Q1) AN ORGANISATION USES SMALL QUANTITITES OF

TOXIC CHEMICALS?

Q1A) Identify FOUR possible routes of toxic substances in
to body?
By INHALATION: If the chemicals agents is in the form of dust, vapor, fumes,
gas etc. It is the most rapid of entrance. It has been estimated that 90% of the
industrial poisons are ABSORED through lungs.

By INGESTION: any significant quality of harmful liquid or solid will be
swallowed without deliberate intent. It can occur directly (by mistake if
chemicals are not properly labeled) or indirectly where small amount of
contaminants are transferred from the fingers to the mouth if Eating, drinking, or
smoking in chemical areas.

BY ABSORPTION: contact with the skin> substances can enter through the
skin, cuts or abrasions and conjunctive of the skin.

1) Irritate the skin causing dermatitis.
2) Penetrate the skin, causing systemic toxicity.
3) Damage the skin directly (such as acid).

BY INJECTION: A forceful breach of the skin, perhaps as a result of injury, can
carry harmful substances through the skin barrier.

1) Chemical may injected hypodermically on sharps etc e.g. broken glass cuts
the skin and transfers a biological agent.

2) Chemical may be injected at high pressure e.g. Hydraulic hoses.

Q1B) Explain the difference between ACUTE AND
CHRONIC HEALTH EFFECTS?
1) Acute health effect: an adverse effect result from a single or short term
exposure, to a reversible offending agent. And producing an immediate or rapid
effect. E.g. corrosive action, narcosis and primary irritation.

2) Chronic health effects: an adverse health effect results from prolonged
or repeated exposures with a gradual or latent and often irreversible effect
that may often go unrecognized for a number of years. E.g. Cancer, sensitization
dermatitis and damage to burned organs.

Q1C) identify the sources of information which could be
used in the assessment of risk of toxic substances?
1) Manufacturers’: material safety data sheet: provided by manufacturers
chronic substances product label.

2) Government bodies.

3) Enforcement agencies. Various countries enforcement HSE booklet.

4) ILO code of practice safety in the use of chemicals at work.

5) Trade associations.

6) Insurance companies.

7) Organizations involved in occupational health may also provide information.

Q1d) outline the control measures that might be
required to minimize risks to workers?
1) Elimination: this represents an extreme form of control to prohibit the
use of high risk and toxic substances.

2) Reduction: the substitution of a less toxic substance in a place of more toxic
substance one or same substance in less toxic form (e.g.) toluene for benzene.

3) Isolate: enclosure of hazard: totally enclosure the process and handling
system (e.g.) putting lids on substances that have high voltage vapors.

4) Local exhaust ventilation: remove toxic substances at ______ itself.

5) Dilution ventilation: provide sufficient general ventilation.

6) Control: people: restrict people to toxic substances in the forms (age,
distance, time and gender)

7) Period of exposure: reduce the time of exposure based on long term
exposure limits (or) short term exposure limits.

8) Good housekeeping: regular cleaning and disinfection of workplace and
contaminated areas.

9) Safe storage: provision of safe storage and disposal of toxic substances.

10) Prohibit: eating, drinking and smoking in areas where toxic contamination
occurs.

11) Personnel hygiene: arrangement for personal care washing facility etc.

12) Barrier creams and suitable hand protections are important considerations
for chemical and biological areas.

13) PPE: suitable PPE for the discipline, ensure produces and rules are being
followed and taking actions against not compiling.

Q2) Identify the control measures that could be
implemented to reduce the risk to pedestrian?
1) segregated systems for vehicular and pedestrian traffic.

2) Appropriate road markings.

3) Maintaining good visibility (mirrors, provision of lighting etc.)

4) Audible warnings on vehicles.

5) Drawing up and enforcement of site rules.

6) The provision of refuges.

7) The wearing of high visibility clothing.

8) A good standard of housekeeping.

9) Training and supervision of drivers.

10) Defined traffic routes.

11) One-way system speed control.

Q3) outline the specific hazards associated with use of
battery-powered forklift treks and state the

Q3a) identify FOUR hazards associated with the use of
battery-powered fork lift trucks?
1) Fumes from vehicles.

2) fire/explosion while charging and handling batteries.

3) Harmful gas and corrosive acids > give off hydrogen gas while charging and
sulphuric acid while filling batteries.

4) Electrical hazards: when contact with overhead power lines.

5) collisions-co-workers/pedestrians being hit by moving forklifts (or) moving
parts of a forklift.

6) Manual handling of batteries.

7) Falling objects/people: collisions between forklift and other vehicles (or)
stationary objects and forklift operators and others being hit by falling objects.
Operators falling while getting into (or) out of forklifts.

8) noise/vibration: from vehicle and external atmosphere.

9) Ergonomics: operators suffering muscular stress due to a combination of
inappropriate seating, vibration and manual handling.

10) Co-workers /pedestrians being trapped (or) caught between a moving
forklift/moving parts of a forklift and stationary object.

11) Overloading and overturning.

Q3b) control measures?
1) Designated battery charging area with good ventilation.

2) Hydrogen gas: ventilation, fire equipment, no smoking and signage’s.

3) Sulphuric acid: protective clothing, spillage procedure, clean water, first- aid
and topping up procedure.

4) Electricity: insulated tools, safe charging procedures and isolation.

5) Use appropriate PPE.

6) Segregation of pedestrian vehicles.

7) Strict enforcement of speed limits.

8) Securely bounded loads.

Q4) excavation work is being carried out on a
construction site! Identify the control measures needed
to reduce the risk to workers?
1) Detection of service (from plans, use of cable / pipe detector) before hand.

2) Support of side to avoid collapse.

3) Storage of materials and take it away from edges to protect excessive load.

4) Stop blocks to prevent vehicle from falling into the excavation.

5) Barriers and guard rails to avoid fall into excavation.

6) Ensure safe means of access / egress to the excavation.

7) Testing for and ventilation of fumes and other test substances.

8) Suitable means of pumping out water.

9) Only competent personnel are allowed to work from excavations.

10) Use of suitable PPE.

Q4a) identify FOUR mechanical hazards associated with
the use of a pedestal drill?
1) Entanglement: of hair with the drill bit (or) chunk.

2) Stabbing: injuries from the end of the bit. Contact with the drill bit (or) chuck
resulting in ablation.

3) Ejection (or) impact: by unclamped work pieces, made worse by the fact that
the work piece may be spinning at fast speed on the bit. Cutting hazards may
also be presented by metal.

4) Sward: produce by the drilling process.

Q5b) outline FOUR control measures to reduce the risk of injury to
operators of pedestal drill?

1) Secure work pieces with clamps to prevent movement.

2) Ensure equipment is properly maintained, remove faulty tools and disconnect
from power when not in use.

3) Wear appropriate PPE, suitable competent person are allowed to work on such
equipments.

4) Inform, instruct, and supervise the work place.

Q6) Outline the factors that may lead to occupational
stress amongst workers?
1) Culture of the organization.

2) Shift work, unsuitable hours, excessive overtime.

3) Job insecurity, fear of redundancy.

4) Repetitive / monotonous work.

5) Lack of breaks and control over job.

2) Length of contact time (or) duration. 11) Personal and social factors. 5) Frequency of current flow. 2) Electrical burns: electrical burns are deeper than other burns. Q7a) identify the effects on the human body from a severe electric shock? 1) Electric shock: resulting in stopping of heart and respiratory rhythm. 3) Conductivity / resistance of the body.6) work rate too high (or) too low. resulting from heating effect of the current which burns the body tissue. (Nervous system functions. Q7c) outline how earthling can reduce the risk of receiving an electric shock) It is a means of connecting electrical equipment and conductive items to earth by a cable (or) pipework such that the route to earth provides the path of least resistance to a current flowing under faulty conditions. it also leads to loss of consciousness. 7) Nature of the contact. 6) Conductivity of the environment. 8) Harassment and bullying. 9) Fear of violence. Q7b) identify FOUR factors that could affect the injury resulting from contact with electricity? 1) Current path through the body. 7) The working environment. . 10) Lack of communication. 4) Voltage.

H2s.g. petrol.g. give an example of a material (fuel) that falls within EACH of the classes A. (e.g. Control measures: the use of fire retardant materials. Q9) outline the hazards that a worker could be exposed to when using petrol driven chainsaw to cut down a tree? Operational hazards: kickback is when a chain tooth at the upper quadrant of the bar tip cuts into wood without cutting through it. oil. Gases C acetylene.) curtains (or) carpets tiles may be consumed by combusting and enable fire to be transferred along them to other parts of a building.) smoke and hot gases rising up a staircase through an open door. LPG and natural gas. paints and thinner. . (e.C and D? Fire class EXAMPLE Solid A wood. Q8B) Identify TWO methods of heat transfer AND explain each method contributes to the spread of fire? 1) Convection: the movement of hotter gases up through the air (hot air rises). Electrical/heat E fire involving. aluminum.B. Metals D sodium. clothing paper plastic Liquid B diesel. Oil and fat F cooking oils. the chain cannot continue moving and the bar is driven in an upward arc toward the operator. Control measures: insulating the surface of a beam (or) pipe with heat resistant materials. 3) Direct burning: combustible materials in direct contact with naked flame. Control measures: protection of openings by fire doors and the creation of fire resistant of compartments in buildings.Q8a) in relation to the classifications of fires.) a metal beam (or) pipe transmitting heat through a solid wall. 2) Conduction: the movement of heat through materials (usually solid). fire apparatus. (e.

6) Wood dust hazards: leading to asthma. vibration etc. Required by operator is reduced. 3) Heat hazard: due to working under the sun. 7) Petrol hazards: as a carbon monoxide hazards. 4) Reducing time of exposure of operators to vibration. 1) Numbness of fingers 2) Blanching of fingers 3) Swollen painful joints 4) Reduction in manual dexterity (things may fall from hands and fine adjustment by hand cannot be achieved. fire fumes etc. 5) Biological hazards: due to contaminate ground. 4) Tripping hazard: due to obstruction by tree parts. 3) Proper selection of equipment and maintenance.1) Equipment hazards: as cutting. ejection. Q10b) outline SIX control measures that can be used to reduce the risk from vibration? 1) Eliminate the risk: by process change to eliminate the need for using vibrating hand held tools. 6)use of appropriate PPE (as gloves to keep hand warm) . 2) Flying sticks: leading to eye injury. noise. Q10) a maintenance worker regularly uses a hand held grinder and is exposed to vibration! Q10a) identify the symptoms that the worker may experience due to this exposure? The typical symptoms are. 2) reduce the risk: to modify operating procedure so that the pressure upon the tool. dermatitis etc. insects etc. 5) Health surveillance to detect the early signs and symptoms of vibration illness.

2) Refuse / rubbish: accumulating in work / storage areas. Q11) Identify EIGHT common course of fires in the workplace? 1) Electricity: neglect and misuse of wiring and electrical appliances. Q12a) out line possible effects on workers health when exposed to high noise levels? 1) The outer ear channels the sound pressure waves through to the eardrum.) blows. . 2) Temporary threshold shift: due to fatigue of hearing cells conveying frequencies outside the conversation speech range. flammable liquids. lamps. 3) The COCHIEA in the inner ear is filled with fluid and contains tiny ears (nerves). 7) Specific hazards: machinery in dusty environments. adhesives (or) other chemicals. which respond to the sound signals are then sent to the brain via acoustic nerves. 4) Heaters: portable heaters can be knocked over. 2) Permanent threshold: due to death of hearing cells conveying frequencies outside the conversation speech. Inadequate ashtrays. the vibrations of the eardrum is transmitted through three small bones (hammer. anvil and stirrup) to the inner ear. due to intense noise levels as in explosion. 2) The middle ear. All heaters could over heat if obstructed. SHORT TERM EFFECTS 1) Acute acoustic trauma: sudden damage of ear drum. due to intense stimulation of auditory nerve over a period of time. 3) Smoking: discarded cigarettes. poorly sited (or) inadequately guarded. matches.g. LONG TERM EFFECTS: 1) Tinnitus: ringing in the ear. 6) Arson: by mischievous children and adult fire raisers. heated equipment (e. cutting and welding equipment. facilitated by ineffectively secured buildings. 5) Hazardous goods: includes materials such as paints.

) baffles 2) Damping: mechanical vibration can be converted into heat by damping (e. 6) Noise reduction. 4) Not wearing ear protectors all of the time.g. Q12c) describe with practical examples noise control techniques that would reduce noise levels in the work place? 1) absorption: using barriers of POROUS materials: (e. duct silencers etc. . 3) Not fitted properly. Q12b) out line factors to be considered when selecting personnel hearing protection for workers? 1) Provision of information and training.g. 5) Specification of protectors does not provide sufficient attenuation. due to lack of training.3) Noise – included hearing loss: due to death of hearing cells conveying conversation speech frequencies. 4) Fatigue (or) stress.) a brick wall lead sheet etc.) rubber mount etc).) between the noise source and the receivers will provide noise insulation.) foam. spectacles earnings etc. 2) Readily available.g. 4) Issue to visitors.g.g. Q12d) out line factors that are likely to affect the performance of personnel of hearing protection? 1) Long hair.) motel / plastic panels) 3) Silencers: pipe / boxes can be designed to reduce air /gas noise (e. may cause a poor seal to occur. to reduce sound energy (e. 5) Insulation: imposing a barrier (e.g.. in the path of vibration can isolate a noise radiating area from a vibration input. 3) Comfort and personnel choke. 5) Care and maintenance. 4) Isolation: positioning an elastic element (e. mineral etc).) engine exhaust silencers.

9) Appropriate guarding and shields may be used to protect against exposed live parts.Q13) identify control measures to reduce the risk of electric shock. Q14b) outline control measures for each of the ignition sources identified in? .) welding 5) Cocking. 3) Fixed (or) portable heaters. Do not use with damaged insulation. 11) Grounding is a safe path for the electric current to flow away from your body. improper grounding of a tool could result in serious shock. 4) Hot process (e. when using a portable electric drill? 1) Inspect wiring of equipment before each use. 6) Avoid overhead power lines. 6) Electrical equipment (or) machinery 7) Static electricity. 7) Use proper wiring connection. 2) Avoid contact with energized electrical circuits. 4) Hand held tools should have insulated grip. 8) Use and maintain tools properly. 10) Wear corrects PPE. 3) Avoid using damaged drills which leads to serious electrical problems.g. 5) Avoid wet working conditions and other dangers. Q14a) identify FOUR types of ignition source that cause a fire in the workplace? 1) Smokers materials 2) Naked flames.

edges especially. avoid covering ventilation holes. . warning signs. jeweler etc are caught in parts of a revolving machine. 4) Friction and abrasion: friction burns and encountering rough surfaces moving at high speed. one another a “trap” is created. can Result in serious cuts and even amputation injuries.1) Naked flame: care in using instrument with naked flame and to exclude any flammable substance nearby. 6) Shear: when two (or) more machine parts move towards / past.g. 2) Impact: where the body impacted by moving parts (or) processed items. 7) Stabbing and puncture: the body may be penetrated by sharp pieces of equipment (or) Material contained in the equipment. cloths. 3) Ejection: where the parts of the machine (or) materials being used fly out and hit the body. 3) Heat build – up: machine lubrication. earthing. 5) Cutting: saw blades. This can result in crash injury (or) even an amputation. Q16a) identify TWO types of hazardous substance? 1) HAZARDDOURS SUBSTANCES: Harmful / toxic – causing transient (or) permanent damage to body functions (e. maintenance and safe system of work. knives and even rough. The dangerous part can appear stationary. 4) Hot work: hot work permits. 8) Crushing: caused when part of the body is caught between either two moving parts of machinery (or) a moving part and a stationary object. when moving at high speed.) solvents. fuses. spark proof equipment. 5) Cigarettes: prohibiting smoking. Q15) identify EIGHT types of mechanical hazard associated with machinery? 1) Entanglement: where hair. 2) Electrical sparks: electrical protective measures (as) isolation.

) isocyanides. Q18) control measures to reduce the risk of accidents from reversing vehicles in the workplace? 1) Remove people from the reversing area.) sodium hydroxide. Q17b) outline the methods airborne dust in the workplace? 1) Visual signs of dust accumulation.) ethoxyethano.g. Q17a) outline the term” reparable dust”? Repairable dust is an airborne dust is an airborne dust of such a size that it is able to enter the lungs during normal respiration.g. . Q16b) outline personal hygiene controls to reduce the risk of ingestion of a hazardous substance? 1) Regular hand washing. 3) Removing and cleaning contaminated cloths. 3) Direct reading instruments. sulphuric acid.) butyl /ester. 4) Sampling using pumps and filters followed by analysis.g. create a vehicle only area and keep the area free from obstructions.g.g. 5) Carcinogenic: causing cancer (e. 2) Restriction of smoking and eating in the workplace.2) Corrosive: causing damage to living tissue (e. 6) Mutagenic: causing genetic damage (e. 7) A substance toxic to human reproduction (e. 2) Dust lamps.) arsenic.g. 4) Sensitizing: causing an allergic reaction (e. 3) Irritant: causing local irritation to living tissue (e.) asbestos. Dust of 10 microns size (or) less reparable. 4) The use suitable PPE (as gloves).

5) Place fixed mirrors in reversing areas. Q19a). provide physical stops such as barriers. provide large reversing areas where possible. 12) Select conspicuous vehicle colors and marking to assist the vehicle in standing out. All physical stops should be highly visible. . 8) consider reversing aids (or) safety devices if appropriate for example “sensing” or “trip” systems can assist in the detection of people (or) obstacles behind the reversing vehicle. if the workplace is small. you may have to restrict the size of vehicles allowed to access your site. appropriately positioned and well maintained. 10) Consider installing a speed limiting a speed limiting device to the vehicle when reversing. 7) Ensure that there is adequate lighting in the reversing area. 3) Ensure that reversing areas are well laid out. where required the rear wheels / hazardous vehicle access points to prevent people from being under the vehicle. 9) Audible reversing alarms which warn people of the danger can be of assistance. bollards buffers (or) wheel stops to warn rivers that they need to stop and to prevent vehicles from over - turning edges. The load: 1) Consideration should be given to reducing the weight although this may mean increasing the frequency of handling. 4) The provision of longitudinal guides. cleanly identified tor both drivers and pedestrians have adequate markings. lateral white lines on the ground (or) fixed mirrors can all be of assistance to the driver in positioning the vehicle correctly. if required.2) Ensure that there is adequate space for reversing. 11) Fix guards. 6) Where vehicles have to reverse up to structures services (or) edges. signage and aids to increase visibility such as mirrors.

6) Good practice would include information on the load packaging to give a general indication of the weight and nature of the loads to be handled should from part of any basic training. jagged edges. Q20) identify EIGHT safe working practices that should be considered to reduce the risk when using a mobile tower scaffold? 1) The height of an untied. so that workers have sufficient information they are likely to be asked to do. consideration should be given to the provision of handles. b) Indoor use – 3. 2) An individual’s physical capacity can also be age-related. . a good practice may be: a) Outdoor use – 3 times. hand grips. 3) It is clear then that an individual’s condition and age could signisificantly affect the ability to perform a task safely. 3) Where the size. Q19b) the individual‘s state of health. A key high risk group would be expectant mothers (or) workers with disabilities.5 times. surface texture (or) nature of a load makes it difficult to grasp. typically climbing until the early 20’s and declining gradually from the mid 40’s. rough. indents etc.2) If there is a great verity of weight to be handled it may be possible to sort the loads into weight categories. fitness. the minimum base width. the minimum base width. 4) Loads in packages should be such that they cannot shift unexpectedly. 5) Any loads to be handled should not have sharp comers. where being handled. very hot (or) very cold surfaces and the like. independent tower must never exceed the manufacture’s recommendations. to improve to grasp. so that precautions can be applied selectively. height and strength can significantly affect the ability to perform a task safely.

5) Removing key from the vehicle. 7) Forks resting on floor. 8) Guard nails and toe boards must be fitted. 10) Parking should no obstructing fire exits / fire points. 5) Never use a tower near a live overhead power lines (or) cables. 4) All parts must be sound and from the same manufacture. 3) Turn off the motor and apply brakes. 4) Set the controls in neutral position. 9) Parked should not obstruct the walk ways. 8) Forklifts that are parked on an inclined (or) sloping floor must be blocked. 3) Working platforms must only be accessed by safe means. Q21b) precautions that should be taken when leaving a fork-lift truck unattended? 1) Designated parking area should be provided with sufficient spaces. 2) Restrict the access from unauthorized people and define the reaffix routes. 7) Working platform must always be fully boarded out. 6) Must tilt slightly forward. . 6) Before climbing a tower the wheels must be turned outwards the wheel breaks “on” locked and kept locked. 9) A safe maximum working load must also be stated. 11) Returning key to responsible person.2) If the height of the tower is to exceed these maximum figures than the scaffold must be secured. (Tied) to the structure (or) out riggers used.

Q23) outline FOUR main types of guards and safeguarding devices that may be used to minimize the risk of contact with dangerous parts of machinery? FIXED GUARDS: a fixed guards / fence must be fitted. 3) Entry should be permitted with reference (or) entry pass/tag/ badge. who may be tempted to gain access to a construction site? 1) Unauthorized entry can be prevented by secure fencing and signs. Such that it cannot be removed. therefore machine can still be operated without guard/ 2) May cause problems with visibility for inspection. other than by the use of specialist tools. chemicals. 6) Covering (or) fencing the excavation areas. 3) If enclosed. INTERLOCKING GUARDS: . 8) Secure from electrical lines present in the site if any. equipments and machinery 5) Reducing heights of materials. 2) Monitoring the site by the use of security patrols and closed – circuit television.Q22) identify precautions that should be considered to prevent accidents to children. 7) Denying access and removing the ladders to scaffolding. 4) Isolating the site and securing the tools. Which are not available to operators of the equipment a fixed guard may be designed to enable access by authorized personnel for maintenance (or) inspection but only when the dangerous parts of the machine have been isolated? LIMITATIONS OF FIXED GUARDS: 1) Do not disconnect power when not in place. may create problems with heat.

A guard is something that physically prevents access to the hazard whereas a trip device detects the person in the danger zone and responds to this (e. a further mechanism which either stops (or) reverses the machine. It is critical to note. 2) May not prevent harm from occurring. but has a movable part.g. TRIP DIVICES: A sensitive rod cable (or) other mechanism which cause the device to activate. Regular to the danger area. 3) May cause production delays increase stress in users with false “trips” Q24a) identify three forms of biological agents? 1) Hepatitis 2) Wile’s diseases.ridden. a person can step inside and close gate behind them.) on guillotine (or) large panel press. so that the act of closing the guard activates the working part (e. .g.copier interlocked guards are useful if operators used.An interlocking guard is similar to a fixed guard. LIMITATIONS: 1) Have moving parts therefore need regular maintenance 2) Can be over.) the front panel of a photo. AUTOMATIC GUARD: A guard which operates as the machine goes through its cycle. LIMITATIONS: usually restricted to slow cycling machinery. In some causes it physically moves the operator away from danger and his therefore only suitable for slow cycling equipment (e. that is not classed as a guard. It is a sensitive rod cable (or) other mechanism which cause the device to activate.) pressure sensitive mats. This can be arranged.g. LIMITATIONS: 1) can be over ridden. if the movable part is in the open / lifted position the dangerous moving part at the work point cannot operate. 3) If interlock is in the form of a gate. a further mechanism which either stops (or) reverses the machine.

Q24b) identify THREE possible routes of entry in to the body for a biological agent? 1) Inhalation. A25) Identify the information that should be included on a manufacture’s safety data sheet supplied with hazardous substances? 1) Hazards identification 2) First aid measures 3) Fire fighting measures 4) Accidental release measures 5) Handling and storage 6) Exposure controls / personnel protection. Q24c) give two control measures to reduce the risk of exposure to a biological agent? 1) Disinspection for materials (or) equipment contaminated with the agent.3) injection. 8) Physical and chemical properties. 3) Immunization vaccination (or) seroprophylaxis. 7) Identification of the substance. . 4) Water control (by boiling (or) chlorination. 5) Proper disposal of wastes.2) ingestion. 5) Tetanus. 6) Use of the appropriate PPE. 4) Anthrax. 2) Good personal hygiene.4) entry through open wounds.3) Legionnaire’s disease.

4) Pushing (or) pulling loads. 3) Excessive pushing (or) pulling. 3) Tendons and ligaments can also be over – stretched and torn. 7) Task requiring repetitive handling with no sufficient rest per. 14) Regularity information. above (or) below waist level. 12) Disposal consideration. 4) Rupture of a section of the abdominal wall can cause a hernia. Q26 a) identify for types of injury that the worker could suffer while caring out this activity? 1) Rupture of interuertebral (slipped disc) in the lower spine. 5) Loads with sharp edges can cause cuts. 2) Excessive caring. 11) Ecological information. 2) Muscle strain and sprain and sprain. Q27a) indentify the principle of the fire triangle? . twisting (or) overreaching. 6) Task requiring stooping. lifting (or) lowering distances. 5) The need to lift from and to return load to the ground level. Q26b) identify factors in relation to the task that could increase the risk of injury? 1) Handling loads at a distance from the body. 13) Transport information. 10) Toxicological information.9) Stability and reactivity.

Q28a) identify FOUR types of ionizing radiation? 1) Alpha particles: are comparatively large. Q27b) identify three methods of heat transfer and state how each contributes to the spread of fire? 1) Convection: the movement of hotter gases up through the (hot air rises). they are smaller in mass than alpha particles. 2) Beta particles: are much faster moving than alpha particles. 4) Direct brining: combustible materials in direct contact with necked flame. 3) Culling: is removal of the heat component. when this happens the high localized entry effect will destroy adjacent tissue of the organs affected. 2) Smothering: is exclusion of oxygen from the fire environment. 2) Conduction: the movement of heat through a material. The principle risk is through ingestion (or) inhalation of a source (e. dry powder co2 and sand are extinguishing agents acting by smothering. Dividing the fire into small fire can be considered also as a starving method. so they can damage and penetrate the skin. water extinguishers act by this way.) radon gas an alpha particles emitter which might place the material close to vulnerable tissue. but have longer range.g. alpha particles travel short distances in dense materials and can only just penetrate the skin. Fire needs oxygen to continue same as human needs oxygen to breath.1) Stating: is removal of the fuel from the neighborhood of the fire. whist they have greater penetrating .

gamma radiation passing through a normal atom will sometimes force the loss of an electron leaving the atom positively charged this is called an ion. Q29) identify the main hazards that may be present during the demolition of a building? . 3) Gamma rays: have great penetrating power. x rays are produced by sudden acceleration (or) deceleration of a charged particle. 5) Monitoring external radiation does: by use of film badges (or) thermo luminescent dosimeter. usually when high speed electrons strike a suitable target under controlled condtions. to prevent radioactive material from being inhaled ingested (or) coming into contact with skin. 4) x rays: are very similar in their effects to gamma rays. 8) Wearing the suitable PPE. 6) Health surveillance: to detect early signs of explosive to radiation. 2) Shielding (interposing material between radiation source and exposed person) materials of high mass number are chosen for shielding as lead. 7) Proper disposal of radioactive wastes. Q28b) outline the main principles of control for ionizing radiation? 1) Reducing time of exposure for ionizing radiation. 9) Wearing signs to refer to radiation hazard. Beta particles are less ionizing and take longer to affect the same degree of damage. 4) Automatic alarms: if radiation level exceeds certain limits.000 volts x rays and gamma rays have high energy and high penetration power through fairly dense material. In low density. 3) Distance: increasing the distance between radiation source and those exposed will reduce the radiation does receive.power than alpha particles. substances include air they may the travel long distances.the electrical potential required to accelerate electrons to speeds when x ray production will occur is a minimum of 15.

some of which are of a fatal nature. 5) Poor positioning (or) the absence of access ladders allowing workers to fall. including spoil (ground which has been excavated) are stored too close to the edge of the excavation. 3) Overloading of floors (or) the structure with debris. especially if the excavation is in a public area. flying materials. 4) Explosions in tanks (or) other confined spaces. when: materials. Particular problems arise. 2) Collapse of building (or) structure either deliberately (or) unplanned. Q30) a THREE meter deep trench has to be dug across a car park? Q30a) identify hazards associated with the work? 1) The hazards of work in and around excavations: falls of equipment. 6) Absence of organized crossing points. the problems are very similar to those faced when workers are working at a height – falls and falling objects. falls of materials. 4) Absence of barriers (or) lighting. 3) The edge of the excavations is not clear. 7) Projecting nails in timber (or) broken glass may penetrate in the parts of the body. 2) The excavation is close to another building and the foundations may be undermined. corrosive and poisonous materials and (or) atmospheres.1) Falls of workers. dust and debris resulting in wide range of injuries and conditions. 5) Presence of live electric cable (or) gas mains. materials and persons falling into the excavation: When workers are working below ground in excavations. . 6) Presence of dusty. resulting in floor an (or) building collapse.

g. 8) No stop blocks for back filling. . 2) Heavy plant (or) materials too closes to the edge of the excavation. The risk can be made worse if. 1) The soil structure is loose (or) made unstable by water logging. 5) Proper branching to prevent twisting and collapse. 3) If should stand on a firm level base. Q30b) identify control measures that could be implemented to reduce the risk? 1) Manual handling hazard: controlled by the use of mechanical aids as conveyer belts for example.75 meters. leading to the possibility of collapse. 4) There is inadequate support for the sides. 8) The maximal height of tied tower is 12 meter.7) Badly constructed ramps for vehicle access which can cause the vehicle to topple. Q31) outline precautions that should be taken when using a mobile crane? 1) Erection should be in accordance with manufacture’s recommendation. 3) Machinery (or) vehicles causes vibration. 6) The ratio of the minimum base dimensions to the height should not exceed 1:3 external use and 1:3:5 in internal use. the soil and earth that make up the sides of the excavation cannot be relied upon to support their own weight. by reducing the weight of answer in 4 the question. 4) Scaffold tubes to be free from defects (e.) bent sections. 2) Erection alteration and dismantling to be done by competent persons. 9) Routing of vehicles too close to the excavation. 7) The maximal height of tree standing tower is 9. 2) Collapse of the excavation: often.

tower is sure no power lines obstructions holes in the ground etc. Q32) a portable electric drill is being used on a building site? Q32a) other than electricity identifies FOUR hazards associated with the use of the drill? 1) Inhalation (fumes. the tower base is too small for the height. If necessary to lifting materials and equipment up. the scaffold is likely to be exposed to strong winds. 10) Platforms should be properly support and fully boarded.2) heavy drilling. dust) 2) Moving and rotating parts (blades and bits.9) A safe means of access to be provided on the narrowest side of the tower “as vertical ladder attached internally. . make sure the castors are locked. tool disintegration) 3) Waste ejection (waste materials from cutting blades) 4) Heat (burns from hot materials (or) friction) 5) Movement (piece moving). the tower is to be used for operate like. 12) Toe boards and guard rails to be prevent falls of workers and / or materials. 11) Ladder (or) stepladders should not be placed on the platform to gain extra height for working. 17) Push the tower from the base. 16) Before moving. 13) Tie the mobile tower if.3) water jetting.1) grid blasting. 14) On using a mobile tower. the guard rails should be 3 feet above the platform. 6) Stabbing of drill bit in to the hands (or) legs. 15) Toe boards and guard rails are to be provided for a platform of more than 2 meter height.

acetylene. 4) Fit non return valves at blow pipe / torch inlet on both gas lines. 7) Do not let oil (or) grease contaminate oxygen supply due to explosion hazard. 3) Clearly identify try color code the hoses for oxygen. 4) Use appropriate PPE. 2) Adequate ventilation should be available. 10) Keep hose lengths to a minimum. 5) Work areas should be well lighted Q33) identify precautions that would need to be considering before welding work can commence? 1) Only use competent trained worker. 5) Fit flash back arrestors incorporating cut off valves and flame arrestors fitted to outlet of both gas regulators. Q32b) outline FOUR precautions that could be taken to reduce the risk to workers? 1) Guards and safety devices designed for the portable machine must be in place. 6) Use crimped hose connections not jubilee clips. 9) Secure cylinders in upright position. 2) Regulations should be of a recognized standard. 8) Check equipments visually before use and check new connections with soapy water leaks.7) When drilling clamp (or) anchor the materials being drilled to prevent whipping and possible injury. The inhalation of dust (or) fumes from design technology workplace activities should be limited. propane. . 3) Adequate instruction in the correct operation of the portable tools should be given.

on the chisel. 2) Files: these should have a proper handle. Q35) identify FOUR forms of hazard as substance for which respiratory protective equipment could be used to reduce the risk of harm 1) Dust: are solid particles suspended in the air. it is created by such operations as grinding. never use the as levers. 4) Gas: is a formless chemical that occupies the area in which it is enclosed.Q34) outline contract measure to reduce the risks to workers when using non-powered hand tools? 1) Hammer: avoid split. have enough spanners of the right size. heads should be properly secured to the shafts. 3) Fume: fine particulate solids resulting from condensation of a vapor. split handle are dangerous. 4) Incorrect hood location. 3) Chisels: the cutting edge should be sharpened to the correct angle. 2) Vapor: is the gaseous form of a liquid: it results from heating a liquid. do not allow the head of cold chisels to spread to a mushroom agape-grid off the sites regularly use a hand guard. as extensions to the handle. Do not improve by using pipes etc. broken (or) loose shafts (handles) and worn (or) chipped heads. Q35b) outline factors that could reduce the effectiveness of the respiratory protective equipment? 1) Damage ducting. . 2) Unauthorized alterations. 3) Screwdrivers: never use those chisels and never use the correct size and type of screwdriver for the screw. 3) Process changes leading to overwhelming amounts of contamination. 4) Spanners: avoid spayed jaws. scrap any which show signs of slipping.

Throw off (sudden movement of the body). 4) Damage to internal organs. 3) Failure of control measures and security systems 4) Loss of information. 3) Tissue burns at entry and exit. 2) Ventricular fibrillation (irregular heartbeat).5) Fan strength (or) incorrect adjustment of fan. 8) Leaving too many ports often. 7) Blocked (or) defective filters. 5) Muscular contractions. . Secondary effects: 1) Falls from height. 6) Physical trauma. 2) Unintentional movement of machinery. 6) Too many bends in ducts. Q36a) identify the possible effects of electricity on the body? 1) Damage to the nervous system. 7) Stopping breating (respiratory paralysis) 8) Stopping the heart (cardiac arrest) 9) Neurological effects. 5) Corporate reputation. 9) The cost of heating make up air may encourage employers to reduce flow rates.

cool any burns with cold water. plan procedures for an emergency (calling for help from the emergency services. This is especially critically with overhead high voltage lines. keep the causality under observation for secondary effects until you hand over to a medically qualified person. as seconds saved may save a life. remove if tongue tilt. 2) Check that there is no remaining connection to the supply and if possible.Q36b) outline emergency action to take. 5) If safe. Do not: do not go near the causality until the electrical supply is proven to be off. 4) Call for qualified support which may be the emergency service. If trained. if a person suffers a severe electric shock? 1) Switch off (or) remove the plug.otherwise: Do not delay: after 3 minutes without blood circulation irreversible damage can be done to the causality. meeting ambulances and leading from the causality. place in the recovery position and / or apply resuscitation as required. Prove that the system is discharged and dead.) Check: a > airway. company personnel advise. Do not wait for an accident to happen: train in emergency procedure and first aid now. keep you and others at least 18 meters away until the electricity supply. 3) Assess the situation and any remaining danger to yourself (or) the causality.is it open? b> breathing – is the causality breathing normally? c> circulation-does the causality have a normal pulse? Action: if airway obstructed by teeth. Hold emergency drills. food etc. . check the causality’s response (what is the degree of consciousness. head back to clear and then provide cardio pulmonary resuscitation (CPR).

3) Call the fire and rescue service. 5) Ensure that all occupants of the floor are aware that evacuation of the floor is necessary and direct the occupants to the nearest accessible exit (or) escape stairs through which they should proceed to the designated assembly area. type and severity of the emergency. 4) Tires are properly inflated. 10) Provided it is safe to do so. make a thorough search of the whole floor (or) area to ensure that no persons remain. 2) Sound the fire alarm system and order the evacuation of the floor. . 8) Ensure that necessary assistance is given to disabled and other person is need of special area. 4) Advice the emergency of the floor and the proposed. 9) Check fire doors to ensure that they are closed and post a watch so that they are kept closed. 7) DO NOT USE LIFTS. 3) It is used on suitable firm and level ground. 2) The work platform is fitted with guard rails and toe boards.Q37) outline the general role a fire marshal would be expected to undertake in an emergency of a workplace in event of a fire? 1) Check the source. the ground may have to be prepared in advance. Q38) identify safe working practices to the use of a mobile elevating working platform (MEWP)? 1) Whoever is operation it is fully trained and competent. 11) Carry out a roll call. 12) Assist the building warden in checking that all building occupants have arrived at the assembly area. 6) Ensure that evacuation from is orderly and by means of the stairs. except during the escape of occupants.

fuel.) hand rails.barriers /fences. 4) Inappropriate footwear. in the raise and position. 3) Slippery surfaces: cause by water. 2) Fragile roofs. oils. insecure ducting (or) grates.) running (or) not taking care when walking. slops kerfs (or) steps not clearly marked. 5) Rules not followed – (e. FALLS FROM HEIGHT. what to do if the machine fails with the platform. damaged floor tiles. Q40a) identify possible risks to health associated with the use of display? (DSE) 1) Work related upper limb disorders (WRULDs) . holes in roads. site mud (or) mixed compounds such as plaster.5) The work area is cordoned off to prevent access below the work platform. Q39) outline the hazards associated with slips and trips in the workplace? 1) Poorly maintained surface: (e.g. 6) That it is well it. 8) All involved know.g. 2) Changes in level: caused by ramp. poor (or) walk ways. 1) Inadequate access to and from the workplace. site debris.) highly polished surfaces. 6) General obstructions: in walkways such as trailing cables. pipes and air hoses.g. if being used on a public highway in poor lighting. edge protection boards. 4) trenches. 3) Inadequate barriers (e. 7) Outriggers are extended and choked as necessary before raising platform.

5) Other minor (or) alleged health effects. drinking (or) smoking at work. 6) Epilepsy 7) Facial dermatitis. 2) Direct contact with eyes. 4) Stability of the seat base. 6) Provision of arm rests. keep and dispose the chemical spillage in the workplace? The ways in which persons might be harmed are: 1) Direct contact with the skin. 2) Ability to adjust the seat back and seat height. 3) Provision of foot rests. 5) Swivel ability. 8) Radiation. . 9) Effects on pregnant women. Q41a) outline the process to clean. 3) Eye and eyesight problem. 3) Inhalation of fumes (or) particles. 4) Fatigue and stress.2) Musculoskeletal disorders. Q40b) identify the features of a chair to ensure is suitable for use at DSE workstation? 1) Good lumber support.) 5) Slipping hazards: hazards: depending on the chemical nature of the substances (as flammability) for example. 4) Ingestion of the materials (direct which is rare and indirect through contaminated hands and ingestion while eating.

b) The procedure in the event of a spillage: 1) Isolate (or) evacuate the area. other relate to: 1) Facilitating compliance (make easier) with legal obligations (where applicable) 2) Collecting evidence to defend a civil. the main reasons for investigation relate to the identification of possible weakness in risk assessment process and other aspects of safety management systems . powder. 4) deal with the spillage according to its type (for example in liquid spillage. Q1) a worker has received serious injuries from being stuck by a reversing vehicle in a loading bay. 8) Safe disposal of the spilled substances together with any contaminated material. Q1b) outline the information that should be included in the investigation report? 1) The personal details of the injured party. 3) Determining economic loss. where applicable. etc) 3) summon help: from emergency services (if this is required. in order to prevent similar accidents occurring in the future. In this respect. 6) Give appropriate first aid and medical treatment to any person who might have been harmed by the initial spillage. 2) Make an initial assessment to determine extant of spillage type of Spillage (liquid. use absorbent material) 5) Issue the appropriate PPE to those involved in dealing with the spillage. 4) Demonstrating management commitment to occupational health and safety. Q1a) identify FOUR reasons why the accident should be investigated? An accident is to identify the immediate and root causes. . 7) Ongoing health surveillance for the persons exposed to the initial spillage.

where applicable. 4) The control measures in place. 4) Failure to separate vehicular and pedestrian traffic. Q1c) out line FOUR possible immediate causes? 1) Human error (or) failure to comply with procedures. 6) The type and extent of injury sustained. 5) The precise circumstances of the accident. . 2) The promote recovery. Q2a) identify TWO main purpose of first-aid treatment? 1) The preservation of life. 5) Environmental conditions such as high noise levels. time and location of the accident. 3) Environmental conditions the work activity at the time of the accident. Q1d) FOUR possible underlying (root) causes of the accident? 1) Lack of driver and/or other employee training. 5) Lack of maintenance of vehicles and / or the workplace. 3) Absence of site rules (or) procedures for the control of reversing vehicles. 7) The details of witness and copies of their statements were taken. 9) Immediate and root causes identified. 10) Possible breaches of the law. 2) Lack of supervision.2) The date. 3) Poor visibility in the loading bay (e. 8) Drawings and photographs.g. absence of lighting) 4) Restricted view for the driver. 2) Mechanical failure. 11) The recommendations of the investigation team in relation to remedial action required.

Q3) explain why the provision of personal protective equipment (PPE) should be considered only after other control measures? 1) PPE. Only protects the wearer and others who may be in the area and also at risk. 3) Workers working away from employers premises – the nature of the work and its risk will need to be considered. 4) Workers of more than one employer working together – agreement can be made to share adequate facilities. if ambulance access is difficult (or) likely to be delayed. 2) Difficult access to treatment – an equipped first aid room may be required. Q2b) outline the factors to be considered when making an assessment of first-aid requirement in a workplace? 1) Different work activities. the employer will then be able out the number and size of first aid boxes required. . May not provide adequate protection. 3) PPE.employees. Is likely to be uncomfortable and relies for its effectiveness on conscious action by the user. 2) PPE. impaired movement (or) fatigue. receive no treatment. poor fit. with one employer responsible for their provision. example: few hazards in office and more hazards in construction (or) chemical sites. masked by hearing protection) 5) The introduction of PPE may bring another hazard such as impaired vision. Because of such factors as poor selection. 7) Having made this assessment. warning sounds. its use can actually create additional risks (for instance. incompatibility with other types PPE.use by workers.3) Treatment of minor injuries which would otherwise. contamination and misuse of non. 6) Employers do not usually make first-aid provisions for any person other than their own workers. 8) Additional facilities such as a stretcher (0r) first-aid room may also be appropriate. 4) In certain circumstances. 5) Provisions for non.

it is impossible to measure actual exposure to hazards such as dust. sets standards against which performance can be measured. Q4) identify issues that could be considered at a safety meeting? Topics may include a review of recent accidents / incidents. 5) Effectiveness of training.6) PPE may only be capable of minimizing injury rather than preventing it. Q5) outline the key elements of a health and safety management system? Health and management systems may be structured in and a number of ways. 3) Safety rep. PLANNING AND IMPLEMENTATION: identify hazards. 4) Monitor safety systems etc. assess the risk and decide how risk can be eliminated (or) controlled. co-operation and communication. 7) If PPE fails to give 100% protection. vapors and noise. a review of proactive monitoring strategies such as inspections and audits. The agenda should consist of: 1) Study of statics. commitment and control. ORGANISING: clear roles and line of responsibility. competence. . POLICY: health and safety aims and objectives of the organization and management commitment. therefore the key elements may be described differently. reports following visits by enforcement authorities. The effects of the company new (or) impending H&S legislation and possible amendments to the companies H&S policy and risk assessments. 7) Links with appropriate inspectors. 6) Health and safety communications. 2) Examination audit reports. The extent and effectiveness of any H&S training given to employees and the introduction of new equipment & processes.reports.

2) Work involving harmful exposure to agents. Q7) outline the factors that should be considered when assessing the health and safety competence of a contractor? Candidates should be able to list a good range of factors that include. 5) Work in which there is a risk to health from extreme cold (or) heat. carcinogenic (or) may cause heritable genetic damage. 3) Work involving harmful exposure to radiation. which may not be recognized (or) avoided by young person’s owing to their insufficient attention. which are toxic. 4) Work involving risk of accidents. Q6a) identify reasons why young workers could be at greater risk of being injured at work? 1) Work is beyond their physical (or) psychological capacity. . REVIEING: analyzing data.MEASURING PERFORMANCE: a means of determining the extent to which health and safety and objectives are being implemented and should be with reactive and proactive. amongst many others. gathered through monitoring to see whether performance is adequate. AUDIT: systematic critical examination of each stage of an organizations management systems and procedures. 3) Adequate health and safety training and monitoring and/or supervision would aid. 4) Also consider limiting hours of work. noise (or) vibration. 1) The contractor’s previous experience with the type of work. Q6b) outline the control measures that should be taken that should minimize risks to young workers? 1) Should carryout risk assessment before young workers start work? 2) Measures to provide suitable work equipment and the organization of work and processes.

4) Sampling: involving the targeting of specifications. Q8b) outline FOUR reactive monitoring procedures that could be used to assess the health and safety performance of an organization? . such as manual handling.g. Q8) outline FOUR active (proactive) monitoring procedures that could be used to assess the health and safety performance of an organization? Active methods of monitoring might include: Safety audits involving comprehensive and independently executed examinations of all aspects of an organizations health and safety performance against objectives: safety surveys focusing on a particular activity. method statement for the work to be carried out). 7) Equipment maintenance and statutory examination records. 2) Audits: involving comprehensive and independent examinations of all aspects of an organizations health and safety management systems against stated objectives. 3) The content and quality of the contractor’s health and safety policy and risk assessments. 6) Membership of certification bodies. 5) Tours: where unscheduled less formal workplace inspections are carried out to check on issues such as housekeeping (or) the use of PPE.2) The reputation of the contractor amongst previous (or) current clients. 7) Environment and health monitoring. 5) Accident / enforcement history. (E. 4) The level of training and qualifications of staff. 6) Benchmarking: where an organizations performance certain areas is compared with that of similar organizations. 3) Safety surveys: focusing on particular activities. training programmers and workers attitude towards health safety. 1) Inspections: a formal structured examination of the workplace to identify hazards and eliminate (or) control them and also identify good practices. 8) The detailed proposals.

this may mean that specific arrangements set out in the policy may no longer conform with the law. for example if reporting of accidents is set out in the policy and in relation to a certain workers post. As time passes the arrangements for control of health and safety are influenced by workers finding different ways of doing the same thing.g. Changes in organization have a specific bearing on the arrangements. dangerous. for example the passage of time . arrangements may be set out against circumstances that do not exist anymore because equipment (or) substances have been altered. yet the policy refers to the earlier way of working.g. Legislation changes periodically can it’s fair to say usually reflects a strengthening of reflects expectations.g. Q9a) outline the purpose of the “statement of intent” section of a health and safety policy? An effective way to demonstrate to management’s commitment to health and safety and sets goals and objectives (e. this may be influenced by a reorganization that removes the position. occurrences near misses and cases of occupational ill health. it might also be that the organization has been able to take advantage of technological advantage of technological advantages in something (e. . training publicity etc.) shift working could influence arrangements that have been made.) materials handling. technological. in that it may be incomplete (or) not to a satisfactory standard. Technological change is happening in the workplace all the time and this can mean that. organization (or) legal changes.Methods of monitoring might include: An analyses of statistics on accidents. the result of monitoring (or) following a major accident (or) incident. assessment of the cost of these incidents including damage to property and where applicable in some territories the number of enforcement actions such as prosecutions and notices taken against the organization and the number of civil claims for damages parsed on behalf of its workers.similiarly changes in work patterns (e. arrangements as practiced can therefore differ greatly from the original way it was set out in the policy. A9b) identify the circumstances that would require a health and safety policy to review? A number of circumstances may lead to a need to review the policy.) resources.

This might be from enforcement action. 2) Improved awareness of regulatory requirements. A constant approach like this reduces the number of mistakes and the cost of correcting problems. That you are controlling risk effectively.If monitoring methods are in place and are workings they could identify a gap in a specific arrangement (or) that something is unclear (or) contractor. makes managing your business both easier and more effective. You can demonstrate to your insurers. improved health and safety performance by your business will reduce the costs associated with accident and incident. this improves your image and generates positive public realizations (PR) for your business. It also reduces the level of risk ensures that you comply with legislation. professional advice such as an audit (or) following an accident (or) incident investigation. 6) Improving the efficiency of your business reduces your costs. reduce the chance that you commit any offences. It is usually carried out by a manager . large companies and government agencies may only buy from business that can show effective management systems. this may help lower your insurance premiums. 4) If employees see that you are actively looking after their health and safety. 5) The public see that you are taking a responsible attitude towards your employees. Q12 a) safety inspection: a safety inspection is a straightforward observation of a workplace and the activities. you work out the best way to handle each key activity and make sure that everyone uses the same approach every time. relations and morale will improve. 7) Business partners have more confidence in your business. Q10) identify reasons for maintaining good standards of health and safety in an organization? 1) Taking a systematic approach to management . This can positively influence your business. Banks and investors will be more willing to finance your business if you can show that it is well managed. 3) The health and safety executive will generally regulate your business with a lighter touch if it is well managed.

It is normally a lengthy process carried out by a trained auditor. often someone from outside the organization. 1) The failure that has occurred. often involves a scoring system such that improvement can be made. 4) Time and materials to clean up after the accident. The use of prioritized. 4) high morale. 2) highly production. 5) Based on the audit findings the organization takes action to feed the info the safety system and implement the action required. 3) Medical (or) first-aid costs. it may be carried out routinely with the aim of identifying hazards and assessing the effectiveness of control measures. 2) The priority / sign fiancé of the risk (the risk rating and control) 3) The safety standards that applied and followed / not followed.6) better business reputation. Q13 a) cost that the organization may include as a result? Direct costs: 1) Lost time of injured worker and any continued payments to worker (or) family 2) Damage to the equipment. 3) happy workforce. timed and allocated action plans will aid the process. this clearly gives the reasons for each management failure. . there by resulting in> 1) Lesser accident. The above mentioned action plan motivate the workforce.(or) employee representative. 6) Implementation of the action plan is monitored. Q12c) explain how the findings of an audit may be used to improve health and safety performance? A detailed report will be produced after every audit. 4) Recommended to senior management also is made to summarize the most significant issues and motivate action. often aided by the use of a checklist. It is a structured way of assessing the health and safety performance of an organization by supplying answers to a series of questions. property (or) materials. Q12 b) safety audit: a safety audit is a through critical examination of an organizations safety management systems and procedures. 5) better competitive edge. tools.

designed to prevent accidental injury to personal . preparing accidents reports. investigating the cause of the accident. 7) Fines. selecting (or) training a new worker to replace injured employee. particularly when work with a foreseeable high hazard content is undertaken and the precautions required are numerous and complex. (out of curiosity. 2) Planning. as well as monitoring compliance with and assessing the effectiveness of the arrangements. arranging for the injured workers production to be continued by some other employee. 6) Court costs. Machinery maintenance: machinery / plant maintenance sometimes requires workers with the plant may be spread over a number of floors in a building. Indirect costs: 1) lost time by workers. (assisting injured worker. such as a transformer. Q15a) permit to work: a permit to work system is a formal safety control system. access and egress. out of sympathy. damage to plant. General arrangements: 1) Allocation of finance for health and safety. premises and product . loss of bonuses. work at a height and heavy lifting to be considered. such as power generation. Hot work: typically involving welding operations. Plant. The provision of firefighting equipment and trained personal to deal with ignition is also critical. compensation payments. inquests courts. flour mills (or) lift systems in an office block. organizing and controlling hazards. such as pipe work. will require safe isolation. interference with production leading to failure to fill orders on time. where the risk of sparks may ignite nearby flammable materials. who stop work (or) reduce performance. Work on electrical systems: work on electrical equipment. . penalty payments and similar causes. planning.5) Insurance. weakened morale) 2) lost time by supervisor (or) other manages. Q16) out line general content of the THREE section of a health and safety policy? This section of the policy details the practical arrangements for. attending hearings. elimination (or) protection of such items will need to be considered.

5) Consultation. Specific arrangements: 11) Fire. induction training is thus conducted to make them familiar with the system.) risks assessment. Q18) outline how induction training programs for new workers can help to reduce the number of accidents in the workplace? The new recruits who join the process are totally unaware about the hazards and risks associated with their work. Q17) explain how accident data can be used to improve health and safety performance with an organization? 1) The need establish the causes of an accident both immediate and underlying to take preventive action. 2) electricity. 7) Competence. 6) Prepare civil / criminal action and provide insurance /claims /worker compensation data. 8) Accident and hazard reporting. 6) Communication. . 3) Determine the economic losses. 3) manual handling. 2) Identify weakness in the current systems to improve the standards.g. 5) Acquire statistics. 4) work at height. 4) Control of hazards. The influence of induction training in decreasing the accidents rates are as follows: 1) To understand the safety policy clearly and aware about the safety rules and requirements.general (e.3) Organizing. 9) Monitoring compliance. 4) Recommend actions to prevent recurrence.

3) To undergo health surveillance so their fitness is perfect resulting in good concentration and good alert behavior while at work. 10) monitoring results not as expected. Q19a) give the meaning of the term “risk”? Risk is the likelihood (or) probability that a hazard will cause a specified harm to someone (or) something. physical. it reflects in reduction of accidents. young workers. etc. 4) To get trained in PPE.) chemical. 6) To promote positive safety culture in the organization. this includes our own workers and others workers with special significahence being given to vulnerable employees such as pregnant women.3) changes work methods. regarding safety system and following it.2) changes in process.2) Be clear about the hazards and incidents relating to hazards. 5) To learn from line managers and supervisors and are up-t-date in knowledge.8) prosecutions / enforcement notices. 2) identify the people who might be harmed and how.4) changes in material. . 4) Review assessment and update if necessary.7)changes in legislation.9) changes in personnel.6) new information. the public.5) new plant (or) technology. etc. 3) Evaluate the risk and decide on controls of precautions.g. And their importance and use appropriately thus avoid getting in to physical injuries. Q19 d) explain the criteria which must be met for the assessment to be “suitable and sufficient”? For a risk assessment to be “suitable and sufficient” 1) Legal requirements with respect to risk assessment. to take extra care to avoid getting into hazardous situations. Q19b) identify the key stages of a workplace risk assessment? 1) Identify the hazards associated with it (e. Q19 c) outline THREE reasons for reviewing a risk assessment? 1) accidents.

communicating accidents . the necessary actions required to further reduce the risk are than dealt with and are usually recorded separately. 4) Risk assessment information should be included in lesson plans to ensure items are not missed. sets our requirements that employer should make arrangements in accordance with national legislation to report and record occupational accidents. 6) The risk assessment must remain current for a period of time and ensures the outcomes of the assessment. when star are trained (or) retrained. 5) Risk control measures must be in place and reliable. code of practice for recording and “notifying of occupational accidents and diseases” (RNOAD). dangerous occurrence and incidents. The employer should ensure that records are prepared in accordance with national requirements and in any case within 6 days. Q19 e) outline the information to be recorded in the risk assessment? 1) the task / plant/ process /activity. 2) A previous lack of management response. together with the hazards involved their association risks and workers / persons affected by them together with existing control measures should be record. Q20 b) identify the reasons why workers might not report accidents at work? 1) Ignorance of reporting procedures. Q20 a) outline why an organization should have a system for the internal reporting of accident? According to international labor organization (ILO). 2) Some items particularly those with a high-risk rating. 3) Report writing skills. 3) Information on risk assessments and any controls must be brought to the attention of those assigned to task of work. 4) Assessing sources of information such as organizational (or) legislation codes of practice and in-house information. occupational disease. may require a more detailed explanation (or) there may be a series of alternative actions. .2) All hazards must be identified and risk should be evaluated. including accidents reports.

spillage.g. 5) Adequacy of safety policy. exposure to poisoning and pathogens. Fire and explosion.6) . 5) A desire to preserve company’s safety record. safety advisor. 2) Organization: “the formal systems and procedures” to identify health and safety responsibilities and reporting lines within the company. Q21 a) outline the purpose of an organizations health and safety policy? The purpose of safety policy is to demonstrate that the management is committed to the health and safety of all its employees and has developed the three elements of: 1) Policy: “statement of intent” an effective way to demonstrative management’s commitment to health and safety and sets goals and objectives.2) hazardous toxic gas release. it can be general (or) specific. publicity. etc. 3) chemical spills. etc. Responsibility of health and safety should be identified for each level of managements from the top to individual supervisors. (e. etc.g. General: (e. 2) reputation. 4) Previous work record.g. fire is a specific risk which will need regular review throughout a major build (or) modification project.g. The 1.etc.) resources.) fire. Q22) identify FOUR types of emergency that would require an organization to have an emergency procedure? Adequate emergency procedure should be in place (or) developed in control likely incidents (e. 5) folding and perhaps riots (or) terrorist activities.3) An average to form filling. 4) The possibility of blame culture. Specific: (e.) works engineer. Q23) contractors are carrying out a major building project for an organization? (Or) outline how this organization could reduce the risks to contractors carrying out the projects? 1) Experience with type of work. welfare. 4) serious personal injuries. 3) Suitable reference (or) recommendation. training.g. fire safety. (e.) first aid. 3) Arrangements: “what has to be done to implement the policy” set out detail the specific and procedures for implementing the safety policy.) relating to the work.

to ensure the success of the communication. 9) Suitable training for employees. such as stylized human figures and emblems to represent concepts such as “PPE must be worn” and the direction of traffic flow on a construction site.7) accident and ill health data. would be particularly important.) hazardous. 15) Progress meeting. The speaker should not assume that the receiver understood what has been said. Q26 a) identify FOUR types of health and safety information that could be displaced on a notice board within a workplace? 1) General principles of communication: communication is a two – way process of the receiver are equally as critical as the needs of the speaker. 3) Individual factors would relate to the physical and psychological capabilities of the driver to cape with demands to the job. One useful vehicle for conveying is the report. Q25) identify EIGHT possible health and safety hazards relevant to the role of a long distance delivery driver? 1) The demands of the route (complexity road conditions. heavyset. 13) Co-coordinator. should be in place. 3) Written communication: the primary purpose of written information is to communicate. . etc. 2) Verbal communication: it is imperative that verbal communication is clear. taking in to account the level of training provided. ergonomic factors would relate to the design and layout of the cab but other features of the vehicle such as tail – lifts.) the potential for violence.g. concise and easily understood. however this is not always the case and the reasons listed below are some of the barriers to effective verbal communication. 5) Lastly candidates should consider aspects of the road in terms of its nature (e. 11) Suitable assessments etc. 4) For the vehicle. 10) Arrangements for sub- contractors. 14) Pre-contractors meeting. 4) Graphic communication: health and safety signs and other public signs rely heavily on information graphics.) 2) Communications and security issues (e. 12) managing of contractors on site during work. 8) Membership of trade organizations. the use of plain text avoiding confusion must be encouraged – this is particularly critical for safety related material.g.enforcement history.) The means of handling materials and any emergency equipment and procedures that are.

Notice boards information relies on people’s ability on read. the use of reduced voltage systems (or) residual current devices would follow with the final control measure being the provision of PPE. for example the substitution of hazardous substances with others which were less hazardous. The application of engineering controls such as guarding the provision of local exhaust ventilation systems. If this were not possible. . then isolation would have to be considered. The information must be kept up-to-date and maintained in a legible condition. Understand and apply the information correctly.Q26 b) identify how the effectiveness of notice boards as a method of communicating health and safety information can be increased? A traditional communication technique is to display safety information on notice boards. The advantage of this method is that the communication is available to everyone in a particular work area. Information provided should be written in the languages relevant to the people in the workplace. The next step would be the reduction of the risks by. Q27b) list the general hierarchy of risk control (or) explain with example the general hierarchy of risk control of health and safety of work? On the application of the standard hierarchy candidates should have begun with the possibility of eliminating the risk either by designing them out (or) changing the process. Notice boards should only to make general statement (or) to keep workers aware of current information (or) proposed developments. if it is to be effective. using enclosures. barriers (or) worker segregation. Such as eat defenders (or) respiratory protective equipment. with an extreme measures of control and end with use of PPE as a last resort. Q27 a) define the term “hierarchy of control”? “Hierarchy of control” would have been either a list of measures designed of control risks which are considered in order of importance (or) effectiveness (or) measures designed to control risk that normally begin. Notice boards should not be used where the information must be up to date (or) completeness of the information impacts on safety critical issues.

. c) reporting a death at work following an accident should include informing: 1)next to kin. 5) Interference due to PPE. 2) code of practices. 8) Ambiguity (in Tamil santhagam).2) the senior management. 3) reviewing work procedures. 4) Use of technical jargon. 7) risk assessment. 3)notify the next to kin. 4) HSE guidance. 7)insurance company where applicable. 6)other workers. 3) British / European international standards. 2) Different languages. q32 b) outline the sources of information that might be useful when developing SAFE SYSTEM OF WORK? 1) legislations. Materials in the correct Environment to procedure the safest possible condition in a specific work area. 7) Sensory impairment. 6) accident records. 4)enforcing authority (or) law enforcement agency where appropriate. 3) The complexity. 8) opinions of the workforce.2)secure the scene of the accident. 4)report to enforcing authority if necessary. Q32a) define the term “SAFE SYSTEM OF WORK” The integration of: People. b) Longer term actions will include: 1) identifying witnesses. 2) underlying an investigation. 5)worker representatives. Q31) indentify the reasons why verbal instructions may not be clear in the workplace? 1) Background noise. 3)health and safety specialist. 5) manufacturers date . (In Tamil puriyada peechu).9) medical records.Q30) list the action to be performed following a major accident? Action following a serious accident: a) Immediately after an accident:1) attend to the victim . 6) Distractions. (accents (or) dialects).