n
2. From Ohms law Velocity vector v = and using x = nx n 1
dt dx
V = IR We have,
= [A ML2 T 3 A 2 ] = [ML2 T 3 A 1 ] dr
= 2 \$i + 2t \$j
dt
J&K CET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 | 17

5. Velocity-time graph gives the instantaneous value 16. Universal law of gravitation states that the
of velocity at any instant. For non-uniformly gravitational force of attraction acting between
accelerated motion, v-t graph is non-linear. Gm1m2
two bodies of universe is F = where G is
2 u sin r2
6. Time of flight T = gravitational constant and r is the distance
g
between them. Hence, it is also known as
Given, u = v0 , T = 1s, = 30 , g = 9.8 m /s 2 ,
universe square law.
v0 = u = g = 9.8 m /s GM
17. Value of acceleration due to gravity is g = 2
7. From Newtons second law of motion, the rate of R
change of linear momentum of an object is At poles R is minimum and at equator R is
directly proportional to the external force applied maximum, hence g is maximum at poles.
on it and change always takes place in the 18. Escape velocity ve = 2 gR
direction of applied force.
dp FL
F= 19. Youngs modulus of a rope Y =
dt Al
Given, L = 10 m, A = r 2 = (1)2 = ;
8. Centripetal force always acts towards the centre
and is given by Y = 20 1011 dyne/cm 2 , l = 1cm,
2
Mv Y A l
Fc = . F=
R L
9. For uniform circular motion, the magnitude of 20 1011 1 1
F=
velocity remains unchanged but due to change in 10 10 2
direction the velocity vector changes.
F = 6.28 10 9 dyne
10. Given, A = 2 \$i + 2 \$j k\$ and B = \$j + k\$
F = 6.28 10 4 N
Scalar product
A B = (2 \$i + 2 \$j k\$ ) ( \$j + k\$ ) 20. From Pascals law of transmission of pressure,
the increase in pressure at any one point of the
Using \$i \$i = 1, \$j \$j = 1, k\$ k\$ = 1 we have enclosed liquid in equilibrium of rest is
A B = 2 1 = 3 transmitted equally to all other points of the liquid
11. In perfectly elastic collision total energy and total and also to the container walls.
linear momentum of colliding particles remains 22. From zeroth law of thermodynamics, if two
conserved. systems A and B are separated by an adiabatic
Work done wall, are seperately and independently in thermal
12. Power =
Time equilibrium with a third system C, then the
Work done = mgh = 100 9.8 10 systems A and B are also in a state of thermal
Time = 1 min = 60 s equilibrium with each other.
100 9.8 10 T2
P= = 163.3 W 23. Efficiency = 1
60 T1
13. From law of conservation of angular momentum, Given, T2 = 27 C = 27 + 273 = 300 K
if no external torque acts on a system, then total T1 = 127 C = 127 + 273 = 400 K
vector sum of angular momentum of different
3
particles of the system remains conserved. = 1 = 25%
dL 4
ext. = 0 then =0
dt 24. Pressure exerted by a perfect gas on the walls of
14. Angular momentum L = I the container is
1 2
15. Moment of inertia about its diameter is p= mnVav.
2 3
I= MR 2
5
18 | J&K CET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

25. From law of equipartition of energy for any system 32. Electric lines of force and open while magnetic
in thermal equilibrium, the total energy is equally lines of force and closed loops.
distributed among its various degree of freedom 33. From Coulombs law
and each degree of freedom is associated with
1 Force due to same charge is repulsive and that
energy kBT . due to opposite is attractive.
2
2 3 2 3
3 F=K 2 2 =0
26. vrms = v s 3 3

Q
Cp 34. Potential V =
Also, = , R = Cp CV 4 0 r
CV
1
Given, Q = 5 10 8 C, = 9 10 9 , R = 0.1m
Given, R = 1.98 cal K 1 mol 1, 4 0
Cp = 6.84 cal K 1 mol 1, 5 10 8 9 10 9
V=
Cp = 4.86 cal K 1 mol 1, = 1.41 0.1
450
vrms = 1300 2.13 1898 m /s = = 4500 V
0.1
l 35. Change, Q = CV
27. Time period T = 2
g Given, C = 5 F = 5 10 6 F, V = 120 V
2
Given, g = 9.8 m /s , l = 9.8 m Q = 5 10 6 120
9.8 Also, 5 10 6 120 = 40 C
T = 2 = 2 = 2 3.14 = 6.28 s
9.8
5 10 6 120
2 C= = 15 10 6 F
28. For SHM = y, where is acceleration, is 40
angular velocity, y is displacement. Hence, it is C = 15 F
clear that acceleration is directly proportional to
1 1 1 2
displacement and is always opposite to 36. Capacitor in series = + =
displacement. Cs C C C
C
29. When two sound waves of nearly equal or slightly Cs =
different frequencies and equal or nearly equal 2
amplitudes travelling along the same direction Capacitor in parallel Cp = C + C = 2C
superimpose at a given point, the resultant sound Cs C 1
= =
intensity alternately rises and falls. This periodic Cp 2 2 C 4
waxing of sound at a given position is called
beats. 37. Current I = ef
30. For open pipe, =
v Given, e = 1.6 10 19 C and f = 1019
2l I = 1.6 A
Given, v = 340 m /s, l = 1m
I
340 38. vd =
= = 170 Hz Ae
2 1
Given, I = 2 A, n = 5.86 10 28 m 3 ,
+ 0
31. Appart frequency n = n A = r 2 = (0.1 10 2 )2 , e = 1.6 10 19 C

vd = 0.68 10 4 m /s
340 + 30
n = 1020 l
340 39. R =
A
n = 1020 108.8 2
0.31
n = 1110 Hz Given, R1 = 4.2 , l1 = 1 m, A1 = r12 =
2
J&K CET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 | 19

2
0.155 I = 12 A
R2 = ?, l2 = 1.5, A2 = r22 =
2 4 10 7 12
B=

R1 l A
= 1 2 2 8 10 2
R2 A1 l2 B = 3 10 5 Wb /m 2
2
4.2 1 (0.155)
= 43. B = 0 nI
R (0.31)2 1.5
4.2 0.31 0.31 1.5 Given, 0 = 4 10 7, n = 5 cm, I = 0.8 A
R= = 25.2
0.155 0.155 B = 5.024 10 8 Wb /m 2
nE 44. Force between two parallel wires is
40. For series, i =
nr + R 0 2 I1I2
F= l
24 1.5 4 r
i= = 1.41
24 + 1.5 Given, 0 = 4 10 7, I1 = 30 A, I2 = 40 A,
E
For parallel, i = l = 10 10 2 m, r = 2 10 2 m
r
+R
n 4 10 7 2 30 40 10
F=
i=
1.5
= 0.97 4 2 10 2 100
1
+ 1.5 F = 1.2 10 3 N
24
For 4 6 combination BV
45. BE = BH2 + BV2 and tan =
nE BH
i=
nr Given, BH = 0.39 G, BV = 0.52 G
R+
m
BE = (0.30)2 + (0.52)2 = 0.36 = 0.6
4 1.5
i= = 2.77 BV 0.52
4 and = tan 1 = tan 1 = 60
1.5 + BH 0.3
6
For 6 4 combination 46. When magnet is cut into equal parts, area of
nE cross-section becomes half. Hence, pole
i= strength becomes half.
nr
R+
M 47. e = Bvl
6 1.5 4 Given, l = 5 cm = 5 10 2 m, v = 2 m /s,
i= =3
12 B = 10 3 Wb /m 2
41. Note None of the four options are correct, e = 10 3 2 5 10 2
through option (d) is close to correct answer.
e = 10 10 5 V
Rt = R0 (1 + t )
e = 1 10 4 V
1 = R0 (1 + 0.00125 27 ) (i)
di
2 = R0 (1 + 0.00125 t ) (ii) 48. Included emf e = L
dt
From Eqs. (i) and (ii)
Given, L = 10 H, i = 9 4 = 5 A, dt = 0.2 s
t = 848 C = 1121 K 5
e = 10 = 250 V
I 0.2
42. Magnetic field B = 0
2 r
49. From standard equation, we have
Given, = 4 10 7 N/ A 2 ,
I = I0 sin t (i)
r = 8 cm = 8 10 2 m
Given, I = 50 sin 314 t (ii)
20 | J&K CET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

Comparing Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get D

56. m = 1 +
I0 = 50 A, = 2 f = 314 f
314 Given, f = 5 cm, D = 25 cm
f = = 50 Hz
2 3.14 25
m = 1+ =6
5
50. Impedance Z = R 2 + XL2 1 1 1
57. =
XL = L = 2 fL f v u
1 2 1 1 + 2
Given, R = 2100 , f = 50 Hz, L = = + =
50 25 50
Z = (2100 )2 + (2 50 )2 1 1
= f = 50 cm
f 50
= (2100 )2 + (100 )2 100
P= =2D
Z = 2102 50
51. The equation of AC is D
58. Fringe width W =
I = I1 cos t + I2 sin L d
The resultant current is given by Given, d = 0.4 mm = 0.04 cm, D = 200 cm
I0 = I12 + I22 W = 2 mm = 0.2 cm
200
Hence, the rms current from relation is 0.2 = = 400 nm
0.04
I0 I12 + I22 1 2P
Irms = = 59. E =
2 2 4 0 r 3
I12 + I22 The direction of electric field E is along the axis of
=
2 the dipole from negative charge towards positive
charge.
52. Phenomena of restricting the vibration of light in a
particular direction is called polarization, it helps D
60. Resolving power =
to prove the transverse nature of electromagnetic 1.22
waves. Given, D = 3.8 10 5 km = 3.8 10 8 m
53. Radio waves have maximum wavelength in the = 550 nm = 550 10 9 m
range of 0.1 m to 10 5 m.
3.8 10 8
I v RP = 55 m.
54. M = = 1.22 550 10 9
O u
Given, O = 8 cm, I = 4 cm, v = 60 cm 61. From law of Malus
4 60 I = I0 cos 2
= u = 120 cm
8 u I
Given, I= 0
1 1 1 1 1 4
= + = +
f v u 60 120 1
= cos 2
f = 40 cm (convex) 4
1 1 1 1
55. = cos = = 60
f v u 2
1 1 1 2 + 1 1 Note None of the options are correct.
= = =
f 20 40 40 40 62. From Brewsters law
f = 40 cm = tan p
200
P= = 2.5 D 63. Einsteins photoelectronic equation is
0.40
Emax = h
J&K CET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 | 21

280
64. Davission-Germer experiment verified the wave
1 140 20
nature of electrons using Ni crystal. N = 20 = = 5g
2 4
65. Rutherfords model states that an atom is a
sphere of diameter about 10 10 m whole of its 69. The forbidden energy gap in insulators is 6 eV
positive charge is concentrated at the centre. and in semiconductors is 1.1 eV.

66. According to Bohrs model 70. Diode is a non-ohmic device since its I-V
nh characteristics do not follow ohms law.
mvr =
2 71. The Boolean expression of XOR gate is
y = A B = A B + A B
67. Decrease in mass number due to 6 = 6 4 = 24.
Decrease in change number due to 72. The three basic gates are AND, OR and NOT.
6 = 6 2 = 12 73. A hertz antenna is a straight conductor of length
Increase in change number due to four = 4 equal to half the wavelength of radio signals

Net mass number = 232 24 = 208 L= .
2
Net atomic number = 90 12 + 4 = 82
74. Phenomenon of superposition of information
68. After n-half lines quantity of radiatioactive signal over a high frequency carrier wave is called
substance left is modulation.
t / T1/ 2
1
N = N0 75. The process of recovering the original audio
2 signal from the modulated wave is called
Given, T1/ 2 = 140 days, t = 28 days, N0 = 20 g demodulation. It is done by using a diode and a
capacitor.
Note Two options are true.

Chemistry
1. Q Number of atoms in 40 g of Ca = 6.022 10 23 3. We know that N 2 molecule is having 14 electrons
(Avogadros number) so, N 2 = 14
Number of atoms in 20 g of Ca N +2 = 14 1 = 13, according to MOT (Molecular
23
6.022 10 20 orbital theory) the configruation will be
= = 3.011 10 23
40 N +2 = KK 2 s2 * 2 s2 2 p2x 2 py2 2 p1z
Like this 1
Q Number of atoms in 24 g of Mg Bond order = [Bonding Antibonding ]
2
= 6.022 10 23 1 1
= [7 2 ] = 2 = 2.5
Number of atoms in 12 g of Mg 2 2
6.022 10 23 12 4. According to Paulis exclusion principle No two
=
24 electrons in an atoms can have the same set of
= 3.011 10 23 four quantum numbers.

2. We know that 5. According to de-Broglie equation

h
N1V1 = N2V2 =
So, N1V1 = N2V2 mv
H 2SO 4 NaOH 6.6 10 34 kg m 2 s 1
=
1 100 N2 100 9.1 10 31 kg 10 6 ms 1
N2 = 1 = 0.725 10 9 m
Q 100 mL of 1 N H 2SO 4 will neutralize 100 mL of = 7.25 10 10 m
1N NaOH so, the solution will be neutral.
22 | J&K CET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

6. As per uncertainty principle It is impossible to fast

Step 2 N 2O 5 + NO 3 3NO 2 + O 2
determine the position and momentum of a
moving electrons in an atoms with accuracy or The slow step is unimolecular while fast step is
certainty. bimolecular. Hence, the above reaction is
unimolecular and its order is 1 (first).
7. In option (c), Aufbau principle is violated.
According to this rule, the orbital with lower value 14. A catalyst is a substance which increases the rate
of n, i.e., 25 will be filled first completely. In of both forward and backward reactions in a
option (a) Hunds rule of maximum multiplicity is reversible reaction.
violated. According to this rule, the pairing of
15. 1 M AlCl 3 solution will have the highest boiling
electrons in orbitals of a subshell does not take
place untill all the orbitals of a subshell are singly point is because colligative properties such as
occupied. elevation in boiling point is directly proportional to
number of particles in solutions and AlCl 3
8. Given, [OH ] = 1 mol 1 L 1 produces highest number of particles or ions.
So, we know that (i.e., AlCl 3 = 1 + 3 = 4).
pOH = log [OH ] 16. Osmotic pressure is a colligative property.
pOH = log 1 = 0 17. Ca(NO 3 )2 having vant Hoff factor 3. Because, it
Q pH + pOH = 14 dissociates into 3 ions as
pH = 14 0 = 14 Ca(NO 3 )2 Ca 2 + + 2NO 3 ,
9. Dissociation of Fe(OH)3 in solution is represented So, i = 3
as follows
18. Mass of solution = 100 g, Mass of glucose = 1g,
Fe(OH)3
( x)
Fe ( x)
3+
+ 3OH
(3 x)
Mass of solvent = 100 1 = 99 g
w = mass of solute glucose, W = mass of solvent
Ksp = x (3 x )3 = 27 x 4 .
m = molar mass of solute
10. 2NO + O 2
2 mol 1 mol
2NO (g )
2
2 mol
Tf = K f
w

1
m W / 1000
If n = 0, no effect on equilibrium due to pressure. 1 1
= 1.84 = 0.103
n > 0, the increase in pressure favours 180 99/ 1000
backward reaction, Freezing point of the solution = 273 0.103
n < 0, the increase in pressure favours forward = 272.897 K
reaction for (a) n = np nr = 2 1 = 1,
(b) n = 2 3 = 1 (c) n = 2 1 = 1 19. S = H TS for spontaneity, G < 0 and this
occurs when
(d) n = 2 2 = 0
TS > H
Hence, in case of (b) n < 0, the increase in
pressure will favour the forward reaction. 20. According to available data
11. AlCl 3 , Because Lewis acids are electron pair (i) C 2H 4 (g ) + 3O 2 (g ) 2CO 2 (g ) + 2H 2O(l )
acceptor. H = 1415 kJ
7
12. Increase in the number of molecules having the (ii) C 2H 6 (g ) + O 2 (g ) 2CO 2 (g ) + 3H 2O(l )
activation energy (threshold energy) increases 2
the rate of reaction. H = 1566 kJ
1
13. 2N 2O 5 (g ) 4NO 2 (g ) + O 2 (g ); (iii) H 2 (g ) + O 2 (g ) H 2O(l ); H = 286 kJ
2
Rate = k[N 2O 5 ]
We aim at C 2H 4 (g ) + H 2 (g ) C 2H 6 (g ); H = ?
The reaction occurs in two steps as
Eq. (i) + Eq. (iii) Eq. (ii) and the correct H value
slow
Step 1 N 2O 5 NO 2 + NO 3 is
= (1415) + (286) (1566) = 135 kJ