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NTSE

National Talent Search Examination

CONTENTS
YEAR 2013- (STAGE-II) TEST PAPER – 2 – 24

YEAR 2014- (STAGE-II) TEST PAPER – 25 – 58

YEAR 2015- (STAGE-II) TEST PAPER – 59 – 78

YEAR 2016- (STAGE-II) TEST PAPER – 79 – 107

HINTS & SOLUTION

YEAR 2013- (STAGE-II) SOLUTION – 108 –113

YEAR 2014- (STAGE-II) SOLUTION – 114 –119

YEAR 2015- (STAGE-II) SOLUTION – 120 –128
YEAR 2016- (STAGE-II) SOLUTION – 129 –146

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Vibrant Academy (I) Pvt. Ltd. "A-14(A)" Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota (Raj.) Ph. 0744-2423406 [1]
Roll No. 2 3 4 0 6 NTSE 13_MAT

National Talent Search Examination, 2013
(For student Studying in Class-10)

Mental Ability Test

Time : 45 minutes Max. Marks : 50

Instructions to Candidates

1. Mental Ability Test shall be administered in first 45 minutes. Thereafter scholastic Aptitude Test shall be
administered. Answer to Part-I. Mental Ability Test are to be given on the given answer sheet. The Mental
Ability answer sheet will be collected after first 45 minutes. After 5 minute Part-II Scholastic Aptitude
answer sheet & after 20 minutes Question booklet will be supplied to you which will also be collected
after the time is over.

2. Please write your Roll No. as given on your Admission Card very clearly (only one digit in one box) Please
see that no box is left unfilled even zeroes appearing in the Roll No. are correctly transferred to the
appropriate boxes on the booklet and the Answer Sheet.

Example : For N.T.S.E.

2 3 4 0 6 0 4 0 3 2 1 5

3. Mental Ability Test consist of 50 questions. Each question carry one marks.
NTSE STAGE_II MENTAL ABILITY PAPER-2013
1. Here are some words translated from an 7. Ramesh started going for regular morning walks
artificial language for controlling his blood sugar level. He did so
mie pie is blue light for a month and also started taking Yoga
mie tie is blue berry lessons, without going for any pathological
aie tie is rasp berry examination. He underwent pathological test
Which words could possible mean “light fly” ? after two months and found that the blood sugar
(A) pie zie (B) pie mie level has come down. Presuming that he had
(C) aie zie (D) aie mie not changed his food habits during these two
months, which statement among the alternative
2. If in a certain code, STUDENT is written as
given below follows most logically?
RSTEDMS, then how would TEACHER be
(A) Blood sugar level comes down after doing
written in the same code ?
regular morning walk.
(A) SZZDGEQ (B) SZDDGEQ
(B) Blood sugar level comes down after doing
(C) SDZDGDQ (D) SDZCGDQ
Yoga.
3. Which group of letters is different from others ? (C) Blood sugar level comes down on doing
(A) CBAED (B) IJHGK regular morning walk and Yoga.
(C) SRQPT (D) TVWYX (D) Regular morning walk, Yoga or both may
bring down sugar level despite not changing
4. In the following letter sequence, some of the food habits.
letters are missing. These are given in order
as one of the alternatives below. Choose the 8. Find the number in the position of ‘?’
correct alternative.

(A)  (B) 
(C)  (D) 

5. Fill in the missing number

C 2B 3A
2A ? B
 3C  A  2B
(A) 41 (B) 45
(A) – 3C (B) – 2C (C) 50 (D) 52
(C) 3C (D) 2B
9. Identify the number in the position of ‘?’
6. Vimla used to board the train from Metro Station
A for going to her office. Since Station A is a
terminus, she had no problem in getting a seat.
Ever since she shifted to Locality B she finds
it difficult to get a seat, as by the time the train
reaches Locality B it becomes crowded. Find
the statement among the alternatives which (A) 2 (B) 3
must be true as per the given information. (C) 5 (D) 6

10. Find the next number in the sequence
(A) Vimla would prefer to take a bus rather 0, 2, 24, 252, __________
than the metro. (A) 620 (B) 1040
(B) Vimla’s travel to office has become less (C) 3120 (D) 5430
comfortable ever since she has shifted. 11. Find the next number in the sequence
(C) Commuters staying in and around Locality 6, 24, 60, 120, __________
B would demand metro services originating (A) 180 (B) 210
from station near Locality B. (C) 240 (D) 360
(D) Vimla would look for a job close to her
home
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12. Find the letter to be placed in place of ‘?’ in the 17. Which symbol replaces the ‘?’ Figure below
figure given. represent a balance.

(A) M (B) N (A) (B)
(C) Q (D) R (C) (D)

13. In this multiplication question the five letters 18. On the basis of the four positions of a dice
represent five different digits. What are the
given below find the colour of the face opposite
actual figures ? There is no zero.
‘Yellow’.

(A) M = 3, E = 9, A = 7, T = 4, S = 8
(B) M = 3, E = 9, A = 7, T = 8, S = 4
(C) M = 4, E = 3, A = 9, T = 7, S = 8
(D) M = 4, E = 9, A = 3, T = 7, S = 8 (A) Indigo (B) Red
14. Identify which among the pieces given below (C) Pink (D) Blue
will not be required to complete the triangular
pattern shown below. 19. If the given figure is folded to form a box, which
among the boxes below will be formed ?

(A) q (B) r
(C) s (D) t

15. Find the missing number in the series
2, 10, 26, ______ , 242
(A) 80 (B) 81
(C) 82 (D) 84

16. A pattern is given below. You have to identify 20. Two positions of a dice are shown. Which
which among the following pieces will not be
number will appear on the face opposite the
required to complete the pattern.
one having 5 ?

(A) 1 (B) 2
(A) q (B) r (C) 4 (D) 6
(C) s (D) t

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21. In the figure, the circle represents youth, the 27. Mother was asked how many gifts she had in
triangle represents footballers and the rectangle the bag. She replied that there were all dolls
represents athletes. W hich letter(s) but six, all cars but six, and all books but six.
represent(s) athletes among youths who are How many gifts had she in all ?
not footballers ? (A) 9 (B) 18
(C) 27 (D) 36
28. Question given below has a problem and two
statements I & II. Decide if the information
given in the statement is sufficient for answering
the problem.
K, R, S and T are four players in Indian Cricket
team. Who is the oldest among them ?
I : The total age of K & T together is more than
that of S
(A) g (B) g and c II : The total age of R & K together is less than
(C) f (D) f and d that of S
(A) Data in statement I alone is sufficient
22. Find the odd one out
(B) Data in statement II alone is sufficient
(C) Data in both statement together is sufficient
(D) Data in both statement together is not
sufficient
29. Which of the following diagram/sets indicate
the relation between women, mothers and
(A) A (B) B parents?
(C) C (D) D
23. Identify the number corresponding to the ‘?’
(A) (B)

(C) (D)
(A) 3 (B) 5
(C) 7 (D) 8
24. Which of the given alternative is the mirror 30. In a dairy, there are 60 cows and buffalos.
image of REASON, if the mirror is placed below The number of cows is twice that of buffalos.
the word ? Buffalo X ranked seventeenth in terms of milk
(A) (B) delivered. If there are 9 cows ahead of Buffalo
(C) (D) X, how many buffalos are after in rank in terms
of milk delivered?
25. A sprinter goes off the starting block for 100m (A) 10 (B) 11
run and at that instant the second-hand of a (C) 12 (D) 13
stopwatch had pointed towards North. He
touches the finishing line exactly after 12 31. What is the mirror image of b3k4s I ?
seconds. In which direction did the second
hand point when he just crossed the finishing b3k4s ?
line ?
(A) 18º North of East (B) 18º East of North (A) (B)
(C) 72º North of East (D) 82º East of North (C) (D)

26. Two candles are of different lengths and 32-36 Question 32 to 36 are based on the following
thicknesses. The short and the long ones can information:
burn respectively for 3.5 hour and 5 hour. After , , , ,  ,,  ,  are sitting on a merry-
burning for 2 hour, the lengths of the candles go-round facing at the centre.  is second to
become equal in length. What fraction of the the left on  who is third to the left of .is
long candle’s height was the short candle fourth to the right of  who is immediate
initially ?
neighbour of  .  is not a neighbour of or 
2 5 . is not a neighbour of .
(A) (B)
7 7
32. Who is third to the left of 
3 4 (A)  (B) 
(C) (D)
5 5 (C)  (D) 
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33. In which of the following pairs is the first person 41. Statement : All Clocks are Alarms. No Clocks
sitting to the immediate right of the second are Cuckoos. All Cuckoos are Alarms. Some
person ? Cuckoos are Birds .
(A) ,  (B) ,  Conclusion :
(C)  ,  (D)  ,  I. Some Alarms are Birds.
II. No Clock is a Bird
34. What is ‘s position with respect to  ? III. All Birds are Alarms
(A) Third towards right (A) Only conclusion I follows.
(B) Third towards left (B) Only conclusion II follows.
(C) Second towards right (C) Only conclusion III follows.
(D) Second towards left (D) Both conclusion II and III follows.

35. Who is sitting between  and ? 42. Two players X and O play a game of “doughts
and crosses” on a 3 × 3 grid. The purpose of
(A) Both  and  (B) Both  and 
the game is for a player to get 3 symbols
(C) Only  (D) Only 
belonging to the player in a straight line
(vertically, horizontally or diagonally). Each
36. How many of them are sitting between  and  player marks one symbol on his or her turn.
? After two moves (1 turn each), the grid looks
(A) 0 or 6 (B) 1 or 5 as follows with X to play next.
(C) 2 or 4 (D) 3 Where should X put his symbol next so that
he will always win this game finally regard
37. In a school 120 boys have registered for a less of how well O plays ?
singles carrom tournament. Each match
eliminates one player. How many matches are o
to be organized to determine the champion?
(A) 60 (B) 61
(C) 119 (D) 120 x

38. Amongst five friends, Lata, Alka, Rani, Asha (A) Bottom row right corner
and Sadhana. Lata is older than only three of (B) Bottom row middle cell
her friends. Alka is younger to Asha and Lata. (C) Middle row left most cell
Rani is older than only Sadhana. Who amongst (D) It is not possible to always ensure X wins
them is the eldest? if O plays carefully
(A) Asha (B) Lata
43. An electrical circuit for a set of 4 lights
(C) Alka (D) Sadhana
depends on a system of switches A, B, C and
D. When these switches work they have the
39. Twenty four teams are divided into 4 group of following effect on the lights: They each
six teams each. Within each group the teams change the state of two lights (i.e. on becomes
play each other exactly once. The winners of off and off becomes on). The lights that each
each group then play in the semifinals. switch controls are as follows.
Winners of the semifinals play in the finals
and losers for the 3rd place. How many matches A B C D
are played? 1 and 2 2 and 4 1 and 3 3 and 4
(A) 60 (B) 63
(C) 64 (D) 66 = ON

40-41. Take the given statement(s) as true and decide = OFF
which of the conclusion logically follows from In configuration 1 shown below, switches
the statements. CBDA are activated in turn, resulting in
40. Statement: All Actors are Musicians. No configuration 2. One switch did not work and
Musician is a Singer. Some Singers are had no effect at all. Which was that switch?
Dancerss. Some Dancers are Musicians.
Conclusions :
I. Some Actors are Singers
II. Some Dancers are Actors
III : No Actor is a Singer
(A) Only conclusion 1 follows.
(B) Only conclusion III follows.
configuration1 configuration 2
(C) Exactly one of conclusion I, III follows.
(D) Only conclusion II follows. (A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D

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48. I left home at 3:00pm and returned at 3:48pm.
The clock wa rotated by 45°, so that when I
left, the hour-hand of a clock was pointing
along the southeast direction. In which
direction would the hour-hand point when I
44. returned?
(A) 15° East of South
(B) 21º East of South
(C) 63° South of East
(D) 27° South of East
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

49.

When the above is folded into a cube, which
45. is the only cube that can be produced amongst
the following?

(A) (B)

(A) (B)

(C) (D)
(C) (D)

46. A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is 50. What will be water image of CHICK?
sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D, D is not (A) CHIC (B) C
sitting next to E, who is sitting on the left end (C) K (D)
of the bench. C is on the second position from
the right. A is to the right of B and E. Counting
from the left in which position is A sitting?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) Cannot be determined from the given
conditions .

47. I left home for bringing milk between 7am and
8am. The angle between the hour-hand and
the minute-hand was 90° I returned home
between 7 am and 8 am. Then also the angle
between the minute-hand and hour-hand was
90°. At what time (nearest to second) did I
leave and return home?
(A) 7h 18m 35s & 7h 51 m 24s
(B) 7h 19m 24s & 7h 52m 14s
(C) 7h 20m 42s & 7h 53m 11s
(D) 7h 21 m 49s & 7h 54m 33s

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Roll No. 2 3 4 0 6 NTSE 13_LCT

National Talent Search Examination, 2013
(For student Studying in Class-10)

Language Comprehensive Test

Time : 45 minutes Max. Marks : 50

Instructions to Candidates

1. Language comprehensive Test shall be administered in first 45 minutes. Thereafter scholastic Aptitude
Test shall be administered. Answer to Part-I. Language comprehensive Test are to be given on the given
answer sheet. The Language comprehensive answer sheet will be collected after first 45 minutes. After 5
minute Part-II Scholastic Aptitude answer sheet & after 20 minutes Question booklet will be supplied to
you which will also be collected after the time is over.

2. Please write your Roll No. as given on your Admission Card very clearly (only one digit in one box) Please
see that no box is left unfilled even zeroes appearing in the Roll No. are correctly transferred to the
appropriate boxes on the booklet and the Answer Sheet.

Example : For N.T.S.E.

2 3 4 0 6 0 4 0 3 2 1 5

3. Language Comprehensive Test consist of 50 questions. Each question carry one marks.
NTSE STAGE_II (LCT) PAPER-2013

Direction (1to 5) : Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.
Jyoti lived with her mother in a small village. From a young age she had witnessed her mother, a widow,
being ill treated by the villagers. But when she was in high school she began to understand things. She
couldn’t take the insults to her mother any more. She decided to change the way widows were viewed in
village society. Jyoti started a “Widow Empowerment Campaign”. She spoke to village elders and knocked
on two hundred doors to spread her message. She learnt to organize street plays which she used to
make people aware about the plight of widows.
Naturally her ideas were not acceptable to the society entrenched in tradition. People pushed her out of
their houses and refused to listen to what she had to say. But she went on relentlessly without faltering.
Today, widows are allowed to go out of their homes like others. Many, including her mother are now
employed at organisations and literacy centres.

1. The story of Jyoti is an illustration of
(A) rigidity of traditional families
(B) organisation of street plays
(C) the spread of employment opportunities for widows
(D) crusade of a young girl for social change

2. A major factor in Jyoti’s success seems to be
(A) social and economic development programmes
(B) sympathy and encouragement from her mother
(C) her own courage and determination
(D) support from her friends

3. “She knocked on two hundred doors” indicates that Jyoti
(A) went knocking at the doors one after the other
(B) visited people at their houses individually
(C) approached a large number of people
(D) spoke to every family in the village

4. The words ‘entrenched in tradition’ imply that villagers
(A) deeply believed in traditions (B) were oposed to traditions
(C) had begun to shed traditions (D) had begun to follow traditions

5. Jyoti’s relentless campaign
(A) created an unrest (B) created a dent in society
(C) lift people untouched (D) created a revolution

Direction (6 to 10) : Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.

Designing toys for children is challenging yet stimulating. Considering the low attention span of today’s
kids, toys with higher play value are able to engage them longer. Young minds are also quite impression-
able. So toy design has to be conscious about ethics and values and also aid their cognitive, physical,
emotional and social skills. But above all, fun is the primary objective of play. Fun is what makes them
come back for more; makes them learn and remember. Another crucial factor is eco-friendliness. Some
of the best pro-environment design processes can actuallly be found in the Indian handicrafts industy.
One such example is the lathe-turned toy craft of Channapatna - a town near Bangaluru. The age old
craft uses wood and colours made completely from natural materials like turmeric, kumkum, indigo, etc.
Creating modern designs based on such conventional techniques opens up a new range of products that
are unique, educational and organic.

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6. Toys are said to have a high play value when
(A) they present challenges to designers and to children who play with them.
(B) they are costly but also have high quality.
(C) they are able to keep children’s attention for long periods
(D) they are used by a large number of children
7. The reference to the ‘impressionable nature’ of young children is to suggest that
(A) they are attracted to toys that are well designed and brightly coloured
(B) their attitudes, values and ethics can easily be infuenced by others
(C) they like toys that help them learn and remember while having fun.
(D) they like toys which are small in size

8. Toys that are considered eco-friendly are those that
(A) promote interest in preserving the naturla environmnet
(B) use natural materials
(C) help the development of social skills
(D) use high quality fibre

9. Which of the following is true for the toy craft of Channapatna?
(A) It is famous for their beautiful shapes and bright colours
(B) It is made by artificial materials
(C) It is based on modern design principles and efficient machines
(D) It is an old and traditional practice

10. ‘Fun is what makes them come back for more ; makes them learn and remember.’ means
(A) Children learn through fun and play (B) Children play more and more for fun
(C) Children remember things while playing (D) Children learn only through play.

Direction (11 to 15) : Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

Years ago, people woke up to find sparrows chirping in their backyard. A noisy lot, they took grains right
from your hand if you had befriended them. They got over their fear easily and demanded food or water
with their loud chirping if you had forgotten to give them their regular share of food. Tiny pink beaks
opened to morsels of food or worms sometimes regurgitated by the parent birds. We had a splendid time
watching the bird family bond and as children sat gazing at them as they picked up grain or splashed
about us in muddy water.
Many people have written poems and lyrics on sparrows, their noisy chirps, their friendly nature, and their
spotty feathers. Sparrows were a menace on the fields. There were guards with slings and stones to
chase them away as they ate grain from standing crops. Now people are trying to woo them back to
nature.

11. The author calls sparrow a friendly bird because
(A) they chirp in the backyard (B) they demand food
(C) they eat from our hand. (D) they are with humans always

12. Which of the following statements shows that watching sparrow was fun for the author?
(A) Tiny beaks opened to morsels of food or worms sometimes regurgitated by the parent birds.
(B) Children sat gazing at them as they picked up grain or splashed about us in muddy water
(C) They demanded food or water with their loud chirping
(D) They live near our houses

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13. The farmers consider sparrows a nuisance because
(A) they are loud and noisy (B) they chirp loudly
(C) they splash around in muddy water (D) they eat up the grains from the fields.
14. ‘Regurgitated by the parent birds’ means
(A) chewed and fed (B) digested and brought back
(C) chewed and spat out (D) swallowed and brought back
15. Sparrows have been a topic of interest for many........
(A) poets (B) scientists (C) farmers (D) children
Direction (16 to 17) : The following five sentences come from a paragraph. The first and the last
sentences are given. Choose the order in which the three sentences (PQR) should appear to
complete the paragraph.
16. S1 One major problem that the world faces today is the rapid growth of population.

S2 ________________________________________________________________

S3 ________________________________________________________________

S4 ________________________________________________________________

S5 This will cause serious problems of hunger and overcrowding !
P _ This is often referred to as population explosion.
Q _ It is not so muct the actual population, but its increase that is alarming.
R _ Experts predict that by 2020 there will be about 10 billion people in the world.

Choose from the options given below :
(A) QPR (B) PRQ (C) PQR (D) QRP
17. S1 Supposing you have to make a payment of Rs. 100, you could do so in coins.

S2 _______________________________________________________________

S3 _______________________________________________________________

S4 _______________________________________________________________

S5 This paper money saves you a lot of trouble and also saves precious metal.
P-The person to whom the payment is being made would also find it very tedious.
Q-So the government gives you the alternative of paper money.
R-But so many coins would be very cumbersome to carry around.

Choose from the options given below :
(A) QPR (B) PRQ (C) RQP (D) PQR
Direction (18 to 19) : Following questions have the second sentence missing. Choose the appropriate
sentence from the given option to complete it.
18. A . My sister and I have never seen a house on fire before.

B. ________________________________________________________________

C. We rushed out and saw fire blazing in the distance.

(A) We joined a large crowd of people who had gathered at the end of the street.
(B) One evening when we heard fire engines rushing past my house.
(C) What a terrible scene we saw that day.
(D) We went out with everyone

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19. A. By climbing summit of Mount Everest you are overwhelmed by a deep sense of joy and thankfulness.

B. ________________________________________________________________

C. The experience changes you completely and you are never the same again.

(A) It is a joy that lasts a lifetime (B) Yet,it is a fleeting moment
(C) You feel humiliated (D) It is a justification

Direction (20 to 29) : Choose the word which best fills the blank from the four options given.

20. It is a good practice to __________ the document once again before sending it for publiction
(A) scan (B) peer (C) look up (D) see

21. When the teacher asked Ravi a question, he gave her a blank________________.
(A) gaze (B) glare (C) stare (D) peek

22. She had her ______________ fixed on the horizon.
(A) glance (B) sight (C) gaze (D) look
23. If you _______________ something amiss, please contact the authorities
(A) notice (B) view (C) sight (D) glimpse

24. I caught a _________ of him in the crowd for a fleeting moment before he disappeared.
(A) glare (B) glance (C) glimpse (D) look

25. After the shipwreck, they were ______________ on the island for three days.
(A) sleeping (B) marooned (C) guided (D) found

26. The landlord _____________ the tenet for not paying rent.
(A) evicted (B) posted (C) forced (D) shooed

27. The village in the wake of tsunami , was a terrifying_________ of devastation.
(A) scenery (B) scene (C) landscape (D) moment

28. The workers angrily voiced their _________________ to the management.
(A) preservation (B) resentment (C) irritation (D) resistant

29. A fair-minded person is required to ____________ the dispute between the two brothers.
(A) mediate (B) interrupt (C) intercept (D) moderate
Direction (30 to 35) : Select the meaning of the given phrases/idioms.

30. Pulled up
(A) helped (B) advised (C) told (D) scolded

31. Keep up
(A) maintain (B) leave behind (C) confirm (D) accept

32. Carry on
(A) start (B) execute (C) finish (D) continue

33. Hand in glove
(A) in collusion (B) holding opposite views
(C) warm and secure (D) with friends
34. Be in someone’ shoes
(A) wear shoes that do not belong to self
(B) be like them
(C) to pretend to be somebody else
(D) imagining oneself to be in another person’s situation

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35. Pull someone’s leg
(A) to tease somebody (B) to throw somebody out
(C) to trip a person purposely (D) to stretch someone’s leg
Direction (36 to 43) : In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by
selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given options.

At markets or at country fairs in the old days, the customer had to be on guard against a dishonest trader.
A house wife, for example, wanting (36) _________ buy a live piglet might be (37) _________ a discount
if she bought (38) _________packed one, tied up in a small sack (39)_________ a poke . Anyone who
agreed to (40) ___________ a pig in a poke was naturally (41) ________ a risk . The pig might be ill
(42)____________ even dead. Or it might turn(43) _____________ to be not a piglet at all.
36. (A) for (B) from (C) into (D) to
37. (A) served (B) offered (C) preferred (D) liked
38. (A) the (B) an (C) a (D) some
39. (A) said (B) known (C) called (D) thought
40. (A) buy (B) sell (C) give (D) eat

41. (A) taking (B) making (C) getting (D) sitting
42. (A) but (B) taking (C) or (D) to
43. (A) on (B) out (C) in (D) into
Direction (44 to 47) : Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks from the given
alternatives .
44. The teacher spoke ____________ to the students who were naughty.
(A) kind (B) kindness (C) kindly (D) kindliness
45. The builder _____________ her problem by not constructing a boundary wall around her house.
(A) compound (B) compounded (C) comprehend (D) compounding
46. ___________ he has started arriving on time for all the functions.
(A) Lately (B) Late (C) Later (D) Latter
47. After a week’s rain, the ______________ was at its highest.
(A) humid (B) humidness (C) humidity (D) humidify

Direction (48 to 50) : Select the word which means the opposite of the given word.
48. Scared
(A) nervous (B) brave (C) cautious (D) timid
49. Conquer
(A) descent (B) victory (C) perish (D) surrender
50. Criticize
(A) fault (B) create (C) defend (D) acclaim

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Roll No. 2 3 4 0 6 NTSE 13_SAT

National Talent Search Examination, 2013
(For student Studying in Class-10)

Scholastic Aptitude Test

Time : 90 minutes Max. Marks : 100

Instructions to Candidates

Read These instructions very carefully before attempting questions

1. Please write your Roll No. as given on your Admission Card very clearly (only one digit in one box) Please
see that no box is left unfilled even zeroes appearing in the Roll No. are correctly transferred to the
appropriate boxes on the booklet and the Answer Sheet.

Example : For N.T.S.E.

2 3 4 0 6 0 4 0 3 2 1 5

2. There are 100 questions in this paper Each question is to be answered.
NTSE STAGE_II (SAT) PAPER-2013

1. An animal cell, a plant cell and a bacterium 7. Photosynthesis in an aquatic plant was
share the following structural features : measured by counting the number of O2 bubbles
(A) Cell membrane, endoplasmic reticulum, coming out of the cut end of the plant . What
vacuoles wiill happen to O2 production if you use a pipe
(B) Cell wall, plasma membrane, mitochondria to blow air from your mouth into water in the
(C) Cell wall, nucleus, cytoplasm beaker ?
(D) Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, ribosomes

2. Given below are figures of three kinds of muscle
fibres.

Nucleus

Nudens

(A) (B) (C)
(A) Air from mouth contains O2 which is being
Which one/ones would you find in the grass added to the plant. Hence increase in O 2
hopper’s legs? production
(A) A only (B) B only (B) Air from mouth contains CO 2 which is
(C) A and C (D) B and C utilized in photosynthesis. Hence increase in
O2 production.
3. A Plant that has well differentiated body, special
(C) Bacteria from mouth will infect plant. Hence
tissues for transport of water and other substances,
reduction in O2 production.
but does not have seed or fruits is a (n) :
(D) Water is already in Contact with air. Hence
(A) Bryophyte (B) Angiosperm
air from mouth will have no effect.
(C) Gymnosperm (D) Pteridophyte
8. A person with blood group 'A' can donate blood
4. Raju was suffering from severe stomach pain to the persons with blood group 'A' or 'AB'
and the doctor diagnosed that he was suffering because it
from peptic ulcers and treated him with (A) has both 'A' and 'B' antigens.
antibiotics. He was relieved of pain. What could (B) has only 'A' antigen and 'B' antibodies.
be the reason for peptic ulcers? (C) has only 'B' antigen and 'A' antibodies
(A) Reduced secretion of hormones. (D) does not have any antigens and antibodies
(B) Reduced water content
(C) Growth of Helicobacter pylori 9. What would happen to the person if cerebellum
(D) Excess secretion of enzyme of his brain is damaged?
(A) He will lose his memory power.
5. The average temperature of the Earth remains (B) He will not be able to swallow food properly.
fairly steady as compared to that of the moon (C) He will be unable to coordinate and stand
because of the properly.
(A) atmosphere (B) lithosphere (D)He will lose his powers of vision and hearing.
(C) biosphere (D) hydrosphere 10. Which of the following statements are correct?
A.. Tapeworms are hermaphrodites and undergo
6. In flowers which one of the following conditions
self-fertilization.
will increase chances of self-pollination ?
B. Earthworms are hermaphrodites and
(A) Pistil is longer than stamens in a flower
undergo self-fertilization.
(B) Stamens are just above the stigma of pistil
C. Tapeworms are hermaphrodites but undergo
in a flower
cross-ferti I ization.
(C) In all flowers of the plant only pistil is present
D. Earthworms are hermaphrodites but undergo
(D) In all flowers of the plant only stamens are
cross-fertilization
present.
(A) A and B (B) B and C
(C) C and D (D) D and A

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11-12 A group of red beetles lives on green leaves of 16. There is a mixture of three solid compounds A,
a tree. Beetles multiply through sexual Band C. Out of'these compounds A and C are
reproduction. One day, some green beetles are soluble in water and compound C is sublimable
seen among the red beetles. Green beetles also. In what sequence the following techniques
breed to produce green progeny. Crows on the can be used for their effcctive separation?
tree eat beetles. I. Filtration
II. Sublimation
11. Some green beetles appear among the red Ill. Cryrtallisation from water extract
beetle because IV. Dissolution in water
(A) beetles become green by accumulating (A) (II), (I), (IV), (Ill)
chlorophyll from the green leaves that they eat. (B) (IV), (I), (II), (III)
(B) natural variations occur during sexual (C) (I), (II), (m), (IV)
reproduction. (D) (II), (IV). (I), (III)
(C) red beetles mimic green colour of leaves
17. Which of the following is a suitable example
whenever they see crows.
for illustrating the law of conservation of mass?
(D) beetles change colour from red to green with
(Atomic mass of O = 16; H = l )
change of season.
(A) 18g of water is formed by the combination
12. The colour compasItIon of beetle population is of 16g oxygen with 2g of hydrogen. .
(B) 18g of water in liquid state is obtained by
likely to change in the following manner:
heating 18g of ice.
(A) Both red and green beetle survive equally.
(C) 18g of water is completely converted into
(B) Only the red beetle survives.
vapour state on heating.
(C) More red beetles survive than the green.
(D) 18g of water freezes at 4°C to give same
(D) More green beetles survive than the red.
mass of ice.
13. In the following food chain who gets less energy 18. An element X has 7 electrons in its L shell.
than the tertiary consumer and more than the What is true about the elemt:nt X?
primary consumer? I. It belongs to period 9 of modern periodic
table.
Grass  Grasshopper  Frog  Snake 
II. Its atom contains 9 protons.
Eagle
III. It has a valency of 7.
(A) Grasshopper (B) Frog IV. Its atoms can accept an electron to acquire
(C) Snake (D) Eagle noble gas configuration.
(A) (I) and (II) (B) (II) and (Ill)
14. If a non-degradable and fat soluble pollutant,
(C) (Ill) and (IV) (D) (II) and (IV)
such as DDT enters the food chain, the pollutant
(A) magnifies in concentration at each trophic level.
19. The reaction between carbon and oxygen can
(B) degrades at first trophic level.
be represented as
(C) accumulates in the body fat of organism at C(S) + O2(g)   CO2(g) + heat
first trophic level and does not pass to second In which of the following type(s), the above
trophic level. reaction can be classified?
(D) decreases in concentration at each trophic I. Combustion reaction
level. II. Displacement reaction
III. Endothermic reation
IV. Combination reaction
15. A drop each of two non-corrosive and non-irritating (A) (I) and (III) (B) (I) , (III) and (IV)
liquids A and B at a temperature of 22ºC are (C) (I) and (IV) (D) (I) only
placed on the skin. Liquid A gives a more cooling
sensation than liquid B.Which of the following 20. A metal carbonate X on treatment with a mineral
can be said about the liquids A and B? acid liberates a gas which when passed through
(A) Liquid A has higher boiling point than that of aqueous solution of a substance Y gives back
liquid B. X. The substance Y on reaction with the gas
obtained at anode during electrolysis of brine
(B) Liquid A has higher latent heat of vaporisation
gives a compound Z which can decolorise
than that of liquid B. coloured fabrics. The compounds X,Y and Z
(C) Liquid A has lower latent heat of vaporisation respectively are
than that of liquid B. (A) CaCO3, Ca(OH)2, CaOCI2
(D) The boiling points of liquid A and B are (B) Ca(OH)2, CaO, CaOCI2
equal. (C) CaCO3, CaOCl2, Ca(OH)2
(D) Ca(OH)2, CaCO3, CaOCI2

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21. A salt can be produced by reaction between 26. An element X combines with hydrogen to form
A. a weak acid and weak base. a compound XH3. The element X is placed on
the right side of the periodic table. What is
B. metal oxide and water.
true about the element X ?
C. metal and a mineral acid. A. Has 3 valence electrons.
D. metal oxide and a mineral acid. B. Is a metal and is solid.
(A) A, Band C (B) B,C and D C. Is a non-metal and is a gas.
(C) C,D and A (D) 0, A and B D. Has 5 valence electrons.
E. XH3 reacts with water to form a basic
22. Which of the following is true about the two compound.
(A) A, B and C (B) B, C and D
statements?
(C) C, D and E (D) E, A and B
Statement I : Reactivity of aluminium decreases
when it is dipped in nitric acid 27. An element X (atomic number 12) reacts with
Statement II : A protective layer of aluminium another element Y (atomic number 17) to form
nitrate is formed when aluminium is dipped in a compound Z. W hich of the followi ng
nitric acid. statements are true regarding this compound
?
(A) I is correct but II is incorrect
I. Molecular formula of Z is XY2
(B) I is incorrect but II is correct II. It is soluble in water
(C) Both the statements are correct and II is III. X and Y are joined by sharing of electrons
also the correct explanation of I IV. It would conduct electricity in the molten
(D) Both the statements arc correct but II is state
not correct explanation of I (A) (II) and (III) (B) (I) and (III)
(C) (I),(III) and (IV) (D) (I) and (IV)
23. A silvery white metal X reacts with water at 28. A ship sends a sonar wave to the sea bed
room temperature to produce a water soluble which is flat and measured several times over
compound Y and a colourless gas Z. The a large area. One day the reflected shound
reaction is highly exothermic and the Z catches wave takes longer time than in previous
fire immediately during the reaction. The measurements. The possible reason is :
(A) The f requency of the sonar wav e,
solution of Y in water on reacting wi th
generated by the equipment is lower than
stoichiometric amount of dilute solution of previous measurements.
hydrochloric acid gives a solution of pH = 7.0. (B) There is a solid object of large size in the
The compounds X, Y and Z respectively are : path of sonar wave.
(A) AI, AI(OH)3 and H2 (C) there is a huge air bubble in the path of
(B) Ag, AgOH and H2 sonar wave.
(D) the loudness of the sonar wave, generated
(C) K, KCI and H2 by the equipment is lower than previous
(D) Na, NaOH and H2 measurement.
24. A compound X is obtained by the reaction of 29. Which of the following ray diagram is correct?
alkaline KMnO4 with "mother compound Y
followed by acidification. Compound X also
reacts with compound Y in presence of few
drops of H2SO 4 to form a sweet smelling (A)
compound Z. The compound X, Y and Z are,
respectively
(A) Ethanol, Ethene, Ethanoic Acid
(B) Ethanoic Acid, Ethanol, Ethylethanoate
(C) Ethanoic Acid, Ethanal, Ethene (B)
(D) Ethanol, Ethanoic Acid, Sodium Ethanoate

25. Which of the following pairs of compounds of
carbon will undergo combustion as well as
(C)
addition reaction ?
(A) CH4 and C2H6.
(B) C2H6O and C3H8O
(C) C2H4O2 and C3H6O
(D) C2H2 and C3H6
(D)

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30. A concave lens always gives a virtual image. 34. A uranium nucleus at rest decays into a
In optical lenses worn by humans which of thorium nucleus and a helium nucleus, as
the following statements is true? shown below. Which of the following is true?
(A) The lens can never be concave.
92 U  90 Th  2He
235 231 4
(B) In some cases the lens can be concave if
the focal length is much larger than 2.5 cm. (A) Each decay product has the same kinetic
(C) All focal length concave lenses are energy.
possible. (B) The decay products tend to go in the same
(D) All focal length convex lenses are possible. direction.
(C) The thorium nucleus has more momentum
31. A geo-stationary satellite is orbiting around than the helium nucleus.
earth at height of 30,000 km in circular orbit. (D) The helium nucleus has more kinetic
The radius of the earth is taken as 6000 km. energy than the thorium nucleus.
The geo-stationary satellite comes back to its
position after one revolution in exactly 35. The figure below shows the position of a ball
24 hours. Let the acceleration due to gravity at t = 0, t = 1 s, t = 2 s, t = 3 s and t = 4 s
(g) be 10 m/s2 and mass of satellite be 1000
kg; calculate the work done in 12 hours when
moving under gravitational force.
(A) 3.6 × 1014 J
(B) 2 × 7.2 1014 J
(C) 1.8 x 1014 J
(D) 0 J
Position of ball at five successive times
32. Consider a simple circuit containing a battery
and three identical incandescent bulbs A, B Which of the graph below is a possible graph
and C. Bulb A is wired in parallel with bulb B of the position x(t)?
and this combination is wired in series with
bulb C. What would happen to the brightness
of the other two bulbs if bulb A were to burn
out?
(A) Only bulb B would get brighter.
(B) Both A and B would get brighter. (A)
(C) Bulb B would get brighter and bulb C would
get dimmer.
(D) There would be no change in the
brightness of either bulb B or bulb C.

33. Three different circuits (I, II and III) are
constructed using identical batteries and
resistors of R and 2R ohm. What can be said
(B)
about current I in arm AB of each circuit?

(C)

(D)

(A) III< II < IIII (B) II < III < IIII
(C) II = III = IIII (D) II > III = IIII
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36. The graph shows position as a function of 39. Three rings P. Q and R are dropped at the
time for two trains A and B running on parallel same time over identical hollow magnets as
tracks. For times greater than t = 0, which of shown below :

the following statement is true?

Which of the following describes the order in
(A) At time tB both trains have the same velocity. which the ring P, Q and R reach the bottom of
the magnet?
(B) Both trains speed up all the time.
(A) They arrive in the order P, Q, R.
(C) Both trains may have the same velocity at
(B) They arrive in the order P, R, Q.
some time earlier than tB. (C) Rings P and R arrive simultaneously,
(D) Graph indicates that both trains have the followed by Q.
same acceleration at a given time. (D) Rings Q and R arrive simultaneously,
followed by P.
37. The figure shown below depicts the distance
travelled by a body as a function of time. 40. An electron moving with uniform velocity in x
direction enters a region of uniforn magnetic
field along y direction. Which of the following
physical quantity(ies) is(are) non-zero and
remain constant?

The average speed and maximum speed
between 0 and 20 s are
(A) 1 m/s, 2.0 m/s respectively.
I. Velocity of the electron.
(B) 1 m/s, 1.6 m/s respectively.
II. Magnitude of the momentum of the electron.
(C) 2.0 m/s, 2.6 m/s respectively. III. Force on the electron.
(D) 1.3 m/s, 2.0 m/s respectively. IV. The kinetic energy of electron.
(A) Only I and II. (B) Only III and IV.
38. A hypothetical planet has density p, radius R,
(C) All four. (D) Only II and IV.
and surface gravitational acceleration g. If the
radius of the planet were doubled. but the 41. An open box is made from a square lamina of
planetary density stayed the same, the side 12cm, by cutting equal squares at the
acceleration due to gravity at the planet's corners and folding up the remaining flaps.
The volume of this box cannot be
surface would be :
(A) 115 c.c. (B) 120 c.c.
(A) 4g (B) 2g
(C) 125 c.c. (D) 130 c.c.
(C) g (D) g/2
Vibrant Academy (I) Pvt. Ltd. "A-14(A)" Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota (Raj.) Ph. 0744-2423406 [18]
42. A has a pair of triangles with corresponding 49. An open box A is made from a square piece of
sides proportional, and B has a pair of tin by cutting equal squares S at the comers
pentagons with corresponding sides and folding up the remaining flaps. Another
proportional. open box B is made similarly using one of the
S 1 = A's triangles must be similar squares S. If U and V are the volumes of A
S2 = D's pentagons must be similar and B respectively, then which of the following
Which of the following statement is correct? is not possible?
(A) S1 is true, but S2 is not true. (A) U > V
(B) S2 is true, but S1 is not true. (B) V > U
(C) Both S1 and S2 are true. (C) U = V
(D) Neither S1 nor S2 is true. (D) minimum value of U > maximum value of V.

43. ABC is an equilateral triangle of side 2 3 50. Which of the following statements holds
cms. P is any point in the interior of  ABC. If always?
x, y, z are the distances of P from the sides of (A) Every rectangle is a square.
the triangle, then x + y + z = (B) Every parallelogram is a trapezium
(C) Every rhombus is a square
(A) 2 + 3 cms. (B) 5 cms.
(D) Every parallelogram is a rectangle
(C) 3 cms. (D) 4 cms.
51. Which of the following polygons are uniquely
44. Which of the following numbers is the fourth determined when all the sides are given?
power of a natural number? (A) Quadrilateral (B) Triangle
(A) 6765201 (B) 6765206 (C) Pentagon (D) Hexagon
(C) 6765207 (D) 6765209
45. The square of an odd integer must be of the 52. There are several human beings and several
form dogs in a room. One tenth of the humans have
(A) 6n + 1 lost a leg. The total numbers of feet are 77.
(B) 6n + 3 Then the number of dogs is
(C) 8n + 1 (A) not determinable due to insufficient data
(D) 4n + 1 but may not be 8n + 1 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

46. ABCD is a square with side a. With centers A, 53. All the arcs in the following diagram are semi-
B, C and D four circles are drawn such that circles. This diagram shows two paths
each circle touches externally two of the connecting A to B. Path I is the single large
remaining three circles. Let  be the area of semi-circle and Path II consists of the chain
the region In the interior of the square and of small semiicircles.
exterior of the circles. Then the maximum value
of  is

4
(A) a2( 1 – ) (B) a2  4 
 

 2
(C) a2( – 1) (D)
4

47. The value of tan1º tan2º tan3º......... tan89º is (A) Path I is longer than path II
(A) 0 (B) 1 (B) Path I is of the same length as Path II
(C) Path I is shorter than Patn II
1 (D) Path I is of the same length as Path II,
(C) 2 (D)
2 only if the number of semi circles is not more
48. ax2 + bx + c = 0, where a, b, c are real, has than 4
real roots if
54. One integer is chosen out of 1, 2, 3, ...,100.
(A) a, b, c are integers.
What is the probability that it is neither divisible
(B) b2 > 3ac.
by 4 nor by 6
(C) ac > 0 and b is zero.
(A) 0.59 (B) 0.67
(D) c = 0.

(C) 0.41 (D) 0.33

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62. Choose the correct response from the given
55. (a  b ) 2  (b  a)2 is options.
(A) Always zero On 3rd March 1933 the famous Enabling Act
(B) Never zero was passed to:
(C) Positive ifand only if a > b a. establish dictatorship in Germany.
(D) Positive only if a  b b. give Hitler the power to rule by decree.
c. ban all trade unions.
56. A solid metal sphere of surface area S1 is melted d. ban all political parties and their affiliates.
and recast into a number of smaller spheres. (A) only a and b are correct
S2 is the sum of the surface areas of all the (B) only c and d are correct
smaller spheres. Then (C) a, band c are correct
(A) S1 > S2 (D) only d is correct
(B) S2 > S1
63. Enclosures in England were seen as :
(C) S1 = S2 (A) hindrance to agricultural expansion and crop
(D) S1 = S2 only if all the smaller spheres of rotation.
equal radii (B) hindrance to commercialization of
agriculture.
57. Which of the following is an irrational number? (C) necessary to make long-term investment
(A) 41616 on land, agriculture and to plan crop rotation to
improve the . soil.
(B) 23.232323 ...
(D) necessary to protect the intets of those who
(1  3 )3  (1  3 )3 depended on the commons for their survival.
(C)
3
64. The Balkans, which was a serious source of
(D) 23.10100100010000 ...
nationalist tension in Europe after 1871, was a
58. Re.1 and Rs.5 coins are available (as many region comprising of :
required). Find the smallest payment which (A) Romaina, Germany, Poland, Bulgaria
cannot be made by these coins, if not more (B) Romania, Prussia, Bulgaria, Slovakia and
than 5 coins are allowed. Poland.
(A) 3 (B) 12 (C) Serbia, Austria, Bulgaria, Slovakia and Poland
(C) 14 (D) 18 (D) Serbia, Bulgaria, Greece, Croatia, Romania
65. What was Rinderpest?
59. Median of a data set is a number which has an (A) A disease of cattle plagues that spread in
equal number of observations below and above Africa in the 1890s
it. The median 1,9,4,3,7,6,8,8,12,15 is (B) Bubonic plague which spread in the region
(A) 7·5 (B) 7 of Maharashtra in the 1890s.
(C) A type of cholera that spread in Assam in
(C) 8
the 1890s.
(D) any number between 7 and 8
(D) A devastating bird disease that was imported
to Italy from British Asia, through chicken meat.
60. Suppose you walk from home to the bus stand
at 4 km/h and immediately return at x km/h. If 66. Which of the following is a correct match ?
the average speed is 6 km/h then x is (A) Rashsundari Debi -lstri Dharma Vichar
(A) 8 km/h (B) Ram Chadda - Amar Jiban
(B) 10 k m/h (C) Kashibaba - Chote Aur Bade ka Sawaal
(C) 12 km/h (D) Sudarshan Chakra - Gulamgiri
(D) cannot be detennined unless the distance 67. Printing created possibilities of wider circulation
from home to bus stand is known. of ideas. Who of the following hailed printing as
the ultimate gift of God?
61. From about 13th century to the time of the (A) Martin Luther
French Rev olution sumptuary laws were (B) Menocchio
expected to be followed strictly to: (C) Roman Catholic Church
(A) regulate the behaviour of the royalty. (D) Gutenberg
(B) regulate the income of people by social rank.
68. The Forest Act of 1878 divided forests into :
(C) control the behaviour of those considered (A) reserved and protected forests.
social inferiors. (B) protected and village forests.
(D) provide religious sanctity to social behaviour. (C) bio-sphere reserves and wild life sanctuaries.
(D) reserved, protected and village forests.

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69. Consider the following statements and identify 73. Consider the following statements and choose
the correct response from the options given the correct response from the options given
thereafter:
thereafter:
Statement I : Hitler said 'In my state the mother
is the most important citizen', Statement I : Traders and travellers introduced
Statement II : In Nazi Germany while boys new crops to the land they travelled.
were taught to be aggressive, muscular and Statement II : Noodles most likely travelled from
steel hearted; girls were told that they had to China through Arab traders to Sicily.
become good mothers. Statement III : Potato reached the West through
(A) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
(B) Both statement I and statement II are true travellers and became the staple diet of the
but statement II is not the: correct explanation poor.
of statement I. (A) Statement I and statement III are true.
(C) Both the statements are false. (B) Statement II and statement III are true.
(D) Both statement I and statement II are true (C) All three statements are true.
and statement II is the correct explanation of
(D) Statement I and statement II are true.
statement I.

70. Consider the following statements and choose 74. Assertion (A) : Gandhiji’s idea of satyagraha
the correct response from the options given emphasised on the power of truth and the need
thereafter : to search for truth.
Statement I : The major cricket tournament of Reasoning (R) : Gandhiji believed that a
colonial India, the 'Quadrangular' did not satyagrahi could win the battle by appealing to
represent regions but religious communities.
the conscience of the oppressor.
Statement II : The victory of the 'Hindus' in
the 'Quadrangular' cricket tournament in 1923 Select the correct option from the given
was equated by a cricket fan with Gandhiji's alternatives.
war on 'untouchability'. (A) A is true and R is false.
(A) Statement I is true but statement II is false. (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the
(B) Statement I is false but statement II is true. correct explanation of A.
(C) Both statement I and statement II are true
and II is correct explanation of statement I. (C) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(D) Both statement I and statement II are true explanation of A
but statement II is not the correct explanation (D) Both A and R are false.
of statement l.
71. Match the following columns : 75. Assertion (A) : The Civil Disobedience
Column A Column B Movement was different from the Non-
Ambedkar established the cooperation Movement..
(I) (A) December,1929
Depressed Classes Association Reason (R) : People in the Civil Disobedience
Gandhiji began the Civil Movement were asked not only to refuse
(II) (B) August, 1930
Disobedience Movement cooperation with the British but also to break
Gandhiji ended the Civil colonial laws. Select the correct option from
(III) (C) March, 1930
Disobedience Movement
the given alternatives.
Congress adopted the (A) Both A and R are true but R is not the
(IV) (D) March, 1931
demand for 'Puma Swaraj'
correct explanation of A.
(A) (I). (C), (II) - (D), (III) - (B), (IV)· (A) (B) Both A and R are false
(B) (I) - (B), (II) - (C), (III) - (D), (IV) - (A)
(C) A is false but R is true
(C) (I) -(C), (II) - (A), (III)· (B), (IV) - (D)
(D) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(D) (I) - (D), (II) - (C), (III) • (B), (IV)· (A)
explanation of A
72. Consider the following statements and choose 76. Assertion (A) : Coal is a fossil fuel.
the correct response from the options given
Reason (R): It is formed due to compression
there after :
of inorganic material over millions of years.
Statement 1: The Act of Union 1707 led to the
Select the correct option from the given
formation of the "United Kingdom of Great Britain".
alternatives.
Statement II : The British parliament was
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain
henceforth dominated by its English members.
(A) Both statement I and statement II are false. (A)
(B) Both statement I and statement II are true (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) . does
and statement II is the result of statement I. not explain (A)
(C) Statement I is true but statement II is false. (C) (A) is true and (R) is false
(D) Both statement I and statement II are true (D) (A) is false and (R) is true
but statement II is not a result of statement I.

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77. Assertion (A) : The sun rises in Arunachal 81. Which four major ports of India lie on the
Pradesh about two hours before Gujarat. Golden Quadrilateral?
Reason (R) : Arunachal Pradesh is on a higher (A) Chennai, Tuticorin, Mangalore, Marmagao
latitude than Gujarat. (B) Kolkata, Chennai, Mangalore, Mumbai
Select the correct option from the given (C) Marmagao, Mumbai, Kandla, Mangalore
alternatives.
(D) Kolkata, Mumbai, Vishakhapatanam,
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain
Chennai
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R), are truc, but (R) does 82. Match the fishing ports indicated on the map of
not explain (A) India (I, II, III and IV) with their respective
names.
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false
A. Kakinada B. Alappuzha
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true C. Porbandar D. Tuticorin

78. Assertion (A) : In India, east coast has more
seaports than the west coast.
Reason (R) : The east coast is broader and is
an example of emergent coast. Select the
correct option from the given alternatives.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not
explain (A)
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true

79. Which pie diagram represents India's age
composition in 2001? (A) II-A, III-B, I-C, IV-D
(B) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C
(C) l-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D
(D) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C
83. Which figure relates the trend of population
(A) (B) Growth rate of India from 1951-2001?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(C) (D)
80. Assertion (A) : The north western parts of India
receive rainfall in winter. Reason (R) : The
winter rainfall in India occurs due to North East 84. Assertion (A) : The Himalayan ranges show
monsoon. change in vegetation from tropical to tundra.
Select the correct option from the given Reason (R): In mountainous area with increase
in altitude there is corresponding decrease in
alternatives.
temperature, which leads to change in
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain
vegetation types.
(A) Select the correct option from the gi yen
(B) Both (A) and (R), are true, but (R) does alternatives.
not explain (A) (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explain (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true explain (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.

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85. Which of the following methods are used to 89. Assertin (A) : Sex Ratio in India is low.
restrict soil erosion? Reason (R):Indian society has been
A. Ploughing along contour lines unfavourable to females.
B. Strip cropping Select the correct option from the given
C. Jhumming alternatives.
D. Mixed farming (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain
(A) A and B (B) A and C (A)
(C) B and D (D) B and C (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not
explain (A)
86. Assertion (A) : Although only the southern part (C) (A) is true and (R) is false
of India lies in tropical region, the whole of (D) (A) is false and (R) is true
India has tropical climate.
90. A pilot takes off from an airport at 15º S latitude
Reason (R) : Himalaya mountain ranges
and flies 55º due North. What latitude the pilot
protect it from the northerly cold winds.
has reached?
Select the correct option from the given (A) 55º N (B) 40º N
alternatives. (C) 70º N (D) 15º N
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explain
(A) 91. Which of the following is not a feature of Indian
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not federalism?
explain (A) (A) The Constitution creates a strong Centre.
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false. (B) The Constitution provides for a single
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true. judiciary.
(C) The Constitution provides for a common
87. What does the zig-zag line indicate on the map All India Services.
of India? (D) The Constitution prov ides equal
representation provides equal representation
to the States in the Upper House of the
Parliament.

92. Which of these features is not a guiding value
of the Indian Constitution?
(A) No external power can dictate to the
Government of India.
(B) The head of the State is a hereditary
position.
(C) All people are equal betore law.
(D) Citizens have complete freedom to follow
any religion.

93. According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, which of the
(A) Advancement of summer monsoon on 1st following is the 'heart and soul' of our
June. Constitution?
(B) Line dividing tropical evergreen and (A) The Preamble
deciduous forest. (B) Right to Equality
(C) Water divide between east and west flowing (C) Right against Exploitation
rivers. (D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(D) Line dividing annual rainfall above and
94. Democracy is considered to be better than
below 100 cm.
other forms of government. Which of the
following statements support this claim?
88. Which of the following feature has similar
A. It is a more accountable form of government.
geological structure with Meghalaya, Karbi B. It improves the quality of decisionnmaking.
Anglong plateau and Cachar Hills? C. It ensures rapid economic development of
(A) Aravalli Range citizens.
(B) Purvanchal Hills D. It enhances the dignity of citizens
(C) Siwaliks (A) A,B and D (B) A and C
(D) Chotanagpur Plateau
(C) A, B and C (D) B, C and D

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95. The Constitution of India was amended in 1992 98. Which of the following considered as Foreign
to make the third·tier of democracy more Investment made in India ?
effective. As a result, at Ieast one-third of all A.The TATAs acquire Corus steel plant abroad.
positions in the local bodies are reserved for
B. Mr. Donald, an American citizen, acquires
women. This is because
100 shares of an Indian listed company.
(A) women are good at managing resources.
(B) although women constitute nearly half of C. The remittances sent by an Indian doctor in
the population, they hav e inadequate Dubai back to his hometown in Kerala .
representation In decision-making bodies. D. The US multinational Google opens its full-
(C) we have many powerful women leaders. fledged unit at Gurgaon, Haryana.
(D) women are obedient and would follow the
(A) (A) and (D) (B) (A) and (B)
constitutional provisions well.
(C) (D) only (D) (B) and (C)
96. In which of the following economies are people 99. We accept paper money as a medium of
more of a resource? exchange because
(A) Country A with 78% .of the working age (A) it has gold hacking.
population illiterate and with very low life (B) the law legalizes it.
expectancy
(C) Reserve Bank of India has precious metals
(B) Country B with 10% of the working age
population illiterate and with high life expectancy against which it prints notes.
(C) Country C with 60% of people in the (D) everyone else accepts it.
working age illiterate, but with high life
expectancy
100. Which of the following refers to trade barrier
(D) Country D with only 10% of population is
the working age illiterate, but has very low life in the context of WTO?
expectancy. I. Restrictions on domestic trade

97. Which of the following statements is true of Il. Not allowing companies to do foreign trade
agriculture in Indian economy between 1973 beyond specific quantity
and 2003? III. Restrictions on the export and import of goods
(A) The sectorial share of agriculture in IV. Restrictions on the price fixed by companies
employment has decreased far more than its
(A) (I), (II) and (III)
share on total output
(B) (II), (III) and (IV)
(B) The sectorial share of agriculture in total
output has decreased, but its share in (C) (III) and (IV)
employment has increased. (D) (I), (II) and (IV)
(C) The sectorial share of agriculture in total
output has increased, but its share in
employment has decreased.
(D) The sectorial share of agriculture in output
has decreased far more than its share in total
employment.

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Roll No. 2 3 4 0 6 NTSE 14_MAT

National Talent Search Examination, 2014
(For student Studying in Class-10)

Mental Ability Test

Time : 45 minutes Max. Marks : 50

Instructions to Candidates

1. Mental Ability Test shall be administered in first 45 minutes. Thereafter scholastic Aptitude Test shall be
administered. Answer to Part-I. Mental Ability Test are to be given on the given answer sheet. The Mental
Ability answer sheet will be collected after first 45 minutes. After 5 minute Part-II Scholastic Aptitude
answer sheet & after 20 minutes Question booklet will be supplied to you which will also be collected
after the time is over.

2. Please write your Roll No. as given on your Admission Card very clearly (only one digit in one box) Please
see that no box is left unfilled even zeroes appearing in the Roll No. are correctly transferred to the
appropriate boxes on the booklet and the Answer Sheet.

Example : For N.T.S.E.

2 3 4 0 6 0 4 0 3 2 1 5

3. Mental Ability Test consist of 50 questions. Each question carry one marks.
NTSE STAGE_II MENTAL ABILITY PAPER-2014
1. Select the correct number that is missing in the number series given below :
214, 265, 367, ?, 724
(1) 520 (2) 501 (3) 525 (4) 571

2. Select the correct alphabet number that is missing in the alphabet-number series given below :
NAJ31, BEF28, RAM31, ?, YAM31
(1) RPA31 (2) PRA30 (3) RPA30 (4) PAR31

3. P + Q means P is the father of Q; P – Q means P is thewife of Q; P × Q means P is the brother of Q.
Which of the following means A is the materanal uncle of D ?
(1) A × B – C + D (2) D × C – B × A (3) A × C + B – D (4) A – C × B + D

4. Select from the alternatives two signs which need to be interchanged to make the following equation
correct.
36  12 × 6 + 9 – 6 = 38
(1) – and × (2)  and × (3) – and + (4)  and +

5. According to a certain code, ‘=’ means ‘>’, ‘_’ means ‘+’ and ‘+’ means ‘_’. If a, b and c are positive
integers and a = b =c, then which of the following is true ?
(1) b = a + c (2) ac = b2 (3) a – c = 2b (4) ab = c2

6. Find the correct group of letters in place of ‘?’ in the following series.
FNHLJ, WOUQS, BNEKH, ?, DTHPL
(1) N B K E H (2) N V P T R (3) N F L H J (4) N D R Z V

Directions: (Questons 7–8) : Each of the following questions contains three figures in which numbers
are written according to a pattern. Find the missing number for each question from among the alternatives.

7. (1) 13 (2) 14 (3) 12 (4) 18

8. (1) 14 (2) 16 (3) 15 (4) 11

9. Two faces of a cube are given below, which number will be opposite 3?

(1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 2

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Directions: (Questions 10-11) : Each of the follwoing questions has a problem followed by a few
numbered statements. Decide which of the statements are sufficient for answering the problem and
choose your answer from the alternatives.

10. A, B and C together can complete a work in ‘x’ days. How many days would B alone take to complete
the work ?
Statements :
I. C can complete the work in half the number of days taken by A.
II. B can complete the work in half the number of days taken by A and C together.
III. A and C taken together can complete the work in ‘z’ days.
(1) Both I and II and required (2) I alone is sufficient
(3) II and III taken together are sufficient (4) Either II or III is sufficient

11. A boat travels in a stream from A to B and then from B to A. What is the speed of the boat in still water
?
Statements :
I. The speed of the boat in still water is 2 km/h more than the speed of the current.
II. The speed of the current is 1 km/h more than the speed of the boat.
III. Boat covers the distance of y kilometres between A and B both downstream and upstream in x
hours.
(1) All of I, II and III are required
(2) Both II and III are required
(3) I and III taken together are sufficient
(4) Either I and II together or II and III together are sufficient

12. How many triangles are there in the following figure ?

(1) 20 (2) 18 (3) 22 (4) 17

13. There are two statements given below as premises, which support the conclusion suggested in the
answer options. You may select the conclusion that makes the whole argument valid :
Statements :
I. No film actors are Cricketers.
II. Some Cricketers are poets.
(1) Therefore, some poets are film actors. (2) Therefore, some poets are not film actors.
(3) Therefore, all poets are film actors. (4) Therefore, all film actors are poets.

14. Find the missing term (?) in the following series
2, 6, 30, 260, ?
(1) 470 (2) 510 (3) 630 (4) 3130

15. One term in the following number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
2, 6, 18, 82, 650
(1) 2 (2) 18 (3) 82 (4) 650

16. If RIR is coded as IRI then MUM is coded as
(1) NFN (2) UMU (3) UNU (4) MFM

17. if FAST is coded as 798 and LAST is coded as 906 then BUSY is coded as
(1) 1759 (2) 1431 (3) 952 (4) 948

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18. Six students A, B, C,D, E and F are in a class, A and B are from Town and C, D, E and F are from
village. D and F are studious while others are casual. A, C, D are girls and B, E, F are boys. Who is the
studious girl from village ?
(1) C (2) D (3) E (4) F

19. Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.
(A) Gopal is shorter than Ashok but taller than Kunal
(B) Navin is shorter than Kunal
(C) Jayesh is taller than Navin
(D) Ashok is taller than Jayesh
Who among them is the tallest ?
(1) Gopal (2) Ashok (3) Kunal (4) Navin

20. Five persons are standing in a line. One of two persons at the extreme ends is a professor and the other
is businessman. An advocate is standing to the right of a student. An author is to the left of the
businessman. The student is standing between the professor and the advocate. Counting from the left,
the advocate is at which place.
(1) 1st (2) 2nd (3) 3rd (4) 5th

Directions (Questiosn 21 - 24) : A code language has been used to write the words in capital letters in
English in Column I as Greek letters in Column II. Greek letters in Column II do not appear in the same
order as letters in Column I. Decode tha language and choose the correct code for the word given in
each question from amongst the alternatives provided.

21. LIVER
(1)  (2)  (3)  (4) 

22. TROUBLE
(1)  (2)  (3)  (4) 

23. BROWN
(1)  (2)  (3)  (4) 

24. CYCLE
(1)  (2)  (3)  (4) 

Direction (Questions 25 - 28) : P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members of a family. Each of them has a
different profession-Lawyer, Chartered Accountant (CA), Engineer, Teacher, Doctor, Architect and
Pharmacist. There are three female members. No lady is either Pharmacist or Chartered Accountant.
Each of them has a different monthly income. The Chartered Accountant (CA) earns the most. S, the
engineer, earns less than V, the doctor. R, the teacher earns more than P and less than S. W’s wife
earns the least. T is an unmarried lady lawyer and she earns less than P and more than only Q. The
pharmacist’s income is not the lowest.

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25. Which of the following pairs of professional represents the professions of hushand and wife ?
(1) Pharmacist, Architect (2) Chartered Accountant, Architect
(3) Engineer, Pharmacist (4) Chartered Accountant, Engineer

26. Which of the following statements is false ?
(1) The Architect earns more than the Lawyer (2) The Teacher earns less than the Engineer
(3) The Doctor earns more than the Engineer (4) The Pharmacist earns more than the Lawyer

27. What is P’s profession ?
(1) Pharmacist (2) Lawyer (3) Teacher (4) None of the above

28. Which of the following represents the three female members of the family ?
(1) PTQ (2) TRQ (3) VTQ (4) Data inadequate

29. Which of the following Venn diagram correctly represents Ocean, Indian Ocean Pacific Ocean and
Mariana Trench ?

30. If RAJASTHAN = 9R17J8L19H13 in a coded language, then what is the encrypted form of the
MANIPUR in the same language ?
(1) 14R13H11G9 (2) 13M14W11B9 (3) 13R14J11F9 (4) 14M13V11J9

31. What is the next number in the series 7, 23, 55, 109, ...
(1) 199 (2) 189 (3) 191 (4) 209

32. Find out the missing number in the second figure on the basis of numbers arranged in the first figure.

(1) 30 (2) 58 (3) 160 (4) 32

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Direction: (Questions 33-37) : In the Venn diagram given below, sample data of a small town having
total population of 500, the square represents persons form urban areas, the triangle represents
women, the circle represents persons who are working and the rectangle represents the persons who
are educated. Number given are number of persons.

33. If urban population is 350 find out the non educated non working urban females ?
(1) 13 (2) 10 (3) 9 (4) 20

34. Find out the urban males who are educated but not working.
(1) 110 (2) 40 (3) 30 (4) 7

35. If rural population is 150, how many non working rural males who are not educated ?
(1) 5 (2) 1 (3) 6 (4) 3

36. Find out total non-working females but educated
(1) 80 (2) 79 (3) 51 (4) 19

37. Find out the total rural male population ?
(1) 111 (2) 187 (3) 180 (4) 114

38. Crime : Police :: Flood : ?
(1) Dam (2) River (3) Rain (4) Reservoir

39. When the given sheet of paper (X) is folded to make a cube, choose the cube that may be formed.

(1) 1 only (2) 1,2 and 3 only (3) 2 and 3 only (4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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40. In the following diagram, there are four inter locked figures of a circle, a square, a triangle and a
rectangle representing number of students passing in English, Maths, Science and Hindi, respec-
tively. Different regions of the diagrams are also lattered form A through Q.

Now consider the following statements :
statements :
I. There is no letter that represents a student who passed in all the four subjects.
II. There are only two letters that represent a student who passes on three subject only.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(1) I only (2) II only (3) Both I and II (4) Neither I and II

41. What is ‘X’ in the following table ?

(1) 16 (2) 17 (3) 18 (4) 21

42. Consider the question and two statements that follow :
What is the total cost of one pen, and one pencil and 1 note book ?
Statements :
I. The total cost of 5 pen, 6 pencils and 7 note books is Rs. 178
II. The total cost of 6 pens, 4 pencils and 2 note books, is Rs. 124
Which one of the following is correct ?
(1) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the quaetion
(2) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
(3) Statement I and II together are sufficient to answer the question
(4) Both statements are not sufficient to answer the question

43. Which one of the following differs the rest ?
(1) MGDLFC (2) JQVIPU (3) ZUBXTA (4) DYSCXR

44. Which one of the following fits inside the bracket ?
714 ( ) 65 if 953 (RVXYS)28
(1) UWZSR (2) UWZRS (3) TZWVU (4) TZWUV

45. If ‘X’ was born on December 6, 1983 and ‘Y’ on February 4, 1984, then when will ‘Y’ be half in age as
compared ot ‘X’ ?
(1) April 4, 1984 (2) April 5, 1984 (3) April 6, 1984 (4) April 8, 1984

46. Famine : Hunger : : War : ___________
(1) Enmity (2) Insecurity (3) Destruction (4) Infantry

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47. Five persons P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a row. Q in between P and T. To find who among them is
in the middle, which of the following information given in the following statements is/are sufficient ?
Statements :
I. P is left of Q and right S.
II. R is at the right end.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(1) I only (2) II only (3) Either I or II (4) Both I and II

48. Certain blank spaces are left in the following series. Which is the group of letters given below, if put
in the blank spaces in sequence, will complete the series ?
_ ab _ a _ ba _ ab _ _ ab _
(1) bbaabbb (2) babaaaa (3) abaaaba (4) aaaaaaa

49. If the letters of the word ‘BLUE’ are arranged according to dictionary, what is the position of the word
‘UBLE’ ?
(1) 19 (2) 20 (3) 21 (4) 22

50. All except one does not belong to the same group. Which one is that ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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Roll No. 2 3 4 0 6 NTSE 14_LCT

National Talent Search Examination, 2014
(For student Studying in Class-10)

Language Comprehensive Test

Time : 45 minutes Max. Marks : 50

Instructions to Candidates

1. Language comprehensive Test shall be administered in first 45 minutes. Thereafter scholastic Aptitude
Test shall be administered. Answer to Part-I. Language comprehensive Test are to be given on the given
answer sheet. The Language comprehensive answer sheet will be collected after first 45 minutes. After 5
minute Part-II Scholastic Aptitude answer sheet & after 20 minutes Question booklet will be supplied to
you which will also be collected after the time is over.

2. Please write your Roll No. as given on your Admission Card very clearly (only one digit in one box) Please
see that no box is left unfilled even zeroes appearing in the Roll No. are correctly transferred to the
appropriate boxes on the booklet and the Answer Sheet.

Example : For N.T.S.E.

2 3 4 0 6 0 4 0 3 2 1 5

3. Language Comprehensive Test consist of 50 questions. Each question carry one marks.
NTSE STAGE_II (LCT) PAPER-2014
Q.1-5 Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.
Ray Bradbury is regarded as one of the greats of 20th century science fiction along with Isaac Asimov and
A.C. Clarke. He established himself at the age of thirty with The Martial Chronicle, which perhaps re-
mains his best known work. The book celebrates space travel but it is also critical of the social abuses
that modern technology had made possible. Though other writers had represented science and technol-
ogy as a mixed bag of blessings, his book had a great impact. Initially his audience was small as most
readers had no patience with jargon. His popularity grew as he avoided technical words and expressed
his ideas about the future in common language.

1. Ray Bradbury became famous because
1. he was friends with Isaac Asimo and A.C. Clarke.
2. he started writing at the age of thirty.
3. he wrote in futuristic language.
4. of the book The Martial Chronicle that he wrote.

2. In his books Bradbury expressed the view that modern technology
1. had made space travel possible.
2. was based on the inventions of great scientists like Asimov and Clarke.
3. appealed only to a small audience of readers who knew jargon.
4. was a good thing but could be misused.

3. Bradbury's fears regarding the development and use of modern technology were
1. totally unfounded and unconvincing.
2. related to his personal experiences as a user of technology.
3. shared by ther writers of science fiction as well.
4. expressed using jargon.

4. The phrase ‘mixed bag of blessings’ means
1. having both advantages and disadvantages.
2. the constant interaction between science and technology which benefits both.
3. having both familiar and unexpected consequences
4. using technical words and expressions.

5. The phrase ‘no patience with jargon’ refers to
1. fiction writers' lack of knowledge of proper technical terms.
2. readers’ lack of interest in fiction containing many tehnical terms.
3. the negative attitude of scientists and technologists to fiction.
4. the use of difficult words.

Q.6-10 Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.
On the second day of our stay we had a skiing lesson. We began with learning how to clip on the special
shoes and strap on the skis. Then we tried to master the art of balancing on the skis as we moved side
ways and forward. There was a lot of slipping and falling. But when finally managed slow run down the
gentle slope. The helmeted toddlers skimming around like small gnats were an embarrassing contrast to
our clumsiness.But we ignored them firmly. Soon exhausted we cut short the lesson and retreated to the
institute.
All around us youngsters were happily trying their hand at skiing, snowboarding and floating hot air
balloons like flitting sky gods. It was truly a winter wonderland to revel in.

6. The difficult part of learning to ski for beginners is
1. clipping on shoes and strapping on skis
2. balancing on skis while moving sideways and forward.
3. avoiding bumping into noisy toddlers.
4. doing fast runs on the steep slopes.

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7. The expression ‘skimming around like small gnats' suggests that the toddlers were
1. able to go skillfully up and down the slopes.
2. an irritation as they moved in all direction noisily.
3. skilled and confident Iike pilots of fighter planes.
4. careless and kept bumping into those around them.

8. The writer and his friends cut short the skiing lessons because
1 . the were tired and needed to rest.
2. they did not like to be in the same place as toddlers
3. they had to go for other lessons.
4. many of them were hurt after falling down respeatedly.

9. The institute mentioned is a place where
1. only families with children go during school holidays.
2. advance training in skiing is given to prepare teams for competitions
3. nature and adventure camps for young children are organized.
4. facilities and training for different winter sports is provided to visitors.

10. The narrator in this passage seems to be
1. a trainer of young children learning to ski.
2. an older skier who goes to the institute often.
3. a member of an older group of beginners.
4. a parent whose toddlers are learning to ski.

Q.11-15 Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.
The dainty swallow is known to be a great air-borne acrobatic artist, but its eating habits may come as a
surprise. It needs to devour nearly a thousand tiny insects each day to keep its supple body energized.
These black and white birds are found in the countryside, especially near water bodies and human
habitations. Unlike birds who peck at insects on trees or on the ground, swallows feed on flying insects,
houseflies, mosquitoes, gnats, midgets, etc. They spend most of the time in flight and are natural hunters
of flying insects. They play a role in our health by reducing the numbers of malaria and dengue causing
mosquitoes. Their bodies and wings allow incredible manoeuvetability and precision in flight. Their short
wide bills help them to feed as they sweep through clouds of swarming insects near water and grasslands
bits and above trees.

11. Swallow are largely found in
1. villages near rivers and lakes.
2. cities with large water bodies and parks.
3. place where human habits attract insects.
4. forest with tall trees.

12. Swallows live near water bodies because
1. constant flying makes them thirsty.
2. they cannot store water in their short wide bill .
3. they love to skim over cool water as they perform acrobatic.
4. a large number of insects are found there.

13. Swallows devour a large number of insects because
1. they are natural hunters.
2. their daily need for energy from food is very high
3. such insects would otherwise spread diseases
4. the insect population is very large.

14. The swallow's short wide bill is designed to
1. trap small flying insects.
2. destroy disease spreading insects.
3. help it perform acrobatic manoeuvres.
4. help it fly though insect swarms with great precision.

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15. The swallow is described as an air-borne acrobat because of its
1. high energy needs to keep its body supple.
2. ability to catch even small insects.
3. varied movement in fast flight.
4. ability to eat insects.

Q.16-17 . The following five sentence come from a paragraph. The first and the last sentence are given.
Choose the order in which the four sentence (P, Q, R, S) should appear to complete the paragraph.

16. S1. Once an ant saw, hanging from a plant, a mature chrysalis which could just move its tail.
S2. _________________________________________________________________________________
S3. _________________________________________________________________________________
S4. _________________________________________________________________________________
S5. _________________________________________________________________________________

S6. The next moment the butterfly rose in the air and was soon out of the sight of the ant.

P - The next morning as the ant passed by the same plant it saw a butterfly with gorgeous wings near
the remnants of the chrysalis.
Q - 'Poor creature! You can just about move your tail while I can run here and there’, it mocked the
chrysalis.
R - ‘Look at me, Ant! Can you fly from one place to another in a short time ?’ it said as it dried its
wings.
S - The chrysalis heard all this but kept quiet.
1. QSPR 2. RPSQ 3. SPQR 4. SRPQ

17. S1. We would like to thank you once again for having selected our dealership.
S2. ______________________________________________________________________________
S3.______________________________________________________________________________
S4.______________________________________________________________________________
S5.______________________________________________________________________________

S6. We look forward to a long lasting relationship and wish you safe motoring.
P - However, in case you experience any incidence which is not to your satisfaction we will be
graeful if you could provide your valuable feedback directly to us at our website.
Q. – We will bring necessary improvements in the process/organization to deliver better services to
our esteemed customers.
R. – First of all, our entire team is dedicated to ensure your complete satisfaction and give you a
wonderful experience.
S. – This will help us to resolve your concern immediately.
1. SPQR
2. RPSQ
3. SQPR
4. QRPS

Q.18-19 The following questions have the second sentence missing. Choose the appropriate sentence from the
given options to complete it.

18. A. If you wanted to know all about bread and bread making you must visit the Bread Museum in Ulm,
Germany.

B. ________________________________________________________________________
C. There are exhibitions of the cultivation of seeds, milling techniques, techniques of bread - making,
equipment, the sale of bread ; virtually everything you wanted to know about bread.
1. There are interesting tidbits on the use of bread on social and religious occasions as well.
2. A range of bread ovens, bread baskets and baking moulds are used in Germany.
3. Set up in 1955, this huge museum gives you highly detailed history of bread making and displays
about 10,000 objects related to bread and bread production.
4. Bread making is an ancient art.

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19. A . Anne Frank began to keep a diary on her thirteenth birthday, June 12, 1942, three weeks before she
went into hiding with her family and friends in the sealed-off upper rooms of the annex of her father’s office
building in Amsterdam.
B.________________________
C. They were, however, betrayed in Augst 1944 and were deported to the Nazi concentration camp.
1. With the assistance of a group of her father, Otto Frank’s trusted colleagues, they remained hidden for
two years and one month.
2. Anne Frank was helped by her friends.
3. Anne died in Bergen-Belsen shortly before its liberation in April 1945.
4. Of the group of eight, only Otto Frank survived the war.

Q.20-27 Choose the word which best fills the blank from the four options given

20. The hedge has become a little untidy after the monsoon. I think I’II call the gardener to _____________the
edges a bit.
1. thin 2. prim 3. slim 4. prune

21. The men drilled and ________the stone into smaller bits so that they could be carted away in trucks.
1.mauled 2. hacked 3. whittle 4. hewed

22. Be careful. The cat might ________________you if it feels frightened.
1. scratch 2.hit 3. cut 4. kill

23. She cut the cake into equal wedges and ____________it amongst the children.
1.scattered 2.separated 3. distributed 4. spread

24. For the curry you need to _____a few onions, a potato and a small piece of ginger.
1. chop 2. strip 3. saw 4. bite

25. The men________off some of the upper branches of the tree near the window to allow more light in .
1. pluck 2. tore 3.brought 4.lopped

26. They picked their axes and _______the thick thorny bushes that grew all around.
1. slice 2. chopped 3. pulled 4. scratched

27. The doctor made a neat______ at the mouth of the boil,
1. wound 2. dent 3. incision 4. path

Q.28-37 In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most
appropriate word for each blank from the given options.
Unlike most nutrients, vitamin D is a hormone and is synthesized ____(28)the body through a process
____(29) depends upon the ultraviolet rays ____(30) sunlight. Brief exposure of the face (31) arms to
ultraviolet light ____(32) the most reliable source of ____(33) in spring and summer. Deficiency ____(34)
vitamin-D causes rickets. This ____(35) deformity in bones among ____(36) Therefore, a good exposure
to ____(37) is essential.

28. 1.with 2. by 3. for 4.on

29. l. this 2. that 3. these 4.there

30. 1. of 2. by 3. on 4. for

31. 1. but 2. because 3. and 4. yet

32. 1. was 2. is 3. were 4. are

33. 1. vitamin D 2. protein 3. cell 4. hormone

34. 1. off 2. for 3. of 4. on

35. 1. give 2. cause 3. causIng 4. causes

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36. 1. child 2. infants 3. young 4. boy

37. 1. sunlight 2. unlight 3. ray 4. lights

Q.38-40 Choose the appropriate phrasal verb to complete the sentences.
38. My sister ______our grandmother who loved to take up challenges.
1. takes back 2. takes off 3. takes after 4. takes in
39. Ravi's family could never on his small salary if his wife had not decided to work.
1. get off 2. get by 3. get after 4. get round
40. Soon winter ________and the nights became misty and chilly.
1. set about 2. set off 3. set aside 4. set in

Q.41-43 elect the meaning of the given phrases/idioms

41. Take the bull by the horns
1. try to overpower a bull by catching hold of its horns
2. grapple with a difficult situation without avoiding it
3. act positively even if one is feeling angry
4. having a bull fight

42. To think 'one is cat's whiskers'
1. think of oneself as a difficult person
2. think one is wonderful
3. think one is elegant like a cat
4. think one is honest

43. talk shop
1. talk about shops in general 2. talk about one's shop
3. talk about work 4. talk about shopping

Q.44-48 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives.

44. It is__________to note that the government has at last decided to revise the salaries of railway lines-
men.
1. hearten 2. hearty 3. heartfelt 4. heartening

45. We need to be careful to ensure that our project is on night ______
1. route 2. road 3. track 4. way

46. With two school going children to manage, some of my mornings are quite ______
1. jumpy 2. rushed 3. quick 4. racy

47. Some of the areas in the hills are quite ____________populated. You many not find a village for miles.
1. heavily 2. densely 3. sparsely 4. quietly
48. Most of the youngsters today are _______ in social networking in all of their free time
1. engaged 2. employed 3. involved 4. implicated

Q.49-50 Select the word which mean the opposite of the given word.

49. Miserable
1. painful 2. angry 3. happy 4. frightened

50. Unique
1. special 2. uncommon 3. well-to-do 4. common-place

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Roll No. 2 3 4 0 6 NTSE 14_SAT

National Talent Search Examination, 2014
(For student Studying in Class-10)

Scholastic Aptitude Test

Time : 90 minutes Max. Marks : 100

Instructions to Candidates

Read These instructions very carefully before attempting questions

1. Please write your Roll No. as given on your Admission Card very clearly (only one digit in one box) Please
see that no box is left unfilled even zeroes appearing in the Roll No. are correctly transferred to the
appropriate boxes on the booklet and the Answer Sheet.

Example : For N.T.S.E.

2 3 4 0 6 0 4 0 3 2 1 5

2. There are 100 questions in this paper Each question is to be answered.
NTSE STAGE_II (SAT) PAPER-2014

1. Which one of the following statements is
NOT true about evolution ?
1. Evolution leads to generation of diverse forms of life.
2. Time dating and fossil studies help in understanding of evolution.
3. Evolution is not always progressive series of changes that occur in organism.
4. Human beings have not evolved form chimpanzees.

2. Which one of the following is known as energy currency of cell ?
1. Adenosine diphosphate
2. Adenosine triphosphate
3. Pyruvate
4. Glucose

3. An analysis of soil sample revealed 0.1 mg of a pesticide and 1 mg of the same pesticide was found in grains.
However in the adipose tissue of birds the concentration was 2 mg. The reason for this is the phenomenon known as
1. Bio-absorption 2. Bio-translocation
3. Bio-magnification 4. Bio-multiplication

4. Diseases that spr3ead by vectors such as mosquitoes are
1. Encephalitis and Malaria
2. Syphilis and AIDS
3. Tuberculosis and sleeping sickness
4. Kala-azar and SARS

5. Which one of the following is correct route for passage of sperms ?
1. Testes — scrotum — vasdeferens — urethra — penis
2. Scrotum — testes — urethra — vasdeferends — penis
3. Tetes — vasdeferens — urethra — seminal vesicles
4. Testes — vasdeferens — urethra — penis

6. Suggest which among the following is NOT a function attributed to endoplasmic reticulum
1. Detoxification of poisons and drugs
2. Digestion / egestioin of foreign materials outside the cell
3. Manufacture of fat and lipid molecules
4. Biogenesis of membranes

7. In nitrogen cycle, atmospheric nitrogen is fixed by bacteria and converted into ammonia. Ammonia is further converted
into other forms of nitrogen . At the end of the cycle it returns to the atmosphere by the process of :
1. Ammonification
2. Nitrification
3. Denitrification
4. Assimilation

8. Cell organelles that are involved in the waste diposal system of the cell are :
1. Golgi apparatus.
2. Lysosomes
3. Chromosomes
4. Ribosomes

9. Sequence of events which occure in a reflex action are
1. Receptor — motor neuron — CNS — sensory neurong — effector muscle
2. Effector muscle — CNS — sensory nerve — sensory organ
3. CNS — sensory neuron — motor neuron — effector muscle
4. Receptor organ — sensory neuron — CNS — motor neuron — effector muslce

10. Movement of food in digestive tract is due to
1. concentration gradient
2. secretions
3. peristalsis
4. villi

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11. A pea plant with round green (RRyy) pea seed is crossed another pea plant with wrinkled yellow (rrYY) seeds What
would be the nature of seed in the first generation (F1 generation) ?
1. Round green
2. Wrinkled green
3. Wrinkled yellow
4. Round yellow

12. Some organisms are sensitive to different levels of air pollution and are used as pollution - indicators. Suggest
which among the following fits into the category
1. Fungi
2.Fresh water algae
3. Bacteria
4. Lichens

13. A group of laboratory mice having tails are bred together and their progeny studied. The progeny and again bred
them for four successive generations. What do you think would be the nature of the new progeny ?
1. All mice born will have tails.
2. All mice born will have no tails.
3. The ratio of tail less to tailed mice will be 1 : 3
4. The ratio of tail less to tailed mice will be 1 : 4

14. Which of the following statements is NOT correct ?
1. Tendons are tissues with great strength and flexibility
2. Bones are connected to each other by tendons
3. Cartilage smoothens bone surface at joints
4. Tendons connect muslces to bones
15. Which of the following are the correct examples of matter ?
1. Glass bottle, water and noise 2. Air, wood and vacuum
3. Silver foil, hot air and chalk 4. Sand, oxygen and light flash

16. Two identical beakers labeled as (X) and (Y) contain 100 cm3 of water each at 20ºC . To the water in the
beaker (X) 100 g of water at 0ºC was added and stirred to mix thoroughly.To the beaker (Y) 100g of ice at
0ºC was added and stirred till it melten into water. The water in the beaker (Y) will be
1. hotter than water in beaker X 2. Colder than water in beaker X
3. heavier than water in beaker X 4. lighter than water in beaker X

17. At 283 K a saturated solution of solid X can be prepared by dissolving 21.0g of it in 100 g of water.The
maximum amount of X which can be dissolved in 100 g of water at 313 K is 62.0 g. An attempt is made
to dissove 50.0 g of X in 100g of water at 313 K.
A. All the 50.0 g of X will dissove at 313 K.
B. At 313 K 29.0 g of X will remain undissoved
C. Solubility of X decreases with increases of temperature
D. On cooling the solution of X from 313 K to 283 K more than 21.0 g of X will crystallize out.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
1. A and B 2. A and D 3. B and C 4. A,C and D

18. Two elements A and B contain 13 and 8 protons respectively. If the number of neutrons in them happen to
be 14 and 8 respectively ; the formula unit mass for the compound between And B unit would be :
1. 43 2. 75 3. 102 4. 112

19. The reaction of burning of carbon in oxygen is represented by the equation:
C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g) + Heat + Light
When 9.0 g of solid carbon is burnt in 16.0 g of oxygen gas, 22.0g of carbon dioxide is produced.The
mass of carbon dioxide gas formed on burning of 3.0g of carbon in 32.0 g of oxygen would be (Note :
atomic mass of C = 12.0 u, O = 16.0u)
1. 6.60 g 2. 7.33 g 3. 8.25 g 4. 11.00g

20. An atom of an element (X) has its K, L and M shells filled with some electrons. It reacts with sodium metal
to form a compound NaX. The number of electrons in the M shell of the atom (X) will be
1. Eight 2. Seven 3. Two 4. One

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21. Oxygen gas reacts with hydrogen to produce water. The reaction is represented
by the equation :
O2 (g) + H2(g) H2O (g)
The above reaction is an exampleof
(a) Oxidation of hydrogen (b) Reduction of oxygen
(c) Reduction of hydrogen (d) Redox reaction
1. (a), (b) and (c) 2. (b), (c) and (d) 3. (a), (c) and (d) 4. (a), (b) and (d)

22. Match the items of Column I with the items of the Column II
Column I Column II
a) NH4OH + CH3 (i) Thermal
COOH CH3COONH4+H2o decomposition
(ii) Thermit
b) 2AgBr 2Ag + Br2 reaction
(iii) Photochemical
c) ZnCO3 ZnO + CO3 reaction
d) 2AI + Fe2O3 2Fe + (iv) Neutralization
Al2O3 reaction
(1) (d) ii (c) iv (b) i (a) iii (2) (c) i (a) ii (c) iii (d) iv
(3) (b) ii (d) i (a) iii (c) iv (4) (a) iv (b) iii (c) i (d) ii
23. Which of the following represents the correct order of the acidic strength for equimolar aqueous solutions
of HCl, H2SO4, NH4OH and NaOH
1. HCl < NH4OH < NaOH < H2SO4 2. NH4OH < NaOH < H2SO4 < HCl
3. HCl < H2SO4 < NH4OH < NaOH 4. NaOH < NH4OH < HCl < H2SO4

24. Metals like sodium, potassium calcium and magnesium are extracted by electrolysis of their chlorides in
molten state. These metals are not extracted by reduction of their oxides with carbon because
a) reduction with carbon is very expensive
b) carbon readily makes alloys with these metals.
c) carbon has less affinity for oxygen
d) carbon is a weaker reducing agent than these metals.
1. (a) and (b) 2. (b) and (c) 3. (c) and (d) 4. (d) and (a)
25. A hydrocarbon has a molecular formula as C6H12 . It does not react with hydrogen to give C6H14 nor does
it react with chlorine to give C6H12Cl2 . The hydrocarbon C6H12is ]
a) A saturated hydrocarbon
b) An unsaturated hydrocarbon
c) An open chain hydrocarbon
d) A cyclo-alkane
1. (a) and (b) 2. (c) and (d) 3. (d) and (b) 4. (a) and (d)
26. An organic compound is a clear liquid having a molecular formula C4H8O. It has an open chain structure.
Without any carbon-carbon double bond. The compound can be
a) an alcohol b) an ester c) an aldehyde d) a ketone
1. (a) and (b) 2. (c) and (d) 3. (b) and (d) 4. (d) and (a)
27. An element with atomic number 17 is placed in the group 17 of the long form periodic table. Element with
atomic number 9 is placed above and with atomic number 35 is placed below it. Element with atomic
number 16 is placed left and with atomic number 18 is placed right to it.
Which of the following statements are correct .
a) Valency of the element with atomic number 18 is zero.
b) Elements with same valency will have atomic number 16,17 and 18.
c) Valency of elements with atomic number 9,17 and 35 is one.
d) Element with atomic number 17 is more electronegative that element with atomic numbers 16 and 35
1. (a), (b) and (c) 2. (a), (c) and (d) 3. (b), (c) and (d) 4. (a) , (b) and (d)
28. A car is moving with a constant speed of 70 km/h. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) The acceleration of the car is definitely zero.
(2) The car has an acceleration only if it is moving along a curved path
(3) The car may have an acceleration even if it is moving along a straight path
(4) The car may not have an acceleration even if it is moving along a curved path

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29. A box of mass 20 kg is pushed along a rough floor with a velocity 2 m/s and then let go. The box moves
5 m on the floor before coming to rest. What must be the frictional force acting on the box ?
(1) 4 N (2) 2 N (3) 20 N (4) 8 N

30. Two objects, one 4 times as massive as the other, are approching each other under their mutual
graitational attraction. When the sepration between the objects is 100 km, the acceleration of the
lighter object is 1 m/s2. When the separation between them is 25 km, the acceleration of the heavier
object is
(1) 1m/s2 (2) 2m/s2 (3) 8m/s2 (4) 4m/s2

31. A spring balance measures the weight of an object in air to be 0.1 N. It shows a reading of 0.08 N
when the object is completely immersed in water. If the value of acceleration due to gravity is 10m/s2
the volume of the object is
(1) 20 cm3 (2) 80 cm3 (3) 200 cm3 (4) 2 cm3
32. A force of 10 N is applied on an object of mass 1 kg for 2 s, which was initially at rest. What is the
work done on the object by the force?
(1) 200 J (2) 20 J (3) 16 J (4) 180J

33. Stethoscope of doctors for finding quality, strength and frequency of human heart beat is based on
the principle of
(1) SONAR (2) Reverberation (3) Multiple reflection (4) Echo

34. A ray of light is incident in medium 1 on a surface that separates medium 1 from medium 2. Let v 1 and v 2
represent the velocity of light in medium 1 and medium 2 respectively. Also let n12 and n 21 repre-
sent the refractive index of medium 1 with respect to medium 2 and refractive index of medium 2
with respect to medium 1, respectively. If i and r denote the angle of incidence and angle of refraction,
then-
sin i v1 sin i v2 sin i v1 sin i v2
(1) = n21 = v (2) = n21 = v (3) = n12 = v (4) = n12 = v
sin r 2 sin r 1 sin r 2 sin r 1

35. A convex lens has a focal length of 0.5 m. It has to be combined with a second lens, so that the
combination has a power of 1.5 diopter. Which of the following could be the second lens?
(1) A concave lens of focal length 2 m.
(2) Another convex lens of focal length 0.5 m.
(3) A concave lens of focal length 0.5 m.
(4) A convex lens of focal length 2 m.

36. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(1) A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly
(2) A person with hypermetropia can see nearby objects clearly
(3) A person with myopia can see distant objects clearly
(4) A person with hypermetropia can not see distant objects clearly

37. Consider two conducting plates A and B between which the potential difference is 5 volt, plate A
being at a higher potential. A proton and an electron are released at plates A and B respec tively. The 2
particales then move towards the opposite plates- the proton to plate B and the electron to plate A.
Which one will have a larger velocity when they reach their respective destination plates ?
(1) Both will have the same velocity.
(2) The electron will have the larger velocity.
(3) The proton will have the larger velocity.
(4) None will be able to reach the destination point.

38. Which one of the statement best describes the nature of the field lines due to a bar magnet?
(1) Field lines start from the north pole and end on the south pole. Any number of field lines can pass
through a point.
(2) Field lines start from the north pole and end on the south pole. Only one field line passes
through a point.
(3) Field lines are continuous lines passing inside and outside the magnet. Only one field line passes
through a point.
(4) Field lines are continuous lines passing inside and outside the magnet. Any number of field lines
can pass through a point.

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39. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) AC generator generates a higher voltage
(2) DC generator generates a higher voltage
(3) AC generator has a permanent magnet whereas a DC generator has an electromagnet
(4) There is a split-ring commutator in a DC generator but not in an AC generator
40. A star produces its energy through the process of
(1) Nuclear fusion
(2) Chemical reaction
(3) Nuclear fission
(4) Gravitational atraction between different parts of the star.

41.  is an acute angle such that tan = 2/3 then evaluate
 1  tan    1  cot  
  .  
 sin   cos    sec   cos ec 

1 4 1 4
(1) – (B) – (C) (D)
5 13 5 13

42. Value of the expression :
1 3 4
– –
11  2 30 7  2 10 84 3

(1) 30 (2) 2 10 (3) 1 (4) 0

43. The minumum value of the polynomial p(x) = 3x2 – 5x + 2 is
1 1 1 1
(1) – (2) (3) (4) –
6 6 12 12

44. For the equation |x|2 + |x| – 6 = 0
(1) Three are four roots (2) the sum of the roots is – 1
(3) the product of the roots is –4 (4) the product of the roots is –6

45. In ABC, D is a point on BC such that 3BD = BC. If each side of the triangle is 12 cm, then AD
equals
(1) 4 5 (2) 4 6 (3) 4 7 (4) 4 11

46. In ABC, XY is paralled to A C and divides the triangle into the two parts of equal area. Then the
AX
equals B
AB

X Y

A C

2 1 2 2 2 2 2 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2 2 2

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47. P is point in the interor of an equilateral triangle with side a units. If P1, P2 and P3 are the distance of P
form the three sides of the triangle, the P1 + P2 + P3
2a
(1) equals units
3

a 3
(2) equals units
2
(3) is more than a unit
(4) Cannot be determined unless the location of P is specified

48. In how many ways can given square be cut into two congruent
(1) Exactly 4 (2) Exactly 8 (3) Exactly 12 (4) More than 12

49. In how many ways can you position 6 into ordered ? [For exp, 3 can be positioned into 3 ways as 1 +
2, 2 + 1, 1 + 1 + 1]
(1) 27 (2) 29 (3) 31 (4) 33

50. The no integers n (<20) for which n2 – 3n + 3 is a perfect square is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

51. For positive x and y, the LCM is 225 and HCF is 15 There.
(1) is exactly one such pair (2) are exactly two such pair
(3) are exactly three such pair (4) are exactly four such pair

52. in the figure, a semicircle with centre O is drawn on AB. The ratio of the larger shaded area t othe
smaller shaded area is.
P

60°
A O B
4  2 3 4  3 3 4  3 3 3  2 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2  2 3 3  3 3 2  3 3 2  2 3

53. In ABC, angle B is obtuse. The smallest circle which covers the triangle is the
(1) Circumcircle (2) Circle with AB as diameter
(3) Circle with BC as diameter (4) Circle with AC as diameter

54. Which of the following can be expressed as the sum of square of two positive integers, as well as
three positive integers ?
(1) 75 (2) 192 (3) 250 (4) 100

55. If P is a point inside the scalene triangle ABC such that APB, BPC and CPA have the same area
then P must be
(1) in centre of ABC (2) circumcentre of ABC
(3) centroid of ABC (4) orthocentr of ABC

56. If the line segment joining the midpoint of the consecutive side of quadrilateral ABCD form a
recatangle then ABCD must be
(1) rhombus (2) square (3) kite (4) all of the above

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57. C1 and C2 are two circle in a plane. If N is the total number of common tangent then which of the
following is wrong
(1) N = 2 when C1 and C2 interset but do not touch
(2) N = 4 when C1 and C2 are disjoint
(3) when C1 and C2 touch then N must be 3
(4) N can never be more than 4

58. The side of a triangle are of length 20, 21 and 29 units. The sum of the lengths of altitude will be
1609 1609
(1) units (2) 49 units (3) units (4) 40 units
29 21

59. If a,b, c be the 4th, 7th and 10th term of an AP respectively then the sum of the roots of the equation ax2
– 2bx + c = 0
b 2b ca
(1) – (2) – (3)
a a a
(3) can not be determined unless some more information is given about the AP

60. PQRS is a smallest square whose vertices are an the opposite sides of the square ABCD. The ratio of
the area of PQRS to ABCD is
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 2 : 3

61. Consider the following events related to the French Revolution and identify the correct chronological
response from the options given thereafter:
a. Convocation of Estates General
b. Storming of the Bastille
c. Peasant revolts in the countryside
d. Third Estate forms National Assembly
(1) a, c, d, b (2) d, b, c, a (3) a, d, b, c (4) b. a, c, d

62. Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter:
a. The colonies in the Caribbean were important suppliers of tobacco, indigo, sugar and coffee.
b. The slave trade began in the 15th century.
c. French port cities like Bordeaux and Nantes owed their economic prosperity to the flourishing slave
trade.
d lavery was finally abolished in the French colonies in 1848.
(1) a, c, d (2) a, b, d (3) b. c, d (4) b. c, a

63. Match the List-I with List-II and select the 6: correct response from the options given thereafter:
List l
I. Liberals
II. Radicals
Ill. Conservatives
IV. Socialists
List II
a. Government to be based on the majority of country's population
b. The past has to be respected and change has to be brought about through a slow process
c. Property to be controlled by society as a whole
d. Men of property mainly should have the right to vote
(1) I-c, II-b, III-a, IV-d (2) I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c
(3) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d (4) I-d, II-a, IIl-b, IV-c

64. Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter:
Statement I: azism became a mass movement after the Great Depression.
Statement II; After 1929, banks collapsed and businesses shut down, workers lost their jobs and the
middle classes were threatened with destitution.
(1) Statement I is false and Statement II is true

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(2) Statement J is true and Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement
I
(4) Both Statement I and Statement Il are true but Statement II is not the coneet explanation of
Statement I

65. Consider the following statements and j identify the correct response from the options given thereafter:
Satement I: According to the Criminal Tribes Act of 1871, nomadic pastoralists were forced to tive only
in notified village settlements
Statement II: Colonial state wanted to transform all grazing lands into cultivated farms .
1. Statement I is false and Statement II is true
2. Statement I is true and Statement II is false
3. Both Satement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct expfanation of Statement 1
4. Both Statement 1 and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I

66. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct response from the options given thereafter:
List I List ll
a) The British government established 1. 1780s
monopoly in opium trade in Bengal.
b) The British government 2. 1820s
exported 50,000 chests of
opium from Bengal annually.
c) Opium production in British 3. 1870
occupied territories declined
rapidly.
d) Village headmen started paying 4. 1773
peasants for producing opium
in advance.
1. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1 2. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1 3. a-3, b-2, c-1 d-4 4. a-I, b-2, c-4, d-3

67. Consider the following statement and identify thecorrect response from the options given thereafter :
a) Cricket, in Victorian England, was an all season leisure game for aristocrats.
b) The captain of the team was traditionally a batsman in Victorian England as amateurs played only
as batsmen
c) Len Hutton was the first professional Yorkshire batsman to lead the English test team.
d) Ther was a clear social hierarchy between the batsmen and the bowlers in Victorian England.
(1) a, b and c (2) a, b and d (3) a, c, and d (4) b, c and d

68. Consider the folloing statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter :
Statement I : Campaign for dress reforms by women started with the development of the suffrage
movement.
Statement II : Dress reform emphasized differences between men and women and established the
status of women as obedient and dutiful.
(1) Statement I is false & statement II is true.
(2) Statement I is true & statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct exphanation of Statement
I
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I

69. Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter:
Statement I: Schools became an imp0rtant place for political and cultural hattles in Vietnam under the
French rule.
Statement II: Teachers did not blindly follow the curriculum but sometimes modified the text and
criticized what was stated.
(1) Statement I is faJse and Statement II is true
(2) Statement I is true and Statement II is faIse
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement
I

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(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement 1

70. Consider the folloing statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter:
Statement I: In 1921. as the NonnCooperation movement spread. houses of talukdars were looted and
merchants were attacked,
Statement II: Mahatma Gandhi had declared that tax was not to be paid and land was to be
redistributed amongst the poor.
(1) Statement I is false and Statement n is true
(2) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement
I
(4) Both Statemet1t I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I

71. Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter:
Statement I: In Victorian Britain, the upper classes - the aristocrats and the bourgeoisie - preferred
things produced by machine.
Statement II: Machine goods were mass produced and were easily available.
(1) Statement I is false and Statement II is true
(2) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement
I
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I
72. Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter:
Statement I: In the 19th century, London was a colossal city.
Statement II: London had many large factories.
(1) Statement I is false and Statement II is true
(2) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement
I
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I
73. Consider the statement given below and select the correct explanation from the responses given
thereafter:
People of depressed classes found it difficult to find housing in Bombay during the late nineteenth
century.
(1) Bombay had a mere 9.5 square yards average space per person.
(2) Wages of depressed clas es were usually less than that of others.
(3) Most people of depressed classes were kept out of chawls.
(4) People belonging to the depressed classes had fixed space allotted per family.
74. Consider the statement given below and select the correct explanation from the responses given
thereafter:
In 1878 the Vernacular Press Act was passed.
(1) Englishmen criticized the printed matter objectionable to the Government.
(2) After the Revolt of 1857 the British wanted to clamp down the Indian press.
(3) British rule needed to be celebrated by journals and paper .
(4) ationalist newspapers grew in numbers and needed to be c.ontrolled.
75. By the 18th centuryt which of the following commodities were produced on large plantation in America
by lave labour and exported to other countries.
(1) Grains such as wheat and barley (2) Tropical fruits such as bananas and oranges
(3) Animal products such as wool and beef (4) Cash crops such as sugar and cotton
76. My stems are succulent, my leaves are mostly thick
In which category of the following vegetation type I am largely found?
(1) Tropical deciduous forest (2) Montane forest
(3) Tropical thorn forest and scrobs (4) Mangrove forest

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77. The following diagram shows the general land use category in India. Identify the shaded category .

(1) Net sown area (2) Forest
(3) Current Fallow (4) Barren and waste land
78. Assertion (A): Since 1981. growth rate of population in India has started declining gradually
Reason (R): Birth rate is declining Select the correct option from the given alternatives
1. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are false.
3. A is false and R is true.
4. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
79. Which of the following diagram shows th approximate relief of India around, 200N latitude from
Daman to Bhubaneswar ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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80. Identify the right pair from the following:
Place Source of Energy
A. Ennore 1. Nuclear
B. Rawat Bhata 2. Thermal
C. Kopili 3. Hydor electric
D. Na arcoil 4. Wind
(1) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 (2) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 (3) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 (4) A-2, B-1, C -4, D-3

81. The peninsular part of India experience peak summers earlier than northern India
(1) Due to apparent northward movement of the sun, th global heat belts shift northwards.
(2) Cold waves from central Asia weeps through the northern plains during that time.
(3) There is less rainfall in the peninsular India during that time.
(4) Clouds do not form in those months.
82. National Highway-7 is the longest national highway in India, which traverses between Varanasi and
Kanya Kumari. Identify the places onroute from North to South.
(1) Nagpur - Jabalpur - Bangalore - Hyderabad - adurai
(2) Jabalpur - agpur - Hyderabad - Bangalore - Madurai
(3) Jabalpur - agpur - Bangalore - Hyderabad - lvladurai
(4) Nagpur - Jabalpur - Hyderabad - Bangalore - Madurai

83. The process of manufacturing of cotton garment is depicted in the following flow diagram. Identify the
correct sequence.

1 2 3 4
a. Dyeing and finishing
b. Fiber production
c. Garment manufacture
d. Weaving
(1) 1b, 2a, 3c, 4d (2) 1b, 2d, 3c, 4a (3) 1b, 2d, 3a, 4c (4) 1b, 2a, 3d, 4c

84. Match the fresh water lakes on the map of India (I, ll, III, IV) with their respectiv names.
A. Bhimtal
B. Loktak
C. Barapani
D. Dallake

(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-Ill, C-II, D-I (3) A-III, B-I, C-II. D-lV (4) A-IV, B-Ill, C-I, D·II

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85. A major line of latitude that passes through ~ Mizoram also passes through hich one of the following
state _______ .
(1) Nagaland (2) Odisha (3) Bihar (4) Jharkhand

86. Observe the following graph of a particular place. It is situated at an altitude of 224 meters above
Mean Sea Level and at latitude 26°18'N

Identify the type of natural vegetution most likely to be found in this place
(1) Montane forest (2) Mangrove forest
(3) Tropical thorn forest (4) Tropical evergreen forest

87. Identify the state from given names which has all the following characteristics
A. Its annual rainfall is 200-400 cm
B. Most of the area is covered under with alluvial soil
C. Rice is the predominant crop of this state
(1) Punjab (2) Assam (3) Odisha (4) TamilNadu

88. With the help of given map identify the dates of advancing Mon oon in India.
(1) I- 1 June -10 June ; III - 15 July (2) I-1 June; II- 10 June ; III - 1 July
(3) I- 15 June; II- 15 July; III- 15 August (4) I- 15 July; II- 10 June; III - 1 June
89. Match the places with altitude
Column I Column II
(Altitude in meters abon (Place)
Mean Sea Level)
I. 1461 A. Nagpur
II. 6 B. Shillong
III. 224 C. Jodhpur
IV. 312 D . Kolkata

(1) I-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B (2) I-C, lI-A, Ill-B, IV-D (3) I-B, II- D, III-C, IV-A (4) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D

90. What as the local time in Tokyo situated at 139°45' East longitude, when the President of India was
hoisting the Indian National Flag in the presence of Japanese Prime Minister at 10 a.m. in New Delhi?
The viewer in Japan were watching live telecast of this event.
(1) 6.11 a.m. (2) 1.49 a.m. (3) 2.49 a.m. (4) 1.49 p.m.

91. The following statements are about democracy in the contemporary world.
A. Democracy expanded throughout the 20th century.
B. Democracy did not spread evenly throughout the world.
C. All the member states of the International Monetary Fund (lMF) are democracies.
D. All the pennanent members of the United Nations Security Council are democracies.
(1) A and B (2) A, B and C (3) A, B and D (4) B. C and D
\

92. Match the following :
A. Abraham
B. Mahatma Gandhi
C. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
D. Jawahatlal Nehru
(i) How long shall we continue to deny equality in our social and economic life'? If we continue to
deny it for long, we will do so only by putt1ng our political democracy in peril.
(ii) Democracy is 'govern-ment of the people. by the people and for th p oplc'.
(iii) The ervice of India means the service of the million who suffer. It means e ending of poverty and
ignorance: and disease and inequality of opportunity
(iv) I shall work for an India in which ... all communities shall live in perfect harmony. There can be no
room in such an India for the curse of untouchability.
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-II (3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

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93. Parliament of India consists of
(1) Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabbs
(2) President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
(3) Election Commission, Rajya Sabha and LokSabha
(4) President, Election Commission. Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha

94. Which of the following is not a feature of a 9, democratic form of government?
(1) Majority rule (2) Rights of minoriti s
(3) Universal adult franchise (4) Majoritarianism

95. Which of the following institutions have reserved seats for women?
A. Lok abha
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Legislative Assemblies
D. Municipalities
E. Panchayats
(1) A, C, D, E (2) B, C, D, E (3) D and E (4) E only

96. The following are major changes that occurred in agriculture in the post-Independent India.
A. Use of high yielding variety (HYV) seeds
B. Introduction of Genetically modified (OM) crops
C. Application of chemical fertilizers and pesticides
D. Organic fanning
Which of the above signifies Green Revolution of late 1960s and 1970s?
(1) A and B (2) B and (3) A and C (4) B and D

97. Information relating to which of the folowing aspects are used to detennine the human development in
a country?
(1) HaIth, education and poverty
(2) Inequality, health and education
(3) Health, education and income
(4) Women's health, education and income

98. A father in a farm produces 100 kg of padd ' in one acre of land, during every ea. on. One year, hi son
joined him in farming. Which of th following definitely indicates disguised unemployment ?
(1) Output remains at 100 kilogram
(2) Output increa ed to 150 kilogram
(3) Output increa ed to 200 kilograms
(4) Output increased to 250 kilograms

99. How membership in a Self Help Group helps a poor rural woman?
(1) Facilitates her how to help herself in daily work.
(2) To work together in factones and get regular employment
(3) To overcome the problem of lack of collateral as borrowing is based on the group.
(4) To get free money from the government.

100. Though consumers in India has the right to information about the product he/she purchases, which of
the following aspects of a product, the producer need not inform the consumer ?
(1) Dat of production (2) Date of expiry
(3) Addres of the producer (4) The production proces

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Roll No. 2 3 4 0 6 NTSE 15_MAT

National Talent Search Examination, 2015
(For student Studying in Class-10)

Mental Ability Test

Time : 45 minutes Max. Marks : 50

Instructions to Candidates

1. Mental Ability Test shall be administered in first 45 minutes. Thereafter scholastic Aptitude Test shall be
administered. Answer to Part-I. Mental Ability Test are to be given on the given answer sheet. The Mental
Ability answer sheet will be collected after first 45 minutes. After 5 minute Part-II Scholastic Aptitude
answer sheet & after 20 minutes Question booklet will be supplied to you which will also be collected
after the time is over.

2. Please write your Roll No. as given on your Admission Card very clearly (only one digit in one box) Please
see that no box is left unfilled even zeroes appearing in the Roll No. are correctly transferred to the
appropriate boxes on the booklet and the Answer Sheet.

Example : For N.T.S.E.

2 3 4 0 6 0 4 0 3 2 1 5

3. Mental Ability Test consist of 50 questions. Each question carry one marks.
NTSE STAGE_II MENTAL ABILITY PAPER-2015

1. If RESPOND is coded as EMPOTDS and 7. In which of the following department does B
SENSE is coded as FRODT, then CLARIFY will work ?
be coded as : 1. Operations 2. Accounts
(1) EDTOJME (2) ZEJSBMD
3. .Administration 4. Data inadequate
(3) ZEJQBKD (4) ZDKSBKD

8. Which of the following statments is definitely
true ?
2. Madhu walks 15 metres towards north, then 1. B earns less than F and H
she turns left at 90° and walk 30 metres, then 2. F earns more than B and E
turns right at 90° and walks 25 metres. How 3. B earns more than E and C
far, she is form the starting point and in which 4. B earns less than A and H
direction ?

(1) 55 mt., north -east (2) 50 mt., north-west Direction ( Question 9-11) : Given an input, a ma-
(3) 60 mt., north (4) 50 mt., west chine generates pass codes for the six batches
each day as follows :
3. Five friends A,B,C,D and, E are standing in a Input : these icons were taken out from the
row facing south but not necessarily in the same sea.
order. Only B is between A and E, C is immedi- Pass Codes
ate right to E and, D is immediate left to A. On Batch I : from sea the out
the bais of above information, which of the fol- taken were icons these
lowing statement is definitely true ? Batch II : from icons these
(1) B is to the left of A
were taken out the sea
(2) B is to the right of E
Batch III : from icons out sea
(3) A is second to the left of C
the taken were these
(4) D is third to the left of E
Batch IV : from icons out sea
Direction (Question 4-8) : A, B, C, E, F, G and H are these were taken the
seven employees in an organisation working in
the departments of Administration, Accounts and 9. What will be the pass code for the Batch V on a
Operations. There are at least two employees day, if the input is “four of the following five form
in each department. There are three females, a group” ?
one in each department. Each of seven em- 1. a five following form four group the of
ployees earns different amount. The only 2. a five following form group the of four
bearded employee F works in administration 3. a five following
and his only other colleague G earns the maxi- form four of the group 4. a five following
mum. C, the least earner works in Accounts. B
form four group of the
and E are brothers and do not work in the same
department. A, husband of H. works in Accounts
and earns more than each of F, B and E. The 10. If the pass code for the Batch IV on a day
wife in the couple earns more than the hus- was ‘back go here people who settle want to’,
band. what was the pass code for the Batch V on
that day ?
4. Which of the following is a group of females : 1. back go here people settle who want to
1. GCE 2. GEH 2. back go here people to want settle who
3. GCH 4. GHB 3. back go here people settle to want who
4. cannot be determined
5. In which department(s) do three people work ?
11. The pass code for the Batch I on a day was
1. Operations 2. Accounts
3. Operation or Account 4. Data inadequate 'he so used to sell the surplus items’.What was
the input on that day ?
6. What will be position of A from the top when 1. items surplus the sell to used so he
they are arranged in descending order of their 2. he items surplus the sell to used so
income ? 3. so used to sell the surplus items he
1. Second 2. Third 4. cannot be determined
3. Fourth 4. Fifth
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12. What is the total number of triangeles and total 18. Identify the missing number in the following
numbers of squares in the give figure ? squence
2,17,52,_________,206
1.73 2.85
3.113 4.184
19. Select the missing number

1. 28 triangles, 10 squares 1.184 2. 210
2. 28 triangles, 8 squares 3. 241 4.425
3. 32 triangles, 10 squares 20. Select the missing numbers in the following
4. 32 triangles, 8 squares sequence
3,6,24,30,63,72,?,?,195,210
13. A cube whose two adjacent faces are coloured 1.117, 123 2.120,132
is cut into 64 identical small cubes. How many 3.123,135 4.135,144
of those small cubes are not coloured at all ?
1. 24 2. 32 21. Find the number that does not belong to the
3. 36 4. 48 group :
111,331,482,551,263,383,362,284
1. 263 2. 331
14. If 54/32 =4, 36/42 = 3, 92/22 = 7 then what is
3. 383 4. 551
28/33 = ?
1. 5 2. 6 22. Which letter replaces the question mark ?
3. 4 4. 9

15. In a certain code language, ‘po ki top ma’ means
‘Usha is playing cards’ ‘ ‘Kop Ja ki ma’ means’
Asha is playing tennis’, ‘ki top sop ho’ menas
‘they are playing football’ ; and ‘ po sur kop’
means ‘cards and tennis’. Which word in this
language means ‘Asha’ ?
1. Ja 2. ma
3. kop 4. top
1.L 2.N
16. A ship navigating in the Indian Ocean is hit by 3.P 4.R
a sea storm and drifts as follows :
23. Certain blank spaces are left in the following
40 km North
sequence.Which is the group of letters given
28 km north west below, will complete the sequence ?
36 km west c_bba_cab_ac_ab_ac
52 km south and 29 km south east. 1.acbcb 2.bcacb
The ship had f inally drif ted 3.babec 4.abebe
in......................direction from its original po-
sition. 24. A boat starts with the speed of 1km per hour.
1. South West 2. South After every 1km. the speed of boat becomes
3. West 4. South East twice. How much will be the average speed of
the boat at the end of journey of 2.5 km ?
17. Four diagrams marksed A,B,C and D are given 2. 5 2. 5
1. 2.
below.The one that best illustrates the relation- 1.5125 1.75
ship among three given classes : 2.5 2. 5
Women, Teachers, Doctors 3. 4.
1.625 1.50

25. Using the total number of alphabets in your
solution as a parameter, find the number that
represents G if,
A-0,B-0,C-2, D-2,E-1,F-2,G
1. A 2. B 1.2 2.3
3.C 4.D 3.4 4.5

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26. Rs.1000 is given to A,B and C in some ratio, A 31. From among the four alternatives given below,
is wrongly given double and C is wrongly given which numbr replaces the question mark ?
half , which is Rs. 500 and Rs. 250
repectively.how much is given to B ?
1.500 2.250
3.750 4.None of above

27. Given that the total cost of 5 erasers, 7 sharp-
eners and 9 pencils is Rs. 100 and the total 1.9 2.10
cost of 2 ersers, 6 sharpeners and 10 pencils 3.18 4.23
is Rs. 80.What is the total cost (in Rs.) of one
32. From among the four alternatives given below,
eraser, one sharpender and one pencil ?
which letter replaces in the given figure the ques-
1.10 2.15 tion mark ?
3.20
4.Data are not sufficinet

28. Renu went to the market betwen 7 am and 8
am .The angle between the hour-hand and the
minure-hand was 90º. She returned home be-
tween 7 am and 8 am.Then also the angle be-
tween the minute-hand and hour-hand was
90º. At what time (nearest to second) did Renu
leave and return home ?
1.7h 18 m 35 s and 7h 51 m 24 s
1. A 2. B
2. 7 h 19 m 24 s and 7 h 52 m 14s
3. S 4. Y

3. 7h 20 m 42 s and 7 h 53 m 11 s 33. Choose the correct mirror-image most
4.7 h 21 m 49 s and 7 h 54 m 33 s closely resembles the word-source, from the
four given alternatives.
source
29. Stimulant : Activity :: ?
1.Symptom : Disease 2.Food : Hunger 1. 2.
3. Fertilizer : Growth 4.Diagnosis : Treat-
3. 4.
ment
34. In the problem figure a unfolded cuboid is
given. Choose from the four given alterna-
30. Choose the missing number form among the tives the box that will be formed when prob-
four alternatives : lem figure is folded.

1. 1 only 2. 1 and 2 only
1.15 2.20
3. 1,2 and 3 only 4. 2 and 3 only
3.25 4.40
35. A work can be completed by 40 workers in
40 days. If 5 workers leave every 10 days, in
how many days work will be completed ?
1. 55, 66 2. 56, 44
3. 56, 66 4. 58, 66

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36. From among the four alternatives given below, 41. Half of the villagers of a certain village have
which figure replaces the question mark ? their own houses. One-fifth of the villagers cul-
tivate paddy. One –third of the villagers are
below twenty five. Then, which one of the fol-
lowing is certainly true?
1. At least 10 percent villagers who have their
own houes are literate.
1. 2. 2. At least 25 percent of the villagers who have
their own huses cultivate paddy.
3. At least 50 percent of the villagers who
cultivate paddy are below twenty five.
3. 4. 4. At least 13.33 percent literate must be
below twenty five
37. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in
two rows, three persons are sitting in each row
42. A tank is filled by three pipes with each pipe
E is not at the end of any row
having uniform flow. The first two pipes oper-
D is second to the left of F
ating simultaneously fill the tank in the same
C, the neighbour of E, is sitting diagonally
time during in which the tank is filled by the
opposite to D
third pipe alone. The second pipe fills the tank
B is the neighbour of F
5 hours faster than the first pipe and 4 hours
Who are sitting in each column
slower than the third pipe. The time required
1. A and D ; E and F ; and B and C
by the first pipe ot fill the tank is :
2. A and F ; D and E ; and B and C
1. 6 hours 2. 10 hours
3. B and D ; A and C ; and E and F
3. 15 hours 4. 30 hours
4. A and D ; B and E ; and F and C
43. If FEED is coded as 47 and TREE is coed as
38. The sum of the incomes of A and B is more
91, then MEET will be coded as :
than that of C and D taken together. The sum
1. 110 2. 114
of incomes of A and C is the same as that of B
3. 118 4. 122
and D taken together. Moreover, A earns half
as much as the sum of the incomes of B and
44. One watch is 1 minute slow at 1 pm on Tues-
D. Whose income is highest ?
day and 2 minutes fast at 1 am on Friday When
1. A 2. B
did it show the correct time ?
3. C 4. D
1. 5.00 am on Wednesday
2. 9.00am on Wednesday
39. A letter number series is given with one or
3. 5.00 pm on Wednesday
more terms missing as shown below. Choose
4. 9.00 pm on Wednesday
the alternative next in the sequence.
A4X, D9U, G16R,..............
Direction: (Question 45 -47) : A coding language
1. K25P 2. J25P
is used to write English words in coded form
3. J25O 4. J25C
givenbelow :
40. Study the following information and answer
the question given below it :
Rohit, Kunal, Ashish and, Ramesh are students
of a school. Three of them stay far from the
school and one near it. Two studies in class
IV, one in class V and one in class VI. They
study Hindi, Mathematics, Social Science and
Science. one is good at all four subjects while
another is weak in all of these. Rohit stay far The codes do not appear in the same order of
from the school and is good at mathematics the letters in English words. Decode the lan-
only while Kunal is weak in mathematics only guage and based on these
and stay close to the school. Neither of these codes identify the code for English word given
two nor Ashish studies in class VI. One who is in each question from the alternatives provided.
good at all the subjects study in class V. Name 45. MINT
the boy who is good at all the subjects. 1. % = & * 2. = # ? %
1. Rohit 2. Ramesh 3. @%=$ 4. * @ ? +
3. Kunal 4. Ashish
46. RINSE
(1) = ? + * @ (2) % * $ # &
(3) * $ # @ + (4) $ & # = ?

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47. INTEREST
(1) = ? * + % & = * (2) ? # = ? + # * $
(3) + $ @ + $ = * % (4) @ # * # @ $ %
&

Direction (Question 48–49) There are three circles
in the following diagram. A total number of 100
persons were surveyed and the number in the
diagram indicates the number of tourists who
visited different states. 46 tourists visited Sikkim
and 42 tourists visited Karnataka.

48. How many tourists have visited at least two
states ?
(1) 46 (2) 50
(3) 54 (4) 58

49. How many tourists have visited only two states
?
(1) 46 (2) 50
(3) 54 (4) 96

50. If BREAKTHROUGH is as EAOUHRBRGHKT,
DISTRIBUTION will be coded :
(1) STTIBUDIONRI (2) TISTBUONDIRI
(3) STTIBUONRIDI (4) RISTTIBUDION

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Roll No. 2 3 4 0 6 NTSE 15_LCT

National Talent Search Examination, 2015
(For student Studying in Class-10)

Language Comprehensive Test

Time : 45 minutes Max. Marks : 50

Instructions to Candidates

1. Language comprehensive Test shall be administered in first 45 minutes. Thereafter scholastic Aptitude
Test shall be administered. Answer to Part-I. Language comprehensive Test are to be given on the given
answer sheet. The Language comprehensive answer sheet will be collected after first 45 minutes. After 5
minute Part-II Scholastic Aptitude answer sheet & after 20 minutes Question booklet will be supplied to
you which will also be collected after the time is over.

2. Please write your Roll No. as given on your Admission Card very clearly (only one digit in one box) Please
see that no box is left unfilled even zeroes appearing in the Roll No. are correctly transferred to the
appropriate boxes on the booklet and the Answer Sheet.

Example : For N.T.S.E.

2 3 4 0 6 0 4 0 3 2 1 5

3. Language Comprehensive Test consist of 50 questions. Each question carry one marks.
NTSE STAGE_II (LANGUAGE COMPREHENSIVE TEST( LCT)-2015

Q. 1-5 Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.
The loudest public food fight right now is about GMOs, or genetically modified organisms. Scientists add
genes to corn, soya beans, and other plants, usually to protect the crops from insects or herbicides.
Those who support this say that the genetic help makes crops easier to grow and cheaper. But many
consumers and those who keep an eye on food safety worry that GMOs pose an unnatural threat to our
health and the environement. These opponents say that GMOs have linked to depression, alleriges and
even cancer. Unless we have been eating foods labelled 100 percent organic-which means that it must be
GMO-free-we probably have GMOs in our body system already !

1. Adding genes to crops will :
(1) help in better crop-research (2) make them resistant to insect attacks.
(3) make the food ‘organic’ (4) give them a stable price in the market

2. The “ ....loudest public food fight.....” suggests that
(1) people do not like the Crop Scientist.
(2) Crop Scientists are almost fighting in the streets.
(3) there is a great competition in growing GMOs.
(4) there are strong protests against GMOs.

3. Those who support GMOs say that
(1) growing the crops poses many chanllenges now.
(2) they do not protect the fields from insect-attacks.
(3) they bring down the prices of the crops.
(4) they help in carrying out more experiments with better results.

4. Those who are opposed to GMOs say that :
(1) the costs of the crops will not change much in the markets.
(2) the pattern of growing and harvesting of crops will change.
(3) such crop-research has been stopped.
(4) these crops can cause serious harm to our health.

5. Organic foods’ according to the passage are those that are :
(1) already there in our bodies as GMOs (2) grown in well-organised farms.
(3) grown free from GMOs (4) helpful to our body’s various organs.

Q. 6-10 Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.
We are living in the golden age of answers’. Of course information is not knowledge or wisdom, and data
can mislead. Profusion of online information can be distracting or even useless. Privacy can also be a
problem in a digital world where everything you’ve clicked can be used to sell things to you, evaluate you
or embarrass you. Your iphone or computer can provide information to others that you might prefer to
keep to yourself. But revolutions always cause some damages. Things do get lost in the ocean of
information. We no longer bother to remember stuff we can easily look up. We don’t search for addresses
as we use the GPS. We spend more time connecting with friends on Facebook than connecting with real
friends. Still pop-up ads, Internet frauds and other inconveniences are a small price to pay for instant
access to infinite information. Today we have better tools for searching, analysing or evaluating through
data than before. And what’s most exciting about our age of answers is, its potential to change the quality
of our lives.

6. The passage primarily discusses
(1) the advanges of technology
(2) criticism of technology
(3) the age of technology
(4) the evaluation of the pros and cons of technology

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7. ‘The golden age of answers’ implies that there are
(1) diverse technologies available in the present time.
(2) opportunities to connect with friends on Facebook.
(3) better tools for searching information.
(4) pop-up ads to provide information.

8. We pay a price for this revolution as we :
(1) only receive useless information. (2) forget our identities.
(3) get agitated (4) surrender our privacy

9. This ‘revolution’ has brought
(1) radical changes to our lives. (2) success in our lives.
(3) rotation in our lives. (4) merely problems in our lives.

10. The author’s attitude to technology according to this passage is :
(1) not clear (2) positive (3) negative (4) insignificant

Q.11-15 : Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.
For Abid Surti, Sunday is no day of rest. He is busy going door to door volunteering with an assistant and
a plumber. They are in an apartment building in Mumbai’s densely populated suburb filled with high rise
buildings. He rings doorbells and asks residents the same question. ‘ Any leaky taps ? We are providing
a free service’.
Surti is a mutifaceted 79 year old man. A national award winning author, he has written some 80 books -
novels, plays and collection of short stories and poems. He is also an artists and a cartoonist. On 2007,
Surti started Drop Dead Foundation, his own water conservation NGO that caters to buildings in Miral
Road, fixing leaky plumbing for free. With water shortage and the prospects of taps running dry in Mumbai,
Surti’s work is vital. ‘Massive’ is how he describes water wastage in Mumbai. ‘In poor families is one of
sheer indifference. ‘Indeed it was the apathy of a friend that first spurred Surti into action. While visiting a
friends’s house, Surti saw a leaking tap and asked why is wasn’t fixed. His friend casually dismissed the
query, saying it was hard to get a plumber ‘for something so trivial’.

11. Surti’s primary mission is to :
(1) provide free plumbers (2) check wastage of water
(3) supply free water (4) close running taps.

12. People may be more willing to accept Surti’s services as he
(1) Provides services assisted by a plumber.
(2) runs a water conservation NGO
(3) is a local person from Mumbai
(4) is on a mission.

13. Most middle class families’ attitude to water conservation is due to their
(1) lack of knowledge (2) lack of money (3) lack of expertise (4) lack of concern.

14. The work being done by Surti is significant because he
(1) runs an NGO in Mumbai. (2) has several skills.
(3) is providing plumbing services. (4) is solving social problems.

15. ‘spurred into action’ means
(1) emboldened to act. (2) volunteered to act (3) keen to act. (4)encouraged to act.

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Q.16-17 The following five sentences come from a paragraph.The first and the last sentences are given.
Choose the right order in which the three sentences (PQR) should appear to
complete the paragraph.

16. S1. Normally ladybugs are sophisticated and voracious predators.
S2. __________________________________________________
S3. __________________________________________________
S4. __________________________________________________
S5. Then it creeps up and strikes, ripping the victim apart with its barbed mandibles.
P –Once it has homed in on these signals, it switches its sensory scan to search for molecules
released by the victim.
Q –A single individual may devour several thousands of victims in a lifetime.
R –To find a victim, it first waves its antennae to detect chemicals that plants release when they are
under attack by herbivorous insects.

Choose from the options given below :

(1) RPQ (2) PRQ (3) QRP (4) PQR

17. S1. Years ago, the kids were all keen on’ soda water powder’, soft drink mix that made carbonated
beverages.
S2. __________________________________________________
S3. __________________________________________________
S4. __________________________________________________
S5. They began calling them Popsicles instead, and the treat was patented as such.

P –Epperson cleverly sat on his invention, keeping it secret for 18 years, until he was in the
position to make something of it.
Q –One night in 1905, Frank Epperson accidentally left his drink out on the porch, and as it froze
overnight, it was absolutely delicious by the morning .
R –In 1923, he decided to patent his Epsicles, (“Epp’s Icidles”), but his children refused to use that
name since none of them called their father Epp.
(1) PRQ (2) RPQ (3) RQP (4) QPR

Q.18-19 The following questions have the second sentence missing. Choose the appropriate sentence
from the given options to complete it.

18. A. I used to think that boiling an egg would be a simple job until I came to live in the Himalayas.
B. ____________________________________________________________________________
C. I don’t know if it’s the altitude or the density of the water, but it just won’t come to boil in time for
breakfast.
(1) I found that just getting the water to boil was an achievement.
(2) Boiling an egg in the Himalayas was fascinating.
(3) I could never find good eggs there.
(4) “Were the eggs also too hard?” I wondered.

19. A. Imagine a five-year old composing music and playing on a child-size violin.
B. ____________________________________________________________________________
C. He was a young genius who grew up to be one of the most creative composers of all time.
(1)This was something Mozart did. (2) It is strange to find such a phenomenon.
(3)The child must have been some genius. (4) This is simply impossible for us to think of.

Q.20-29 Choose the word which best fills the blank from the four options given.

20. The journey in the run down bus over the pot-holed road felt almost like a......................ride.
(1) train (2) boat (3) roller-coaster (4) bicycle
21. The good old Ambassador cars are now considered....................
(1)obsolete (2) absolute (3) obscure (4) oblivious

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22. The report has been prepared well and hopefully it will be .....................at the next board meeting.
(1) shelved (2) chaired (3) tabled (4) grounded

23. The Talent Search Examination is challenging but not frightening. Why don’t you take a
...................at it ?
(1) shot (2) trial (3) hit (4) swipe

24. Grandfather has always been a figure of .........................in our large family.
(1) authorised (2) authoritative (3) authoritarian (4) authority

25. She found Rashmi in the kitchen, looking old and.....................
(1) healthy (2) weary (3) busy (4) in a hurry

26. Tax offenders were refused...........................to leave the country.
(1) admission (2) submission (3) information (4) permission

27. A good driver will be very careful before carrying out a complex.......................
(1) movement (2) manoeuvre (3) motion (4) moment

28. With the new management taking over, there’s now a big ..................... hanging over the Company’s
future.
(1) thought (2) gossip (3) discussion (4) question mark

29. The Coffee Room was ................ into smoking and non-smoking areas.
(1) amalgamated (2) considered (3) segregated (4) shared

30-35. Select the meaning of the given phrases/idioms.

30. For want of
(1) because of lack of (2) giving something wanted by another
(3) desiring something (4) because of fulfilling needs

31. Clown around
(1) make others feel silly and stupid (2) be an object of ridicule
(3) join a Circus company (4) behave in a silly way

32. Talk back
(1) answer rudely (2) talk behind a person’s back
(3) talk in a loud voice (4) reply to the questions asked

33. Run into
(1) meet someone by chance (2) start quarrelling
(3) make unexpected purchases (4) run from one place to another

34. blow one’s own trumpet
(1) to create music (2) to praise someone (3) to praise oneself (4) to feel happy

35. To see eye to eye
(1) stare at someone (2) examine someone’s eyes
(3) have the same opinion (4) be cross-eyed

36-43. In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the
most appropriate word for each blank from the given options.
At Sri Venkateswara Temple in Tirumala, better known as Tirupati, the laddu is next in popularity only to
the Lord. The taste and aroma of (36) __________ besan (gram flour) confections - saturated (37)
__________ ghee, raisin, nuts, cardamom, and (38) __________ camphor - draws millions of devotees
(39) ____________ this temple town in Andhra Pradesh, (40) _________ for a bite of this holy (41)
_________ . In 2009, it received international (42) __________ when it was given the unique global (43)
_________ i.e. legal protection against imitation.

36. (1) this (2) these (3) those (4) their

37. (1) from (2) of (3) in (4) with

38. (1) edible (2) fine (3) light (4) pious

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39. (1) with (2) to (3) for (4) from

40. (1) seen (2) look (3) eager (4) find

41. (1) dish (2) eat (3) taste (4) joy

42. (1) taste (2) fame (3) claim (4) love

43. (1) index (2) quality (3) patent (4) reward

44-47 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives.

44. Located close to Charminar, the kilometre-long stretch of Laad Bazaar is ________ with shops selling
bright bangles in every hue and colour.
(1) came (2) discovered (3) covered (4) filled

45. I suggest you should ____________ yourself with the rules before you join the meeting.
(1) familiar (2) familiarize (3) familiarly (4) familiarity

46. The child held the bag as tightly as if it were her most ____________ possession.
(1) prize (2) prizy (3) prized (4) prizely

47. The weakness in their defense has already cost them ___________ this season.
(1) dear (2) dearly (3) deary (4) dearness

48-50 Select the word which means the opposite of the given word.

48. Undertake
(1) recognise (2) begin (3) refuse (4) rejoice

49. Hefty
(1) half-hearted (2) light (3) heavy (4) halved

50. Miniature
(1) manicure (2) massive (3) missive (4) masculine

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Roll No. 2 3 4 0 6 NTSE 15_SAT

National Talent Search Examination, 2015
(For student Studying in Class-10)

Scholastic Aptitude Test

Time : 90 minutes Max. Marks : 100

Instructions to Candidates

Read These instructions very carefully before attempting questions

1. Please write your Roll No. as given on your Admission Card very clearly (only one digit in one box) Please
see that no box is left unfilled even zeroes appearing in the Roll No. are correctly transferred to the
appropriate boxes on the booklet and the Answer Sheet.

Example : For N.T.S.E.

2 3 4 0 6 0 4 0 3 2 1 5

2. There are 100 questions in this paper Each question is to be answered.
NTSE STAGE_II SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)-2015

1. A segment of DNA contains 1200 nucleotides, of which 200 have adenine base. How many cytosine
bases are present inthis segment of DNA ?
1. 100 2. 200 3. 400 4. 800

2. You are observing a nonchlorophyllous, eukaryotic organism with chitinous cell wall under a micro-
scope. You shall describe the organism as a
1. fungus. 2. alga 3. protozoas 4. bacterium

3. Match the items given in Column A and Column B, and identify the correct alternative listed below.

(1) (a)-(i), (b)(iii), (c)-(ii), (d) - (iv) (2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) -(ii), (d) - (iv)
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) -(i), (c)-(iv) (d) -(ii) (4) (a) -(i), (b)-(iii), (c) -(iv), (d)-(ii)

4. Which one of the following statements about cell organelles and their funciton is correct ?
1. Mitochondria are associated with anaerobic respiration.
2. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is involved in protein synthesis.
3. Lysosomes are important in membrane biogenesis.
4. Golgi bodies are involved in packaging and dispatching of materials.

5. A leguminous plant grown in an autoclaved, sterilized soild fails to produce root nodules because
1. autoclaved soil is not good for root growth. 2. autoclaved soil is devoid of bacteria .
3. autoclaving reduces N2 content of soil. 4. plants cannot form root hairs in such a soil.

6. The causative agent of the disease ‘sleeping sickness’ in human beings is an
1. intracellular parasite found in RBC.
2. extracellular parasite found in blood plasma
3. intracellular parasite found in WBC.
4. extracellular parasite found on the surface of platelets.

7. The gene for hemophilia is present on X chromosome. If a hemophilic male marries a normal female,
the probability of their son being hemophilic is
1. nil 2. 25% 3. 50% 4. 100%

8. Abundance of coliform bacteria in a water body is indicative of pollution from
1. petroleum refinery. 2. metal smelter 3. fertilizer factory 4. domestic sewage.

9. Prolonged exposure to the fumes released by incomplete combustion of coal may cause death of a
human because of
1. inhalation of unburnt carbon particles. 2. continuous exposure to high temperature.
3. increased level of carbon monoxide. 4. increased level of carbon dioxide.

10. The phenomenon of normla breathing in a human being comprises
1. an active inspiratory and a passive expiratory phase
2. a passive inspiratory and an active expiratory phase.
3. both active inspiratory and expiratory phases.
4. both passive inspiratory and expiratory phases.
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11. Which one of the following statements is true with respect to photosynthesis ?
1. Oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from CO2
2. Chlorophyll a is the only photosynthetic pigment in plants.
3.Photosynthesis occurs in stem of some plants.
4. Photosynthesis does not occur in red light.

12. The girth of stem increases due to the activity of
1. lateral meristem. 2. apical meristem.
3. intercalary meristem 4. apical and intercalary meristem.

13. Which one of the following represents the correct sequence of reflex action ?
1. Receptor sensory nerve motor nerve spinal cord muscle
2. Receptor motor nerve spinal cord sensory nerve muscle
3. Receptor sensory nerve spinal cord muscle motor nerve
4. Receptor  sensory nerve spinal cord motor nerve muscle

14. In human female, immature eggs are for the first time seen in ovary
1. at puberty 2. before birth, at the fetus stage
3. during the first menstrual cycle 4. after the first year birth.

15. What happens when a fixed amount of oxygen gas is taken in a cylinder and compressed at constant
temperature ?
(i) Number of collisions of oxygen molecules at per unit area of the wall of the cylinder increases.
(ii) Oxygen (O2) gets converted into ozone (O3).
(iii) Kinetic energy of the molecules of oxygen gas increases.
1. (i) and (iii) 2. (ii) and (iii) 3.(iii) only 4.(i) only

16. The solubility of a substance S in water is 28.6% (mass by volume) at 50º C. When 50 mL of its
saturated solution at 50ºC is cooled to 40ºC, 2.4 g of solid S separates out.The solubility of S in water at
40ºC (mass by volume) is :
1. 2.4 % 2. 11.9% 3. 26.2% 4. 23.8%

17. What mass of CO2 will be formed when 6g of carbon is burnt in 32 g of oxygen ?
1. 38 g 2. 12g 3. 26 g 4. 22 g

18. The law of conservation of mass is valid for which of the following ?
a. Reactions involving oxidation b.Nuclear reactions. c. Endothermic reactions
1. (a) and (c) 2. (a) and (b) 3. (b) and (c) 4. (b) only

19. How many sub-atomic particles are present in an -particle used in Rutherford’s scattering
experiment ?
No. of protons No. of Neutrons No. of Electrons
1. 4 0 0
2. 2 0 2
3. 2 2 0
4. 2 2 1

20. A certain sample of element Z contains 60% of 69Z and 40% of 71Z. What is the relative atomic mass of
element Z in this sample ?
1. 69.2 2. 69.8 3. 70.0 4. 70.2

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21. Compound A on strong heating in a boiling tube gives off reddish brown fumes and a yellow residue.
When the aqueous solution of A is treated with a few drops of sodium hydroxide solution, a white
precipitate appeared in the compound A . Identify the cation and anion present in the compound A.
1. Copper (II) and nitrate 2. Lead (II) and chloride
3. Zinc and sulphate 4. Lead (II) and nitrate

22. A substance A reacts with another substance B to produce the product C and a gas D. If a mixture of the
gas D and ammonia is passed through an aqueous solution of C, baking soda is formed. The sub-
stances A and B are :
1. HCl and NaOH 2. HCl and Na2CO3 3. Na and HCl 4. Na2CO3 and H2O

23. A metal occurs in nature as its ore X which on heating in air converts to Y.Y reacts with unreacted X to
give the metal. The metal is :
(1) Hg (2) Cu (3) Zn (4) Fe
24. Assertion (A) : Nitrate ores are rarely available.
Reason (R) : Bond dissociationg energy of nitrogen is very high.
1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is correct and R is false
4. Both A and R are False

25. The number of structural isomers of the compound having molecular formula C4H9Br is :
1. 3 2. 5 3. 4 4. 2
26. The total number of electrons and the number of electrons involved in the formation of various bonds
present in one molecule of propanal (C2H5CHO) are respectively :
1. 32 and 20 2. 24 and 20 3. 24 and 18 4. 32 and 18
27. Consider following as a portion of the periodic table from Group No. 13 to 17. Which of the following
statments is are true about the elements shown in it ?
I. V, W, X and Z are less electropositive than X.
II. V, W, X and Y are more electronegative than Z.
III Atomic size of Y is greater than that of W.
IV Atomic size of W is smaller than that of X.
V Z
W Y

X

(1) I, II and III (2) II and III (3) I and IV (4) III and IV

28. A man running with a uniform speed 'u' on a straight road observes a stationary bus at a distance 'd'
ahead of him. At thta instant, the bus starts with an acceleration 'a'. THe condition that he would be able
to catch the bus is

u2 u2 u2 u2
(1) d  (2) d  (3) d  (4) d 
a 2a 3a 4a
29. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a given velcity 'u' such tht it rises for T seconds (T > 1), What is
the distance traversed by the ball during the last one second of ascent (in meters)? (Acceleration due to
gravity is g m/s2.)

1 2 1
(1) gT (2) T  g[T 2  (T  1) 2 ]
2 2

g 1
(3) (4) g[T 2  (T  1) 2 ]
2 2

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30. The radius of a planet A is twice that of planet B. The average denstity of the material of planet A is thrice
that of planet B. The ratio between the values of acceleration due to gravity on the surface of planet A
and that on the surface of planet B is

2 3 4
(1) (2) (3) (4) 6
3 2 3

31. A small spherical ball of mass 'm' is used as the bob of a pendulum. The work done by the force of
tension on its displacemetn is W 1. The same ball is made to roll on a frictionless table. The work done by
the force of normal reaction is W 2. Again the same ball is given a positive charge 'g' and made to travel
with a velocity v in a magnetic field B. The work done by the force experienced by the charged ball is
W 3. If the displacements in each case are the same, we have
(1) W 1 < W 2 < W 3 (2) W 1 > W 2 > W 3
(3) W 1 = W 2 = W 3 (4) that W 1, W 2, W 3 cannot be related by any equa-
tion

32. The variation in the kinetic energy (K.E.) adn the potential energy (P.E.) of a particle moving along the
x-axis are shown in the graphs below. Which one of the following graphs violates the law of conservation
of energy ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

33. The disc of a siren containing 60 holes rotates at a constant speed of 360 rotations per minute. The
emitted sound is in unison with a tuning fork of frequency
(1) 270 Hz (2) 360 Hz (3) 480 Hz (4) 540 Hz

34. A tuning fork is excited by striking it with a padded hammer. What would be the nature of the vibrations
executed by the prongs as well as the stem of the fork respectively ? (The reference directin is that of
the propagation of the sound wave.)
(1) Both vibrate longitudinally
(2) Both vibrate transversely
(3) The prong vibrate longitudinally whereas the stem vibrates transversely
(4) The prong vibrate transversely whereas the stem vibrates longitudinally

35. Find the reading of the ammeter in the circuit given below.

V 3V 2V 11V
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2R 4R 7R R
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36. Three bulbs with individual power ratings of 12 W, 2 W and 6 W respectively are connected as per the
circuit diagram below, Find the amount of heat dissipated by each in 10 seconds.

(1) 8 J, 1.33 J, 4 J (2) 120 J, 20 J, 60 J (3) 10 J, 0.277 J, 2.5 J (4) 12 J, 1.66 J, 5 J

37. Which of the following can produce a magnetic field ?
(1) Electric charges at rest (2) Electric charges in motion
(3) Only by permanent magnets (4) Electric charges whether at rest or in motion

38. A wire is lying horizontally in the north-south direction and there is a horizontal magnetic field pointing
towards the east. Some positive charges in the wire move north and an equal number of negative
charges move south.The direction of force on the wire will be

(1) east (2) down, into the page (3) up, out of the page (4) west

39. Match the following :

(1) (i)-B, (ii)-D, (iii)-A, (iv)-C (2) (i)-B, (ii)-C, (iii)-A, (iv)-D
(3) (i)-B, (ii)-A, (iii)-C, (iv) - D (4) (i) - D, (ii)-B, (iii)-A, (iv)-C

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40. A person is suffering from both near sightedness and far sightedness. His spectacles would be made of
(1) two convex lenses with the upper lens having a larger focal length than the lower lens.
(2) two concave lenses with the upper lens having a smaller focal length than the lower lens.
(3) a concave lens as the upper lens and a convex lens as the lower lens
(4) a convex lens as the upper lens and a concave lens as the lower lens

41. LCM of two numbers x and y is 720 and the LCM of numbers 12x and 5y is also 720. The number y
is.
1. 180 2. 144 3. 120 4. 90

42. When a natural number x is divided by 5, the remainder is 2. When a natural number y is divided by

2z  5
5, the remainder is 4, The remainder is z when x + y is divided by 5. The value of is
3
1. –1 2. 1 3. –2 4. 2

43. If the zeros of the polynomial 64x3 – 144 x2 + 92x – 15 are in AP, then the difference between the
largest and the smallest zeroes of the polynomial is

7 3 1
1. 1 2. 3. 4.
8 4 2
44. x and y are two non-negative numbers such that 2x + y =10. The sum of the maximum and minimum
values of (x+y) is
1. 6 2. 9 3. 10 4. 15

45. The number of integral solution of the equation

 1  1 
7 y   – 2 y 2  2  = 9
 y  y 

1. 0 2. 1 3. 2 4. 3

46. A circle with area A cm2 is contained in the interior of a larger circle with area (A + B) cm2 and the radius
of the larger circle is 4 cm. If A, B, A + B are in airthmatic progression, then the diameter (in cm) of the
smaller circle is :

3 4 3 8 3
1. 2. 3. 4. 2 3
2 3 3

47. Each of sides of a triangle is 8 cm less than the sum of its other two sides. Area of the triangle (in cm2)
is

1. 8 2. 8 3 3. 16 4. 16 3

1
48. If cosec x – cot x = , where x  0, then the value of cos2 x – sin2 x is
3

16 9 8 7
1. 2. 3. 4.
25 25 25 25
49. A sector with acute central angle  is cut from a circle of diameter 14 cm. The area (in cm2) of the circle
circumscribing the sector is :

22  77 77  77 
1. sec2 2. sec2 3. cos2 4. sec2
7 2 2 2 2 2 2

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50. In the figure PQSO, is a trapezium in which PQ || OS, POS = 135° and OSQ = 90° points P, Q and
R lie on a circle with centre O and radius 12 cm. The area of the shaded part, in cm2, is

P Q

135°
O R

2 5 5 2
1. 61 2. 61 3. 73 4. 73
7 7 7 7

51. A solid sphere is cut into identical pieces by three mutually perpendicular plane passing through its
centre. Increase in total surface area of all the pieces with respect to the total surface area of the original
sphere is
1. 250% 2. 175% 3. 150% 4. 125%

52. A right circular cylinder has its height equal to two times its radius. It is inscribed in a right circular cone
having its diameter equal to10 cm and height 12 cm, and the axes of both the cylinder and the cone
coincide. Then, the volume (in cm3) of the cylinder is approximately.
1. 107.5 2. 118.6 3. 127.5 4. 128.7

53. In the figure, ABCD is a square of side 1 dm and PAQ = 45°. The perimeter (in dm) of the triangle PQC
is

A D

P

B C
Q

1. 2 2. 1 + 2 3. 2 2 – 1 4. 1 + 3

54. In the figure, ABC is a triangle in which AD bisects A, AC = BC, B = 72° and CD = 1 cm, Length of
BD (in cm) is

C

D

A B

1 5 1 3 1
1. 1 2. 3. 4.
2 2 2

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55. In the figure, BC is a chord of the circle with centre O and A is a point on the minor are BC. Then
BAC – OBC is equal to A

B C

O

1. 30° 2. 60° 3. 80° 4. 90°

56. In the figure, APB is formed by three tangents to the circle with centre O. If APB = 40°, then the
measure of BOA is :

R
B
O
S
40°
P A T
1. 50° 2. 55° 3. 60° 4. 70°
57. (5, 10), (–15, 15) and (5,5) are the coordinates of vertices A, B and C respectively of ABC and P is
a point on median AD such that AP : PD = 2 : 3. Ratio of the areas of the triangle PBC and ABC
1. 2 : 3 2. 3 : 4 3. 3 : 5 4. 4 : 5

58. P is a point on the graph of y = 5x + 3. The coordinates of a point Q are (3, –2). If M is the mid point
of PQ, then M must lie on the line respresented by :
5 7 5 1
1. y = 5x + 1 2. y = 5x – 7 x– 3. y = 4. y = x +
2 2 2 2
59. Three - digit number formed by using digits 0, 1,2 and 5 (without repetition) are written on different on
each slip, and put in a bowl. One slip is drawn at random from the bowl. The probability that the slip
bears a number divisible by 5 is :
5 4 2 1
1. 2. 3. 4.
9 9 3 3
60. The mean of fifteen different natural numbers is 13. The maximum value for the second largest of
these numbers is :
1. 46 2. 51 3. 52 4. 53

61. Assertion (A) : During eighteenth century France witnessed the emergence of a middle class.
Reason (R): The emergence of the middle class happend on account of royal patrnage.
1. A is true, R is false.
2. A is false, R is true.
3. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
4. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

62. Assertion (A) : The lives of pastoralists in , India underwent dramatic changes under colonial rule.
Reason (R): In most areas the lands regularly used by pastoralists for grazing were taken over by the
colonial state and given to select individuals for cultivation.
1. A is true, R is false.
2. A is false, R is true.
3. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
4. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

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63. Assertion (A) : By the early twentieth century, America became the biggest supplier of wheat to
Europe.
Reason (R): The expansion of the railways during the period greatly facilitated the transport of grain.
1. A is true, R is false.
2. A is false, R is true.
3. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
4. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

64. Match the following table and choose the correct response from the options given thereafter.
Column-I Column-II
A. 1910 I. Establishment of Tonkin Free School.
B. 1930 II. Formation of French IndooChina.
C. 1907 III. Completion of the transChina rail network.
D. 1887 IV. Formation of the Vietnamese Communist Party.

65. Arrange the following Indian novels in accordance with their year of writing/publication
a. Indulekha
b. Rajasekhara Caritramu
c. Yamuna Paryatan
d. Pariksha-Guru
1. c, b. d, a 2. a, d. b, c
3. c, d. b, a 4. a, b. d, c

66. The main tenets of April Theses during the Bolshevik Revolution were:
1. Closing the war, shifting of banks, land pooling by 'government.
2. Formation of labour government, bank nationalisation and land distribution.
3. Communist government, land fragmentation and merger of banks.
4. Ending the war, bank nationalisation and land transfer.

67. Mahatma Gandhi changed his dressing style from Western to Indian over a period of time. Match those
changes as given in Column-I and Column-II and choose the correct response from the options given
thereafter.
Column-I Column-II
A. Suit I. 1915
B. Lungi-Kurta II. 1890
C. Peasant Dress III. 1921
D. Short Dhoti IV. 1913
1. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III 2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II 4. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

68. In' late 19th and early 20th centuries, nationalism captured the imagination of the Indian people through
a variety of cultural processes. Which of the following was not a part of those processes?
1. Rewriting history to show India's continuous progress from the ancient to the modem times.
2. Creation of different images of Bharat Mata.
3. Recording, collection and publication of folk tales and folk songs.
4. Designing flags as inspiring symbols of nationalism.

69. Choose the correct response from the given options.
Nomadic people move over long distances because
1. By temperament they do not like to settle down in anyone place.
2. They constantly look for good pasture land for their cattle.
3. They follow a life style which is very different from the settled communities.
4. Eonomically they are too poor to own land.

70. Choose the correct response from the given options.
In 19th century England grain production grew as quickly as the population because
1. Farmers used simple agricultural technology to greater effect.
2. Radical innovations were made in agricultural technology.
3. Larger and larger areas were brought under cultivation.
4. Increasing number of poor people found work as agricultural labourers.

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71. Choose the correct response from the given options.
By the late 19th century Indians began searching for a national dress because they wanted to
1. Show that in terms of dress they were not inferior to the British .
2. Get rid of the blame of blindly aping the west
3. Define the cultural identity of the nation.
4. Culturally synthesize the traditions of the East and the West.
72. Choose the correct response from the given options.
The unification of Germany in 1871, for a change, demonstrated
1. The triumph of the democratic aspirations of the German middle-class.
2. The fulfilment of the liberal initiative to nation-building.
3. The power of the common people, das volk.
4. The dominance of the state power and conservatives' success in mobilising nationalist sentiments.
73. Choose the correct response from the given options.
The formation of the 'United Kingdom of Great Britain' in 1707 meant, in effect,
1. Equal representation of all the British Isles in the British Parliament.
2. Recognition to the ethnic identities of the Welsh, the Scot and the lrish.
3. The cessation of conflicts between the Catholics and the Protestants.
4. The dominance of England on Scotland through the English supremacy in Parliament.

74. Choose the correct response from the given options.
Many within the Congress were initially opposed to the idea of non-cooperation because
1. They did not think that British rule in India would collapse if Indians refused to cooperate.
2. They were not yet sure of Gandhiji's ability to successfully lead a nationwide movement
3. They were reluctant to boycott the council election scheduled for November 1920.
4. They did not agree with Gandhiji's proposal to carry the movement forward in stages.

75. Choose the correct response from the given options.
The main reason why the Society of Revolutionary and Republican Women was set up during the
French Revolution was because
1. Women wanted laws that would help improve their lives.
2. Women wanted the same political rights as men.
3. Women wanted their interests to be properly represented in the new government.
4. Women wanted access to education, training for jobs, and wages on par with men.

76. Assertion (A) : The EI Nino, a cold ocean current flows along the coast of Peru during Christmas.
Reason (R) : The presence of the IE Nino leads to an increase in sea - surfac temperatures and
weakening of the trade winds in the regions.
1. Both A and R are true and R explains A.
2. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
3. A is true and R is false.
4. A is flase and R is true.

77. Assertion (A): Air temperature decreases from the equator toward the poles.
Reason (R) : A one move from the sea level to higher altitude, the atmosphere become less dense
and temperature decreases.
1. Both A and R are true and R explains A.
2. Both A and R are true but R doe not explain A.
3. A is true and R is false.
4. A is false and R is true.

78. Match List-I (local name of shifting cultivation) with List-II (States/Region) and elect the correct answer
using the code given below :
List-I (local name of shifting cultivation) List-II (States/Region)
A. Dahiya I. Jharkhand
B. Kumari II. Madhya Pradesh
C. Bringa III. Odisha
D. Kuruwa IV. Western Ghats
1. A-III. B-IV, C-lI, D-I 2. A-II. B-IV, C-III, D-I
3. A-I. B-III, C-IV, D-1I 4. A-I, B-IV, C-III. D-II

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79. Assertion (A): Most nuclear power stations in India have been constructed near sources of water.
Reason (R): Nuclear power stations require a great quantity of water for cooling purposes.
1. Both A and R are true and R explains A.
2. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
3. A is true and R is false.
4. A is false and R is true.

80. Assertion(A) : Peninsula rocks contain many reserves of coal, metallic minerals, mica and many other
non-metallic minerals.
Reason (R) : Sedimentary rocks on the western and eastern flanks of the peninsula, in Gujarat and
Assam have most ot the famous minerals.
1. Both A and R are true and R explains A.
2. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
3. A is true and R is false
4. A is false and R is true

81. Which one of the following states has common boundiers with the least number of countries.
1. Uttarakhand 2. West Bengal 3. Arunachal Pradesh 4. Sikkim

82. Match List - 1(Rivers) with List -II (National Waterways) and select the correct answer using the code
given below :

List-I (Rivers) List-II (National
Waterways)

National
A. Ganga I. Waterway No.4

National
B. Brahmaputra II. Waterway No.1
Godavari and National
C. Krishna III. Waterway No.5

Mahandi and National
D. Brahmani IV. Waterway No.2

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 2. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 4. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

83. Match List-I (Rivers) with List-II B
(Tributaries) and select the correct answer using the codes given below
List-I (Rivers) List-II (Tributaric )
A. Godavari I. Lohit
B. Ganga II. Koyana
C. Krishna III. Wainganga
D. Brahamputra IV. Son
1. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 2. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV 3. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I 4. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

84. Arrange these hill ranges from north to south direction
I. Zaskar Range II. Shiwalik Range
III. Karakoram Range IV. Ladakh Range
l. III. IV. I. II 2. Ill. I. IV. II 3. I. II. Ill. IV 4. IV. III. I. II

85. Match List-I (Rivers) with List-II Origin and select the correct answer using the codes given below
List-l (Rivers) List-II (Origin )
A. Godavari I. Cardamom hills
B. Krishna II. Amarkantak Hills
C. Narmada III. Nasik Hills
D. Vaigai IV. Mahabaleshwar
1. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II 2. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I 3. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III 4. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
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86. Assertion (A): In India, most migrations have been from rural to urban areas
Reason (R): The urban areas offer greater employment opportunities and better living condistion.
1. Both and R are true and R explains A.
2. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
3. A is true and R is false.
4. A is false and.R is true.
87. Arrange these hills from west to east direction.
A. Khasi hills B. Garo hills C. Naga hills D. Jaintia Range
I. C,A,B,D 2. D, B, A, C 3. A, B, C, D 4. B, A, D, C

88. Assertion (A): The Earth does not receive an equal amount of solar energy at all latitudes.
Reason (R): As one goes from low altitude to high altitude temperature decreases because atmo-
sphere becomes less dense.
1. Both A and R are true and R explains A.
2. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
3. A is true and R is false.
4. A is false and R is true.

89. Match the vegetation zones in Column-I with the associated mean annual average temperature (in
degree Celsius) in Column-II
Column - I Column–II
A. Tropical I. 17°C to 24°C,
B. Sub-tropical II. above 24°C
C. Temperate III. 7°C to 17°C
D. Alpine IV. Below 7°C
1. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV 2. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
3. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I 4. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

90. Match the given crops with their major producing areas shown on the map of India.

A. Wheat ¡ B. Coffee C. Rice D. Tea
1. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II 2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 3. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV 4. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

91. Which of the following statement is/are true about federal system?
a. All federations have a similar scheme of distribution of powers.
b. The origins of different federations are dissimilar.
c. Federalism promotes unity at the cost of diversity.
d. Federalism promotes unity in diversity.
1. Only b 2. a and c 3. b and d 4. a. b and c

92. I do not contest elections. but 1 try to influence the political process. I have a specific policy agenda.
I have no interest in seeking political power. Who am I ?
1. Bureaucracy 2. Court 3. Pressure group 4. Media

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93. Which of the following statement’s is/are true ?
a. India is among the bottom group of nations in the world when it comes to the representation of women
in legislatures.
b. Women in the Arab countries are most active in public life.
c. India has lesser representation of women in legislatures as compared to Sub-Saharan Africa.
d. The share of women in legislative assemblies in India is lower than that of their representation in
Parliament.
1. a and b 2. b and c 3. a, b and d 4. a, c and d

94. Which of the following issues has been most successfully addressed by the Indian democracy ?
1. Social inequality 2. Economic inequality 3. Politicla inequality 4. Natural inequality

95. MatchList 1 (Leaders) with List II (Political parties) and select the answer using the codes given below.
List - I List-II
I. E.M.S. Namboodiripad a. Bahujan Samaj Party
II. Sheikh Abdullah b. Telugu Desam
III. N.T. Rama Rao c. Communist Party of India (Marxist)
IV. Kanshi Ram d. Jammu & Kashmir National conference
1. I-c , II-d, III-a, IV-b 2. I-b , II-d, III-c, IV-a 3. I-b , II-c, III-a, IV-d 4. I-c , II-d, III-b, IV-a

96. Economic growth is growth in ___________.
1. value of total output 2. value of total investment
3. value of industrial output 4. value added of all sectors.

97. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act aims at providing
1. employment to rural people in government offices.
2. 200 days of work/year in rural areas.
3. 100 days of wage employment in a year to rural households
4. 365 days work in rural areas.

98. A landless worker in a village takes a kind loasn of tow bags of rice form the village landlord. The
condition is that she will repay the loan in two and half bags of rice at the end of one year. The interest
paid equals _________
1. the difference between the money value of rice betwen now and at the end of the year.
2. 31.25 percent of the original amount of loan.
3. 25 percent of the original amount of loan
4. the difference betwen the rates of interest charged by banks betwen beggining and at the end of the
year.

99. Non-marker activity is ___________.
1. a state of unemployment.
2. producing for self consumption.
3. selling the products nearby temples.
4. selling the products through the Regulated Market.

100. A typical farmer’s capital includes tractor, turbins, plough, seeds, fertilisers, pesticides and cash in
hand. Which of these combinations can be classified as working capital ?
1. Tractor, turbines and plough
2. Seeds, fertilisers, pesticides and cash in hand
3. Plough, seeds, fertilisers and pesticides
4. Plough, seeds, fertilisers, pesticides and cash in hand

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Roll No. 2 3 4 0 6 NTSE 16_MAT

National Talent Search Examination, 2016
(For student Studying in Class-10)

Mental Ability Test

Time : 45 minutes Max. Marks : 50

Instructions to Candidates

1. Mental Ability Test shall be administered in first 45 minutes. Thereafter scholastic Aptitude Test shall be
administered. Answer to Part-I. Mental Ability Test are to be given on the given answer sheet. The Mental
Ability answer sheet will be collected after first 45 minutes. After 5 minute Part-II Scholastic Aptitude
answer sheet & after 20 minutes Question booklet will be supplied to you which will also be collected
after the time is over.

2. Please write your Roll No. as given on your Admission Card very clearly (only one digit in one box) Please
see that no box is left unfilled even zeroes appearing in the Roll No. are correctly transferred to the
appropriate boxes on the booklet and the Answer Sheet.

Example : For N.T.S.E.

2 3 4 0 6 0 4 0 3 2 1 5

3. Mental Ability Test consist of 50 questions. Each question carry one marks.
NTSE STAGE_II MENTAL ABILITY PAPER-2016
Q.1 Complete the series :
D3Y104, G9U91, J27Q78, M81M65
(1) P243139 (2) Q243152 (3) P243152 (4) Q162J39
Q.2 Which of the following can replace the question mark?’

0 .8 0.512
0.04 ?
(1) 0.0064 (2) 0.0016 (3) 0.000064 (4) 0.000016
Direction : (Q.3 to Q.5) There are eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sitting around a circular table
facing centre. B is sitting second to the left of G who is sitting third to the right of F. Only E is sitting
between A and C. C is sitting third to the left of B. Only one person is sitting between E and H.
Q.3 Which of the following is correct?
(1) D is sitting third to the left of H (2) F is sitting third to the left of G
(3) C is sitting to the left of D (4) H is sitting second to the right of C
Q.4 Based on the given information, which of the following is the correct position?
(1) A and C are sitting next to each other (2) F and G are sitting next to each other
(3) H and F are sitting third next to each other (4) D is sitting next to H
Q.5 Which of the following is the correct order of sitting of persons right of A?
(1) E C H D G B F (2) E C H F B D G (3) E B H D C F G (4) C H B E D G F
Q.6 Amita is standing at Point A facing north direction. She walks for 5 kilometers In the north-east direction.
Then she turns at an angle of 90° at her right and once again travels the same distance. She reaches at
Point B. Now she takes a turn at 90° to her left and walks for 3 kilometres and once again takes right turn
at 90° and travels 3 kilometres and reaches at Point C. What is the direction of Point B and C respectively
with respect to point A?
(1) East, East (2) East, North-East (3) North-East, East (4) North-East, North-East
Q.7 In the question given below, there are three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and
III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts. Read all the conclusions, and then decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follows
from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements : All teachers are professors
No professor is male
Some males are designers
Conclusion : I No designer is professor
II Some designers are professors
III No male is teacher
(1) Only III follows (2) Both I and II follows
(3) Either I or II follows (4) Either I and III follows; or II and III follows
Q.8 In the following questions, there are four figures A, B, C and D called problem figures. A and b are
related in the same way as C and D are related. Which figure out of four given options will come in
place of figure C?

?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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Q.9 In the following figure, square represents professors, circle represents males, triangle represents crick-
eters and rectangle represents trainers.

A
B
K D C
H
G J I E
F

On the basis of information given in the above diagram, which of the following is correct?
(1) C represent male professors who are cricketers
(2) I represents male trainers who play cricket
(3) B represent males professors who are trainers
(4) F represents male trainers who are not cricketers

Direction : (Q.10 to Q.12) Five periods of Hindi. English, Science. Mathematics and Sanskrit are to be
taken by five different teachers A, B, C, D and E in five different periods. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Each teacher
will teach only one subject and takes only one period.
Science is not the 3rd period 5th period is taken by D who doest not teach Hindi or Sanskrit A takes 3rd
period. The one who teaches Sanskrit takes 4th period. There are two periods after and two periods
before Mathematics period. Hindi period is between Science and Mathematics period. B teachers
Science. E takes period just before D’s period.
After reading the above information, answer the following questions.
Q.10 Who teaches Hindi and in which period?
(1) C teaches Hind in 2nd period (2) E teaches Hindi in 1st period
(3) C teaches Hindi in 4th period (4) Data is inadequate

Q.11 Which of the following is the correct sequence of subject-period-teacher ?
(1) Mathematics-3-D (2) Sanskrit-4-E
(3) Mathematics-2-A (4) Hindi-2-E

Q.12 The subject taught by teachers A, B, C, D and E respectively are
(1) Mathematics, Science, Hindi, Sanskrit, English
(2) Mathematics, Science, English, Hindi, Sanskrit
(3) Mathematics, Hindi, English, Sanskrit, Science
(4) Mathematics, Science, Hindi, English, Sanskrit

Q.13 A cuboid is painted in 6 colours, i.e. red, green, blue, yellow, orange and black, one colour on each
side. Three position are shown below :

What is the colour of the side having question mark?
(1) Red (2) Yellow (3) Green (4) Blue

Q.14 If × stands for +,  stands for –, + stands for  and – stands for ×, then what is the value of the following
expression?
 33 × 11  9 × 28 + 4 – 5
(1) 16 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 2

Q.15 If REASON is coded as PGYUMP, then DIRECT will be coded as?
(1) BKPGAV (2) FKTGEV
(3) FGTCER (4) BGPCAR

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Q.16 Read the information carefully and answer the following question:
A family has husband, wife and three children A, B and C. The present age of husband is 5 years more
than the wife’s present age. Wife’s present age is twice the present age of A. The present age of A is
1
12 years more than the present age of B. B’s present age is 1 time the present age of C. If C is 12
2
years old at present, what is the present age of husband’s friend Ram who is 15 years younger than
husband (him)?
(1) 30 years (2) 50 years (3) 60 years (4) 80 years

Direction : (Q.17 to Q.18) Pritam, Zeba, Joy and Anu were assigned duties in the English language
alphabetical order of their names. Only one of them is assigned a duty on a day. This assignment is
repeated in the same sequence. Working week starts from Monday and ends of Friday. Answer the
following:

Q.17 Who worked for least number of days and for how many days if the duties are assigned for 3 weeks?
(1) Anu, 3 days (2) Anu, 4 days (3) Zeba, 3 days (4) Zeba, 4 days
Q.18 Who were assigned duties on Wednesday in 1st, 2nd and 3rd weeks respectively?
(1) Pritam,. Zeba, Anu (2) Pritam, Anu, Zeba (3) Pritam, Joy, Anu (4) Joy, Zeba, Anu
Q.19 In a showroom, 60 per cent discount is given to everybody on all the articles. The successive discount of
40 per cent is offered to female students. If printed price of an article of Rs 1000/- is bought by a female
student, how much she will have to pay for that article?
(1) Inconclusive (2) Zero (3) Rs 160/- (4) Rs 240/-
Q.20 From among the four alternatives given below, which number replaces the question mark?

4 5 6 4
2 5 = 13 7 2 = 15

9 3 8 3
4 5 = 18 4 6 =?

(1) 11 (2) 14 (3) 16 (4)17
Q.21 Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation among men, father and teachers?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Q.22 Guitar : Music : : Book : ?
(1) Pages (2) Writer (3) Publisher (4) Knowledge

Q.23 Reena, Rita and Zoha are three friends. Reena is the eldest followed by Rita and Zoha. Reena is 2 years
elder to Rita and 5 years elder to Zoha. The sum of the present age of Reena and Zoha is 3 times the age
of Rita 5 years ago. What is the current age of Rita?
(1) 12 years (2) 14 years (3) 16 years (4) 18 yeras

Direction (Q.24 to Q.26) : Lata was cutting a cuboid –shaped cake at her birthday party which has 12
inches length, 8 inches breadth and 2 inches height.
Two faces measuring 8 inches length × 2 inches are coated with chocolate cream.
Two faces measuring 12 inches × 2 inches are coated with vanilla cream.
Two faces measuring 12 inches × 8 inches are coated with butter scotch cream.
The cake is cut into 24 cubes of size, 2 inches each side.

Q.24 How many cake pieces are there which have only two types of coatings of cream (any two out of
chocolate, vanilla and butter scotch)?
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 16

Q.25 How many cake pieces will have only one type of coating of cream?
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 20

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Q.26 Kasim, Rajni, Pema and Gurpreet loved the chocolate cream and they decided to take all pieces with
chocolate coating for them. How many cake pieces will be available for others?
(1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 16 (4) 20

Q.27 During her morning walk in the park, Tanya saw Monica coming from the opposite direction. They
greeted each other and had a face-to-face chatting. If Monica’s shadow was to the right of Tanya, then
which direction was Monica facing?
(1) North (2) East (3) West (4) South

Q.28 Given below is a question and two statements I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in
the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements carefully and give the an-
swer.
Question : A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row, not in that order. A is sitting next to E. Is E sitting
between A and C?
Statements :
I. B and D are sitting at the two ends of the row.
II. C is not sitting next to A.
(1) I along is sufficient (2) II alone is sufficient
(3) Both I and II together are sufficient (4) Both I and II together are not sufficient

Q.29 A person need to find the fastest two horses from 16 horses. Only a race of 4 horses can be conducted
at a time. What is the minimum number of races to be conducted to determine the fastest two? Assume
that horses will not get tired at all, and time cannot be measured.
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 15

Q.30 Which letter replaces the question mark?
bcegk?qs
(1) 1 (2) m (3) n (4) o

Q.31 From among the four alternative given below, which figure replaces the question mark?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Q.32 How many points will be on the face opposite to the face which contains 2 points.

(1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 6

Q.33 Identify the missing number in the following sequence
2, 10, 30, 68, _______,
(1) 120 (2) 130 (3) 134 (4) 150

Q.34 A + B means A is the daughter of B, A × B means A is the son of B and A – B means A is the wife of B.
If T–S × B – M, which of the following is NOT true?
(1) M is the husband of B (2) B is the mother of S
(3) S is the daughter of B (4) T is the wife of S

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Q.35 In the question below, there are three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV.
You have to consider every given statements as true, even if it does not conform to the well-known facts.
Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the conclusions can be logically derived from the given
statement.
Statements : All frogs are snakes
Some snakes are birds
All birds are apples

Conclusions : I. Some apples are frog
II. No apple is a frog
III. Some snakes are apples
IV. All birds are snakes
(1) Either I or II ; and III follows (2) III and IV follows
(3) Either I or II follows (4) Either I or II; and either III or IV follows
Q.36 In the following sequence, one number is wrong. Find the wrong number.
9, 23, 51, 106, 219, 643
(1) 23 (2) 51 (3) 106 (4) 219
Q.37 Which option shows the correct water image of the characters given below.
SUPE2547DLR
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Q.38 Ronald is elder to Veena while Amilia and Shree are elder to Parul who lies between Ronald and Amilia.
If Amilia is elder to Veena, then which one of the following statements is necessarily true?
(1) Ronald is elder to Amilia (2) Amilia is elder to Shree
(3) Parul is elder to Shree (4) Parul is elder to Veena
Q.39 In the following question, a matrix of certain numbers is given. These numbers follow a certain trend,
either row-wise or column-wise. Find this trend and choose the missing number from the given alterna-
tives

1 5 7 75

8 3 4 ?

9 7 8 194

(1) 20 (2) 43 (3) 89 (4) 96
Q.40 The figure given below is the unfolded position of a cubical dice. Select the option figure which is same
as the figure, when it is folded.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Q.41 A wall clock is placed in a room. It chimes 8 times at 8 o’clock. A person “X” present outside the room
listens the 8 beats of chimes in 8 seconds. Assume that each chime of the wall clock takes equal time. To
listen 11 chimes at 11 o’ clock how much time will be required by person “X”
(1) 11 seconds (2) 11.43 seconds (3) 12 seconds (4) 12.43 seconds

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Q.42 A geometrical design has been drawn below. Find out the total number of quadrilaterals.

(1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 11 (4) 12

Direction (Questions 43-45) Study the following information and answer the questions given below it :
Six boy Prem, Kamal, Ramesh, Shyam, Tarun and Umesh go to University Sports Centre and play a
different game of football, cricket, tennis, kabaddi, squash and volleyball.
A. Tarun is taller than Prem and Shyam
B. The tallest among them plays kabaddi
C. The shortest one plays volleyball
D. Kamal and Shyam neither play volleyball nor kabaddi
E. Ramesh plays volleyball
F. If all six boys stand in order of their height then Tarun is in between Kamal and Prem ; and Tarun plays
football
Q.43 Who among them play kabaddi?
(1) Kamal (2) Ramesh (3) Shyam (4) Umesh
Q.44 Who will be at fourth place if they are arranged in the descending order of their heights?
(1) Prem (2) Kamal (3) Tarun (4) Shyam
Q.45 Who plays tennis?
(1) Kamal (2) Prem
(3) Tarun (4) Information insufficient
Q.46 What comes next in the following sequence of codes?
1218199, 1006480, 814963, 643648 ________
(1) 366478 (2) 1442560 (3) 492535 (4) 253634

Q.47 What value replaces the question mark?
2 2 3 4

2 12 2 80
6 5 12 10 18 15 24 20

(1) 18 (2) 24 (3) 36 (4) 45

Q. 48 A coding language writes English words in the coded form as :
S TAT 
RAT 
SAY 
The code does not appear in the same order of the letters in the English words. On this basis, which of
the following will be the code of the word T R A Y?
(1)  (2)  (3)  (4) 
Q.49 A work is expected to be completed by 20 workers in 25 days. The work is started by 10 workers. Then,
after every 5 days, 5 more workers join the work. In how many days the work will be completed?
(1) 20 (2) 25 (3) 30 (4) 35
Q.50 Find the maximum length of a rod with negligible thickness which can be fitted into a cubical box of 1
meter length of each side.
(1) 2 (2) 2.25 (3) 3 (4) 2

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Roll No. 2 3 4 0 6 NTSE 16_LCT

National Talent Search Examination, 2016
(For student Studying in Class-10)

Language Comprehensive Test

Time : 45 minutes Max. Marks : 50

Instructions to Candidates

1. Language comprehensive Test shall be administered in first 45 minutes. Thereafter scholastic Aptitude
Test shall be administered. Answer to Part-I. Language comprehensive Test are to be given on the given
answer sheet. The Language comprehensive answer sheet will be collected after first 45 minutes. After 5
minute Part-II Scholastic Aptitude answer sheet & after 20 minutes Question booklet will be supplied to
you which will also be collected after the time is over.

2. Please write your Roll No. as given on your Admission Card very clearly (only one digit in one box) Please
see that no box is left unfilled even zeroes appearing in the Roll No. are correctly transferred to the
appropriate boxes on the booklet and the Answer Sheet.

Example : For N.T.S.E.

2 3 4 0 6 0 4 0 3 2 1 5

3. Language Comprehensive Test consist of 50 questions. Each question carry one marks.
NTSE STAGE_II (LANGUAGE COMPREHENSIVE TEST( LCT)-2016
Q.1-5 Read the following passage and answer the questions based on it.
Those with green fingers can always create their little haven, be it on the ground or atop a multi-storey
house. The pressure of burgeoning population has forced cities to adopt vertical development. But that
does not mean that people living in higher storeys are deprived of the pleasures of their own gardens and
so the terrace garden culture is catching the imagination of gardening freaks.
For a terrace garden, leakage below and seepage through walls are the biggest apprehensions. Exposure
to the vagaries of weather is another hurdle. Thus, creating and maintaining a terrace garden is certainly
a challenge. It needs immaculate planning regarding leakages below, the weight the roof can take, the
selection of plants, the planting material, the medium in which the plants are planted, garden decoration,
garden furniture and above all your own imagination.
Try to provide the garden with a bamboo fence as a wind barrier. This is also useful as a shade and you
could keep shade-loving plants under it. Net shades are available in different colours; these cut light to
different intensities and can be used overhead by fastening with hood. You could remove these shades in
winter. Winter is a special time for such gardens: the sun is mild and the range of flowers tremendous.
Q.1 A person with ‘green fingers’ is one who
(1) lives in a multi-storey building. (2) has grown a terrace garden.
(3) has a talent for growing plants. (4) designs and plants gardens.
Q.2 People have to live in multi-storey buildings due to
(1) popularity of terrace gardens. (2) growing population.
(3) fondness for gardening. (4) development in the city.
Q.3 Damage to the building due to terrace gardens can be minimised by
(1) reducing variations in weather (2) selecting plants and planting medium with card
(3) reducing the planted area on the terrace (4) accepting the challenges
Q.4 Plants in a terrace garden need to be protected from
(1) leaking of water and seepage.(2) poor material used for roofing.
(3) shades of different colours. (4) harsh sunlight and strong wind.
Q.5 The passage primarily deals with
(1) pleasures of having a terrace garden. (2) importance of keeping a terrace garden.
(3) maintenance of a terrace garden. (4) problems of garden lovers.
Q.6-10 Read the passage given below and answer the questions based on it.
Understanding Pain Pleasure and pain are inseparable facets of human existence. While the experience
of our well-being is rather vague and intangible, the experience of pain is real, and affects our body, mind
and spirit, alterning our lives in more ways than on. Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional expe-
rience caused by tissue damage that results from physical trauma, burns, illness, injury or surgery.
Despite the agony caused by pain, it is essential for our survival. If you don’t feel pain, you could cause
great harm to your body by inadvertently touching a hot iron or jamming your finger in the drawer and not
even know it. Or you could rupture the appendix and be unaware of what was going on inside your body.
Pain rings an alarm bell, alerting you to pay immediate attention and take quick action.
Have you ever wondered why a severely wounded soldier continues to battle on so defiantly or an athlete
inured during a race goes on to win it? It happens so because the brain does not react immediately to the
pain signals, the sufferer just ignores them because there are more important tasks to attend to. The pain
registers only after the task or event is over. The perception of pain has been studied extensively by
psychologists who suggest that there is a “gating system” in the central nervous system that opens and
closes to let pain pass through to the brain or block it. Psychological factors such as attention to pain,
emotional state of a person, anticipation of pain and the way that a person interprets a situation can both
open and close the “gates”. This is why when you are depressed or anxious your pain seems worse and
intolerable-because your feelings can open the pain gate.

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Q.6 The statement ‘Pleasure and pain the inseparable facets of human existence,’ may be replaced with-
(1) All human beings experience pleasure and pain together.
(2) Both pleasure and pain are two sides of the same coin.
(3) Pleasure and pain may be a part of an individual’s life.
(4) Human beings experience both pleasure and pain in their lives.
Q.7 Pain is important for our survival as it
(1) makes other people attend to us. (2) makes us scream if we suffer an injury.
(3) informs us if we have an internal injury. (4) alerts us to take action promptly.
Q.8 Sometimes people carry on despite suffering an injury as
(1) they cannot notice the pain.
(2) being involved in a crucial task, they ignore the pain signals.
(3) they feel pleasure more acutely than the pain signals.
(4) pain, being an unpleasant feeling, is ignored by them.
Q.9 A person who is depressed or anxious may feel pain more acutely as unhappiness
(1) blocks the pain gate. (2) diverts our mind away from pain.
(3) makes our feelings intolerable. (4) makes pain seem worse.
Q.10 The ‘gating system’ in the passage refers to
(1) a device that controls the sensation of pain. (2) psychological factors which contribute to pain.
(3) a person’s interpretation of a situation. (4) feelings of anxiety or depression.
Q.11-15 Read the following passage and answer the questions based on it.
Persuasion is the art of convincing someone to agree with your point of view. According to the ancient
Greek philosopher Aristotle, there are three basic tools of persuasion: ethos, pathos, and logos.
Ethos is a speaker’s way of convincing the audience that he is a credible source. The audience will
consider a speaker credible if he seems trustworthy, reliable, and sincere. This can be done in may ways.
For example, a speaker can develop ethos by explaining how much experience or education he has in the
field. After all, you would be more likely to listen to advice about how to take care of your teeth from a
dentist than a firefighter.
Pathos is a speaker’s way of connecting with an audience’s emotions. For example a speaker who is
trying to convince an audience to vote for him might say that he alone can save the country from a terrible
war. These words are intended to fill the audience with fear, thus making them want to vote for him.
Similarly, a charity organization that helps animals might show an audience pictures of injured dogs and
cats. These images are intended to fill the viewers with pity.
Logos is the use of facts, information, statistics, or other evidence to make your argument more convinc-
ing. An audience will be more likely to believe you if you have date to back up your claims. For example,
a commercial for a soap might tell you that laboratory tests have shown that their soap kill at 7,000,000
of the bacteria living on your hands right now. This piece of information might make you more likely to buy
their brand of soap. Use of logos can also increase a speaker’s ethos; the more facts a speaker includes
in his argument, the more likely you are to think that he is educated and trustworthy.
Although ethos, pathos, and logos all have their strengths, they are often most effective when they are
used together. Indeed, most speakers use a combination of ethos, pathos and logos to persuade their
audience.

Q.11 The main idea of the passages is to
(1) describe the virtues of sincerity and reliability in persuasion.
(2) explain the elements of persuasion.
(3) show the persuasion is an ancient Greek art.
(4) illustrate how data-based arguments are convincing.

Q.12 Lavina is trying to convince her mother to buy her a pair of shoes for Rs. 1,200. She says, “Mom, the
shoes I have are really old and ugly. If I don’t get these new shoes, everyone at school is going to laugh
at me. I will be so embarrassed that I will want to die.” What form of persuasion is Lavina using here?
(1) pathos (2) ethos (3) logos and ethos (4) pathos and logos

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Q.13 According to the passage, logos can build ethos because
(1) an audience is more easily convinced by facts and information than simple appeals to emotions like
pity or fear
(2) an audience is more likely to trust a speaker who uses evidence to support his argument.
(3) a speaker who overuses pathos might make an audience too emotional; audiences who are too
frightened or too sad are unlikely to be persuaded.
(4) a speaker can use misleading or false information to make his argument seem more convicing.

Q.14 Chandralekha is contesting for a mayor’s post. She tells her audience, “Under our current may or, there
have been 15,000 new cases of unemployment. If she stays in office, who knows how many more people
will lose their jobs? The number could go up even higher. When I was the CEO of XYZ company, I helped
to create over 1,000 new jobs. I can do the same thing for this city if you vote for me.” Chandralekha’s
strategy is to ______.
(1) gain trust by giving facts and appealing to voter’s emotions.
(2) show her sincerity and thereby win the audience’s approval.
(3) present a correct factual picture which will appeal the workers.
(4) target audiences’ emotions and feelings by creating a sense of fear.

Q.15 Use of facts and statistics in an argument
(1) makes the speaker responsible and virtuous.
(2) provides emotional appeal.
(3) generates fear any pity.
(4) makes the points convincing.

Q.16-17 The following five sentences come from a single paragraph. The first and the last sentences are
given. Choose the right order in which the sentences (PQR) should appear to complete the
paragraph.

Q.16 S1 The Indian carpet industry is highly labour intensive and almost entirely export-oriented.
S2 _______________________________________________________________________
S3 _______________________________________________________________________
S4 _______________________________________________________________________
S5 While Persian weavers commonly depict animals such as lions and tigers, Indian weavers more often
represent birds.
P – The carpet industry in India adopted classical designs, almost all of Persian origin.
Q – The present tradition of pile carpet–weaving goes back to the 16th century when skilled craftsmen
from Persia and Afghanistan migrated to India under the patronage extended by the Mughal rulers.
R – However, some patterns, commonly incorporated, were of Indian or Chinese origin.
Choose form the options given below
(1) RPQ (2) PQR (3) QPR (4) RQP

Q.17 S1 Activities give students an opportunity to express themselves in group work, to act as leaders and
members of teams.
S2 _______________________________________________________________________
S3 _______________________________________________________________________
S4 _______________________________________________________________________
S5 For these reasons, every student should participate in at least on co-curricular programme.
P – Because when they participate in discussions, they become less self-conscious, more confident of
their own abilities and ideas.
Q – And they find a great deal of satisfaction in doing their jobs well, and all of this is serving its purpose
in preparing them for assuming responsibility in adult life.
R – Moreover, students enjoy working on projects, such as decorating for dances or working on social
campaigns.
Choose form the options given below
(1) RPQ (2) QRP (3) PRQ (4) RQP

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Q.18-19 The following questions have the second sentence missing. Choose the appropriate sentence
from the given options to complete it.

Q.18 A. The local market is a place for social interaction for people of that area.
B. _______________________________________________________________________
C. Without these markets, life could be dull and boring.
(1) They are noisy, crowded and sometimes full of litter
(2) Vendors occupy even the pavements and corridors.
(3) They offer an opportunity to exchange ad greeting with a friend or a neighbour.
(4) These markets have a limited variety and range of items.

Q.19 A. Parachuting from an airplane for the first time feels like falling out of a tree.
B. _______________________________________________________________________
C. The main difference is that the jumper at least is prepared for the sensation and knows what to do.
(1) It is an activity involving a preplanned drop from a height using an aerial platform
(2) It is becoming a popular activity amongst adventure enthusiasts.
(3) One type of parachuting is skydiving parachute.
(4) You feel the same rush of wind, the same flip of stomach, the same sudden fear.

Q.20-29 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option from given alternatives.

Q.20 They received a lot of _______ publicity about the changes.
(1) adverse (2) averse (3) addictive (4) adorable

Q.21 Man-drawn rickshaws were replaced by cycle-rickshaws as rickshaw-pulling came to be seen as a
________ occupation.
(1) depressing (2) degrading (3) desperate (4) deterioration

Q.22 This movie on education has been ____________ the best children’s movie of the year.
(1) priced (2) valued (3) examined (4) rated

Q.23 The Republic of South Africa, with its ____________ reserves of gold and diamonds is the richest country
in Africa.
(1) abundant (2) profuse (3) lavish (4) excessive

Q.24 The judge gave his ____________ decision after listening to both the parties.
(1) thoughtful (2) faithful (3) impartial (4) impartial

Q.25 A rail accident occurred yesterday at 4.30 a.m. when a goods train ____________ with a mail train at
Rahia Mandi near Biasa.
(1) collided (2) hit (3) crashed (4) struck

Q.26 Dieticians are of the ____________ that milk is beneficial for children because it contains calcium,
protein and vitamin A.
(1) ideas (2) thought (3) opinion (4) views

Q.27 Radioactive nuclear waste is often stored in underground tanks or scaled in containers and dropped into
deep ocean trenches ____________, both methods may lead to environmental pollution.
(1) Although (2) Because (3) On the one hand (4) However

Q.28 Humayun’s Tomb is closed to the public for a few months as some ____________ work is going on.
(1) reservation (2) rejuvenation (3) restoration (4) recreation

Q.29 ____________ an accident takes place, injured persons are carried I an ambulance which has a siren to
make its way to the hospital where the doctors and nurses lake care of the injured immediately.
(1) As (2) When (3) How (4) While

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Q.30-35 Select the meaning of the underlined phrases/idioms.

Q.30 I could not make head or tail of what he was telling me.
(1) hear (2) make sense (3) agree with (4) argue over

Q.31 Sheela got the wrong end of the stick.
(1) was unfairly accused of something (2) took something by mistake
(3) misunderstood something (4) got the answer correct

Q.32 I wonder what’s wrong with them; they are out to lunch these days.
(1) absent from work (2) behaving in a strange way
(3) not found usually (4) always quarrelling

Q.33 He tried to put a spoke in their wheel.
(1) complete their plane (2) to cause an accident
(3) help in the execution of their plan (4) thwart the execution of their plan

Q.34 She got hot under the collar when she was teased by her friends.
(1) felt naserable (2) felt unhappy (3) got into a fight (4) got angry

Q.35 He should be made to toe the line.
(1) behave correctly (2) walk properly (3) follow the queue (4) wait until further orders

Q.36-43 In the following passage there are some numbered blanks.
Fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given options.

Udaipur’s romantic landscape and its beautiful monuments appeal to travelers from allover the world.
With its (36) ____________ waters, gently gliding (37) ____________, and graceful havelis, Udaipur (38)
____________ a delicate water-colour painting.
It originally (39) ____________ on the banks of the lovely Lake Pichola, (40) ____________ continues to
dominate the south (41) ____________ the City Palace (42) ____________ the Fort that rises from its
(43) ____________ in breathtaking splendour.

Q.36 (1) turbulent (2) placid (3) aquatic (4) cascading

Q.37 (1) boats (2) flowers (3) flora (4) coral

Q.38 (1) breathes like (2) perceives like (3) treats like (4) looks like

Q.39 (1) emerged (2) appeared (3) developed (4) built

Q.40 (1) which (2) where (3) while (4) who

Q.41 (1) off (2) in (3) of (4) at

Q.42 (1) as (2) where (3) near (4) and

Q.43 (1) fringe (2) edge (3) rim (4) border

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(Q.44 to Q.47) Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives.

Q.44 Advertising is a close _____________ of market economy as it boosts economy by encouraging buying.
Yet it is an unpleasant feature of modern life.
(1) companion (2) assistant (3) attendant (4) enemy

Q.45 During the Gulf War, a few back, tens of thousands of sea birds were killed due to oil _____________. Do
you know what makes crude oil on ocean water so deadly?
(1) split (2) fall (3) falling (4) spills

Q.46 In spite of his fantastic English, for some reason Arun couldn’t _____________
(1) make his understandable (2) have understood oneself
(3) make him to understand (4) make himself understood

Q.47 The patient was suffering from _____________ attacks of headache.
(1) periodical (2) period (3) periodic (4) periodically

(Q.48 to Q.50) Choose the antonym of the underlined word from the four alternatives given.

Q.48 Some regions were unapproachable to the Romans.
(1) casual (2) accessible (3) unattainable (4) impenetrable

Q.49 The media was biased in its news coverage.
(1) incline (2) unfair (3) impartial (4) imperial

Q.50 The expenditure on library books has been curtailed by the school authorities.
(1) increased (2) limited (3) penalized (4) expanded

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Roll No. 2 3 4 0 6 NTSE 16_SAT

National Talent Search Examination, 2016
(For student Studying in Class-10)

Scholastic Aptitude Test

Time : 90 minutes Max. Marks : 100

Instructions to Candidates

Read These instructions very carefully before attempting questions

1. Please write your Roll No. as given on your Admission Card very clearly (only one digit in one box) Please
see that no box is left unfilled even zeroes appearing in the Roll No. are correctly transferred to the
appropriate boxes on the booklet and the Answer Sheet.

Example : For N.T.S.E.

2 3 4 0 6 0 4 0 3 2 1 5

2. There are 100 questions in this paper Each question is to be answered.
NTSE STAGE_II SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)-2016

Q.1 Suppose a mutant of a photosynthetic alga has dysfunctional mitochondria. It would affect its ability to
perform –
(1) glycolysis (2) anascrobic respiration
(3) aerobic respiration (4) photosynthesis

Q.2 Cow has a special stomach as compared to that of lion in order to –
(1) absorb food in better manner (2) digest cellulose present in the food
(3) assimilate food in a better way (4) absorb large amount of water

Q.3 When touched, the leaflets of Touch-me-not plant are closed. Closing of leaflets starts form the point of
contact to the leaflets away. The leaflets are closed due to –
(1) changer in turgor pressure (2) speciliazed proteins
(3) growth hormone retardation (4) capillary action

Q.4 Pancreas is composed of -
(1) Only exocrine cells (2) Only endocrine cells
(3) Both (4) Nephron

Q.5 The human embryo gets nutrition form the mother blood with the help of a special organ called –
(1) Zygote (2) Ovary (3) Oviduct (4) Placenta

Q.6 Hormones produced in one part of the organism reach the distantly located target via –
(1) muscles (2) bone (3) cartilage (4) blood

Q.7 Which of the following are characteristic features of cells of meristematic tissue ?
(1) Actively dividing cells with dense cytoplasm, thick cell all and prominent nuclei
(2) Actively dividing cells with dense cytoplasm, thin cell wall and no vacuoles
(3) Actively dividing cells with little cytoplasm, thin cell wall and prominent nuclei
(4) Actively dividing cells with thin cytoplasm, then cell wall and no vacuoles

Q.8 Which one of the following animals is different from others is not having the parried gill pouches ?
(1) Whale (2) Water snake (3) Star fish (4) Sea horse

Q.9 In the symbiotic relationship between a bacterium and a root of legume the –
(1) bacteria provide N2 and the plant roots provide Carbon
(2) Roots provide NH4 and bacterial provide Carbon
(3) Bacteria provide NH4 and the roots provide Carbon
(4) Bacteria provide N2 and the roots provide NH4

Q.10 Which of the following is a result of biological magnification ?
(1) Top level predators may be most harmed by toxic chemicals in environment
(2) Increase in carbon dioxide
(3) The green-house effect will be most significant at the poles
(4) Energy is lost at each tropic level of a food chain

Q.11 Which one of the following signifies ex-situ conservation ?
(1) National parks and Biosphere reserves
(2) Wild animals in their natural habitats
(3) Inhabitants of natural ecosystems
(4) Conservation methods practiced in Zoo and Botanical garden

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Q.12 What is the main reason for increase in temperature in a glass house ?
(1) Sunlight is completely absorbed by plants in the glass house
(2) Radiation fails to escape from the glass house completely
(3) Plants do not utilize sunlight in a glass house
(4) Plants produce heat inside the glass house

Q.13 Match the items in column I with those in column II, and select the correct choice.
Column-I Column-II
A. Smalls pox I. Bacteria
B. Cholera II. Virus
C. Malaria III. Deficiency of minerals
D. Anaemia IV. Female mosquito

(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Q.14 In the experiment conducted by Mendel, RRyy (round, green) and rrYY (wrinkled, yellow) seeds of pea
plant were used. In the F2 generation 240 progeny were produced, out of which 15 progeny had specific charac-
teristics. What were the characteristics ?
(1) Round and green (2) Round and yellow
(3) Wrinkle and yellow (4) Wrinkle and green

Q.15 Total number of neutrons in five moles of water molecule is –
(1) 3.011 × 1021 (2) 2.409 × 1025 (3) 3.111 × 1025 (4) 2.711 × 1025

Q.16 The metal used to recover copper from an aqueous solution of copper sulphate is -
(1) Na (2) Ag (3) Hg (4) Fe

Q.17 Four substances were thoroughly mixed with water separately to obtain mixtures A, B, C and D. Some of
their properties are given below :
I. Path of a beam of light passing through it was visible in A, B and D but invisible in C.
II. On leaving undisturbed, the particles of the substance settle down in A but not in B, C and D.
III. The solute particles are visible to naked eye in A but invisible in B, C and D
Which of the following is correct about A, B, C and D ?
(1) A, B and D are colloids. C is a solution
(2) A is a suspension. B and D are colloids. C is a solution
(3) A is a colloid. B, C and D are solutions
(4) A is a suspension. B, C and D are colloids

Q.18 Assertion (A) : Aluminum foil cannot be used in -particle scattering experiment.
Reason (R) : Aluminum highly malleable metal.
(1) Both A and R are correct. R is the correct reason for A
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A.
(3) A is correct and R is incorrect
(4) A is incorrect and R is correct.

Q.19 Magnesium ribbon is rubbed with sand paper before making to burn. The reason of rubbing the ribbon is to
(1) Remove moisture condensed over the surface of ribbon
(2) Generate heat due to exothermic reaction
(3) Remove magnesium oxide formed over the surface of magnesium
(4) Mix silicon from sand paper (silicon dioxide) with magnesium for lowering ignition temperature of the
ribbon

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Q.20 The reaction that differs from the rest of the reactions given is –
(1) formation of calcium oxide form limestone
(2) Formation of aluminum from aluminum oxide
(3) Formation of sodium carbonate forum sodium hydrogen carbonate
(4) Formation of mercury from mercuric oxide

Q.21 An element X reacts with dilute. H2SO4as well as with NaoH to produce salt and H2(g)./ Hence, it may be
concluded that –
I. X is an electropositive element
II. oxide of X is basic in nature
III. oxide of X is acidic in nature
IV. X is an electronegative element
(1) I, II, III (2) IV, I, II (3) III, IV, I (4) II, III, IV

Q.22 An element X has electronic configuration 2, 8, 1 and another element Y has electronic configuration 2, 8,
7. They form a compound Z. The property that is not exhibited by Z is –
(1) It has high melting point
(2) It is a good conductor of electricity in its pure solid state
(3) It breaks into pieces when beaten with hammer
(4) It is soluble in water

Q.23 The compound containing both ionic and covalent bond is –
(1) AlBr3 (2) CaO (3) MgCl2 (4) NH4Cl

Q.24 The element that cannot be used as a reducing agent is –
(1) carbon (2) aluminum (3) sulphur (4) sodium

Q.25 Somebody wanted to calculate the number of moles of oxygen atoms comprising of 9.033 × 1023 numb er
of its atoms. The person further thought to calculate its mass and to find the number of moles of hydrogen
atoms required to combined completely with this amount of oxygen to form water.
The number of moles of oxygen atoms, their mass (in grams) and the number of moles of hydrogen atoms
are -
(1) 1.5, 3 and 24 respectively (2) 15, 18 and 3 respectively
(3) 0.15, 27, 3 respectively (4) 1.5,2 5 and 3 respectively

Q.26 The molecular formula of carbonxylic acid that differs from the rest is -
(1) C13H20O2 (2) C2H2O2 (3) C9H18O2 (4) C7H12O2

Q.27 Foam of soap always appears white as –
(1) it contains large hydrocarbon chains
(2) it absorbs red portion of the visible light
(3) it reflects light of all wavelengths
(4) it has one hydrophobic end, which is insoluble in water

Q.28 In a neon gas discharge tube, every second 4.8 × 1018 Nc+ ions move towards the right trough a cross-
section of the tube, while ‘n’ electrons move to the left in the same time. If the current in the tube is 1.12.
Amperes towards the right, n is equal to (given e = 1.6 × 10–19 coulomb)
(1) 1.8 × 1018 (2) 2.2 × 1018 (3) 2.4 × 1019 (4) 2.8 × 1919

Q.29 Four situations are given below :
I. An infinitely long wire carrying current
II. A rectangular loop carrying current
III. A solenoid of finite length carrying current
IV. A circular loop carrying current
In which of the above cases will the magnetic field produced be like that of a bar magnet ?
(1) I (2) I and III (3) Only III (4) Only IV

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Q.30 In the circuit diagram shown below. VA and VB are the potentials at points A and B respectively. Then, VA – VB is

(1) –10V (2) –20V (3) 0V (4) 10 V

Q.31 Assertion (A) : Motion of a charged particle under the action of a magnetic frilled alone is always with
constant speed.
Reason (R) : The magnetic force does not have an y component either along or opposite to the direction
of motion of the charged particles.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is a true statement, but reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

Q.32 When a charged particle passes through an electric field, which among the following properties change ?
I. mass
II. charge
III. velocity
IV. momentum
(1) II & III (2) Only III (3) III & IV (4) I, III & IV

Q.33 A ray of light in air is incident on an equilateral glass prism at an angle i to the normal. After refraction, the
light raveled parallel to the base of primes and emerged in air at an angle e to the normal. If the angle
between the incident and the emergent ray is 60º, then the refractive index of glass with respect to air is –
(1) 1.33 (2) 1.5 (3) 1.73 (4) 1.66

Q.34 You are standing on the shore of a lake. You spot a fish swimming below the lake surface. You want to kill
the fish first by throwing a spear and next, by pointing a high-power laser torch. How should you aim the
spear and torch, respectively, from the options given below :
I. above the apparent position of the fish
II. below the apparent position of the fish
III. directly at the apparent position of the fish
(1) SPEAR : II ; LASER : III
(2) SPEAR : I ; LASER : II
(3) SPEAR : II ; LASER : II
(4) SPEAR : III ; LASER : III

Q.35 A beam of light coming from a rarer medium is partially reflected form the surface of a denser medium
and partially refracted into the denser medium. If the reflected and the refracted rays are perpendicular
to each other and the ratio of the refractive indices of denser and rarer medium is 3 . The angle of refrac-
tion will be -
(1) 60º (2) 30º (3) 45º (4) 41.5º

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Q.36 A person can see clearly on the objects situated in the range 50 cm to 300 cm. He went to an Optometrist who
prescribed him a lens of certain power to increase the maximum distance of his vision to infinity. i.e., it cor-
rected the near-sightedness. However, upon using the prescribed lens the person discovered that the near point
of his vision has shifted from 50 cm to a distance “d”. What is the value of d ?
(1) 60 cm (2) 100 cm (3) 40 cm (4) 500 cm

Q.37 A ball of mass m is thrown from a height h with a speed v. For what initial direction of the bal will its speed
on hitting the ground be maximum ?
(1) horizontally
(2) vertically downwards
(3) at an angle of 45º from the vertical in the downward direction
(4) speed does not depend on the direction in which the ball is thrown

Q.38 A beaker is filled with two non-mixing liquids. The lower liquid has density twice that of the upper one. A
cylinder of height h floats with one-fourth of its height submerged in the lower liquid and half of its height
submerged in the upper liquid. Another beaker is filled with the denser of the two liquids alone. If the same
cylinder is kept in the second beaker, the height of the submerged position would be –
3h h h
(1) h (2) (3) (4)
4 2 4

Q.39 A spring-loaded toy sits at rest on horizontal frictionless surface. When the spring releases, the toy breaks
into three equal-mass pieces A, B and C, which slide along the surface. Piece A moves off in the negative
x-direction, while piece B moves off in the negative y-direction. Which of the three pieces is moving the
fastest ?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) They move with identical speeds

Q.40 A truck and a car of masses m1 and m2 respectively are moving with equal kinetic energy. Equal stopping
forces are applied and they come to a halt after traveling further distances x1 and x2 respectively. Then –
x1 m1
(1) x1 = x2 (2) =
x2 m2

x1 m1 x1 m2
(3) = (4) =
x2 m2 x2 m1

Q.41 On dividing a natural number by 13, the remainder is 3 and on dividing the same number by 21, the
remainder is 11. If the number lies between 500 and 600, then the remainder on dividing the number by 19
is
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 13

Q.42 Expressing 0.34  0.34 as a single decimal, we get
(1) 0.6788 (2) 0.689 (3) 0.6878 (4) 0.687

Q.43 If the value of quadratic polynomial p(x) is 0 only at x = –1 and p(–2) = 2 then the value of p(2) is
(1) 18 (2) 9 (3) 6 (4) 3

Q.44 The graphs of the equations x –y = 2 and kx + y = 3, where k is a constant, intersect at the point (x, y) in
the first quadrant, if and only if k is
3 3
(1) equal to –1 (2) greater than –1 (3) less than (4) lying between –1 and
2 2

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Q.45 If  and  are the roots of the quadratic equation x2 – 6x –2 = 0 and if an = n – n, then the value of
a 10  2a 8
2a 9
(1) 6.0 (2) 5.2 (3) 5.0 (4) 3.0

Q.46 If S1, S2, S3 …. S, are the sums of first n terms of r arithmetic progressions whose first terms are 1, 2, 3,
…. and whose common differences are 1, 3, 5, …….. respectively, then the value of S1 + S2 + S3 + …… + S,
is
nr  1nr  1 nr  1nr nr  1nr n nr  1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2 2 2

Q.47 A person walks towards a tower. Initially when he starts, angle of elevation of the top of the tower is 30º.
On traveling 20 metres towards the tower, the angle changes to 60º. How much more has he to travel to
reach the tower?
10
(1) 10 3 metres (2) 10 metres (3) 20 metres (4) metres
3

Q.48 If cosec x – sin x = a and secx – cosx = b, then

   ab     a b 
2 2 2 2
2 2
(1) a 2 b 3 2 3
1 (2) ab 2 3 2 2 3
 1 (3) a + b = 1 (4) b2 – a2 = 1

Q.49 A calf is tied with a rope of length 12m at a corner of a rectangular field of dimensions 35m × 25m. If the
length of the rope is increased to 23m, then the additional grassy area in which the calf can graze is :
22
(Take  = )
7
(1) 280.0 m2 (2) 300.0 m2 (3) 302.5 m2 (4) 312.5 m2

Q.50 If Anish is moving along the boundary of a triangular field of sides 35, 53m and 66m and you are
moving along the boundary of a circular field whose area is double the area of the triangular field, then
22
the radius of the circular field is : (Take  = )
7
(1) 14 3m (2) 3 14 m (3) 28 3m (4) 7 3m

Q.51 A circular metallic sheet is divided into two parts in such a way that each part can be folded in to a cone.
If the ratio of their curved surface areas is 1 : 2, then the ratio of their volumes is
(1) 1: 8 (2) 1 : 6 (3) 1 10 (4) 2 : 3

Q.52 A solid metallic block of volume one cubic metre is melted and recast into the form of a rectangular bar of
length 9 metres having a square base. If the weight of the block is 90 kg and a biggest cube is cut off from
the bar, then the weight of the cube is
1 2 2 1
(1) 6 kg (2) 5 kg (3) 4 kg (4) 3 kg
3 3 3 3

Q.53 Two circles with centres P and R touch each other exernally at O. A line passing through O cuts the circles
at T and S respectively. Then,
(1) PT and RS are equal length (2) PT and RS are perpendicular to each other
(3) PT and RS are intersecting (4) PT and RS are parallel

Q.54 If in triangle ABC, D is the mid-point of side BC, ADB = 45º and ACD = 30º, then BAD and ABC are
respectively equal to
(1) 15º, 105º (2) 30º, 105º (3) 30º, 100º (4) 60º, 100º
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Q.55 Three circles with radii R1, R2 and r tough each other externally as shown in the adjoining figure. If PQ is their
common tangent and R1 > R2, then which of the following relations is correct?

P
R1
r
Q

R2

1 1 1 1 1 1
(1) R1 – R2 = r (2) R1 + R2 = 2r (3)   (4)  
R1 R 2 r R1 R2 r

Q.56 ABC is a triangle in which AB = 4cm, BC = 5cm and AC = 6cm. A circle is drawn to touch side BC at P, side AB
extended at Q and side AC extended at R. Then AQ equals.
(1)7.0 cm (2)7.5 cm (3) 6.5 cm (4) 15.0 cm

Q.57 The centre of the circle passing through the points (6, –6), (3, 3) is
(1) (3, 2) (2) (–3, –2) (3) (3, –2) (4) (–3, 2)

Q.58 If the line segment joining (2, 3) and (–1, 2) is divided internally in the ratio 3 : 4 by the graph of the equation
x + 2y = k , the value of k is
5 31 36 41
(1) (2) (3) (4)
7 7 7 7

Q.59 The mean of three positive numbers is 10 more than the smallest of the numbers and 15 less than the largest of
the three. If the median of the three numbers is 5, then the mean of squares of the numbers is
2 2 2 2
(1) 108 (2) 116 (3) 208 (4) 216
3 3 3 3

Q.60 Three dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability of getting at total of at least 5 of the numbers appearing
on their tops is
5 7 49 53
(1) (2) (3) (4)
54 54 54 54
Q.61 Match the following

A. Livre I. A tax levied by the Church
B. Manor II. An estate of Lord ' s lands and his mansions
C. Tithe III. Tax to be paid directly to the State
D. Taille IV. Unit of currency

(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-III (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

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Q.62 Assertion (A) : After the 1905 revolution in Russia, Duma or the first elected consultative Parliament came
into existence.
Reason (R) : The power of Tsar was curbed by it
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true and R is false
(4) A is false and R is true

Q.63 Arrange in correct chronological order
I. Dawes Plan II. Crashing of the Wall Street Exchange
III. Birth of Weimar Republic IV. Creation of Gestapo (Secret State Police)
(1) I, II, III, IV (2) III, II, I, IV (3) IV, II, III, I (4) III, I, II, IV

Q.64 Assertion (A) : Cricket as a game has a long and strong rural connection.
Reason (R) : The time limit of a match and vagueness about the size of Cricket ground is a result of the
rhythms of village life.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true and R is false
(4) A is false and R is true

Q.65 Assertion (A) : In the 17th and 18th Century merchants from the towns in Europe started financing
peasants and artisans in the country side for production for them.
Reason (R) : In the urban centres powerful crafts and trade guilds with monopoly rights restricted the
entry of new people into the trade.
(1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation of A
(2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is True and R is False
(4) A is False and R is True

Q.66 Assertion (A) : Colonial Forest Act changed the lives of villagers across the country.
Reason (R) : Now the villagers could comfortably make use of the forest resources for everyday needs.
(1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation of A
(2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is True and R is False
(4) A is False and R is True

Q.67 Arrange the following events of nineteenth century Europe in ascending order.
I. Unification of Germany
II. Beginning of Greek struggle for independence
III. Unification of Italy
IV. Vienna Peace Settlement
(1) III, I, II, IV (2) IV, II, III, I (3) I, III, IV, II (4) IV, III, I, II

Q.68 Arrange the following events descending order with regard Nationalist Movement in Indo-China.
I. Creation of Indo-China union
II. Formation of Communist Party in Vietnam
III. Paris Peace Treaty
IV. Declaration of independence by Ho Chi Minh
(1) III, IV, II, I (2) III, IV, I, II (3) I, II, III, IV (4) I, II, IV, III

Q.69 Find out the correct statements with regards to Rowlatt Act.
I. The Rowlatt Act was passed in 1919
II. The Act was passed by Imperial Legislative Council
III. The Act allowed detention of Political prisoners without trial of three years.
IV. Protests against the Act led to Jallianwalla Bagh massacre in April 1920.
(1) Only II and III are correct (2) Only I and III are correct
(3) Only III and IV are correct (4) Only I and II are correct

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Q.70 Assertion (A) : Population growth from the late eighteenth century increased the demand for food grains in
Britain.
Reason (R) : ‘Corn Laws’ introduced by the government helped in reducing the food prices.
(1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation of A
(2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is True and R is False
(4) A is False and R is True

Q.71 Match the following
A. Gallery I. Old Name of Tokyo
B. Edo II. Contained six sheets of text and w ood cut illustrations
C. Vellum III. Metal Frame in w hich types are laid and the text composed
D. Diamond Sutra IV. A parchment made from skin of animals
(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Q.72 Given below are statements regarding the course of development of Socialism in Europe. Arrange them in
chronological sequence.
I. Socialists took over the government in Russia through the October Revolution.
II. Socialists and trade unionists formed a labour party in Britain and Socialist party in France.
III. The Russian Social Democratic Worker’s Party was founded by Socialists who respected Marx’s
ideas.
IV. Socialists could not succeed in forming a government in Europe and governments continued to be run
by conservatives, liberals and radicals.
V. Second International was formed to coordinate the efforts of socialists throughout Europe.
(1) V, III, II, IV, I (2) I, II, III, IV, V (3) V, II, III, I, IV (4) IV, V, III, I, II

Q.73 Hitler’s ideology related to the geopolitical concept of Lebensraum, or living space implied:
(1) There was no equality between people, but only a racial hierarchy
(2) Only those species survived on earth that could adapt themselves to changing climatic conditions
(3) New territories had to be acquired for settlement to increase the area of the mother country
(4) An exclusive racial community of pure Germans to be created by physically elimination all those who
were seen as undesirable.

Q.74 During the mid-eighteenth century
Assertion (A) : Indian spinners and weaves were left without work and important centres of textile
declined
Reason (R) : Large number of people began boycotting British cloth and started adopting khadi.
(1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation of A
(2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is True and R is False
(4) A is False and R is True

Q.75 Assertion (A) : Mahatma Gandhi called off the Civil Disobedience Movement and entered into a Pact with
Irwin in 1931.
Reason (R) : Industrial workers in Sholapur attacked structures that symbolized British rule.
(1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation of A
(2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is True and R is False
(4) A is False and R is True

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Q.76 Assertion (A) : The latitudinal extent influences the duration of day and night, as one moves from south to
north of India
Reason (R) : From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh there is a time lag of two hours.
(1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation of A
(2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is True and R is False
(4) A is False and R is True

Q.77 Assertion (A) : Kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of India and harvested in
September October.
Reason (R): Availability of precipitation due to the western temperate cylcones helps in growing of these
crops.
(1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation of A
(2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is True and R is False
(4) A is False and R is True

Q.78 Arrange the shaded states shown on the map of India in descending order of population density and select the
right code.
(1) II, I, IV, III

(2) I, II, III, IV

(3) I, II, IV, III

(4) I, IV, II, III

Q.79 Which of the following figure is showing the correct direction of movement of the South American Plate?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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Q.80 Based on the data (elevation and latitude) provided below which of the following tourist centers is most prob-
ably indicated?
Elevation : 3500 meters
Latitude : 34°N
(1) Shillong (2) Mussoorie (3) Kodaikanal (4) Leh

Q.81 Keeping in mind the location of the following sanctuaries/national park of India, arrange them from south to
north:
I. Periyar, II. Dachigam, III. Sariska, IV. Kanha
(1) I, IV, II, III (2) III, I, IV, II (3) IV, I, III, II (4) I, IV, III, II

Q.82 Match list I (Revolution) with list II (Area) and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

List I (Revolution) List II (Are a)
A. Blue I. Dairy development
B. Green II. Fisheries development
C. White III. Food production
D. Yellow IV. Silk production
(1) A-II, B-III, C-VI, D-I (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Q.83 Assertion (A) : The availability of water resources varies over space and time in India.
Reason (R) : Water availability is governed by variations in seasonal and annual precipitation although water
scarcity is aggravated by over –exploitation and unequal access to water among different social groups.
(1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation of A
(2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is True and R is False
(4) A is False and R is True

Q.84 Match list I (Type of Resource) with list II (Basis of Classification) and select the codes given below:

List I (Type of Resource s) List II (Basis of Classification)
A. Biotic and abiotic I. Stauts of development
B. Renew able and non-renew able II. Origin
C. Individual, community,national and international III. Ow nership
D. Potential, developed, stock and reserves IV. Exhaustibility

(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Q.85 Which one of the following is the correct order of rivers from north to south ?
(1) Ravi, Chenab, Jhelum, Indus (2) Indus, Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi
(3) Jhelum, Indus, Ravi, Chenab (4) Chenab, Ravi, Indus, Jhelum

Q.86 Match list I (National Highways of India) with list II (Description) and select the codes given below :

List I (National Highwasy of India) List II (Description )
A. Nationa Highw ay Number 1 I. Covers most of Rajasthan
B. National Highw ay Number 15 II. Know n as Sher Shah Suri Marg
C. National Highw ay Number 7 III. Connec ts Delhi
D. National Highw ay Number 8 IV. Is the longest National Highw ay
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
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Q.87 Which of the following statement is NOT true to the context of Mawsynram?
(1) It is considered as the wettest lace on the earth
(2) It ........ with stalagmits and ......
(3) It is located very close to Cherrapunji
(4) It is located very close to the Myanmar border

Q.88 Which one of the following facts about the shaded state shown below is incorrect?

(1) Terrace cultivation is widespread in the hill areas
(2) The state is a major producer of uranium
(3) Population density is well below the national average
(4) More than 80 per cent of the area has forest as the land cover

Q.89 The topic of Cancer passes through which of the following plateau?
(1) Only Malwa (2) Only Chotanagpur
(3) Only Maghalaya (4) Both malwa and Chotanagar

Q.90 Assertion (A) : The Coriolis force is responsible for deflecting winds towards the right in the northern hemi-
sphere and towards the left in the southern hemisphere.
Reason (R) : The pressure and wind system of any area depend on the latitude and altitude of the place.
(1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation of A
(2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is True and R is False
(4) A is False and R is True

Q.91 Which of the following arguments against prescribing educational qualification for elected representatives are
true ?
I. Educational qualification will deprive illiterate citizens of the right to contest elections.
II. Relevant qualification for being elected representatives is not education but ability to address people’s
problems.
III. Educated elected representatives keep distance from the common people.
IV. It is easier for the educated elected representatives to use power for personal gains.
V. It should be left to the voters to decide how much importance is to be given to educational qualification of
a candidate.
(1) I, II and IV only (2) I, III and V only (3) I, IV and V only (4) I, II and V only

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Q.92 Which of the following terms were inserted in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment
Act,
I. Integrity
II. Secular
III. Socialist
IV. Unity
(1) I, III and IV (2) II and III (3) I, II and III (4) I, II and IV

Q.93 Which of the following international institutions has a more democratic way of decision-making on matters of
global importance?
(1) General Assembly of the United Nations (2) International Monetary Fund
(3) Security Council of the United Nations (4) World Bank

Q.94 Which of the following factors have contributed to changes in the caste system?
I. Economic development
II. Language
III. Education
IV. Elections
V. Region
(1) I, III and IV (2) II, IV and V (3) II, III and IV (4) I, III and V

Q.95 Match list I with List II and select the answer using the codes given below.

List I List II
Supervises the overall functioning of all the political
A. I. The Supreme Court
institutions in the country
B. Distributed and redistributes work to the ministers II. The President
Ministers may have different views but have to own
C. III. The Prime Minister
up every decision
Determines the constitutionality of any contentious
D. IV. The cabinet
action

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Q.96 Calculate the female literacy rate from the given data

Gender Total persons Literate Pe rsons
Males 1200 1050
Females 580 340
Total 1780 1390

(1) 32.5 (2) 19.1 (3) 58.6 (4) 28.3

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Q.97 Which of these activities contributes to India’s national income?
I. Cooking at home
II. A teacher teaching his children at home
III. A doctor prescribing medicines in a clinic
IV. Cooking in a restaurant
(1) I and II (2) II and III (3) III and IV (4) I and IV

Q.98 In an imaginary economy the monetary value of contributions of primary sector, public sector, secondary sec-
tor and service sector are Rs 100, Rs 25, Rs 28 and Rs 77 respectively. The gross domestic product of the
economy is :
(1) Rs 100 (2) Rs 205 (3) Rs 153 (4) Rs 230

Q.99 Four families in a village, which has only a ration shop, have access to foodgrains as shown in the table.
Identify the families that lack food security .

Food Food Money available to Possessin
Family re quire m e grain each fam ily for g Ration
nt in k g price/k g bying food grains card
A 50 10 600 YES
B 30 10 330 NO
C 20 10 180 YES
D 40 10 400 YES

(1) A and B (2) B and C (3) C and D (4) D and A

Q.100 Robinson Crusoe goes to sea with a net for fishing. Classify the factors of production and choose the
appropriate option given below.

Item Classification
A. Know ledge of fishing I. Physical Capital
B. Net II. Labour
C. Sea III. Human Capital
D. Sw imming IV. Land

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

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NTSE STAGE-II (2013)
CLASS-X [MAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS
ANSWER KEY
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans 1 3 4 2 3 2 4 1 3 3 2 1 2 1 3
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans 2 3 1 4 4 1 3 1 4 1 2 1 4 1 3
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans 1 3 2 1 3 4 3 1 3 2 1 1 3 3 3
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans 2 4 2 4 1

S T U D E NT RST E D MS 26. long candle length  
–1 short candle length  s
–1
–1 
+1
in 1 hr long Candle burn =
5
2. –1
–1
–1 so in 2 hr long candle burn = 2
5

4. | |||| ... long candle left =  – 2 = 3
5 5

5. The no. in third column = No. in first column – s
In 1 hr short candle burn =
No. in second column 3.5
C3  C1– C2 2s
same in the rows So in 2 hr short candle burn =
3. 5
R3 = R1 – R2
2s 1. 5s
short candle left = s– =
8. Pythagorean Triplet 3.5 3.5
x 2 + y2 = z2 3  3. 5
s= 
5  1. 5
9. (79 + 65) 1/2 – (37 + 12)1/2
=5 7  5
s=  , so =
5 s 7
10. nn – n
27. Total toys = x
11. 3
n –n No. of dolls = x – 6
No. of car = x – 6
15. 3n + (–1)n No. of books = x – 6
ATQ
23. (625 + 104)1/3 – (115 + 101)1/3 = 3 x–6+x–6+x–6=x
3x – 18 = x
x=9

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30. No. of buffalos =x
No of cows = 2x 37. In every one match are person in eliminated so
x + 2x = 60 when 118 match is completed than 118 person
3x = 60 eliminated. So only two peron left and finally
x= 20 119 match in which one person is eliminate and
No of cows = 40 one wins.
No of buffalos = 20
As buffalo X is 17th 38. Sadhana < Ravi < Alka < Lata < Asha.
So 16 Animal ahead of x
out of which 9 are cows 39. First group  5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1  15
so 16 – 9 = 7 are buffalos Total match = 15 × 4 + 2 + 1 + 1 = 64
So no. of buffalos below
X = [20 – (7 + 1)] = 12 E B A C
46.
D

32.–36.

NTSE STAGE-II (2013)
LCT ANSWER KEY

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
4 3 3 1 4 3 2 2 4 1 3 2 4 4 1
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3 4 2 1 1 3 3 1 3 2 1 2 2 1 4
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
1 4 1 4 1 4 2 3 3 1 1 3 2 3 2
46 47 48 49 50
1 3 2 4 4

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NTSE STAGE-II (2013)
CLASS-X [SAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS
ANSWER KEY
Que s. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans D B D C A B B B C D B D B A C
Que s. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans D A D C A C A D B D C D C A B
Que s. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans D C C D A C A B C D D A C A C
Que s. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans B B D D B B C B B D B D C D C
Que s. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans C C C D A C A D B D B B D C D
Que s. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans C B D D B D A D A A A C D A B
Que s. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans D B D A B B D C B B

20. CaCO3 + mineral acidCO2 
Ca( OH)2
  CaCO3
15. Liquid A gives a more cooling sensation than liquid (Y)

B means liquid A is early vaporised than liquid B. (X) (X)
Thus, liquid A has less B P and lower latent heat of
vaporisation than that of liquid B.
Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 CaOCl2
(Y) (Z)Bleaching powder
A B C
16.
21. [A]CH3 –COOH + NH4OH CH3 – COONH4 + H2O
Soluble Insoluble soluble
weak acid weak base salt
in water in water in water and also
sublimable [B] Na2O + H2O NaOH + H2 
First of all ‘C’ can be separated from the mixture by metal oxide base
sublimation. Thereafter, the mixture of ‘A’ and ‘B’ [C] Mg + 2HCl MgCl2 + H2 
can be put in water, filtered to separate B and recover
metal salt
A by crystallisation.
[D] Na2 O + 2HCl  2NaCl + H2O
17. 2H2 + O2  2H2O Metal oxide Mineral acid Salt
4gm 32gm 36gm
2gm 16gm 18gm
22. 2Al + 6HNO3 Al2O3 + 6 NO2 + 3H2O
2 + 16 = 18 gm
|
18. No. of electrons in L shell = 7 Protective layer
No. of protons = 9
Electronic configuration = 2,7 23. Na + H2O  NaOH + H2 + Energy
By acquiring one e– in L shell ( X) ( Y) (Z )
gets 8e– in the last shell.
NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) NaCl(aq) + H2O(  )
X = Na, Y = NaOH, Z = H2
19. This reaction takes place in presence of oxygen.
Hence, it is a combustion reaction and in this
reaction there is a addition of two elements so it
is combination reaction.

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A
C
Alkaline KMnO4
24. Y  X
( Alcohol) Acidification (Carboxylic acid) 32. B
V

+ X  
Conc . Z Resistance of each bulb is R.
Y
( Alcohol ) (Carboxylic acid ) H2SO4 Sweet smelling 2V
subs tan ce I=
3R
Hence X = Ethanoic acid, Y = Ethanol,
2
Z = Ethylethanoate  V  V2
PA = PB =   R = .... (i)
Alkaline
C2H5OH   CH3COOH  3R  9R
KMnO 4
(Y) ( X)
4V 2
Conc . PC = .... (ii)
C2H5OH CH3COOH   CH3COOC2H5 9R
(Y) + ( X) H2SO4
(Z ) When bulb A is fused, then
V
25. C2H2 is Ethyne and C3H6 is propene. Both of them Now, current, I =
are hydrocarbon. Hence they would undergo 2R
combustion to form CO2 & H2O. V2
Both C2H2 & C3H6 are unsaturated compounds. So. PB = PC = .... (iii)
4R
Hence they would undergo addition reaction.
So, B will be brighter and C will be dimmer
26. 2X + 3H2  2 XH3
Element ‘X’ is placed on R.H.S. of periodic table. It 33. Since VAB & resistance (2R) is same so ‘i’
is non-metal. will also be same
Element ‘X’ is combining with three monovalent H- p2
atoms. Hence its valency is three. It has 5 valence 34. KE =
2m
electrons. It is a gas.
1
P is same so KE 
27. Element ‘X’ (Z = 12) is Mg and, Element ‘Y’ (Z = 17) m
is Cl.
Mg + Cl2  MgCl2 35. x is decreasing with decresing speed
( X) ( Y) (Z)
Molucular formula of Z is XY2. 20
Compound ‘Z’ is ionic compound, hence it would 37. Average speed = = 1 m/s
20
conduct electricity in molten state.
maximum speed from graph is between time t
= 10 sec. and t = 18 sec.
20  4 16
Vmax = = = 2 m/s
28. If air bubble is in the path then sound wave will 18  10 8
take more time to travel this distance. 4
GM G R 3 
3
30. In optical lens (for eye defects) concave lens 38. g= =
is used. focal length must be much larger R2 R2
then 2.5 cm if it is equal or less than 2.5 cm 4
then it mean that the power point is at =  gR
3
approximetly 2.5 cm, which is not possible.
g R
31. Since Fg is perpendicular to displacement at
each instant so 39. Plastic is non magnetic substance and open
Work done = 0 ring does not form magnetic poles so due to
induction only ring Q will experience retarding
force

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47. tan1° tan2° tan3° .........tan89°
= (tan1° tan89°) (tan2° tan88) ......... tan45°
= (tan1° tan1°) (tan2° cot2°) ...........(1)
x 12– 2x = (1) (1) .............. (1)
x =1

12– 2x 48. ax2 + bx + c = 0 will have real roots when c = 0.
41.

S S

V = x(12 – 2x)2 49.
This box has maximum volme when x = 2 cm which S S
is 128 c.c.
So, volume130 cc is not possible. If we cut square S from a piece of tin at that time
the volume of open box is 0.
42. For similarity of triangles we have SSS criteria. So But the open box made from S is always be greater
S1 in true. than 0.
But for polygon : two polygon to be similar if the So according to this 4th option is not possible.
corresponding sides are in same ratio then
corresponding angle must be same. So S2 is not
50. Every parallelogram is a trapezium
correct.
51. Triangle (By SSS criteria).
a a
43. 52. Let there are x human being and y dogs
 Total legs = 2x + 4y
a
one tenth of x human beings lost a leg.
a = 2 3 cm x
 (2x + 4y) – = 77
1 3 2 10
a(x + y + z) = a 19 x
2 4 + 4y = 77
10
3 3 when x = 10
x+y+z= a= 2 3 = 3 cm 4y = 77 – 19 = 58 (Which is not possible).
2 2
when x = 30
44. 4
6765201 = 51 57 + 4y = 77
45. All odd square can be written in the form 8n+1 4y = 20
12 = 1 = 8  0 + 1 y=5
32 = 9 = 8  1 + 1  Number of dogs = 5
52 = 25 = 8  3 + 1
72 = 49 = 8  6 + 1 53. Let if we take n small simicircle of radii r
If we take n small simicircle of radii 2R = 2nr
If we take n small simicircle of radii R = nr
D C Z

Part I = R = nr
46. Part II = n (r)
B so Part I & II always be equal.
A
54. From 1 to 100 number.
No. which are divisible by 4 = 25
2
a No. which are divisible by 6 = 16
Area of interior region = a –   
2
2 No. which are divisible by 12 = 8
No. which are divisible by 4 or 6 = 25 + 16 – 8
a2
= a2 –  = 33
4 So, number which are not divisible by 4 or 6
4 = 100 – 33 = 67
= a2  
 4  67
So, requred probability = = 0.67
100

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57. 23.10 1 00 1 000 1 0000 ........ is an irrational number
55. ( a  b )2 + (b  a )2 as it is Non-terminating & non-repeating.

= |a – b| + |b – a| 58. Out of the options, 14 cannot be made as it required
2, Rs. 5 coins & 4, Rs. 1 coin i.e. 5, 5, 1, 1, 1, 1.
Let a > b Let a < b
then then 59. Ascending order
|a – b| + |b – a| |a – b| + |b – a| 1, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 8, 9, 12, 15
=a–b+a–b =b–a+b–a 78
Median = = 7.5.
2
= 2a – 2b = 2b – 2a
i.e. +ve i.e. +ve 60. Average speed = 6 km/hr.
So answer is always +ve if a  b
24 x
6=
4 4 4x
56. R3 =  (r 3 +r 3 +r 3 +..........r 3) ... (i)
3 3 1 2 3 n
24 + 6x = 8x
S1 = 4R2
2x = 24
S2 = 4(r12 + r22 + r32 + ...........+ rn2 )
From (i) , we get x = 12 km/hr.
R3 = r13 + r23 + r33 +...... + rn3
If all smaller sphere are of equal radius i.e. r
4 4
then, R3 =   nr 3
3 3
R3 = nr3
S1 R2 (nr 3 )2 / 3 n2 / 3  r 2
S2 = n  r 2 = nr 2 =
nr 2
nS1 = n2/3 S2  n1/3S1 = S2  S2 > S1.

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NTSE STAGE-II (2014)
CLASS-X [MAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS
ANSWER KEY
Que s. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 3 1 4 4 1 1 3 1 4 3 1 2 4 3
Que s. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 2 2 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 1 1 4 3 4
Que s. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 2 1 2 4 2 4 1 4 4 3 3 3 4 1
Que s. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 3 4 4 2 4

1. +51, +102, +153, +204,..... 17. FAST (62+12+192+202) = 798
Ans 520 LAST (122+12+192+202) = 906
BUSY (22+212+192+252) = 1431
2. NAJ31, BEF28, RAM31, RPA30, YAM31
JANUARY 31 DAYS R A J A S
T H A N
FEBRUARY 28 DAYS 9 R 17 J 8
(19+20) 19 H 13
30.
MARCH 31 DAYS (S+T)
APRIL 30 DAYS.... Than MANIPUR = 14M13V11J9
7. (8+3)×(9–3) = 44 31. By Difference’s difference
(4+2)×(12–3) = 54
(10+6)×(13–8) = 80 32. (22+32+42) – (12+52) = 3
(72+82+92) – (62+102) = 58
8. (7×5×12)÷10 = 42
(5×6×8)÷10 = 24 41. (72+22)–(32+52) = 19
(9×6×15)÷10 = 81 (82+52)–(72+42) = 24
(62+42)–(32+52) = 18
14. 11+1 = 2
22+2 = 6 44. 953 (RVXYS) 28
33+3 = 30 All letter’s position from back side
44+4 = 260 R - 9, V - 5, X - 3, Y - 2, S - 8
55+5 = 3130 So, 714 (TZWUV) 65.
15. 2×1+4=6
6×2+6=18
18×4+8=80
80×8+10=650

CLASS-X [LANGUAGE TEST]
ENGLISH
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 4 3 1 2 2 1 1 4 3 1 4 2 1 3
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 2 3 1 4 4 1 3 1 4 2 3 2 2 1
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 2 1 3 4 2 1 3 2 4 2 2 3 4 3
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 2 3 1 3 4
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NTSE STAGE-II (2014)
CLASS-X [SAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS
ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
4 2 3 1 4 2 3 2 4 3 4 4 1 2 3
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
2 2 3 4 2 4 4 4 3 4 2 2 2 4 4
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
4 1 3 1 1 1 2 3 4 1 1 4 4 3 3
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
2 2 4 3 3 2 3 4 3 3 4 3 1 3 1
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
3 1 4 1 4 2 4 2 3 2 1 2 3 2 4
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
3 2 4 1 3 1 2 3 3 4 3 2 1 3 4
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
1 2 2 4 3 3 3 1 3 4

 12 gm C give CO2 = 44 gm
15. Noise, vaccume and light flash not 44 3
 3 gm C give CO2 = ×
example of matter. 12 1
16. X Y = 11 gm
100 ML water 100 ml water
20ºC 20. X K, L, M  M shell is the valency
0ºC 100 g  water 100 g ice  0ºC shell
 more cooling y is colder than x 2,8,7 therefore valency = 7
17. At 313 k it from saturated solution. therefore X = Cl
all 50 gm. will be dissolve.
when temperature down to 283 K (62 – 21 = 21. O2 + H2 H2O (g)
41 gm.) O.S. of O2 become zero to – 2
will be crystall cut. it will be reduced
18. A = Al B and Oxidation state of H2 becomes zero to + 1
z = 13 z=8 it will be oxidised
valency = 3 valency = 2 therefore reaction will be redox
= Al2O3
22. NH4 OH + CH3COOH  CH3COONH4 + H2O
formula mass = 27 × 2 + 16 × 3 base acid salt
= 102 (neutralisation reaction)

2AgCl h 2Ag + Br2 (Photo chemical decom-
19. C(g) + O2 CO2 (g)
position)

3 32 ZnCO3  ZNO + CO2 (thermla decompostion)
mole of =
12
mole of O2 =
32 2Al + Fe2O3 Al2O3 + 2Fe (Thermite reac-
tion)
1
= =1
4 23. Order of acidic strength
LR H2SO4 > HCl > NH4OH > NaOH
Strongest acid strong acid Weak base strong bas

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24. Na, K, Ca, Mg 31. Buoyant force
(i)these matals can lose e– easily as B = 0.02
compared to C therefore these are better
reducing agent as compare to C.  g v  = 0.02
(ii) due to strong electropositive behaviour of 100 × 10 ×V= 0.02
these metals having strong tendency to react V= 0.02 × 10–4 m3
with oxygen.
= 2 cm3
25. Molecular formula C6H12

32. Given :F = 10 N, m = 1 kg, t = 2s, u = 0
W=?
cyclohexane s = 0 + 1/2 (10/1) (2)2 = 20 m
W = 10×20 = 200 J
26. M.F. C4H8O
O

CH3 — CH2 — CH2 —C—H 33. Stethoscope is based on multiple reflection of
an aldehyde sound.
O

sin i v1
CH3 — C — CH2 —CH3 34. = v = n21
a ketone sin r 2

27. (a) Atomic no 18 1
35. f 1 = 0.5 m, P1 = =2D
it will be Ar inert gas 0.5
valency = zero
P1 + P2 = 1.5
(c) 9, 17, 35, all are belong same group that 2 + P2 = 1.5
is P2 = –0.5 D
17 and have same valency.
1
 f2 = =–2m
(d) atomic no. 17 is Cl  0.5
atomic no. 16 is S 36. Myopia, means person can see nearby objects.
atomic no. 35 is Br
Cl is more electronegative
28. Body moving with constant speed can have A B
acceleration only if it moves along a curved
path. + p –
29. m = 20 Kg, u = 2 m/s, v = 0, S = 5 m + –
v 2 = u2 – 2 aS + –
0 = 4 - 2a x 5 37. e –
+
a = 0.4 m/s2
F = ma = 20 x 0.4 = 8 N + –

G(m)(4m)
30. F=
(100  103 )2 W = KE
for smaller mass 5(q) = 1/2 mv 2
G(m)( 4m) 10q
m(1) = v2 =
(1010 ) m
mp > me
1010
Gm =  ve > v p
4
for bigger mass 38. Magnetic filed line are continuous lines passing
inside and outside the magnet, only one field
G(m )(4m )
(4 m) (a) = line passes through a point
(25  103 )2
39. DC generator has split ring (commutator),
Gm 1010 104 whereas AC generator does not.
a= 10 = 6 = 40. Energy of star is due to Nuclear Fusion.
625  10 4  625  10 2500
2
a = 4 m/s
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1
so minimum value is –
12
44. Let |x| = y
y2 + y – 6 = 0
13
(y + 3) (y – 2) = 0
2
41. y = – 3 or y = 2
|x| = – 3 which is not possible
|x| = 2
3 x=  2
The product of the roots is –4
 2   3 
 1   1  45. 3x =12 , x = 4
 3   2 
 2 3   
    13  13  A
 13 13   3 2 

 5   1 
   
 3   2  3x
3x
=  5   
   5 13 
 13   6 

13   1 6
=     B x D E C
3  2  5 13

1 3
=– AE = (3x)
5 2
DE = AE – AD
1 3 4 3x
42. – – = –x
6 5 5 2 6 2 2

 6 + 5 – 5– 2– 6 + 2 =
x
0 2
AD = AE 2  DE 2
43. p(x) = 3x2 – 5x + 2
5 2 27 2 x 2
= 3(x 2 – x+ ) = x 
3 3 4 4
2 2
5 5 5 2 28x 2
= 3[ x  x     ]
2
= = 7x 2 = 7x=4 7
3 6 6 3 4

 5
2
25 2 

=3  x       BX 
2
1
 6 36 3 
 46.   =
 AB  2
 5
2
 25  24 
=3   x     BX 1
 6 36  =
AB 2
 5
2
1
  x     BX 1
=3 1– =1–
 6 36 
 AB 2

 5 1
2
AB  BX 2 1
= 3x    =
 6 12 AB 2

AX 2 2
=
AB 2

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51. N1 = 15x
N2 = 15 y x and y are coprime
LCM  HCF = N1  N2
225  15 = 15x 15y
xy = 15
a 3.5 = 15
P3 a
P 1.15 = 15
47. P1 So, N1 = 3  15 = 45 or N1 = 1  15 = 15
N2 = 5  15 = 75 N2 = 15 
P2
15 = 225
(45, 75) , (15, 225)
two such pair exist
3 2 1
area equilateral D = a = a (P1 + P2 +
4 2
P
P3)
3 2 2 30° 60°
a  = P 1 + P 2 + P3
4 a
r
3a
= P 1 + P2 + P3 52.
2

30° r 120° 60° r 60°
A O B

Let radius = r
area of sector APO
48. 120 1
= pr2 = r2
360 3
60
infinite tripazium can be made area of sector PBO =  r2
360
49. 1+1+1+1+ 1+1 1 way
1 2
2 +1 + 1 + 1 + 1 5 way = r
6
3+1+1+1 4 way
4+1+1 3 way 1 3r r
5 +1 2 way Now area of AOP =  
2 2 2
2 +3+1 6 way
2 +4 2 way 3r 2
3 +3 1 way =
4
2 +2+2 1 way
2 +2 +1+1 6 way 3 2
Now area of DBOP = r
4
50. n2 – 3n +3 = m2 ....(1)
area of major shaded area : Area of minor
n2 – 3n + 3 – m2 = 0
shaded area
this eq. have integer roots. if a = 1, b,c  I
D is perfect sq. 1 2 3 2   1 2 3 2 

9 – 4.1 . (3–m2 ) = k2 =  3 r  4 r  :  6 r  4 r 
4m2 – k2 = 3    
(2m + k) (2m – k) = 3 × 1
2m + k = 3 4  3 3
=
2m – k = 1 2  3 3
on solving we get m = 1
Put m = 1 in equ.(1) 54. x2 + y2 = 250
n2 – 3n + 3 =1 a2 + b2 + c2 = 250
(n – 2) × (n – 1) = 0  x = 13
n = 2,1 y=9
so two values of n are possible a=5
b = 12
c=9

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420
A1 + A2 + A3 = 21 + 20 +
29
420
57. (1) = 41 +
29
1189  420 1609
(2) = =
29 29

59. Let 4th term = x + 3d = a ..(1)
7th term = x + 6d = b ..(2)
10th term = x + 9d = c
on solving (1) & (2) we get
x = 2a – b
a  ( 2a  b)
&d=
3
10th term = x + 9d = C
 a  ( 2a  b) 
2a – b + 9   =C
 3 
= 2a – b + 3a – 6a + 3b = C
– a + 2b = C
(3) 2b = a + c
sum of roots of equation ax2 – 2bx + c = 0
2b ac
sum of roots = =
a a

D R C

(4)
S 2a a
60. 2
a/2

A P a/2 B
a/2

a2
20  21  29 area of square PQRS 1
58. s= = 35 = 2 =
2 area of square PABCD 2 2
a
= 35  15  14  6
= 57357 223
=5732
= 210
1 1
210 = A 20 210 = A 29
2 1 2 2
420
A1 = 21 A2 =
29
1
210 = A  21
2 3
A3 = 20

Vibrant Academy (I) Pvt. Ltd. "A-14(A)" Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota (Raj.) Ph. 0744-2423406 [119]
NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION
NTSE STAGE-II (2015)
CLASS-X [MAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS
ANSWER KEY

Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 2 4 3 2 2 4 4 1 3 4 3 3 3 1
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 3 3 1 2 3 2 1 3 4 2 2 4 3 2
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 2 2 3 3 2 4 2 3 4 4 3 3 2 3
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 2 4 3 2 1

1.

17. option (3) is correct.
Logic:Some women are teachers, so circle representing women and teacher are intersected and some
women are docors, so circle representing women and doctors are also intersected. But there is no
intersection between two profession so circle representing docotr and teacher are not intersected.

2, 17, 52, ? 206
3 2 3 2 3 2 3 2 3 2
1 +1 2 +3 3 + 5 4 + 7 5 + 9

18. odd no.

Natural no.

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19.

112 – 92 152 – 72 252 – 212
121 – 81 225 – 49 625 – 441
= 40 = 176 = 184

20. two series
first series 3,24,63,?,195 pattern 22–1,52–1,82–1,112–1,142–1 so first ?=120
second series: 6,30,72,?,210 pattern 22+2,52+5,82+8,112+11,142+14 so second ?=132

22. [62 – (4 × 4)] –1 = 19 =S
[42 – (7 × 1)] –1 = 8 = H
[82 – (5 ×10)] –1 = 13 = N

2.5 2.5 2.5
24. Avg. Speed = = = Ans. (3)
1 0.5 1  0.5  .125 1.625
1 
2 4

26. A B C
x y 100 – x – y
100  x  y
500 = 2x = 250
2
x = 250 1000 – x – y = 500
x + y = 500
y = 250
B = y = 250 Ans. (2)

27. 5e + 7s + 9p = 100 × a
2e + 6s + 10p = 80 × b

5a – 25 = 7a 65 = 9a – 105
2a = 4b

10e  14s  18p  200
a  25
= 2e  6s  10p  80
2 8e  8s  8p  120
120
e+s+p=  15
8

28. 7:x

 1 
90 =  7  30  x  – 6x
 2 
x
90 = 210 + – 6x
2
x
6x – = 120
2
11x
= 120
2

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240 9 9
x=  21 = 21 min +  60
11 11 11
540
= 21 min + sec.
11
= 21 min 49 sce

 1 
90 = 6x –  7  30  x
 2 

x
90 = 6x – 210 –
2
11x
300 =
2
600 6 6
x=  54 = 54 min +  60 sec
11 11 11
360
=54 min + sec.
11
= 54 min 32 sec.
35. Man × days =1600 = 400 + 350 + 300 + 250 + 200 + 100
Man = 40 40 35 30 25 20 15
100 = M × D
100 = 15 × D
100 20
D=   6.66.
15 3
Total day = 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 6.66
= 56.66
45 to 47
N =$
E =#
T =@
I =%
S =&
P =?
R =*
U =+
M ==

45. MINT
= % $ @
Ans. (3)
46. RINSE
* % $ &#
Ans. (2)
47. INTEREST
% $ @ # * # & @

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LANGUAGE COMPREHENSIVE TEST (LCT)2015

CLASS-X [ENGLISH]

Que s. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 4 3 4 3 4 3 4 1 1 2 1 4 3 1
Que s. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 4 1 1 3 1 3 1 4 2 4 2 4 3 1
Que s. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 1 1 3 3 2 4 1 2 3 1 2 3 4 2
Que s. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 3 1 3 2 2

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NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION
NTSE STAGE-II (2015)
CLASS-X [SAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS
ANSWER KEY
Q ue s. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans 3 1 2 4 2 2 1 4 3 1 3 1 4 2 4
Q ue s. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans 4 4 1 3 2 4 2 2 2 3 1 3 2 3 4
Q ue s. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans 3 4 2 3 2 2 2 2 2 3 2 1 1 4 2
Q ue s. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 3 4 4 4 2 3 3 1 3 4 4 3 2 1 2
Q ue s. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans 1 4 4 1 1 4 1 1 2 3 3 4 4 3 2
Q ue s. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans 4 2 2 1 3 1 4 3 1 2 1 4 2 1 2
Q ue s. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 3 3 4 1, 3 4 4 3 3 2 2

44
15. On compressing the gas, no. of collision of  1g of C gives the amount gm of CO2 = g
12
molecules at per unit area of the wall of the  6g of C gives the amount gm of CO2
cylinder increases. Average Kinetic energy of
the molecules remains constant as the tem- 44
= × 6 = 22g CO2
perature is constant. 12

16. Solubility of S = 28.6% at 50° C 18. Law of conservation of mass is only valid for
Amount of solute in 50 ml of saturated solution chemical reactions and not for nuclear reac-
= 14.3g at 50° C tions.
at 40°C amount of S separates out = 2.4g in 50
ml
19. -particle is doubly positive helium ion 24 He  
remaining solute = 11.9gin 50 ml
No. of proton = Z = 2
11.9 No. of neutrons = A – Z = 4 –2 = 2
solubility of S at 40° C = × 100 = 23.8%
50 No. of electron = zero
m/v
20. m1 =69 for isotope 69Z
17. Given, m2 = 71 for isotope71Z
amount of C = 6g x1 = abundance of 69Z= 60%
amount of oxygen = 32g X2 =abundance of 71Z= 40%
C + O2  CO2
m1x1  m 2 x 2
12g 32g 44g Relative atomis mass =
100
 12g of C gives the amount of CO2 = 44g

69  60  40  71
= = 69.8
100

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21. 
2 Pb(NO3)2  2PbO + 2NO2 + 3O2 O
A Yellow Reddish CH3–CH2–C–H
brown
26.
fumes

Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2NaOH(aq)  2NaNO3(aq) +
Total no. of electrons of C atoms = 3 × 6 = 18
Pb(OH)2 electrons
Total no. of electrons of O atoms = 1 × 8 = 8
white ppt electrons
The compound A is Pb(NO3)2 Total no. of electrons of H atoms = 6 × 1 = 6
cation is Pb2+ electrons
anion is NO3– Total no. of electrons in one molecule = 32 elec-
trons
No. of electrons involved in bonding = 2 × total
22. HCl + Na2CO3  NaCl(aq) + CO2 + H2O no. of bonds = 2 × 10 = 20 electrons
A B C D
gas 27. In periodic table
Electropositive nature increases from top to
CO 2 + NH 3 + NaCl(aq)  NaHCO 3 + bottom in a group
NH4 Cl  NH4HCO3 Electronegative nature decreases from top to
D C Baking soda bottom is a group
traces Atomic size decreases from left to right in a
Hence A & B are HCl & Na2CO3 period

23. 
Cu2S+ O2  Cu2O + SO2
28. Let they will meet at time t. At that time veloc-
X Y
ity of man must be greater or equal to as that of
copper glance
bus.
2Cu2O + Cu2S  6Cu + SO2 u  at
Y t  u /a
1 2
24. (i) Nitrate ores are rarely available as all nitrates at  d  ut
are soluble in water. 2
(ii) Bond dissociation energy of N2 is very high 1 2
d = ut – at
as the 3 covalent bonds are present between 2
two nitrogen atoms.
Both the statement are correct but the reason 1 u2
d  u (u/a) – a
is not correct explanation of assertion. 2 a2

25. 4 Structural isomers are possible for C4H9Br u2
d 
H3C–CH2–CH2–CH2–Br 2a
CH3–CH2– CH–CH3
29. v = u + at
Br 0 = u – gt
t = u/g = n(total time of ascent)
CH3
1
Snth = u  a(2n  1)
CH3–C–CH3 2
Br 1  2u 
= u g  1
CH3 2  g 
CH3–CH–CH2–Br = g/2

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4 15
30. g= Rg (a2 – d2) 1. =
3 64
gA A R A  9 
= g   R   d2  = 15  4 = 5
B B B  16  64 3 16
=3×2=6
9 5
d2 = –
31. In all case displacement is perpendicular to 16 16
force. 4 1
W1 = W2 = W3 = 0 = =
16 4
1
360 rev d= 
33. f disc = 6 2
60 sec
(a + d) – (a – d)
f sound = 60 × fdisc =a+d–a=d
= 360 Hz
 1
= 2 
R R R 4R 2
35. Req =   
2 3 2 3 =1
44. 2x + y = 10
V 3V (x + y) + x = 10
I= R =
eq 4R x + y is max when x = 0
36. Bulbs are connrected in parallel  (x +y)max = 10
so V is same 2x + y = 10
Heat produced by first bulb H1 = 12 × 10 2(x + y) – y = 10
= 120 J  x + y is min y = 0
Simillarily, H2 = 2× 10 = 20J 10
H3 = 6 × 10 = 60J (x + y)min = =5
2
 (x + y)max + (x + y)min = 10 + 5 = 15
37. Magnetic field is produced by moving charge

1
45. y+ =x
41. As the LCM of 12x and 5y is 720 y
so, 720 should be divisible by 5y
1
or 144 is divisible by y. y2 + = x2 – 2
so, y should be the factor of 144 y2
so, according the option to i.e. 144 is correct 7x – 2 (x2 – 2) = 9
7x – 2x2 + 4 = 9
42. x = 5n + 2
2x2 – 7x + 5 = 0
y = 5m + 4
2x (x – 1)– 5 (x – 1)
x + y = 5(m + n) + 6
(2x – 5) (x – 1) = 0
xy
Remainder =1 5
5 x= x=1
2
z=1
2z  5
1
=–1 y+ = 1 (Not possible)
3
y
43. =a–d 1 5
= a y+ =
y 2
=a+d
on solving we get
144
3a = 1
64 y = 2,
2
144 6 3 so only one integral solution possible.
a= = =
64 8 4
15
(a – d) 1. (a + d) =
64

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46. .A, B, A + B are in AP
 2B = A + A + B 
7 sin 
2B = 2A + B 2 7  
B = 2A =     = 2 sec  2 
2 sin  cos   
 Area of bigger circle = A + B = 3A 2  2
3A = R2

R 2 22 49 
A= R2 =  sec2  
3 7 4 2

77  
R 2 = sec2  
r =2
2 2
3

42
r2 =
3 T
P Q
16 45° x
r2 = 2x
3 50. x
45°
16 4 4 3 135° x
r= = = O S R
3 3 3
47. c=a+b–8 a+b–c=8
a=b+c–8 b+c–a=8 2 x = 12
b=a+b–8 x=6 2
(a + b + c) = 2 (a + b + c) – 24
a + b + c = 24 135 1
Then area =  122 –  3x  x
a+b–c=8 360 2
2c = 16 54  22
c=8 = – 108
7
c=a=b=8
1188  756 432
3 2  =
area = 8 = 16 3 7 7
4
5
1 cos x 1 = 61
48. = 7
sin x 3
3(1 – cosx) = sinx 6r 2
51. % Change =  100  150%
9(1 + cos2x – 2cosx) = 1 – cos2x 4r 2
9 + 9cos2x – 18 cosx = 7 – cos\2x
8 + 10cos2x – 18 cosx = 0
A
5cos2x – 9 cosx + 4 = 0
5cos2\x – 5cosx – 4cosx + 4 = 0
5cosx (cosx – 1) – 4(cosx – 1) = 0 12-h
cosx = 1 B r
cosx = 4/5 C
12
3 52. h
sinx =
5
 cos x – sin2x
2 r
D E
16 9 7 5
= – =
25 25 25
ABC ~ ADE
abc
49. = 12  2r 12
4R =
r 5
abc
R= 30
4 r=
11
 Vol. of cylinder = r2h
2.7.7.14 sin  = r2(2r)
= 2
= 2r3
4.49 sin 
= 127.39

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C A(5,–10)

1
D 2x 2x
x
54. 57. 3x 3x
x–1
B(–
1 D(–5,10) C(5,5)
72 5,1
5)
A y B
areaPBC 6 x 3
x 1 = =
= areaABC 10 x 5
y x 1 Q
x2 – x = y (3,–2)

x2  y2  x2
cos72 =
2xy
M
x2 – x = 2x cos72°
x – 1 = 2 cos72° 58.
x = 1 +2 cos72°
 5  1 y = 5x+3 P (a, 5a+3)
 
=1+2  2  3  a 5a  1
  M( , )
2 2
5 1 5 1 these coordinats of M satisfy only 2. option.
=1+ =
2 2 59. Three digit = 3  3  2 = 18
 BD = x – 1 Div. by 5 = 2  2  1 + 3  2 = 10
5 1 5 1 10 5
= –1= Req. Probability = =
2 2 18 9
A 60. 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 +9 + 10 + 11 +
12 + 13 + a + b = 13  15
90+q 91 + a + b = 195
B C a + b = 195 – 91
q q
180+2q = 104
55. O Now according to option
51 + 53 = 104
 2nd larger value is 51

BAC – OBC
= 90 +  – 
= 90

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NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION
NTSE STAGE-II (2016)
CLASS-X [MAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS
ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
3 3 2 3 2 1 4 3 2 1 2 4 3 3 1
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3 2 1 4 2 2 4 2 3 2 3 1 3 1 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
3 4 2 3 1 3 4 4 3 1 2 3 4 1 4
46 47 48 49 50
3 3 3 2 3

Q.1

D 3 Y 104
+3 32 –4 –13
G 9 U 91
3
+3 3 –4 –13

J 27 Q 78
4
+3 3 –4 –13
M 81 M 65
5
+3 3 –4 –13

P 243 I 52

0 .8 (.8) 3  .512
Q.2 0.04 (.04) 3  .000064

H
F C

E
B
Q.3
A
D
G

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N

45°
W A E
B C
Q.6

S

Professors
M ale Designer
Q.7 Case I : Teachers

Professors Designer
Male
Teachers

Case II :
Clearly in both case Conclusion III is follow and either I follows or II follows.

Q.10 B 1 (Science)
C 2 (Hindi)
A 3 (Mathematics)
E 4 (Sanskrit)
D 5 (English)
|–Hindi or Sanskrit

Q.13 From 1st and 3rd diagram :

B

G Y R

Bl

G O

Q.14 – 33 + 11 – 9 + (28  4) × 5
= – 33 + 11 – 9 + 7 × 5
= – 33 + 11 – 9 + 35 = – 42 + 46
 = 4

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Q.15 REASON PGYUMP

18 5 1 19 15 14 –––– 16 7 25 21 13 16

–2
+2
–2
+2
–2
+2

 D I R E C T

4 9 18 5 3 20
2 2 2 2 2 2
2 11 16 7 1 22
     
B K P G A V

Q.16 Given C’s age = 12 yrs
3
B’s age = × 12 = 18 yrs.
2
We know, A is 12 years older than B
A’s age = 18 + 12 = 30 yrs
Mother’s age = 2(30) = 60 yrs.
Husband’s age = 60 + 5 = 65 yrs
Ram’s age who is 15 yrs younger than him = (65 – 15) yrs = 50 yrs

Q.17 Alphabetical order :
Anu (A), Joy(J), Pritam (P), Zeba (Z)
Working days are : M T W Th F
For 3 weeks : A J P Z A
J P Z A J
P Z A J P
Only Zeba work for 3 days.

Q.18 Clearly, its Pritam who workded on 1st Wednesday then its Zeba and after her Anu.

Q.19 Printed Price = Rs 1000/-
After discount of 60% , price will be :
 60 
Rs 1000  1000   = Rs 400/-
 100 
Now, after this their is discount of 40% also :
 the price will be:
 40 
Rs  400  400   = Rs 240/-
 100 

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4 5
Q.20 2 3 = 13 (4 × 5) – (2 + 5)
= 20 – 7 = 13
Multiplying above two and subtracting sum of 2 number lying in lower row.
6 4
7 2 = 15 (6 × 4) – (7 + 2) = 15

9 3
4 5 = 18 (9 × 3) – (4 + 5)  27 – 9 = 18

8 3
4 6 = ? (8 × 3) – (4 + 6)  24 – 10 = 14

Q.21 Cleary, all fathers are men and some of them can be teacher’s also, Therefore, it will be like this :
M
F T

Q.23 Reena > Rita > Zoha
and Reena = Reeta + 2 = Zoha + 5 ... (i)
Also Reena + Zoha = 3(Rita – 5)
by equation (i)
(Rita + 2 ) + (Rita – 3) = 3(Rita – 5)
2Rita – 1 = 3Rita – 15 Rita = 14 years

12 inch

C c
Q.24 b

2 inch
Pieces which have only two types of coatings are at edges, so
no. of pieces = 2[(4 – 2) + (6 – 2)]
= 2[2 + 4]
= 12

Q.25 Pieces which have only one type of coating are at top surface of cake, so
no. of pieces = [(6 – 2) × (4 – 2)]
=4×2 =8

Q.26 As there are only 8 pieces of cake having chocolate cream and total pieces are 24
 Remaining pieces = 24 – 8 = 16

Q.27 In morning Su is in the East so Monika’s face will be in North,

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N
T

W E

M
shadow S

Q.28 Clearly – Both the statements are sufficien. So answer is 3
Q.29 We have four horses in one race
divide 16 horses in for groups

I II III IV
Q.30 b,c,e, g, k, ? , q , s
2 , 3 , 5 , 7 , 11 , 13 , 17 , 19
All consecutive prime numbers so alphabet correspond to 13 is m.

6

4 5 3

2
Q.32
1

Points opposite to 2 is 6.

Q.33 2, 10, 30, 68, _____, 222
2' = 13 + 1
10 = 23 + 2
30 = 33 + 3
64 = 43 + 4
130 = 53 + 5
222 = 63 + 6
Q.34 T–S×B–M
B is wife of M
T is wife of S
S is son of B
From these not true statement is S is the daughter of B
Q.35 (1) Either I or II ; and III follows
S A

B
F

9, 23, 51, 106, 219, 643
Q.36
14 28 55 113 424
9 + 14 = 23
23 + (2 × 14 =28) = 51
51 + (2 × 28 = 56) = 107

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Q.38 Age order
Ronald > Veena
Amilia
Shree > Parul > Ronal > Veena

From this Parul is elder to Veena
Q.39 Logic
12 + 52 + 72 = 75
92 + 72 + 82 = 194
82 + 32 + 42 = 64 + 9 +16
= 64 + 25 = 89

Q.40 Using Net

Q.41 First bell will ring at exact 8 O’clock, in next 8 seconds 7 bells will ring.
8
 time taken for 1 ring = sec.
7
8
 time taken for 10 ring = × 10 = 11.43 sec.
7
( 1 bell will ring at exact 11 O’clock)

Q.42 1. ADEF
2. AGHD
3. ABCD
4. ABDH
5. ACDH
6. AFDG
7. AGDE
8. ACDF
9. ABED
10. AFBD
11. ACDE
Sol. 43-45
According to given information

(Tallest) (Shortest)
Kabaddi Football Volley

Umesh > Kamal > Tarun > Prem > Shyam > Ramesh

43. (4) Umesh
44. (1) Prem

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45. (4) Information inssufficient

Q.46 Given codes
1218199  121 81 99

(11) 2 (9)2 11×9

1006480  100 64 80

(10)2 (8)2 10×8

814963  81 49 63

(9)2 (7)2 9×7

643648  64 36 48

(8)2 (6)2 8×6
492535  49 25 35

(7)2 (5)2 7×5

Q.47 (3)
(6 – 5)3 + (1)2  (1)3 + (1)2 = 1
(12 – 10) + (2)  (2)3 + (2)2 = 8 + 4 =12
3 2

(18 – 15)3 + (3)2  (3)3 + (2)2 = 27 + 9 =36
(24 – 20)3 + (4)2  (4)3 + (4)2 = 64 + 16 =80
Q. 48 (3)
S T A R Y
      
          
So tray or 
Q.49 Work = Man × days
 20 × 25 = 10 × 5 + (10 + 5) × 5 + (10 + 5 × 2) × 5 + ……..
20 × 25 = 5[10 + (10 +5) + (10 + 5) × 2 + ….. (10 + 5 + n)]
 5(n  1)n 
500 = 5 × 10n  
 2 
200 = 20n + 5n (n – 1)
200 = n(15 + 5n)
40 × 5 = n(15 + 5n)
 n=5
Days = 5 × 5 = 25

Q.50 Cubical box each side length = 1 meter
Means side of cube a = 1 meter
Rod is fixed in the each side so length or Rod = 3a= 3×1= 3 metre

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LANGUAGE COMPREHENSIVE TEST (LCT)2016

CLASS-X [ENGLISH]
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
3 2 2 4 3 4 4 2 4 2 2 1 2 1 4
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3 3 3 4 1 2 4 1 3 1 3 4 2 2 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
3 2 4 4 3 2 1 2 1 1 3 1 2 1 4
46 47 48 49 50
4 3 2 3 1

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NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION
NTSE STAGE-II (2016)
CLASS-X [SAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS
ANSWER KEY

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
3 2 1 3 4 4 2 3 3 1 4 2 2 4 2
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
4 2 2 3 2 1 2 4 3 4 4 3 2 3 4
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
1 3 3 1 2 1 2 3 3 1 1 4 1 4 4
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
2 2 1 3 1 3 4 4 2 4 2 3 4 4 4
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
1 3 4 1 1 3 2 4 4 3 4 1 3 2 1
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
2 3 3 3 4 4 4 1 3 2 3 4 2 4 2
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
4 3 1 1 2 3 3 2 2,3 3

Q.15 One molecule of H2O, contain 8 number of neutrons of oxygen atom only.
So total no. of neutrons in 5 mole of H2O molecules will be = 5 × 8 × 6.022 × 1023 = 2.409 × 1025

Q.16 Being more reactive Fe can displace copper from its salt solution.
Fe + CuSO4 (aq.)  FeSO4 + Cu

Q.17 In colloidal (B, D) and suspension (A) path of light is visible.
Where as in solution (C) particles do not settle down in suspension (A) solute particles are visible to naked
eye.

Q.18 Al is malleable but being more reactive it forms layer of oxide on its surface on exposing to air.
So it cannot be used for  particle scattering experiment.

Q.19 2 Mg + O2 2MgO
Q.20 2Al2O3 Electricit
 y  4Al + 3O2

CaCO3  CaO + CO2

2NaHCO3  Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2

2HgO  2Hg + O2

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Q.21 Amphoteric oxide can react with both acid and base to from salt and water.
Ex. : Al2O3 & ZnO

Q.22 X = Na
Y = Cl

9.033  10 23
Q.25 No. of moles of O atoms = = 1.5 mole
6.022  10 23
Mass of O-atom = 1.5 × 16 = 24 g
Moles of H-atom = 1.5 × 2 = 3 moles.

Q.26 General formula of carboxylic acid is CnH2nO2

Q.28
q
I=
t
Q = nte
I × 1 = (n + 4.8 × 1018) × 1.6 × 10–19
N = 2.2 × 1018

Q.29

S N S N

Q.30 VA – 20 + 10 = vB (from KVL)
VA – VB = 10

Q.31 Magnetic force act perpendicular to velocity of charged partica. I magnetic field. So there is no component
in direction of motion.

Q.32 Electric field can change only the velocity of charged particle. So velocity & momentum (mv) will be
changed.

 m  A   60  60  3
sin  sin 
 2   2  sin 60 2
Q.33 = A = 60 = = 1 = 1.73
sin sin sin 30
2 2 2

Q.37 Speed of a body doesn’t depend on the direction.

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Q.38

h
4

h
2 2

h
1 4

Given 1 = 2 2
Mg = v’g + (2v’g)
h Ah
×A×h×g=×A× × g + 2 + × g.
2 4

h
2
h
1 2

=
v’g = 2 × v’g
 × A × h × g = 2 × A × x × g
h
x=
2

Q.39

C
(–x)
A

R = mv 2 B (–y)

Should be mv 2 from low of momentum conservation.

Q.40
Because kinetic energy is equal
So x1= x2

Q.41 Desired No = LCM (13 & 21) k –10
Where k is a natural no. = 273 k –10
Given
500 < 273 k – 10 < 600
510 < 273 k < 610

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510 610
<k<
273 273
Therefore k will be 2
Hence no. is 273 × 2 – 10
= 546 – 10
= 536
Remainder = 4

.34343434343.....
.34343434343.....
Q.42
.68787878787......  0.687
‘OR’
34 31
0.34 = 99 & 3.4 = 90

34 31 681
So .34 + 3.4 = + = = 0.687
99 90 990

Q.43 P(x) = k (x + 1)2
P(–2)= k (–1)2 = 2
k=2
 P(x) = 2 (x + 1)2
P(2) = 2 (2 + 1)2 = 18

Q.44 x– y = 2
+ kx + y = 3
5
(1 + k)x = 5  x =
1 k
5
 , (x, y) lies in first quadrant therefore, must be (+) ve,
1 k
5
  0  1 + k  k  
1 k
From 1st equation x = 2 + y
Substituting in 2nd equation kx + y = 3
 k(2 + y) + y = 3
3  2k
y=
1 k
We know, y > 0
3  2k
 >0
1 k
 3
 k   1,  ….(2)
 2

 3
From (1) & (2) k   1, 
 2

Q.45 x2 – 6x – 2 = 0
2 – 6– 2 =0
2 – 2 = 6 
Similarly 2 – 2 = 6  (2)

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a10  2a 8 10  10  2  8  8  
2a 9 =
2  9  9  
  
 8  2  2  8  2  2 
=

2  9  9  ….(3)

From eq.(1), (2)& (3)

6  9  9 6

2  9  9
=
2=3

Q.46 S1 =
n
n  1
2

S2 =
n
22  n  13  n 3n  1
2 2

S3 =
n
23  n  15  n 5n  1
2 2

Sr =
n
2r  1n  1
2

 S1 + S2 + …. + Sr =
n
n  3n  5n  .....  (2r  1)n  n 1  1  .....  1 r times
2 2

 S1 + S2 + …. + Sr =
n
n  3n  5n  .....  (2r  1)n  1  1  ......  1
2

=
n
n{1  3  5  ....  (2r  1)}  r 
2

=
n 2
2

r nr =
rn
2

nr  1

A

h
Q.47 60º 30º
B x D 20 C

h 1
In ABC tan 30º = = ……(1)
20  x 3
h
ABD tan 60º = = 3
BD
h=
3x ….. (2)
from (2) in (1)
3x 1

20  x 3
3x = 20 + x  2x =20
x = 10 metre.
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Q.48 cosec x – sin x = a
1  sin 2 x
 =a
sin x

cos 2 x
 =a ….. (1)
sin x
Similarly secx – cos x = b
1  cos 2 x
 =b
cos x

sin 2 x
 =b … (2)
cos x

cos 4 x
From (1) = a2 ….(3)
sin 2 x

sin 4 x
& from (2) = b2 …. (4)
cos 2 x
Now, multiplying eq. (2) with eq. (3) & eq. (1) with eq.(4), we get
a2b = cos3x
 (cos3x)2/3 = cos2x = (a2b)2/3 …. (5)
& b2a = sin3x
 (sin3x)2/3 = sin2x = (b2 a)2/3 …. (6)
Now, adding (5) & (6), we get
(a2b)2/3 + (b2a)2/3 = 1

35m
A B

25m
60º 12m
Q.49
D 12m C

23m

Where r = 12 m
r 2 22 12  12 792 2
Then area = =  = m
4 7 4 7
22 23  23 54819 2
When r = 23m, then area =  = m
7 4 14
54819 792
Increase in area = – = 302.5 m2
14 7

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A

53m
35m
Q.50

B 66m C

154
S= = 77 m
2
 are of ABC = 77  11  24  42 = 924 m
2

So area of circle = 1848 m2
22 2
 r = 1848
7
R = 14 3 m

2

Q.51

4

Let radius of circle be 3 units

3
h1
2r1 = 2r1 = 1

r1

h1 = 32  12  8
h1 = 8

3
h2
2r2 = 4r2 = 2

r2

h2 = 32  2 2  5

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h2 = 5

1 2
1 8
v1 3 1
 
v2 1 10
2 2 5
3

Q.52 V = 1m3
side of square = a
1 = a2 × = 90 cm
100
a= c,
3
90
Density = = 90 kg/m3 = .09 g/cm3
1
3
 100 
Weight of the cube =    0.09
 3 
100  100  100 9
 ×
27 100
10000 10 1
 gm = kg  3 kg
3 3 3

T


P O  R
Q.53


S

POT ~ ROS By AAA similarity
P = R
Since Alternate interior angles are equal
therefore PT || RS

Q.54
Draw BL perpendicular to AC and join L to D. Since BCL = 30º, we get CBL = 60º. Since BLC is a
right triangle with BCL = 30º, we have BL = BC /2 = BD. Thus in BCD, we observes that BL = BD
and DBL = 60º. This implies that BLD is an equilateral triangle and hence LB = LD. Using LDB = 60º
and ADB = 45º, we get ADL = 15º. But DAL = 15º. Thus LD = LA. We hence have LD = LA =
1 1
LB. This implies that L is the circumcentre of the . Thus, BAD = BLD   60º  30º
2 2

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Since ADC = 135º. Which is equal to BAD + ABC. Therefore ABC = 105º.

Q.55 Length of PS = R 1  r 2  R 1  r 2 = 2 R 1r ….(1)

Length of QS = R 2  r 2  R 2  r 2 = 2 R 2r ….(2)

Length of PQ = R 1  R 2 2  R 1  R 2 2 = 2 R 1R 2 ….(3)
PQ = PS + QS ….(4)
By (1), (2), (3) & (4)
2 R 1r + 2 R 2 r = 2 R 1R 2

1 1 1
R1 + R2 = r

Q.56

A

4 6
5
B C
Q R

1
AQ = (Perimeter ABC)
2
1 1
AQ = (4 + 6 + 5) = × 15
2 2
AQ  7.5 cm

(6, –6)
(3, –7)
(x, y)

Q.57

(3, 3)

Points (6, –6), (3, –7) & (3, 3)
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(x – 3)2 + (y – 3)2 = (x – 3)2 + (y + 7)2
y2 + 9 – 6y = y2 + 49 + 14y
– 14y – 6y = 49 – 9
– 20y = 40
y=–2
(x – 6)2 + (y + 6)2 = (x – 3)2 + (y – 3)2
(x – 6)2 + 16 = (x – 3)2 + 25
x2 + 36 – 12x + 16 = x2 + 9 – 6x + 25
6x = 18
x=3
Center = (3, –2)

x + 2y = k

A 3 4
B
Q.58 (2, 3) C (–1, –2)

  3  8 6  12   5 18 
Coordinate of C =  ,  = , 
 7 7  7 7 
Point C lies on line x + 2y = k
5 18
So +2× =k
7 7
41
k=
7

Q.59 Let x is mean
Then smallest no. = x – 10
largest no. = x + 15
So series x –10, 5, x + 15 [ median = 5]
x  10  5  x  15
Given =x
3
2x + 10 = 3x  x = 10
Therefore numbers are 0, 5 and 25
 2  5 2  25 2 0  25  625 650 2
 = = = 216
3 3 3 3

Q.60 P(getting atleast 5) = 1 – P(getting less than 5)
4 cases = 1 + 1 + 1
1+1+2
1+2+1
2+1+1
4 1
P(getting less than 5) = =
216 54
1 53
P (getting atleast 5) = 1 – =
54 54

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