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MCQ-Series Practice Set I Pathology

Basic Medical Science Email:sidharta123@yahoo.com


Time: 60 min Total Marks: 100 | Pass Mark: 60

PATHOLOGY
Please use a dark pencil/pen to complete the test. Read the instructions at the
begining carefully. This is an Sample Test Paper on Medical / Clinical Pathology.

Please Note: There is no Negative Marking for incorrect responses.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Lymphocytosis occurs in all of the following conditions except:


A Infectious mononucleosis C Brucellosis
B Hodgkin lymphoma D Whooping cough
2. Natural antibodies are _________ in nature
A IgA C IgM
B IgG D IgD
3. Benign bone tumor includes all except:
A Chondroblastoma C Osteoid osteoma
B Chondromyxoid Fibroma D Plasmacytoma
4. The major antibody (immunoglobulin) in the human body:
A IgM C IgA
B IgG D IgD
5. The shelf life of red cells at 4C
A 42 days C 35 days
B 7 days D 5 days
6. Creola bodies can be seen in the sputum of patients who die from
A Coal Workers Pneumoconiosis C Atelectasis
B Status asthmaticus D Sarcoidosis
7. The predominant class of antibodies involved in primary response
A IgE C IgA
B IgG D IgM

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MCQ-Series Practice Set I Pathology


8. Psammoma bodies can be detected in
A Central neurocytoma C Gangliocytoma
B Meningioma D Oligodendroglioma
9. An acute necrotizing vasculitis of infancy and early childhood:
A Wegener Granulomatosis C Takayasu Arteritis
B Buerger Disease D Kawasaki Disease
10. Cholestatis of pregnancy affects which part of the bile duct?
A Large interlobular bile duct C Bile ductule
B Portal tract bile duct D Bile canaliculus
11. Plasmacytosis (peripheral blood plasmacytosis) is seen in:
A Multiple myeloma C Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia
B Oligodendroglioma D Mantle cell lymphoma
12. Complications of massive blood transfusion include all except:
A Hyperphosphatemia C Hyperthermia
B Hemosiderosis D Hypophosphatemia
13. The most common malignancy of the small intestine:
A Primary Intestinal Lymphoma C Carcinoid (Neuroendocrine)
Tumor
B Adenocarcinoma
D Squamous Cell Carcinoma
14. Which of the following is generally not a characteristic feature of emphysema?
A destruction of alveoli C diffuse interstitial fibrosis
B destruction of alveolar septa D destruction of terminal
bronchioles
15. The blood picture in Acanthocytosis is characterized by
A Heinz bodies C Spur cells
B Howell-Jolly bodies D Schistocytes

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MCQ-Series Practice Set I Pathology


16. Microscopic findings in Osteogenesis imperfecta is characterized by:
A Bone marrow replaced by loose C Overgrowth and sclerosis of bone
fibrosis
D Osteopenia with cortical thinning
B Absent zone of proliferative
cartilage
17. (L&H) Lymphohistiocytic cells or "popcorn" cells are found in
A Adult T-cell Leukemia/Lymphoma C Mycosis Fungoides
B Anaplastic Large Cell Lymphoma D Nodular Lymphocyte
Predominant Hodgkin Lymphoma
18. Which of the following is an intestinal whipworm?
A Trichuris trichiura C Enterobius vermicularis
B Ancylostoma duodenale D Strongyloides stercoralis
19. Szary syndrome is a complication of
A Hodgkin lymphoma C Multiple myeloma
B Adult T-cell leukemia (ATL) D Mycosis fungoides
20. Lytic bone lesions is characteristic of
A Chondroblastoma C Osteoid osteoma
B Plasma Cell Myeloma D Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis
21. Most tumor cells in Mycosis fungoides express all of the following except:
A CD4 C CD5
B CD7 D TCR
22. Postpartum fever is due to infection with:
A Mycoplasma pneumoniae C Mycoplasma hominis
B Ureaplasma urealyticum D Histoplasma capsulatum
23. Epidemic relapsing fever is caused by:
A Leptospira C Treponema
B Rickettsia D Borrelia
24. Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of
A Anaplastic Large Cell Lymphoma C Hodgkin lymphoma
B Adult T-cell Leukemia/Lymphoma D Burkitt Lymphoma

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MCQ-Series Practice Set I Pathology


25. What is incorrect about mature adult lungs?
A high pressure system C high volume
B low pressure system D mean pressure > 25 mm Hg at
rest
26. "Tree bark" appearance of the vessel wall due to scar formation is seen in
A Rickettsial Vasculitis C Behet Disease
B Syphilitic Aneurysms D Thromboangiitis Obliterans
27. Which of the following is an helminthic disease of humans?
A Toxocariasis C Bilharziasis
B Dracunculiasis D Strongyloidiasis
28. All of the following diseases/conditions are associated with seizures except:
A Medulloblastoma C Hepatic encephalopathy
B Meningioma D Eclampsia
29. Signs of hydrocephalus may be associated with all of the following brain tumors
except:
A Medulloblastoma C Ependymoma
B Central neurocytoma D Gangliocytoma
30. Wilms tumor is associated with all of the following conditions except:
A WAGR syndrome C Denys-Drash syndrome
B Budd-Chiari syndrome D Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
31. Lepidic growth is observed in which type of lung cancer?
A Large Cell carcinoma C Adenocarcinoma in situ
B "Oat cell carcinoma D Small cell carcinoma
32. Which of the following malignant tumors is associated with worst prognosis (life
expectancy of only 18 months)?
A Anaplastic astrocytomas C Oligodendrogliomas
B Glioblastoma multiforme D Medulloblastomas
33. Hereditary deficiency in 1-antitrypsin causes which of the following diseases?
A Micronodular cirrhosis C Hereditary Hemochromatosis
B Cystic Fibrosis D Emphysema

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MCQ-Series Practice Set I Pathology


34. Which of the following is a malignant neoplasm?
A Choroid Plexus Papilloma C Hemangiopericytoma
B Capillary Lymphangioma D Schwannoma
35. Erythema Induratum is associated with
A Dermatitis Herpetiformis C Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B Granuloma Annulare D Propionibacterium acnes
36. Neutropenia is characterized by all of the following conditions except:
A Rheumatic fever C Systemic lupus erythematosus
B Kostmann syndrome D Felty syndrome
37. Eosinophilic cytoplasmic viral inclusions are called:
A Lewy bodies C Dutcher bodies
B Russell bodies D Molluscum bodies
38. Permanent, irreversible bronchial dilation is known as
A Atelectasis C Bronchiolitis
B Bronchiectasis D Bronchitis
39. Defects in osteoclast activity is characteristic of which syndrome?
A Osteopetrosis C Achondroplasia
B Osteogenesis imperfecta D Maffucci syndrome
40. A type of lung cancer with rapid growth and frequent lymph node metastasis:
A Pulmonary Hamartoma C Small Cell Carcinoma
B Bronchioloalveolar Carcinoma D Squamous cell carcinoma
41. An inflammatory disorder of the aortic arch also known as 'pulseless disease':
A Takayasu Arteritis C Wegener Granulomatosis
B Polyarteritis Nodosa D Buerger Disease
42. Portal tract bile duct is affected in:
A Alcoholic hepatocellular injury C Sclerosing cholangitis
B Primary biliary cirrhosis D cholangiolitis

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MCQ-Series Practice Set I Pathology


43. Schaumann bodies are characteristically seen in
A Respiratory Bronchiolitis C Asbestosis
B Sarcoidosis D Silicosis
44. A disease characterized by diffuse interstitial fibrosis, presence of ferruginous
bodies the molecules that stain with Prussian blue iron stain: pleural fibrosis leads
to rounded atelectasis. The most probable condition is:
A Silicosis C Berylliosis
B Asbestosis D Talcosis
45. All of the following are 'benign' conditions except:
A Nodular Fasciitis C Neuroblastoma
B Ganglioneuroma D Leiomyoma
46. All of the following cell types are involved in wound healing except:
A B lymphocytes C endothelial cells
B myofibroblasts D T lymphocytes
47. Asterixis (flapping hand tremor) is associated with
A Rabbit syndrome C Parkinson disease
B Uremia D Hepatic encephalopathy
48. Excess iron storage is associated with
A Wilson's disease C hepatolenticular degeneration
B hepatocellular carcinoma D Hereditary hemochromatosis
49. Adrenal hyperfunction is associated with all of the following diseases/conditions
except:
A Conn syndrome C Cushing syndrome
B Addison disease D Chronic corticosteroid
administration
50. Radiologically multiloculated 'soap bubble' appearance is seen in
A Osteoid Osteoma C Chondromyxoid Fibroma
B Chondroblastoma D Giant cell tumor of bone

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MCQ-Series Practice Set I Pathology


51. Addison disease may be associated with all of the following conditions except:
A Conn syndrome C Sarcoidosis
B Hashimoto thyroiditis D Graves disease
52. Normal laboratory value for plasma iron
A 20-40 gm/dL C 40-80 gm/dL
B 40-100 gm/dL D 80-100 gm/dL
53. Eosinophils participate in which immunoglobulin mediated responses?
A IgG-mediated responses C IgA-mediated responses
B IgE-mediated responses D IgM-mediated responses
54. Mild microcytic anemia with target cells are seen in
A Sickle cell disease C Acanthocytosis
B Hemoglobin E disease D Hereditary spherocytosis
55. Hemorrhagic necrosis of the adrenal gland
A McCune-Albright syndrome C Plummer-Vinson syndrome
B Waterhouse-Friderichsen D Sjgren Syndrome
syndrome
56. Wilms Tumor is a
A Neuroblastoma C Medulloblastoma
B Retinoblastoma D Nephroblastoma
57. Which of the following immunoglobulin (Ig) crosses the placenta?
A IgD C IgA
B IgM D IgG
58. Atelectasis may result from all of the following conditions except:
A pneumothorax C bronchial obstruction
B asbestosis D emphysema
59. Regarding M. tuberculosis, spot the correct statement(s):
A malachite green is used for C nonmotile obligate anaerobe
acid-fast staining
D Sudan Black selectively stains
B nonmotile obligate aerobe mycolic acid

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MCQ-Series Practice Set I Pathology


60. Secondary hyperparathyroidism may occur due to the setting of all of the following
conditions except:
A Renal tubular acidosis C Intestinal malabsorption
B Parathyroid Adenoma D Fanconi syndrome
61. Tuberculous spondylitis is also known as
A Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia C Paget disease
B Pott disease D McCune-Albright syndrome
62. Centrilobular necrosis in the liver is not seen with
A Budd-Chiari syndrome C Toxic Liver Injury
B Chronic venous congestion D Weil syndrome
63. P. aeruginosa resists phagocytosis due to formation of
A Inclusion bodies C Slime layer
B Murein layer D meso-diaminopimelic acid
64. The most common category of invasive adenocarcinomas of the lung:
A Lepidic-predominant C Papillary adenocarcinoma
adenocarcinoma
D Micropapillary adenocarcinoma
B Acinar-predominant
adenocarcinoma
65. A genetic hypersensitivity to tobacco wherein the disease is exacerbated by
smoking is seen in:
A Kawasaki Disease C Churg-Strauss syndrome
B Behet Disease D Buerger Disease
66. The causative organism of Rangoon beggars disease is:
A Coxiella brunetti C Pseudomonas pseudomallei
B Bartonella henselae D Rickettsia conorii
67. Hydrocephalus is associated with:
A Oligodendroglioma C Ependymoma
B Glioblastoma multiforme D Gangliocytoma

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MCQ-Series Practice Set I Pathology


68. Which of the cardiac veins do not end in the coronary sinus?
A Great Cardiac Vein C Anterior Cardiac vein
B Small Cardiac Vein D Middle Cardiac Vein
69. Russell bodies are characteristic of
A Schwannoma C Hemangioblastoma
B Multiple myeloma D Gangliocytoma
70. Causes of precapillary pulmonary hypertension include all except:
A Pulmonary venoocclusive C Thromboembolic pulmonary
disease hypertension
B Hypertension secondary to D Left-to-right cardiac shunts
fibrotic lung disease
71. Seizures are associated with which of the following brain tumors?
A Ependymoma C Gangliocytoma
B Central neurocytoma D Meningiomas
72. Which of the following brain tumors are almost exclusively located in the
cerebellum?
A Medulloblastomas C Ependymomas
B Gangliocytomas D Oligodendrogliomas
73. Not a symptom of Hodgkin lymphoma:
A lymphadenopathy C pruritus
B cutaneous plaques D low-grade fever
74. Which of the following parasite is a roundworm?
A Trichuris trichiura C Toxocara canis
B Enterobius vermicularis D Trichinella spiralis
75. "Zahn infarct" is seen due to acute occlusion of
A Renal vein C Pulmonary vein
B Portal vein D Great Cardiac Vein

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MCQ-Series Practice Set I Pathology


76. Type of Hodgkin lymphoma with worst prognosis:
A Nodular-sclerosis HL C Lymphocyte-depleted HL
B Mixed-cellularity HL D Nodular Lymphocyte
Predominant HL
77. Hyperthermia with elevation of body temperature above_______ is not compatible
with life:
A 106.5F C 107.5F
B 108.5F D 105.5F
78. The causative organism of Q Fever
A Chlamydia psittaci C Coxiella burnetii
B Rickettsia typhi D Borrelia burgdorferi
79. Verocay bodies are characteristic of
A Grade I astrocytoma C Multiple myeloma
B Schwannoma D Meningioma
80. Boutonneuse fever is caused by
A Rickettsia conorii C Rickettsia sibirica
B Rickettsia akari D Rickettsia australis
81. All of the following conditions are associated with lung cancers except:
A Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C Horner syndrome
B Pancoast syndrome D Eaton-Lambert syndrome
82. Principal causes of Eosinophilia include all except:
A Ulcerative colitis C IL-2 therapy
B Helminth infestations D Collagen vascular disorders
83. "Herringbone pattern" is characteristic of:
A Papillary Fibroelastoma C Fibrosarcoma
B Nodular Fasciitis D Tuberous sclerosis
84. Washed platelets (plasma extracted and additive added) has a shelf life of
A 4h C 24 h
B 7d D 5d

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MCQ-Series Practice Set I Pathology


85. The most common and predominant type of Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (LCH):
A Hand-Schller-Christian disease C Letterer-Siwe disease
B Eosinophilic granuloma D Urticaria pigmentosa
86. A type of lung cancer with dismal prognosis: 5-year survival of <5%
A Small cell carcinoma C Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma
B Large Cell carcinoma D Adenocarcinoma in Situ
87. Pinworm infection is caused by:
A Ascaris lumbricoides C Strongyloidiasis stercoralis
B Trichuris trichiura D Enterobius vermicularis
88. Which of the following malignant conditions is refractory to treatment with a mean
survival of 2 months?
A Prolymphocytic leukemia C Richter syndrome
B IgD myeloma D Glioblastoma multiforme
89. All of the following conditions are principal causes of Basophilia except:
A Tuberculosis C Myxedema
B Ulcerative colitis D Rheumatoid arthritis
90. Heinz bodies is characteristic of
A Sickle cell disease C Hemoglobin C disease
B G6PD deficiency D Paroxysmal nocturnal
hemoglobinuria
91. Which of the following causes of iron overload is due to a congenital disease?
A Bantu siderosis C Hereditary hemochromatosis
B Atransferrinemia D Acute intermittent porphyria
92. Molecular abnormalities underlying Medulloblastomas:
A NF2 gene deletion C loss of 17p heterozygosity
B loss of 19q heterozygosity D mutation of chromosome 19
(19q13.3)
93. All of the following are protozoan diseases except:
A Toxoplasmosis C Cryptosporidiosis
B Chagas Disease D Onchocerciasis

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MCQ-Series Practice Set I Pathology


94. Immunoglobulin which are secretory antibodies:
A Immunoglobulin G (IgG) C Immunoglobulin D (IgD)
B Immunoglobulin M (IgM) D Immunoglobulin A (IgA)
95. Churg-Strauss Syndrome is characterized by
A Glomerulonephritis C Vasculitis
B Bronchitis D Lymphangitis
96. Acute intermittent porphyria is due to deficient activity of
A uroporphyrinogen III synthase C porphobilinogen deaminase
B uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase D protoporphyrinogen oxidase
97. On microscopic examinations, blastemal elements are typical of
A stromal spindle cells C small ovoid cells
B small tubular structures D peritubular myoid cells
98. During wound repair, contraction of the wound site is mediated by
A pericytes C myofibroblasts
B fibronectin D keratinocytes
99. Lobar pneumonia is characterized by all except:
A development of an alveolar C Gray hepatization
exudate
D intense lymphoplasmacytic
B fibrin suppurative exudate infiltrate
100. Scrub typhus is caused by:
A Rickettsia tsutsugamushi C Rickettsia typhi
B Rickettsia rickettsii D Rickettsia prowazekii

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MCQ-Series Practice Set I Pathology

Disclaimer: Every attempt has been made to validate each and every question/answer.
All remaining errors are deeply regretted. Author will not be held responsible for any
errors. Please consult the standard textbooks given in the reference section for any
discrepancy. Questions with wrong answers may better be left unanswered. This is a
practice series available free to download, and designed for the benefit of prospective
PG candidates and UG medical students alike.

Reference Textbooks:
1. Robbins and Cotran PATHOLOGIC BASIS OF DISEASE, 7th Edition

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