ESE

2017 Prelims Exam
Detailed Solution

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

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Explanation of Mechanical Engg. Prelims Paper (ESE - 2017)

Directions:
ICG sin2 
hcp = x 
Each of the following thirty (30) items consists Ax

R
of two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement
(I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine Hence depth of centre of pressure is
these two statements carefully and select the independent on density of fluid.
answers to these items using the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true and Statement (II) is the
TE 2.
• Centre of area lies above the centre of
pressure
Statement (I): In flow through a pipeline, the
nature of the fluid flow depends on the velocity
AS
correct explanation of Statement (I) of the fluid.
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
Statement (II): Reynolds number of the
individually true but Statement (II) is not the
depends on the velocity, the diameter of the
correct explanation of Statement (I)
pipe and the kinematic viscosity of the fluid.
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is
false
M

Ans. (a)
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is
true Sol. The nature of flow means the flow is laminar
1. Statement (I): Depth of centre of pressure of or turbulent. Hence this nature is ascertained
any immersed surface is independent of the by Reynold number defined as,
S

density of the liquid.
vD
Statement (II): Centre of area of the immersed Re =
IE


body lies below the centre of pressure.

where ‘v’ is flow velocity, ‘D’ is pipe diameter
Ans. (c)
and '  ' is kinematic viscosity..
Sol. The depth of centre of pressure of immersed 3. Statement (I): The specific heat at constant
surface in liquid, pressure for an ideal gas is always greater
than the specific heat at constant volume.
ICG sin 2  Statement (II): Heat added at constant volume
Depth of centre of area +
Ax is not utilized for doing any external work.

, 8010009955

Ans. (a) Statement (II): The increase in this coefficient
is attributable to reduction in volume.
Sol. The specific heat of ideal gas of constant
pressure is the sum of specif ic heat at Ans. (c)
constant volume and a constant term. This
constant term comes due to work done Sol. The non-azeotropic or zeotropic mixtures are

R
component. This work done component is non-isothermal refrigerant i.e. temperature of
missing when heat is added at constant refrigerant varies during heat addition and
volume. rejection.

TE
4. Statement (I): A homogeneous mixture of
gases that do not react within themselves can Since average temperature of heat addition
be treated as a pure substance. i ncreases i n ev aporat or an d av erage
temperature of heat rejection reduces in
Statement (II): Flue gases can be treated as condenser which results in increased CoP
not reduction in volume.
AS
a homogeneous mixture of gases.
7. Statement (I): Sub-cooling of a refrigerant liquid
Ans. (b) increases the coefficient of performance of a
refrigeration cycle.
Sol. The composition of pure substance is
invariable and same through out the sample Statement (II): Sub-cooling reduces the work
M

i.e. constitutents of prue substance do not requirement of the refrigeration cycle.
react themselves.
5. Statement (I): Air-blast injection in diesel Ans. (c)
engines could reduce engine efficiency. Sol. The T-s diagram of vapour compression cycle,
S

Statement (II): Air-blast injection in diesel
engines is not instantaneous but happens when
the piston moves outward with the injection T
IE

valve remaining open for whatever reason.
2
Ans. (c) 4 3

4
Sol. In air injection or air blast injection, metered
fuel is carried by high pressure air around
5 5 1
65-70 bars into cylinders at the end of
compression stroke. The compressed air is
around 2.3% of total air consumption of s
engine and instantly enters the cylinder.
Process 4  4 is subcooling
6. Statement (I): Use of non-azeotropic mixtures
used as the refrigerant in a vapour compression Process 1–2 is work requirement.
system improves the coefficient of performance.

, 8010009955

The subcooling increases refrigerant effect speed side to transmit larger torque.
f rom (h 1 – h 5 ) to (h1  h5 ) and nowork
requirement. Ans. (c)

8. Statement (I): In vapour-absorption system, Sol. The power rating of a mechanical system,
larger the value of specific solution circulation, Power = Torque × Rotational.
more the pump work.
Hence higher the speed, lower will be the

R
Statement (II): Higher solution circulation rates torque so a clutch should be provided on
of poor as well as rich solutions need larger high speed side with suitable heat dissipation
pressure drops in the system. arrangement. This clutch will be small and

Ans. (c)

Sol. In vapour absorption system, high pressure
side pressure (generator and condenser) and
low pressure side pressure (absorber and
TE 11.
cost effective.
Statement (I): The volume of air taken into the
cylinder of a reciprocating air compressor is
less than the stroke volume of the cylinder,
AS
Statement (II): Air that has been compressed
ev aporat o r) are deci ded b y desi red
to clearance volume expands to larger volumes
application temperatures. The flow rate of
during the suction stroke.
solution controls the capacity of the system.
So high capacity requires high pump work.
Solution circulation rates and pressure drop Ans. (a)
has no relation.
M

Sol. In reciprocating compressor there is a
9. Statement (I): Outward radial flow turbines do clearance space between the piston crown
race inherently. and the top of the cylinder . Air trapped in
this clearance volume is never delivered, it
Statement (II): In outward radial flow turbines, expands as the piston moves back and limit
the centrifugal head impressed upon the exiting
S

the volume of fresh air which can be induced
water leads to flow increase. to a value less than the swept volume.
12. Statement (I): Providing reheat in a Rankine
IE

Ans. (a)
cycle would increase the efficiency of the cycle.
Sol. In outward radial turbine water enters at the
Statement (II): Reheat in Rankine cycle
centre and flows radially outwards towards
reduces specific steam consumption.
the outer periphery of the runner and hence
the fluid gains centrifugal head while flowing
through it. Ans. (b)

10. Statement (I): Regarding the power transmitted Sol. By reheating there is gain of 4 to 7% of
by a clutch, greater the speed, lower the torque thermal efficiency take place as the output
to be transmitted for fixed power rating. of turbine is increased. Reheating may also
shortout blade erosion and corrosion problem
Statement (II): The clutch is placed on the low- in turbine.

, 8010009955

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therefore. which produce there exists a vacuum in the condenser more moisture per kg of fuel burnt. Fuel oil (%H) is  10. (b) Statement (II): In a closed cooling system. the percentages of moisture. Statement (II): Artificial draught involves large AS initial cost as well as large maintenance cost. 17. R Reheating increases W net . Hence t here ex ist a possi bi l i t i es of ai r l eakage whi ch i s Ans. content and fixed carbon. Ans. . 8010009955 . (a) continuously deaerated. Statement (I): Proximate analysis of coal is 3600 done to determine its calorific value. Calorimeters are used for calorific value estimation. IE Statement (II): Fuel oils contain comparatively A condenser a closed cooling system and larger percentage of hydrogen. 16. The choice of chimmney or artificial draught water is continuously aerated. Yet artificial draught factors : Moisture. So. Specific steam consumption. reduces. during operation. Fuel oi ls contai n hydrogen in a large Statement (II): Pyrheliometer is used to percentage which on heating react with measure diffuse radiation. A cooling tower is an open cooling system S of a fuel oil based plant is less as compared to and water can dissolved in purities from air that of a coal burning plant. = W kg / kWh net Statement (II): In proximate analysis of coal. there is application is specific. Statement (I): Water entering into a condenser from the cooling tower has much dissolved impurities. Statement (I): The overall combustion efficiency Sol. require installation of FD & and ID fan and some other accesories. Proximate analysis is done to examine four the height of the chimney. ash is not preferred.5) radiation with a shadow band. because of direct contact. (c) 14. (d) TE in chimney draught is much greater than the work required for lifting the same gases thorugh Sol. 13. volatile matter.5 – 5. The artificial draft M is abundant dissolved oxygen in this water. volatile compound.99% (%H) in coal diffuse solar radiation by blocking the direct (4. The installation of these equipments are very costly affair. 15. the Sol. Ans. Statement (I): Heat carried away by hot gases Ans. oxygen produce moisture content in fuel which drop the calrofic value of fuel oil. Statement (I): Pyranometer is used to measure Sol. SSC is fixed carbon and ash are determined.

incidence. Ans. 21. the grain boundaries. its and make the operation noisy. t he higher the stated above. Ans. hardenability. Sol. (c) 20. 8010009955 . T he pyroh el i om et er i s a b roadband steel it em al ways dev elops the same instrument that measures the direct (or microstructure under a standardized cooling beam) component of solar radiation at normal rate. S 19. Subsequent to cooling a flat surface ground Sol. Ans. and is then quenched on one end with room temperature water. TE Statement (II): Directionally solidified materials may be so loaded that there is no shearing stress along. (d) Statement (II): Abrupt changes in these curves will cause high contact stresses at the bearings Sol. Cast iron (CI) is brittle in nature so. The hardenability of a f errous alloy is measured by Jominy test. (c) t he di stance f rom t he end i ncreases. A round metal bar of standard size is transfered to 100% austenite through heat treatment. Directionally solidif ied material posses on the test piece and the hardenbility is then ex t rem el y good el ev at ed t em perat ure found by measuring the hardness along the capability due to elimination of highly bar. Farther away from the quenched end that Statement II is not explaining the reason as t he hardness ext ends.Ans. M stressed transverse grain bounderies. Abrupt changs in displacement. torsional (shear) strength is less hence can not used as shaft. (b) 18. and acceleration curves of the follower in continuity. Statement (I): The ideal material for shafts transmitting power is CI. Sol. It does not measure diff use radiation. Statement (I): Cams used in high-speed application should have displacement. Statement (I): Hardenability curves are developed based on the fact that any given Sol. R T he dif f use radiat i on is m easured by pyrometer. This in formation is plotted on graph. Statement (II): Industry employs Jominy hardenability test to measure hardenability. (a) Cast iron is strong in compression but weak under tension. velocity IE Statement (II): CI resists compression well. or tensile stress across. Statement (I): Directionally solidified materials have good creep resistance. The cooling rate will be highest at the AS end being quenched and will decrease as Ans. . velocity and acceleration curves cause jerk in the system and high magnitude of forces.

(c) IE Statement (II): Balancing of dynamic forces is 28. Only low speed ratio worm driv es are steel shaft is of interference type. R Ans. Statement (I): All worm drives (worm and worm Ans. the water supply is regulated to maintain the speed constant. (a) AS wheel) are reversible. the air-venting property of the mould 25. Ans. of the body is the same as the impressed frequency of the external periodic force whereby Statement (II): Moment of inertia depends upon the amplitude of the forced vibration peaks the distribution of mass within the body. Ans. (a) Statement (II): The amplitude of forced vibration of a body increases with increase in 26. TE the frequency of the externally impressed periodic force. Ans. (d) 27. balance the engine in particular configuration e.g. Statement (I): In sugarcane crushing rollers. Statement (I): Two circular discs of equal prepared with them would be better. This is achieved by means as governing in a turbine. (b) Ans. The primary objective in turbine operation is Statement (II): The worm and worm wheel are to maintain a constant speed of rotation made of different materials. S methodology in the case of reciprocating engines. sharply. (b) Sol. it is possible to round shape is preferred for preparing moulds. Statement (I): The speed of a governed water turbine will remain constant irrespective of load. Statement (II): In governing. irrespective as the varying load. Single cylinder reciprocating engine can not be balanced completely by any method. Sol. Statement (I): Sand with grains of uniform in multicylinder engine case. M the fit between the cast roll and the forged Sol. Statement (I): Resonance is a special case of materials will have same moment of inertia forced vibration in which the natural frequency about their central axes of rotation. engine concept.six cylinder Statement (II): If grains are large and regular in shape. Statement (II): Thicker sections of casting carry residual stresses. Statemen t (I): There is no balancing from the shaft whenever not needed. Statement (I): Thicker sections of casting take achieved mostly by resorting to multi-cylinder longer to solidify than thinner sections. Ans. 8010009955 . reversible while high speed ratio drives are non reversible. Statement (II): This helps in removing the roll 24. masses and thickness made of different .22. But 29. (c) 23.

6  1000  2  = 1326 k kgf Resultant force = FH 2  Fv 2 . the dam section.6.Ans.   2. The net resultant force acting on the base level of the dam is nearly 30 30  2 B = 6  tan   6  3  26m 6m 2m  5m 1 2 M Horizontal force F H = H 2 Water on 2 upstream 3 1 2 side 30m FH =  1000   33  kgf 2 S = 544. section. dimension the planned performance of various activities of a project. The upstream bottommost point is called the Heel of the dam. FV B R FH  AS Water stands till 2m short of the top of the dam Base width of dam. is shown. (c) 33m 3 31. Statement (I): Bar chart plots in the time Sol. (a) Ans.5 k kgf IE H=Heel Base width Vertical force (F v) = weight of the dam (a) 1370 k kgf (b) 1385 k kgf  1  (c) 1400 k kgf (d) 1433 k kgf F v =  6  35   20  30   2. A section of a dam made of concrete. with top walkway width of 6 m. (d) 30. The sloped part TE on downstream side is 3 vertical on 2 horizontal. total height = 35 m. R 2 Ans. 8010009955 . 6m Statement (II): One advantage of a bar chart 5m is that the inter sequence and linkage of all activities is indicated therein. Assuming unit width of dam.

(d) Sol. A spherical waterdrop of 1 mm in diameter splits 2.5   106 The Metacentric heights are different for IE rolling.073 N/m.5 m below the tap opening is nearly 3 (a) 11. 32.073  4 1  0.32 × 10–6 J (d) 0. Consider the following statements pertaining =  544.96 × 10–6 J (b) 0. the diameter of the stream 0.687 × 10–6 J .5 r =  0. the stream diameter is 20 mm with uniform velocity 6 of 2 m/s. pitching and yachting. A floating body will be stable when the centre = 1433. 2 = 0.4 mm = 0.6 mm = 0. (b) AS Ans. At the tap opening.25   10 6 effects.45 k kgf of gravity is above the centre of buoyancy.125mm 4 I =  BG V E1 = T  (surface area) S hence GM varies with axis of consideration. is 0. and neglecting curvature and surface tension E = 0. The work required in splitting up 3.7 mm (b) 14. 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Ans.073  4     64  106 8 vertically downwards. (a) 0. 33. By mass conservation Sol. The position of metacentres corresponding R up in air into 64 smaller drops of equal size. Assuming steady inviscid flow. For cargo ships.5 2  1326 2 to stability of floating bodies: 1.69 × 10–6 J Which of the abvoe statements are correct? (c) 0. 3 3 Metacenteric height GM = BM – BG M 0. Floating body will be in stable equilibrium 4 3 4 3 when center of Buoyancy lies above the   0.5 mm (d) 20.5  = 64    r  center of gravity. 8010009955 .23 × 10–6 J (a) 1. 2  1 34.073 ×4 10 constant pressure atmosphere everywhere.073 ×4  0. Water is coming out from a tap and falls E2 = 0.073  4   10 6 4 (c) 17. the metacentric height the drop is TE varies with loading. = 0. to different axes of rotation are generally The surface tension coefficient of water in air different for the same floating object.

5 Which of the above statements are correct? S (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 1 = 2m/s (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1.0814 kg/m s? .Ans. For find statement 2 = 3. (b) d12  2 2 = d2  3. AS 3.0 A1V1 = A2Vz m/s.  is density of water and g is acceleration of P1 = P2 Patm gravity. v and z carrying standard M meanings. 2 and 3 IE 2 Ans.74 R = 14.5 2  10 2  10 Sol. with p. Bernoulli’s equation will read Z1 = 0 p1 v12 p v2   z1  2  2  z 2  w  g  2g  2g Z 2 = – 0. The pipe is 45 m long and has 150 mm diameter. Consider two sections 1 and 2 along a flow d2 stream. Applying Bernoulli equation A A P V12 P V2 202  2   Z1 = 2  2  Z2 d2 =  2g  2g 3.74 m/sec P V12 P V22  q Z1 =   Z2  w  2g  2g By continuity equation 36. 2. The velocity of a steady stream of fluid flow will depend on the cross-sectional area of the stream.62 mm 20 mm 35.74 (d1 = 20mm) Sol. if   869 kg/m3 and   0. (a) Z2 Vz =  0. In this reach. It is assumed that no energy has been supplied. if q is work done by a pump. w is work absorbed by turbine. What is the head loss due to friction. Consider the following statements regarding datum Bernoulli’s equation : TE 1. 8010009955 . An oil flows through a pipe at a velocity of 1.

A two-dimensional flow field is defined as =    195. (c) 2. Head loss in pipe is given by 32 VL 32  4L 128QL hL   AS hL = 2 2 4 rgD gD gID 32  0. IE viscous forces dominate over inertial forces. The equation of the stream-line passing through the point (1.6 m (b) x2 y + 2 = 0 S (a) xy + 2 = 0 37. (a) through a circular pipe of diameter D. Re = Viscous force .152 4 D M 117. (c) dx dy  Inertial force u v Sol. Transition from laminar to turbulent flow  occurs over a range of Reynolds numbers Sol. V  ˆix  ˆjy depending on the surface presented to the flow.0814  1 45 1 = hL  869  10  0.15 R (a) D–1 (b) D–2 L = 45m s = 869 kg/m 3 (c) D–3 (d) D–4 TE hL = ?  = 0. Here u = x Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only v = –y (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 For stream function Ans. 8010009955 . 38. (a) 0. viscous force (c) 0. Ans. 2) is = 0. At low Reynolds numbers of any flow.52 V  ix  jy. In a steady laminar flow of a given discharge Ans.61 m (b) 0.31 m dominates over inertial force.41 m (d) 0.  = 1m/sec d= 0. Consider the following statements: (c) xy – 2 = 0 (d) x2 y –2 = 0 1.22 39. the head loss is proportional to Sol.0814 Ans.51 m  at low reynold number. (d) In flow through pipe Sol.

33.5 m/s In percentage   15 W 0.333  T 0. y  2 xy  c gives c  2 So.5 3 5 7 and m ean v el oci ty i n pipe rel at ed t o log10 0.333  20 M (a) 2 m/s (b) 1. This gas is compressed in Sol. a reversible isothermal process till its pressure Flow through a pipe is given by increases to 15 bar.333  xy  2  0 40.845 maximum velocity is given by (a) 4500 kJ (b) 4030 kJ Vmax 2 Vmean = = = 1 (c) 450 kJ (d) 403 kJ 2 2 41.698 0.   R   Number 2 2. W is x y (a) 8% (b) 10% (c) 12% (d) 15% or Inx   ln y  Inc Ans. (d) or Inxy  ln y R W or xy  c Sol. (c) 42. The centre-line velocity in a pipe flow is 2m/s. A cylinder contains 10m3 of an ideal gas at a S pressure of 2 bar. During a constant pressure expansion of a gas.3% heat is converted into work while the temperature rises by 20 K. 8010009955 . What quantum of work will IE 2 be required for this process? (You can use the  v = v max 1   r   table given herewith).333 Q for x  1. Cp 1 1 What is the average flow velocity in the pipe if or =  the Reynolds number of the flow is 800? W 0. the gas at constant pressure as a proportion of dx dy or    work.397 0. xy  c TE Q = Cp T for constant pressure process AS W  Cp T = 0. The specific heat of . = 0.475 0.333  20 Ans.301 0.5 m/s Cp 100 (c) 1 m/s (d) 0.

303 log 2 15 = 2  10  2. 8010009955 . process is irreversible. (c) Sol. Q AS HE 0.2 Q = 2  10  2. 44.475  6 0. the power contribution of the Brayton cycle will be .8 Q = 4016 kJ 43. then its coefficient of performance R shall be 5 2 = 2  10  10  ln (a) 6 (b) 5 15 (c) 4 (d) 3 6 6 = 2  10  2.Ans.303  0.303 log 2   log5  log3   TE Ans. For the same efficiency of the Brayton cycle and the Carnot cycle working between (S)univ  10  5  5  0 temperature limits of Tmax and Tmin.2 (S)sur  75  80  5 kg/ k 45.4  0. (COP )RE  1 1 4 E 0. A reversible heat engine rejects 80% of the p1 heat supplied during a cycle of operation. (b) Sol. the entropy of the surroundings decreases from Win RE 80 kJ/kg K to 75 kJ/kg K.698  0. (b) So. A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process M in which its specific entropy increases from 0.3 kJ/kg K to 0. (S)univ  (S)sys  (S)sur & (COP )HP  1  (COP )RE ( S)sys  100(0. If Sol.301  0.3)  10 kg/k 1 1 or. At the same time.4 kJ/kg K. Work done W = p1v1 ln p2 the engine is reversed and operates as a refrigerator. The process is S (a) reversible and isothermal Q (b) irreversible (c) reversible only IE (d) isothermal only 1 (COP )HP  HE Ans.

P2 = P1 2 so.4 (d) 0. contribution of power ratio is zero S 46. (c) (d) 50% of the Carnot cycle Ans.4 1 3 5 Q 2000 S(kJ/K) .5 (b) maximum (c) 0. (1) =    P1  1 =   5  1   700  300  i. brayton cycle = 1  c T(K) t B 700 TE  1 T2  P2   where c = T =   1  P1  A C 300 Tmax t = T AS min for brayten = carnot 1 3 5 S(kJ/K) T2 c = 1. R Sol. 8010009955 . (a) zero (a) 0. The thermal efficiency of the hypothetical cycle 1 =  4  400  800 kJ shown is 2 IE T(K) Heat added Q = area of 1-A–B–C–5–1 700 = area of ABC  area of 1-A-C-5-1 = 800 + (5 – 1) × (300) 300 = 800 + 4 × 300 = 2000 kJ n 800 efficiency  =   0.. (a) Sol.6 (b) 0.e.3 (c) minimum Ans. means  1  (rP )   T1 Net work done W = area of ABC M  1  P2  or.

13 kW (c) 1 K/W (d) 1 W/K Ans.62 kW pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C.15p Rth = K = 1 = 3.8 K/W (b) 1. (c) p Sol. (b) (c) 60 J/s (d) 30 J/s TE Ans. If the temperature on S temperature T0 is 300 K? the two sides of the wall are 800°C and 1000°C.6m thickness has normal area of of this pressure drop due to friction. An ideal gas is flowing through an insulated A M pipe at the rate of 3. The overal thermal conductivity at 1300 K and rejects it to a sink at 400 K.03 W/mK. There is a pressure = 60J m 2/sec drop of 15% from the inlet to the outlet of the pipe.3  0. = 0. respectively. the thermal resistance of the wall is (a) 42.62 kW (b) 40. The inner and outer temperatures are 250°C and 50°C.8 kW (a) 30 J/m2/s (b) 60 J/m2/s Ans. (a) Ans. T1 = T2 for Carnot cycle Sol.287  300  A 0. The of the material is 0. Sol.5 p 51.14 kW (d) 35.4 kW The heat loss to the surroundings will be R (c) 12.8 W/K (c) 38.4 W/mK.287 kJ/kg K and the ref erence conductivity 0. (b) Q Q2 Sol.4 kW 1300 Q or. given that 1. What is the rate of energy loss because 50.47. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal .4  1. The thickness of heat rejected is the lining is 100 mm. (a) 20.5 m2 and is made up of material of thermal R gas = 0. A heat engine working on the Carnot cycle 49.6 0.26 kW IE (a) 1. A furnace is provided with an insulating receives heat at the rate of 50 kW from a source refractory lining.3 kW (b) 15. kA 50 Q2 Q = AS = t 1300 400 0.4 kW (d) 10. 8010009955 .03 × 200 × 10 48. Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam = 42. A wall of 0. Rate of energy loss = mRT0 p L 0.03  A  (250  50) = 50  400 100  103  Q2 =  15.3 kg.

4. 25 = A2 0.026 W/m (kelvin) and with   (Nu) = 31.65 J/s (d) 1.1 Nu = K  A1 0. h  D h  0.54 53. Air at 1 atmospheric pressure and 27°C blows across a 12 mm diameter sphere at a free   stream velocity of 4 m/s. (a) diameter d and a cubical box of length l = d as shown in the figure. A small heater inside (a) 1 and (b) and 1 3 3 the sphere maintains the surface temperature at 77°C.033 Wm²/K F 12 = 1 as sphere can not view itself Heat loss by the sphere.93 J/s (b) 1. are R Sol.54 J/s Sol.033  4    (77 – 27)  1000 2 x (a) 7. A2 IE hD Nu   31. the heat loss by the sphere would (c) 1 and (d) and 1 6 6 be M (a) 1.1 l=d or.5 W/m2K (b) 15 W/m2K (c) 25 W/m2K (d) 35 W/m2K = 1. then the 2 heat transfer coefficient will be  12 1 = 68. (a) (c) 1. for the sphere of Ans. respectively. h = 75 W/m²K AS 52.03 TE air h  0. With k = 0. (d) A1 S Sol.4 l=d kair 31.03 W/m K. conductivity of the air is 0.026 or. 8010009955 . The view factors F12 and F21.03 or.4  0. h =  12   For sphere by summation rule  1000    F 11 + F 12 = 1 = 68.539  1. By reciprocity theorem A1F 12 = A2F 21 = hAT . Ans.76 J/s Ans.

mf  CV In supercharing we increase the density of IE fluid which will rise the chance of knocking 21.p. retarding the spark 2. By increasing engine speed & increases the turbulence of the mixture considerably resulting increasing flame speed and hence ip S it =  reduce the ignition delay. the peak = 0.34  42000 By retarding the spark timing.293 or 29. Indicated power of one cylinder 54.3% pressure are reached down on the power 56. In a Morse test on a 2-cylinder. This engine. 2-stroke SI stroke and are thus of lower magnitude. Knocking in a spark ignition engine can be TE 105  23  1200 reduced by = 18. (b) 0. the brake power is 9 kW and the BHP might reduce the knocking. 8010009955 .62 kW Select the correct answer using the code given below.5% (d) 45. respectively. If the (a) 90% (b) 80% calorific value of the fuel was 42000 kJ/kg and (c) 52.m. kW and 3. indicated thermal efficiency was nearly 2 d 4   (a) 29% (b) 26% A1 A1 2 or. the .6 kW. A 4-cylinder diesel running at 1200 r. (a) d2 R  = = 6  d2 6 Sol.62  3600 = in SI and reverse in CI. The average torque when efficiency of the engine is one cylinder was cut out was 105 N m. The mechanical developed 18. F 21 = A  F12 = A = (c) 31% (d) 23% 2 2 6  l2 Ans.5% the engine used 0.6  m kg/s 3600 Sol.6  0. increasing the engine speed  ip for u-cylinder engine = 5. using a fuel of long straight chain structure 21. supercharging = 5.34 kg of diesel/kW hr. 18.405 kW 3.34  f = 18.405 × 4 = AS 4.6  60 1. of individual cylinders with spark cutoff are 4.75 kW. f m (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 bsfc =  f = bp × bsfc or m bp (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 M Ans.25 55.

75 kW P ip2 = 5. isoenthalpic line shows the throtting in device b p = 9 kW ip1 = 4. (d) (c) enthalpy and entropy IE (d) pressure and enthalpy Sol. Heat obsorbed CoP = Workdone per minute Heat observed = Heat rejected  Heat added CoP = f(T) For lower refregeration requirement and higher heat rejection work input required will . 8010009955 . the heat exchanger that absorbs heat is connected AS to a conditioned space.  = = = 90% 57.Ans. (d)  Statement 2 support the cop. 2.25 R = 10 bp 9 h so. (a) Sol. In a ref rigerating machine. Sol. the larger the power consumption.  Statement ‘1’ refer to evaporator Ans. 2 and 3 S (a) pressure and volume (b) temperature and entropy Ans.25 kW Total ip of engine = iP 1 + iP2 = 4. A refrigerating cycle operating reversibly between two heat reservoirs has the highest coefficient of performance.75 + 5. The lower the refrigeration required and the higher the temperature of heat rejection to M the surroundings. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1. Consider the f ol lowing statements f or refrigeration and air-conditioning: 1. ip 10 The ordinates and abscissae of the diagram TE given for the vapour-compression refrigeration cycle represent 58. 3.

(d) 1  P  increase as value of  2  will reduce. The lengths = P 60 input of vertical and horizontal arms of the bell-crank levers are the same. What is the spring M or. coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C. (d) 1. heating the intake air Sol. Pinput = 1 kW stiffness? 60. In a refrigerator. Pre-tensioning helps to seal the pressure  P1  vessel. K = 2   2 1  Which of the above statements is/are correct?  b   r2  r1  (a) 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3  1800  100  = 2  1    25  20  Ans. the evaporator and condenser volume. Sol.  P1  AS (273  33) RE RE = = 61. Consider the following statements regarding the ends of the pressure vessels flanged by pre- 1  P  tensioned bolts: v = 1  c  c  L  1. the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is 1 (a) 8 kW (b) 4 kW  P  v = 1  c   2   c TE (c) 2 kW (d) 1 kW  P1  Ans. 8010009955 . decreasing the clearnace volume 2. = 680 N/cm 62. as  1 so. cooling the intake air 2  a  F F  IE 3. respectively. R is realized. the mass of each ball is  273  27   (273  33) W input P input 4 kg. The maximum and minimum centrifugal forces on the balls are 1800 N and 100 N at 240 4 radii 25 cm and 20 cm. In a Hartnell governor. volumetric efficiency get increased. Consider the following statements: (a) 780 N/cm (b) 740 N/cm The volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating (c) 720 N/cm (d) 680 N/cm compressor can be improved by S Ans. Assumign that the maximum COP  By cooling the intake air increases the value of ‘  ’ so. (c) Sol. respectively. . get i ncr ease and hence t he power P2 consumption. by decreasing the clearance P1 59.

if both are of the same Int = 360 MPa (a) length as well as weight FoS = 8 M (b) length as well as polar modulus (c) weight as well as polar modulus  Torsion. K = IE L 16 T I = Tr d3 I = J Int 360  106 16  954.m. weight as well as polar modulus Ans.92 N  m   2  200     60  GJ Sol.  d = 47. (d) length. 2. 2. (c) Sol. one solid and the other hollow. This does not gurantee the same weight 4. Pre-tensioning countermands the fatigue life of the bolts. 63.94 rad/s made of the same material. 3. Pre-tensioning helps to reduce the deleterious effect of pressure pulsations in 64. 2 and 3 only (a) 42 mm (b) 45 mm (b) 1. The R Which of the above statements are correct? diameter of the solid shaft shall be (a) 1. Pre-tensioning reduces the maximum tensile  4  4 stress in the bolts.   = 20. the pressure vessel. J solid = JHollow . (b) Sol. 8010009955 . (b) P 20  103 S T =   954. Two shafts. 3 and 4 only (c) 48 mm (d) 51 mm (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1. The ultimate shear stress for the shaft material is 360 MPa and the factor of safety is 8. 3 and 4 Ans. Pre-tensioning does not reduce the maximum TE Ans.63 mm For same ‘J’. 32 d = 32  d0  di4  .92 If J of both the shafts are same then L has  =  to be same for both for same stiffness and FoS 8   d3 vice-versa. A solid shaft is to transmit 20 kW at 200 r.p. will have the same strength and stiffness. P = 20 kW AS N = 200 rpm tensile stress in the bolts.

574.50/week Ans. 8010009955 . Rim of a flywheel is subjected to 400  52  75  2 400  52  50  = 912 (i) Tensile stress due to the centrifugal force 52 .80/week AS (c) 4. rev/min.5% per year of TE Q the cost of the product. 20. The cost of ordering and transportation from the manufacturer to the 50 cm stockist’s premises is Rs.50/week Sol.80 m/s (c) 989 units/order and Rs. the link PQ (ii) Bending stress due to restraint of the measures 30 cm and rotates uniformly at 100 arms.065.80/week (a) 2.574. PQ = 30 cm Ans. EOQ =  Cc 7. (b) (d) 912 units/order and Rs. 20. 18.065. (b) N = 100 rpm M 2DC0 2  400  52  75 Sol.54 m/s (b) 3. The rim of a flywheel is subjected to EOQ 2 (a) direct tensile stress and bending stress (b) torsional shear stress and bending stress 400  52 = 400  52  50   75  2 (c) direct shear stress and bending stress 912 (d) compressive stress and bending stress Total optimal cost per week Ans.65. 75 per order. In the 4-bar mechanism as shown.14 m/s (b) 912 units/order and Rs.30 Total optimal cost 60 IE = 3. He gets the product at Rs. 50 per unit f rom the R R manufacturer. The velocity of point Q on link PQ is 67.14 m/sec D EOQ = pD   C0   Cc 66.5 2 N  50   = 100 60 = 912 units S 2  100 V =   PQ    0. What are the economic 70 cm lot size and the total optimal cost (including P S capital cost) for the stockist? (a) 989 units/order and Rs. The 60 cm cost of carrying inventory is 7. A stockist has to supply 400 units of a product nearly every Monday to his customers. 18.60 m/s (d) 5. (a) Sol.

15mm cos30 8.  old inventory = 5 . Post-processor is an item of hardware. Grinding wheel diameter devices.80 per week 2. 3 and 4 R Which of the above parameters will influence (c) 2. 60. (c) 1 =  1.05 mm sold remaining the same. 2 and 4 (b) 1.000 Sol. The indicated diameter of the times the cost of goods sold. or gets (c) 1. 3 and 4 (d) 1. = Rs. 68. Speed of grinding wheel Which of the above statements are correct? 4. Which one S of the following statements is correct? Ans. d = 2cos  60 2  cos (d) Rs. (c) (a) Rs.000 is released. If the inventory wire will be nearly turnover is improved to 8 with the cost of goods (a) 0. 1. Consider the following benefits of CIM: 1.85 mm (b) 1.000 is 5 M 3-wire method. floppy tapes and cassettes are used for data storage. (d) 69. Both closed-loop and open-loop systems are 800000 used. Consider just only the following parameters: 3.00. Less direct labour 2. Regulating wheel diameter 4. 20. A metric thread of pitch 2 mm and thread angle 60° is inspected for its pitch diameter usign the 72.00. Sol. IE P 2  (c) Rs. Papers. 2 and 3 the axial feed rate in centreless grinding? (a) 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 Ans. inventory. 1. tapes. Higher machine use Which of the above are correct? AS f  speed regulating wheel (a) 1.000 is released. 3. Less scrap and rework 3.000 is additionally invested. A firm’s inventory turnover of Rs. (d) 1 and 4 TE 71. a substantial amount of f und is either released f rom. Digitizers may be used as interactive input 1. 2. (d) (c) 1 and 3 Ans. 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only  Dia of regulating wheel (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only f  DNsin  Ans.065.15 mm (d) 2.60.05 mm additionally invested in. Inventory turnover = 5 = old inventory 70. Consi der the f ollowing statements with reference to NC machines: 1. 8. 60. (a) Sol. (b) Rs. Speed of regualting wheel (a) 1.60.000 is additonally invested 2 2 Ans. 8010009955 .

the receivables turnover was found to be 5. 108 M and the holding cost per u nit is Rs.00. 1.000 5 = Average receivable 8 TE  Old inventory – new inventory 6.08. 1.00. EOQ = Cc is Rs.000 AS time = 15% and performance rating = 120%. 2. At the end of the year. An organization’s sales during a financial year Sol.000  0. 160.00. ( ) The replacement is instantaneous and no Sol. (d) IE = 1.85 or ST =  1. An 8-hour measurment study in a plant reveals that 320 number of units were produced. Standard t i me ST = observ ed t im e × shortages are allowed.000 – 1.286 minutes year. 8010009955 .714 minutes 2DC0 74.2  1.823 minutes (b) 1.000 = Rs. 1. with allowance = 12% of normal time. Receivables turnover = new inventory average receivable R 800000 6.000 Net credit solar Inventory Turnover = 8  Sol.9 Average receivable = = 160.000 EOQ (d) 73 days and Rs. What is the optimum Rating factor (1 + Allowance) number of orders/year? (a) 7 orders/year (b) 8 orders/year S (c) 9 orders/year (d) 10 orders/year 480  0.12 320 Ans. If idle = 1. The cost of one procurement is Rs. respectively 2.08. Ans.4 (a) 81 days and Rs. A particular item has a demand of 9000 units/ (c) 1. the average collection period and receivables 2  9000  108 =  900 are. 60.000 (b) 73 days and Rs.714 minutes 75.20.000 with 90% of it on credit.000 released 5 73. (b) 8.08.000 Ans.40/year. 6.000 D Optimum no.9  New inventory =  Rs.645 minutes (d) 1. 1.20. of order/year = (c) 81 days and Rs. Considering 365 days to a year.000  0. Rs.000 .00.100. the 365 Average collection period =  73 days standard time per unit produced will be 5 (a) 1.00.

   n  AS operations Means a should be small Ans.e. (d) 9000 =  10 orders/year 900 76. Which one of the following is correct with Accelerometer respect to microcontrollers? Sol. (w<<w n) z0 Displacement (a) Integration of a microprocessor with I/O (w>>w n) y0 interfaces and memory and other peripherals R in a single IC chip 1 (b) A single very large scale integrated (VLSI) chip that contains programmable electronic TE w components that perform control functions wn (c) Digital circuits for data handling and computation (d) The primary computation and system control Displacement Pickup.  Increase m and decrease K. I/O circuits and pripherals necessary for an applications. Which one of the following statements is  work spring and heavy mass correct? S System modling Seismic transducer working in the displacement mode should have IE x = x0sin(–) (a) weak springs and heavy mass (b) stiff springs and light mass (c) weak springs and light mass y = y0sint (d) stiff springs and heavy mass  = c  x  y   k  x  y  mx  where z = x–y   cz  kz = my  mz . 8010009955 . Microcont rol l er is com plet e f uncti onal K microcomputer. i. (a) Sol. Ans. ROM). it contains the circuitry n = M of microprocessor and in addition it has built M in memory (RAM. 77.

05   1.5 mm is stipulated. Consider the following statments regarding a dt stepper motor :  Time average velocity.3 ALN R Given: Q=   ALN  0. Linear resolution of M min? 0.67 m/s (d) 2. A stepper motor is to be used to drive the for a single-acting hydraulic actuator. displacement.9635 10 6 4 4  Displacement pickup   n n  LN = 152. What will be the velocity of piston movement 79. Discharge. (d) IE ALN Sol. (b) Ans. 0.546 m/s 60 78. 8010009955 . fluid pressure is 100 bar.3 m 3/ thread with a 30 mm pitch. .  =  r sin  80.5 1 =  360 x = r 1 cos  where. the diameter of the The motor output shaft is connected to a screw piston is 50 mm and the flow rate is 0. Step angle =  360 Pitch Also.78 2 z0   AS  y0     Acceleration LN  n  V =  2. 1.41 m/s (b) 2.3 60 60 z0 If   n  1. The rotation angle of the motor is proportional to the input pulse.55 m/s angle ? (c) 2. r  L 30 2 = 6° dx Velocity.. What is the needed step (a) 2. when the linear axis of a certain mechatronics system. 2 2N 1 za  /n   r  NL  y0 = 2 1/2 V =  60 2   2 2   60    1       2     ln    ln   0. Q = 60 Linear Resolution Sol. y0  TE  2  2 A = d    0.84 m/s (a) 9° (b) 8° S (c) 7° (d) 6° Ans.

SCARA Robot: IE (a) A-C-E-F.It has four degrees of freedom 81. vary mutually linearly.42 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 0. unique end-effector (EE) – 2 Inverse kinematic solution (For given EE configuration. if provides maximum torque of low speeds. Unlike normal DC motors. 2 and 3 F D. TE 82. 42 weeks and 1 week – 4 DoFS. (d) free float for activity A are. 50 weeks and 0 week joints rotation. (c) B-C-D-F. The following table lists the tasks in a project and the time duration for each task : 2. 42 weeks and 0 week (b) B-E-F. A – 16 B – 20 Which of the above statements are correct? M C A 8 D A 10 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only E B.0 16 F 1 8 C 4 5 R B 12 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1. (a) 3. It has only one forward kinematic solution. 8010009955 . I ts rotat i onal speed v ari es di rect l y proportional to the frequency of the pulse.E 12 S The critical path.30 42.Speed and electric control signal of the motor Sol. FT = (16 –0) – 16 = 0 Consi der the f ollowing statements with reference to SCARA Robot : AS 1. The motor has full torque at standstill Ans. the project duration and the Ans.C 6 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1. 16. (d) 24. 2 and 3 20 E 3 6 Ans. Task Preceding Normal duration 3.16 Which of the above statement are correct? 2 D A 10 30. 50 weeks and 2 weeks – 1 Forward kinematic solution (for given (d) A-C-E-F. Stepper motors are DC motors that moves is descrete steps. 2. . respectively. two sets of solution exist).24 Sol. Sol.It has two inverse kinematic solutions.

(b) M A robot shall not injure a human being or. Its general configuration is analogous to that 85. Shoulder and elbow rotational axes are vertical. 3. Consider the following statements regarding the 1. through in action. (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1 2. Which of the following are the basic differences of a human arm. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given AS (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1. S Vibration signature  Acceleration (Pick-up) Statement (3) Should be . A Robot must always protect its own existence. 100 Hz and may be even more than 20.A Robot must always protect its own existance as long as Noise  microphone IE such protection does not conflict with the first 86. Vibration signature is essentially in the law of Robotics : frequency range zero to 100 cps whereas noise signature is in the range 20 cps to 3000 cps. TE 3. The number of degrees of freedom in a 3D Robot of TRL : R type configuration is : 1. (a) (c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4 Sol. 4. Consider the following features relating to Robot and second law of Robotics kinematics with reference to SCARA Robot : 84. A Robot shall not injure a human being or through inaction allow a human being harmed.83. A Robot must obey orders given by humans except when such orders conflict with first law. 8010009955 . Ans.000 Hz. R 2.The intensities of noise signatures are much less than that of vibration signatures. bet ween v ibration signature and noise signature? Which of the above features are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only . 1. Statement (2) is right. allow a human being Sol. The Robot could perform insertion tasks along the vertical direction. 2 and 3 below: (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 Ans. Vibration signature range might go beyond harmed. Statement (1) is It should be Ans. (a) 3. Detection of vibration signature calls for a microphone whereas that of noise can do with Which of the above statements are correct? a pickup. 2. Vibration signature has welldefined peaks whereas the noise signal is smeared.

35 3. The (c) 900 kJ (d) 1800 kJ enthalpy of the mixture is nearly (a) 64 kJ/kg da (b) 55 kJ/kg da Ans. Atmospheric compressor : air enters at 50°C and leaves at 80°C. (d) T 900 Angular acce. The intercooling is perfect. (d) Th1  Th2 250  100 So. hot gases maximum efficiency of a two-stage reciprocating S enter at 250°C and leave at 100°C. Ans. (*) Which of the above statements are correct? Sol. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1.30 (d) 0.20 (b) 0. Rev olute j oints of shoulder and elbow Th1  TC1 250  50 rotational axes are vertical. Ch  Cc Ans. h = m1  m2 M   =  t  20  10  200 rad/s 36  36  14  50 1 2 1 2 =  39. Consider the following statements in respect of 88. In a counterflow heat exchanger. What is the kinetic 200 energy after 10 s ? 89. 8010009955 . I = mk2 = 500 × (0. The work done is same in each stage.25 2. Two air streams with mass flow rates of 36 kg/ TE min and 14 kg/min with respective enthalpies (a) 225 kJ (b) 450 kJ of 36 kJ/kg da and 50 kJ/kg da are mixed.  =   20 rad/s2 I 45 m1h1  m2h2 Sol.3) 2 =45 kg-m 2 Ans.   Sol. The pressure ratios are same for each stage. (c) (c) 46 kJ/kg da (d) 40 kJ/kg da AS Sol. (c) 0. 2 and 3 So.75 starting torque is 900 N m. Th1  Th2  250  100  150 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1. IE (a) 0.92  40 KE = I   45   200   900 kJ 36  14 2 2 90. The effectiveness of the heat exchanger will be : 1. 87. A flywheel fitted to a steam engine has a mass 150 R of 500 kg and radius of gyration 300 mm. 2 and 3 & Tc2  Tc1  80  50  30 . The = = 0.

2 and 3 only used when waste heat is avilable from an existing source or when free energy like solar (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1. Consider the following statements : (c) 8380 kJ/min (d) 8010 kJ/min The presence of air inside condensers Ans. 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only co-efficient. The specific heat of water is 4. (a) 2. 2 3 and 4 (b) 1.  The performance of condenser due to 3. Ans.2 × 20 + 20 × 335 2. The  min  refrigeration capacity of the refrigeration plant  By perfect inter cooling we will achieve the is isothermal compression which required the AS last work the efficiency will improve. Heat required to form the ice from 20° = 20 × 4. The refrigeration system of an ice plant working Work done in each stage will be same between temperatures of –5°C and 25°C TE produces 20 kg of ice per minute from water at  Pmax  20°C.Ans. 2 and 4 only energy is to be used. (a) 9040 kJ/min (b) 8750 kJ/min 91. . reduces the condensing coefficient = 8380 kJ/min = Refrigeration 3. The absorption refrigeration cycle is generally (a) 1. S 93. (d)  By this total pressure Ps  air get increase which increase the condeser pressure Sol. There are no moving parts in the absortpion refrigeration plant except a small liquid pump.compression refrigeration plants. 8010009955 . and vapour. introduces large thermal resistance a vapour-absorption refrigration cycle : Which of the above statements are correct? IE 1. 1/2  Because of low thermal conductivity of air. The value of the coefficient of performance presence of air (which will remain non is nearly the same in both vapour-absorption considerable) gets affected badly.2 kJ/kg as w = f P  and latent heat of ice is 335 kJ/kg. Sol. rp = pressure rat io f or each stage of  As air tend to cling the surface which compress for maximum efficiency reduces the condesing co-efficient. R  Pmax  air imparts large thermal resistance. (c) M 1.  It blanket the heat transfer surfaces such as outside the surface of condenser tubes Which of the above statements are correct? which reduces the considering heat transfer (a) 1. Consider the following statements in respect of 4. tends to cling to the surface Capacity of plant. remains as a non-condensable gas Sol. =    Pmin  92.

Pb  Pv IE 0. 94.8% PS = 4. absorber sm all pump) are used which 1.2% (c) 58. The enthalpy remains constant.  The COP of absorption system is about 20 to 30% of the vapour compression system. steam in hospital is waste) or free energy like solar energy is available.016 1 td1 or P   0. (b) 95. 3. replaces the moving part.016  1  Pv w2 1  P 0. In evaporative cooling process wetbulb temp and enthalpy remain constant. 0. these external source can be waste heat (e. is heated by same external sources.622Pv  S Sol.622 or   38. (c) Sol. Consider the following statements in respect of Sol. The vapour absorption system in place of an evaporative cooling process : compressor absorber equipments (Generator.016 kg/kg of dry air. R  In this system strong solution in generater 2. 8010009955 .8% Ans.246 Ans.1% (b) 60. 2 and 3 1 and 2 only AS of 0.622  Pv tw1= tw2 0. The dew-point temperature remains constant. (d) M Ans.5 Q  58. Air at 30°C and 1 bar has a specific humidity TE Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) 1. the relative humidity of th air will be (d) 1 and 3 only (a) 66.0250bar td2 39.8% (d) 56. By considering the saturation pressure of water vapour at 30°C as (c) 2 and 3 only 4. The wet-bulb temperature remains constant.246 kPa.875 w1 P 0.g.5 ka . (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Pv 2.875 2.

(a) Sol. . Availability = h1  h0  T0 (S1  S2 ) under unit heat at its maximum efficiency. h2  h1  (wL  w1 )hfw Ans. S1  1. (w 2  w1 )hfw is very small Note: only in one case where efficiency of otto cycle is more than and in disel cycle is So. then the Select the correct answer using the code given IE relations for compression ratio r and the below : efficiency  between the two cycles are : (a) 1.25 kJ/kg K and pressure and heat input or same maximum pressure and work output or same peak S2  0.45 3. If the maximum pressure in both air standard Otto and diesel cycles is the same. = 150 – 300 × 0. h2  150 kJ/kg. 1 and stage 2 are .25– 0. peak temp. 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (a) rDiesel  rOtto and Diesel  Otto (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only (b) rOtto  rDiesel and Diesel  Otto Ans.8) 2. 8010009955 . respectively. M = 300 – 150 – 300(1. The specific speed of a turbine is the speed Ans. Which of the following statements are correct? (c) 25 kJ (d) 35 kJ 1. The specific speed is a dimensionless parameter used for the selection of turbines. The specific speed may be dimensional or non-di m en si onal and i s an i m portant (d) rOtto  rDiesel and Otto  Diesel parameter in turbine selection. (a) (c) rDiesel  rOtto and Otto  Diesel Sol. 97. and peak rejection ambient temperature 300 K will be : compression ratio and efficiency of disel cycle is more than otto cycle. (a) at which a homologous turbine develops 1 mhp Sol. h1  300 kJ/ In this case by considering same maximum TE Kg. (a) 15 kJ (b) 20 kJ AS 98. h2  h1 same compression ratio rest of the cases R efficiency of disel cycle is always greater than 96.The function of guide vanes in reaction = 15 kg turbines is to minimize shock at entry of the S fluid onto the runner blades. For a steady process. the conditions at stage otto cycle.8 kJ/kg K. The ‘availability’ at the pressure.

  = 73.6 kW 2. If the Qconvection = Q radiation brake power of the driving electric motor is 5 kW.3% (d) 73. rod are maintained at 100°C. Two rods. the cycle efficiency depends on the pressure ratio only. (a) (a) 45°C (b) 50°C Sol.8  0. 8010009955 . KA ' set ? or.675  =  0. the maximum efficiency S length 2l . Q = 0..6% (b) 63. one of length l and the other of maximum temperature. .735 expansion processes)..(i) L For longer rod at mid point.5% 3. 2 and 3 to be 55°C The temperature at the midpoint of the longer rod would be : Ans.. The temperature at the insulated end is measaured (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1. In the ideal cycle case.0125  30 kW 1.0125m 3/s at midpoint of rod = 55°C 101.6% KA ' hA = . The cycle efficiency M 5 depends on the maximum temperature as well as on the pressure ratio. (shorter rod) from a well with a static lift of 30 m. Ans. hA = . temp. In the practical cycle case. (c) 99. are made of the same material and and the maximum work done occur at a same have same diameter. In the practical cycle case (with irrev ersibilities in the compression and 3. = 3. One end of the IE shorter rod is maintained at 100°C while the Which of the above statements are correct ? other end is insulated. (c) 55°C (d) 60°C  The efficiency of ideal gas turbine cycle depends on the pressure ratio. A centrifugal pump lifts 0. Both ends of the longer pressure ratio. (d) Both equation (i) and (ii) are same so. (a) 57.0125 m3 / s of water For insulated rod.9% R Q convection = Q conduction (c) 65. at a given 100.(ii) L TE Ans. Consider the following statements in repsect of H = 30 m ideal and practical gas turbine cycles : AS P = QH  9. what is the overall efficiency of the pump. Both rods are exposed (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only to the same environment at 40°C.. Sol.

AS if T 03 is fixed.975 r = pressure ratio will also fixed only variation 103. Ans.975 (b) 0.406 m and 0.(ii) r z  The practical cycle. the horizontal and vertical coordinates measured vapour). respectively.085 m. the efficiency of turbine and compression came in picture due to gx 2 irreversibilities so final efficiency depend not   = R 2y only pressure ratio but also maximum temp.  The maximum work done and efficiency of the gas turbine is given at temp. (d) What is the COP of the plant ? (a) 3 (b) 4 Sol. 1 1 2  = 1  1 y = gt . from vena contracta are 0.. Enthalpy at inlet to compressor (saturated M m. h3  150 kJ / kg . At a certain point of the issuing jet. then = 0.825 IE liquid). W input = h2  h1 = 330  300  30 RE = h7  h3  300  150  150 x = t . h2  330 kJ / kg S (a) 0.51 1. h1  300 kJ / kg .925 3.4062 t  c Cv =   Vth 4y h 4  0.875 (d) 0. What is the value of the 2. A jet of water issues from a sharp-edged vertical orifice under a constant heat of 0. x (c) 5 (d) 6 y Ans. of cycle.. In the working of a vapour-compression may happen in t and c refrigeration plant.51 Here T 03 = maximum temp. ratio Vth = 2gh TE 1  r t min =  x2 0.(i) . the following enthalpies are recorded at salient points in the cycle : 102... 8010009955 . Enthalpy at exit of condenser (saturated (c) 0. (c) Sol. Enthalpy at outlet of compressor (after coefficient of velocity ? isentropic compression).085  0.

Which of the above statements are correct? TESol. IE  P1  2. 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only 1. t hen f or polytropic then f or (l) the temperature of the medium. 2 and 3 The major disadvantage of regenerative cycle is requirement of larger boiler capacity for a Ans. By increase in pressure ratio volumetric efficiency will decrease in compressor. hence the efficiency of cycle. Temperature of the medium being cooled vol  1 c  c  2  must be below that of the evaporator. The size of clearance volume provided in Ans. RE 150 So. (d) given power. COP   5 Winput 30 3. less amount of steam will condensed AS in condenser so. Regeneration increases the efficiency of the cycle. Isothermal process is the most desirable (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only R process for compression. Regenera t i on i ncreases t he m ean temperature of heat addition of rankine cycle. Due to extraction of bledoff steam in every stage. The volumetric efficiency of the compressor decreases with increasing pressure. The boiler capacity is increased for a given . (a) the compressor has no effect on work done per kg of air delivered. Which of the above statements are correct? stage reciprocating compressors : (a) 1. As work input for isothermal process is 106. M Sol. output. Consider the following statements in respect of regenerative Rankine cycle : Which of the above statements are correct ? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 1. it reduced the condenser (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only capacity (size of condenser). 8010009955 . (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1. The capacity of the condenser is reduced. ref ri gerant and (n ) the condenser and S absorption system-in a refrigeration unit : 1/n P  1. so isothermal process is desirable proces of compression. 3. (m) the adiabatic. So. Refrigerant leaves the condenser as liquid. system is capable only of intermittent operation. 105. Any solar thermally operated absorption statement 3 is correct. Consider the following statements for single. 104. 3. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1. Consider the following statements in respect of mi nimum. 2. 2 and 3 2.

O2 5% and rest as N2. (d) increasing the ov erall heat transfer co- efficient. The efficiency of heat transfer in a condenser medium being cooled is more than the will improve by increase of the velocity of flow evoporater temperature.8 mole = mc cpc (Tcq  TCi ) So. The difference between the temperature of condenser as liquid. Which of the above statements are correct? 107.Ans. 8010009955 . Sol. 2 and 3 AS at a temperature of 200°C and a pressure of 5 bar.05 Also.8  4 bar  400 KN / m2 V = Flow rate 108. Q  U0 A 0 Tm M (c) 350 kN / m2 (d) 400 kN / m2 Q  U0 So. steam entering the condenser and the inlet water temperature should be maximum for TE Solar thermally operated system can be used maximum efficiency. Q = ms (hsteam  hcondensate ) IE = 0. Partial pressure of nitrogen will be Where mc = mass flow rate of water = Ptotal  mole of nitrogen mc = AV = 5  0. The partial pressure of N2 in the flue gas is Ans. (c) transfer coefficient. for intermittent operation because of the availability of absorber source. The gas was (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1. In absorption system the temperature of 2. R I n t hi s syst em ref ri gerant l eav es t he 3. The efficiency of heat transfer in a condenser will improve by increase of the overall heat . Volumetric analysis of a certain flue gas gave (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only CO2 15%. rate of heat transfer is increased by Ans. (d) (a) 250 kN / m2 (b) 300 kN / m2 Sol.15  0. Consider the following statements : hsteam  hcondensate  Ts  Tc 1. let 1 mole of gas is there S mole of nitrogen will be = 1  0. Sol. of water in the tube.

2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only the f irst and the second stages are. statement 1 is wrong. The Hyperboloid st ruct ure of cool i ng t ower i s m ai nl y associ at e d wi t h st rengt h not wi t h thermodynamic Augumentation. So. The power magnitudes developed in (a) 1. 8010009955 . (a) Sol. The total power developed by a three stage Which of the above statements are correct? velocity compounded impulse steam turbine is 900 kW. (d) (a) 500 kW and 300 kW (b) 100 kW and 300 kW Sol. but it needs yaw adjustment. Because of it these are very tall. The total power of a wind stream is directly 110. = 900   300 kW 5  3 1 S 2. Consider the following statements in respect of proportional to the cube of average velocity.109. more in height. Theoretically the water can be cooled to even a narrow range between cut-in and cut-out below the dry-bulb temperature of the induced velocities. Natural draft cooling towers are 100 m or directions. Wind velocity at about 20 m height above the ground is taken as the rated velocity for 3 design of windmills. TE be over 40m tall and 80 m. Vertical wind machine operates in all wind 2. 5 111. Wind turbine operates with variable load over 1. In Natural draft cooling tower there is no uses So. 4. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only respectively Ans. Power output ratio in velocity compounded 3 stage turbine is 5:3:1. Work put in first stage of fan. Consider the following statements : = 900   500 kW M 5  3 1 Work out put in 2nd stage 1. natural-draft cooling towers : IE 3. air flow. The inner and outer surfaces are surfaces of revolution of a segment of a hyperbola about (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4 the vertical axis-affording improved strength (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 rather than any thermodynamic augmentation. This used in Nucl ear p l ant where hei ght of t ower AS requirement is more due to safety. Cooling towers vary in size from small roof- R (c) 500 kW and 100 kW top units to very large Hyperboloid structure that can be upto 200 meters tall 100m in (d) 100 kW and 100 kW diameter or rectangular structure that can Ans. Which of the above statements are correct? 3. .

(d) space craft. the smaller ball moves with an Sol. When released. A flywheel on a motor speeds up from rest to TE 1000 r.  = 0   t 4m/sec to cut-out speed around 25m/sec which is a narrow range of speed. all pre-placed on a smooth surface. where P = Power 113. • The total power of wind stream in wind • Direct methonal fuel cell is a type of turbine is given by proton exchange membrane fuel cell. (c) spring. • Alkaline fuel cell has been used in Appolo R 1 P = cpAV 3 space craft and it is also termed as Bacon 2 fuel cell. we can acceleration of 2m / s2 . The simultaneous not say directly it can be suitable for acceleration of the bigger ball will be : . Sol. • Proton exchange membrane fuel cell is under process of application so. So. we can 1000   = say statement ‘4’ is wrong. the number of C p = Power co-efficient revolutions made thereby is nearly :  = air density (a) 200 (b) 100 (c) 50 (d) 20 AS A = swept area of turbine Ans.Ans. 60  6 S Only 2 and 3 are correct.m. Two steel balls of 2 kg and 4 kg mass. 1 2  = 0  t IE 112. in 6 seconds. (c) V = Wind speed Wind turbines operate from cut in speed 3 to Sol. 8010009955 . M 1000  = 0 6 60 Vertical wind machines are omni-directional do not require complex mechanism and motors to yaw the rotor and pitch the blades. respectively are pressed on the two ends of a Ans. W hich fuel cell is suitable for spacecraft 2 applications ? (a) Direct methanol fuel cell 1 1000 2 = 0   6 (b) Proton exchange membrane fuel cell 2 60  6 (c) Alkaline fuel cell = 50 rotations (d) Phosphoric acid fuel cell 114.p.

200 4 (a) 200 N (b) N 3 115. S The tension is the cord is :  Acceleration of bigger mass. Here. a B = 22 IE  1 m/s2 . Fext.6  10 3   MA VA  MB VB = 0 = 20 kN   116. (d) (a) 30 kN (b) 20 kN Sol.67  103 = 0.03 kg moving with a speed of 400 m/s penetrates 12 cm into a fixed block (c) 100 N (d) 50 3 N of wood. Ans.67 × 103 m/s2 Sol.03  400 = N M 0. A bullet of mass 0. The average force exerted by the wood on the bullet will be : Ans.6 × 10–3 sec AS rA rB P mv  0 Average force =  C = centre of mass t t    MA rA  MB rB = 0 0.5 m / s2 (b) 1 m / s2 Sol.12  R  dp = 666. (b) (a) 0. = dt v = u + at mA k F mB TE  t=  u  400 a 666. (b)  a= 2  0. FBD of system is as follow : (c) 15 kN (d) 10 kN . 8010009955 . V2 = u2 + 2as 2 2 (c) 2 m / s (d) 4 m / s 2 0   400  Ans. A ball of weight 100 N is tied to a smooth wall MA aA  MBaB = 0 by a cord making an angle of 30° to the wall.

E x =  200  105 2 0.3? at equilibrium (a) 200 GPa (b) 150 GPa (c) 125 GPa (d) 100 Gpa T = 100 cos 30 AS Ans. consider that the conditions of economy of use of the material would avail as follows : E Sol. G 1  = 2 1    0.35 = 150 GPa Ans.385 I 30° 10   = 0. (b) 119.28 (b) 0. Circular section is more economical than square section. Lateral strain = Axail strain ×  2 3 60  105 M = 50  Axial. What is the elastic modulus of the material if the poisson’s ratio is 0. In the design of beams for a given strength. 8010009955 .33 (d) 0. (b) 3 T = 100  Sol.3 117. .5% of tghe value of its Young’s modulus. A bar produces a lateral strain of magnitude R 0s 0° 10 30° 5 mm when subjected to a tensile 60  10 100 kg stress of magnitude 300 MPa along the axial TE direction.30 IE (c) 0.385 E   2. G = 2 1   1. The poisson’s ratio  of the material S is nearly : x 300  106 E =  E x 200  105 (a) 0.Rectangular cross-section is m ore economical than square section area of the beam. 1  1  = 2  0. The modulus of rigidity of an elastic material is  x = 300 MPa found to be 38.298 0 0° co in 3 s3 118.

= 8 × 103 cm 4 (b) The maximum strain produced per unit Span. A beam of rectangular section (12 cm wide × economical. Definition of Resilience = 300 Mpa 122. 8010009955 . 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only R o y  Ans. The maximum bending stress induced is : (a) 400 MPa (b) 300 MPa AS  Z = 6 (c) 200 MPa (d) 100 MPa Z  Z Ans.  = My I   M I/ Y   M Z TE 20 cm deep) is simply supported over a span of 12 m. (d) Sol. alternatively. Ans. A uniform bar. (d) My 240  103  0.1  =  I 8  105 Sol. (c) The least strain energy stored in a unit Load. (b) 120. carries a concentrated load P at mid-span. If the same load be. I =  cm 4 12 12 (a) The strain produced per unit volume is called resilience. simply supported at the ends. P = 80 kN volume volume is called proof resilience. Sect i onal m o dul us (z)   m ore 121. b Which of the above are correct ? by (a) 1. It is acted upon by a concentrated load of 80 kN at the midspan. 3. uniformly . I-section is more economical than a rectangular section of the same depth. IE (d) The greatest strain energy stores in a unit PL Mmax =  240 kNm volume of a material without permanent 4 deformation is called proof resilience. L = 12m S volume is called proof resilience. Which one of the following statements is 3 6  3 12   20  M correct? Sol.

Let '  ' be length of escalator..5% Time =        123.  48   = 37. A boy walks up a stalled escalator in 90 maximum deflection of the bar will decrease seconds. 5L4 5PL3  1 AS uniformly =  P  L  Velocity. 8010009955 .38  103 (b) 2.62  10 3 hoop/cylinder 2t Sol. A thin cylindrical pressure vessel and a thin S  90 60  spherical pressure vessel have the same mean radius. When the same escalator moves. A 10 mm diameter bar of mild steel of elastic sphere) will be in the ratio modulus 200  109 Pa is subjected to a tensile (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1: 1 load of 50000 N.18  103 (d) 4.0% R (a) 48 seconds (b) 36 seconds Ans. b = 384EI 284EI 90   1 5  v escable =    60  48 384   % decrement in  =  1  M   If both starts moving.5% (b) 31. The hoop stresses IE set up in these vessels cylinder in relation to 125. concentrated = 48EI Sol. the 124.5% escalator? (c) 37. How much time would it take him to walk up the moving (a) 25. he by is carried up in 60 seconds. (c) (a) 1. hoop/sphere = = 2 : 1 Pd 1t . (b) PL3 Sol. (c) (c) 30 seconds (d) 24 seconds TE Ans.5% (d) 50.68  10 3 Pd (c) 3. same wall thickness and are subjected = 36 sec to same internal pressure. distributed over the full length of the bar. The elastic recovery of strain that would occur upon removal of tensile load will be Ans. taking it just beyond its yield (c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1 point.

variable rates of cooling as produced during quenching and S Ans.18  10 3 126. Sol. doped Note: Higher carbon reduces the Ms and M f silicon temperature. Although. doped lower than room temperature. (b) the rate of cooling is less than the critical equilibrium conditions are not maintained in cooling rate heat treatment. sodium silicate. When the finishing temperature of martensite IE (Mf) is below the room temperature then we 128. d = 10 mm (a) Iron-carbon and TTT diagrams are both equilibrium diagrams. Iron carbon diagram is a equilibrium phase AS (a) the rate of cooling is greater than the critical diagram but does not show time as a variable cooling rate and hence the effects of different cooling rates on steel does not revealed. diagram but TTT diagram is an equilibrium diagram. (c) Nickel. P = 5000 N (c) Iron-carbon diagram is an equilibrium R diagram but TTT diagram is a non- P 4P Stress. nickel. E = 200 GPa (b) Iron-carbon and TTT diagrams are both non- equilibrium diagrams. the austenite structure would be retained if : TE Ans. Which of the following statements is correct ? Sol. (c) Sol. doped silicon.  =  2  636. (c) 127. nickel. sodium silicate. Moreover. pure finish (Mf) temperature are related and these silica temperatures are controlled by v arious (b) doped silicon. pure silica.g.62 MPa equilibrium diagram A d (d) Iron carbon diagram is a non-equilibrium E =  E  3. the following materials is : The martensite start (M s ) and martensite (a) nickel. pure silica.Ans. The correct order of increasing resistivity among get the retained austenite. 8010009955 . (d) better transformation of austenite into pearlite and martensite. the iron-carbon (c) the initiating temperatrue of martensite equilibrium diagram reveals on the phases M formation is above the room temperature and corresponnding microstructure under equilibrium conditions but several useful (d) the finishing temperature of martensite properties of steel can be obtained under formation is below the room temperature non-equilibrium conditions e. silicon . sodium all oying elem ent includi ng carbon and silicate chromium. until the Mf temperature can be (d) Sodium silicate. On completion of heat treatment. pure silica.

8010009955 . maximizes the entropy Select the correct answer using the code given 3. avoids breaking (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1. TE S = entropy Sodium silicate is a partial conductor of electricity due to presence of sodium ion and So. (b) (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 Sol. Pure silica is piezoelectric material which So. conductivity than intrinsic semiconductor. It can also defined as the amount of energy per unit volume that a material Sol. Nickel is a metal so it will have higher electrical conductivity because of valence A = U – Ts electrons free movement in solid. Hardness S 2. reduced. (a) By Helmhottz free energy equation free energy is given by Sol. . In heating elostomere under tensile load can absorb before rupturing. Consider the following statements : piece ? M On heating an elastomer under tensile load. minimizes the free energy below : IE 4.Ans. Which of the following properties will be the sodiumsilicate meaningful indicator/indicators of uniform rate of elongation of a test piece of a structural Note: Resistivity is opposite of conductivity. its 1. Toughness 1. (b) fracture. material before necking happens in the test 129. entropy get decrease because of only one possible microstate but by shrinkage entropy get increased because of many possible microstates. Toughness is ability of a material to absorb energy and pl asti cal ly def orm wi thout Ans. option 2 and 3 are true AS hav e lower electrical conductiv ity than 130. 2 and 3 Which of the above statements are correct ? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 Ans. By increase in entropy free energy get silicate ion. Ductility shrinkage 2. maximizes the enthalpy 3. where U = internal energy R Due to dopping ‘Si’ become a extrinsic sem i cond uct or whi ch hav e hi gher T = temp.

A planer mechanism has 10 links and 12 rotary Select the correct answer using the code given joints.5% then only steel is termed as corrosion AS resistant or stainless steel. dof = 3 (n – 1) – 2J – h – Fr (c) Nickel (d) Copper = 3 (10 – 1) – 2 × 12 – 0 – 0 Ans. (b) increases the corrosion resistance of steel? (a) Vanadium (b) Chromium Sol. Slider-crank mechanism is not forced . degrees of freedom of the mechanism is (a) 1. SS91b. correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 1. the number of below. A B C D E If chromium percentage in steel is more than One revolution of cam 10. (b) =3 Sol. 3. 8010009955 . the motion of the follower closed mechanism. SS304. is retarding.g. Door-closing mechanism M Angular displacement 3. 2 and 3 (b) 1 only (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 only (d) 3 only (c) 2 (d) 4 . Using Grubler’s criterion. 133. Sol. Which one of the following alloying elements Ans. Ans. Slider-crank mechanism Select the correct answer using the code given W hich of the following statements is/are below. The follower remains at rest in the dwell IE period. 132. W hich of the following mechanisms are Velocity examples of forced closed kinematic pairs? 1. Chrom i um i s t he m ai n con st i t uent 134. 2 and 3 be zero. e. (a) 2. Cam and roller mechanism 2.131. During period DE. etc. The displacement and velocity diagrams of a R responsible for increasing the corosion cam and follower mechanism are shown: resistant of steel and because of it stainless steel in industry frequently termed as high B1 C1 TE Displacement chrome low chrome steel. The acceleration of the follower at the S beginning and at the end of each stroke will (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1.

W hat is the period of critical speed will be execution of two complete vibrations? (a) 12000 r. (c) Ans. n =  M 1450  150 135. (d) 137.p. If the spring stiffness is from vibrations of an unbalanced machine fixed halved and the mass doubled.256 sec 2 138. = 0. (c)  10 Sol.26 s . Each spring Considering each of the rotors separately. The number of instantaneous centres of rotation R in a slider-crank quick return mechanism is = 10 rad/s (a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 4 2 2 TE T=  Ans. A simple spring-mass vibrating system has a Arterfacts to prevent harmful effects resulting natural frequency of N. 8010009955 . Consider the following statements: 136. 2 and 3 1 K =  0. (c) 4.628 SEC  Time for two complete vibrations = 2T = 43 AS = c 2  4c 2  6 1.p.96 s (d) 1. No of instantaneous centre.m. using vibration isolating materials to prevent Ans. (d) 5367 r.m.p. K 4  40000 Sol. The lower the car is 150 kg. (b) 9360 r. Two heavy rotors are mounted on a single shaft. A car of mass 1450 kg is constructed on a 139.5 N (b) N 1. (a) 0.59 s (c) 8465 r. the has a force constant of 40000 N/m.63 s (b) 1. then the natural frequency will be on its foundation include M (a) 0.Ans. chassis supported by four springs.m.p. mounting the machine on springs thereby minimizing the transmission of forces (c) 2N (d) 4N 2. The transverse natural frequencies are 100 cycles/ combined mass of the two people occupying s and 200 cycles/s.5 N 2 M Ans.m. Acceleration of follower of beginning is infinite not zero. moving the foundation so as to have only S degree of freedom towards reducing the K K  transmission of forces Sol. (d) Sol.  =    / 2m M 2 Which of the above statements are correct? IE (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1. (a) or reduce the transmission of forces 3. respectively.

6 140. 3 and 4  TAB  1  TCD  0. 2 and 3 Moment about 0.44 cycle s TE (b) (c) (d) Ans.8 Ans. will not affect the law of gearing 3. 3 and 4 (d) 2.2 kN and 7. Increasing centre distances lead to decrease in contact ratio. Using Dunkerlon’s Method Steel wire 1. shortens the path of contact T CO = 0. 8010009955 .8 m O R 1 1 20 kN = 2  2 100   200  (a) 15.6   AB increase in the centre to centre distance M between the mounting shafts 1.1 kN  = 1 8000 w n = 89. The tensions in wires AB and CD are . A point load of 20 kN is hung at the position shown. increases the contact ratio Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1. (b) 11. Considering the following statements: In the case of gears of involute profiles.76 KN 141. increases the pressure angle TCDL T L  = 0.8 15.  CD = 0. TAB = 11.Ans. 2 and 4 (b) 1.8 Sol.6  AB AE AE 2. M  0 IE (c) 1. A rigid bar ACO as shown is hinged at O and is held in a horizontal position by two identical T CD = 7.0 kN kN kN AS  rpm = 89.8 kN kN kN and and and 7.1 5.36TAB = 20 × 0.56rpm  AB  CO = 1 0.0 5.2 11. (d) B D Steel wire Sol.44  60  5366.6 T AB S  4.6  20  0. (b)  1.05 KN vertical steel wires AB and CD.0 m 0.6 m 1 1 1 A C 2 = 2  2 wn w n1 w n 0.

are connected by an arm. A is the input shaft running at 100 r. (c) 144. C is a fixed shaft. A fixed gear having 200 teeth is meshed with negligible only when. 2 and 4 only IE = 50  20 Ans. Balancing of several masses in different   ANA  BNB  BNC  0 planes can be done by 2 masses in 2 planes on either side of the reference plane or on  100  50  250  B  0 the same side. r a smaller gear having 50 teeth. Reciprocating masses cannot be completely M balanced by rotating masses. 2. 8010009955 . B and Ans.m. The torque x needed to fix C is Given : y = 1.  B = – 20 kNm 4. n   1 .m.p. The two gears That means not always. An epicyclic gear train has 3 shafts A. The number of turns made by the smaller gear for one revolution of cos 2  the arm about the centre of the bigger gear is a  x  w 2r  cos    (a) 1 (b) 2 rec  x  (c) 3 (d) 5 . r. the ratio. Balancing of several masses rotating in the same plane can be effected by a single Sol. (b) = –30 kNm Sol. B is the output shaft running at 250 Sol. ?? if fixed  y   0 R y (a) 20 kN m (anti-clockwise) (b) 20 kN m (clockwise)  x =4 (c) 30 kN m (anti-clockwise) TE (d) 30 kN m (clockwise)  Pinion = x + y = 4 + 1 = 5 Ans. 2.  = 0 forces. Secondary unbalanced f orces were be = 30 kNm (ccw) l 143. clockwise. (d) C. The torque on A is 50 kN m (clockwise). 3 and 4 (b) 1. Which of the above statements are correct? S c =  A  B (a) 1. 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1. 3.142. Consider the following statements: 1.p.  N =0 AS mass. Secondary unbalanced f orces will be negligible compared to primary imbalance Now. clockwise.

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m.   V r  1 rad sec AS 1. r = 100 m  Angular Precession.145. The radius at which the CG of mass B should be is Sol. Hunting occurs when a governor is too sensitive. 2. Valternate = 360 kmph (a) 500 mm (b) 400 mm (c) 300 mm (d) 200 mm 5 = 360  ms R 18 Ans. M1r1 = M2 Y2  r2 = 10  200 5  400mm 146. The engine 1m rotates at 2000 r. The turbines 200 mm and propellers have a total mass of 500 kg with radius of gyration of 25 cm. (c) the beam length (shown in the figure) is equal to Sol.  Gyroscopic couple C = Iw Which of the above statements are correct? = 6. A body of mass 10 kg with its CG 200 mm (c) 9.25  2  31. Hunting occurs when the governor is not sensitive. 3 and 4 (b) 1.1 kN m from the axis of rotation is to be completely balanced by another mass B of 5 kg placed in Ans. The magnitude of the gyroscopic couple generated is (a) 6.65 kN m 50 mm Cross-section of beam . 2 and 4 only (c) 1. w = engine spin = 2000 rpm 2. A governor is said to be unstable if the radius of rotation falls as the speed increases. the I  MK 2  500   0.544 KN. Consider the following statements: TE Radius. 2000 kgf 147. (a) the same plane. The maximum shearing stress induced in the beam section at any layer at any position along IE Ans. Isochronous governors have the same 2000  2 M =  209.45rad s speed over a wide range of governor action.25Kg  m2 spring-loaded governor mechanism is fitted on the cam-shaft of the engine. 60 4.m S (a) 1.81 kN m (d) 13. In stationary constant speed engines. An aircraft cruising at 360 kmph takes a right turn on an arc of 100 m radius. (b) = 100 m/s Sol. 8010009955 .p. 3.55 kN m (b) 7. 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only 148.

55 of the ultimate strength. Taking the yield strength = = 30Kgf cm 2 0. =  bh2   . if the external force is (a) 1100 MN/m2 (b) 1075 MN/m2 fluctuating (c) 1050 MN/m2 (d) 1025 MN/m2 2. A machine component is subjected to a flexural =  Kgf mm 2 2 50  200 stress. (b) R VQ Sol. the minimum ultimate strength according to failure criterion will be modified Goodman relation will be 1. 8 8 For ductile material under static load material VQ start yielding at yield point beyond which = material get deformed permanently and M 2b finally fail by cup and cone fracture at UTS. The graph in between these tells the fatigue  2 4 strength and finally define endurnace limit of AS particular material. Shear stress. endurance limit.50 of the ultimate strength and 149. which fluctuates between 300 MN/m2 and –150 MN/m2. 8 3 V beyond it material termed as fail. yield stress. (a) 30 kgf/cm2 (b) 40 kgf/cm2 Which of the above statements are correct? (c) 50 kgf/cm2 (d) 60 kgf/cm2 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1. 2 bh S  b Note: Due to yielding Lauders band take  12  place in ductile material due to static loading which act as a stress intensifier. Under fatigue failure ductile material will fail as like as brittle bh2 50   200  2 =  may material. If external force is fluctuating then material Ib get fail at stress which is considerably lower than the normal stress of static load. Consider the following statements: factor of safety to be 2. IE 3 2000 150.  bh  h =  . (a) Ans. the allowable stress of material is also bh2 governed by yield stress and in Industry V. if the external force is fluctuating 3. the value of the For a component made of ductile material.  = Sol. 8010009955 . 2 and 3 Ans. These are two termonology used is fatigue fracture. endurnace strength = 0. if the external force is static . fatigue. This TE Q = Ay behaviour is termed as fatigue. These are fatigue strength and fatigue life.

ba   225  2   bmax  bmin  Mean Stress. bmax  bmin  Alternating stress. (c) Sol.bm   75 2  R 60  tan   5 6m Modulated-Goodmax 60 6m  Se Sut = 1 n TE AS 225 75 1    0.Ans.5Sut Sut 2  sut = 1050 MN/m 2 M S IE . 8010009955 .