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Updated 2/26/16 - PMP Exam Prep Practice Exam 1

This is an assessment exam. It covers all topics in the course.


This is part of the learning process. You may see some terms that
havent been covered in the course thats by design! Keep
taking this test over and over until you reach a perfect score. As
always, if you have comments or questions, add them to the
course discussion. The answer key is at the end of this document.
1. Assumption identification and documentation should happen as early as possible
in the project. This helps the team plan more effectively. All of the following are
assumptions except for which one?
A. Planning on agreeable weather for a construction project
B. Allowing 10 percent of the time for travel delays
C. Planning on completing the project work during daylight hours only
D. A predetermined budget of $125,000
2. Stakeholder identification is a process that should start as early as possible in the
project and continue through the project closure. This activity ensures that
stakeholders are engaged and managed throughout the entire project life cycle.
When does a stakeholder exert the most influence over a project?
A. At the projects start
B. During the projects execution
C. During the projects planning phase
D. During the projects closing phase
3. You are the project manager of an industrial expansion in your city. Which one of
the following groups could be viewed as a negative stakeholder?
A. The finance department that will pay for the expansion
B. An environmental group that is opposed to expansion
C. The city council that believes the expansion may bring more jobs to the
community
D. The change control board for your project because they do not want
changes to the project scope

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4. Stakeholder identification is essential to effective project managers. All of the


following are key stakeholders on every project except for which one?
A. The project manager
B. The project management team
C. Influencers
D. Government agencies
5. You are a project management consultant to the DWD Project. The team on the
project is concerned about stakeholder identification and stakeholder
management. They want to define the roles and responsibilities for stakeholder
management. Who identifies project stakeholders and determines their
requirements for the project?
A. The project champion
B. The project team
C. Influencers
D. The project sponsor
6. A project has been initiated to implement quality improvement throughout your
organization. You have been assigned the role of project manager. Which one of
the following is needed first for this quality improvement project?
A. A quality management plan
B. Quality control mechanisms
C. A project charter
D. A communications management plan
7. You are the project manager for your organization and youre working with
management to ensure that every project in the organization has a standard
project charter. What is the primary concern of a project charter?
A. To authorize the project
B. To identify the project manager
C. To determine the project budget and schedule
D. To launch the project

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8. A project charter has been written for your project which spans multiple
departments within your matrix-structured organization. Who should actually
charter this project?
A. You, the project manager
B. The functional managers of each affected department
C. An entity outside of the project but within the organization
D. The project management team
9. You are a project manager for your organization. One of the managers is refusing
to allow her employees to spend time on your project. Which one of the following is
likely to be missing from your project in this instance?
A. A project manager
B. A risk management plan
C. Project scope
D. A project charter
10. As project manager, you will be managing a politically charged and expensive
project. However, you anticipate that managers from around the company will try
to use the project team for their own aims rather than focus on the goal of the
project. Given this, who should charter the project?
A. The project manager
B. The functional manager that is perceived to have the most power
C. An entity that is at an organization level and that is appropriate for
authorizing the projects funding
D. The primary customer affected by the projects outcome
11. Beth is the project manager of the NQL Project for her company and shes working
with the project management team to draft the project charter. In Beths charter,
she should define all except one of the following in order for the project charter to
be approved. Which one does not need to be defined?
A. The project manager and the authority level
B. Anticipated quality standards
C. Summary milestones
D. A summary budget

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12. The project manager reports that the project is progressing according to scope.
Management asks to change a few requirements with the scope. Which plan
details how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed in the
project?
A. The scope management plan
B. The change control system
C. The communications management plan
D. The requirements management plan
13. You are the project manager of a large construction project you are completing for
another organization. You and the project team have finished the requirements-
gathering process and are creating the work breakdown structure for the project.
The customer informs you, however, that they need to increase the size of the
building by 10,000 square feet. They are willing to accept the fee and time
schedule change. What must happen next?
A. The project scope must be revised.
B. The project must be started over.
C. Nothing. The project manager can add the 10,000 square feet to the
WBS.
D. The change must be managed through the cost control system.
14. You are the project manager of a large construction project. You and your project
team are planning a method to control changes during the construction project,
and both of you realize that changes often happen in the fieldchanges that may
be different than what the blueprints in the office reflect. The goal of your planning
activity is a way to track actual changes in the field and reflect those changes in
the blueprints in the office. You want consistency between whats actually being
constructed and what the blueprints in the office reflect. What is this process
called? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Project management planning
B. Change assessment
C. Scope validation
D. Configuration management

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15. In most projects, change is inevitable. Changes must be considered for their
impact on the project as a whole, documented, and tracked throughout the entire
project. Which system would track how project deliverables are controlled,
changed, and approved?
A. The change control system
B. The project management information system
C. The change management system
D. The scope management system
16. Kevin is the project manager of the BQA Project for his organization and hes
working with management and the project team to define the change control
system. All of the following activities should be planned as part of the change
control system except for which one?
A. Methods to identify that a change has occurred (or must occur)
B. The process for reviewing and approving requested changes
C. A method for documenting the impact of requested changes
D. A methodology to track team personnel changes
17. You and the project team are creating the change control system for your project.
Marcy, a project team member, wants to know why there is so much emphasis on
creating and documenting the change control system. Which one of the following is
the best answer to Marcys query?
A. A documented change control system is required by management.
B. A documented change control system is required by the project customer.
C. A documented change control system allows the project to improve
because the impact of each change must be considered before it is
approved.
D. A documented change control system allows the projects profitability to
improve because each change may affect the profit and loss of the
project.
18. You are the project manager of the Absolute Quality Company. You are working
with your project team to determine the best approach for identifying and analyzing
project risks. Which of the following is not a risk diagramming technique?
A. Influence diagrams
B. A network diagram
C. A process flowchart
D. Cause-and-effect diagrams

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19. Risks should be identified as early as possible in the project and then analyzed
and tracked for their outcomes and in-depth planning. The risk register contains all
but one of the following. Which doesnt it include?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Root causes of risks
C. Updated risk categories
D. A list of potential responses
20. You are the project manager of the GGJ Project and youre working with your
project team to create the projects risk management plan. Which one of the
following items is NOT part of the risk management plan?
A. Budgeting
B. Risk categories
C. The risk register
D. Methodology
21. You are the project manager of a new project, the sponsor thinks that there may
be unidentified risks in the project. Which of the following items is not an input to
the risk identification process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Pareto charts
C. The project scope statement
D. The risk management plan
22. Barry is working with his project team and key stakeholders to identify project risks.
Which of the following items is a tool or technique for risk identification?
A. Control charts
B. Defect repair review
C. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats (SWOT) analysis
D. A product analysis

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23. You are the project manager of the new server project for your company. This
project will replace 128 network servers on your companys network. Your project
sponsor has requested that you keep her informed of the outcomes of the
quantitative risk analysis process. Which of the following is a common quantitative
risk analysis technique?
A. Risk categorization
B. Expected monetary value analysis
C. A probability-impact matrix
D. A risk register
24. Which quantitative analysis diagramming technique can help the project manager
make the best decision by evaluating a situation and the implication of each
variable?
A. Alternatives identification
B. The precedence diagramming method
C. The arrow diagramming method
D. A decision tree
25. Which risk diagramming technique can help predict project cost based on
probability and cost of risk?
A. Cost simulation
B. The Pareto chart
C. An Ishikawa diagram
D. A decision tree
26. You and your project team have just created the proposed project plan, but your
functional manager disagrees with you on many areas of it. Because you are
operating in a functional environment, youd like some compromise with your
functional manager. Which individual has the power in a functional organization?
A. The project manager
B. The customer
C. The functional manager
D. The program manager

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27. Your project plan may not be approved due to the amount of working capital your
project would require to move into execution. Working capital is defined as which
one of the following?
A. Funds that have been invested into a project that is failing to meet
performance objectives
B. Funds available to invest in a new project
C. Funds the project will generate before the project is even completed
D. The amount of funds the monies would have earned if they were invested
in a savings account rather than in a project
28. You and your project team have just created the proposed project plan, but a
functional manager disagrees with you on many areas of it. Because you are
operating in a strong matrix environment, youd like some compromise with your
functional manager. Which individual has more power in a strong matrix
organization?
A. The project manager
B. The customer
C. The functional manager
D. The program manager
29. Alice is the project manager of the LAB Project for her company. Shes working
with her project team to create the project management plan. Which of the
following statements about the project plan is true?
A. A project plan is not needed for all projects.
B. A project plan cannot be changed during the project implementation.
C. Management must approve the project plan.
D. Customers have the final say regarding the project plans approval.

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30. Why should the project manager and the project team invite the stakeholders to
participate in the project planning sessions?
A. Actually, the project stakeholders should not be involved in the project
planning because their presence may stifle creativity among the project
team members.
B. The project stakeholders are usually the individuals that are paying for the
project work, so they should be involved in the planning sessions.
C. The project stakeholders must be present to monitor the planning
sessions in case the project team moves away from their requirements.
This way they can correct the discussion and keep the planning on track
for their deliverables.
D. The stakeholders have skills and knowledge that can be leveraged in
developing the project plan.
31. Your project is just beginning and you have invited all of the key stakeholders, the
project team, and members of management to participate in an initial meeting.
What is this type of meeting called?
A. A requirements-gathering meeting
B. A risk identification meeting
C. A kick-off meeting
D. A team development meeting
32. You are the project manager for your company and youve recently been assigned
to a new high-profile project. When should the project kick-off meeting happen?
A. When the project manager has the project team assembled for the first
time
B. When the project manager has approved the project plan
C. When management has approved the initial project plan
D. At the start of scope validation
33. You are the project manager for your company and youre managing a new
project. You want to schedule a kick-off meeting but your project sponsor doesnt
want to do this. Why should you host a kick-off meeting?
A. It allows all the stakeholders to meet.
B. It allows the project to begin.
C. It ensures that all of the participants understand the projects purpose.
D. It builds morale for all of the stakeholders.

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34. Beth wants to host a project kick-off meeting for her new project. Which of the
following statement about the project kick-off meeting is false?
A. It allows all the stakeholders to meet one another.
B. Only the project team should attend.
C. It ensures that all of the participants understand the projects purpose.
D. It builds morale for all of the stakeholders.
35. A project manager has added time between two activities. This is an example of
which one of the following?
A. Lag
B. Lead
C. Crashing
D. Fast-tracking
36. You are working with a vendor that is completing some of the project activities.
Some of the vendors activities are on the critical path. Which one of the following
statements about the critical path is true?
A. The critical path is the path with the most activities.
B. The critical path is the path with zero float.
C. The critical path is the path with the least lag.
D. The critical path is the path with critical activities.
37. You are a project manager for your organization and are working on assigning
project team members to activities. You must complete an activity by a
predetermined date. Currently, with four project team members assigned to the
activity, the work will take 40 hours. You know that by adding eight project team
members to the work, the task wont necessarily be reduced to 20 hours. This is
because of which one of the following?
A. Herzbergs Theory of Motivation
B. The law of diminishing returns
C. Parkinsons Law
D. Theory Z

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38. You are the project manager of a two-year project for your company. Youre
working with the project team to identify the constraints and assumptions of the
project. Your project sponsor comes to the analysis meeting and wants to know
when the largest percentage of the project budget will be spent. What should you
tell the project sponsor?
A. During the initiation processes
B. During the planning processes
C. During the execution processes
D. During the control processes
39. You are the project manager of an interior decorating project. Currently, the project
plan calls for the painter to prime the walls for painting, wait four hours for the walls
to cure, and then begin the painting process. However, due to humidity, the walls
are taking four hours longer to cure than planned. The painting activities are on the
critical path. Which one of the following is an acceptable solution for this problem
that wont change the project end date?
A. Add lead time to the painting activity.
B. Add lag time to the painting activity.
C. Change the relation of other activities so the primer can cure faster.
D. Examine the network diagram to determine if the relationships between
activities can be changed. If so, move the painting activities to later in the
project.
40. You are the project manager of a building restoration project. You have elected to
add more workers to an activity on the critical path so the project can finish on
time. This is an example of which one of the following?
A. Risk management
B. Time management
C. Crashing
D. Fast-tracking

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41. You are the project manager of a project to create a training manual. The project is
running late. You elect to change the relationship of several activities from finish-
to-start to start-to-start so the project may complete on schedule. This is an
example of which one of the following?
A. Crashing
B. Fast-tracking
C. Rolling wave planning
D. Expert judgment
42. Ned is the project manager of the NQA Project and hes using earned value
management to show project performance. He learns, however, that his project
has an SPI of .80. A project with an SPI of .80 means what?
A. The project is behind schedule.
B. The project is ahead of schedule.
C. The project is losing money.
D. The project is 80 percent complete.
43. A project is moving toward completion. Janet, an engineer on the project, has
identified a risk that can cause the project to stop if the pressure in a valve goes
below 80 percent. The 80 percent pressure is known as what?
A. Risk
B. The management horizon
C. Risk impact
D. The threshold
44. The first phase of a project has been completed. The project manager reports the
results of the project to management and they elect to stop the project. The end of
the first phase of completion is also known as which one of the following?
A. The kill point
B. Progressive elaboration
C. Rolling wave planning
D. Project scheduling

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45. Which of the following can best be used to determine the true progress of a
project?
A. Variance reports
B. Baselines
C. Change requests approved versus declined
D. Interviews with the project team
46. A performance report leads to a change request. Which one of the following is the
most likely reason why a performance report can lead to a change request?
A. The project is not performing well, so a change request is made to cancel
the project.
B. The project is not performing well, so a change request is submitted to the
project manager.
C. The project is not performing well, so a change request is made to remove
the project manager and replace him with a more experienced project
manager.
D. The project is performing well, so additional requirements are added to the
project scope.
47. Management wants to know how long the project work will take. The project
manager uses a similar project to predict the duration of the current project work.
The project manager is using which form of estimating?
A. Parametric
B. Analogous
C. Bottom-up
D. Expert judgment

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48. Quality assurance is needed in every project based on your organizational process
assets and enterprise environmental factors. Which of the following statements
best defines quality assurance?
A. Work results are monitored to see if they meet relevant quality standards.
If the results do not meet the quality standards, the project manager
applies root cause analysis to determine the cause of the poor
performance and then eliminates the cause.
B. The overall performance is evaluated to ensure the project meets the
relevant quality standards.
C. The project performance is measured and evaluated, and corrective
actions are applied to improve the product and the project.
D. It is an international standard that helps organizations follow their own
quality procedures.
49. You are preparing for quality assurance with your quality department and the
project team. Which of the following tools cannot be used with quality assurance?
A. Herzbergs Theory of Motivation
B. Benefit cost analysis
C. Flowcharting
D. Design of experiments
50. Your project is running late and you need to make a decision about whether you
should purchase a piece of software or have your project team build the software.
Thus, you need to complete a make-or-buy analysis for a procurement decision. In
which process is the make-or-buy analysis used?
A. Contract closeout
B. Source selection
C. Purchase planning
D. Initiating
51. Management has demanded a change to your project scope but this change has a
risk that management is not willing to accept. They recommend you buy errors and
omissions insurance. This is an example of which one of the following?
A. Mitigation
B. Transference
C. Avoidance
D. Countermeasure

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52. You are a project manager for your organization. You have procured four staff
members from a vendor to help with the project work. Two of these staff members
are no longer needed on the project. Which document will determine how the
procured project team members may be excused from the project?
A. The contract between your organization and the vendor
B. The staffing management plan
C. The scope management plan
D. The schedule management plan
53. You are hosting a bidders conference. Which one of the following is the best
approach for managing the session?
A. Require all vendors to present their pricing information during the session.
B. Allow vendors time to ask questions to clarify the project requirements.
C. Allow vendors time to negotiate the pricing.
D. Allow the contract manager to negotiate with the bidders.
54. You are the project manager of a construction project. You have procured an
electrician to complete the wiring for the project. The electrician reports that he is
finished with the services you have hired him to complete. Which one of the
following must you do next in regard to the electrician?
A. Complete the invoice
B. Pay the invoice
C. Inspect the work results
D. Sign off on the work
55. The project manager will sign off on the work once it has been inspected and
deemed acceptable. The project has been completed and management wants to
know exactly how much money has been spent with each vendor on the project.
Which of the following is most likely to happen in this situation?
A. An audit of the project plan
B. An audit of the quality of the project
C. An audit of the procurement documents
D. An audit of the project team members work

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56. You are the project manager for your organization and youre starting the project
process of conducting project procurements. Which of the following is an example
of a screening system?
A. An organizational breakdown structure
B. An independent estimate
C. A requirement for the seller to have a PMP on staff
D. A weighted model
57. You are a project manager for your organization, but one of the managers is
refusing to allow her employees to spend time on your project. Which one of the
following is likely to be missing from your project in this instance?
A. The project manager
B. The risk management plan
C. The project scope
D. The project charter
58. You are a project manager in a weak matrix. You have recently completed the
project schedule. You must now get the project schedule approved so that the
resources can be officially assigned to their project work. Which one of the
following stakeholders will need to approve the project schedule?
A. Functional managers
B. The project champion
C. Project team members
D. No one. The project manager has autonomy on the project in this
structure.
59. Management says that your project is taking too long to complete. Which one of
the following is the best solution to this problem?
A. Add lead time
B. Add lag time
C. Add qualified resources to the critical path
D. Fast-track the project

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60. You are a project manager for your organization. You are currently determining the
physical resources, the amount of resources needed, and when the resources will
be needed in the project schedule. This is called which one of the following?
A. Resource selecting
B. Source selection
C. Resource planning
D. Resource process selection
61. David is a project manager for his company and hes reviewing the defined change
control processes as part of his companys enterprise environmental factors. In his
review, he sees that changes to the projects product are controlled by a particular
system. Which of the following systems will control changes to the projects
product?
A. The scope configuration system
B. The change configuration system
C. The product scope
D. The configuration management system
62. You are the project manager for your organization. Marcy, the sponsor of the
project, has asked that you use a different grade of materials for your project. She
believes the current materials used are of lesser quality than the materials she
proposes. The customer demands the highest quality on the project deliverable.
This change in materials will cause the project costs to increase by 20 percent.
Which one of the following best describes the cost of the materials?
A. Gold plating
B. Cost of quality
C. The project management cost
D. Discretionary costs
63. You are a project manager for a manufacturing company. There are several OSHA
guidelines that must be met on your project. These OSHA guidelines ensure the
safety of the project team members. Which of the following is the most appropriate
reference to these guidelines?
A. Constraints
B. Assumptions
C. Standards
D. Regulations

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64. Finish this statement: _______________ is planned into a project, not inspected
in.
A. Quality
B. Safety
C. Control
D. Teamwork
65. Deans company uses ISO 9000 as part of its manufacturing environment. Dean
has been asked to incorporate an ISO 9000 approach to his projects. What is ISO
9000?
A. A quality management system
B. A quality control system
C. A management approach to implement quality on customer projects
D. A method of following procedures created internally by an organization
66. You are the project manager of the Call Center Improvement Project. The project
calls for training all 320 call center representatives on the new software your
project team will be installing. Part of the project also involves an improvement in
the customer service support of the call center agents. You and the call center
manager have set operational definitions for the call center. Which one of the
following is an operational definition?
A. All customer service reps will complete the required training.
B. All customer service reps will complete the required training within 30
days.
C. A live operator will answer all inbound telephone calls within one minute.
D. All customer service reps will answer telephone calls with their name and
a standard greeting.
67. The project manager and a quality engineer have completed a six-month analysis
of production in a manufacturers environment. The quality engineer now wants to
plot out the results to identify trends. Which one of the following is the chart or
diagram that will best satisfy the request?
A. A Pareto chart
B. An Ishikawa diagram
C. A control chart
D. A flowchart

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68. Quality must first be defined before it can be achieved. There is a cost factor to the
achievement of quality and a cost factor for poor quality. Which of the following is
NOT an example of the cost of poor quality?
A. Rework
B. Corrective actions
C. Safety measures
D. A loss of customers
69. As a project manager and a PMP candidate, you should be able to discern
quality assurance and quality control. Which of the following statements about
quality control is true?
A. Quality control is the process of the project customer accepting the project
deliverables.
B. Quality control is the process of ensuring the project deliverables are in
alignment with the project scope.
C. Quality control is the process of obtaining customer acceptance of the
work.
D. Quality control is concerned with the correctness of the work.
70. Monitoring and controlling the project is the process of ensuring the project plans
are executed accurately. The quality management plan must be understood in
order to track its effectiveness in the project. Which one of the following do the
quality management plans not dictate?
A. Quality control
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality improvement
D. Six Sigma programs
71. What is the difference between quality control and scope validation?
A. Quality control is done by the customer after the project has been
completed.
B. Scope validation is done by the project team to ensure that the project has
been completed according to the project scope.
C. Both are inspection-driven, but the project manager facilitates quality
control while the project team does scope validation.
D. Both are inspection-driven, but the project manager facilitates quality
control without the customer, and then scope validation with the customer.

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72. You are the project manager of the Sales Automation Project. Jennifer, a project
team member, has learned that the vendor you are purchasing a phone system
from as part of this project will likely be two months late on half of the order. Which
subsidiary plan should be updated?
A. The risk management plan
B. The risk response plan
C. The procurement management plan
D. The scope management plan
73. Risks are identified, monitored, tracked, and responded to. One element which
must also be identified is a risk trigger. What is a risk trigger?
A. A risk trigger is a risk that causes a secondary risk.
B. A risk trigger is a risk that causes a residual risk.
C. A risk trigger is a plan to respond to risk events.
D. A risk trigger is a sign or symptom that risks have occurred or are about to
occur.
74. You are the project manager for a construction project. One of the identified risks
within the project has a 20 percent chance of happening. If the risk occurs, it will
cost your project an additional $150,000. Given this, what is the contingency
amount youll need for this risk event?
A. $150,000
B. $30,000
C. $75,000
D. Zero. The risk is not real until it occurs.
75. You are the project manager for a large project that spans several of your
organizations sites. There are many risks identified throughout the project in each
of the sites of the project. Which one of the following is the most effective method
of dealing with the project risks?
A. Create risk owners for each of the project risks.
B. Buy insurance for each of the identified risks.
C. The project manager will need to travel to each of the sites as the risk
event is coming into the project schedule.
D. The project manager will need to schedule the risk events so that no risk
events overlap at any one time.

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76. You are the project manager of a large construction project. There are several
pieces of work within the project that you have procured to a vendor. The smaller
contracted work is completed through a time and materials contract. What
stipulation must exist within the contract in order to prevent inherent risks in the
project?
A. A deadline
B. It should not exceed specifications
C. The costs per hour
D. The total costs for the procured work
77. You are the project manager of a project to install new wireless devices at more
than 900 retail stores throughout North America. One of the identified risks in the
project is that some of the stores may receive interference from other outlets in the
shopping area. Mary, an installer of the wireless devices, has identified a store she
is working on that is receiving interference from other signals in the area. The risk
response you have planned is to install a slightly higher-cost radio device. This risk
response that Mary should now implement is which one of the following?
A. A countermeasure
B. A mitigation
C. A transference
D. A contingency plan
78. Not all risk responses are managed internally because some risks can be solved
through purchases and outsourcing. For example, errors and omission insurance
is an example of which risk response?
A. Trigger
B. Threshold
C. Transference
D. Countermeasure
79. You are the project manager of the GHY Project for your company. This project is
scheduled to last two years and has a budget of $1,250,000. You have identified a
new risk in your project. What must be updated?
A. The risk response plan
B. The work breakdown structure
C. The risk register
D. The scope statement

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80. As a PMP, you should be familiar with the project management processes and
their components. Which one of the following is NOT an input to risk control?
A. The project management plan
B. The work breakdown structure
C. The risk register
D. Work performance data
81. Your project is moving toward closure and several risks that have been identified
did not come into fruition. What should be updated?
A. The historical records
B. The work breakdown structure
C. The risk register
D. The risk response plan
82. Controlling project risks is an ongoing activity to ensure that the risk status has not
changed. Controlling risks also includes the proper and quick reaction to the risk
event should the events status change in the project. Which of the following is
NOT a valid reason for risk control?
A. To determine if project assumptions are still valid
B. To identify trends within risk identification
C. To determine if the contingency reserve is adequate
D. To determine if vendor contracts are valid
83. You and your project team have just completed the Warehouse Construction
Project. For the project to be officially complete, what must happen next?
A. Quality inspections
B. You must sign off on the project mechanisms
C. Scope validation
D. Contract closeout
84. Scope validation must be documented and communicated with the project team
and project stakeholders to ensure the timing and scheduling of the event. When
does scope validation happen?
A. Only at the end of the project
B. At the end of each project phase
C. With each deliverable
D. As the customer sees fit

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85. You are the project manager of the GDS project. The project is in month seven
and is scheduled to last 15 months. Management has decided to cancel the project
altogether due to circumstances outside of your control and does not hold you
responsible for the project cancellation. Which of the following statements best
describes scope validation in this case?
A. Scope validation should be measured against the deliverables that were
created up to the point of the projects cancellation.
B. Scope validation should be deemed successful because management
canceled the project due to circumstances outside of your control.
C. Scope validation is not needed because the scope was never fulfilled.
D. Scope validation is not needed unless the project is more than 50 percent
complete.
86. Which one of the following is NOT a component of administrative closure?
A. Activities needed to satisfy project completion
B. Rework
C. Operational transfer of the projects product
D. Lessons learned
87. You are the project manager of the NHX Project. The project has several vendors.
Vendor ABC has completed their work according to the terms of the contract. What
should happen next?
A. Whatever the terms of the contract call for
B. Scope validation
C. Project closure
D. Lessons learned
88. You and the vendor are in a dispute about the work within the project. The vendor
is demanding payment for work they completed. You disagree with their demands.
What is the likely outcome of this scenario?
A. Unresolved claims may be subject to litigation
B. Scope validation
C. Project closure
D. Procurement audits

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89. You are the project manager of a customer relationship management program that
will involve people from all parts of your organization. Your project team will
include representatives of people from all parts of the company. Functional
managers need to know when their workers will be released from your project.
Which one of the following is the subsidiary project plan that documents this
information?
A. The human resources management plan
B. The staffing management plan
C. The WBS
D. The cost control plan
90. Marcy is no longer needed on your project. You are the project manager in a
projectized organization operating under a PMO. How can Marcy be released from
the project team?
A. Marcy cannot be released. A projectized team is on the project full-time
through project completion.
B. Marcy cannot be released. A PMO requires that project team members
stay on the project until the project is completed.
C. The project manager may elect to remove Marcy.
D. The project manager should meet with the PMO to remove Marcy from the
project team.
91. Elizabeth is a project team member and she doesnt want to complete the lessons
learned documentation on this project. Elizabeth doesnt see the value in the
documentation or the process. What is the point of the lessons learned
documentation?
A. It keeps the project manager focused on the project work.
B. It maintains communication with management.
C. It ensures that all of the project work is complete.
D. It allows other project managers to learn from this project.
92. Which process includes the documentation of the projects success or failure?
A. Configuration management
B. Administrative closure
C. Quality control
D. Scope validation

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93. All projects should include a final project report thats archived as part of the
projects organizational process assets. Why should the final project report be
archived? (Choose the best answer.)
A. In case the customer has a change to the project scope
B. In case the projects finances are ever called into question
C. In case the organization needs to update the projects product
D. In case future project teams need the projects information to help them
complete their project
94. Which of the following is NOT a source of conflict within a project?
A. Project priorities
B. Schedule
C. Personality conflicts
D. Quality
95. Which of the following is not an example of contributing to the project management
knowledge base?
A. Giving a lecture on project risk management
B. Writing articles on project management topics
C. Referring a friend to the PMI website for information on obtaining the
PMP title
D. Publishing a book on project management methodologies
96. You have written a book on project management thats for sale in bookstores and
through websites. This is an example of which one of the following?
A. A conflict of interest if you are a PMP
B. A breach of the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct
C. An example of contributing to the project management knowledge base
D. An example of providing the public with information on the PMP career
and certification
97. You have created a newsletter for your company that provides monthly information
on PMP certification, project management methodologies, and how your
company is implementing project management. This is an example of which one of
the following?

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A. Ensuring integrity
B. Contributing to the knowledge base
C. Applying professional knowledge
D. Balancing stakeholder interests
98. You are teaching a project management class for your project team members. This
class is an example of which one of the following in regard to professional
responsibility?
A. Informing others about project management principles
B. Helping the profession grow into a respectable career track
C. A conflict of interest with applying professional knowledge
D. A contribution to the project management knowledge base
99. You are taking a project management class to help you better prepare to be a
project manager. This class is an example of which one of the following in regard
to professional responsibility?
A. Informing others about project management principles
B. Helping the profession grow into a respectable career track
C. A conflict of interest with applying professional knowledge
D. Enhancing individual competence
100. You are a new project manager for your organization. Your company does not
have the resources to send you to a project management training class at this
time. Which one of the following is not a method you could use to enhance your
individual competence until you can complete formal training?
A. Do nothing. You cannot enhance your competence without formal training.
B. Read historical information from past projects.
C. Emulate successful project managers.
D. Serve as an assistant to another project manager.

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Exam 1 Answer Key


1. D. A predetermined project budget is a cost constraint. A, B, and C are incorrect
because each is an assumption.
2. A. Stakeholders have the most influence on a projects success at the start of the
project. B, C, and D are incorrect because all are false statements.
3. B. Because the environmental group is opposed to your project, they are viewed as
a negative stakeholder. A is incorrect. The finance department is a stakeholder, but
they are likely positive since they are part of your organization. C is incorrect. The
city council is a positive stakeholder because they are in favor of your project. D is
also incorrect. The change control board is also a stakeholder, but they will likely be
positive given theyre part of your organization.
4. D. Because government agencies are not key stakeholders on every project. A is
incorrect because the project manager is a key stakeholder on every project. B is
incorrect because the project management team is a key stakeholder on every
project. C is also incorrect because influencers are key stakeholders on every
project.
5. B. The project team is responsible for identifying stakeholders and determining the
requirements for the project. A, C, and D are incorrect because these are all false
statements.
6. C. All projects, regardless of their intent, first need a project charter. A is incorrect.
While a quality management plan will likely be needed, a project charter comes first.
B is incorrect because a project charter is needed before quality controls. D is also
incorrect because a communications management plan will likely be needed, but
only after the project charter has been issued.
7. A. All projects, regardless of their intent, first need a project charter. The charter
authorizes the project. B is incorrect because the primary concern of the charter is
authorize the project charter, and then it names the project manager. C is incorrect
because the project charter does not determine the project schedule and budget. D
is also incorrect. While one could argue that a charter launches the project, theyd be
wrong. The question asks for the primary concern of the charter, which is to
authorize the project.
8. C. All projects should be chartered and authorized external to the project and with
the power to execute decisions for resources and time. A is incorrect. The project
manager needs authority from a higher entity within the organization. B is incorrect.
There should be one entity that charters the project. This scenario will likely cause
power struggles for the project resources and deliverables. D is also incorrect
because the project management team does not authorize the project.
9. D. The functional manager is likely not allowing her employees to work on the
project because there is no charter requiring the manager to do so. A is incorrect
because you are the project manager. B is incorrect because the risk management
plan is not applicable to this scenario. C is also incorrect. The project scope may be
missing, but it is not as important as the project charter, which authorizes the project.

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10. C. The project should be chartered by an entity outside of the project organization
that can authorize the project funding. A is incorrect because you are already the
project manager. B is incorrect because the functional manager may not have the
authority to authorize resources and funds for the project. D is also incorrect. The
primary customer isnt always the project sponsor. In addition, the question does not
allude to which customer is affected by the project the most, so one must consider
that the customer could be outside of the organization altogether.
11. B. Anticipated quality standards are not part of the project charter requirements. The
project charter should define the project purpose, project objectives, high-level
requirements, assumptions and constraints for the project, risks, project boundaries,
milestones, budget, stakeholder list, approval requirements, project manager, and
the project sponsor. A is incorrect. The project manager and level of authority is one
of the project charter requirements. C is incorrect because summary milestones is
one of the project charter requirements. D is also incorrect because a summary
budget is one of the project charter requirements.
12. D. The requirements management plan defines everything when it comes to
identifying, documenting, and controlling project requirements. A is incorrect
because the scope management plan defines just the details of the project scope
and how it is defined and controlled. B is incorrect because the change control
system is the process for all of change management. C is also incorrect because the
communications management plan does not detail how changes to the scope will be
documented.
13. A. Revisions are a special type of project schedule change, and cause the project
start date and, more likely, the project end date to be changed. Revisions typically
stem from project scope changes. B is incorrect. The project has really just started
because the WBS hasnt even been created yet. Thus, it isnt necessary to scrap the
project and start over at this point. C is incorrect. The project manager cannot simply
add the additional requests into the WBS. They must be added to the project scope,
documented, planned for, and then migrated into the WBS. D is also incorrect. A
cost control system may not be created at this point. In addition, the project is being
completed for another entity and they demand the change.
14. D. This is an example of configuration management, which seeks consistency in
tracking and monitoring approved changes in a project. A is incorrect. Though this is
part of project planning, it does not fully answer the question. B is incorrect. This is
not a valid choice for this question because no changes have been proposed yet;
the project team is simply planning on how configuration management should work
within their project. C is incorrect. Scope validation happens with the customer and
seeks acceptance of the project work.
15. A. The change control system seeks to control how deliverables are controlled,
changed, and approved. B is incorrect because this is not a valid answer for this
question. C is incorrect because this, too, is not a valid answer for this question. D is
also incorrect because this is also not a valid answer for this question.

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16. D. Changes to the team personnel are not part of the change control system. A, B,
and C are incorrect. None of them are valid answers for the question because each
is part of the change control system.
17. C. A change control system requires that each change request be evaluated and its
impact on the project considered before approving the change request. A is
incorrect. While this is likely true in many organizations, it is not the best answer for
this question. B is also incorrect. The project customer may not know or realize that
a change control system exists. In addition, this is not the best answer for Marcys
question. D is incorrect as well. This is not a valid answer for this question because
not every project has a profit and loss statement (consider micro projects and not-
for-profit endeavors).
18. B. A network diagram does not help identify risks but is instead a tool used in
activity sequencing to identify precedents and dependencies. A is incorrect because
influence diagrams are graphical representations showing causal influences and can
help identify risks. C is incorrect because process flowcharts show how elements of
a system interrelate and can help identify risks. D is incorrect as well. Cause-and-
effect diagrams are also known as Ishikawa or fishbone diagrams and can help
identify risks.
19. A. Qualitative risk analysis is not contained in the risk register. B is incorrect
because root causes of risks describe the fundamental conditions or events that give
rise to the risk, and are included in the risk register. C is incorrect because the
process of identifying risk can lead to new categories of risk and these are included
in the risk register. D is also incorrect. Potential responses may be identified during
the risk identification process and are included in the risk register.
20. C. The risk register is not part of the risk management plan but rather the output of
the risk identification process. A is incorrect because it assigns resources and cost
estimates for risk management activities and is therefore part of the risk
management plan. B is incorrect because risk categories provide a structure that
ensures a comprehensive process to identify risks to a consistent level of detail and
is, therefore, part of the risk management plan. D is incorrect because a
methodology defines the approach, tools, and data sources that will be used to
perform risk management and is thus part of the risk management plan.
21. B. While Pareto charts are useful for quality control, they are not specific inputs to
the risk identification process. A is incorrect. Organizational process assets are an
input to risk identification because information on prior projects may be available,
including actual data and lessons learned. C is incorrect. The project scope
statement is an input to risk identification because any uncertainty in project
assumptions should be evaluated as a potential cause of risk. D is incorrect. The risk
management plan is a key input to risk identification, including roles and
responsibilities, provisions for risk management activities in the budget and
schedule, and categories of risk.
22. C. This technique ensures examination of the project from each of the SWOT
perspectives to increase the breadth of considered risks. It is therefore an effective
risk identification technique. A is incorrect. The purpose of control charts is to
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determine whether or not a process is stable, or has predictable performance. Thus,


it is not a risk identification technique. B is incorrect. Defect repair review is an action
taken by the quality control department to ensure defects are repaired. It is therefore
not a risk identification technique. D is also incorrect. Product analysis uses
techniques like product breakdown to help define the scope of a project rather than
identify risks.
23. B. Expected monetary value analysis is a statistical concept that calculates the
average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen.
Therefore, it is a quantitative analysis technique. A is incorrect. Risk categorization
determines areas of the project most exposed to the effects of uncertainty, but it is
not a quantitative analysis technique. C is incorrect because this matrix prioritizes
risks for further quantitative analysis. D is incorrect because the risk register is an
output of the risk identification process and is not a quantitative analysis technique.
24. D. This is a decision tree diagram that describes a situation and the implications of
each of the available choices with the costs and rewards of each choice. A is
incorrect. Alternatives identification is a technique used to generate different
approaches to perform the work of the project rather than a quantitative risk analysis
technique. B is incorrect. The precedence diagramming method is a way to construct
the project schedule and thus is not a quantitative risk analysis technique. C is
incorrect. The arrow diagramming method is a way to construct the project schedule
network diagram and is therefore not a quantitative risk analysis technique.
25. A. Through numerous iterations, this chart describes the cumulative distribution of
results from a cost simulation. B is incorrect because a Pareto chart is a quality
control technique. C is incorrect because an Ishikawa diagram is used for root cause
analysis rather than quantitative risk analysis. D is also incorrect because a decision
tree diagram is a quantitative risk analysis technique, but this is not what is shown in
the diagram.
26. C. The functional manager has the power in a functional organization. A is incorrect.
The project manager has limited power in a functional organization and may even be
known as a project coordinator or team leader. B is incorrect. Although the customer
sets the project requirements, they have little project management authority. D is
incorrect because a program manager wont likely exist in a functional organization.
27. B. Working capital is the money an organization has to run the business and invest
in new opportunitieswhich includes projects. A is incorrect. This explanation
describes sunk costs. C is incorrect. This explanation describes the return on
investment for the project. D is incorrect. This explanation describes the time value
of money.
28. A. The project manager has the power in a strong matrix organization. B is incorrect.
Although the customer sets the project requirements, they have little project
management authority. C is incorrect because the functional manager has limited
power in a strong matrix organization. D is incorrect because a program manager
may not even exist in a strong matrix organization.

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29. C. Management must approve all project plans. A is incorrect. All projects need a
project plan. B is incorrect. Project plans can, and often are, changed during project
implementation. D is incorrect. Customers have input, but not the final say on a
project plans approval.
30. D. Stakeholders have skills and knowledge that can be leveraged in developing the
project plan. A is incorrect because this isnt true. B is incorrect. While this statement
may be true in many instances, it is not the best reason to involve stakeholders in
the project planning sessions. C is also incorrect. This is not true because the goal
of involving stakeholders is to use their knowledge about the deliverable they want,
not to direct the project team in their discussion on how to best create the
deliverables.
31. C. A project kick-off meeting gets the project moving and identifies the individuals
involved in the project. A is incorrect. This is not the requirements-gathering
meeting, though project requirements may be touched on. B is incorrect because
this is not a meeting for risk identification. D is also incorrect because this is not a
team development meeting.
32. C. The project kick-off meeting happens after the initial project plan has been
approved. A is incorrect because this does not answer the question as well as C. B
is incorrect because the project manager does not necessarily approve the project
planmanagement does. D is incorrect; this is not a valid statement because scope
validation is an inspection-drive process that aims for the project customer to accept
the project work.
33. C. The project kick-off meeting happens so that the participants can all understand
the projects purpose. A is incorrect because while this may be a true statement for
many projects, it is not the primary purpose of the projects kick-off meeting. B is
incorrect because the project charter is technically what launches the project, not the
kick-off meeting. D is incorrect because this is not the primary purpose of the
projects kick-off meeting.
34. B. All of the key stakeholders should attend the project kick-off meeting, not just the
project team. A is incorrect because this is true of the project kick-off meeting. C is
incorrect because this is true of the project kick-off meeting. D is incorrect because
this is true of the project kick-off meeting.
35. A. Lag time is waiting time. When a project manager adds time between activities,
he is adding lag. B is incorrect. Lead is subtracting time between activities. C is
incorrect because crashing adds resources to activities so they can finish faster. D is
incorrect because fast-tracking changes the relationship between activities so they
can finish faster.
36. B. The critical path is the path with zero float. A is incorrect. A path can have many
activities and not be the critical path. C is also incorrect. While lag can increase a
projects duration, a path with the least lag does not make it the critical path. D is
incorrect because this is not a valid answer.
37. B. The law of diminishing returns affects the yield of work in relation to work
duration. A is incorrect because Herzbergs Theory of Motivation deals with hygiene

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agents and motivating agents. C is incorrect because Parkinsons Law states that
work will expand to fulfill the time allotted to it. D is also incorrect because Ouchis
Theory Z believes in cooperative management.
38. C. The largest percentage of the project budget will be spent during the project
execution processes. A is incorrect. The initiation processes do not require the bulk
of the project budget. B is incorrect because the planning processes do not require
the bulk of the project budget. D is also incorrect because the control processes do
not require the bulk of the project budget.
39. D. Because the critical path cannot be expanded, the only logical choice is to
attempt to move the activities to later in the project. The project team should focus
on other activities while the primer cures. A is incorrect because lead time subtracts
time from the scheduled start time of activities. B is incorrect. Lag time will increase
the time of the painting activities. C is also incorrect because changing the
relationship of activities will not help the primer cure faster.
40. C. Crashing allows the project manager to add resources to an activity to complete it
faster. This does not always work because some activities have a fixed duration. A is
incorrect. This is not risk management. Fast-tracking, not crashing, introduces new
risk for projects. B is incorrect because this is not an example of time management.
D is also incorrect. Fast-tracking allows activities that should start in succession to
overlap so the project may finish sooner. Fast-tracking may also use lead time.
41. B. Fast-tracking changes the relationships of activities so the project may finish
sooner than expected. A is incorrect. Crashing allows the project manager to add
resources to the project work in order to complete it sooner than expected. C is
incorrect. Rolling wave planning allows planning to be completed based on the
conditions within the project in waves or successions. D is also incorrect because
this is not an example of expert judgment.
42. A. A schedule performance index of .80 means the project is behind schedule. The
closer to 1 the SPI is, the better the project. B is incorrect because an SPI of .80
means the project is behind schedule, not ahead. C is also incorrect. While the
project likely will result in being over budget due to the labor demands to complete
the project, the SPI deals with the project schedule. D is incorrect as well since an
SPI does not reflect the percentage complete of the project.
43. D. The 80 percent mark is known as a threshold. A is incorrect because the 80
percent mark is not the risk. The risk comes after the threshold is passed. B is
incorrect because the management horizon is the point in time when the project has
paid for the investment. C is also incorrect because risk impact is the effect the risk
event has on the projects success.
44. A. Based on the end result of a phase, management or the customer may elect to
kill a project. B is incorrect. Progressive elaboration is the refinement of the project
concept as the project progresses. C is incorrect. Rolling wave planning is the
successions of planning that happen throughout a project based on conditions and
results of the project work. D is incorrect because this is not an example of project
scheduling.

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45. B. Baselines can be used to compare what is actual against what was predicted. A
is incorrect because variance reports dont necessarily reflect project progress. C is
incorrect because change requests do not reflect the progression of a project. D is
also incorrect because interviews with the project team may not reflect the projects
overall progress.
46. B. When a project is going badly, operating beyond its budget, or off schedule,
changes may be made to reduce the project scope or to add quality activities to
ensure the product is correct. A is incorrect. Projects are not canceled via change
requests. C is incorrect. Change requests are not made for administrative changes.
D is also incorrect. A well-performing project should stay on course with no changes
to project scope.
47. B. Because the project manager is using another similar project to predict the
duration of the current project, he is using the analogous method. A is incorrect
because parametric estimating is based on parameters, such as units, metric tons,
and so on. C is incorrect. Bottom-up estimates start at zero and take in all costs for
each activity. D is also incorrect because this is not the best answer for the question.
48. B. Quality assurance maps to an organizations quality policy and is typically a
managerial process. A is incorrect because this statement defines quality control. C
is incorrect because this statement defines quality improvement. D is also incorrect
because this statement defines ISO 9000.
49. A. Herzbergs Theory of Motivation is based on motivating agents and hygiene
agents and is not applied to quality assurance. B is incorrect because benefit cost
analysis can be applied to quality assurance. C is incorrect because flowcharting
can be applied to quality assurance. D is also incorrect. Design of experiments is a
tool that can be applied to quality assurance.
50. C. You are creating a make-or-buy analysis to determine the need to complete the
work in-house or send the work to a vendor. At this point in the project, you are
completing procurement planning. A is incorrect. This is not done in contract
closeout. B is incorrect because source selection will happen if the decision is made
to buy the product or service. D is incorrect because solicitation will happen if the
result of the analysis is to buy the product or service from a vendor.
51. B. Purchasing insurance as a response to a risk is transference. A is incorrect
because mitigations are actions taken to reduce the impact or probability of a risk
event. C is incorrect because avoidance avoids the project risk. D is also incorrect
because countermeasures are actions taken to neutralize the risk impact.
52. A. The contract will determine how long the project team members will be allowed
to, or are required to, stay on the project. B is incorrect. The staffing management
plan will concur with the contract details to determine how procured resources are
released from the project. C is incorrect because the scope management plan
determines how the project scope may be changed. D is incorrect because the
schedule management plan determines how changes to the schedule will be
managed.

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53. B. Vendors should have ample time to ask questions to clarify the project
requirements. A is incorrect. Vendors likely will not have pricing information during
the bidders conference. C is incorrect because vendors will not negotiate pricing in
the conference. D is also incorrect because the contract manager may handle
negotiations with bidders, but the negotiation process does not happen at the
bidders conference.
54. C. Once the vendor reports that the work is complete, the project manager should
inspect the work. This inspection can be done firsthand, if the project manager is
qualified, or by another qualified person or group. A is incorrect because the vendor
completes the invoice for the buyer. B is incorrect. The project manager will pay the
invoice according to the project contractand after the work is verified as complete.
D is also incorrect.
55. C. Management will likely want to complete an audit of the procurement records. A is
incorrect because a project plan audit is not needed. B is incorrect. While the quality
of the project work is needed, it will not help management ascertain where the
monies have been spent in the project. D is also incorrect. The project team
members work may be audited for quality and completeness, but it will not answer
managements question about the finances.
56. C. The requirement for the vendor to have a PMP on staff can be used as a
screening system to filter out vendors that do not have the proper qualifications. A is
incorrect because an organizational breakdown structure shows how the
organization is decomposed into departments, groups, managers, and other
functional-based components. B is incorrect because an independent estimate is
used to compare vendors bids on the project work. D is also incorrect because a
weighted model scores vendors in different categories of qualification.
57. D. The functional manager likely isnt allowing her employees to work on the project
because there is no charter requiring the manager to do so. A is incorrect because
you are the project manager. B is incorrect because the risk management plan is not
applicable to this scenario. C is also incorrect. The project scope may be missing,
but it is not as important as the project charter, which authorizes the project.
58. A. The functional managers in a weak matrix will have to approve the project
schedule. B is incorrect because the project champion does not approve the project
schedule. C is incorrect. The project team does not approve the project schedule;
they may provide input, but not approval. D is also incorrect because the project
manager has limited authority in a weak matrix structure.
59. C. When there are unused resources that can help, the project manager should add
these resources to the critical path to reduce the duration of the activities. A is
incorrect because lead time is not the best solution. B is incorrect because lag time
will cause the project to last longer. D is also incorrect. Fast-tracking the project will
shorten the project duration, but it also increases risk. Plus, adding unused
resources is the best solution to attempt first.
60. C. Resource planning considers the resource pool, resource availability, resource
costs, and resource calendars against the project calendar, scheduled activities, and

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overall need for particular resources to determine what is the best resource for a
given activity. A is incorrect. Resource selecting is simply choosing which resource
is appropriate for the project team or the project work. B is incorrect. Source
selection is a procurement process to determine which vendor is the best choice for
the project work. D is incorrect because this answer is an invalid choice and is not
appropriate.
61. D. The configuration management system controls changes to the functional and
physical characteristics of a product or component. A, B, and C are incorrect
because they are not valid choices for this question.
62. B. The cost to quality is the best choice. The expense of the better materials is
attributed to the better product the project will create. A is incorrect. Gold plating is
the act of adding work, additional materials, or more-expensive-than-needed
materials to drive up the project cost for personal gain. C is incorrect. This is not an
example of project management costs. D is incorrect. These are not discretionary
costs but costs attributed to the cost of the quality as demanded by the customer.
63. D. OSHA guidelines are requirements your project must meet. A is incorrect. While
some project managers may view these regulations as constraints, regulations are a
better description for the rules. If the project manager does not follow these
regulations, it may cause fines, penalties, and even injuries or death to the project
team members. B is incorrect because these are not assumptions. C is incorrect.
Standards are optional, while OSHA regulations are not optional.
64. A. Quality is planned into a project from the start. Inspections prove its existence. B
is incorrect. While safety is important, it is not the correct answer. Safety adherence
may be inspected in a project when you consider construction projects, electrical
wiring projects, or similar work. C is incorrect because control is not a viable choice.
D is incorrect. Teamwork is developed, planned, and hoped for, but this is not the
best choice for the question.
65. D. ISO 9000 is not a quality system, but a method of following procedures created
internally tbyan organization. A is incorrect because ISO 9000 is not a quality
management system. B is incorrect because ISO 9000 is not a quality control
system. C is incorrect because ISO 9000 is an organization-wide approach, not just
a project-centric one.
66. C. A live operator will answer all inbound telephone calls within one minute is an
example of an operational definition because it has a given metric. A, B, and D are
incorrect because these are examples of project requirements.
67. C. A control chart will allow the quality engineer and the project manager to plot out
the results to find assignable causes for variances. A is incorrect because a Pareto
chart maps out the causes and frequency of quality problems. B is incorrect because
an Ishikawa diagram is a cause-and-effect diagram used to determine root-cause
analysis. D is incorrect because a flowchart shows the relation of components within
a system and how a process works through a system.
68. C. Safety measures are a cost of the conformance to quality. If the measures are not
taken, accidents may happen and the project may then be stopped for investigation,

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rework, and other measures. A is incorrect. Rework is an example of the cost of


nonconformance to quality. When work is unacceptable, it has to be corrected. B is
incorrect. Corrective actions are part of the cost of nonconformance to quality. When
work, performance, and other components are unacceptable, corrective actions
steer the project back online. D is also incorrect because when customers get
frustrated due to quality issues, they will find other providers.
69. D. Quality control is focused on the correctness of the work. A, B, and C are
incorrect because these statements describe scope validation.
70. D. Not all companies will use a quality management program like Six Sigma. A is
incorrect because quality control is detailed in the quality management plan. B is
incorrect because quality assurance is also detailed in the quality management plan.
C is incorrect as well. Quality improvement is detailed in the quality management
plan.
71. D. Quality control is concerned with the correctness of the work, while scope
validation is concerned with the customer accepting the work. A, B, and C are
incorrect because all of these statements are false.
72. B. Responses to risks are identified and documented in the risk response plan. A is
incorrect because the risk management plan details how risk analysis, risk
identification, and other risk-related management activities will proceed. It does not
include the responses to individual risk. C is incorrect. The procurement
management plan does not need to be updated based on this scenario. The
question does not indicate that a different vendor is needed. D is incorrect. The
scope management plan does not need to be changed because there is no
indication of changes, or threats of changes, to the project scope.
73. D. These are warning signs or symptoms that a risk has occurred or is about to
occur. A is incorrect because a secondary risk can be created by solutions to a
different risk in the project. B is incorrect. Residual risks are smaller risks caused by
response to other risks. C is incorrect because a risk trigger is not a plan to respond
to the risk event.
74. B. The risk has a 20 percent chance of happening and will cost the project
$150,000. Twenty percent of $150,000 is $30,000the expected amount of
contingency. A is incorrect. $150,000 is 100 percent of the risk event occurring. C is
incorrect. $75,000 is based on a 50 percent likelihood of the risk occurring. D is
incorrect because the risk is real even if the risk event does not occur.
75. A. Risk owners can monitor, respond to, and communicate on risk events. B is
incorrect. Buying insurance, also known as transference, may not be an affordable
or available solution for all the risks within the project. C is incorrect. This is not
feasible because multiple risks may overlap each other in the schedule. In addition,
the project managers presence wont address the risk event itself. D is incorrect.
This also is not a feasible option. A project may have multiple risks on multiple
paths. It would be highly unlikely for the project manager to schedule activities so
that activities with risks do not overlap.

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76. B. A time and materials (T&M) contract needs a Not to Exceed (NTE) stipulation. A
is incorrect because not all T&M contracts have deadlines. C is incorrect because
the costs per hour is a prerequisite for this type of contract. D is incorrect. Not all
T&M contracts have a total cost for the projected work. This is why the NTE clause
is needed.
77. D. Contingency planning requires additional funding and time set aside for the risk
event. A is incorrect because a countermeasure is an action to neutralize the risk
event. B is incorrect because mitigation is steps taken to reduce the impact and
likelihood of the risk event. C is also incorrect. Transference moves the risk
ownership to a third party.
78. C. Transference transfers the risk to someone else. A is incorrect because a trigger
is a sign that a risk event has occurred or is about to occur. B is incorrect because
thresholds are metrics that mean a risk event is occurring as conditions pass the
preset mark. D is also incorrect because countermeasures are actions to neutralize
the risk event.
79. C. When a new risk has been identified, the risk register must be updated. A is
incorrect. The risk response may need to be updatedif there is to be a response to
the identified risk. The first step is to update the risk register. B is incorrect because
the WBS does not need to be updated since the project scope has not changed. D is
also incorrect because the scope statement is not updated as a result of risk
discovery.
80. B. The WBS is not an input to risk monitoring and control. A is incorrect because the
project management plan, specifically its risk management plan, is an input to risk
monitoring and control. C is incorrect. The risk register is an input to risk monitoring
and control. D is incorrect because work performance data is also an input to risk
monitoring and control.
81. C. When a risk has been identified, it is documented in the risk register. The risk is
then tracked through the risk register. A is incorrect. Historical records are records of
events that have occurred before this project began. Your project is creating future
historical records. B is incorrect because the WBS is not updated. D is incorrect
because the risk response is not updated.
82. D. The contract type is determined as part of the procurement process. A, B, and C
are incorrect because these are not valid reasons for risk monitoring and control.
Project managers will need to test assumptions for risks, identify risk trends, and
evaluate the contingency reserve of risk events.
83. C. Scope validation is the process of obtaining formal acceptance. A is incorrect.
While scope validation uses inspections, it is not only concerned with quality, but
with the fulfillment of the requirements. B is incorrect because the sign-off of the
project mechanisms is not an applicable choice. D is incorrect because contract
closeout can happen throughout the project when vendors have completed their
project obligations, not just at the projects conclusion.
84. B. Scope validation is the assurance that the project deliverables have met the
project scope. A is incorrect because scope validation does not happen only at the

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end of a project. C is incorrect because each deliverable does not demand a scope
validation. D is also incorrect. Scope validation happens as phases or projects are
completed, not only when the customer sees fit.
85. A. Although the project has been canceled, scope validation should take place for
the deliverables up to the point the project was canceled. B is incorrect. Scope
validation is still needed although management canceled the project due to outside
circumstances. C is also incorrect. Although the scope was never completed, scope
validation is still needed. D is incorrect because this is not a valid option for the
question.
86. B. Rework is not an output of administrative closure. If rework is needed, the project
or phase cannot be closed. A is incorrect. Youll need to complete all of the planned
activities in order to do administrative closure. C is incorrect. Once the project is
completed, the operational transfer of the product must happen so the project can be
closed and resources released. D is incorrect because lessons learned are also part
of administrative closure.
87. A. The terms of the contract should be followed here since they may have provisions
for an audit, payment procedures, and forms that the vendor may have to complete
to be paid. B is incorrect. Just because a vendor has completed work on the project
does not mean the project needs scope validation at this point. C is incorrect. The
question does not state that the entire project is finished so this answer is not valid.
D is incorrect. Lessons learned are important, but this is not the best choice for the
question.
88. A. Unresolved claims may result in litigation. B is incorrect. Just because you and a
vendor have a disagreement about the completed work on the project does not
mean the project needs scope validation at this point. C is incorrect. The question
does not state that the entire project is finished, so this answer is not valid. D is
incorrect. A procurement audit may show your internal process for procurement, but
it does not resolve the issue between you and the vendor.
89. B. The staffing management plan will account for the employees time on the project.
A is incorrect because this is not a valid plan. C is incorrect. The WBS is not a
project plan. D is also incorrect because the cost control plan is not a valid choice.
90. D. When a project team member is no longer needed on a project team in a
projectized structure, the project manager should follow the operations of the PMO if
it exists. A is incorrect because this is not a valid statement. B and C are incorrect
because neither of these is a valid answer for this question.
91. D. Lessons learned are documents used for future reference. They allow other
project managers to learn from the current project. A is incorrect. The project plan
and scope statement keep the project manager focused on the project work, not the
lessons learned documentation. B is incorrect. Various reports are used to
communicate with management, not lessons learned documentation. This is not to
say that management wont review the lessons learned documentation; its just not
the best answer for the question. Management will expect reports and other
communications to keep them informed. C is also incorrect. Lessons learned do not

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ensure that the project work is complete. Scope validation, peer reviews, and other
mechanisms can ensure that the project work is complete.
92. B. Administrative closure includes the creation of the final project report. A is
incorrect. Configuration management documents and controls the functions and
features of the projects product. C is incorrect because quality control is concerned
with the correctness of the work. D is incorrect because scope validation is
concerned with the acceptance of the work.
93. D. Current project records become future historical information. A is incorrect
because the project scope is completed when the final report is created. B is
incorrect because financial audits typically happen before the final report is created.
C is also incorrect. Though this is often true, it is not the best answer.
94. D. There are seven common conflicts within a project: project priorities, schedule,
resources, cost, administrative procedures, technical issues, and personality
conflicts. A, B, and C are incorrect because these are all sources of conflict.
95. C. Referring a friend to PMIs website for info on the PMP certification is helpful,
but it is not an example of contributing to the project management knowledge base.
A is incorrect. Giving a lecture is an example of contributing to the project
management knowledge base. B is incorrect because writing articles is an example
of contributing to the project management knowledge base. D is incorrect because
publishing a book on project management methodologies is an example of
contributing to the project management knowledge base.
96. C. Writing and publishing a book on project management is an example of
contributing to the project management knowledge base. A is incorrect. This is not a
conflict of interest if youre a PMP. Youre helping others learn about project
management. B is incorrect. This is not a breach of the PMI Code of Ethics and
Professional Conduct. D is incorrect. The question does not state that there is
career-related information available.
97. B. Although this may be a small, limited contribution, it is still a reference for others
on project management methods and application. A is incorrect because this is not
an example of ensuring integrity. C is incorrect. This is not an example of applying
professional knowledgethis is sharing professional knowledge. D is also incorrect
because this is not an example of balancing stakeholder interests.
98. D. You are enhancing your own competence through additional education. A is
incorrect because this is not a valid answer in regard to the professional
responsibility. B is incorrect. Project management is already a respectable career
track. C is also incorrect because this is not an example of a conflict of interest.
99. D. You are enhancing your own competence through additional education. A is
incorrect because this is not a valid answer in regard to the professional
responsibility. B is incorrect because project management is already a respectable
career track. C is also incorrect because this is not an example of a conflict of
interest.
100. A. This is not an acceptable answer. There is almost always something you can
do to enhance your skills. B is incorrect. Reading historical information from past
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projects can teach a new project manager many things. C is incorrect because
emulating a successful project manager is an excellent way to achieve your goals. D
is also incorrect because serving as an assistant to an accomplished project
manager provides valuable training.

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