ME Objective Paper 1 1007 PDF

ESE - 2016
Detailed Solutions of
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-I
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Directors Message
UPSC has introduced the sectional cutoffs of each paper and screening cut off in
three objective papers (out of 600 marks). The conventional answer sheets of only
those students will be evaluated who will qualify the screening cut offs.
In my opinion the General Ability Paper was easier than last year but Civil
Engineering objective Paper-I and objective Paper-II both are little tougher/
lengthier. Hence the cut off may be less than last year. The objective papers of ME
and EE branches are average but E&T papers are easier than last year.
Expected Minimum Qualifying Marks in Each OBJECTIVE Paper (out of 200 Marks)
Category GEN OBC SC ST PH

Percentage 15% 15% 15% 15% 10%
Marks 30 30 30 30 20
Expected Minimum Qualifying Marks in Each CONVENTIONAL Paper (out of 200 Marks)
Category GEN OBC SC ST PH

Percentage 15% 15% 15% 15% 10%
Marks 30 30 30 30 20
Expected Screening cut off out of 600 Marks (ESE 2016)
Branch GEN OBC SC ST

CE 225 210 160 150
ME 280 260 220 200
EE 310 290 260 230
E&T 335 320 290 260
Note: These are expected screening cut offs for ESE 2016. MADE EASY does not
take guarantee if any variation is found in actual cutoffs.
B. Singh (Ex. IES)

CMD , MADE EASY Group
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ESE-2016 : Mechanical Engg. 1234567890
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 3
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Paper-I (Mechanical Engineering)

1. In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance
a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury.
The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is:
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.6
(c) 2 (d) 4
Ans. (b)
2. Consider the following processes :

1. Extension of a spring
2. Plastic deformation of a material
3. Magnetization of a material exhibiting hysteresis
Which of the above processes are irreversible ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
3. Which of the following statements are correct for a throttling process ?

1. It is an adiabatic steady flow process V
2. The enthalpy before and after throttling is same
3. In the process, due to fall in pressure, the fluid velocity at outlet is always more
than inlet velocity
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
4. A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the
heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required
of the engine is :
(a) 10 kW (b) 20 kW
300 K
(c) 30 kW (d) 50 kW
.
Ans. (a) 50 + W
50 + W& 300
= .
50 250 W=?
W & 50 kW
1+ = 1.2
50
250 K
W& = 10 kW
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5. A heat engine receives heat at the rate of 2500 kJ/min and gives an output of 12.4 kW.
Its thermal efficiency is, nearly :
(a) 18% (b) 23% 41.67
(c) 26% (d) 30%
.
W = 12.4 kW
Ans. (d)
= 29.76%
6. One reversible heat engine operates between 1000 K and T2 K. and another reversible
heat engine operates between T2 K and 400 K. If both the engines have the same heat
input and output, then the temperature T2 must be equal to : 1000
(a) 582.7 K (b) 632.5 K .
Q1
(c) 682.8 K (d) 732.5 K
.
W1
Ans. (b) .
Q2
W& 1 = W& 2 T2
T 400
Q& 1 1 2 = Q& 1 1 .
100 T2 W2
.
T22 = 100 400 Q2
400
T2 = 632.45 K
7. Consider the following statements for isothermal process :

1. Change in internal energy is zero
2. Heat transfer is zero
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
8. A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases
from 0.3 kJ/kg K to 0.4 kJ/kg K. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings
decreases from 80 kJ/K to 75 kJ/K. The process is :
(a) Reversible and isothermal (b) Irreversible
(c) Reversible only (d) Isothermal only
Ans. (b)
(S )system = m (s2 s1) = 100 (0.4 0.3) = 10 kJ/K
(S )surr = 5 kJ/K
(S )univ = +5 kJ/K
Irreversible
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For Answer Key of ESE-2016
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9. Which one of the following statements is correct during adiabatic charging of an ideal
gas into an empty cylinder from a supply main?
(a) The specific enthalpy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific enthalpy
of the gas in the cylinder
(b) The specific enthalpy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific internal
energy of the gas in the cylinder
(c) The specific internal energy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific
enthalpy of the gas in the cylinder
(d) The specific internal energy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific
internal energy of the gas in the cylinder
Ans. (b)
10. Consider the following systems :

1. An electric heater
2. A gas turbine
3. A reciprocating compressor
The steady flow energy equation can be applied to which of the above systems?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (c)
11. Consider the following statements pertaining to Clapeyron equation :

1. It is useful in estimating properties like enthalpy from other measurable properties
2. At a change of phase, it can be used to find the latent heat at a given pressure
3. It is derived from the relationship
Which of the above statements are correct?
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
it should be
p = s

T v v T
12. Consider the following conditions for the reversibility of a cycle :

1. The P and T of the working substance must not differ appreciably, from those of
the surroundings at any state in the process
2. All the processes, taking place in the cycle, must be extremely slow
3. The working parts of the engine must be friction-free
Which of the above conditions are correct ?
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(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (d)
(1.) is wrong since for example in versible adiabatic process both pressure and
temperature are continuously varying.
13. A Carnot engine operates between 300 K and 600 K. If the entropy change during heat
addition is 1 kJ/K, the work produced by the engine is :
(a) 100 kJ (b) 200 kJ
(c) 300 kJ (d) 400 kJ
600 K
Ans. (c) Q
(S )heat addition = 1
.
Q W=?
=1
600
Q = 600 300
W 300
= 1
Q 600
W = 300 kJ
14. 1000 kJ/s of heat is transferred from a constant temperature heat reservoir maintained
at 1000 K to a system at a constant temperature of 500 K. The temperature of the
surroundings is 300 K. The net loss of available energy as a result of this heat transfer
is :
(a) 450 kJ/s (b) 400kJ/s
(c) 350kJ/s (d) 300kJ/s
100 K
Ans. (d)
T0 = 300 K 1000 kJ/s
Loss of A.E.
= 1000 1 { 300
1000 }
1000 1
300
{
500 3
14444444244444443 14444442444444
} 500 K
AE1 AE 2
= 700 400
= 300 kJ
15. The effects of heat transfer from a high temperature body to a low temperature body
are :
1. The energy is conserved
2. The entropy is not conserved
3. The availability is not conserved
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Which of the above statements are correct ?

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
16. Which of the following statements pertaining to entropy are correct ?

1. The entropy of a system reaches its minimum value when it is in a state of equilibrium
with its surroundings
2. Entropy is conserved in all reversible processes
3. Entropy of a substance is least in solid phase
4. Entropy of a solid solution is not zero at absolute zero temperature
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
17. The maximum work developed by a closed cycle used in a gas turbine plant when it
is working between 900 K and 289 K and using air as working substance is :
(a) 11 kJ/kg (b) 13 kJ/kg
(c) 17 kJ/kg (d) 21 kJ/kg
Ans. (*)
( )
2
Wmax = cp Tmax Tmin
2
= 1.005 ( 900 289 )
= 169.87 kJ/kg
18. Consider the following statements :

1. Gases have a very low critical temperature
2. Gases can be liquefied by isothermal compression
3. In engineering problems, water vapour in atmosphere is treated as an ideal or perfect
gas
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
Gas cant be liquified by isothermal comp. since liquid cant above critical temp.
19. The property of a thermodynamic system is :

(a) A path function
(b) A point function
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(c) A quantity which does not change in reversible process

(d) A quantity which changes when system undergoes a cycle
Ans. (b)

1. There is no change in temperature when a liquid is being evaporated into vapour
2. Vapour is a mixed phase of liquid and gas in the zone between saturated liquid
line and saturated vapour line
3. The saturated dry vapour curve is steeper as compared to saturated liquid curve
on a T-s diagram
4. The enthalpy of vaporization decreases with increase in pressure
(a) 1,2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 4 only (d) 1,2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
21. An ideal heat engine, operating on a reversible cycle, produces 9 kW. The engine
operates between 27C and 927C. What is the fuel consumption given that the calorific
value of the fuel is 40000 kJ/kg ?
(a) 0.8 kg/hr (b) 1.02 kg/hr
(c) 1.08 kg/hr (d) 1.28 kg/hr 1200 K
.
Ans. (c) Q
9 300
& = 1 .
Q 1200 W = 9 kW
Q& = 12 kW
300 K
also Q& = mf C.V.
12 = mf 40000
or mf = 3 104 kg/s = 1.08 kg/hr
22. If angle of contact of a drop of liquid is acute, then

(a) Cohesion is equal to adhesion
(b) Cohesion is more than adhesion
(c) Adhesion is more than cohesion
(d) Both adhesion and cohesion have no connection with angle of contact
Ans. (c)
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23. The Carnot cycle is impracticable because :

(a) Isothermal process is very fast; and isentropic process is very slow
(b) Isothermal process is very slow; and isentropic process is very fast
(c) Isothermal process and isentropic process are both very slow
(d) Isothermal process and isentropic process are both very fast
Ans. (b)
24. An ideal Otto-cycle works between minimum and maximum temperatures of 300 K and
1800 K. What is the compression ratio of the cycle for maximum work output when = 1.5
for this ideal gas ?
(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 7 (d) 8
Ans. (b)
Efficiency of Otto cycle is
r 1
1 1
h = 1 = 1
r V1 / V2
r 1 r 1
1 V2
or 1 = 1
r V1
1
r 1 T1
or =
r T2
1.5 1
1 Tmin Tmin
or = =
r Tmax Tmin Tmax
1 T 300
or = max =
r Tmin 1800
r=6

1. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle is a function of the properties of the
working substance (gas)
2. For the same compression ratio and same input, the thermal efficiency of an Otto
cycle is more than that of a Diesel cycle
3. The thermal efficiency of a Diesel cycle increases with decrease of cutoff ratio
Which of the above statements are correct?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Ans. (d)
1
1
Otto = 1
r
1
1 e 1
Disel = 1
r (e 1)
For the Otto cycle, depends only on r, the compression ratio.
For the Diesel cycle, efficiency depends on r and (the cutt of reatio).
If compression ratio increase, for the diesel cycle, the expansion ratio (= r /) will also
increase, is always than r. is always greater than 1. And r is also always greater
than 1. Thus the negative value of numerator of diesel cycle will be lesser. Since r is
in the denominator of the negative term of the diesel cycle, the increase in of the
diesel cycle will be lesser than that of Otto cycle when r increases due to the other
factor.
If cut off ratio (= ) decrease it is clear from diesel , that the numerator of the negative
term will decrease more than the denominator. Thus the diesel cycle will increase.

1. Both Otto and Diesel cycles are special cases of dual combustion cycle
2. Combustion process in IC engines is neither fully constant volume nor fully constant
pressure process
3. Combustion process in ideal cycle is replaced by heat addition from internal source
in closed cycle
4. Exhaust process is replaced by heat rejection in ideal cycle
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
27. A four-cylinder four-stroke SI engine develops an output of 44 kW. If the pumping work
is 5% of the indicated work and mechanical loss is an additional 7%, then the power
consumed in pumping work is :
(a) 50 kW (b) 25 kW
(c) 5.0 kW (d) 2.5 kW
Ans. (d)
As per the given data,
Net power output W = (Total output PW) Mech. losses
5 7
or Wnet = W W = 44 kW
100 100
W = 50 kW
5
Wp = W = 2.5 kW
100
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28. In a two-stroke Petrol engine, fuel loss is maximum after :

(a) Opening the exhaust port (b) Closing the exhaust port
(c) Opening the inlet port (d) Closing the inlet port
Ans. (a)
When the exhaust port is open, some fresh fuel will escape out.
29. In an Otto cycle, air is compressed from 2.2 l to 0.26 l from an initial pressure of
1.2 kg/cm2. The net output/cycle is 440 kJ.
What is the mean effective pressure of the cycle ?
(a) 227 kPa (b) 207 kPa
(c) 192 kPa (d) 185 kPa
Ans. (a)
= Pm Vs
Vs = (2.2 0.26) lit = 1.94 lit
1.94
(V1 V2) = m3
1000
(440 1000) Joules
Pm = =
Vs 1.94 / 1000 m3
440 106 440 105

= N/m3 = kg/m2 or Pa
1.94 1.94
= 207 kPa
30. A single cylinder, four-stroke cycle oil engine is fitted with a rope brake. The diameter
of the brake wheel is 600 mm and the rope diameter is 26 mm. The dead load on the
brake is 200 N and the spring balance reads 30 N. If the engine runs at 600 rpm, what
will be the nearest magnitude of the brake power of the engine ?
(a) 3.3 kW (b) 5.2 kW
(c) 7.3 kW (d) 9.2 kW
Ans. (a)
For calculating the B. Power mechanically the engine speed must always be taken as
N only.
Spring balance
reading
Action of
N = 600 rev/m
load
= 10 rev/sec
Dead load
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The load will act at the centre of the rope.

Net dia. of rope = Dia. of wheel + 2 radius of rope = dia
Dbrake = (600 + 26) mm = 626 mm = 0.626 met
Net Force Dbrake N
Brake power is Pb = kW
1000
(200 30) 0.626 10
= kW
1000
= 3.34 kN
31. In a furnace the heat loss through the 150 mm thick refractory wall lining is estimated
to be 50 W/m2. If the average thermal conductivity of the refractory material is 0.05 W/mK,
the temperature drop across the wall will be :
(a) 140C (b) 150C
(c) 160C (d) 170C K = 0.05
Ans. (b)
k T q = 50 W/m2
q =
L
50 0.15 L = 0.15
T = = 150C
0.05
32. Uniform flow occurs when :

(a) At every point the velocity vector is identical in magnitude and direction at any given
instance
(b) The follow is steady
(c) Discharge through a pipe is constant
(d) Conditions do not change with at any time
Ans. (a)
33. A plane wall is 20 cm thick with an area of 1 m2 and has a thermal conductivity of
0.5 W/m.K. A temperature difference of 100C is imposed across it. The heat flow is
at:
(a) 150 W (b) 180 W
K = 0.5
(c) 220 W (d) 250 W A = 1 m2
Ans. (d)
T = 100 Q
kA T 0.5 1 100
Q= = 0.2
L 0.2
Q = 250 W
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34. Hot gases enter a heat exchanger at 200C and leave at 150C. The cold air enters at
40C and leaves at 140C. The capacity ratio of the heat exchanger will be :
(a) 0.40 (b) 0.45
(c) 0.50 (d) 0.52
Ans. (c)
Th = 200 150 = 50
Tc = 140 40 = 100
Ch Th = Cc Tc
Cc Th
=
Ch Tc
Cc
= 0.5
Ch
35. During very cold weather conditions, cricket players prefer to wear white woolen sweaters
rather than coloured woolen sweaters. The reason is that white wool comparatively :
1. Absorbs less heat from body
2. Emits less heat to the atmosphere
Ans. (b)
While wool being good reflector hence bad emitter thus emits less heat to atmosphere.
36. A pipe of 10 cm diameter and 10 m length is used for condensing steam on its outer
surface. The average heat transfer coefficient hh (when the pipe is horizontal) is n times
the average heat transfer coefficient hv (when the pipe is vertical). The value of n is:
(a) 2.44 (b) 3.34
(c) 4.43 (d) 5.34
Ans. (a)
1/4
( v )K 3ghfg
hH = 0.725 l l
l (Tsat Ts )D
1/4
C
hH = 0.725
D
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C1/4
hv = 0.943
L1/4
C1/4
LH = 0.725
D1/4
hH = nhv
C1/4 C1/ 4
0.943 = n 0.725
L1/4 D1/ 4
n = 2.434
37. A cross-flow type air heater has an area of 50 m2. The overall transfer coefficient is
100 W/m2 K; and heat capacity of the stream, be it hot or cold, is 1000 W/K. What is
the NTU ?
(a) 500 (b) 50
(c) 5 (d) 0.5
Ans. (c)
UA 100 50
NTU = =
Cmin 1000
=5
38. The effectiveness of a counter-flow heat exchanger has been estimated as 0.25. Hot
gases enter at 200C and leave at 75C. Cooling air enters at 40C. The temperature
of the air leaving the unit will be :
(a) 60C (b) 70C
(c) 80C (d) 90C
Ans. (c)
= 0.25
Tce 40
0.25 =
200 40
Tce = 40 + 0.25 160
Tce = 80C
39. Consider the following statements regarding C.I. engine :

1. C.I. engines are more bulky than S.I. engines
2. C.I. engines are more efficient than S.I. engines
3. Lighter flywheels are required in C.I. engines
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(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
Theoritical compect of Petrol and Diesel engines.
Higher the comp. ratio, higher than .
(Diesel engines). Thus, bigger size and more bulky and higher .
40. Thermal boundary layer is a region where :

(a) Heat dissipation is negligible
(b) Inertia and convection are of the same order of magnitude
(c) Convection and dissipation terms are of the same order of magnitude
(d) Convection and conduction terms are of the same order of magnitude
Ans. (d)
In TBL, conduction and convection occurs simultaneously and are of same magnitude
but viscous heat neglected.
41. Solar radiation of 1000 W/m2 is incident on a grey opaque surface with emissivity of
0.4 and emissive power of 400 W/m2. The radiosity of the surface will be :
(a) 940 W/m2 (b) 850 W/m2
(c) 760 W/m2 (d) 670 W/m2
Ans. (1000)
G = 1000 W/m2
J
G
J = G + E
= (1 ) G + E = 0.6 1000 + 400
= 1000 W/m2
No Answer.
42. A body 1 in the form of a sphere of 2 cm radius at temperature T1 is located in body

2, which is a hollow cube of 5 cm side and is at temperature T2 (T2 < T1 ). The shape
factor F21 for radiation heat transfer becomes :
(a) 0.34 (b) 0.43
(c) 0.57 (d) 0.63
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Ans. (a)
2
1 5 cm
5 cm
5 cm
r= 2 cm
F11 = 0
F12 + F11 = 1
F12 = 1
A1F12 4(0.02)2
F21 = = = 0.34
A2 6 (0.05)2
43. Consider the following statements in respect of vapour compression refrigeration units:
1. In actual units the refrigerant leaving the evaporator is superheated ^
2. Superheating of refrigerant at exit of evaporator increases the refrigerating effect ^^^
3. The superheating of refrigerant increases the work of the compressor
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
Super heating is the process of increasing the temperature above saturated vapour at
constant pressure.
44. In a vapour compression refrigerator, the heat rejected in condenser is 1500 kJ/kg of
refrigerant flow and the work done by compressor is 250 kJ/kg. The COP of the refrigerator
is :
(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 7 (d) 8
Ans. (a)
Re 1500 250
COP = COP = =5
W 250
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45. A refrigeration plant is designed to work between 3C and 27C. The plant works on
the Carnot cycle. If the same plant is used as a heat-pump system, then the COP of
the heat pump becomes :
(a) 10 (b) 9
(c) 8 (d) 7
Ans. (a)
TH 300
(COP)HP = = = 10
TH TL 30
46. A refrigeration plant working on Carnot cycle is designed to take the load of 4 T of
refrigeration. The cycle works between 2C and 27C. The power required to run the
system is :
(a) 1.27 kW (b) 3.71 kW
(c) 5.71 kW (d) 7.27 kW
Ans. (a)
TL Re
(COP)R = =
TH TL W
275 4 3.5
=
25 W
W = 1.27 kW
47. The choice of a refrigerant depends upon :

1. Refrigerating capacity
2. Type of compressor used (reciprocating, centrifugal or screw)
3. Service required (whether for air conditioning, cold storage or food freezing)
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
48. The COP of an ideal refrigerator of capacity 2.5 T is 5. The power of the motor required
to run the plant is :
(a) 1.15 kW (b) 1.35 kW
(c) 1.55 kW (d) 1.75 kW
Ans. (d)
(COP)R 5 = Re 5 = 2.5 3.5

W P
P = 1.75 kW
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49. The objective of supercharging an engine is :

1. To reduce space occupied by the engine
2. To increase the power output of an engine when greater power is required
Ans. (c)
After supercharging (compression)
Space is reduced
Pressure is higher. thus mep is more
Higher power
50. Two reversible refrigerators are arranged in series and their COPs are 5 and 6 respectively.
The COP of composite refrigeration system would be :
(a) 1.5 (b) 2.5
(c) 3.5 (d) 4.5
Ans. (b)
COP1 COP2 56
(COP )CC = =
1 + COP1 + COP2 1+ 5 + 6
= 2.5
51. In an air-conditioning plant, air enters the cooling coil at 27C. The coil surface temperature
is 5C . If the bypass factor of the unit is 0.4, the air will leave the coil at:
(a) 5.6C (b) 7.8C
(c) 9.2C (d) 11.2C
t3
Ans. (b)
t1 = 27C
t1 t2
T1 = 300 K
t3 = 5C
T3 = 268 K
BPF = 0.4
t2 t3 t 268
BPF 0.4 = = 2
t1 t 3 300 268
t2 = 280.8 K 7.8C
52. The wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures of an air sample will be equal when :
1. Air is fully saturated
2. Dew point temperature is reached
3. Partial pressure of vapour equals the total pressure
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Selections in
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4. Humidity ratio is 100%

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
Ans. (a)
53. Air at 25C DBT and 80% RH is passed over a cooling coil whose surface temperature
is 10C which is below DPT of the air. If the air temperature coming out of the cooling
coil is 15C, then the bypass factor of the cooling coil is :
(a) 0.56 (b) 0.67
(c) 0.76 (d) 0.87
Ans. (*)
t3 = 10C
Wrong option none of these
Answer is 0.33
t1 = 25C t2 = 15C
15 10 5
BPF = = = 0.33
25 10 15
54. Consider the following statements for the appropriate context:

1. The Relative Humidity of air remains constant during sensible heating or cooling
2. The Dew Point Temperature of air remains constant during sensible heating or cooling
3. The total enthalpy of air remains constant during adiabatic cooling
4. It is necessary to cool the air below its Dew Point Temperature for dehumidifying
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
Sensible heating It is the process of increasing the temperature at constant specific
humidity.
Sensible cooling It is the process of decreasing the temperature at constant specific
humidity.
55. The discharge through an orifice fitted in a tank can be increased by :

(a) Fitting a short length of pipe to the outside
(b) Sharpening the edge of orifice
(c) Fitting a long length of pipe to the outside
(d) Fitting a long length of pipe to the inside
Ans. (a)
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56. The latent heat load in an auditorium is 25% of sensible heat load. The value of sensible
heat factor is
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.5
(c) 0.8 (d) 1.0
Ans. (c)
Given data : LH = 0.25 SH
SH
SHF =
SH + 0.25 SH
= 0.8
57. In a solar collector, the function of the transparent cover is to :

(a) Transmit solar radiation only
(b) Protect the collector from dust
(c) Decrease the heat loss from collector beneath to atmosphere
(d) Absorb all types of radiation and protect the collector from dust
Ans. (c)
58. The most suitable refrigeration system utilizing solar energy is :

(a) Ammonia-Water vapour absorption refrigeration system
(b) Lithium Bromide-Water vapour absorption refrigeration system
(c) Desiccant refrigeration system
(d) Thermoelectric refrigeration system
Ans. (a)
Ammonia used as a refrigerant and water used as absorber.
59. A house-top water tank is made of flat plates and is full to the brim. Its height is twice
that of any side. The ratio of total thrust force on the bottom of the tank to that on any
side will be :
(a) 4 (b) 2
(c) 1 (d) 0.5
2a
Ans. (c) A
FB g(2a) a2 B
= = 1 a
FA g(a) 2a2 a
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60. The water level in a dam is 10 m. The total force acting on vertical wall per metre length
is :
(a) 49.05 kN (b) 490.5 kN
(c) 981 kN (d) 490.5 N
Ans. (b)
F = g (5) (10 1)
F = 490.5 kN
61. A vacuum gauge fixed on a steam condenser reads 80 kPa vacuum. The barometer
indicates 1.013 bar. The absolute pressure in terms of mercury head is, nearly
(a) 160 mm of Hg (b) 190 mm of Hg
(c) 380 mm of Hg (d) 760 mm of Hg
Ans. (a)
80 kPa
Patm = 1.013 bar Pabs = ?

= 101.325 kPa
Absolute zero
Pabs = 101.325 80 = 21.325 kPa

Pabs 21.325
hmercury = =
mercury g 13.6 9.81
= 160 mm
62. The Orsat apparatus gives

1. Volumetric analysis of dry products of combustion
2. Gravimetric analysis of dry products of combustion
Ans. (a)
63. A 25 cm long prismatic homogeneous solid floats in water with its axis vertical and 10 cm
projecting above water surface. If the same solid floats in some oil with its axis vertical
and 5 cm projecting above the liquid surface, then the specific gravity of the oil is
(a) 0.55 (b) 0.65
(c) 0.75 (d) 0.85
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Ans. (c)
10 cm
Water
15 cm
A (15) wg = s (0.25) Ag
0.15 1000
s = = 600 kg/m3
0.25
10 cm
20 cm
oil (0.2) A g = s (0.25) A g

600 0.25
oil = = 750 kg/m3
0.2
Specific gravity = 0.75

The increase in metacentric height
1. Increases stability
2. Decreases stability
3. Increases comfort for passengers in a ship
4. Decreases comfort for passengers in a ship
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
Ans. (b)
65. An isosceles triangular lamina of base 1 m and height 2 m is located in the water in
vertical plane and its vertex is 1 m below the free surface of the water. The position
of force acting on the lamina from the free water surface is :
(a) 2.42 m (b) 2.33 m
(c) 2.00 m (d) 1.33 m
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Ans. (a)
1m
7/3 m
4/3 m
2m
2/3 m C.G
1m
66. A solid body of specific gravity 0.5 is 10 m long 3 m wide and 2 m high. When it floats
in water with its shortest edge vertical, its metacentric height is :
(a) 0.75 m (b) 0.45 m
(c) 0.25 m (d) 0.15 m
Ans. (c)
1m
2m
G
M B
G 0.5 m
B
3m
10 m
s = 500 kg/m3
Imin
BM =

Imin
MG = BG

10 27
GM = 0.5 = 0.25 m
12 10 3 1
67. For a steady two-dimensional flow, the scalar components of the velocity field are
Vx = 2 x; Vy = 2y and Vx = 0. The corresponding components of acceleration ax and
ay respectively are :
(a) 0 and 4y (b) 4x and 0
(c) 0 and 0 (d) 4x and 4y
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Ans. (d)
u v
ax = u +v
x y
ax = (2x) 2 + (2y) 0
ax = 4x m/sec2
v v
ay = u +v
x y
ay = (2x) 0 + (2y) 2
ay = 4y m/sec2
68. The velocity of flow from a tap of 12 mm diameter is 8 m/s. What is the diameter of
the jet at 1.5 m from the tap when the flow is vertically upwards? Assuming that, the
jet continues to be circular upto that level.
(a) 44 mm (b) 34 mm
(c) 24 mm (d) 14 mm V2 = 5.88 m/sec
Ans. (d)
2
v 2 u2 = 2 as
v 2 64 = 2 9.81 1.5 1.5 m
v = 5.88 m/sec
A 1 V1 = A2 V 2
(12)2 8 = d22 5.88
d2 = 14 mm 12 mm
69. Consider the following statements about thermal conductivity :

1. Thermal conductivity decreases with increasing molecular weight
2. Thermal conductivity of non-metallic liquids generally decreases with increasing
temperature
3. Thermal conductivity of gases and liquids is generally smaller than that of solids
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
70. A conical diffuser 3 m long is placed vertically. The velocity at the top (entry) is 4 m/s
and at the lower end is 2 m/s. The pressure head at the top is 2 m of the oil flowing
through the diffuser. The head loss in the diffuser is 0.4 m of the oil. The pressure head
at the exit is :
(a) 3.18 m of oil (b) 5.21 m of oil
(c) 7.18 m of oil (d) 9.21 m of oil
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Ans. (b)
1
V1 = 4 m/sec
V2 = 2 m/sec
P1 3m
=2 m
g
hL = 0.4 m
P1 V12 P V2 2
+ + z1 = 2 + 2 + z 2 + hL
g 2g g 2g
16 P 4
2+ +3 = 2 + + 0 + 0.4
2g g 2g
P2
= 5.21 m
g
p v2
71. Bernoullis equation + + gZ = Constant, is valid for
2
1. Steady flow
2. Viscous flow
3. Incompressible flow
4. Flow along a streamline Which of the above are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
72. Consider the following statements:

1. Absorptivity depends on wave length of incident radiation waves
2. Emissivity is dependent on wave length of incident radiation waves
Ans. (a)
73. A steam turbine in which a part of the steam after expansion is used for process heating
and the remaining steam is further expanded for power generation is/are :
1. Impulse turbine
2. Pass out turbine
Ans. (b)
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74. Two reservoirs connected by two pipe lines in parallel of the same diameter D and length.
It is proposed to replace the two pipe lines by a single pipeline of the same length without
affecting the total discharge and loss of head due to friction. The diameter of the
D
equivalent pipe De in terms of the diameter of the existing pipe line, e , is :
D
(a) 4.0 (b) (2)1/5
(c) (4)1/4 (d) (4)1/5
Ans. (d)
D
1
2
D
Q1 = Q2 = Q
De
16fLQ 2
= hf
2D 5
Q
V=
2
D
4
4Q
V2 =
D 2
De
= 41/5
D
75. A fluid jet is discharging from a 100 mm nozzle and the vena contracta formed has a
diameter of 90 mm. If the coefficient of velocity is 0.98, then the coefficient of discharge
for the nozzle is :
(a) 0.673 (b) 0.794
(c) 0.872 (d) 0.971
Ans. (b)
Cd = Cv Cc
(0.90)2
Cd = 0.98 = 0.7938
(0.100)2
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76. Consider fully developed laminar flow in a circular pipe of a fixed length :
1. The friction factor is inversely proportional to Reynolds number
2. The pressure drop in the pipe is proportional to the average velocity of the flow in
the pipe
3. The friction factor is higher for a rough pipe as compared to a smooth pipe
4. The pressure drop in the pipe is proportional to the square of average of flow in
the pipe
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
Ans. (d)
77. The thickness of the boundary layer for a fluid flowing over a flat plate at a point 20 cm
from the leading edge is found to be 4 mm. The Reynolds number at the point (adopting
5 as the relevant constant) is :
(a) 48400 (b) 57600
(c) 62500 (d) 77600
Ans. (c)
5x
=
Re x
5 0.2
0.004 =
Re x
Re x = 62500
78. What is the ratio of displacement thickness to boundary layer thickness for a linear
u y
distribution of velocity = in the boundary layer on a flat plate, where 5 is the
u
boundary layer thickness and u is the free steam velocity ?
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.67
(c) 0.75 (d) 0.8
Ans. (a)
u y
* = 0 1 u dr = 0 1 dy

* = =
2 2
* 1
=
2
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79. The oil with specific gravity 0.8, dynamic viscosity of 8 103 Ns/m2 flows through
smooth pipe of 100 mm diameter and with Reynolds number 2100. The average velocity
in the pipe is :
(a) 0.21 m/s (b) 0.42 m/s
(c) 0.168 m/s (d) 0.105 m/s
Ans. (a)
= 800 kg/m3
= 800 103 Ns/m2
D= 100 mm
Re = 2100
vD
Re =

Re 2100 8 10 3
v = =
D 800 1
v = 0.21 m/sec
80. In a psychrometric chart, relative humidity lines are :

(a) Curved
(b) Inclined and straight but non-uniformly spaced
(c) Horizontal and non-uniformly spaced
(d) Horizontal and uniformly spaced
Ans. (a)
r
de
g or
in Relative Humidity
as
cre
In
(specific humidity)
DBT
81. A solar collector receiving solar radiation at the rate of 0.6 kW/m2 transforms it to the
internal energy of a fluid at an overall efficiency of 50%. The fluid heated to 350 K is
used to run a heat engine which rejects heat at 313 K. If the heat engine is to deliver
2.5 kW power, the minimum area of the solar collector required would be, nearly :
(a) 8 m2 (b) 17 m2
(c) 39 m2 (d) 79 m2
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Ans. (d)
P P
Th = =
Qs A 0.6 0.5
3/3 2.5
1 =
350 A 0.6 0.5
A = 78.89 m2
82. A reversible heat engine, operating on Carnot cycle, between the temperature limits of
300 K and 1000 K produces 14 kW of power. If the calorific value of the fuel is
40,000 kJ/kg. The fuel consumption will be :
(a) 1.4 kg/hr (b) 1.8 kg/hr
(c) 2.0 kg/hr (d) 2.2 kg/hr
Ans. (b)
300 14
Th = 1 =
1000 m& f 40,000
m& f = 1.8 kg/hr
83. Consider the following statements pertaining to the metacentric height of ocean-going
vessels :
1. Increase in the metacentric height reduces the period roll
2. Some control of period of roll is possible if Cargo is placed further from the centre
line of ship
3. In warships and racing yachts, metacentric height will be larger than other categories
of ships
4. For ocean-going vessels, metacentric height is of the order of 30 cm to 120 cm
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (a)
84. Consider the following statements pertaining to a convergent-divergent nozzle flow with
Mach number 0.9 at the throat:
1. The flow is subsonic in both the converging and the diverging sections
2. The Mach number at the exit is less than one
3. In the diverging section, the flow is supersonic
4. There is a shock in the diverging section
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only (d) 3 and 4
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Ans. (b)
Throat
Su
b nic
p no sonic bso r
M<1 M<1 zzl Su ffuse
e
di
M = 0.9
x
85. For a two stage compressor, the ratio of diameters of L.P. cylinder to H.P. cylinder is
equal to :
(a) Square of the ratio of final pressure to initial pressure
(b) The ratio of final pressure to initial pressure
(c) The square root of the ratio of final pressure to initial pressure
(d) Cube root of the ratio of final pressure to initial pressure
Ans. (c)
p3
p3
Intercooling
p 2
Assuming perfect intercooling,

p1v1 = p2v2

p1 (dLP )2 = p2 (dHP )2
4 4
But p2 = P1P3 = Intercooler
dLP p3
=
dHP p1
86. The condition for power transmission by flow through a pipeline to be maximum is that
the loss of head of the flow due to friction throughout the pipeline length is :
(a) One-third of the total head at inlet end
(b) One-fourth of the total head at inlet end
(c) Three-fourth of the total head at inlet end
(d) One-half of the total head at inlet end
Ans. (a)
st
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87. The correct chronological order, in development of steam generators, is :

(a) Fire tube boiler, Monotube boiler and Water tube boiler
(b) Water tube boiler, Fire tube boiler and Monotube boiler
(c) Fire tube boiler, Water tube boiler and Monotube boiler
(d) Water tube boiler, Monotube boiler and Fire tube boiler
Ans. (c)
88. Supersaturated flow occurs in a steam nozzle due to delay in :

(a) Throttling (b) Condensation
(c) Evaporation (d) Entropy drop
Ans. (b)
Meta stable flow/supersaturated flow

(condensation delayed)
Wilson's Line
89. Under ideal conditions, the velocity of steam at the outlet of a nozzle for a heat drop
of 450 kJ/kg from inlet reservoir condition upto the exit is :
(a) 649 m/s (b) 749 m/s
(c) 849 m/s (d) 949 m/s
Ans. (d)
Vexit = 2 (h) I so + v12
= 2 450 103 = 949 m/sec
90. A shock wave which occurs in a supersonic flow represents a region in which :
(a) A zone of silence exists
(b) There is no change in pressure, temperature and density
(c) There is sudden change in pressure, temperature and density
(d) Analogy with a hydraulic jump is not possible
Ans. (c)
Across shockwave, there is abrupt deceleration of found from supersonic velocity to
subsonic velocity with rise in p,T, but entropy also greatly increases due to severe
inversibilities.
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91. A convergent-divergent nozzle is said to be choked when :

(a) Critical pressure is attained at the exit and Mach number at this section is sonic
(b) Velocity at the throat becomes supersonic
(c) Exit velocity becomes supersonic
(d) Mass flow rate through the nozzle reaches a maximum value
Ans. (d)
92. In a gas turbine cycle, the turbine output is 600 kJ/kg, the compressor work is 400 kJ/kg,
and the heat supplied is 1000 kJ/kg. The thermal efficiency of the cycle is :
(a) 20% (b) 30%
(c) 40% (d) 50%
Ans. (a)
WT WC 600 400
Th = = = 20%
Qs 1000
93. Which of the following units increase the work ratio in a gas turbine plant ?
1. Regeneration
2. Reheating
3. Intercooling
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
94. The pressure at a point in water column is 3.924 N/cm2. What is the corresponding height
of water ?
(a) 8 m (b) 6 m
(c) 4 m (d) 2 m
Ans. (c)
P = 3.924 N/cm2 = 3.924 104 Pa
P 3.924 104
h= =
g 1000 9.81
h=4 m

1. Thermal efficiency of the simple Steam or Rankine cycle can be improved by
increasing the maximum system pressure and temperature
2. Increasing the superheat of the steam improves the specific work and decreases
the moisture content of exhaust steam
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3. Increasing maximum system pressure always increases the moisture content at the
turbine exhaust
4. Lowering the minimum system pressure increases the specific work of the cycle
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
96. The gas turbine blades are subjected to :

(a) High centrifugal stress and thermal stress
(b) Tensile stress and compressive stress
(c) High creep and compressive stress
(d) Compressive stress and thermal stress
Ans. (a)
(Due to high rotational speeds of GT (No. of RPH 30000)), high centrifugal stresses
induced.
97. Which one of the following methods can be adopted to obtain isothermal compression
in an air compressor ?
(a) Increasing the weight of the compressor
(b) Interstage heating
(c) Atmospheric cooling
(d) Providing appropriate dimensions to the cylinder
Ans. (c)
In air compressor (reciprocating), cooling must be provided (by Fins) to approach
isothermal compression to reduce work input.

The compression process in a centrifugal compressor is comparable with :
1. Reversible and adiabatic
2. Irreversible and adiabatic
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both 1 and 2 (b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 only (d) 2 only
Ans. (d)
99. A portable compressor is taken from a place where the barometric pressure is 750 mm
Hg and the average intake temperature is 27C to a mountainous region where the
barometric pressure is 560 mm Hg and temperature is 7C. The reduction in mass output
of the machine is :
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Civil Engineering Mechanical Engineering
Rank Name Personality Test Total Marks Rank Name Personality Test Total Marks
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3 Amit Kumar Mishra 150 766.46 29 Anuj Kumar Mishra 146 675
21 Nishant Kumar 144 712.45 39 Anubhaw Mishra 142 657
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(a) 80% (b) 60%

(c) 40% (d) 20%
Ans. (d)
100. The ratio of static enthalpy rise in the rotor to the static enthalpy rise in the stage of
an axial flow compressor is defined as :
(a) Power input factor (b) Flow coefficient
(c) Temperature coefficient (d) Degree of reaction
Ans. (d)
(h)rotor
(R )compressor =
(h)stator + (h)rotor
101. The performance of a single stage reciprocating air compressor is evaluated by its :
(a) Isentropic efficiency (b) Isothermal efficiency
(c) Adiabatic efficiency (d) Volumetric efficiency
Ans. (b)
102. In a two stage reciprocating air-compressor with a suction pressure of 2 bar and delivery
pressure of 8 bar, the ideal intercooler pressure will be :
(a) 10 bar (b) 6 bar
(c) 4 bar (d) 3 bar
Ans. (c)
(Pintercooler)2 stage = ps pd = 28 = 4
Directions: -
Each of the next Eighteen (18) items consists of two statements, one labelled as the
'Statement (I)' and the other as 'Statement (II)'. Examine these two statements carefully and select
the answers to these items using the codes given below :
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of Statement (I)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true but Statement (II) is NOT
the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
103. Statement (I): Clausius inequality is valid for all cycles, reversible or irreversible including
refrigeration cycles.
Statement (II): Clausius statement is a negative statement which has no proof.
Ans. (b)
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104. Statement (I): Thermometers using different thermometric property substance may give
different readings except at two fixed points.
Statement (II) : Thermodynamic temperature scale is independent of any particular
thermometric substance.
Ans. (b)
105. Statement (I) : First law of thermodynamics analyses the problem quantitatively whereas
second law of thermodynamics analyses the problem qualitatively.
Statement (II) : Throttling process is reversible process.
Ans. (c)
106. Statement (I) : To prevent knocking in SI engines the end gas should have a low density.
Statement (II) : Pre-ignition is caused due to detonation.
Ans. (c)
(I) For lower density, the charge (Air + Fuel) at the end charge will be loss. Thus mass
fuel will also be less. Energy available will be less. Temperature of the end charge
will be less. Knocking is prevented.
(II) Detonation is caused due to PREIGNITION. (The other way normal).
107. Statement (I) : Knocking in Petrol engine is the auto-ignition of the rich mixture entering
the combustion chamber.
Statement (II) : Knocking is due to high compression ratio.
Ans. (b)
(I) For a riches mixture, the fuel supplied will be more. More energy will be liberated.
Temperature will be higher for the charge. Knocking is developed.
(II) For higher compression ratio, the temperature is higher. Knocking takes place (Thus
compression ratio is lesser for petrol engines. Between 6 and 10).
108. Statement (I) : Automotive Petrol engines require Petrol of Octane number between
85-95.
Statement (II) : Automotive Diesel engines require Diesel oil of Cetane number between
85-95.
Ans. (c)
(I) Higher octane no; better is the running of petrol engines (loss knocking)
(II) Max contane no, for diesel engines is around 55.
109. Statement (I) : In Automotive Petrol engines during idling operation a rich mixture is
required (F /A 0.08)
Statement (II) : Rich mixture is required because mixture is diluted by products of
combustion.
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Ans. (a)
(I) For idling conditions slow speeds more energy is needed to run the engine. Hence,
rich mixture . Thus statement II is also correct.
110. Statement (I) : Piston temperature profiles near full load are flattened in case of liquid
cooled engines whereas for air cooled engines temperature profiles are steeper.
Statement (II) : The piston temperature profiles are different in nature for liquid cooled
and air cooled engines because of the different values of heat capacities.
Ans. (a)
(I) Higher the load, higher the temperature. Thus slope is less.
(II) More heat transfer takes places when cooling takes place by liquid. More change
in temperature.
111. Statement (I) : Effective temperature is an index which correlates the combined effect
of air temperature, air humidity and air movement upon human thermal comfort.
Statement (II) : Thermal comfort is not affected by mean radiant temperature.
Ans. (c)
112. Statement (I) : Commercial airplanes save fuel by flying at higher altitudes during long
trips.
Statement (II) : At higher altitudes, the ambient temperature and the Carnot efficiency
are low.
Ans. (c)
113. Statement (I) : In a venturimeter, the divergent section is much longer as compared
to the convergent section.
Statement (II) : Flow separation occurs only in the diverging section of the venturimeter.
Ans. (a)
A in diverging section, flow separation may occur due to adverse pressure graedient,
to avoid this it is kept much longer then converging section.
114. Statement (I) : In Fanno flow, heat transfer is neglected and friction is considered.
Statement (II) : In Rayleigh flow, heat transfer is considered and friction is neglected.
Ans. (b)
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115. Statement (I) : In a choked flow in a convergent divergent nozzle, flow in the diverging
section is supersonic.
Statement (II) : In a choked flow in a convergent divergent nozzle, the Mach number
at the throat is larger than one.
Ans. (c)
116. Statement (I) : Non-dimensional performance curves are applicable to any pump in the
homologous series.
Statement (II) : Viscosity of water varies with temperature causing cavitations on suction
side.
Ans. (c)
117. Statement (I) : In subsonic flow in a diverging channel, it is possible that the flow may
separate.
Statement (II) : In subsonic flow in a diverging channel, there is adverse pressure
gradient in the channel.
Ans. (a)
118. Statement (I) : In a boundary layer formed by uniform flow past a flat plate, the pressure
gradient in the x direction is zero.
Statement (II) : In a boundary layer formed by uniform flow past a flat plate, the pressure
gradient in the y direction is negligible.
Ans. (b)
119. Statement (I) : Coolant and antifreeze refer to the same product.
Statement (II) : Gas engines do not require cooling.
Ans. (c)
(I) If coolant and anti freeze is added that is why it is consider as same product.
(II) Gas engine is basically heavy power IC engine and is required cooling system for
the dessipation of heat generation.
r r
120. Statement (I) : Given a flow with velocity field V , V = 0 , if the flow is incompressible.
r r
Statement (II) : Given a flow with velocity field V , ( V ) = 0 .
Ans. (d)

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ESE - 2016

Category GEN OBC SC ST PH

Category GEN OBC SC ST PH

Expected Screening cut off out of 600 Marks (ESE 2016)

Branch GEN OBC SC ST

B. Singh (Ex. IES)

Paper-I (Mechanical Engineering)

2. Consider the following processes :

3. Which of the following statements are correct for a throttling process ?

7. Consider the following statements for isothermal process :

Roadmap for Paper-I

Paper-I : General Studies & Engineering Aptitude

3. Engineering Mathematics : Differential equations, complex functions, calculus, linear algebra,

5. Standards and quality practices in production, construction, maintenance and services:

8. Basics of Material Science and Engineering: Introduction of material science, classification of

9. Information and Communication Technologies : Introduction to ICT, Components of ICT,

Scroll down Page 2 of 3

10. Consider the following systems :

11. Consider the following statements pertaining to Clapeyron equation :

12. Consider the following conditions for the reversibility of a cycle :

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only

Streams Batch Type Timing Date Venue

Rank Improvement Batch Rs. 26,500/- Rs. 24,500/- Rs. 22,500/-

Fee is inclusive of classes, study material and taxes

Rank Improvement Batches will be conducted at Delhi Centre only.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

16. Which of the following statements pertaining to entropy are correct ?

18. Consider the following statements :

19. The property of a thermodynamic system is :

(c) A quantity which does not change in reversible process

20. Consider the following statements :

22. If angle of contact of a drop of liquid is acute, then

23. The Carnot cycle is impracticable because :

25. Consider the following statements :

Difference between Regular and Weekend Course :

26. Consider the following statements :

28. In a two-stroke Petrol engine, fuel loss is maximum after :

440 106 440 105

The load will act at the centre of the rope.

32. Uniform flow occurs when :

Eligibility (any one of the following)

Why most brilliant students prefer Super Talent Batches!

GATE-2016 : Top Rankers ESE-2015 : Top Rankers

9 in Top 10 58 in Top 100 6 in Top 10 Total 47 selections

Note: 1. Final year or Pass out engineering students are eligible.

39. Consider the following statements regarding C.I. engine :

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only

40. Thermal boundary layer is a region where :

42. A body 1 in the form of a sphere of 2 cm radius at temperature T1 is located in body

AIR-2 AIR-3 AIR-4 AIR-5 AIR-6 AIR-7 AIR-8 AIR-9 AIR-10

AIR-3 AIR-4 AIR-6 AIR-8 AIR-8 AIR-10 AIR-10

AIR-2 AIR-3 AIR-5 AIR-6 AIR-10

AIR-2 AIR-3 AIR-4 AIR-7 AIR-8 AIR-8 AIR-10 AIR-10

AIR-2 AIR-4 AIR-6 AIR-9 AIR-10

AIR-4 AIR-7 AIR-8 AIR-8

Detailed results are available at www.madeeasy.in

47. The choice of a refrigerant depends upon :

(COP)R 5 = Re 5 = 2.5 3.5

49. The objective of supercharging an engine is :

AIR 2 AIR 3 AIR 4 AIR 5 AIR 6 AIR 7 AIR 8 AIR 9 AIR 10

AIR 2 AIR 3 AIR 5 AIR 6 AIR 7 AIR 8 AIR 9 AIR 10

AIR 2 AIR 3 AIR 4 AIR 5 AIR 7 AIR 8 AIR 9 AIR 10

Detailed results are available at www.madeeasy.in