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1ST QUARTER TEST CIVIC GRADE 8

Identify the following sentences. Write the correct answer.

1. The largest of the continents occupying almost a third of the earths land mass.
2. Asia came from the world for __________.
3. The worlds greatest producer of rubber and tin.
4. Is the greater exporter of kapok, pepper, and quinine.
5. Is leading producer of jute, the tough sack fiber.
6. The worlds highest peak on Nepal Tibet.
7. Is the most colossal edifice ever fashioned by human hands.
8. Temple of the Beloved
9. A Hindu temple city
10. Became the first Asian president of the UN General Assembly.
11. Mother of Philippine democracy.
12. The longest dynasty of China
13. A golden age in Chinese history
14. Chinese revolutionary, first president and founding father of the Republic
of China
15. Formerly known as "Formosa

Identify the Regions of the following, & write on its column.


Tajikistan Kazakhstan Cambodia Myanmar Thailand
Indonesia Cyprus Israel
Maldives China Brunei East Malaysia
Japan Nepal Singapore Korea
India Philippines Bangladesh Taiwan

Southeast South Asia East Asia South West North


Asia Asia Central

Enumeration:
( 5 )Major Mountains Ranges in Taiwan

1-10 List at least 10 examples of contribution of China in The World.

Regions of Asia (5)

Answer the following question.


1. Why do we need to study History?
2. How can it help you being a person?

1
Identify the following sentences. Write the correct answer.
1. Land of the Rising Sun
2. The highest mountain Peak of Japan
3. Japans capital
4. The old capital, is the center of Classic Japanese culture.
5. A code of chivalry
6. The goddess of the sun.
7. Land Of The Morning Calm
8. The capital of North Korea
9. Capital of South Korea
10. The largest Island of Japan

TRUE OR FALSE
1. Pres. Kim Dae-Jung in 1998-2003, the only Korean Nobel prizewinner.
2. South Korea is a major global economy the 18th largest economy in the world
3. South Korea the 4th largest in Asia. Next to Japan.
4. Korean cell phones companies are the 2nd largest providers in the world.
5. The Republic of Korea (ROK) occupies 100,032 sq km of the southern peninsula.
6. The capital of North Korea is Seoul
7. The population of South Korea 50 million.
8. South Korea is a modern democracy
9. The martial law era in South Korea is on,(1960-94).
10. The South Korea is the 6thlargest army in the world, a big military budget
(but no nuclear
11. North Korea has the 4th largest army in the world.
12. U. S President George Bush Jr. called the South Korea part of an Axis of
Evil
13. In Oct, 2007, North Korea became a nuclear Power with the help of
Pakistan.
14. The KIM males have ruled North Korea since WW1.
15. The Dear Leader has long since died, but Kim II-sung (1912-94) is the
Eternal Vice-President.
16. North Korea and Castros Cuba are the last relics of the Cold War (1949-
89).
17. Korean Peninsula, with an area of 125,540 sq km,
18. A Pyongyang. Its population of 23 million is threatened by low fertility
rates,
19. High infant mortality, famine, defections and oppression. Life expectancy
is 63 years old, lower than the Philippines 67 years old.
20. North Korea calls itself a juche.

ENUMERATION
1. Five nations in Asia became independent
2. Religion in Asia (10)
3. Major Mountains Ranges in Taiwan (5)
4. The four regents of Japan (4)
5. Island in Japan (4)

Answer the following question.


1. Who is Ameterasu?
2. Discuss short briefly; what happened to Japanese in World War II?

2
2ND QUARTER EXAM CIVIC GRADE 8

Identify the following sentences. Write the correct answer.


1. Land of the Rising Sun
2. The highest mountain Peak of Japan
3. Japans capital
4. The old capital, is the center of Classic Japanese culture.
5. A code of chivalry
6. The goddess of the sun.
7. Land Of The Morning Calm
8. The capital of North Korea
9. Capital of South Korea
10.The largest Island of Japan
11.The largest of the continents occupying almost a third of the earths land mass.
12.Asia came from the world for __________.
13.The worlds greatest producer of rubber and tin.
14.Is the greater exporter of kapok, pepper, and quinine.
15.Is leading producer of jute, the tough sack fiber.
16.The worlds highest peak on Nepal Tibet.
17.Is the most colossal edifice ever fashioned by human hands.
18.Temple of the Beloved
19.A Hindu temple city
20.Became the first Asian president of the UN General Assembly.
21.Mother of Philippine democracy.
22.The longest dynasty of China
23.A golden age in Chinese history
24.Chinese revolutionary, first president and founding father of the Republic of China
25.Formerly known as "Formosa

Identify the Regions of the following, & write on its column.

Tajikistan Kazakhstan Cambodia Myanmar Thailand


Indonesia Cyprus Israel Maldives China
Brunei East Malaysia Japan Nepal Singapore
Korea India Philippines Bangladesh Taiwan
Laos Bhutan Vietnam Kyrgyzstan Afghanistan
Bahrain Jordan Turkmenistan Oman
Lebanon
Iraq Qatar Lizbekistan Kuwait Mongolia

Southeast Asia South Asia East Asia SouthWest North Central


Asia

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Write T if the statement is True & F if the statement is False.

1. Asia is the birthplace of animals.


2. Christianity is the most prevalent religion in Asia.
3. Asia is the most populated continent in the world.
4. The Pyramid of the Philippines are another of Asias man made wonder.
5. Geographers divided the world into 3 parts- East, West & South.
6. The Himalayas hug the tallest peaks in the world.
7. There are 4 rivers drain in Pacific Ocean.
8. Korea holds the world record of the heaviest 24 hour rainfall.
9. The worlds largest archipelago is Malaysia.
10.Indonesia is the worlds greatest producer of rubber and tin.
11.North Korea has the 4th largest army in the world.
12.U. S President George Bush Jr. called the South Korea part of an Axis of Evil
13.In Oct, 2007, North Korea became a nuclear Power with the help of Pakistan.
14.The KIM males have ruled North Korea since WW1.
15.The Dear Leader has long since died, but Kim II-sung (1912-94) is the Eternal Vice-
President.
16.North Korea and Castros Cuba are the last relics of the Cold War (1949-89).
17.Korean Peninsula, with an area of 125,540 sq km,
18.A Pyongyang. Its population of 23 million is threatened by low fertility rates,
19.High infant mortality, famine, defections and oppression. Life expectectancy is 63 years
old, lower than the Philippines 67 years old.
20.North Korea calls itself a juche.

ENUMERATION
1. Regions of Asia (5)
2. Religion in Asia (10)
3. Island in Japan (4)
4. Asian Character Traits (7)
5. Manmade wonders (4)

ESSAY
1. Why do we need to study History? How can it help you being a person?
2. In what way false beliefs can hinder the development of the country?

Identify the following sentences.


1. Is the longest poem in the world
2. Gods song between Khrishna and Arjuna.
3. Is the shorter and tells the story of Prince Rama.
4. Are a collection of hymns and other religious texts
5. Knowledge of the Hymns of Praise
6. Knowledge of the Magic formulas
7. Knowledge of the Sacrificial formulas
8. Priests and teachers
9. Also known as Harijans or Dalits
10. Merchants, craftsmen, and farmers

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IDENTIFY the following dynasty whether it is Han, Tang, Song, yuan, Ming or Qing
Dynasty.
1. Silk road
2. Tea
3. Guns & cannons
4. Paper money
5. Medicine
6. Rite the English
7. Hot air balloon
8. Decimal numbers
9. Geography
10.Literature

Write the English term of the following


1. Shiva
2. Karma
3. Guru
4. Vishnu
5. Yoga
6. Yogi
7. Ayurveda
8. Brahmin
9. Vaisya
10.Sudra

MATCHING TYPE: Write the letters only.


A B.
1. Sun yat sen a. known as Formosa
2. Taiwan b. capital of japan
3. Mt. fugi c. the most powerful warlords
4. Tokyo d. contained the rulers of Japanese chivalry
5. Shogun e. the old capital of japan
6. Samurai f. capital of North Korea
7. Bushido g. the highest mountain peak of japan
8. Nara h. first capital of Japan
9. Shinto i. Japans religion
10.Kyoto j. first president & founding father of the republic
11.Pyongyang k. new class of warriors
12.Korea l. capital of south korea
13.Dangun m. mighty hero, founder of Gojoseon kingdom
14.Kana n. alphabet
15.Seoul o. land of the morning calm
16.Ramayana p. longest poem in the world
17.Mahabharata q. reincarnation
18.Bharma r. right behavior
19.Samsara s. wisdom of verses
20.Rig-veda t. shorter & tells the story about Prince lama

ENUMERATION:
1-10. Chinese contribution to the world
11-20 japanese technological inventions

DISCUSS THE HISTORY OF BHUTAN AND WHY WE CALLED IT COUNTRY IS THE HAPPIEST
KINGDOM. (10 POINTS)

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3RD QUARTER EXAM CIVIC GRADE 8
Identify the following sentences.
1. Is the longest poem in the world 2. Gods song between Khrishna and
Arjuna.
3. Is the shorter and tells the story of Prince Rama. 4. Are a collection of hymns and
other religious texts
5. Knowledge of the Hymns of Praise 6. Knowledge of the Magic formulas
7. Knowledge of the Sacrificial formulas 8. Priests and teachers
9. Also known as Harijans or Dalits 10. Merchants, craftsmen, and
farmers

IDENTIFICATION: Write the English term of the following


Shiva 6. Karma
Guru 7. Vishnu
Yoga 8. Yogi
Ayurveda 9. Brahmin
Vaisya 10. Sudra

IDENTIFY the following dynasty whether it is Han, Tang, Song, yuan, Ming or Qing
Dynasty.
Silk road 11. Tea
Guns & cannons 12. Paper money
Medicine 13. Rite the English
Hot air balloon 14. Decimal numbers
Geography 15. Literature
Guns & gunpowder 16. Stirrups
Draw loom weaving 17. Chinese theater
Wine making 18. Seismograph
Flame thrower 19. Scroll painting
Embroidery 20. Printing

MATCHING TYPE: Write the letters only.


A B
Sun yat sen a. known as Formosa
Taiwan b. capital of japan
Mt. fugi c. the most powerful warlords
Tokyo d. contained the rulers of Japanese chivalry
Shogun e. the old capital of japan
Samurai f. capital of North Korea
Bushido g. the highest mountain peak of japan
Nara h. first capital of Japan
Shinto i. Japans religion
Kyoto j. first president & founding father of the republic
Pyongyang k. new class of warriors
Korea l. capital of south korea
Dangun m. mighty hero, founder of Gojoseon kingdom
Kana n. alphabet
Seoul o. land of the morning calm
Ramayana p. longest poem in the world
Mahabharata q. reincarnation
Bharma r. right behavior
Samsara s. wisdom of verses
Rig-veda t. shorter & tells the story about Prince lama

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True or False: Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if wrong.
1. South Asia is a home to over of the world population
2. Ganges & Indus- the largest river of North Asia
3. North Korea has the 4th largest army in the world
4. North Korea calls itself a Juche state
5. After WW1, Korea was divided by the two allied armies
6. According to China, Japanese molested their last queen before burning
7. Korea is also called as hermit kingdom
8. In 1877 Japan forced the opening of Korea to the world.
9. The Kim Male have ruled north korea since ww2 .
10.Kim II-sung (1912-94) is the Vice president.

ENUMERATION:
1-10. Chinese contribution to the world
11-20 japanese technological inventions
21-25 5 major mountain ranges in Japan
26-28 3 religion in india
29-30 atleast 2 famous food of Korea

ESSAY: explain not less than 200 words.(10 pts.)

What happened to the Japanese in world war II?

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CIVIC GRADE 8 - 4TH QUARTER EXAMINATION

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the word of the correct answer.

1. What will you do if you see Gado-gado? (Run away / Say hello / Eat it / Take off your
clothes)
2. What is Indonesia's national bird? (The Eagle / The green and red parrot / The Garuda /
The Pigeon)
3. What is the largest active Volcano you can visit in East Java? (Bromo / Toba / Krakatoa /
Merapi)
4. Which island has a three coloured lake? (Sambawa / Belitung / Bali / Flores)
5. Which national park can you see wild orangutans? (Bukit Baka Bukit Raya Kalimantan / Tesso
Nilo Sumatra / Aketajawe-Lolobata Maluku / Kepulauan Togean Sulawesi)
6. What part of the body should you wear a koteka? (On your head / On your feet / On your
chest)
7. How many islands are there in the world's largest archipelago? (135 / 3,232 / 17,508 /
205,508)
8. What does the Indonesian Motto "Bhinneka Tunggal Ika" mean? (You look Good /
Adventure Islands / Paradise / Unity in Diversity)
9. Which of these four remarks is NOT true?
Indonesia has a border with Brunei
The islands were first named Indonesia in modern times by a German geographer in
1884
Indonesia is the world's largest archipelago
Indonesia is the largest country in Southeast Asia
10.Indonesia was formerly known as what? (German East Indies / British East Indies / Portuguese
East Indies / Dutch East Indies)
11.In the period 1942-1945, the country was occupied by what other country? (The
Netherlands / Portugal / Korea / Japan)
12.In what year did Indonesia celebrate 60 years of independence? (1995 / 1999 / 2005 / 2000)
13.Which countries have an official land boundary with Indonesia?(Malaysia, Papua New Guinea
and Timor-Leste / Malaysia, Australia and Brunei / Malaysia, Singapore and Thailand /
Malaysia, India and Philippines)
14.Indonesia has an estimated number of 6,000 inhabited islands. But what is the estimated
total number of islands? (17,000 / 9,000 / 11,000 / 15,000)
15.The Indonesian flag is similar to the flag of what other country? (Monaco / The Netherlands /
Philippines / Luxemburg)
16.Jakarta is the capital of Indonesia. (True / False)
17.What is the main religion in Indonesia? (Protestant / Hindu / Catholic / Islam)
18.On what island is Jakarta? (Celebes / Java / Borneo / Ambon)
19.The Malay Peninsula was labeled by Ptolemy, the Hellenistic Egyptian geographer and
astronomer, on his early map. What name did he give it? (Argenta Malaya / Terra Malayana /
Aurea Chersonesus / Terra Aurima)
20.Ptolemy called the important straits along the Malay Peninsular Sinus Sabaricus. What is
the modern name? (The Straits of Malaya / The Straits of Malacca / The Straits of Sunda / The
Straits of Singapore)
21.Westerners arrived in Malaya early in the 16th century. Malacca, a trading port then, was
captured and colonized in 1511. Of what nationality were the first European colonists?
(English / Portuguese / Spanish / Dutch)
22.This sultanate controlled the maritime trade passing along the southern edge of the Malay
Peninsular in the 15th century before being captured by the Western colonizers. It slowly
declined after that. (Sulu Sultanate / Mindanao Sultanate / Malaccan Sultanate / Penang
Sultanate)
23.Treaty in 1824 divided the Malay Archipelago into two spheres of influence, which in turn
gave rise to separate nations of Indonesia and Malaysia. What is the treaty called? (Anglo-
Spanish Treaty / Anglo-Portuguese Treaty / Anglo-American Treaty / Anglo-Dutch Treaty)
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24.How did Malaya gain independence from the British in 1957? (By a United Nations resolution /
Communist takeover and blood bath / Local democratic elections, local government and
eventual independence / Revolutionary war of independence)
25.What of these states and/or territories were added to what was then Malaya to
form Malaysia in 1963? (All of these / Sabah (British North Borneo) / Sarawak / Singapore)

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26.The King of Malaysia is known in Malaysia as:(The Grand Sultan / The Perdana Menteri / The
Grand Emir / The Yang Di Pertuan Agong)
27.Kuala Lumpur has been the capital since independence. Its name has a meaning in Malay.
Kuala means confluence of rivers (it also means estuary). What does Lumpur denote?
(Rubber / Tine / Mud / Palm Oil)
28.What nations flag does the Malaysian flag design resembles most closely? (United States /
United Kingdom / Indonesia / Saudi Arabia)

29. What country is this? (Australia / Vietnam / Antartica /


Cambodia)

30. Name this country. (Laos / Indonesia / Vietnam /


China)

31. What country is number 10? (Malaysia / Indonesia /


Thailand/ Singapore)

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32. What country is number 4? (Japan / Cambodia / Vietnam /
China)

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33. What country is number 5? It is the only landlocked
country. (Thailand / Cambodia / Vietnam / Laos)

34. How many island make up Indonesia? (17,500 / 25,000 /


2,500)
35. ______ an area that includes Laos, Cambodia, Vietnam and Myanmar (Malay Archipelago /
Malay Peninsula / Indochina peninsula / Brunei)
36. A ______________ is a piece of land surrounded by water on three sides (Island / Country /
Peninsula / River)

37. What country is this? (Thailand / Cambodia / Vietnam /


China)
38. What is capital of Vietnam? (Hanoi / Seoul / Wellington / Tokyo)

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39. What country is this? (Singapore / Indonesia /
Malaysia / Brunei)

40. Name this country. (Philippines / Taiwan /


Japan / New Guinea)

41. Name this island. (Java / Papa New Guinea /


Indonesia /Myanmar)

42. What country is this? (Vietnam / Thailand /


Cambodia / Laos)
43. What is the capital of Cambodia? (Beijing / Ho Chi Minh City / Angkor Wat / Phnom Penh)

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44. What is the capital of Singapore? (Singapore / Not
Singapore)

45. What country is number 9? (Malaysia / Brunei /


Indonesia / Philippines)

46. What country is number 1? (Japan / United States /


China / Mexico)
47. This country is part of both mainland & island Southeast Asia (Thailand / Brunei /
Malaysia / Singapore)
48 What is the metropolitan population of Malay Archipelago? (1419 / 1302551 / 350
million / 1071)
49 Where is Malay Archipelago? (Valley Forge / Bolivar (state) / Southeast Asia /
Helsinki)
50. Where does Malay Archipelago come from? (Papua New Guinea / France / United
Kingdom / Saint Lucia)
51. The Sunda Islands comprising the Greater Sunda Islands and ________(Maluku Islands /
Lesser Sunda Islands / Indonesia / East Nusa Tengara)
52. The ice age boundary was formed by the deep water straits
between Borneo and Sulawesi; and through the Lombok Straitbetween ________ and Lombok.
(Jakarta / Central Java / Indonesia / Bali)
53. The six largest islands are New Guinea, Sumatra, ________, Sulawesi, Java, Luzon.
(Malaysia / Southeast Asia / Indonesia / Borneo)
54.The racial concept was proposed by European colonialists based on their observations of
the influence of the ethnic Malay empire, ________.(Majapahit / Malacca Sultanate / Srivijaya /
Kediri (historical kingdom)
55. The main religions in this region are Islam, Christianity, Buddhism, Hinduism and
traditional ________.(Polytheism / Gnosticism / Animism / Soul)
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56. The common name was derived from the concept of a Malay race,[6] which included the
peoples of modern-day ________, Malaysia, and the Philippines.(Singapore / Indonesia / East
Timor / Vietnam)
57. Situated between the Indian and ________, the group of 25,000 islands is the world's
largest archipelago by area.(Arctic Ocean / Southern Ocean / Atlantic Ocean / Pacific
Ocean)
58. Which group of countries does not physical border each other? (India, China, and Nepal /
Japan, Republic of Korea and Russia / Thailand, Cambodia and Laos / All of the above)
None of the above
59 Which group of countries are not all located in or border on the Indian Ocean? (Sri Lanka,
Madagascar, and Maldives / India, Sri Lanka and Nepal / India, Sri Lanka and Pakistan / all of
the above / none of the above)
60 Which country is not adjacent to the Pacific Ocean (Chile / Mauritius / Cook Islands / All
of the above / none of the above)
61. Which groupings does not list countries that area all part of Oceania?(Marshall Islands,
Japan, and New Zealand / Vanuatu, Tonga, and Samoa / Fiji, East Timor, and Cook Islands / all
of the above / none of the above)
62 Which groupings does not list countries that area all part of Southeast Asia?(Brunei,
Indonesia, and Cambodia / Malaysia, Vietnam, and Singapore / Philippines, East Timor and
Korea / all of the above / none of the above)
63. Which countries are in the top 10 list of most populated countries in the world?(India,
China, and Bangladesh / Indonesia, Pakistan and Brazil / Russia, Nigeria and the United States
/ all of the above / none of the above)
64. Which of these countries share at least one time-zone?(China, India, and Russia / China,
United States, and Russia / China, Japan, and Thailand / all of the above / none of the above)
65 Which languages are spoken in Singapore?(English, Mandarin, and Malay / Chinese,
Indian and Japanese / Mandarin, Cantonese and Thai / all of the above / none of the above)
66. Which are capital cities in the Asia-Pacific?(Port Moresby, Sydney, and Wellington /
Canberra, Kuala Lumpur, and Jakarta / Toyko, Singapore, and Saigon / all of the above / none
of the above)
67 What do Bhutan, Laos and Nepal have in common?
They are the all speak the same language.
They are the only countries in the Asia-Pacific region are landlocked
They are the only countries in the Asia-Pacific that have monarchies.
68. Which are currencies not found in the Asia-Pacific?( yen, bhat, and dollar / pula, krone
and rand / won, rupee, and pound)
69. There was an early settlement long before the arrival of Stamford Raffles. It was located
between the mouth of the Singapore River and a small watercourse known today as Stamford
Canal. What was the original name of this stream?(Fresh Water Well / Fresh Water Lake / Fish
Water Spring / Fresh Water Spring)
70. When did the first junk transporting immigrants from China arrive in Singapore?(1820 /
1821 / 1822 / 1823)
71. The earliest mosque in Singapore is believed to be(Jamae mosque / Omar mosque / Al
Abrar mosque / Hajjah Fatimah mosque)
72 The oldest Jewish synagogue is the Maghain Aboth built in 1878. It is located at(Queen
Street / Waterloo Street / Victoria Street / Bencoolen Street)
73. The Sikhs make up a small but significant proportion of the Indian population of
Singapore. They began arriving in Singapore from as early as 1881. Committed to their
religion, they set about establishing temples. Today, the Central Sikh Temple is an imposing
building, capped by an impressive dome. Where is it located? (Queen Street / Silat Street /
Towner Road / Serangoon Road)
74. It is interesting to know that it was a wealthy Arab Muslim who donated the land for two
non-Muslim buildings in Singapore. One of them was (Armenian Church / St Andrew's
Cathedral / Methodist Girls' School in Sophia Road / Church of True Light off Serangoon Road)

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75 In 1875, the government bought over the old Parliament House for $15,000. What
purpose, then, did it come to serve? (Quarantine centre for new immigrants / Lookout point
for smuggling / The first government hospital / Supreme Court of the colonial government)
76 On what occasion was the bronze statue of Stamford Raffles moved from its original site
to its present location in front of the Victoria Memorial Hall? (Queen Victoria's Golden Jubilee /
The coronation of Queen Elizabeth II / Singapore's centenary celebrations / After the
surrender of the Japanese in 1945)
77 Today we are familiar with what is referred to as the Padang. It was, however, not known
as the Padang until 1906. What was the original name given to it by Stamford Raffles? (The
Walk / The Bay / The Flatland / The Plain)
78 The Istana is today the official residence of the President of the Republic of Singapore.
The word means 'palace' in Malay. What was the name given to it when it was first built?
(Governor's House / Colonial House / Temasek House / Government House)
79. In which year was the Istana built? (1869 / 1879 / 1871 / 1872)
80. Who supervised the construction of the Istana? (A J F McNair / George D Coleman / C
Ronald MacPherson / John Napier)
81. Where was Tan Tock Seng Hospital originally located? (Outram Park / People's Park /
Moulmein Road / Pearl's Hill)
82. The site at which City Hall stands today was once occupied by the homes of private
individuals. It was an oversight that led to the land sale. Stamford Raffles had wanted the site
reserved for administrative buildings. The private homes eventually gave way to City Hall.
When was City Hall built? (Between 1928 and 1931 / Between 1927 and? 1930 / Between
1926 and 1929 / Between 1929 and 1932)
83. Who designed the Supreme Court Building? (George Coleman / Colonel Jackson / Henry
McCallum / Dorrington Ward)
84. Pulau Ubin was once of great value to the main island of Singapore because of
a valuable item it could offer. What was that item?(Fish / Sand / Vegetables / Granite)
85. When did Raffles Hotel open for business? (1877 / 1887 / 1896 / 1892)
86. The Alsagoffs have always been a prominent family in Singapore. Their history can be
traced back to 1824 when the first of them arrived in Singapore from Yemen, which is today
south of Saudi Arabia. Beginning with trading in spices, the family went on to own land in
different parts of Singapore and were engaged in various charitable activities. Who was the
old patriarch of this family? (Syed Abdul Raman Taha Alsagoff / Syed Mohammad Ahmad
Alsagoff / Syed Mohammed Alsagoff / Syed Ali Redha Alsagoff)
87. What was the name given to Keppel Harbour when it began to service ocean going
vessels? (Tanjong Pagar / Harbour / New Harbour / Singapore Harbour / Raffles Harbour)
88 Keppel Harbour was named after Captain Henry Keppel. Who was he?(Governor of the
Straits Settlements / Governor General of India / Admiral of the British Navy / Commodore of
the British Merchant Fleet)
89 Singapore's only suspension bridge is the (Read Bridge / Ord Bridge / Cavenagh Bridge /
Anderson Bridge)
90 Which was the first bridge to be built across the Singapore River? (Elgin Bridge /
Montgomery Bridge / Coleman Bridge / Pulau Saigon Bridge)
91 Vietnam has a centuries-old tradition of resisting foreign domination. Who among the
following led early efforts to win independence from China? (The Trung Sisters / Kublai Khan /
Bao Dai / All of the above)
92. During World War II, Ho Chi Minh and his Vietminh organization developed the strategy
that would eventually force the French out of Vietnam. It included:
Emphasizing the Vietminh's commitment to Communism and social revolution.
Tapping Vietnamese nationalism, promising independence, and pledging democratic
reforms.
Fighting other nationalist groups.
Collaborating with the Japanese.
All of the above.

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93. This organization helped Ho Chi Minh wage guerrilla war against the Japanese during
World War II: (The Office of Strategic Service (OSS) / The Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) /
The KGB / The Chinese Nationalist government / The British Secret Service)
94. The French government sought to reassert its authority in Indochina following World War
II for which of the following reasons:
Control of Indochina would restore Francs faltering prestige
Indochina possessed valuable oil reserves
The French Government feared that Vietnam would fall into anarchy in the absence of
French rule
Continued French control of Indochina would prevent the USSR from dominating
Southeast Asia
All of the above
95. In the late 1940s, Truman Administration policymakers abandoned America's earlier
opposition to continued French control of Indochina because:
They viewed the colonial system as the best way to assist developing regions.
They wanted to maintain good relations with Paris in order to ensure that France would
continue to help contain Soviet power in Europe.
Ongoing French control facilitated American economic penetration of Vietnam.
France promised to grant independence to Vietnam by 1950.
All of the above.
96 American officials determined that they could not support Ho Chi Minh for the following
reason:
His close ties with Chinese Nationalist leader Chiang Kai-shek.
His steadfast refusal to promise tax-free monopolies for U.S. imports.
His deeply held Communist beliefs.
His refusal to accept American military aid in 1947.
97 In 1950, this leader proved crucial for the formal Chinese and Soviet recognition of the
Democratic Republic of Vietnam: (Joseph Stalin / Jawaharlal Nehru / Chiang Kai-shek / Mao
Zedong / Josep Tito)

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98 In 1950, the Truman Administration shifted from pro-French neutrality to outright support
for Paris in its war with the Vietminh because of:
Heightened Cold War fears in the wake of the Soviet Union's detonation of an atomic
bomb in 1949.
The Communists' victory in the Chinese civil war.
The strong realization that the loss of further territory to Communism would come at a
steep domestic political price.
The belief that the fall of Indochina to Communism would force resource-starved Japan
into the Communist Bloc.
All of the above.
99 The Domino Theory held that:
The fall of Indochina to Communism would rapidly lead to Communist domination of all
of Southeast Asia.
Southeast Asian nations would stand up to Communism like a wall of dominos.
The fall of Indochina to Communism would have little impact on other nations in the
region.
All of the above.
100 The Bao Dai government that France established in 1950 was notable because:
It was Vietnam's first truly independent, post-colonial government.
American officials unequivocally supported it.
It was a puppet government designed to obscure continued direct French control of
Vietnam.
It was a compromise solution that enjoyed the strong support of Ho Chi Minh
All of the above.

18
1st Quarter EXAM FILIPINO GRADE 8
Tukuyin ang mga sumusunod na tanong. Isulat ang tamang sagot.
1. Ito ay isang uri ng panitikan na nagsasalaysay tungkol sa kabayanihan at
pakikipagtunggali ng pangunahing tauhan laban sa mga kaaway na halos hindi
mapaniwalaan dahil ang mga tagpuan ay pawang kababalaghan at di-kapani-
paniwala.
2. Ito isang uri ng panitikan na nagkukuwento tungkol sa mga pinagmulan ng mga
bagay-bagay sa daigdig.
3. Ito ay ang mga kwentong galing sa ating bayan.
4. Ito ay mga awit ng mga Pilipinong ninuno at hanggang ngayon ay kinakanta o
inaawit pa rin.
5. Ito ay ang mga kwentong galing sa ating bayan.
6. Ito ay mga awit ng mga Pilipinong ninuno at hanggang ngayon ay kinakanta o
inaawit pa rin.
7. Ang unang aklat na nalimbag sa Pilipinas.
8. Ito ay ikalawang aklat na nalimbag sa Pilipinas ni Padre Blancas de San Jose noong
1602.
9. Ito ang una't pinakamakabuluhang salin sa Tagalog ng prosang umiinog sa buhay
ng dalawang santo.
10. Ito ay isang naratibong tula ng Pilipinas, na nagsasaad ng buhay ni Hesukristo,
mula kapanganakan, pagkapako niya sa krus, hanggang sa muling pagkabuhay.
11.ay binubuo ng palitan ng liham ng dalawang magkapatid.
12. Ito ay mga butil ng karunungang hango sa karanasan ng matatanda, nagbibigay
ng mabubuting payo tungkol sa kagandahang-asal at mga paalala tungkol sa batas ng
mga kaugalian at karaniwang patalinhaga.
13. Inilalarawan ang bagay na pinahuhulaan, ito ay nangangailangan ng mabisang
pag-iisip.
14. Ito ay nakapupukaw at nakahahasa ng isipan ng tao, katulad ng bugtong, ito ay
nangangailangan ng talas ng isip.
15. Ang mga salawikain, kawikaan, at kasabihan ay mga maiiksing pangungusap na
lubhang makahulugan at naglalayong magbigay patnubay sa ating pangaraw-araw na
pamumuhay.

Panuto: Isulat sa patlang ang titik L kung ang pang-uri na may salungguhit
ay nasa lantay na antas, PH kung ito ay nasa pahambing na antas, at PS
kung ito ay nasa pasukdol na antas.
1. Kailangan ko ng makapal na kumot.
2. Si Maricar at Marco ay magkasinggulang.
3. Si Gabriel ay mas makulit kay Rico.
4. Ang sasakyan ni Gino ay simbilis ng tren.
5. Ang mga daan sa lugar ng mga iskuwater ay makipot.
6. Tamad na tamad ang lalaking istambay diyan sa tindahan.
7. Si Ate Lea ay labis na mabait kaysa kay Ate Elsa.
8. Ang mga ito ay ang pinakamagagarang damit ni Ate Emily.
9. Higit na malubak ang daan dito kaysa roon!
10. Ang bagong sapatos ko ay matibay.

19
Punan ang kahon sa ibaba ayon sa hinihingi nitong kaantasan.
LANTAY PAHAMBING PASUKDOL
1. mabait
2. napakadalisay
3. Higit na masukal
4. magaan
5. di-gaanong maaliwalas
6. maliit
7. pinakamaganda
8. Mas malawak
9. mabigat
10. mahusay

Hanapin ang kasig kahulugan ng mga sumusunod.

1. agaw buhay 6. Makapal ang palad 11. Walang puso


2. anak dalita 7. Maipis ang mukha 12. Mahabang dulang
3. balitang kutsero 8. Maitim ang dugo 13. Makati ang dila
4. makapal ang bulsa 9. Makati ang paa 14. Guryon
5. mahina ang loob 10. Sampid bakod 15. Samaing palad

Malas na tao maraming pera madaldal kasalan malupit


Naghihingalo mahirap hindi toong balita takot duwag
Nakikitira mahilig sa gala salbahe mahiyain masipag

Magbigay ng (5) limang halimbawa ng salawikain at ipaliwanag ang bawat


isa. (15 puntos )

Tukuyin ang mga sumusunod na pangungusap.


1. Naglalarawan ang pang-uring isang pangngalan o panghalip na walang
pinaghahambingan.
2. Nagtutulad ang pahambing sa dalawa o higit pang pangngalan o panghalip.
3. Ang katangiang namumukod o nagngingibabaw sa lahat ng pinaghahambingan.
4. Nalalaman kung sino-sino ang magsisiganap sa kuwento at kung ano ang papel na
gagampanan ng bawat isa.
5. Nakasaad ang lugar na pinangyayarihan ng mga aksyon insidente, gayundin ang
panahon kung kailan naganap ang kuwento.
6. Nagsasaad ng problemang haharapin ng pangunahing tauhan.
7. Ang naglalahad ng panandaliang pagtatagpo ng mga tauhang masasangkot sa
suliranin.
8. Pinakamadulang bahagi kung saan maaaring makamtan ng pangunahing tauhan
ang katuparan o kasawian ng kaniyang ipinaglalaban.
9. Bahaging nagsasaad sa pakikitunggali o pakikipagsapalaran ng pangunahing
tauhan laban sa mga suliraning kakaharapin, na minsan sa sarili , sa kapwa, o sa
kalikasan.
10. Bahaging nagpapakita ng unti-unting pagbaba ng takbo ng kuwento mula sa
maigting na pangyayari sa kasukdulan.

20
11. Bahaging maglalahad ng magiging resolusyon ng kuwento. Maaaring masaya o
malungkot, pagkatalo o pagkapanalo.
12. nagsasaad kung kailan naganap o magaganap ang kilos na taglay ng pandiwa.
13. Tumutukoy sa pook na pinangyarihan, o pangyayarihan ng kilos sa pandiwa
14. Naglalarawan kung paano naganap, nagaganap, o magaganap ang kilos na
ipinahahayag ng pandiwa
15. Nagbabadya ng di-katiyakan sa pagganap sa kilos ng pandiwa.

Salungguhitan ang pang-abay sa bawat pangungusap at bilugan naman ang


salitang tinuturing nito.
1. Araw araw akong pumapasok.
2. Marami pa rin ang ayaw tumigil sa paninigarilyo.
3. Natutulog ng mahimbing ang sanggol sa kuna.
4. Saanman tayo mgpunta, makikita ka niya.
5. Walang patutunguhan ang usapang ito.
6. Ang mga tao ay taimtim na angdarasal.
7. Kakain ako sa malapit na karinderya.
8. Sa Huwebes na ang concert ni Alden Richards.
9. Gaya ng sinabi ko, itoy maganda.
10. Ang kakanin naming ay sapat lang.

Tukuyin kung ito ay Sanhi o Bunga. Isulat ang sagot sa patlang.


_____ 1. Gabi na siyang umuwi, pinagalitan siya ng ina.
_____ 2. Kakain ako ng marami [para maging malakas.]
_____3. [Pinuri ni Binibining Donato ang kanyang mga mag-aaral] kasi
tumutulong sila sa mga nasunugan.
____4. Pinalakpakan ng mga kamag-aral si Michael [kasi nasabi niya kung sino ang
pambansang bayani.]
____ 5. Nagpasalamat si Binibining Donata sa kanyang mga mag-aaral [dahil
nakatulong sila nang mgalaki sa mga nangangailangan.]
____6.[Magkakasama sina Jose at ang kanyang mga kaibigan] kasi pupunta sila
sa bayan.
_____7. Dalidaling hinabol ng tingin ni Jose ang kanyang tsinelas [dahil naanod iyon
ng tubig.]
_____8. [Kahanga-hanga ang tanawin sa paligid] kaya labis na nasiyahan si Jose.
_____9. Fiesta ng bayan [kaya nagpasiyang pumunta roon ang mgakakaibigan.]
____10. [Bumagsak sa pagsususlit si Tanya.] Natatakot siyang makita ng nanay
niya ang kanyang test paper.

Bilugan ang mga pang-uring pamilang sa bawat pangungusap.


1. Ang lahat ng mga pinya sa lamesa ay walo.
2. Bumili si Missy ng isang basket na mga prutas.
3. Binuhat ni Richards ang Limang sakong bigas sa kanyang likod.
4. Milyon ang nakuha ng lalaking nanalo sa paligsahan.
5. Limampung mag-aaral ang tumanggap ng libreng Bag.
6. Siya ay ikalawang humingi ng tulong.
7. Sasampung piso ang natira sa pera niya.
8. Tiglilimampiso ang bili ko sa mga aklat na ito.
9. Kalahatiang ibinigay ko sa kanyang buwanang sahod.
10. Daang-libong piso ang pinuhunan ko sa kalakal.

21
Punan ang mga salita sa tulang Sa Aking mga Kabata ni; Jose P. Rizal
Sa Aking mga Kabata
Kapagka ang bayay sadyang 1. _____
Sa kanyang salitang 2. ____ ng langit
Sanlang 3. __, nasa ring masapit
Katulad ng ibong nasa 4. _____

Pagkat ang salitay isang 5. ______


Sa 6. ___, nayot mga 7. ______
At ang isang taoy katulad. Kabagay
Ng alinmang likha noong 8. _____

Ang hindi 9. _____ sa kanyang 10. _______


Mahigit sa 11. _____ at 12 ______ isda,
Kaya ang marapat pagyamanin kusa
Na tulad ng isang tunay na nagpala.

Ang Wikang 13. _____ tulad din ng 14. _____,


Sa Ingles, Kastila at salitang 15. ____,
Sapagkat ang 16. _____ maalam tumingin
Ang siyang naggawad, nagbigay sa atin

Ang salita, natiy tulad din sa iba


Na may 17. _______ at sariling 18. ____,
Na kaya nawalay dinatnan ng 19. _____
Ang 20. ___ sa lawa noong dakong una.

Ipaliwanag ang sumusunod na pahayag.


1. Ang hindi marunong magmahal sa sariling wika, ay higit pa sa mabaho at
malansang isda.

Salungguhitan ang pang-abay sa bawat pangungusap at bilugan naman ang


salitang tinuturing nito.
1. Kaunti ang pumunta sa miting.
2. Marami akong biniling lanzones.
3. Hindi ko gusto ang ginawa mo.
4. Huwag mong paglaruan yan.
5. Oo, tutulungan kita.
6. Tunay na napakaganda ng Palawan.
7. Tila uulan ng Nayon.
8. Sasama yata si Nene sa bukid.
9. Magtatago siya sa ilalim ng mesa.
10. Sa America mag aaral si Maine.
11. Uuwi ako bukas.
12. Tuwing Disyembre, pumupunta kami sa Baguio.
13. Lumabas na marahan si Olivia sa silid.
14. Araw- araw akong pumapasok.
15. Ang mga ato ay taimtim na nagdarasal.

22
Panuto: Isulat sa patlang ang titik L kung ang pang-uri na may salungguhit
ay nasa lantay na antas, PH kung ito ay nasa pahambing na antas, at PS
kung ito ay nasa pasukdol na antas.
1. Kailangan ko ng makapal na kumot.
2. Si Maricar at Marco ay magkasinggulang.
3. Si Gabriel ay mas makulit kay Rico.
4. Ang sasakyan ni Gino ay simbilis ng tren.
5. Ang mga daan sa lugar ng mga iskuwater ay makipot.
6. Tamad na tamad ang lalaking istambay diyan sa tindahan.
7. Si Ate Lea ay labis na mabait kaysa kay Ate Elsa.
8. Ang mga ito ay ang pinakamagagarang damit ni Ate Emily.
9. Higit na malubak ang daan dito kaysa roon!
10. Ang bagong sapatos ko ay matibay.

Salungguhitan ang pang-uri sa pangungusap at isulat sa patlang ang L kung


Lantay, Ph kung Pahambing, at P kung Pasukdol.

1. Ang mga kwentong binasa niu Theresa sa aklat ay napakahaba.


2. Magsimbilis ang takbo ng dalawang bata.
3. Ang pamilya Reyes ay masaya sa kanilang bagong bahay.
4. Sina Jose Rizal at Andres Bonifacio ay magsindakila.
5. Magsinlamig ang klima sa Baguio at Tagaytay.
6. Hari ng tapang ang Tito ng aking kaibigan.
7. Ang bata ay mabait.
8. Pinakamatanda ang aking ina sa lahat.
9. Higit na malawak ang kabukiran nina Miriam kaysa kina Michael.
10. Ang suot niyang damit ay lumang-luma na.

Basahin ang mga sumusunod na pangungusap. Bilugan ang sanhi at


salungguhitan ang bunga.
1. Dahil sa maruming paligid, marami ang nagkasakit.
2. Hinimatay si Jason sa tindi ng init.
3. Nabiyak ang lupa sa lakas ng Lindol.
4. Buhat ng umunlad ang bayan, nagkaroon ng katiwasayan.
5. Pinagmalupitan ang kanilang angkan kaya siyay lumaban.
6. Sumakit ang kanyang sikmura sa pagkain ng mangga.
7. Mahusay siyang tumula kaya naman siya ang nagwagi.
8. Si Alyssa ay nagsikap sa pag-aaral kaya ganap na siyang mangagamot.
9. Sa sobrang pagkain ni Ebok ng litson, tumaas ang kanyang dugo.
10. Buhat nang tanggapin ni Julia ang Diyos, siya ay pinagpala.

23
Piliin at isulat ang buong salita ng wastong sagot sa bawat bilang.
1. Sa napakamurang gulang, ang tulang naisulat ni Rizal noong siyay walong taong
gulang ay (Sa Aking Mga Kabata / Kundiman / Ang Unggoy at Pagong / Mariang
Makiling)
2. Sa tulang Sa Aking Mga Kabata, sa bawat taludtod na taglay ang ganda at estilo
ng may-akda, madarama mo ang (paghihimagsik / pagmamahal / pagkamakabayan /
pagkabigo)
3. Isang uri ng panitikan na nagpapahayag ng kaisipan o diwa sa pamamagitan ng
maayos at piling- piling mga salita (maikling kuwento / dula / tula / nobela)
4. Ang pagkakaroon ng isang tunog ng huling pantig sa bawat taludtod na lubhang
nakakaganda sa isang tula ay (sukat / himig / tugma / diwa)
5. Ang pinatungkulan ni Rizal ng mensahe ng kanyang tulang Sa Aking Mga Kabata
ay ang: (pilitiko / kabataan / mamamayan / matatanda)
6. Kapag ang isang akda ay naglalahad ng sariling palagay, pananaw o kuru-kuro ng
manunulat tungkol sa isang paksa tinatawag itong (talambuhay / sanaysay / balita /
talumpati)
7. Ang paglahahad sa isang paksa upang maging kawili-wili ay kailangang mabisa at
(malinaw / mapitagan / makatwiran / maligoy)
8. Ang taong tunay na nagmamahal sa kanyang kapwa ay handing (magpaalipin /
mapakamatay / magpakasakit / magdusa)
9. Pag-ibig na labis na makapangyarihan, Sampung mag-aamay iyong nasasaklaw,
Pag ikaw ang nasok sa puso ninuman, Hahamakin ang lahat _____ (madama ang
pagmamahalan / maarok lang ang kalooban / mapayapa lamang ang buhay /
masunod ka lamang)
10. Punan ang patlang ng angkop na salitang hango sa isang awit pansimbahan.
Pagkat ang Diyos natiy Diyos ng pag-ibig. Magmahalan tayo at magtulungan. At
kung tayoy bigo ay huwag limutin, Na may Diyos tayong _____(nagmamasid /
nagmamahal / nagpapatawad / nagtuturo)

24
2nd Quarter EXAM FILIPINO GRADE 8

Tukuyin ang mga sumusunod na pangungusap.


1. Ang karaniwang pinapaksa nito ay may kinalaman sa pag-ibig, kabiguan,
kalungkutan, pag-asa, pangamba, poot at kaligayahan.
2. Ito ay nagtataglay ng mga karanasan, kaisipan, guniguni, pangarap at ibat-ibang
damdaming maaaring madama ng may-akda o ng ibang tao.
3. Nagtataglay ito ng mga aral ng buhay, may labing apat na taludtod
4. Ito ay pumupuri sa sa mga pambihirang nagawa ng isang tao o grupo ng mga tao,
masigla ang nilalaman at walang katiyakan ang bilang ng mga pantig sa bawat
taludtod.
5. Ito ay tulang may kinalaman sa guniguni tungkol sa kamatayan.
6. Ito ay tulang nagpaparangal sa Dakilang Lumikha at may kahalong pilosopiya sa
buhay.
7. Ito ay naglalahad ng makukulay at mahahalagang tagpo sa buhay tulad ng pag-
ibig, pagkabigo at tagumpay.
8. Ito ay nagsasalaysay ng kagitingan ng isang tao, ang kanyang pakikitunggali sa
mga kaaway at mga tagumpay niya sa digmaan.
9. Ito ay tungkol sa mga paksang may kinalaman sa pakikipagsapalaran ng mga
kilalang tao sa mga kaharian tulad ng hari, reyna, prinsipe, prinsesa, duke, konde at
iba pang dugong mahal na ang layunin ay palaganapin ang Kristiyanismo.
10. Kabilang sa uring ito ang karagatan, duplo at balagtasan.
11. Ang dulang ito ay kaiba sa sa nabanggit na, pagkat ang layunin ay magpatawa sa
pamamagitan ng katawa-tawang kilos o pananalita ng mga tauhan.
12. Itoy katawatawang dula na karaniwang pinapaksa ang katawa-tawang ugali ng
tauhan.
13. Itoy sadyang namimiga ng luha sa manonood na parang wala nng masayang
bahagi sa buhay ng tauhan kundi pawing problema na lamang ang nagyayari sa araw-
araw.
14. Ang tema nitoy mabigat o nakakapagpasama ng loob kaya nakakaiyak,
nakalulunos ang mga tauhan, karaniwan silang nasasadlak sa kamalasan, kabiguan,
kawalan at maging sa kamatayan, kaya nagwawakas na malungkot.
15. Itoy katawa-tawa, magaan sa loob dalhin ang tema at ang mga tauhan ay laging
nagtatagumpay sa wakas.
16. Itinatanghal sa entablado gaya ng senakulo, sarsuwela, opera at moro-moro.
17. Ginaganap sa bakuran o bahay tulad ng juego de prenda at iba pa.
18. Sa dulang ito hindi gumagamit ng entablado ang mga nagtatanghal. Halimbawa
nito ay tibag at panunuluyan
19. Tinatawag din itong panahunang pangnagdaanan o aspektong naganap.
20. Tinatawag din itong panahunang pangkasalukuyan o aspektong nagaganap.

Punan ng wastong pananda ang mga patlang.


1. Magdaraos ___ pulong ang mga mag-aaral bukas nang umaga.
2. Maraming proyektong gagawin ang mga mag-aaral ___ kanilang paaralan.
3. Binili __ kendi si Daye para sa kanyang Kuya Raphie.
4. Nakasaad __ kautusan ng paaralanna bawal ang mag-ingay.
5. Darating ___ isang buwan sina Arnel at Gina.
6. Manonood kami __ sine bukas.
7. Huwag ka munang tatanggap __ bisita.
8. Dumalo kami __ kaarawan ni Elvira.
9. Malakas ang ulan__ lugar namin.
10. Ikinasal __ San Sebastian sina Rod at Laarni.
25
11. Magdaraos __ pulong ang mga Obrero bukas.
12. Maraming bata ang nagkalat ngayon __ lansangan.
13. Kumain __ spaghetti si Radek sa kaarawan ni Raphael.
14. Darating __ Hunyo si Gel.
15. Masipag magtanim _ gulay si Nhiegel.

Punan ang mga salita sa Tulang Ang Guryon


Ang Guryon
Tanggapin mo anak, itong munting 1.____,
Na yari sa2.___ at papel de Hapon
Magandang laruang 3.___, puti, 4. ___
Na may 5. ____mong sa gitna naroroon.

Ang hiling ko lamang bago 6. _____,


Ang guryon mong ito ay 7. ______;
Ang 8. _____pauloy sukating magaling
Nang hindi mag-ikit o kayay 9. ___.

Saka, pag humihip ang 10. ___, malakas


At sa papawiriy bayaang11. ____;
Datapwat ang 12. ____tibayan mo, anak
At baka lagutin ng hanging malakas.

Ibigin mat hindi, balang-araw; ikaw


Ay mapapabuyong 13. _______;
Makipaglaban ka, subalit tandaan
Na ang nagwawawiy ang pusong 14. ____

At kung ang 15. ____moy sakaling 16. _____,


Matangay ng iba o kayay mapatid;
Kung saka-sakaling din na17. ____
Maawaing 18. _____nawa ang magkamit.

Ang buhay ng guryon, marupok, 19. ____


Dagitit dumagit saan man sumuot
O, paliparin mot ihalik sa20. ___
Bago pa tuluyang sa lupay sumubsob!

Isulat ang wastong aspekto ng pandiwang nasa loob ng panaklong.


1. Si Jinky ay ________ (ligo) sa batis tuwing Sabado.
2. _________(pagod) si Eliza sa pagluluto ng kalamay.
3. ________ (dala) si Lukas ng bulaklak bukas para sa guro namin.
4. Ang tinder sa bangketa ay __________(huli) ng pulis kanina.
5. Lagi ka sanang ______(ingat) sa araw-araw mong pag-alis.

26
Bilugan ang pandiwa sa pangungusap at isulat sa patlang ang titik P kung
perpektibo, I kung Imperpektibo at K kung Komtemplatibo.
1. Ang mga timba ay pinuno ng Tubib ni Liza.
2. Magkakamping sa isang lingo ang mga batang iskawt kasama si Phillip.
3. Nabitiwan ni Rhiza ang hawak na CEllphone.
4. Ang tagal naming dumating ni Tatay.
5. Ang tubig ulan ay dumadaloy sa alulod ng Bahay.

Ibuod ang mga sumusunod.


1. Sa Pula, Sa Puti. 2. Kwento ni Mabuti
a. Tauhan a. Tauhan
b. Tagpuan b. Tagpuan
c. Pangyayari c. Pangyayari
d. Suliranin d. Suliranin
e. Wakas e. Wakas

Ibigay ang hinihingi Aspekto ng pandiwa.


Salitang-ugat Pangnagdaan Pangkasalukuyan Panghinaharap
1. laba
2. agaw
3. akyat
4. luto
5. alay
6. bago
7. balik
8. basa
9. kain
10. galaw

Isulat sa karaniwang antas ang mga sumusunod na salitang balbal.


1. tsikot 2. yosi
3. praning 4. dyowa
5. senglot 6. erpat
7. ermat 8. dyuding

Ibuod ang mga sumusunod.


1. AANHIN NINOYAN 2. ANG KALUPI 3. SA PULA SA PUTI
a. Tauhan a. Tauhan a. Tauhan
b. tagpuan b. tagpuan b. tagpuan
c. pangyayari c. pangyayari c. pangyayari
d. suliranin d. suliranin d. suliranin
e. wakas e. wakas e. wakas

Sagutin ang mga sumusunod na tanong. 2 3 pangungusap.


1. Dapat nga bang ibatay an gating kapalaran sa suwerte? Pangatwiranan.
2. Naniniwala ka ban a ang sugarol ay kapatid ng magnanakaw?
3. Magbigay ng masasamang epekto ng pagsusugal sa sarili, sa pamilya at sa bayan.

27
3rd Quarter EXAM FILIPINO GRADE 8
Tukuyin kung anong kayarian ng pang-uri ang ginamit.
1. maganda 2, balat sibuyas
3. aral 4. anak pawis
5. husay 6. iyak ng iyak
7. araw-araw 8. malakas
9. bait 10. sinabi
11. ingay 12. bahag hari
13. araw araw 14. bahay ampunan
15. naligo 16. binigay
17. balitang kutsero 18. sasama
19. sumakay 20. halik

Tukuyin ang mga sumusunod.


1. Ito'y binubuo ng salitang-ugat lamang.
2. Ito'y mga salitang-ugat na kinakabitan ng mga panlaping Ka-, ma-,
3, Ito'y binubuo sa pamamagitan ng pag-ulit ng buong salita o bahagi ng salita.
4. Ito'y binubuo ng dalawang salitang pinagtatambal.
5. ginagamit sa paghahambing ng dalawang magkaibang bagay, tao, pangyayari at
iba pa
6. katulad ng pagtutulad ngunit hindi ito gumagamit ng mga salita gaya ng sa
pagtutulad.
7. lubhang nagpapalabis sa kalagayan ng tao, hayop, bagay at halaman
8. pagsasalin ng katangian ng tao sa mga bagay, may buhay man o wala
9. Ito ang paggamit ng mga salitang kung ano ang tunog ay siyang
kahulugan.
10. Isang uri ng ironya na ipinapahiwatig ang nais iparating sa huli.
11. isang panawagan o pakiusap sa isang bagay na tila ito ay isang tao.
12. ang isang teksto kung ito ay naglalahad ng mga bagong kaalaman, bagong
pangyayari, bagong paniniwala at mga bagong informasyon.
13. ang isang teksto kung ito ay naglalahad ng mga posisyong umiiral na kaugnayan
ng mga proposisyon na nangangailangan ng pagtalunan o pagpapaliwanagan.
14. Tekstong nangungumbinse o nanghihikayat.
15. ang isang teksto kung ito ay nagtataglay ng informasyong may kinalaman sa
pisikal na katangian ng isang tao, lugar, bagay.

Bumuo ng mga salitang may klaster o kambal katinig batay sa tsart na nasa
ibaba. Ang klaster ay maaring matagpuan sa unahan, gitna o hulihan ng
salita.
Mga Klaster Salita
Hal; Kw Kwintas
1. ts
2. bl
3. br
4. dr
5. rt
6. tr
7. ts
8. dw
9. pl
10. rd
28
PANUTO: Punan ng kambal- katinig ang salitang bubuo sa diwa ng
pangungusap.
1. Magdadala si Joey ng _____eter dahil maginaw sa Amerika.
2. Huwag mong hahawakan ang ___antsa dahil ito ay mainit.
3. Basahin ang iyong ___aderno para sa pagsusulit bukas.
4. Inilagay ni Tanya ang mga bulaklak sa ___orera.
5. Nasugatan si Ben sa ___aso kanina.
6. Paborito ni Sam ang mga ___okolate .
7. Nilagyan ni Ana ng __ip ang kanyang buhok .
8. Ang malaking ___ak ay nasiraan sa kalye.
9. Pumunta si John sa ____inik dahil masakit ang kanyang tiyan.
10. Nakakita ang mga bata ng ___ago noong pumunta sila sa zoo

PANUTO: Bilugan ang mga salitang may diptonggo.


1. ilaw
2. relo
3. kahoy
4. ilaw
5. bigay
6. gatas
7. guro
8. baduy
9. kasuy
10. Kalabaw

Sumulat ng isang pormal na sanaysay sa tulong ng isa sa mga sumusunod


na paksa.
- 2 3 saknong
- sa bawat saknong may tig limang pangungusap o higit pa.

1.Ang Pagsubok sa Buhay ng Tao


_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________

Sagutin ang sumusunod na tanong.


1. Para sa iyo, ano ang Pag-ibig?
2. Kung ikaw ang tatanungin ano ang iyong gusting maging Wika sa pag aaral o
pagtuturo. Wkiang Ingles o Filipino? Pangatwiranan.

Isulat sa iyong sagutang papel ang angkop na diptonggo para mabuo ang
mga salita sa ibaba.
Ibinigay ang kahulugan ng salita bilang clue.
1. sukl_ _ pang-ayos ng buhok
2. bugh_ _ isa sa mga kulay
3. ar_ _ sumisikat tuwing umaga
4. bal_ _ sira ulo
5. bah_ _ tirahan
29
6. tul_ _ pasok
7. tul_ _ tawiran sa ibabaw ng ilog
8. ok_ _ Uri ng pagkain
9. sal_ _ tugtog na kasabay ng kanta
10. ag_ _ dumi sa bahay
11. sakl_ _ ginagamit ng pilay
12. pil_ _ may baling buto
13. il_ _ nagbibigay ng liwanag
14. sis_ _ anak ng inahen
15. dil_ _ isa sa mga kulay

Suriin ang mga salita. Lagyan ng masayang mukha ang patlang kung ito ay
may diptonggo at ekis kung wala.
1. daloy 11. Reyna
2. yoyo 12. Ilaw
3. keyk 13. Sayaw
4. araw 14. Sweldo
5. buhok 15. Okoy
6. kamay 16. Sakyan
7. aruy 17. Baley
8. braso 18. Trabaho
9. araw 19. Sweldo
10. baboy ` 20. Presyo

Tukuyin kung anong kayarian ng pang-uri ang ginamit.


1. Bait 2.Maganda 3. Lutong bahay
4. kinain 5. Taun-taon 6. iyak
7. dinarasal 8. Sinaktan 9. takot
10. simpleng buhay 11. Takipsilim 12. araw
13. biyaya 14. Mahal 15. awa

Piliin ang mga salitang may klaster at itala ang mga ito sa iyong sagutang
papel. Salungguhitan ang mga klaster.
Diskriminasyon sombrero suntok soltera praning trapo
Preno sampal samba prestihiyo edukasyon arte
Letra klaster simple kredito drama
grasya
Asosasyon tradisyon parte tostado sandata kwento

Piliin sa mga salita sa ibaba ang mga salitang diptonggo. Isulat ang mga
tamang sagot sa papel.
Tunay saysay kulay simoy tuloy
Suklay duklay saway halimaw baliw
Reyna mayroon magiliw bistay bilog
Suhayan pantigin maysakit bantayan biya
Kawayan pantayan aliwan buhayin

Sumulat ng isang pormal na sanaysay sa tulong ng isa sa mga sumusunod


na paksa
1. Kapalaran o Sariling Kakayahan
2. Akoy Tao, Hindi Tao Lamang
3. Ang tunay na pag-ibig ay di marunong kumilala ng panganib.
30
31
FILIPINO-GRADE 8 - 4TH QUARTER EXAMINATION

Sabihin kung itoy Korido o Awit. Isulat ang tamangs agot sa papel.
1. Ang sukat ng bawat saknong ay lalabindalawahing pantig.
2. Mabagal ang pagbigkas o pag-awit nito kaya madamdamin.
3. Higit na makatotohanan dahil ang paksa ay malapit sa kasaysayan.
4. HIgit na buhay at masigla ang damdamin nito.
5. Ang sukat ng bawat linya sa isang sknong ay wawaluhing pantig.
6. Mabilis ang pag-awit o pagbigkas nito tulad sa mabilis na pagsasalaysay.
7. Ang paksa ay alamat at pantasya o may kapangyarihang supernatural ang tauhan
kung minsan.
8. May malalim na damdaming relihiyoso.
9. Halimbawa nito ay Ibong Adarna.
10. Halimbawa nito ay Florante at Laura.

Tukuyin ang mga sumusunod na tauhan sa Florante at Laura


11. Tagapagligtas ng Albanya sa kamay ng mga kaaway.
12. Ang kagandahan ay itinulad kay Venus, babaing minahal ni Florante.
13. Isang Moro na nagligtas kay Florante sa mga leon.
14. Kababayan ni Florante, naging taksil sa Albanya kaagaw ni Florante kay
Laura.
15. Pinuno ng Albanya, ama ni Laura.
16. Uliran sa kabaitan, tagapayo ni Haring Linceo, butihing ama ni Florante.
17. Ama ni Adolfo
18. Anak ng Haring Krotona, ulirang ina ni Florante
19. Nagligtas kay Florante habang sanggol pa ito sa Kuko ng Buwitre.
20. Ama ni Aladin at umiibig din kay Flerida.

Suriin ang mga salita. Lagyan ng masayang mukha ang patlang kung ito ay
may diptonggo at ekis kung wala.
21. A. daloy B. Reyna
22. A. yoyo B. Ilaw
23. A. keyk B. Sayaw
24. A. araw B. Sweldo
25. A. buhok B. Okoy
26. A. kamay B. Sakyan
27. A. aruy B Baley
28. A. braso B. Trabaho
29. A. araw B. Sweldo
30. A. baboy ` B. Presyo

32
Isulat sa iyong sagutang papel ang angkop na letra para magkaroon ng
klaster ang mga salita sa ibaba. Ibinigay ang kahulugan ng salita bilang
clue.
31. 1. p _ asa liwasan
32. 2. k _ edito utang
33. 3. d _ ama dula
34. 4. p _ eso bilanggo
35. 5. t _ apo basahan
36. 6. p _ enda sangla
37. 7. p _ antsa pang-unat ng damit
38. 8. p _ ito luto sa mantika
39. 9. p _ ato pinggan
40. 10. g _ asya biyaya

Ibuod ang mga sumusunod na Kabanata sa Florante at Laura


41-42 KABANATA 16 20
43-45. KABANATA 1-5

Hanapin ang kasig kahulugan ng mga sumusunod.


46. agaw buhay Malas na tao
47. anak dalita Naghihingalo
48. balitang Nakikitira
kutsero
49. makapal maraming pera
ang bulsa
50. mahina ang mahirap
loob
51. Makapal ang mahilig sa gala
palad
52. Maipis ang madaldal
mukha
53. Maitim ang kasalan
dugo
54. Makati ang malupit
paa
55. Sampid hindi toong balita
bakod
56. Walang takot
puso
57. Mahabang duwag
dulang
58. Makati ang salbahe
dila
59. Guryon mahiyain
60. Samaing masipag
palad

Punan ng kambal- katinig ang salitang bubuo sa diwa ng pangungusap.


61. Magdadala si Joey ng _____eter dahil maginaw sa Amerika.
62. Huwag mong hahawakan ang ___antsa dahil ito ay mainit.
63. Basahin ang iyong ___aderno para sa pagsusulit bukas.
64. Inilagay ni Tanya ang mga bulaklak sa ___orera.
33
65. Nasugatan si Ben sa ___aso kanina.
66. Paborito ni Sam ang mga ___okolate .
67. Nilagyan ni Ana ng __ip ang kanyang buhok .
68. Ang malaking ___ak ay nasiraan sa kalye.
69. Pumunta si John sa ____inik dahil masakit ang kanyang tiyan.
70. Nakakita ang mga bata ng ___ago noong pumunta sila sa zoo

34
Sagutin kung Tama o Mali.
71. Mapangalagaan ang mga kabataan sa masasamang elemento tulad ng
pagtutulak at pagkalulong sa bawal na gamot.
72. Mabawasan ang mga kabataang nagkakalat sa kalye.
73. Maiwas sa pag-inom ng alak, paninigarilyo at pagsusugal ang mga
kabataan.
74. Mailayo ang mga kabataan sa impluwensiya ng barkada.
75. Mapalaki ang kita ng mga panggabing negosyo.
76. Ipatutupad ng curfew samga Barangay.
77. Ang curfew ay para lamang sa mga kabataan.
78. Ang mga kabataang 17 taong gulang pababa ay sakop ng curfew.
79. Mula ika-10 ng gabi hanggang ika-4 ng umaga ipatutupad ang curfew.
80. May mga kaparusahan sa mga kabataang lalabag sa ordinansa.

Pagpapakilala sa mga Tauhan


81. Florante 88. Laura
82. Aladin 89. Adolfo
83. Haring Linceo 90. Duke Briceo
84. Konde Sileno 91. Prinsesa Floresca
85. Menalipo 92. Sultan Ali Adab
86. Antenor 93. Menandro
87. Miramolin 94. Osmalic

Pagpapaliwanag
95.97 Anong sakripisyo ang kaya mong gawin para sa iyong pamilya?
98-100 Ibigay ang kahulugan para sa iyo ng Pag-ibig.

Isulat sa iyong sagutang papel ang angkop na diptonggo para mabuo ang
mga salita sa ibaba.
Ibinigay ang kahulugan ng salita bilang clue.
101. sukl_ _ pang-ayos ng buhok
102. bugh_ _ isa sa mga kulay
103. ar_ _ sumisikat tuwing umaga
104. bal_ _ sira ulo
105. bah_ _ tirahan
106. tul_ _ pasok
107. tul_ _ tawiran sa ibabaw ng ilog
108. ok_ _ Uri ng pagkain
109. sal_ _ tugtog na kasabay ng kanta
110. ag_ _ dumi sa bahay
111. sakl_ _ ginagamit ng pilay
112. pil_ _ may baling buto
113. il_ _ nagbibigay ng liwanag
114. sis_ _ anak ng inahen
115. dil_ _ isa sa mga kulay

35
Ibigay ang kahulugan ng mga sumusunod na salita. Isulat ang tamang sagot
sa papel.
pursiyento puhunan Makata liham pirma
mabigla mag-apura kalihim kaibigan ibig
buto Lagom saloobin Baybayin hiwaga
batid Nagdadalamhati Dukha Ganda Libangan

116. a) Pampalipas oras b)gusto


117. a) Kariktan b)katoto
118. a)dalita b)sekretarya
119. a)Naghihinagpis b)magmadali
120. a)alam b)magulat
121. a)misteryo b)pirma
122. a)dalampasigan b)liham
123. a)damdamin b)Poeta
124. a)buod b)Capital
125. a)butil b)bahagdan
126.
Ibuod ang mga Kabanata sa FLORANTE AT LAURA. Sampung Puntos (5)
bawat bilang.

127. KABANATA 1-5


128. KABANATA 6 - 10
129. KABANATA 11-15
130. KABANATA 16 20
131. KABANATA 21-27

36
First Monthly Exam Grade 8

Name: Grade: Date:

I. Directions: Identify the base and exponent in each of the following expressions.
1. ab2 4. 64
2. 126 5. 46
3
3. 16a

II. Directions: Rewrite each of the following to powers.


1. 2 2 2 2 2
2. a a a a a a a a
3. y y y
4. y cubed
5. the third power of n

III. Directions: Simplify each expression.


1. x3 x2 6. (-5p5)(4p3)
2. a2 a3 7. (a5)(a5)(a7)
6 8 3
3. xxy 8. 8. (-3a4)(2a3)
4. (-4ab7)(3a8b) 9. (m3n)(mn7)
7 2
5. (4m )(m ) 10. (2am)(3a2m2n)

IV. Directions: Simplify the following.


8 a8 b5 3 ab 12 c 12
1. a 2. a b4 11. ab 9 16. (2x3)3

(2 x)9 2 a7 a6 b
3. (2 x)2 4. a )2 12. ab ) 17. (-3x)2

x n12 45 x12 y 5
3
5. ( 10 ) 6. n
2 13. 5x y
2 18. (x2y5)3

45 a9 b5 24 a4 b 6 36 a 8 b 20
7. 5 a b2 8. 24 b2 14. 6 a2 b 4 19. (4x2)2

24 a3 b 6 121 a7 b5 24 x7 y 6 z8
9. 2 a2 b4 10. 11 a6 b2 15. 8 x7 y 6 z2 20. (3x4)4

21. (-3abc2)3 25. 5-1 31. 5z(3z-3)


22. (4xy3)3 27. (2-1)3 32. (4a)-3
23. (-3x3)2 28. (-3)0 33. a9b0c-3
a2 b3
24. (x7)5 29. ab
4 34. (a-2b-2)-3

25. (4x2)3 30. 4a-3(4a)-2 35. (a4b-3)-7

V. directions: Multiply the following


1. (6x + 3)(7x 5) 9. (x + 2y)(7x + 3)
2. (9x 2y)(8x + 4y) 10. (8x 8) (9x + 3)
3. (9x 9) (9x + 8) 11. (7x 10y)(6x + 3y)
37
4. (9a + 8) (7a 9) 12. (7x 12)(2y + 8)
5. (8x 5)(7x + 8) 13. (4xy 12)(2xy 4)
6. (11x 12)(8x + 12) 14. (4ab b)(2ab a)
7. (2x 5)(2x + 9) 15. (2xy 8)(2x 6)
8. (3x 9)(4x 10)

38
VI. Directions: Find the products.
1. (5x 3)(5x + 3) 9. (4x 9)(4x + 9)
2. (x y)(x + y) 10. (ab + 8)(ab 8)
3. (6x 8)(6x + 8) 11. (xy 4)(xy + 4)
4. (13x 12)(13x + 12) 12. (5x2 9) (5x2 + 9)
5. (11x 13) (1`x + 13) 13. (a2b2 + c2) (a 2b2 - c2)
6. (6x + 3) (6x - 3) 14. (x3 y7) (x3 + y7)
7. (3a b) (3a + b) 15. (2x5 3y3) (2x5 + 3y3)
8. (3x 6) (3x + 6)

39
Second Monthly Exam Grade 8
Name: Grade: Date:

I. Directions: Simplify the following.


1. (x 6)2 16. (6x 12)(36x2 + 72x + 144)
2. (5a 3b)2 17. (2x + 9)(2x2 18x + 81)
3. (x + 5)2 18. (5x 9)(25x2 + 45x + 81)
4. (2a + b)2 19. (7x 1)(49x2 + 7x + 1)
5. (5x 11)2 20. (2x 1)(4x 2+ 2x + 1)
6. (6x + 8)2 21. (4x 12)3
7. (5ac3 8b2)2 22. (2x 5)3
8. (7x 5y)2 23. (6x 12)3
9. (a2 - 2b4)2 24. (x y)3
10. (2a 2bc)2 25. (2ab 3c)3
11. (2x + 3)(4x2 6x + 9) 26. (2x2 + 3y)3
12. (3x + 5)(3x2 15x + 25) 27. (3x 12)3
13. (4x 2)(16x2 + 8x + 4) 28. (6x 3y)3
14. . (3x + 12)(9x2 36x + 144) 29. (2x 12) 3
15. (3x + 9)(9x2 27x + 81) 30 (4x + 3)3

II. Directions: Factor each polynomial using common monomial factoring.


1. (4x + 8) 6. (2x4 + 3x3 + 5x) 11. (3x 6)
5 3 6 4 4 6
2. (2x + 3x ) 7. (12x 15x y 45y ) 12. (4a2b4 24a3b4)
9 7 6
3. (x x x ) 8. (3x 12) 13. (4x 24y + 16z)
7 6
4. (4x 2x + 8x) 9. (4a b c 12 b c 8a c ) 14. (x5- x7 x3)
4 3 12 12 13 3 6 7 9

5. (4ab -12b c 14b d ) 10. (12a4b5 36a4b3 + 48a3b4)


4 2 4 3 3
15. (56a8 24b12
48c14)

III. Directions: Factor each of the following.


1. x + xy + 2y + 2y2 16. X2 + 3xy + 2x + 6y
2. 2ps + 2qs + qt + pt 17. 3sp + 3sq + 2tp + 2tq
3. xz + xy + yz + y2 18. X2 3x + 2xy 6y
4. 6xy -4x -2z + 3yz 19. 2ac + bc 2bd 4ad
5. xz 3x 3y + yz 20. 3bc bd + 6ac 2ad
2
6. x 169 21. X2 225
2
7. a 81 22. 9a4 121c6
8. 81 169x2 23. a6 441
4 6 24
9. a b 225c 24. a12 196
10. x2 100 25. 2x2 18
3
11. a + 27 26. 8b3 c12
12. b3 + 1331 27. c3 + 2197
3 6 9
13. a b d 28. a9 + 343
14. a12 + 216 29. a3- b6
6
15. x 1 30. X3y15 - 1728

40
First Quarter Exam Grade 8

Name: Grade: Date:

I. Directions: Factor each polynomial.


1. 121 22m + m2 16. 49y2 -56ay + 16a2
2. x2 12x + 36 17. 36x2 + 48x + 16
3. 100a2 -140ab + 49b2 18. 16a2 -40a + 25
4. 49y2 + 28xy + 4x2 19. a2 + 24a + 144
5. 25a2 20a + 4 20. x2 + 6xy + 9y2
6. 5x2 + 18x + 9 21. 5x2- 7x + 2
7. 5x2 + 19x + 12 22. 4x2 31x 8
8. 5a2 + 12a 9 23. 12x2 + 28x + 15
9. 2a2 -3a 27 24. 6x2 + 25x + 14
2
10. 5a + 11a 12 25. 3a2 a - 30
11. x2 + 15x + 36 26. a2 4a 21
12. b2 12b + 20 27. a2 8a 33
13. x2 x 56 28. a2 13a + 36
14. x2 22x + 98 29. x2 + 13x 68
15. a2 + 12a - 108 30. x2 + -6x - 16

II. Directions: Simplify the following fractions.


1 3 4 7
+ +
1. 8 7 11. 6 9
4 1 4 2
+ +
2. 5 9 12. 8 9
7 4 9 4

3. 8 7 13. 10 13
3 1 5 2

4. 6 8 14. 6 3
9 4 5 9
x x
5. 8 7 15. 7 13
1 2 7 5
x x
6. 6 9 16. 8 6
5 2 3 9
x x
7. 6 5 17. 15 12
1 3 5 9

8. 6 7 18. 6 10
5 9 6 5

9. 6 10 19. 13 12
6 4 6 9
10. 9 x 7
20. 12 11

III. Directions: Simplify the following rational expressions.


41
3
( y+ 3) 2x
1. ( y3)( y + 4) 6. 2 2
2 x ( x 4)

(a7) 1(3 w2)


2. (a+1)(a7) 7. (3 w2)(w+ 4)

( x+ 5)( x6) y3
3. 2
( x+ 5)(x 5)( x 36) 8. 2
y 9

a+ 6 m 225
4. a236 9. m2 +3 m10

b2 49 3
x x
2

5. b22 b35 10. x1

42
IV. Directions: Find the sum of the rational expressions below. Write your answers in
their simples form.
b b 7 c +5
+ +
1. x x 6. a a
m+6 m1 3 a2 b 2 a
+ +
2. 5 5 7. a5 a5
2 2
a 2ab+a 2a 5
+ +
3. a+b a+b 8. 2 a5 2 a5

12 6 a+3 2 x5 x + 4
+ +
4. x +2 x +2 9. 4x x4
13 4 3 x 4 x 2
+ +
5. x +3 x +3 10. x5 x5

V. Directions: Find the difference of the rational expressions below. Write your
answers in their simples form.
6 6 3 x 3 x

1. x x 6. 5y 5 y
5 12 8x 2

2. m2 m2 7. 4 x1 4 x1

4x 8 8x 6

3. x2 x2 8. x +9 x +9
x +5 2 x +2 8+b 4 a+b

4. x x 9. x3 x 3
x+ 2 x1 x+6 x1
2 2
5. 2
x + x2 x + x2 10. 2
x + x+ 6 x + x +6

VI. Directions: Simplify the following rational expressions.


5a a 1 1
+ +
1. 6 10 11. x y
2y 4y 4 1
+ +
2. 4 3 12. xy x
4 x 5 7 5
+ 2 +
3. x +1 x 1 13. x 2x
2

x4 3 3 15
+ + 2
4. x1 x 14. 2 x +10 x 25

6 3 6 x+ 9 x
+ +
5. x 3 x28 2 x14
2 15. x +3 x x+3
2

4x x y x +3 x+24

6. x y22
x+ y 16. x +6 x 236

43
5 5 a a2

7. 3m 6m 17. a 6 a+ 8 a4
2

73 y +5 5 7

8. 3y 5y 18. x 3 x28 2 x14
2

5 6 x +3 2 x18

9. 5 x 2x 19. 2
x 6 x +9 x9

1 1 x
6
10. 4( x1) ( x +3)(x1) 20. y

44
Third Monthly Exam Grade 8

Name: Grade: Date:


I. Directions: Multiply the following rational expressions.
x 2 y 2 2 x +2 y a281 5
1. 6.
x + y 4 x4 y 40 a9

r 21 s2 x+ y 7 x7 y

2. s2 r +1 7. x y 5 x +5 y

3 x +3 y x 2 y 2 x2 x 2 y 2
3. 2 8.
3 x +3 xy+ y 2 xy + y 2 x2 xy
2
10 ( x4 y ) 12 m216
4. 9.
x2 y 5 m4 4

x 25 x +6 3 x 2 4 x 2+ 4 x +1 2 x+ 2 y
5. 10. 2
2
3x x3 2x +x 2 x x1

II. Directions: Simplify the following rational expressions.


4y 8y a+2
3a
1. 6 x 36 x 6. a+1
6 x+12 x +2
2 x 2 16 x 2
2. 7.
( x2) 3 x6
2 3 2
3 y 18 y
a+b a+b 3 x +9 12

3. ab ab 8. 6 4 x +12

x2 +5 x +6 x+3 m3 9 m 2 m+ 6
4. 2
2 9.
x +8 x9 x + 11 x +18 2m 4 m2

x 216 x+ 4 x 21 x2 +3 x
5. 10.
7x 49 x 2 2 x 2+ 14 x+12 x 23 x+ 2

III. Directions: Simplify each complex fraction


1
2 2 1
x +
1. 2. 5 10
1
2 50
2x
x x
+ x+ 4
5 2
3. 4. 16
x x
x
10
1 1 x 1
+ +
2a b 2 x
5. 1 6. 1
1
2 ab 2x

45
x 2 x +5 x
yx 2 10
7. x2 8. 2
x 100
y 2x 4 2y

1
a2 5
x
9. a2 10. 21
3 10
4 x +5

IV. Directions: Solve each equation


x5 6 x4 3 x
=6 =
1. 9 6. 3x 4
3 x9 3 2 a3 2 a
= =
2. 5 x2 4 7. 7 3
y +1 2 y 1 4 x x 5
+ = + =
3. 4 4 4 8. 5 3 10
3 x 5 x 17 m+1 5
+ = =
4. 5 3 12 9. 6 3
d 7 m 1
+2 d= =
5. 6 4 10. m+1 4

46
V. Directions: Solve the following problems.
1. The numerator of a fraction is 15 less than the denominator and the fraction is
equal to 2/5. Find the fraction.
2. Find the number such that the sum of two-thirds and three-fourths of that
number is 40
3. A number is more than the other number. Four-fifths of the greater number is
equal to two-thirds of the lesser number. Find both numbers.

VI. Directions: Graph the following ordered pairs.


1. A(2, 3) 11. K(-4, -4)
2. B(-1, 0) 12. L(4, 0)
3. C(-5, 4) 13. M(-4, 1)
4. D(0, 0) 14. N(-5, 0)
5. E(6, 3) 15. O(-3,0)
6. F(-2, -1) 16. P(-5, 5)
7. G(-3, -2) 17. Q(-6, 3)
8. H(3, 0) 18. R(9, 3)
9. I(-4, 6) 19. S(5, 8)
10. J (-3, 6) 20. T(-6, -6)

VI. Directions: Write each equation in standard form.


1. 2y - 5 = 6y 8x 6. y = 6 3x
5
2. y= 8 x 1 7. y = -4x + 2 + 3y

1 1
3. 5x 13 = 2y 4x 8. 5 x+ 2 y=1
3 2
4. x = 5 - 3 y 9. 8x 12 = 4y

5. y = 2x 3y - 6 10. x + 6 = y

VII. Directions: Use the x and y intercepts to graph the equation


1. y = 5x 2 6. x + 2y + 8 = 0
2. 2x + 3y= -12 7. 3x + 5y =15
3. y + 6= x 8. 2x = 4y + 8
4. x=4y 9. x = -2y + 8
5. 10x + 40 = 5y 10. x + y = -2

47
48
Second Quarter Exam Grade 8

Name: Grade: Date:

I. Directions: Determine the slope of the line passing through each pair of points.

1. (2, 7) and (-3, 0) 6. (-7, 0) and (0, 0)

2. (-4, 6) and (8, 2) 7. (8, -2) and (-9, 2)

3. (5, -5) and (-5, 7) 8. (-5, 4) and (7, 0)

4. (-1, 3) and (-6, 9) 9. (-1, 8) and (2, 8)

5. (-6, 10) and (-3, 12) 10. (-1, 12) and (-6, -10)

II. Directions: Write each equation in slope-intercept form. Then, find the slope

and y-intercept of each line.

1. 12x + 3y = 6

2. 5x = 2y + 5

3. x + 5 = 10y

4. 2x 3y = 6

5. 6x + 8y = 24

III. Directions: Write the equation of the line in standard form given the

following.

1. slope = 6, passes through (-8, 4)

2. slope = -2, passes through (-2, -4)

3. slope = 5, passes through (5,1 0)

1
4. slope = - 3 , passes through (6, -3)

49
2
5. slope = 5 , passes through (-5, 10)

IV. Directions: Write the equation of the line in standard form given the following

1. (6, 6) and (-3, 4) 6. (-5, -5) and (1, 0)

2. (-8, 2) and (-4, 2) 7. (5, 0) and (-6, 6)

3. (7, 5) and (6, -5) 8. (-2, -8) and (3, 0)

4. (2, -3) and (-8, -7) 9. (-5, 6) and (0, 0)

5. (-7, 8) and (4, -2) 10. (-2, -4) and (-3, 8)

V. Directions: Find the equation of each line. Write your answer in standard form.

1. (0, -3) and (-6, 0) 6. (0, -1) and (-4, 0)

2. (0, 6) and (-4, 0) 7. (0, -2) and (-6, 0)

3. (0, -9) and (2, 0) 8. (0, 6) and (6, 0)

4. (0, 3) and (-3, 0) 9. (0, 7) and (5, 0)

5. (0, 7) and (2, 0) 10. (0, -3) and (8, 0)

VI. Directions: State whether the graphs of the following equations are parallel,

perpendicular or neither.

1. 7 = 2x + 5 3x + 2y + 10 = 0 2. 3y = 5x + 6 5y 3x
= 11

3. x + y = 5 Xy=3 4. x + y = 1 x + y = -1

1 1
5. -3x = 7y 2 Y = 4x +5 6. 2 y- 3 x=5 2x + 3y = 3

50
5
7. y = 3x + 3 Y = 3x 5 8. 3y 5x = 15 y= 3 x+2

9. 7x 2y = 5 2x 7y = 1 10. 2x +3y = 6 4x + 6y = 10

VII. Directions: Identify each system. Write Independent, Inconsistent, or


Dependent.
1. x + 3y 4 = 0 4x = 1 3y
2. 3x y = 4 6x + 2y = 8
3. 5x 10y = 15 X y = 15
4. -4x +12y = 20 -xy=5
5. 2x 5y = 1 4x 10y +1 = 0
6. -2x 3y = 5 4x + 6y = -10
7. 9 = x + y 2y + 2x = 10
8. 2x y + 1 = 0 y = 2x + 1
9. x y = 3 yx=0
10. 3x 4y = 1 -9x + 12y = -3

VIII. Directions: Solve each system by graphing


1. y = -2x + 3 Y=x3
2. 2x y = 4 5x + y = 5
3. 3x 2y = 6 2x y = 4
4. 3x +y = 5 xy=3
5. y = -2x + 5 y = 3x 5
6. 6x 3y = 9 6x + 3y = 15
7. 4x + 2y = 8 3x + y = 6
8. 3x +3y = 12 2x +3y = 12
9. 2x 4y = -4 3x 2y - 6 = 0
10. 2y + 4 = -8 y + 2x = -4

IX.Directions: Solve each system using elimination by addition or subtraction.


1. 2x + y = 4 x + y =2
2. xy=2 y + 2x = 5
3. 2(x 4y) = 8 4x +8y = 16
4. xy+3=0 x+y5=0
5. 4x 3y = 12 6x 3y = 12
6. x+y=5 -x + y = 4
7. x+y=5 Y 2x = -8
1 1
8. 2 (x y) = 2 2 (x + y) + 1 = 0
9. 2x 15y = 1 6x 5y = 17
10. 2x +2y = 6 -4x + 3y = 12

X. Directions: Solve the following using the substitution method.


1. x+y=8 4x 5y = -2
2. 3x 2y = 32 -6x +10y = -34
3. m=n+2 2m = n = 16
4. x = 4y + 6 3x 2y = 3o
51
5. 3a + b = 8 3a 3b = 2
6. 2m +n = 2 3m n = -8
7. 4x = 2y + 1 5x = y + 7
8. 5a b = 4 3a + b = 6
9. x + 2y = 6 X + y = -7
10. x = 2y 4 3x 5y = 15

XI. Directions: Solve the following problems.


1. The sum of two numbers is 9 and their difference is 1. Find the numbers.
2. The sum of two numbers is 4. The smaller number less the larger is -7. Find the
two numbers.
3. Zeny is three times as old as her daughter. The sum of their ages is 40. How
old is each?
4. Enzo is one-third the aga of Mathew. Two years from now. Enzo will be three-
fourths asold as Mathew. How old is each?

52
Fourth Monthly Exam Grade 8

Name: Grade: Date:

I. Directions: Graph the solution set of each inequality on a number line.


1. x > 3 6. n < -2
2. x < 5 7. n < -7
3. b >5 8. n > 0
4. c > -3 9. b < 12
5. m < -8 10. x > 3

II. Solve each inequality then graph the solution set.


1. x - 4 > 6 2. x 5 <-4
3. 6 > x -5 4. x 12 <7
5. x 6 < 3 6. 3 <x 8
7. x 8 < 4 8. 2 < x 8
9. x 45 > 8 10. 6 < x 9

III.
Directions: Solve each inequality.
1. x + 9 > -3 16. x + 3 < -12
2. x + 2 > -14 17. 5 > x + 9
3. 5<x+6 18. x + 4 > -10
4. x + 5 < -1 19. x + 6 < -3
5. x + 4 < -3 20. x + 6 > 6
6. 4a > -24 21. -3x > -18
7. -816> -2a 22. 4a > -24
1 5
8. 3 x > -6 23. 10 x < -6
9. 8 > -2x 24. 2a 4 > 12
10. 3a 4 > -16 25. 4a + 6 > -12
11. 5a > -35 26. 4a < -24
12. -5a > -50 27. -24 > 8a
13. -12 > -2b 28. -14 > -7b
14. -32 < -8b 29. -36 > -2c
15. 4b> -36 30. 6a > -612

IV. Directions: Graph the following.


1. x + y > 3 2x 3y < 6
2. y < -x 3 x+2>y
3. -4y + 8 > x Y 3x < 2
4. 3y > 6x 3 Y > -x 5
5. x + y > 2 2x y < 1
6. 2x + 3y > 6 x 2y > - 4
7. 3x + 4y < 12 xy>4
8. 2x 2y > 6 3x y < 3
9. x 2y > 12 2x 4y > 8
10. 5x 2y < 10 2x 3y > 12

53
V. Directions: Determine the domain and range of each relation.
1. {(2, 2), (3, 4), (4, 9)}
2. {(-3, -2), (-1, -1), (1, 0)}
3. {(4, 1), (9, 2),(16, 3)}
4. {(2, 6), (3, 9), (4, `12)}
5. {(0,2), (1, 1), (2,-1)}
6. {(-2, -3), (-1, -3), (0, -3)}
7. {(5, 6), (6, 9), (7, `12)}
8. {(3,2), (4, 1), (5,-1)}
9. {(-3, -3), (-2, -3), (-1, -3)}
10. {(3, 3), (5,6), (7, 9)}

54
Third Quarter Exam Grade 8

Name: Grade: Date:

I. Directions: Express the relationship between the domain and range in each
relation using
a. Tabular method
b. roster method
c. rule or formula method
1. x is five more than y 2. y is twice x

II. Directions: Find the inverse of each relation


1. {(3,6), (4,8), (5, 10)} 11. {(1,6), (2,8), (6, 10)}
2. {(-1, 7), (3, 9), (7, 15)} 12. {(3,5), (4,9), (5, 7)}
3. {(4, 9), (6, 12), (9, 15)} 13. {(2,3), (4,5), (6, 7)}
4. {(7, 9), (9, 12), (11,15)} 14. {(1,6), (2,12), (3, 18)}
5. {(2,5),(4, 9), (6, 13)} 15. {(3,2), (4,1), (5, 0)}
6. {(-2, 3), (0, -1), (2,1)}
7. {(2, 7), (4, 9), (6, 11)}
8. {(-2, -3), (0,-1), (2, 1)}
9. {(2, 1), (4, 3), (6,5)}
10. {(0,-11), (1, -1), (3, 9)}

III.
Directions: Determine whether each correspondence describes a function.
1. {(4, 5), (4, 6), (4, 7)}
2. {(1, 3), (2, 6), (3, 9)}
3. {(1, 4), (2, 8), (3, 12)}
4. a 1
b 2
c 3
5. p a
q b
r c
6. -4 16
-2 4
2
7. Name of Space Mission Year of Launching
Sputnik 1957
Mercury 1962
Mariner 2 1969
Apollo 11
8.
Input 0 1 2
Output -1 1 3

9. {(3, 1), (3, 2), (3, 3)}


10. {(1, 2), (2,4), (3, 6)}

55
V. Directions: Solve each equation for y to show that it is a linear function.
1. 2x y = 5 2. 3(x 6y) = 8
3. 2y 6x = 12 4. -2x y = 7
5. 5x = -7 + 4y 6. 4(x 4y) = 2(x + 7)
7. 2(y + 1) = 2(x 2) 8. 24 + 2y = 4(2x y)
9. 5x + 5y = 5 10. 2(x + 4y) = 3(x 2)

V. Directions: Sketch the graph of each function. You may use any method
1. y = 2x + 4
2. y = x 5
3. 2y = 2x + 10
4. 3y = 12x 3
5. y = 4 2x

VI. Directions: Write the slope-intercept form of each line having the given slope
and containing given y intercept.
1. m = -4, b = -5 6. m = 4, b = -5
2. m = , b = 6 7. m = -2/3 , b -6
3. m = -4, b = -7 8. m = -1/4, b = 6
4. m = 3, b = -1/3 9. m = 6, b = -4
5. m = 3/8, b = 16 10. m = -5, b =

VII. Directions: Find an equation of the line whose x- and y-intercepts,


respectively, are as given.
1. 4 and -7 6. 6 and -3
2. -3 and 2 7. -5 and 2
3. 3 and -1 8. -5 and 4
4. -4 and -5 9. 7 and -4
5. 1 and 7 10. 7 and 9
VIII. Directions: Find the zeros of the following linear functions.
1. y = 6x + 4 6. y = 2x 8
2. y = 3 x 7. y = 2(x - 1)
3. y = 3(x + 5) 8. y = 4(x 7)
4. 8(y x) = 3 9. 4(x + y) = 7
5
5. 2 (x +1) = y 10. 2(5 2y) = x 4

IX. Directions: Translate each sentence into if-then form.


1. All work is noble
2. The month after July is August..
3. All good people go to heaven
4. The sum of the angles in a triangle equals 180.
5. Vertical angles are congruent.
6. Quadrilaterals have four sides
7. Three points are collinear if they lie on the same line
8. Dogs love water.
9. All square are rectangles

56
X. Directions: Tell whether each of the following represents a point, a line or a
plane.
1. each colored dot in a television
2. tip of a pen
3. floor in your classroom
4. a particle of sugar
5. star in the sky
6. a curtain rod
7. edge of a window
8. strand of your hair
9. a page from a book
10. the corners of a paper

57
Fifth Monthly Exam Grade 8

Name: Grade: Date:

I. Directions: Give at least one example to illustrate the postulates and theorems
in the following:
1. Through any two points, there is exactly one line.
2. If two lines are perpendicular, then they meet to form right angles.
3. If two lines intersect, then they intersect in exactly one point.

II. Directions: Define the following:


1. median
2. altitude
3. angle bisector

III. Directions: Which segments are altitudes? Which are medians? Which are
angle bisectors?

IV. Directions: Classify each triangle as scalene, isosceles, or


equilateral.
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

58
V. Directions Find the measures of the third angle in each triangle.
1. 2. 3.

VI. Directions: Complete the statements below by using the given diagram.

1. If m<1 = 52 and m<2 = 26, then m<6 =


2. If m<1 = 35 and m<3 = 80, then m<5=
3. If m<4 = 130 and m<2 = 44, then m>5 =
4. If m<5 = 110 and m<1 = 45, then m<3 =
5. If m<1 = x and m<2 = x + 10 and m<6 =110, then x =
6. If m<2 = 2x 5, m<3 = 3x + 10 and m<1 = 65, then x =
7. m<1 + m<2 + m<3 =
8. m<1= 2x + 8, m<2 = 2x + 12 and m<6 = 90, then x =
9. If m<1 = 50 and m<2 = 22.5, then m<6 =
10. If m<4 = 120 and m<2 = 52, then m>5

VII. Directions: Is it possible for a triangle to have the following sides?


1. 16, 11, 5 6. 12, 12, 34 11. 32, 5, 23
2. 3, 5, 7 7. 11, 4, 6 12. 12, 34, 12
3. 9, 10, 11 8. 12, 54, 34 13. 32, 65, 34
4. 6, 6, 20 9. 34, 23, 56 14. 2, 5, 4
5. 3, 6, 10 10. 34, 12, 67 15. 34, 32, 11

59
VIII. Directions: Suppose you know that ABC LMN. Answer the following.
1. Name the three pairs corresponding vertices.

2. Name the three pairs of corresponding sides.

3. Name the three pairs of corresponding angles.

IX. Directions: Identify the following.


1. SSS

2. SAS

3. ASA

4. HL

5. LL

60
MATH GRADE EIGHT (8)
Sixth Monthly (February)Exam

Name: Grade: Date:

On the figure on the right, x and y


are parallel lines and B is the transversal. B
1 2
Y 3 4
X 5 6
7 8
Name the following
1. Four pairs of corresponding angles

2. Two pairs of alternate interior angles

3. two pairs of alternate exterior angles

List the pairs of consecutive sides and consecutive angles of

Consecutive sides Consecutive angles


4.A 4.B
5. A 5.B
6. A 6.B

Find the measures of the indicated angles.


In the diagram, a II b and t is a transversal.

7. m<1 10. m<4


8. m <2 11. m <5
9. m <3 12. m<6

Find the indicated angle measure using the diagram below.

13. m<1 16. m<4 19. m<7


14. m <2 17. m <5
15. m <3 18. m<6

61
Write true or false.
20. Opposite angles of parallelogram are congruent.
21. A rectangle is a parallelogram with 4 right angles.
22. A trapezoid is a quadrilateral with exactly one pair of parallel sides
23. Isosceles trapezoid is a trapezoid with congruent legs.
24. A parallelogram is a quadrilateral with both pairs of opposite sides are
parallel.
25. A quadrilateral is another type of polygon having four sides.
26. A trapezoid is a quadrilateral with only one pair of parallel sides.
27. A rhombus is a parallelogram with 4 equal sides.
28. Opposite sides of a parallelogram are congruent.
29. A scalene trapezoid is a trapezoid with no equal sides.

Use the parallelogram and the given information below to find


the value of x.

30. AS = 18 ; EY =
31. SY = 3.6 ; AE =
32. AS = 21 ; EY =
33. SA = 2x 16 ; YE = 4x + 12
34. SA = 2x 6 ; YE = x + 15
35. AE = 8x + 8 ; SY =2x 10
36. EX = 4x + 10 ; ES = 50
37. AY = 3x 9 ; AX = 5x + 7
38. EX = 2x + 5 ; ES = 60
39. AY = 6x 18 ; AX = 10x + 7

Find the mean of each of the following sets of numbers


40. 23, 45, 67, 78
41. 123, 345, 654
42. 12, 23, 34, 43, 56, 75, 76
43. 345, 674, 123, 432, 543, 654
44. 6, 0, 4, 6, 5, 6, 5, 7, 4, 10
45. 5, 6, 5, 5, 6, ,6 ,6 ,3 ,5
46. 67, 78, 45, 34, 34, 56, 78, 56
47. 78, 56, 89, 34, 56, 54, 34, 76
48. 56, 78, 456, 56, 56, 89, 0, 54
49. 45, 56, 67, 45, 21, 433, 54, 54, 43, 23

62
Find the median of each of the following sets of numbers.
50. 3, 5, 6, 7
51. 2, 6, 7, 2, 5, 3, 6, 7
52. 67, 78,32, 32, 54, 65, 34
53. 123, 345, 765, 345
54. 56, 67, 57, 21, 34, 56, 43, 76, 45
55. 778, 456, 345, 345, 654, 333, 654, 544
56. 234, 566, 123, 432, 234, 432, 124, 654
57. 12, 56, 34, 23, 54, 65, 23, 32
58. 78, 98, 65, 56, 67, 324, 654, 344, 23
59. 67, 56, 87, 768, 655, 866, 12 ,43, 43, 65

Find the mode(s) of the following sets of numbers.


60. 3, 4, 5, 6, 5, 7, 5
61. 21, 56,32, 32, 54, 3, 65, 32
62. 566, 789, 611, 432, 611, 543, 611
63. 45, 89, 46, 46, 78, 46, 87, 65
64. 67, 45, 67, 23, 68, 45, 68, 45
65. 89, 90, 56, 90, 56, 89, 45, 56, 89
66. 234, 678, 567, 23, 54 , 567, 456, 567,
67. 0, 6, 0, 5, 8, 5, 6,4, 5, 4, 7, 4, 6, 4, 6, 4
68. 67, 89, 78, 34, 78, 45, 78, 45, 78, 23
69. 4, 6, 5, 7, 8, 4, 9, 5, 4, 7, 4, 7, 9, 3, 4, 6, 6

MATH GRADE EIGHT (8)


Fourth Quarter Exam

63
Name: Grade: Date:

Find the range, lower quartile, median, upper quartile and


interquartile range for the following set of data.
1. 2, 3, 5, 2, 5, 6, 7
2. 3, 4, 5, 6, 2, 4, 5, 6, 8, 10
3. 12, 13, 13 ,19, 10, 12, 21
4. 12, 45, 23 , 12, 13, 45
5. 23, 45, 12, 34, 56, 45, 56, 34, 56
6. 123, 123, 345, 234, 123, 456, 654
7. 2, 4, 5, 6, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9
8. 45, 23, 12, 14, 15, 16, 17, 23, 21, 32, 32
9. 23, 12, 16, 17, 17, 18, 12, 21, 34, 32
10. 12, 32, 54, 65, 34, 45, 65, 78, 56

11-20 Construct a frequency distribution with a class interval = 7

The scores of 60 students in an achievement test in Math are given below.


68 75 62 76 93 77 84 81 97 73
60 65 34 82 79 85 79 97 59 76
74 75 95 68 59 78 65 79 56 90
94 82 69 93 75 63 78 75 72 85
78 67 76 88 56 67 62 56 77 67
88 73 62 84 73 75 80 62 85 78

Compute the mean

21-25. The following are the test scores obtained by III- 1 students in Statistics.
Class Interval F
20 24 6
25 29 6
30 34 7
35 39 10
40 44 5
45 - 49 6

26-30. Below is the distribution of the daily salary of workers in ABC Co.
Salary F
100 119 5
120 139 9
140- 159 8
160 179 13
180 199 10
200 - 219 3

64
31-35 Find the median.
The distribution of the profit earned by 50 sari-sari store owners in one week is
shown below.
Profit F
200 249 7
250 299 11
300 349 13
350 399 7
400 449 6
450 - 499 6

36-40 Find the mode.


For 50 days, Pedro recorded the number of cars passing by their street from
10:00 oclock AM to 12: 00 oclock AM. The following table shows the distribution.
No. of cars F
40 44 5
45 49 10
50 54 6
55 59 15
60 64 9
65 - 69

41-45 Find the variance and standard deviation.


For 50 days, Pedro recorded the number of cars passing by their street from
10:00 oclock AM to 12: 00 oclock AM. The following table shows the distribution.
No. of cars F
40 44 3
45 49 10
50 54 13
55 59 9
60 64 8
65 - 69 7

46-55 Find the range.


1. Class interval Frequency
16 8
7- 12 13
13- 18 6
19 24 12
25 30 11

2. Class interval Frequency


12 16 6
17 21 12
22 26 13
27 31 21
32 - 36 8

65
For each of the experiments below, write down its sample space S
and the total number of possible outcomes n(S)
56. A two digit number greater than 75 is written down at random.
57. The numbers 1, 3, 7 and 8 are written on four cards. two of these cards are
picked at random to form a two-digit number.
58. Drawing a card at random from a box containing five identical cards
numbered 21, 22, 23, 24 and 25.
59. Drawing a ball at random from a bag containing 4 identical blue balls and 3
identical red balls.
60. Choosing a two digit number at random.

Answer each problem completely.


61. Out of 50 light bulbs made by a certain company, 4 are faulty. If I buy one light
bulb, what is the probability that it works?
62. A box of sweets contains 8 toffees, 12 liquorices and 4 chocolates. If a sweet is
selected at random, what is the probability that it is a liquorice?
62. If a whole number from 1 to 20 inclusive is selected at random, what is the
probability that the number selected will be a prime?
63. The question on an examination paper are numbered from 1 to 40 inclusive. A
question is chosen at random. Write down, giving your answer as a fraction,
the probability that the number of the question chosen will
a. contain more than one digit
b. be a perfect square
c. contain at least one figure 2
d. not be divisible by 4 or 5.
64. There are 30 multiple-choice questions in an examination paper. A question is
chosen at random. Find the probability that the number of the question
chosen
a. is a two-digit number,
b. is divisible by 4,
c. is a perfect square,
d. is greater than 25,
e. is greater than 8 but less than 16.

66
June Monthly Examination in Science 8

Direction: Write T if the statement is TRUE and F if the statement is FALSE.


_____1. Solid, including powders have fixed volume.
_____2. Solids and liquids cannot be compressed.
_____3. All particles move at the same speed.
_____4. When a gas is compressed, the gas particles become smaller.
_____5. When a solid melts, the temperature remains constant and heat energy is absorbed.
_____6. When a liquid boils, the liquid evaporates and turn into a gas.
_____7. If an element conduct electricity, it must be a metal. (true, false)
_____8. If a substance decompose when heated, the product must be element.(true, false)
_____9. The smallest particles that exist freely in a sample of oxygen gas are molecules.
_____10. If a compound consist of ions, it is a solid.(true, false)

Direction: Choose the correct answer. Write your answer on the space provided.
_____1.Anything that occupies space and has mass is called? (solid, particles, matter, molecules)
_____2.All of the following are characteristics of a solid EXCEPT? (some solid are soft while the others are
hard, some solid are dense while the others are light, some solid are flow in all direction, some
solid cannot be compressed)
_____3.Kinetic particle theory of matter is one of the evidence that the scientist made to show that matter
consist of small particles and it states that: (particles are too small to be seen directly, there are spaces
between particles of matter, the particles of matter are in constant motion)
_____4.One of the common properties of a liquid is: (have a fixed volume, have no fixed shape, do not
flow, can easily be compressed)
_____5.Gases is known for having a smell and color and other characteristics is: (have no fixed volume,
have no fixed shape, cannot be compressed, glow easily)
_____6.The spreading and mixing of particles in liquid and gases. (matter, diffusion, molecules,
particles)
_____7.The use of physical model to show the arrangement of particles in solid, liquid, and gasses. (kinetic
particles of matter, molecules of matter, diffusion of particles and properties, particulate models of
matter)
_____8.When a solid is heated, the particles in it gain energy and vibrate more, this process is called?
(boiling, freezing, melting, evaporation)
_____9.Matter can change from one state to another, one of the processes of state is, CONDENSATION, this
process states that: (when gas is cooled, it changes to a liquid, heat energy is absorbed by the particles
of the liquid during boiling, condensation takes place throughout the liquid, water particles escape
from the surface into the air)
_____10. The particles have enough energy to completely break the forces holding them together, and
the particles are able to move freely and far apart, this process is called? (condensation, evaporation,
sublimation, boiling)
_____11. A substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substance by chemical methods
(compound, molecules, element, substance)
_____12. How many elements are found on earth? (120, 92, 116, 24)
_____13. To broken down(decompose)a substance, can be used? (chemical method, scientific
method, heat or electricity, experiment)
_____14. A molten rock that located beneath the surface of the earth. (sedimentary, calcium,
magma, iron)
_____15. The most abundant element on earth. (hydrogen, carbon, sodium, oxygen)
_____16. A Swedish that revised the symbol for the elements we used today. (Aristotle, Berzelius,
Archimedes, Curie)
_____17. The properties between metals and non-metals. (noble gases, metalloids, atoms,
molecules)
_____18. The smallest unit of an element. (metal, compound, molecules, atoms)
_____19. The group of two or atoms that chemically joined together. (compound, non-metal, metal,
molecules)
_____20. A substance containing two or more elements chemically joined together. (metalloid,
noble gas, atoms, compound)
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Direction: Give the processes of the following changes of state: (10 pts.)

CHANGES of STATE PROCESS


1.Melting
2.Freezing
3.Boiling
4.Condensation
5.Evaporation
6.Sublimations

Essay. Direction: Answer the question.

1. Make a time table on how the early ideas of atom developed. (10 pts.)

68
July Monthly Examination in Science 8- Life Science

Direction: Put the correct answer in the space provided (you will need a Periodic Table)
1. What is the atomic number of oxygen (O)? _____
2. How many protons does an aluminum (Al) atom have? _____
3. How many electrons does a calcium (Ca) atom have? _____
For #4 - #6, consider a potassium (K) atom with a mass number of 41:
4. How many protons does this atom have? _____
5. How many electrons does this atom have? _____
6. How many neutrons does this atom have? _____
For #7 - #9, consider the atom with A = 95 and Z = 42:
7. How many neutrons does this atom have? _____
8. How many protons does this atom have? _____
9. What is the atomic symbol for this element? _____
For #10 - #12, consider the atom with 35 protons, 35 electrons, and 45 neutrons:
10. What is the atomic symbol for this element? _____
11. What is the atomic number of this atom? _____
12. What is the mass number of this atom? _____
For #13 - #15, consider a copper (Cu) atom with a mass number of 64:
13. What is the Z value for this atom? _____
14. What is the A value for this atom? _____
15. How many neutrons does this atom have? _____
For #16 - #18, consider the following symbol 14C
16. How many protons does this atom have? _____
17. How many electrons does this atom have? _____
18. How many neutrons does this atom have? _____
For #19 - #21, consider the iron (Fe) ion with an overall +3 charge and A = 56:
19. How many protons does this ion have? _____
20. How many electrons does this ion have? _____
21. How many neutrons does this ion have? _____
For #22 - #24, consider the iodine (I) ion with an overall 1 charge and A = 126:
22. How many protons does this ion have? _____
23. How many electrons does this ion have? _____
24. How many neutrons does this ion have? _____
For #25 - #26, consider an ion with 50 protons, 46 electrons, and 70 neutrons:
25. What is the charge on this ion? _____
26. What is the mass number of this ion? _____
For #26 - #27, consider an ion with 25 protons, 20 electrons, and 30 neutrons:
27. What is the charge on this ion? _____
28. What is the atomic symbol of this ion? _____
For #28 - #30, consider the following symbol 238U+3
29. How many protons does this ion have? _____
30. How many electrons does this ion have? _____

Essay. Direction: Answer the following question.


1. What is the importance of Ernest Rutherfords contributions to the field of Science? What are the uses of
his discoveries in present? (10 pts.)
2. Who are Leucippus, Epicurus, and Lucretus? What are their contributions to the fields of atoms? (10 pts.)

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1st Quarterly Examination in Science 8

Multiple Choices. Direction: Read the question carefully.WRITE the correct answer.
1. Which word best describes the change when: ice turns to water?
a. Melting b. evaporation c. condensation d. freezing
2. Water appears on a window?
a. Melting b. evaporation c. condensation d. freezing
3. Soup dries up on the stove?
a. Melting b. evaporation c. condensation d. freezing
4. Look at the following ways of separating mixtures.
a. Filtering b. boiling c. by hand d. distilling e. chromatography
5. Which way would you use to turn salty water into pure water?
a. Filtering b. boiling c. by hand d. distilling e. chromatography
6. Which way would you use to remove mud from lake water?
a. Filtering b. boiling c. by hand d. distilling e. chromatography
7. Which ways use heat to help separate the mixture?
a. Filtering b. boiling c. by hand d. distilling e. chromatography
8. Which ways depend upon evaporation of a liquid?
a. Filtering b. boiling c. by hand d. distilling e. chromatography
9. The three basic components of an atom are:
a. Protons, neutrons, and ions b. protons, neutrons, and electrons
c. protons, neutrinos, and ions d. protium, deuterium, and tritium
10. An element is determined by the number of:
(a) atoms (b) electrons (c) neutrons (d) protons
11. The nucleus of an atom consists of:
(a) electrons (b) neutrons (c) protons and neutrons (d) protons, neutrons, and electrons
12. A single proton has what electrical charge?
(a) No charge (b) positive charge (c) negative charge (d) either a positive or negative charge
13. Which particles have approximately the same size and mass as each other?
(a) Neutrons and electrons (c) protons and neutrons
(b) electrons and protons (d) none - they are all very different in size and mass
14. Which two particles would be attracted to each other?
(a) Electrons and neutrons (c) protons and neutrons
(b) electrons and protons (d) all particles are attracted to each other
15. The atomic number of an atom is:
(a) the number of electrons (c) the number of protons
(b) the number of neutrons ` (d) the number of protons plus the number of neutrons
16. Changing the number of neutrons of an atom changes its:
(a) isotope (b) element (c) ion (d) charge
17. When you change the number of electrons on an atom, you produce a different:
(a) isotope (b) ion (c) element (d) atomic mass
18. According to atomic theory, electrons are usually found:
(a) in the atomic nucleus
(b) outside the nucleus, yet very near it because they are attracted to the protons
(c) outside the nucleus and often far from it - most of an atom's volume is its electron cloud
(d) either in the nucleus or around it - electrons are readily found anywhere in an atom
19. The smallest particle into which an element can be divided and still have the properties of that element
is called a(n)
A) nucleus B) electron C) atom D) neutron
20. How would you describe the nucleus?
A) Dense, positively charged B) mostly empty space, positively charged
C) Tiny, negatively charged D) dense, negatively charged

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21. Where are electrons likely to be found?
A) In the nucleus B) in electron clouds C) mixed throughout an atom D) in definite
paths
22. Every atom of a given element has the same number of
A) Protons B) neutrons C) electrons D) isotopes
23. What is the meaning of the word atom?
A) Dividable B) invisible C) hard particles D) not able to be divided
24. Which statement is true about isotopes of the same element?
A) They have the same number of protons. B) They have the same number of neutrons.
C) They have a different atomic number. D) They have the same mass.
25. Which of the following has the least mass in an atom?
A) nucleus B) proton C) neutron D) electron
26. If an isotope of uranium, uranium-235, has 92 protons, how many protons does the isotope uranium-238
have?
A) 92 B) 95 C) 143 D) 146
27. A carbon atom with 6 protons, 6 electrons, and 6 neutrons would have a mass number of
A) 6. B) 18 C) 12. D) 15.
28. Periodic describes (use your periodic table of elements)
A) Something that occurs at regular intervals. B) Something that occurs very rarely.
C) Something that occurs frequently. D) Something that occurs three or four times a year.
29. The elements in each vertical column on the periodic table usually have similar properties and are called
a(n)
A) period. B) Group. C) element. D) property.
30. The elements to the right of the zigzag line on the periodic table are called
A) metalloids. B) conductors. C) metals. D) nonmetals.
31. Most metals are
A) solid at room temperature. C) Dull
B) Bad conductors of electric current. D) Not malleable
32. The properties of elements in a horizontal row of the periodic table follow
A) a non-repeating pattern. C) No pattern.
B) a periodic pattern. D) An unpredictable pattern.
33. Elements on the periodic table are arranged in order of
A) increasing density C) Increasing atomic number
B) decreasing density D) Decreasing atomic number.
34. Which of the following statements describes most metals?
A) They are easily shattered. B) They are gases at room temperature.
C) They are dull. D) They are good conductors of electric current.
35. Which of the following is a property of alkali metals?
A) They are so hard they cannot be cut. B) They are very reactive.
C) They are stored in water. D) They have few uses.
36. Most of the elements in the periodic table are
A) metals. B) metalloids. C) gases. D) nonmetals.
37. A horizontal row on the periodic table is called a(n)
A) group. B) family. C) period. D) atomic number.
38. Elements lying along the zigzag line on a periodic table are
A) metals B) nonmetals C) metalloids D) noble gases
39. How do the physical and chemical properties of the elements change?
A) periodically within a group C) periodically within a family
B) periodically across each period D) periodically across each group
40. Transition metals are A) good conductors of thermal energy. B) more reactive than alkali metals.
C) not good conductors of electric current. D) used to make aluminum.
41. The atomic number of an element is also equal to its number of

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a. electrons b. atoms c. molecules d. subatomic particles
42. A proton weighs ______ atomic mass units.
a. 3 b. 5 c. 2 d. 1
43. The majority of the elements on the Periodic Table are
a. false b. metals c. unreactive d. harmful
44. Metals tend to be good
a. conductors b. insulators c. buffers d. gases
45. Elements in the noble gases tend to be
a. very reactive b. stable c. strong d. heavy

II. Directions: Answer the following questions in the spaces provided. Use the back of the sheet if
necessary. Questions are worth five points each.
Fill in the blank with the correct word.
1. Atomic __________________refers to the arrangement and number of smaller particles of an atom.
2. The __________________is the center of the atom.
3. The atomic number is the number of __________________in an atom.
4. Protons have a __________________charge.
5. __________________are atoms of the same element with different number of neutrons.
6. The electron __________________is the space in which electrons are likely to be found.
7. Elements on the periodic table are represented by chemical __________________
8. The columns in the periodic table are referred to as __________________
9. Metalloids have properties of both metals and __________________
10. Elements to the far left in the Periodic Table are very __________________

True or False. Direction: Write T if the statement is TRUE and F if is FALSE.

1. The weight of subatomic particles is measured in units called atomic mass units.
2. A neutron has a negative charge.
3. Electrons are larger than protons and neutrons.
4. The position of elements on the Periodic Table is dictated by the number of protons.
5. Rows in the Periodic Table are referred to as periods.
6. The weight of subatomic particles is measured in units called atomic mass units.
7. A neutron has a negative charge.
8. Electrons are larger than protons and neutrons.
9. The position of elements on the Periodic Table is dictated by the number of protons.
10. Rows in the Periodic Table are referred to as periods.
11. Atomic structure refers to the building of compounds.
12. The nucleus is the center or core of the atom.
13. Protons are positively charged particles.
14. A neutron is a negatively charged particle.
15. Atomic number is the number of electrons in an atom.
16. Isotopes are atoms of the same element with different numbers of neutrons.
17. Electrons are negatively charged particles.
18. The Periodic Table organizes elements by their atomic structure.
19. Chemical symbols are an abbreviated way of symbolizing electrons.
20. The vast majority of elements are metals.
Essay. Direction: Answer the following question. (15 pts.)
1. Explain why mettalic substances are not completely recycled easily. What factors limit their recycling?
2. Suppose two new elements were discovered with the atomic numbers 121 and 122. Where do you think
these elements would be placed in the periodic table? Why?

September Monthly Examination in Science 8

72
Multiple Choices. Direction: Read the question carefully.WRITE the correct answer.
_____1.Other term for alimentary canal. (respiratory system, digestive tract, stomach, gall bladder)
_____2.The innermost layer of digestive tract. (serosa, mouth, mucosa, anus)
_____3.Controls the movement of food. (salivary glands, sprincters, peristalsis, serosa)
_____4.The physical and chemical digestion of food begin. (serosa, mouth, salivary gland, none of the above)
_____5.The alternate contracting and relaxing of the two sets of muscles result in wave-like movements. (salivary
gland, peristalsis, serosa, sprincters)
_____6.The layer of loose fibrous connective tissue forms the covering layer of the gut. (salivary gland, peristalsis,
serosa, sphincters)
_____7. Helps to push food around and mix it with saliva. (muscular tongue, salivary gland, mouth, none of
the above)
_____8.Helps the tongue to identify the type and quality of the food taken. (taste buds, peritoneum, stomach,
esophagus)
_____9.Food is physically broken into smaller by the contraction of its muscular walls. (taste buds, peritoneum,
stomach, esophagus)
_____10. The outermost part of the serosa. (taste buds, peritoneum, stomach, esophagus)
_____11. Also known as the lump of the earth. (bolus, pharynx, esophagus, larynx)
_____12. The tube leading from pharynx to stomach. (bolus, pharynx, esophagus, larynx)
_____13. The part of the alimentary canal between the mouth and larynx. (bolus, pharynx, esophagus,
larynx)
_____14. The part of the respiratory tract between the pharynx and the trachea. (bolus, pharynx,
esophagus, larynx)
_____15. The combined efforts of the contracting muscular walls and its secretions reduce the contents of
stomach into a thick acidic semi liquid. (chime, duodenum, jejunum, none of the above)
_____16. A section in which the chimes receives from the stomach and digestive juices from the digestive
organs. (chime, duodenum, jejunum, ileum)
_____17. A chemical digestion is completed and absorption begins? (chime, duodenum, jejunum,
ileum)
_____18. What is an ileum? (receives chime from the stomach to the digestive tract, produces hydrochloric
acid, a sprincter muscles controlling flow of chime to the large intestine, produce a thick layer of mucus.
_____19. All of the following is a characteristics of a villi(villus) except: (finger-like projection into the lumen
of the small intestine, surrounded by a branching network of blood capillaries, the blood and lymph vessels
continuously transport absorbed nutrients away from the intestine, contract and relax to bring the villus closer to
the food around it)
_____20. Fats are needed by the body for the maintenance of the cell membrane? Where do you think are the
excess fats stored? (colloidal particles, chyle, adipose tissues, diaminated)

Multiple Choice. Direction: Read the question carefully. WRITE the correct answer.

____ 1. How does a sex cell differ from a body cell?


A. A sex cell does not contain chromosomes.
B. A sex cell contains homologous chromosomes.
C. A sex cell has the same number of chromosomes as a body cell.
D. A sex cell has half the amount of genetic material as a body cell.
____ 2.How do the chromosomes at the end of meiosis I compare with the chromosomes at the end of
meiosis II?
A. Chromosomes have one chromatid at the end of both meiosis I and meiosis II.
B. Chromosomes have two chromatids at the end of both meiosis I and meiosis II.
C. Chromosomes have one chromatid at the end of meiosis I and two chromatids at
the end of meiosis II.
D. Chromosomes have two chromatids at the end of meiosis I and one chromatid at
the end of meiosis II.

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____ 3. The diagram shows a cell during the anaphase stage of mitosis.
Justins teacher showed him this slide of a stage of mitosis. He noticed the slide
contains two homologous pairs of chromosomes. How would this diagram be
different if it showed anaphase I of meiosis instead of anaphase of mitosis?
A. Each chromosome would still have two chromatids.
B. The chromosomes would look the same as in mitosis.
C. You would be able to see DNA in the chromosomes during meiosis.
D. Homologous chromosomes would be moving to the same end of the cell.

____ 4. The diagram below shows a human cell. What type of cell is
this?

A. a sex cell
B. a body cell
C. a cell about to go through mitosis
D. a cell about to go through meiosis

____ 5. Amanda is making a poster to describe the two types of cell division. She draws an outline of a
human body on the poster. Amanda wants to show diagrams of mitosis and meiosis zooming out from the
different parts of the body where they take place. Which of these choices correctly shows a location for a
type of cell division?
A. bonemeiosis
B. testesmitosis
C. ovariesmeiosis
D. stomachmeiosis

____ 6.How is meiosis related to sexual reproduction?

A. Meiosis allows the offspring produced during sexual reproduction to grow and
develop.
B. Meiosis joins together the sex cells during sexual reproduction to produce new
offspring.
C. Meiosis produces the sex cells that join to form new offspring during sexual
reproduction.
D. Meiosis produces the body cells that join to form new offspring during sexual
reproduction.

____ 7. The figure below shows a cell from an organism whose body
cells each have four chromosomes. What is shown in this figure?

A. two chromatids
B. four chromatids
C. four chromosomes
D. four chromosome pairs

____ 8. How does meiosis I differ from meiosis II?

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A. The sister chromatids separate during meiosis I, but not during meiosis II.
B. The homologous chromosomes pair up during meiosis II, but not during meiosis I.
C. Two sex cells are produced as a result of meiosis II, but not as a result of meiosis I.
D. Chromosome number decreases by half as a result of meiosis I, but not as a result
of meiosis II.

____ 9. Brandy knows that chromosomes behave differently in meiosis and mitosis. What do
chromosomes do in meiosis but not in mitosis?

A. Each chromosome makes a copy.


B. The homologous chromosomes form pairs.
C. Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell.
D. Chromosomes condense or shorten up before cell division begins.

____ 10. Which pair shows the number of cells present both before and after meiosis II?

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 and 4

____ 11. Which of these choices is a product of mitosis?

A. egg
B. sperm
C. sex cell
D. skin cell

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____ 12. If a sexually reproducing organism has 28 chromosomes in its body cells, how many
chromosomes did it inherit from each parent?

A. 7
B. 14
C. 16
D. 28

____ 13. The diagram below shows a body cell with 4 homologous pairs of
chromosomes. During sexual reproduction, how many chromosomes will this
organism transmit to its offspring?

A. 8, all of the chromosomes shown


B. 2, one pair of homologous chromosomes
C. 4, two pairs of homologous chromosomes
D. 4, one chromosome from each homologous pair

____ 14. Brandy knows that chromosomes behave differently in meiosis and
mitosis. She examines the following cell, shown below. What feature of the cell
makes it clear that the cell is undergoing meiosis?

A. Each chromosome has made a copy.


B. The homologous chromosomes have formed pairs.
C. The chromosomes are lined up along the middle of the cell.
D. The chromosomes have condensed or shortened before undergoing cell
division.

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____ 15. A science teacher drew a diagram of cell division.

What kind of cell division is shown in this diagram?

A. one mitotic division


B. two mitotic divisions
C. two meiosis I divisions
D. one meiosis I division and one meiosis II division

____ 16. What process does a multicellular organism use to replace its damaged body cells?

A. mitosis
B. meiosis
C. replication
D. transcription

____ 17. Which of the following statements correctly describes the function of cell division in unicellular
organisms?

A. Cell division allows the organism to grow.


B. Cell division allows the organism to reproduce.
C. Cell division allows the organism to produce sex cells.
D. Cell division allows the organism to repair damage to the cell.

____ 18.The diagram shows a cell during the anaphase stage of mitosis. Justins teacher showed him this
slide of a stage of mitosis. He noticed the slide contains two homologous pairs of chromosomes. How would
this diagram be different if it showed anaphase I of meiosis instead of anaphase of mitosis?

A. Each chromosome would still have two chromatids.


B. The chromosomes would look the same as in mitosis.
C. You would be able to see DNA in the chromosomes during meiosis.
77
D. Homologous chromosomes would be moving to the same end of the cell.

____ 19. Why does cell division take place in single-celled organisms?

A. in order for the organisms to grow


B. to reproduce and pass on genetic information
C. to enable the organisms to heal injured tissues
D. to make specialized cells for different functions

____ 20. Which of these lists presents the stages of the cell cycle in the correct order?

A. interphase, mitosis, cytokinesis


B. cytokinesis, mitosis, interphase
C. mitosis, interphase, cytokinesis
D. interphase, cytokinesis, mitosis

____ 21. How would living things differ if cell division took place only for reproduction?

A. All living things would be single-celled.


B. Multicellular organisms would be much smaller.
C. Living things would be more genetically diverse.
D. Multicellular organisms would be unable to repair damaged cells.

____ 22. Interphase is the longest stage of what process?

A. mitosis
B. cell cycle
C. cytokinesis
D. reproduction

____ 23. Which of these statements most likely describes what happens if DNA is not duplicated during
interphase?

A. The new cells would be more numerous.


B. The new cells would have too many chromosomes.
C. The new cells would have too many or too few nuclei.
D. The new cells would have an incorrect number of chromosomes.

78
____ 24. Alla uses a microscope to look at slides of onion cells. The slides show the stages of the cell
cycle. The slides are labeled and in the correct order, starting with interphase. In which slide would Alla first
see chromosomes?

A. anaphase
B. prophase
C. telophase
D. cytokinesis

____ 25. The figure below shows the basic concepts of cell division. Which of
these statements describes what happens during stage 1?

A. DNA is copied.
B. Chromosomes unwind.
C. The nucleus duplicates.
D. The chromosomes separate.

____ 26. Which of these phases of mitosis takes place first?

A. anaphase
B. telophase
C. prophase
D. metaphase

____ 27. Terrell uses a microscope to look at slides of plant cells. He sees a cell with two nuclei that have
visible chromosomes. In which stage of cell division is this cell?

A. anaphase
B. prophase
C. telophase
D. interphase

____ 28. Which of these organisms relies on mitosis for reproduction?

A. ant
B. bird
C. amoeba
D. jellyfish

____ 29. The figure below shows one of the stages of the cell cycle. Which answer
correctly identifies the stage shown in the diagram above?

A. mitosis
B. anaphase
C. interphase
D. cytokinesis

____ 30. The figure below shows one of the stages of the cell cycle. Which two stages of the cell cycle
happened before the stage shown in this diagram?

A. cytokinesis and anaphase

79
B. interphase and mitosis
C. cytokinesis and mitosis
D. interphase and cytokinesis

80
2nd Quarterly Examination in Science 8

Completion. Direction: In any ecological community, organisms of different populations interact with each
other, whether directly or indirectly. Complete the table below to summarize these types of interactions and
the effects on each species in the relationship. (20 pts.)

Effect on Species Effect on Species


Type of A B
Definition Example
Interaction
(+, -, or 0) (+, -, or 0)

Competition

Predation

Parasitism

Mutualism

Commensalis
m

Identification. Direction: Answer the following question according to the diagram.


1 Using the following food chain, answer the questions below. (5pts.)
Grass Rabbit Fox

a What type of organism is the grass? _____________________________


b Which animal is a herbivore or primary consumer? ___________________________
c What would happen to the population of rabbits, if the population of foxes increased (got bigger)?
Why?
2 Construct a food chain. Label the producer, primary consumer, secondary consumer, and tertiary
consumer. (5 pts.)
An owl eats a snake, the snake eats a squirrel, the squirrel ate a nut.
81
3 Using the food chain from question 2, construct an energy pyramid. (5 pts.)
a Which animal has the most amount of available energy? ____________________
b Which animal has the least amount of available energy? ____________________

82
4 Use the food web below to answer the questions. (15 pts.)

a What is the producer? __________________________________________

b What are the primary consumers? __________________________________

c What are the secondary consumers? __________________________________

d What are the tertiary consumers? ___________________________________

e What is the top predator? ___________________________________________

f Construct one food chain that you see on the food web. (5 pts.)

g. Using your constructed food chain, construct an energy pyramid. (5pts.)

83
Definition of terms. Direction: Answer the following questions.

Water Cycle (10pts.)

1. How is water stored on Earth during the water cycle?


2. Water moves into the atmosphere through ____________ and _______________ and returns to the Earth
through _______________.
3. What is the difference between infiltration and runoff?
4. Where do groundwater and runoff usually end up?

5.What are three ways global warming might affect the water cycle?

Carbon Cycle (10 pts.)

1. Why is Carbon important?


2. What are seven places that carbon exists?

84
3. How does carbon enter the biotic part of the ecosystem, namely plants from the atmosphere?
4. How does it enter the soil?
5. How does carbon enter water? How do aquatic plants get carbon?
6. How do animals get carbon?
6. What are two ways carbon returns from animals into the water?
7. What is combustion, and how does it affect the carbon cycle?
8. How does deforestation affect the carbon cycle?

Nitrogen cycle notes (10 pts.)

1. Why is nitrogen important?

2. How is nitrogen from the atmosphere, the abiotic part of the ecosystem, converted in to the
biotic part of the ecosystem in organisms?

3. How do consumers get nitrogen?


4. How does nitrogen return to the atmosphere?
Essay. Direction: Answer the following question (50 words each question)
1. What are the factors that may disturb biogeochemical cycles? Explain. (5 pts.)
2. What can be done to make biogeochemical cycles function properly? (5 pts.)

85
November Monthly Examination in Science 8

Direction: Answer the following question below.

I. NEWTONS FIRST LAW OF MOTION

1. Newtons first law of motion is also known as the LAW OF


______________________________________.

2. Newtons first law says that


a. an object that IS NOT MOVING, or is at ___________________________, will stay at
___________________, AND
b. an object that IS MOVING will keep moving with constant __________________________,
which means at the same _____________________ and in the same
________________________, UNLESS
c. an ______________________________ force acts on that object.

3. What is inertia?

4. What property of an object determines how much inertia it has?

5. Which of the following has more inertia?


a. Bowling ball or Tennis ball
b. Hammer or Feather

II. NEWTONS SECOND LAW OF MOTION

6. Newtons second law of motion is also known as the LAW OF


______________________________________.

7. Newtons second law says that when an __________________ force is applied to a


________________, it causes it to ____________________________.

8. The greater the force that is applied, the ____________________ the acceleration.
9. The lesser the force that is applied, the _____________________ the acceleration.

10. If the same force is applied to an object with a large mass, it will have a _______________________
acceleration.
11. If the same force is applied to an object with a small mass, it will have a _______________________
acceleration.

12. The equation that is used to solve second law problems is F = ma.
a. What do each of the variables mean?
F = ______________________ m = _________________________ a=
__________________________
What unit of measurement must be used with each variable?
F = ______________________ m = _________________________ a=
__________________________

86
III. NEWTONS THIRD LAW OF MOTION

Newtons third law of motion is also known as the LAW OF


_______________________________________________.
Newtons third law says that every time there is an ______________________________ force, there is also
a _______________________ force that is ______________________ in size and acts in the
____________________________ direction.
Newtons third law states that forces must ALWAYS occur in ___________________________.

Listed below are ACTION forces. Tell the REACTION force.


Your bottom pushing on your desk seat
A bat hitting a baseball
Your finger pressing on your phone screen while texting

IV. UNDERSTANDING..
Label each of the following images/descriptions below as being examples of 1st, 2nd, or 3rd law. Then
EXPLAIN your answer. (5 pts. each)
1st law 2nd law 3rd law
Explanation:
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________

1st law 2nd law 3rd law


Explanation:
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________

1st law 2nd law 3rd law


Explanation:
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________

1st law 2nd law 3rd law


Explanation:
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________

1st law 2nd law 3rd law


Explanation:
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________

1st law 2nd law 3rd law


Explanation:
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________
3rd Quarterly Examination in Science 8
87
Identification. Direction: Choose the appropriate term to complete each sentence below.

- Sun - Opaque
- Sound - Heat
- Solids - Radiation
- Luminous Object - Conduction
- Lightning - Convection
- Light - Series Circuit
- Transparent - Parallel circuit
- Translucent

1. Appears first before the roar of thunder is heard because light travels faster than sound.
2. Transferred to a body by radiation, conduction, or convection.
3. The transfer of heat caused by movement of molecules due to the difference in their densities.
4. Objects that partly allow light to pass through are ____________________.
5. Produce and emit natural light.
6. A current has only one path.
7. The transfer of heat in waves through space.
8. The main source of energy on earth.
9. Can be transmitted, scattered, reflected or absorbed.
10. The transfer of heat from the molecules nearest the source of heat to the farthest molecule.
11. Sound travels fastest in ___________ the molecules are very close to one another.
12. Objects that do not allow light to pass through are __________________.
13. Produced by the vibration of bodies.
14. A current have two or more path.
15. Objects that allow light to pass through are _______________________.

Computation. Direction: Compute the following solving problems and circuit diagram. Show your solution.
(5 pts. Each problem)

A. Compute for the total Current, voltage, and Ampere. (20 pts.)

88
1. Determine the kinetic energy of a 1000-kg roller coaster car that is moving with a speed of 20.0 m/s.
2. If the roller coaster car in the above problem were moving with twice the speed, then what would be its
new kinetic energy?
3. Missy Diwater, the former platform diver for the Ringling Brother's Circus had a kinetic energy of 15,000
J just prior to hitting the bucket of water. If Missy's mass is 50 kg, then what is her speed?
4. A cart is loaded with a brick and pulled at constant speed along an inclined plane to the height of a seat-
top. If the mass of the loaded cart is 3.0 kg and the height of the seat top is 0.45 meters, then what is the
potential energy of the loaded cart at the height of the seat-top?
5. A 75-kg refrigerator is located on the 70th floor of a skyscraper (300 meters above the ground) What is
the potential energy of the refrigerator?
6. The potential energy of a 40-kg cannon ball is 14000 J. How high was the cannon ball to have this much
potential energy?
7. You serve volleyball with a mass of 2.1 kg. The ball leaves your hand with a speed of 30 m/s. The ball has
______________________ energy. Calculate it.
8. A baby carriage is sitting at the top of a hill that is 21 m high. The carriage with the baby weighs 12N. The
carriage has ____________ energy. Calculate it.
9. A car is traveling with a velocity of 40 m/s and has a mass of 1120 kg. The car has ___________energy.
Calculate it.
10. A cinder block is sitting on a platform 20 m high. It weighs 79 N. The block has _____________ energy.
Calculate it.
11. There is a bell at the top of a tower that is 45 m high. The bell weighs 190 N. The bell has ____________
energy. Calculate it.
12. A roller coaster is at the top of a 72 m hill and weighs 966 N. The coaster (at this moment) has
____________ energy. Calculate it.
13. Two objects were lifted by a machine. One object had a mass of 2 kilograms, and was lifted at a speed of
2 m/sec. The other had a mass of 4 kilograms and was lifted at a rate of 3 m/sec.
a. Which object had more kinetic energy while it was being lifted?
b. Which object had more potential energy when it was lifted to a distance of 10 meters? Show your
calculation.

89
January Monthly Examination in Science 8

True or False. Direction: Write T if the statement is TRUE and F if is FALSE.


_____ 1. Any force applied to rock is a stress.
_____ 2. When confining stress occurs, rock deforms.
_____ 3. Compression is the most common stress at convergent plates.
_____ 4. Stress is the cause of joints in rock.
_____ 5. A syncline is a fold that arches upward.
_____ 6. The energy released by an earthquake travels in seismic waves.
_____ 7. Only transform plate boundaries have earthquakes.
_____ 8. Earthquakes deep underground cause the most damage.
_____ 9. Earthquakes at mid-ocean ridges tend to be small and shallow.
_____ 10. Seismic waves travel outward in all directions from their source.
_____ 11. In earthquake zones, building materials should be strong and rigid.
_____ 12. Buildings should be constructed so they do not bend and sway in an earthquake.
_____ 13. If you are inside when an earthquake strikes, you should get beneath a sturdy table or desk.
_____ 14. If you are outside when an earthquake strikes, you should run to an open area away from
buildings and power lines.
_____ 15. In earthquake zones, heavy furniture should be attached securely to walls.

Multiple choices. Direction: Write the word of the correct answer.

1. Much of the damage caused by earthquakes is done by(Fires / landslides / Tsunamis / All of the above)
2. Earthquake-safe construction methods include (making buildings out of stone / making buildings without
foundations / anchoring buildings to bedrock / All of the above)
3. The Great Alaska Earthquake occurred (near the capital city of Juneau / At a subduction zone / where
many people lived / In 2004)
4. Structures that reduce how much buildings sway during an earthquake include (Diagonal steel beams /
Counter weights / Heavy slate roofs / Two of the above)
5. Steel is a good building material for earthquake zones because steel (Bends without breaking / Resists
shaking / Is very light in weight / Is very rigid)
6. If you live in a place where the risk of earthquakes is high, you should (Keep heavy objects near the floor
/ Use fluorescent light bulbs / Prepare an emergency kit / All of the above)
7. If you are in a car when an earthquake occurs, you should (Run into the nearest building / Stay in the car
and away from buildings / Get out of the car and drop to the ground / stays in the car and park under an
overpass)
8. Tsunamis may be caused by (Landslides / Nuclear explosions / Meteorites / All of the above)
9. The moment magnitude of an earthquake is calculated from the (Length of the fault / Amplitude of the
seismic waves / Distance the ground moves / Two of the above)
10. Assume that an earthquake has a magnitude of 4 on the Richter scale. An earthquake that is 100 times
stronger has a magnitude of (5 / 40 / 6 / 400)

Enumeration. Direction: Enumerate the following.


1. Precautionary Measure before an earthquake (5 pts.)
2. Precautionary Measure during an earthquake (5 pts.)
3. Precautionary Measure After an earthquake (5 pts.)

Essay. Direction: Answer the following question.


1. How can you tell if an earthquake has occurred?
2. How can you determine the magnitude of an earthquake after it happened by merely observing your
surrounding?

90
February Monthly Examination in Science 8

True or False. Direction: Write T if the statement is TRUE and F if is FALSE.


_____ 1. There are billions of galaxies in the universe.
_____ 2. A star cluster may contain one or more galaxies.
_____ 3. Open star clusters contain more stars than globular star clusters.
_____ 4. Galaxies are divided into types based on size.
_____ 5. Spiral galaxies are generally older than elliptical galaxies.
_____ 6. Dwarf galaxies are often found near larger galaxies.
_____ 7. Some galaxies contain over a trillion stars.
_____ 8. Our solar system is within one of the spiral arms of our galaxy.
_____ 9. Our solar system orbits the central disk of our galaxy.
_____ 10. From Earth, our galaxy looks like a giant spiral.
_____ 11. Edwin Hubble used powerful telescopes to discover other galaxies.
_____ 12. As the distance between galaxies grows, the size of each galaxy shrinks.
_____ 13. When the universe began, it was much larger than it is today.
_____ 14. In the first few moments after the Big Bang, the universe was very hot and dense.
_____ 15. The first matter to form in the universe consisted of protons, neutrons, and electrons.
_____16. Most asteroids in the solar system are located between Mars and Earth.
_____ 17. Asteroids formed after the rest of the solar system formed.
_____ 18. Small asteroids sometimes collide with Earth.
_____ 19. After a meteor hits Earths surface, it is called a meteorite.
_____ 20. Meteoroids are usually larger than asteroids.

Multiple choices. Direction: Write the word of the correct answer.


21 Asteroids do not have any of the following except
Gravity. An atmosphere
Internal heat. Geological activity
22 Which of the following statements is true about short-period comets?
They have periods of 200 years or less.
They come from the asteroid belt.
The originate in the Oort cloud.
none of the above
23 Which of the following is a dwarf planet?
Ceres Makemake
Haumea All of the above
24 Pluto was once called a planet. Now it has been reclassified as a dwarf planet because
Its gravity is too weak to clear its orbit.
It does not have any moons.
It consists only of gases.
Its orbit is not elliptical.
25 The only dwarf planet located in the asteroid belt is
Eris. Haumea
Ceres. Makemake
26 Which dwarf planet is shaped more like an egg than a ball?
Ceres Eris
Haumea Pluto
27 The dwarf planet named Eris
Is bigger than Pluto. Was discovered before pluto
Has more moons than Pluto. Is closer to the sun than pluto

91
28 Types of star clusters include
Open clusters. Elliptical cluster
Spiral clusters. All of the above
29 Elliptical galaxies contain
a lot of gas and dust. Mostly red or yellow star
mainly young stars. Two of the above
30 Types of galaxies include
spiral galaxies. Circular galaxies
cluster galaxies. Globular galaxies
31The stars in an open cluster are mostly
Old stars. Reddish stars
Young stars. Two of the above
32 Galaxies that do not have a clearly defined shape are called
Deformed galaxies. Dwarf galaxies
Irregular galaxies. Open galaxies
33 Scientists estimate that the Milky Way Galaxy contains about
40,000 stars. 40 million stars
400,000 stars. 400 billion stars
34 Some astronomers think that at the center of our galaxy there is a
Neutron star. Red supergiant
Supernova. Black hole
35 According to the Big Bang theory
Dark matter is changing to ordinary matter throughout the universe.
Dark energy is pulling the universe into black holes.
The universe will someday end because of a big bang.
The universe began with an enormous explosion.
36 From our point of view in the Milky Way Galaxy, all other galaxies in the universe appear to be
Crowding closer together. C. Getting dimmer
Moving away from us. D. Growing larger
37 After the big bang occurred, the universe
Shrank in size. C. Became hotter
Became denser. D. Began to cool
38 Most scientists who study dark matter think that it is
A mix of ordinary matter and matter we havent yet discovered.
Matter that makes up black holes.
Just a tiny fraction of all the matter that exists in the universe.
none of the above
39 Scientists recently discovered that the universe
Has started to contract in size.
Is expanding even faster than before.
Is no longer expanding or contracting.
Will soon go through another big bang.
40 Scientists have introduced the concept of dark energy to explain the
Rate of growth of the universe.
Contraction of the universe.
Origin of dark matter.
all of the above

92
41. To come together from different directions;to meet
Earthquake Earthquake focus
Fault Coverage
42. The natural shaking of the earth due to the release as rocks move along a fault
Fault Frequency
Earthquake Coverage
43. The point where an earthquake originates
Epicenter Earthquake focus
Earthquake MWAA
44. The location on the Earth's surface directly above the focus of an earthquake
Epicenter Earthquake
ME Fault
45. a break in the earth's crust along which there is rock movement
Frequency
Fault
Earthquake focus
46. A is the number of wave cycles that pass a given point per unit of time
47. Parallel, horizontal beams set from wall to wall to support the boards of a floor or ceiling would be
called ____________.
48. A layer comprise of the earth's crust in combination with the rigid upper mantle
Frequency
Lithosphere
Mantle
49. A mantle is the region below the Moho consisting of two major regions the upper 100 meters is rigid and
the lower 250 meters is plastic-like
True
False
50. The boundary between the earth's crust and mantle that causes earthquake waves to change speed.
Moho
Joists
1
51. The frequenct at which the least amount of energy is necessary to cause a specific object to vibrate
Plate Frequency
Natural frequencies Earthquake
52. The portion of the earth's litosphere that moves is called the _________
53. ______________:A term applied to shaking or vibrations caused by Earthquakes or movement of plates
54. An Occurrence where two masses slide past eachother in opposite directions:___________
55. The downward thrust of dense oceanic crust into the mantle as less dense continental crust is forced over
the oceanic crust at zones of convergence:___________
56 What type of seismic activity happens in an earthquake?
Shocks rays
Waves bounces
57 What event can happen when an underwater earthquake shakes the ocean floor?
the tide tsunami
a waterspout an epicenter
58 What instrument would you use to measure how big an earthquake is?
Calculator spectrometer
seismograph or seismometer abacus
59 In what type of fault do two plates move apart?
Fracture normal
Reverse strike-slip

93
60 What does subduction involve?
One plate crashing into a second plate. The f
Two plates dividing into smaller pieces.
Two plates colliding and crumpling up into fo
Two plates rubbing past each other in differe
61 What is a dangerous event that is likely to occur on the side of a mountain during an earthquake?
Liquefaction subsidence
Tsunami landslide
62 What do you call small tremors that follow a big earthquake?
tectonic plates aftershocks
eruptions P waves
63 What is the best scale to measure an earthquake?
the Richter scale a manual scale
the geological time scale the Mercalli Intensity scale
64 The three types of boundaries between the Earth's plates are what?
rift valley, ocean ridge, and fault divergent, convergent, and transform
seafloor, lithosphere, and seabed continent, trench, and magnetic field
65 What is a major fault in California?
the San Andreas fault the New Madrid fault
the Deseado fault the Magallanes fault
66 Most earthquakes cause damage.
true
false
67 Where do most of the largest earthquakes on Earth occur?
where one plate sinks below or slides past another
where two plates pull apart
in the center of tectonic plates
68 Put these steps in order to explain how the interaction of two tectonic plates pressing against each other
can produce an earthquake.
Rocks at the edges of the plates break Rockes at the edges of the plates rebound
Rocks at the edges of the plates bend Shock waves vibrate from rocks
69 Which of the following describes the build up and release of stress during an earthquake?
the Modified Mercalli Scale the elastic rebound theory
the principle of superposition the travel time difference
70 The amount of ground displacement in a earthquake is called the _________ .
Epicenter Dip
Slip focus
71 The point where movement occurred which triggered the earthquake is the _______ .
Dip Epicenter
Focus strike
72 Which of the following sequences correctly lists the different arrivals from first to last?
P waves ... S waves .... Surface waves Surface waves ... P waves .... S waves
P waves ... Surface waves ... S waves S waves ... P waves .... Surface waves
73 How do rock particles move during the passage of a P wave through the rock?
back and forth parallel to the direction of wave travel
back and forth perpendicular to the direction of wave travel
in a rolling circular motion
the particles do not move
74 Detailed studies of what earthquake allowed researchers to develop the elastic rebound theory?.
the 1906 San Francisco earthquake the 1964 Anchorage, Alaska earthquake
the 1755 Lisbon, Portugal earthquake the 1985 Mexico CIty earthquake

94
75 How many seismograph stations are needed to locate the epicenter of an earthquake?
1 2
3 4
76 Earthquakes can occur with _________ faulting.
Normal Reverse
Thrust all of these
77 Approximately what percentage of earthquakes occur at plate boundaries?
25% 50%
75% 90%
78 Which type of faulting would be least likely to occur along the mid-Atlantic ridge?
Normal Reverse
Transform all of these could occur
79 How often do magnitude 8 earthquakes occur?
about 5 to 10 times per year about once a year
about every 5 to 10 years about every 50 to 100 years
70 The bulk modulus measures ______________.
the resistance to flow of a liquid the resistance to change in color
the resistance to change in volume the resistance to change in shape
71 The shear modulus measures _____________ .
the resistance to flow of a liquid
the resistance to change in shape
the resistance to change in volume of a liquid
the resistance to change in volume of a solid
72 If only density increases with increasing depth within the Earth, the velocity of a P wave should
___________ .
stay the same
increase
decrease
73 If a P wave were to go from a solid to a liquid - what would happen to its velocity?
stay the same increase
decrease to 0.0 decrease
74 If an S wave were to go from a solid to a liquid - what would happen to its velocity?
stay the same increase
decrease to 0.0 decrease
75 Which boundary marks a change from 100% solid to 100% liquid?
mantle ... outer core lithosphere ... asthenosphere
crust ... mantle none of these
76 Body waves consist of the:
P waves only S waves only
P and S waves Surface waves
77 With increasing travel time the difference in arrival times between the P and the S waves _________
Increases Decreases
stays constant none of the above
78 Earthquake A has a Richter magnitude of 7 as compared with earthquake B's 6. The amount of ground
motion is one measure of earthquake intensity.
A is 10X more intense than B
A is 1000 more intense than B
Richter magnitude does not measure intensity
B is 0.01X as intense than A
79 In general, the most destructive earthquake waves are the __________ .
P waves S waves
Surface waves Q waves

95
80 Where is the focus with respect to the epicenter:
directly below the epicenter directly above the epicenter
in the P wave shadow zone in the S wave shadow zone

Essay. Direction: Answer the following question.

81-83. Did comet make life on Earth possible? Why or Why not?
84-85. Is the study of minor heavenly bodies personally meaningful to you? Why? Why not?

96
4th Quarterly Examination in Science 8

True or False. Direction: Write T if the statement is TRUE and F if is FALSE.

_____ 1. Any force applied to rock is a stress.


_____ 2. When confining stress occurs, rock deforms.
_____ 3. Compression is the most common stress at convergent plates.
_____ 4. Stress is the cause of joints in rock.
_____ 5. A syncline is a fold that arches upward.
_____ 6. The energy released by an earthquake travels in seismic waves.
_____ 7. Only transform plate boundaries have earthquakes.
_____ 8. Earthquakes deep underground cause the most damage.
_____ 9. Earthquakes at mid-ocean ridges tend to be small and shallow.
_____ 10. Seismic waves travel outward in all directions from their source.
_____ 11. In earthquake zones, building materials should be strong and rigid.
_____ 12. Buildings should be constructed so they do not bend and sway in an earthquake.
_____ 13. If you are inside when an earthquake strikes, you should get beneath a sturdy table or desk.
_____ 14. If you are outside when an earthquake strikes, you should run to an open area away from
buildings and power lines.
_____ 15. In earthquake zones, heavy furniture should be attached securely to walls.
_____ 16. There are billions of galaxies in the universe.
_____ 17. A star cluster may contain one or more galaxies.
_____ 18. Open star clusters contain more stars than globular star clusters.
_____ 19. Galaxies are divided into types based on size.
_____ 20. Spiral galaxies are generally older than elliptical galaxies.
_____ 21. Dwarf galaxies are often found near larger galaxies.
_____ 22. Some galaxies contain over a trillion stars.
_____ 23. Our solar system is within one of the spiral arms of our galaxy.
_____ 24. Our solar system orbits the central disk of our galaxy.
_____ 25. From Earth, our galaxy looks like a giant spiral.
_____ 26. Edwin Hubble used powerful telescopes to discover other galaxies.
_____ 27. As the distance between galaxies grows, the size of each galaxy shrinks.
_____ 28. When the universe began, it was much larger than it is today.
_____ 29. In the first few moments after the Big Bang, the universe was very hot and dense.
_____ 30. The first matter to form in the universe consisted of protons, neutrons, and electrons.
_____31. Most asteroids in the solar system are located between Mars and Earth.
_____ 32. Asteroids formed after the rest of the solar system formed.
_____ 33. Small asteroids sometimes collide with Earth.
_____ 34. After a meteor hits Earths surface, it is called a meteorite.
_____ 35. Meteoroids are usually larger than asteroids.

Multiple choices. Direction: Write the word of the corect answer.


36 Point A, where slip initiated during the earthquake, is called the ________.
Dip Epicenter
Focus scarp
37 Point B is called the earthquake ________.
Dip Epicenter
Focus scarp
38 Point C is called the _________

97
Epicenter fault scarp
seismic wave dip of the earthquake
39 What type of faulting is illustrated in this diagram?
Normal Reverse
Thrust abnormal

40 What causes the up-and-down wiggles on the seismogram show above?


variations in air pressure ground vibrations
tsunami waves electromagnetic pulses
41 Which set of waves are probably the surface waves?
A B
C They are all surface waves
42 Which set of waves are the P waves?
A B
C They are all P waves
43 Which set of waves are the S waves?
A B
C They are all S waves
44 The difference in arrival times between which pair of waves can be used to determine the distance to the
epicenter?
A and C
A and B
None of the above
45 How do rock particles move during the passage of a P wave through the rock?
back and forth parallel to the direction of wave travel
perpendicular to the direction of wave travel
in a rolling elliptical motion
in a rolling circular motion
46 How do rock particles move during the passage of a S wave through the rock?
back and forth parallel to the direction of wave travel
perpendicular to the direction of wave travel
in a rolling elliptical motion
in a rolling circular motion
47 Who developed the procedure used to measure the size of an earthquake?
Charles Richter Edward Sheridan
James Hutton Art Smith
48 The moment magnitude of an earthquake depends on all of the following except __.
the area of the fault break the rigidity of the fault
the slip on the fault the type of faulting
49 Which of the following measures an earthquake's intensity based on the observed effects on people and
structures?
Richter scale Modified Mercalli scale
the Centigrade scale the moment magnitude scale
50 Shallow earthquakes, less than 20 km deep, are associated with _______.
convergent plate boundaries divergent plate boundaries
98
transform plate boundaries all of these

99
51 What type of faulting would be most likely to occur along transform faults?
normal faulting reverse faulting
strike-slip faulting all of these

52 What type of earthquakes would most likely occur at point A?


shallow-focus earthquakes caused by normal faulting
shallow-focus earthquakes caused by strike-slip faulting
shallow-focus earthquakes caused by thrust faulting
deep-focus earthquakes caused by thrust faulting
53 What type of earthquakes would most likely occur at point B?
shallow-focus earthquakes caused by normal faulting
shallow-focus earthquakes caused by strike-slip faulting
shallow-focus earthquakes caused by thrust faulting
deep-focus earthquakes caused by thrust faulting
54 Which of the following did not occur at a plate boundary?
New Madrid, Missouri, 1812 San Francisco, 1906
Anchorage, Alaska, 1964 Loma Prieta, California, 1989
55 Which of the following can be triggered by an earthquake?
Tsunami intense ground shaking
a landslide all of these
56 Which of the following can trigger a tsunami?
undersea earthquakes undersea landslides
the eruption of an oceanic volcano all of these
57 Which of the following waves is the slowest?
P waves S waves
Surface waves tsunami
58 Which of the following statements is false?
Most earthquakes occur at plate boundaries
The time and location of most major earthquakes can be predicted several days in
advance
Earthquakes can be caused by normal, reverse and strike-slip faulting
P waves travel faster than both S waves and Surface waves
59 Which of the following observations may indicate a forthcoming destructive earthquake?
An increase in the frequency of smaller earthquakes in the region
rapid tilting of the ground
rapid changes in water levels in wells
all of these
60 Which of the following statements best describes the state of earthquake prediction?
scientists can accurately predict the time and location of almost all earthquakes
scientists can accurately predict the time and location of about 50% of all earthquakes
scientists can accurately predict when an earthquake will occur, but not where
scientists can characterize the seismic risk of an area, but can not yet accurately predict
most earthquakes

100
61 Asteroids do not have any of the following except (Gravity. / An atmosphere / Internal heat. /
Geological activity)
62 Which of the following statements is true about short-period comets?
They have periods of 200 years or less.
They come from the asteroid belt.
The originate in the Oort cloud.
none of the above
63 Which of the following is a dwarf planet? (Ceres / Makemake / Haumea / All of the above)
64 Pluto was once called a planet. Now it has been reclassified as a dwarf planet because
Its gravity is too weak to clear its orbit.
It does not have any moons.
It consists only of gases.
Its orbit is not elliptical.
65 The only dwarf planet located in the asteroid belt is
Eris. Haumea
Ceres. Makemake
66 Which dwarf planet is shaped more like an egg than a ball?
Ceres Eris
Haumea Pluto
67 The dwarf planet named Eris
Is bigger than Pluto. Was discovered before pluto
Has more moons than Pluto. Is closer to the sun than pluto
68 Types of star clusters include
Open clusters. Elliptical cluster
Spiral clusters. All of the above
69 Elliptical galaxies contain
a lot of gas and dust. Mostly red or yellow star
mainly young stars. Two of the above
70 Types of galaxies include
spiral galaxies. Circular galaxies
cluster galaxies. Globular galaxies
71 The stars in an open cluster are mostly
Old stars. Reddish stars
Young stars. Two of the above
72 Galaxies that do not have a clearly defined shape are called
Deformed galaxies. Dwarf galaxies
Irregular galaxies. Open galaxies
73 Scientists estimate that the Milky Way Galaxy contains about
40,000 stars. 40 million stars
400,000 stars. 400 billion stars
74 Some astronomers think that at the center of our galaxy there is a
Neutron star. Red supergiant
Supernova. Black hole
74 According to the Big Bang theory
Dark matter is changing to ordinary matter throughout the universe.
Dark energy is pulling the universe into black holes.
The universe will someday end because of a big bang.
The universe began with an enormous explosion.
75 From our point of view in the Milky Way Galaxy, all other galaxies in the universe appear to be
Crowding closer together. Getting dimmer
Moving away from us. Growing larger

101
76 After the big bang occurred, the universe
Shrank in size. Became hotter
Became denser. Began to cool
77 Most scientists who study dark matter think that it is
A mix of ordinary matter and matter we havent yet discovered.
Matter that makes up black holes.
Just a tiny fraction of all the matter that exists in the universe.
none of the above
78 Scientists recently discovered that the universe
Has started to contract in size.
Is expanding even faster than before.
Is no longer expanding or contracting.
Will soon go through another big bang.
79 Scientists have introduced the concept of dark energy to explain the
Rate of growth of the universe.
Contraction of the universe.
Origin of dark matter.
all of the above
80 Much of the damage caused by earthquakes is done by
Fires. landslides
Tsunamis. All of the above
81. Earthquake-safe construction methods include
making buildings out of stone. making buildings without foundations.
anchoring buildings to bedrock. All of the above
82. The Great Alaska Earthquake occurred
near the capital city of Juneau. At a subduction zone
where many people lived. In 2004
83. Structures that reduce how much buildings sway during an earthquake include
Diagonal steel beams. Counter weights
Heavy slate roofs. Two of the above
84. Steel is a good building material for earthquake zones because steel
Bends without breaking. Resists shaking
Is very light in weight. Is very rigid
85. If you live in a place where the risk of earthquakes is high, you should
Keep heavy objects near the floor. Use fluorescent light bulbs.
Prepare an emergency kit. All of the above
86. If you are in a car when an earthquake occurs, you should
Run into the nearest building. Stay in the car and away from buildings.
Get out of the car and drop to the ground. stays in the car and park under an overpass.
87. Tsunamis may be caused by
Landslides. Nuclear explosions.
Meteorites. All of the above
88. The moment magnitude of an earthquake is calculated from the
Length of the fault. Amplitude of the seismic waves
Distance the ground moves. Two of the above

89. Assume that an earthquake has a magnitude of 4 on the Richter scale. An earthquake that
is 100 times stronger has a magnitude of

5. 40
6. 400
90. What is the furthest planet from the sun?

102
Earth Neptune
Uranus Pluto
91. How many days does it take the earth to travel around the sun?
24 hours 1 month
365 days
92. what is the largest planet in the solar system?
Jupiter Saturn
Venus Neptune
93. The earth revolves around the
Stars Sun
Moon
94. What is the third planet form the sun?
Venus Pluto
Mercury Earth
95 What is the coldest planet in the solar system?
Neptune Earth
Pluto Venus
96. what planet is 70% covered by water?
Neptune Pluto
Earth Jupiter
97. What are the terrestrial planets?
Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, Uranus
Earth, Jupiter, and Pluto
Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars
Pluto, comets, Asteroids, Meteors
98. What are the Jovian or gas Planets?
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, Pluto
Earth, mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, Uranus, Pluto
Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars
99. Terrestrial planets are
Rocky
Close to the sun
Small
All of the above
100 What is the order of the planets from the sun?
Mercury, Venus, Mars, Earth, Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, Uranus
Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, Uranus
Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, Pluto

103
June Monthly Examination (English 8)

Reading Comprehension:
Directions: Read the passage below and make a list of the 20 prepositions in the paragraphs. ( 20pts.)

Emily peers down a chimney. Then she swings her brushes before her. Whistling, she climbs into the narrow
space and waves her tools above her. Soon, her wire brushes knock the soot off the bricks and stones. Emily then
pulls her vacuum cleaner behind her and cleans along the fireplace. Emily Alayon has an unusual job for an
American. Shes one of the thousand chimney sweeps. They are in great demand now. People are cutting back on
gas and oil. With use, the chimney walls get dirty. A dirty powder forms on the walls from the smoke. Chimney
sweeps remove it with tools. Few people in America even know about chimney sweeps. They travel quietly, moving
from house to house. Perhaps someday you will see one walking down your street.

Cloze Test:
Directions: Read the passages below and write the appropriate prepositions in the blanks provided. ( 40pts.)
I.
I learned ____(1)____ the development ____(2)____ modern vehicles today. I found texts ____(3)____ vehicles
____(4)____ the library. First, I looked ____(5)____ a book ____(6)____ the history ____(7)____ bicycles. ____(8)____ the
shelf were books ____(9)____ many vehicles. ____(10)____ my search I flipped ____(11)____ several groups. I reached
____(12)____ my head ____(13)____ more books. I tugged ____(14)____ one that was struck ____(15)____ two larger
books. It tumbled ____(16)____ the shelf ____(17)____ me, crashing ____(18)____ my head. I moaned and staggered
____(19)____ the room. The title __(20)__ the book was Freak Accidents.
II.
The bicycle was invented __(21)__ the end __(22)__ a country. __(23)__ 1971, a Frenchman made a
machine a little __(24)__ a bike. It consisted __(25)__ two wheels joined __(26)__ a board. __(27)__ the board was a
seat __(28)__ the comfort __(29)__ the rider. The rider walked __(30)__ it, __(31)__ a child __(32)__ a hobbyhorse.
__(33)__ time, a steering bar was attached __(34)__ the front wheel. It was not __(35)__ 1839 that anyone used
pedals. Then the biggest reason __(36)__ the bicycles lack of popularity was gone. Another good invention came
__(37)__ a Scottish veterinarian. __(38)__ many complaints __(39)__ his son __(40)__ the ride, John Dunlop invented
the air-filled tire.

Conversation Flow:
Directions: Write a conversation flow by using prepositions of time, place, and motion. ( 15pts.)
Marissa: _______________Rona: _________________ Pepito: _______________
Jesrel: _________________ Kath: _________________ Luke: ________________
Marissa: _______________Rona: ________________ Pepito: _______________
Jesrel: _________________ Kath: _________________ Luke: ________________
Marissa: _______________Rona: _________________ Pepito: _______________
Directions: Write a conversation flow by using adjectives and verbs followed by prepositions. ( 15pts.)
Emily: _______________ Shiela: _______________ Lorminda: _____________
Ron: _________________ Jen: _________________ Liezel: ________________
Emily: _______________ Shiela: _______________ Lorminda: _____________
Ron: _________________ Jen: _________________ Liezel: ________________
Emily: _______________ Shiela: _______________ Lorminda: _____________

104
July Monthly Examination (English 8)
Directions: Read the following imperative sentences. Change these sentences into negative simple present form,
negative simple past form, question simple present form, and question simple past form. Make a table to avoid
confusion. (40pts.)

Sentence Negative Negative Question Question Simple


Simple Present Simple Past Simple Past
Present
Our local weathermen forecast
1 the
weather correctly.
Darynell grinds her teeth when
2 shes nervous.
3 The washing machine spins the
clothes until they are dry.
Jeanvanie winds his wristwatch
4 every
day.
5 The boys disseminate too much
butter on their toast.
6 Althea, Donna, and Wince creep
up
on their prey before they attack.
7 Noele mistakes the sugar for the
salt.
8 Christian feeds birds in the park.

9 Dogs chase the pigeons in the


bridge.
1 Jericho loves to eat grilled
0 human
flesh with aubergines.
shut define close allow

open encode get utter

take decipher

Directions: Change each of the following words into polite requests with the correct form of the verb according to
the explosions. Write your answer on the space provided. (40pts.)

Using
Using Using Using if
can
could would clause
ITEMS USING CAN USING COULD USING WOULD USING IF CLAUSE
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10

105
Fill in the Blanks
Directions: Read the following sentences carefully and fill in the blanks with the correct form of would always, used
to or didnt use to plus the verb given. (10pts.)

1. (listen) Ronnald ___________ to the discussant.


2. (live) Clarence ___________ his boyfriend on the phone.
3. (eat) Tamara ___________ with her father, but now she does.
4. (lie) When Xochitl was a child, she ___________ in the grass and watch the clouds.
5. (have) A long time ago, people ___________ as much free time as they have today.
6. (ask) I ___________ for a doll for every birthday until I was about thirteen.
7. (pick up) When Gian was in high school, he ___________ his friends and drive them to school.
8. (shut) Eubert, ___________ the door?
9. (drive) Aischer, ___________ to the convenient store?
10. (wash) I ___________ the voluminous number dishes?

106
107
First Quarterly Examination (English 8)
Cloze Test:
Directions: Read the passages below and write the appropriate prepositions in the blanks provided. ( 40pts.)
I learned ____(1)____ the development ____(2)____ modern pianos today. I found texts ____(3)____ pianos
____(4)____ the library. First, I looked ____(5)____ a book ____(6)____ the history ____(7)____ bicycles. ____(8)____ the
shelf were books ____(9)____ many pianos. ____(10)____ my search I flipped ____(11)____ several groups. I reached
____(12)____ my head ____(13)____ more books. I tugged ____(14)____ one that was struck ____(15)____ two larger
books. It tumbled ____(16)____ the shelf ____(17)____ me, crashing ____(18)____ my head. I moaned and staggered
____(19)____ the room. The title __(20)__ the book was Until The Last Note Sings.
The bicycle was invented __(21)__ the end __(22)__ a country. __(23)__ 1971, a Frenchman made a
machine a little __(24)__ a bike. It consisted __(25)__ two wheels joined __(26)__ a board. __(27)__ the board was a
seat __(28)__ the comfort __(29)__ the rider. The rider walked __(30)__ it, __(31)__ a child __(32)__ a hobbyhorse.
__(33)__ time, a steering bar was attached __(34)__ the front wheel. It was not __(35)__ 1839 that anyone used
pedals. Then the biggest reason __(36)__ the bicycles lack of popularity was gone. Another good invention came
__(37)__ a Bhutanese veterinarian. __(38)__ many complaints __(39)__ his son __(40)__ the ride, John Dunlop
invented the air-filled tire.

Fill in the Blanks


Directions: Read the following sentences carefully and fill in the blanks with the correct form of would always, used
to or didnt use to plus the verb given. (10pts.)
1. (listen) Ronnald ___________ to the speaker.
2. (live) JP ___________ with his boyfriend in his house.
3. (eat) Aidel ___________ with her father, but now she does.
4. (lie) When Wince was a child, she ___________ in the grass and watch the birds.
5. (have) A long time ago, people ___________ as much free time as they have today.
6. (ask) I ___________ for a doll for every birthday until I was about thirteen.
7. (pick up) When Gian was in high school, he ___________ his friends and drive them to school.
8. (shut) Jericho, ___________ the door?
9. (drive) Dan, ___________ to the convenient store?
10. (wash) I ___________ the voluminous number dishes?

Directions: Create ten imperative sentences and change those sentences into negative simple present form,
negative simple past form, question simple present form, and question simple past form. Make a table to avoid
confusion. (50pts.)
(Make a Sentence Here) Negative Simple Negative Simple Question Simple Question Simple
Present Past Present Past
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10
.

Conversation Flow:
Directions: Make four conversation flows using the words in each star. Make sure that the sentences that you are
going to create will show polite requests. (use the words can, could, would, and if clause) ( 20pts.)

sing, dance, move, follow, listen

get, give,
take,
lend, send
design, create, plan, output, draw
read, write, speak, listen, watch

108
Conversation 1 Conversation 2 Conversation 3 Conversation 4

109
September Monthly Examination (English 8)

Directions: Use the following words into sentences according to modals of necessity. (30pts.)

Modals of Necessity
Must Have To Have Got To
read attract forsake
see repel forgive
be refuse approve
get accept sign
bite interpret merge
grill omit speak
eat debunk listen
sing achieve read
dance believe write
wash receive watch

Directions: Fill in each blank with the correct form of the verb in parentheses and select a main verb in the word
box below. Write your answer on the blanks provided. (15pts.)

eat bathe buy bring confess forgive split leave


rest stay able do go hurry call swim

1. (had better) Darynell __________________ before she goes to the match or shell be hungry.
2. (should) Who do you think I __________________ for help on this project?
3. (ought to) Krizzel __________________ a new golden yellow swim suit before the pool party.
4. (had better) We __________________ or we will be late.
5. (should) ________ I _________ to him that I already found the one who can love me in the same way I did?
6. (had better) I guess we __________________ home tonight since you dont feel well.
7. (had better) If I were you, you __________________ up before your relationship gets worse.
8. (should) Will you be at home tonight? What time _______ I ________ to make you stay with me and be my side?
9. (should) We __________________ each other before we separate.
10. (ought to be) We __________________ to look for a new condo unit by the first week of the month.
11. (ought to) You __________________ the car to the mechanic before your trip.
12. (had better) You have a very high fever. You __________________ to bed.
13. (should) What do you mean? Hmmm. Yeah, you __________________ your skin.
14. (should) I think you __________________ Its because so exhausted.
15. (should) I think you __________________ because I dont want to cry for a person who doesnt know the value of
my tears.
Now, choose the correct negative modal to fill in the blank in each sentence. ( 15pts.)
1. We __________________ leave those boxes out here. It might rain.
2. You __________________ in sick again today!
3. I __________________ eat any more ice cream or Ill get fat.
4. You ________ ever _________ your finger in a light socket.
5. Please dont buy me anything. You __________________ spend your money on me.
6. I __________________ today because its a holiday.
7. You __________________ make dinner for me. Ill probably pick something up on the way.
8. No! You __________________ that hotdog. Its for Jeanvanie.
9. Onyok __________________ be in yet, since his office door is closed.
10. Stop! You __________________ get any chairs, the rooms are already full.
11. You __________________ buy anything else with your credit card, because the balance is so high.
12. You __________________ drive across the border without car insurance.
13. We __________________ do anything until we talk to the boss.
14. You __________________ know anyone here since youre sitting by yourself.
15. Dont worry. You __________________ pick me up. Jericho said hed do it.

110
Sentence Construction:
Directions: Make a sentence using the verbs below according to the degrees of certainty in the present tense and past
tense. (30pts.)

hop dance sing blow peel

show feel see hear glance

slay lean dream stay get

111
Second Quarterly Examination (English 8)

Sentence Construction:
Directions: Read and rewrite the following sentences and CHANGE the passive verbs into active verbs. You may need
to change some of the verb forms. (15pts.)
1. The artist was watched by the people. 9. The colours are liked by these persons.
2. The observers were sketched by the artist. 10. Her watercolours are prized by collectors.
3. Their expressions were captured by her keen eye. 11. Her landscapes are appreciated by some.
4. Charcoal was used by the artist. 12. The artists style is recognised by many.
5. Her portraits are desired by many. 13. Her canvases are prepared by an assistant.
6. Her art has been shown by galleries. 14. But the paintings are done by the artist herself.
7. Some pictures have been bought by museums. 15. Her techniques are praised by art critics.
8. Certain paintings are requested by buyers.
Now, change the following active sentences into passive. Do NOT include the agent. (45pts.)
Simple Present and Present Continuous
1. Bartenders do not serve alcoholic beverages to people 8. The townspeople are debating the proposal for a new
under twenty-one. shopping centre.
2. Jeanvanie keeps the door open when its hot during the With the use of agent:
day. 9. The captain praises the officers in the department.
3. People in this town do not break the law. 10. The mechanic is repairing the car right now.
4. Everyone trusts and respects that police officer. 11. Our neighbours are breaking the law.
5. A security system protects most of the houses in this 12. People all over the town hear the music from the
neighbourhood. concert.
6. A thief is stealing that womans purse. 13. The wind is blowing trash across the highway.
7. A highway patrolman is pulling over the sports car we 14. The legislature passes several new laws each year.
saw earlier. 15. The deity unleashes her power against her adversary.
Simple Past and Present Perfect
1. A thief took my wallet out of my back pocket. With the use of agent:
2. Someone assaulted Aidel in the park last night. 9. The couple has returned the car to the dealership.
3. The police officer has warned Christian about fixing his 10. One of the students stole money from the teachers
taillights. purse.
4. They have written a new report about crime rates in 11. Someone has vandalized the library.
this city. 12. A civil rights group challenged the new law.
5. The people in this town have established a citizens 13. Many journalists have reported the crime statistics
patrol association. from this city.
6. The voters defeated two proposals to build new 14. The government raised the speed limit on interstate
shopping centres. highways.
7. The reform candidate has beaten the mayor. 15. Wince saw us.
8. Someone saw the suspect leaving his house at 8:30 last
night.
Simple Future and Immediate Future Tenses
1. Someone is going to challenge that law as 8. The arresting officer will read the suspects rights.
unconstitutional. With the use of agent:
2. The authorities will prosecute all violators. 9. The police will escort the car to the hospital.
3. A tow-truck driver will tow illegally parked vehicles 10. The city is going to repair those streetlights.
away. 11. The city council will debate the issue tomorrow night.
4. They are going to raise the speed limit next year. 12. The police will eventually catch the criminal.
5. Someone is going to install a new security system at 13. The culprits lawyers are going to call a press
the museum. conference tomorrow.
6. The judge will dismiss the charges against the city 14. The people of the community will protest the new law.
council member. 15. The government will call a meeting about the new law
7. The people in town are going to consider the proposal.

112
Directions: Read the following sentences and write the correct form of tag ending. ( 15pts.)
1. You have to pick up your kids at the airport, __________ ?
2. There were too many babies on the flight, __________ ?
3. You never eat before going skiing, __________ ?
4. We cant go to Spain for vacation, __________ ?
5. The bus will be late, __________ ?
6. This isnt your boarding pass, __________ ?
7. Your boss wont be back from Hawaii tomorrow, __________ ?
8. Serena hasnt ever been to Italy, __________ ?
9. This seat isnt yours, __________ ?
10. No one liked the restaurant, __________ ?
11. You look tired. You arent sick, __________ ?
12. Vinces lost a lot of weight. You dont think he looks too thin, __________ ?
13. The streets were wet this morning. It didnt rain, __________ ?
14. Im sitting next to you on the plane, __________ ?
15. You can postpone your vacation one week, __________ ?

Directions: Use the following words into sentences according to modals of necessity. (30pts.)

Modals of Necessity
Must Have To Have Got To
read attract forsake
see repel forgive
be refuse approve
get accept sign
bite interpret merge
grill omit speak
eat debunk listen
sing achieve read
dance believe write
wash receive watch

Reading Comprehension:
Directions: Read the following passages below. REWRITE it and change the following passive verbs into active verbs
and vice versa. Write your answer on the space provided. (15pts.)
A young artist designed the winning poster. Her sister wrote the words for it. An award was won by them. They
were awarded a blue ribbon. The ribbon was presented by the mayor. Their poster will be shown by all the local
merchants. The town sponsors an art show each year. The winning poster shows young people at work. The words told
their contributions to the town. Another contest will be held by the town council.

_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
November Monthly Examination (English 8)

Reading Comprehension:
Directions: Read the following passages below. REWRITE it and change the following passive verbs into active verbs
and vice versa. Write your answer on the space provided. (15pts.)
A young artist designed the winning poster. Her sister wrote the words for it. An award was won by them. They
were awarded a blue ribbon. The ribbon was presented by the mayor. Their poster will be shown by all the local
merchants. The town sponsors an art show each year. The winning poster shows young people at work. The words told
their contributions to the town. Another contest will be held by the town council.

_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Sentence Construction:
Directions: Read and rewrite the following sentences and CHANGE the passive verbs into active verbs. You may need
to change some of the verb forms. (15pts.)
1. The artist was watched by the people. 9. The colours are liked by these persons.
2. The observers were sketched by the artist. 10. Her watercolours are prized by collectors.
3. Their expressions were captured by her keen eye. 11. Her landscapes are appreciated by some.
4. Charcoal was used by the artist. 12. The artists style is recognised by many.
5. Her portraits are desired by many. 13. Her canvases are prepared by an assistant.
6. Her art has been shown by galleries. 14. But the paintings are done by the artist herself.
7. Some pictures have been bought by museums. 15. Her techniques are praised by art critics.
8. Certain paintings are requested by buyers.
Now, change the following active sentences into passive. Do NOT include the agent. (45pts.)
Simple Present and Present Continuous
1. Bartenders do not serve alcoholic beverages to people 8. The townspeople are debating the proposal for a new
under twenty-one. shopping centre.
2. Jeanvanie keeps the door open when its hot during the With the use of agent:
day. 9. The captain praises the officers in the department.
3. People in this town do not break the law. 10. The mechanic is repairing the car right now.
4. Everyone trusts and respects that police officer. 11. Our neighbours are breaking the law.
5. A security system protects most of the houses in this 12. People all over the town hear the music from the
neighbourhood. concert.
6. A thief is stealing that womans purse. 13. The wind is blowing trash across the highway.
7. A highway patrolman is pulling over the sports car we 14. The legislature passes several new laws each year.
saw earlier. 15. The deity unleashes her power against her adversary.
Simple Past and Present Perfect
1. A thief took my wallet out of my back pocket. With the use of agent:
2. Someone assaulted Aidel in the park last night. 9. The couple has returned the car to the dealership.
3. The police officer has warned Christian about fixing his 10. One of the students stole money from the teachers
taillights. purse.
4. They have written a new report about crime rates in 11. Someone has vandalized the library.
this city. 12. A civil rights group challenged the new law.
5. The people in this town have established a citizens 13. Many journalists have reported the crime statistics
patrol association. from this city.
6. The voters defeated two proposals to build new 14. The government raised the speed limit on interstate
shopping centres. highways.
7. The reform candidate has beaten the mayor. 15. Wince saw us.
8. Someone saw the suspect leaving his house at 8:30 last
night.
Simple Future and Immediate Future Tenses

1. Someone is going to challenge that law as unconstitutional.


2. The authorities will prosecute all violators.
3. A tow-truck driver will tow illegally parked vehicles away.
4. They are going to raise the speed limit next year.
5. Someone is going to install a new security system at the museum.
6. The judge will dismiss the charges against the city council member.
7. The people in town are going to consider the proposal.
8. The arresting officer will read the suspects rights.
With the use of agent:
9. The police will escort the car to the hospital.
10. The city is going to repair those streetlights.
11. The city council will debate the issue tomorrow night.
12. The police will eventually catch the criminal.
13. The culprits lawyers are going to call a press conference tomorrow.
14. The people of the community will protest the new law.
15. The government will call a meeting about the new

Directions: Read the following sentences and write the correct form of tag ending. ( 15pts.)
1. You have to pick up your kids at the airport, __________ ?
2. There were too many babies on the flight, __________ ?
3. You never eat before going skiing, __________ ?
4. We cant go to Spain for vacation, __________ ?
5. The bus will be late, __________ ?
6. This isnt your boarding pass, __________ ?
7. Your boss wont be back from Hawaii tomorrow, __________ ?
8. Serena hasnt ever been to Italy, __________ ?
9. This seat isnt yours, __________ ?
10. No one liked the restaurant, __________ ?
11. You look tired. You arent sick, __________ ?
12. Vinces lost a lot of weight. You dont think he looks too thin, __________ ?
13. The streets were wet this morning. It didnt rain, __________ ?
14. Im sitting next to you on the plane, __________ ?
15. You can postpone your vacation one week, __________ ?
Third Quarterly Examination (English 8)
Sentence Construction:
Directions: Use the following words into sentences according to modals of necessity. (30pts.)
Modals of Necessity
Must Have To Have Got To
be bite dance accept achieve attract approve forgive forsake
eat get grill believe debunk interpret listen merge read
read see sing wash omit receive refuse repel sign speak watch write

Replacement:

Directions: Change the following sentences from direct quotations into reported speech. (20pts.)
1. Aidel: You should apply make-up on your face to make it more beautiful.
2. Althea: We must win tomorrow!
3. Angelo: From now on, I will stop chatting and texting her.
4. Arjay: I may buy seasoning and other condiments.
5. Clarence: I am so flattered to be the Valedictorian of this year.
6. Coach Lea: I am tired of losing!
7. Dan: Aischer has left for the game.
8. Darynell: Dawn might come to the stadium.
9. Donna: Do you want some more, cause its pretty good, right?
10. Eubert: Im going to play Chinese garter this weekend.
11. Gian: We are going to practice tonight.
12. Jean Vanie: You are mine and I am yours forever.
13. Jericho: I will practice every day after school.
14. John Clarince: She is studying Civics and Linguistics.
15. Kenneth: I will always love you more than words can say!
16. Krizzel: My skin is better than yours!
17. Novie: I need to study well to make my mom proud.
18. Teacher Ron: The second year students are very lovable.
19. Vince: I played volleyball on Wednesday.
20. Wince: Someday, I will be a dentist.

Completion:
Directions: Read the following words below and write its positive, negative, and question form including its proper
responses. (70pts.)
[NOTE: Present Progressive and Present Perfect Progressive only]
1. (connive) we 2. (annihilate) they 3. (resist) he
Positive: Positive: Positive:
Negative: Negative: Negative:
Question: Question: Question:
Y: Y: Y:
N: N: N:
4. (linger) I 5. (love) she 6. (decimate) it
Positive: Positive: Positive:
Negative: Negative: Negative:
Question: Question: Question:
Y: Y: Y:
N: N: N:
7. (entice) you
Positive:
Negative:
Question:
Y:
N:
January Monthly Examination(English 8)
Identification:
A. Directions: Read the following sentences carefully and identify if the infinitives used as noun, adjective modifier,
or adverbial modifier. (20pts.)

_________ 1. She lacked the strength to resist.


__________ 2. We must study to learn.
__________ 3. I have the power to unleash.
__________ 4. To fly an airplane is a dream.
__________ 5. Abigail baked a cake to please her
__________ 6. I bought paint to finish the picture for my mom.
__________ 7. To sing ones favourite song is a pleasure.
__________ 8. Grizzly bears are impressive animals to see in the wild.
__________ 9. To love someone who doesnt love you back is foolish.
_________ 10. I like to run in the corridor.
_________ 11. Hot cocoa is a good beverage to drink in the wintertime.
_________ 12. To work hard and stay in school should be your goal.
_________ 13. The only solution is to lower the standards.
_________ 14. Thomas wants to take swimming lessons.
_________ 15. Wool is the best material to wear in the cold weather.
_________ 16. The soldiers were prepared to fight their enemies.
_________ 17. I wanted to cook dinner for my parents.
_________ 18. I am very astonished to see you here.
_________ 19. To leave something before completion is a mess.
_________ 20. The students were thrilled to know about animals by going to the zoo.

Sentence Construction:
Directions: Use the following words as infinitives and make a sentence about it. ( 50pts.)

sleep fight expect avoid take


be able love forbid force look
help hope revise edit capture
know believe convince tell photograph
discover dream ignore urge amaze
see survive order ask attract
learn challenge please explore repel
hear permit teach connive replenish
try organise refuse remind revive
give invite warn expect allure

Completion:
Directions: Complete the lyrics by filling in the following blanks with an appropriate verb. ( 20pts.)

I want you __________ never go away from me, stay forever


But now, now that youre gone, all I can do is pray for you __________ here beside me again
Why did you have __________ me, when you said that love would conquer all?
Why did you have __________ me, when you said that dreaming was as good as reality?
And now I must move on, trying __________ all the memories of you and me
But I cant let go of your love that has taught me __________ on.

I, I have been waiting all my life for someone like you


You, you make me feel like Im new all because of you
Got __________ things right now, baby
Got __________ into your life now, baby
I can be all you want me __________ when everythings small end Id still be here
If youre feeling this pain
SixthandMonthly
Ill still be waiting for you, only
Examination for you 8)
(English
Now, now is the right time __________, things left unsaid
We, we can make this work for love, all because of love
Identification:
Directions: Complete the sentences with the verbs in parentheses.

Present Real Conditionals

1. A car (wear) ________ out faster if it isnt well cared of.


2. If Amy sees something she likes on the menu, she (order) ________ it.
3. If I work too much, I might (get) ________ very exhausted.
4. If the dog (exercise) ________ enough, she sleeps through the night.
5. It always rains if you (wash) ________ your car.
6. Students learn best if the teacher (know) ________ his or her subject well.
7. If Franz stops at the store after work, he always (get) ________ something for the kids.
8. You get things very quickly if you (order) ________ them on the internet.
9. Grazilda always takes aspirin if she (have) ________ a headache.
10. If you (talk) ________ like her, you might not get their respect.
11. If I (buy) ________ a lottery ticket, I might win the lottery.
12. My brother usually drives to school if he (have) ________ gas in his car.
13. If it (snow) ________ tomorrow, we can go skiing.
14. If my sister (eat) ________ all of the cake, I will get angry.
15. My mother always punishes my sister if she (tell) ________a lie.

Future Real Conditionals

16. If Ellaine (go) ________ on a diet, shell lose ten pounds.


17. If I have the time, I (go) ________ up to the mountains this weekend.
18. If you dont apply to the university on time, you (get not) ________ accepted.
19. We (catch) ________ the train to Busan if we arrive at the station on time.
20. You (miss) ________ your favourite TV show if you dont get home on time.
21. If you dont call me before Tuesday, I (call) ________ you.
22. If you dont pull the weeds out of the garden, it (become) ________ overgrown.
23. Youll be hungry if you (eat not) ________ your dinner.
24. Ken will sleep better if he (drink) ________ chamomile tea.
25. Ashley will pass the exam if she (review) ________ her lessons religiously.
26. If the phone (not ring) ________ this afternoon, I can take a nap.
27. We should go jogging if it (not be) ________ raining outside.
28. I will call you if she (not go) ________ to the movies, and we can go out together.
29. We cant learn anything if we (not do) ________ our homework.
30. If we (not go) ________ to school, my mom will get angry.

Present and Future Unreal Conditionals

31. I (hear) ________ better if you (turn) ________ up the radio.


32. If I (be) ________ Jade, I (go) ________ on a diet.
33. If it (rain) ________ more, it (be) ________ greener here.
34. If the neighbours (be) ________ quieter, the children (sleep) ________ at night.
35. Studying curls, riffs, and runs in RNB music (be) ________ difficult if you (practise) ________
devotedly.
36. The windows (look) ________ nicer if you (clean) ________ them.
37. This town (be) ________ better if we (have) ________ wider streets.
38. We (visit) ________ you if we (see) ________ your car in front of your house.
39. You (be) ________ happy if he (call) ________.
40. You (be) ________ the best singer if you (hit) ________ high notes.
41. She be) ________happier if she (have) ________ more friends...
42. We (buy) ________a house if we (decide) ________to stay here...
43. They (have) ________ more money if they (not/buy) ________ so many clothes...
44. We (come) ________ to dinner if we (have) ________ time...
45. She (call) ________ him if she (have) ________ his number...
46. They (go) ________to Spain on holiday if they (like) ________hot weather...
47. She (pass) ________the exam if she (study) ________more...
48. I (marry) ________someone famous if I (be) ________a movie star...
49. We (not/be) ________ late again if we (buy) ________a new car...
50. You (lose) ________weight if you (eat) ________less..

Past Unreal Conditionals


51. I (pay) ________ for the painting by now if I (have) ________ the money.
52. If Krizzel (tell) ________ the truth, everyone (not be) ________ upset with her.
53. If you (hear) ________ his voice, you (love) ________ it.
54. It (be) ________ too late if I (wait) ________ for you to come back.
55. It (rain) ________ by now if the weather report (be) ________ correct.
56. The bookstore (close) ________ before this if it (not be) ________ so busy.
57. The dinner (be) ________ ready if my sister (not call) ________.
58. The kids dont feel sluggish and exhausted if they (eat) ________ more nutritious food.
59. If I (speak) ________perfect English, I (have) ________ a good job.

Using Wish in Conditionals

60. I wish I (be) ________ smarter.


61. I wish I (live) ________ in London.
62. I wish I had (see) ________ Aidel when she was here.
63. I wish Novie could have (stay) ________ in this city.
64. She wishes she (be) ________ traveling to China next year.
65. Our flat is very small. I wish
It would be bigger
it was bigger
66. I have to work tomorrow. I wish
I did not have to work tomorrow
I wouldnt have to work tomorrow
67. I have a boring job.
I wish I didn't have a boring job.
I wish I wouldn't have a boring job.
68. The neighbours are playing loud music now.
I wish they would stop.
I wish they didn't play loud music.
I wish they weren't playing loud music.
69. The neighbours play loud music.
I wish they would stop.
I wish they didn't play loud music.
70. It's cold. I wish it (was/would) ___________ warmer
71. It's cold. I wish it (was/would)___________get warmer
72. My brother hasn't got a job. I wish he (has/have/had) _____________ a job
73. My brother hasn't got a job. I wish he (would/was) _____________ find a job
74. It's raining. I wish it (wasnt /wouldnt)_________ raining.
75. It's raining. I wish it (would / was) _________stop raining.
Write hopes / is hoping/ hoped and wishes is wishing/wished.
76. I ____ John passed his test.
77. I ____Paula had passed her test
78. Kendra ____that she can find a new apartment quickly.
79. I ____I were 2 inches taller.
80. Randy ____ to graduate from college in only 3 years, but it took him 3
81. I ____I had applied for a patent on that invention I made 5 years ago. IBM just came out with a
similar design.
82. Honey, I ____you would stop biting your nails its a nervous habit.
83. I ____the cast the Big Bang Theory TV show had been at Danvers Comic Con this year.
84. I ____ we can have you over for dinner again sometimes soon, Mr. and Mrs. Travis.
85. I dont have a motorcycle, but Ive always ____ I had one.

Directions: Rewrite each sentence as an indirect passive construction.


86. Cassiopeia gave the mother gem to Adhara.
Indirect Passive: _______________________________________________________
87. Heran fought with the Sanggres to Etheria.
Indirect Passive: _______________________________________________________
88. Queen Amihan searched Lira from Lireo.
Indirect Passive: _______________________________________________________
89. Sanggre Alena inundated the monsters using her water gem.
Indirect Passive: _______________________________________________________
90. Sanggre Danaya lured the Hathorians using her earth gem.
Indirect Passive: _______________________________________________________
91. Sanggre Pirena gave the fire gem to King Hagorn.
Indirect Passive: _______________________________________________________
92. Adhara slayed the guards from Carcero.
Indirect Passive: _______________________________________________________
93. Lola Kap slapped Sanggre Pirena in front of Hagorn.
Indirect Passive: _______________________________________________________
94. Hagorn destroyed the house of Lola Kap.
Indirect Passive: _______________________________________________________
95. Cardo shot Hagorn into his head.
Indirect Passive: _______________________________________________________

This time, its your turn to construct your own sentences.

96. Active Voice: _________________________________________________________


Indirect Passive Voice: _________________________________________________
97. Active Voice: _________________________________________________________
Indirect Passive Voice: _________________________________________________
98. Active Voice: _________________________________________________________
Indirect Passive Voice: _________________________________________________
99. Active Voice: _________________________________________________________
Indirect Passive Voice: _________________________________________________
100. Active Voice: _________________________________________________________
Indirect Passive Voice: _________________________________________________
Fourth Quarterly Examination (English 8)
Completion:
Directions: Read the following words below and write its positive, negative, and question form including its proper
responses. (75pts.)
[NOTE: Present Progressive, Present Perfect Tense, and Past Perfect Progressive only]

Present Progressive

1. (compete) we 2. (reveal) I 3. (defile) she 4. (unveil) he 5. (condemn) they


Positive: Positive: Positive: Positive: Positive:
Negative: Negative: Negative: Negative: Negative:
Question: Question: Question: Question: Question:
Y: Y: Y: Y: Y:
N: N: N: N: N:
Present Perfect Tense
1. (complete) we 2. (unleash) I 3. (anticipate) she 4. (aim) he 5. (strive) they
Positive: Positive: Positive: Positive: Positive:
Negative: Negative: Negative: Negative: Negative:
Question: Question: Question: Question: Question:
Y: Y: Y: Y: Y:
N: N: N: N: N:
Past Perfect Progressive

1. (compete) we 2. (reveal) I 3. (defile) she 4. (unveil) he 5. (condemn) they


Positive: Positive: Positive: Positive: Positive:
Negative: Negative: Negative: Negative: Negative:
Question: Question: Question: Question: Question:
Y: Y: Y: Y: Y:
N: N: N: N: N:

Now, try to have other forms. The words that youre going to use were shown below. ( 45pts.)
[NOTE: 3 Past Perfect Tense, 3 Future Progressive, and 3 Future Perfect Progressive only]

unleash discombobulate bloom

vindicate concatenate incinerate

decimate vociferate enliven