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General Subjects

Assistant Engineers - OIC-EW

1. One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the
discharge valve closed, is that the __________.

o (a) motor overload will open


o (b) relief valve will open
o (c) motor will overheat
(d) pump will overheat

3. The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used __________.

o (a) to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extremely dirty
o (b) when the main condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water
circulation
o (c) to connect the rose box to the independent bilge suction
(d) if the bilges become flooded and they cannot be emptied by any other means

4. Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system is prevented by
__________.

(a) stop-check valves installed in the bilge suction manifolds


o (b) using a positive displacement reciprocating bilge pump
o (c) installing eductors in all bilge rose boxes
o (d) installing a swing check before each bilge valve

5. Under what conditions is it permissible to pump machinery space bilges directly


overboard without processing by an oily water separator?

o (a) When the bilge water holding tank is full.


(b) When presented with a flooding emergency.
o (c) When operating in international waters beyond the 200 mile limit.
o (d) When, by visual inspection, the bilges appear to be free of oil.

6. What is meant by the term independent bilge suction?

o (a) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used
as a bilge pump but using either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
(b) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a
bilge pump but independent of any bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
o (c) The means by which a cargo hold bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a bilge
pump but independent of any bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
o (d) The means by which a cargo hold bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used as a bilge
pump but using either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.

7. What is meant by the term emergency bilge suction?

o (a) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used
as a bilge pump and drawing a suction on the bilge through either bilge manifolds or automatic
bilge suction valves.
(b) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used
as a bilge pump and drawing a suction directly on the bilge independent of any bilge manifolds or
automatic bilge suction valves.
o (c) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a
bilge pump and drawing a suction directly on the bilge independent of any bilge manifolds or
automatic bilge suction valves.
o (d) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a
bilge pump and drawing a suction on the bilge through either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge
suction valves.

8. Which of the following bilge pumping applications would most likely use a non-automated
centrifugal pump under manual supervision?

o (a) Shaft alley bilges


o (b) Machinery space bilges
o (c) Engine room bilges
(d) Dry cargo hold bilges

10. Which of the following ballasting operations performed in conjunction with off-loading
cargo could be accomplished without the use of a ballast pump?

o (a) Filling a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
o (b) Draining a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
o (c) Draining a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.
(d) Filling a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.

11. Which of the following deballasting operations performed in conjunction with loading
cargo could be accomplished without the use of a ballast pump?

(a) Draining a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
o (b) Filling a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.
o (c) Filling a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
o (d) Draining a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.

12. With regard to a ballast system associated with a dry cargo ship, what is the primary
purpose of the forepeak and aft peak tanks?

o (a) Adjusting the overall draft of the vessel.


(b) Adjusting the trim of the vessel.
o (c) Correcting a list condition on the vessel.
o (d) Correcting a condition of hogging or sagging of the vessel.

13. With regard to a ballast system associated with a dry cargo ship, what is the primary
purpose of the double-bottom ballast tanks?

(a) Adjusting the overall draft of the vessel or correcting a condition of list.
o (b) Adjusting the trim of the vessel.
o (c) Correcting a condition of sagging of the vessel.
o (d) Correcting a condition of hogging of the vessel.

14. With regard to ballast system operations associated with a dry cargo ship, what is meant
by the term "ballasting"?

o (a) Ballasting is the operation associated with draining ballast tanks to compensate for loading
cargo.
o (b) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a
condition of list.
(c) Ballasting is the operation associated with filling ballast tanks to compensate for off-loading
cargo.
o (d) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a
condition of hogging or sagging.

15. With regard to ballast system operations associated with a dry cargo ship, what is meant
by the term "deballasting"?

o (a) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a
condition of hogging or sagging.
(b) Ballasting is the operation associated with draining ballast tanks to compensate for loading
cargo.
o (c) Ballasting is the operation associated with filling ballast tanks to compensate for off-loading
cargo.
o (d) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a
condition of list.

16. With regards to a ballast system associated with an oil tanker, what is meant by the term
"segregated" ballast?

o (a) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely
separate from engine room bilge systems.
(b) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely
separate from cargo or fuel oil systems.
o (c) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely
separate from sea water circulating or fire main systems.
o (d) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely
separate from clean bilge systems.

17. Besides retention of ballast water onboard or use of approved onboard ballast water
treatment equipment, what is another acceptable means for a vessel to be in compliance with the
ballast water management regulations?

o (a) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 3 nautical miles from any
shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.
o (b) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 12 nautical miles from any
shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.
o (c) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 25 nautical miles from any
shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.
(d) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 200 nautical miles from
any shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.

18. What is the primary reason why the ballast water management regulations exist as
applicable to vessels equipped with ballast tanks operating in U.S. waters?

(a) Prevent invasion of non-indigenous foreign marine species into U.S. waters.
o (b) Prevent oil pollution of environmentally sensitive areas within U.S. waters.
o (c) Prevent changes in salinity or salt content of coastal U.S. waters.
o (d) Prevent sedimentary deposits in ports and harbor areas of U.S. waters.

19. After coolers are used with air compressors to __________.

o (a) dampen pressure pulses in the discharge air


o (b) ensure complete expansion of the compressed air
o (c) decrease the density of compressed air
(d) reduce the temperature of compressed air

21. If all of the air charge has been lost from a ship service air receiver, the compressor
mechanical unloading system will __________.

(a) fail to function as designed, but the compressor having no load will start with little or no
difficulty
o (b) still function normally at start-up
o (c) fail to work, and the drive motor will trip the circuit breaker as the compressor will be
overloaded
o (d) Still function normally, but the safety interlock will stop the drive motor

22. Over pressurization of an air compressor intercooler is prevented by the __________.

o (a) first-stage unloader


(b) intercooler relief valve
o (c) last-stage unloader
o (d) after cooler relief valve

23. The air charge leaving an intercooler, or after cooler of an air compressor can be
expected to be __________.

(a) at or below the dew point


o (b) superheated
o (c) super cooled
o (d) all of the above
24. Which of the listed valve types is typically used for suction and discharge valves on
modern low pressure air compressors?

o (a) Sliding
o (b) Rotary
(c) Reed
o (d) Poppet

25. In order to distribute the side pressures over a wide area of the cylinder walls and liners,
which of the listed types of pistons are used in modern low pressure air compressors?

o (a) Barrel
o (b) Valve-in-head
(c) Trunk
o (d) Differential

26. Which of the following compressors would be used for a cold-ship start-up of a ship's
service diesel generator on a motor ship?

o (a) Ship's service air compressor


o (b) Starting air compressor
o (c) Topping air compressor
(d) Emergency air compressor

27. Which of the following compressors on a motor ship would most likely operate at
approximately 100 psig?

o (a) Starting air compressor


o (b) Topping air compressor
o (c) Emergency air compressor
(d) Ship's service air compressor

28. If an air compressor is fitted with a hand-off-auto (H-O-A) control station, what statement
concerning operation is true?

(a) In the hand mode, the compressor will run continuously with unloading.
o (b) In the hand mode, the compressor will cycle on and off.
o (c) In the auto mode, the compressor will run continuously with unloading.
o (d) In the off mode, the compressor will cycle on and off.

29. If the drive belts on an air compressor were squealing during startup, you should
__________.

o (a) check for a defective high pressure cut-out switch


o (b) check the air filter
(c) check the operation of the unloaders
o (d) check for a receiver outlet valve which may be partially closed

30. If one drive belt on an air compressor is found to be worn you should __________.

o (a) replace that belt only


o (b) adjust belt tension
o (c) dress the worn belt
(d) replace all of the belts

31. The main bearings of a reciprocating air compressor are tapered roller bearings. When
mounted, these bearings are given a 'cold' end clearance to __________.

(a) allow for longitudinal expansion of the crankshaft as the unit warms up
o (b) reduce torsional vibration in the crankshaft
o (c) prevent longitudinal thrust in the crankshaft
o (d) allow for crank web deflection
32. After disassembly, the safest way to remove carbon deposits from air compressor inlet
and discharge valves is to use __________.

o (a) gasoline
(b) diesel oil
o (c) naphtha
o (d) ammonia

33. How often should the air receivers on a compressed air system be drained of moisture
and emulsions?

o (a) Quarterly
o (b) Weekly
(c) Daily
o (d) Monthly

34. When checking the oil level on a reciprocating air compressor fitted with a dipstick, under
what conditions should the oil level be checked?

o (a) With the compressor running at speed and unloaded.


o (b) With the compressor running at speed and loaded.
o (c) With the compressor in the auto mode and currently not running.
(d) With the compressor in the off mode incapable of starting.

35. As an indication that an air compressor air intake filter needs to be replaced or cleaned,
what statement is true?

o (a) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for shorter periods and the air intake
pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be more negative than
with a clean filter.
o (b) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for longer periods and the air intake
pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be less negative than
with a clean filter.
(c) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for longer periods and the air intake
pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be more negative than with
a clean filter.
o (d) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for shorter periods and the air intake
pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be less negative than with
a clean filter.

36. Which of the following statements represents the proper procedural sequence for
adjusting the metering rate of an in-line lubricator as used in a ship's service air system hose
station? Assume that the pressure regulator has been properly set.

(a) Establish normal air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to increase drip rate
or further close needle valve to decrease drip rate, as appropriate.
o (b) Establish normal air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to decrease drip rate
or further close needle valve to increase drip rate, as appropriate.
o (c) Temporarily shut-off air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to decrease drip
rate or further close needle valve to increase drip rate, as appropriate. Re-establish normal air
flow.
o (d) Temporarily shut-off air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to increase drip
rate or further close needle valve to decrease drip rate, as appropriate. Re-establish normal air
flow.

37. Which of the following statements represents the proper criteria to decide when to drain a
filter/moisture separator as used in a ship's service air system hose station?

o (a) The bowl should be drained daily with no need to check the moisture level.
o (b) The bowl should be drained whenever moisture droplets appear in the bowl.
(c) The bowl should be drained before the moisture level reaches the lower baffle.
o (d) The bowl should be drained after the bowl completely fills with moisture.

38. In a twin-tower desiccant type air dryer using silica gel as an adsorbing agent, what is
the procedure for rejuvenating the tower presently on service when the desiccant becomes saturated
with moisture?

o (a) The towers are shifted, and the off-going tower is refrigerated.
o (b) Heat is applied to the tower on service and it remains on service while heating.
o (c) The tower on service is refrigerated and it remains on service while cooling.
(d) The towers are shifted, and heat is applied to the off-going tower.

39. Excessively low air pressure occurring in the intercooler of a reciprocating air compressor
is caused by __________.

o (a) leaky discharge valves on the HP cylinder


(b) leaky discharge valves on the LP cylinder
o (c) low ambient air pressure
o (d) insufficient intercooler cooling

40. A viscous film of oil collected between the valve face and seat of a low pressure
reciprocating air compressor will __________.

o (a) prevent the valve from wire drawing


o (b) provide quieter valve operation
(c) retard the opening and closing of the valve
o (d) have no effect on compressor operation

41. Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air filter will cause __________.

o (a) a clogged air intake


o (b) carbon deposits on valves and pistons
(c) excessive wear on valves and cylinder liners
o (d) excessive compressor discharge pressure

42. Which of the following problems would be the probable cause for the faulty operation of a
reciprocating air compressor suction valve?

o (a) Carbon build up in the piston ring belt.


o (b) Lifting of intercooler relief valve.
o (c) compressor operation in an area of high relative humidity.
(d) Faulty operation of a cylinder unloader.

43. In a low pressure air compressor, the loss of volumetric efficiency normally results from
__________.

(a) heating of the air leaving the cylinders


o (b) constant enlargement of the clearance expansion volume
o (c) adiabatic compression in the intercooler
o (d) inaccurate valve timing

44. Which of the following causes would most likely result in excessively high belt-driven
reciprocating air compressor drive motor running current draw?

(a) Excessive drive belt tension.


o (b) Insufficient drive belt tension.
o (c) Excessive internal running clearances.
o (d) Clogged air intake filter.

45. If a reciprocating air compressor was operating at a compression ratio that exceeded its
design parameters, what would be the effect?

(a) Higher than normal discharge pressure and lower than normal displacement capacity.
o (b) Lower than normal discharge pressure and higher than normal displacement capacity.
o (c) Higher than normal discharge pressure and higher than normal displacement capacity.
o (d) Lower than normal discharge pressure and lower than normal displacement capacity.
46. If a belt-driven reciprocating air compressor is operating at a lower than design
displacement capacity (in cubic feet per minute), which of the following would be a cause?

(a) Insufficiently tensioned drive belts.


o (b) Misalignment between the compressor and its driver.
o (c) Improperly lubricated bearings.
o (d) Excessively tensioned drive belts.

47. If a reciprocating air compressor has cylinder suction or discharge valves that fail to
properly seat, what statement is true concerning the result?

o (a) The compressor would have longer running periods at higher displacement capacity between
operating cycles.
o (b) The compressor would have shorter running periods at lower displacement capacity between
operating cycles.
o (c) The compressor would have shorter running periods at higher displacement capacity between
operating cycles.
(d) The compressor would have longer running periods at lower displacement capacity between
operating cycles.

48. What statement is true concerning carbon deposit formation on reciprocating


compressor cylinder valves?

(a) The rate of carbon deposit formation is directly proportional to the extent of cylinder oil
pumping and directly proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.
o (b) The rate of carbon deposit formation is directly proportional to the extent of cylinder oil
pumping and inversely proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.
o (c) The rate of carbon deposit formation is inversely proportional to the extent of cylinder oil
pumping and inversely proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.
o (d) The rate of carbon deposit formation is inversely proportional to the extent of cylinder oil
pumping and directly proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.

49. Which of the listed central operating system types requires conversion of continuous
analog signals from the sensing and transmitting devices to discrete bits of information that can be
understood by the system computer for the purposes of processing and control.

o (a) Pneumatic
(b) Digital
o (c) Electric/electronic
o (d) Direct connected

62. What type of temperature transmitter would be most suitable for measuring running gear
bearing temperatures in a diesel engine in that it requires no contact with the bearing?

o (a) Thermistor probe


(b) Radiation pyrometer
o (c) Resistance temperature detector
o (d) Thermocouple pyrometer

63. What type of temperature transmitter would be most suitable for measuring diesel engine
exhaust and boiler stack temperatures and generates its own electromotive force?

o (a) Thermistor probe


o (b) Resistance temperature detector
o (c) Radiation pyrometer
(d) Thermocouple pyrometer

64. What is another name for the control mode used in a process control system that uses
two-point control?

o (a) Integral control


o (b) Derivative control
o (c) Proportional control
(d) On-off control
65. In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the action of
measuring the difference between the actual result and the desired result and using that difference to
drive the actual result toward the desired result?

o (a) Gain
(b) Feedback
o (c) Instability
o (d) Dead band

66. In a closed-loop process control system, what statement concerning feedback is true as it
relates to stability and the direction of error displacement?

o (a) Negative feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the same direction
as the error displacement.
o (b) Positive feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the same direction
as the error displacement.
(c) Negative feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the opposite
direction as the error displacement.
o (d) Positive feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the opposite
direction as the error displacement.

67. In a closed-loop process control system featuring negative feedback, what is the function
of the error detector within the controller?

o (a) The error detector computes the sum of the measured value of the controlled variable and the
desired value (set point).
o (b) The error detector computes the quotient of the measured value of the controlled variable and
the desired value (set point).
(c) The error detector computes the difference between the measured value of the controlled
variable and the desired value (set point).
o (d) The error detector computes the product of the measured value of the controlled variable and
the desired value (set point).

68. What type of primary element for a pressure transmitter would be most suitable for
measuring oil-fired boiler furnace and forced-draft pressures?

o (a) Bellows pressure sensor


(b) Diaphragm pressure sensor
o (c) Bourdon tube pressure sensor
o (d) Strain gage pressure sensor

69. Which of the following rotational shaft speed sensors produces a digital signal?

(a) Optical tachometer


o (b) Brush-type DC tachometer
o (c) Brushless DC tachometer
o (d) AC tachometer

70. Which of the following liquid level sensors would be most suitable for measuring the
liquid level in a pressure vessel such a water-tube boiler steam drum?

o (a) Capacitance probe


(b) Differential pressure sensor
o (c) Static pressure sensor
o (d) Displacement float level sensor

71. Concerning the start-up of plain bearings utilizing the three modes of hydrodynamic
lubrication, what is the correct sequence of modes from start-up through coming up to operational
speed?

o (a) First full-film lubrication, followed by boundary lubrication, then finally mixed-film lubrication.
(b) First boundary lubrication, followed by mixed-film lubrication, then finally full-film lubrication.
o (c) First boundary lubrication, followed by full-film lubrication, then finally mixed-film lubrication.
o (d) First mixed-film lubrication, followed by boundary lubrication, then finally full-film lubrication.

72. Which of the following bearing types would be an example of a rolling-element bearing
which substitutes fluid friction for rolling contact friction?

o (a) a sleeve bearing


o (b) a plain bearing
(c) a ball bearing
o (d) a journal bearing

73. Which of the following bearing types would be an example of a plain bearing which
substitutes fluid friction for sliding friction?

(a) a journal bearing


o (b) a roller bearing
o (c) a needle bearing
o (d) a ball bearing

74. Which of the following roller bearing types would be limited to radial thrust load
applications?

o (a) single row spherical roller bearing


o (b) single row tapered roller bearing
o (c) double row spherical roller bearing
(d) single row cylindrical roller bearing

75. What statement is true concerning the hydrostatic lubrication of plain bearings?

(a) An outside pressure source is required for lubrication and full-film lubrication is present at any
shaft speed.
o (b) An outside pressure source is not required for lubrication and full-film lubrication is
present only at operational speed.
o (c) An outside pressure source is required for lubrication and full-film lubrication is present only at
operational speed.
o (d) An outside pressure source is not required for lubrication and full-film lubrication is present at
any shaft speed.

76. A dented race in an antifriction bearing could be caused by __________.

o (a) water in the bearing


o (b) dirt in the bearing
(c) vibration while the bearing is not in operation
o (d) abrasives in the lubricant

77. In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by __________.

o (a) a pressure gun


o (b) a zerk fitting
(c) spring force
o (d) gravity flow

78. Antifriction bearings can be removed undamaged from a shaft by using an arbor press, or
wheel puller with a________.

o (a) split die


(b) split washer or backup ring
o (c) jack screw
o (d) ring gage
79. After adding grease to a ball bearing with a handheld grease gun, you should
__________.

o (a) close the bearing housing drain and add a little extra grease to compensate for air pockets in
the bearing
(b) run the machine with the bearing housing drain plug open for a short while
o (c) save the used grease for chemical analysis
o (d) remove the grease fitting and leave open to allow excess grease to escape

80. A roller bearing should normally be filled to what fraction of its space cavity?

o (a) Less than 1/4


(b) 1/3 to 1/2
o (c) 1/2 to 3/4
o (d) More than 3/4

81. A ball or roller bearing has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed
with a hydraulic or arbor press. Upon what surface should the sleeve of the press be applied?

o (a) the shaft


(b) the inner race
o (c) the outer race
o (d) the housing

82. A ball or roller bearing has an interference fit with the housing in which it is being installed
with a hydraulic or arbor press. Upon what surface should the sleeve of the press be applied?

o (a) the shaft


o (b) the housing
o (c) the inner race
(d) the outer race

83. A roller bearing has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed. What
thermal method of mounting the bearing would be most appropriate?

(a) Heating the bearing in an oil-bath bearing heater.


o (b) Cooling the bearing with dry ice.
o (c) Cooling the shaft with liquid refrigerant.
o (d) Heating the bearing with an oxyacetylene torch.

84. Rolling element bearings may experience fatigue failure after a length of service. What is
the first evidence of the beginnings of fatigue failure?

o (a) Discoloration of the races or rolling elements.


o (b) The presence of metallic particles in the lubricant.
o (c) The presence of small cracks in the rolling elements.
(d) The presence of small cracks in the races.

85. What is the primary indication of a grease lubricated bearing that is over-lubricated in
terms of the quantity of grease in the housing?

o (a) The bearing temperature would tend to produce unusual vibrations.


o (b) The bearing temperature would tend to run cooler than normal for the load.
o (c) The bearing would tend to produce a noticeable change in sound.
(d) The bearing temperature would tend to run hotter than normal for the load.

86. Which of the following statements concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps is
true?

o (a) The outer race should be free to turn its housing.


o (b) Alignment is not a critical factor in their installation.
(c) They are usually pressed on to their shafts.
o (d) The inner race should be free to turn on the shaft.
87. Regarding a freshwater generator of the reverse-osmosis type, what statement is true?

(a) The solute is salt and the solvent is fresh water.


o (b) The solute is fresh water and the solvent is salt.
o (c) The solute is saltwater and the solvent is salt.
o (d) The solute is salt and the solvent is saltwater.

88. Reverse-osmosis freshwater generators usually feature multiple membrane modules,


typically of the spiral-wound membrane type. How are these multiple membrane modules piped?

o (a) The multiple membrane modules are always connected in parallel.


(b) The multiple membranes may be connected in series, parallel, or in some combination of
series and parallel.
o (c) The multiple membrane modules are always connected in series.
o (d) The multiple membranes may be connected in series or parallel, but never in
some combination of series and parallel.

89. Regarding a reverse-osmosis type freshwater generator using multiple spiral-wound


membrane modules, what statement is true?

o (a) Modules may be piped in series to increase the freshwater throughput.


(b) Modules may be piped in series to increase the freshwater purity.
o (c) Modules may be piped in parallel to increase the freshwater purity.
o (d) Modules may be piped in series to decrease the likelihood of fouling.

90. To ensure potable water of drinking quality, chemical treatment is required for reverse-
osmosis freshwater generators. What is the purpose of chemical pre-treatment?

o (a) Chemical pre-treatment removes particulate matter and suspended solids from the sea water
inlet to the unit to prevent fouling of the membrane modules.
o (b) Chemical pre-treatment removes particulate matter and suspended solids from the freshwater
leaving the unit prior to distribution to the various freshwater storage tanks.
(c) Chemical pre-treatment sterilizes the sea water entering the unit to prevent bacteria from
becoming resident in the reverse-osmosis unit filters and membrane modules.
o (d) Chemical pre-treatment sterilizes the freshwater leaving the unit prior to distribution to the
various freshwater storage tanks.

91. Regarding the operating principle of a reverse-osmosis type freshwater generator, what
statement is true?

o (a) External pressure is applied to the side of strong concentration forcing salt through the semi-
permeable membrane to the side of weak concentration.
o (b) External pressure is applied to the side of weak concentration forcing salt through the semi-
permeable membrane to the side of strong concentration.
o (c) External pressure is applied to the side of weak concentration forcing freshwater through the
semi-permeable membrane to the side of strong concentration.
(d) External pressure is applied to the side of strong concentration forcing freshwater through the
semi-permeable membrane to the side of weak concentration.

92. Regarding the high-pressure pump of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, what


statement is true?

o (a) The high-pressure pump is typically a two-stage centrifugal pump, but may be a two-
stage rotary pump.
o (b) The high-pressure pump is typically a single-cylinder reciprocating pump, but may be a single-
stage centrifugal pump.
(c) The high-pressure pump is typically a multiple-cylinder reciprocating pump, but may be a
multi-stage centrifugal pump.
o (d) The high-pressure pump is typically a two-stage rotary pump, but may be a two-stage
centrifugal pump.

93. For the successful operation of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, why is the high
pressure pump required to operate in the 750 to 1200 psig range for a discharge pressure?
o (a) To overcome the pore size of the semi-permeable membrane.
o (b) To successfully force the salt water through the chemical pre-treatment device.
(c) To overcome the osmotic pressure generated by the difference in solution concentrations.
o (d) To successfully force the salt water through the pre-filter (or pre-filters).

94. If the orifice in the loop seal of a flash evaporator were to become significantly enlarged
through erosion, the __________.

o (a) salt water feed heater absolute pressure would increase to that of the evaporator second
stage
o (b) evaporator absolute pressure would eventually equalize in both stages to that of the first stage
o (c) distillate produced in the second stage would flow towards the first stage
(d) evaporator absolute pressure could eventually equalize in both stages to that of the second
stage

95. If the distilling plant first stage absolute pressure is higher than normal, while the
second stage absolute pressure remains satisfactory, the probable fault is due to __________.

o (a) priming in the second stage


(b) an air leak through a vacuum gage line in the first stage
o (c) loss of the distillate loop seal between the stages
o (d) failure of the brine pump

97. Scale formation in a flash-type evaporator is usually found in the __________.

o (a) flash chamber walls


o (b) tubes of the distiller condenser
(c) tubes of the salt water feed heater
o (d) tubes of the air ejector condenser

98. On which of the following heated surfaces of a flash type evaporator would you be more
likely to find soft scale formation?

(a) Feed water heater internal tube surfaces.


o (b) Internal distillate cooler tubes.
o (c) Flash chamber vertical surfaces.
o (d) Distilling condenser tubes.

99. Small droplets of water entrained in the flashed vapor produced in a flash-type
evaporator are removed by the __________.

o (a) condensers
(b) demisters
o (c) splash baffles
o (d) spray pipes

100. A vacuum is initially created in a flash type distilling plant by __________.

o (a) the flashing of the feed water


(b) air ejectors, eductors, or a separate vacuum pump
o (c) the condensation of the saltwater feed
o (d) condensation of the distillate

101. Early models of the flash-type evaporators used a separate shell-and-tube heat
exchanger as the air ejector condenser. More recent models use a combined air ejector condenser
with the __________.

o (a) flash chamber


(b) salt water feed heater
o (c) distillate cooler
o (d) distilling condenser
102. The brine level in the second-stage of a flash-type evaporator is determined in part
by the feed rate, the rate of evaporation in both stages, and the __________.

(a) throughput of the brine overboard pump


o (b) steam flow rate to the air ejectors
o (c) float controlled level of the feed heater
o (d) capacity of the distillate pump

104. When securing a jacket-water heated submerged tube evaporator for an extended
period of time, you should __________.

o (a) fill the unit with saltwater


o (b) fill the unit with descaling compound
(c) completely drain the unit
o (d) tightly seal the unit to exclude air

105. Which of the following acids is preferable and most commonly used for scale
removal from the heating surfaces of the jacket-water heated submerged-tube evaporator?

o (a) Concentrated hydrochloric acid


(b) Citric or sulfuric acid
o (c) Concentrated sulfuric acid
o (d) Muriatic acid

111. For the successful operation of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, the setting
of the brine back pressure regulator is critical. What statement regarding the set point of this
regulator is true?

(a) If the regulator setting is set too high, the membrane modules may be damaged. If the
regulator setting is too low, the freshwater production will be too low.
o (b) If the regulator setting is set too low, the membrane modules may become fouled. If the
regulator setting is too high, the freshwater production will be too low.
o (c) If the regulator setting is set too high, the membrane modules may become fouled. If the
regulator setting is too low, the freshwater production will be too low.
o (d) If the regulator setting is set too low, the membrane modules may be damaged. If the
regulator setting is too high, the freshwater production will be too low.

112. If a reverse-osmosis freshwater generating unit has a high salinity alarm associated
with the freshwater outlet, what should be done?

o (a) The pre-filters should be serviced by cleaning or replacement.


o (b) The post-treatment sterilizer should be serviced.
o (c) The pre-treatment chemical doser should be serviced.
(d) The membrane modules should be flushed and cleaned.

113. What is the BEST indication that the pre-treatment filter (or filters) of a reverse-
osmosis freshwater generator must be serviced by cleaning or replacement?

o (a) An insufficient freshwater production by the unit.


o (b) An excessive pressure drop across the membrane modules.
(c) An excessive pressure drop across the pre-treatment filter.
o (d) An excessive salinity of the freshwater output.

114. What component of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator could be isolated and


replaced with the unit remaining in service?

o (a) A series-connected membrane module.


(b) A parallel-connected membrane module.
o (c) The secondary pre-treatment filter.
o (d) The primary pre-treatment filter.

115. What is the BEST indication that the membrane modules of a reverse-osmosis
freshwater generator must be serviced by flushing or cleaning?
o (a) A lower than normal feed pressure.
o (b) An insufficient pressure drop across the membrane modules.
(c) An excessive pressure drop across the membrane modules.
o (d) An excessive pressure drop across the pre-treatment filter.

116. Under what conditions would the pre-treatment capabilities of a reverse-osmosis


freshwater generator MOST likely be overloaded, and as a result, these conditions should generally
be avoided?

o (a) Entering open seas.


(b) Entering harbors.
o (c) Entering high temperature seas.
o (d) Entering low temperature seas.

117. What is the BEST indication that the membrane module is damaged and is no longer
semi-permeable and allowing the solute to pass through?

o (a) Higher than normal brine overboard back pressure.


o (b) Lower than normal freshwater production.
o (c) Low freshwater outlet salinity.
(d) High freshwater outlet salinity.

118. When a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator is shutdown, what must be


accomplished?

(a) The unit must be flushed with freshwater and treated with an anti-bacterial growth inhibitor.
o (b) The unit must be flushed with freshwater if anti-bacterial growth inhibitor is unavailable.
o (c) The unit is left filled with saltwater and treated with anti-bacterial growth inhibitor.
o (d) The unit must be treated with an anti-bacterial growth inhibitor if the unit is not flushed with
freshwater.

123. Which of the freshwater generators listed below is operated without a source of heat?

o (a) Titanium plate type


o (b) Flash type
(c) Reverse-osmosis type
o (d) Submerged tube type

124. Which of the following freshwater generators has an operating principle that requires it
to run under a substantially positive pressure?

o (a) Submerged tube unit


o (b) Titanium plate unit
(c) Reverse-osmosis unit
o (d) Flash type unit

125. In which of the following freshwater generators would an air ejector be unnecessary?

(a) Reverse-osmosis unit


o (b) Submerged tube unit
o (c) Titanium plate unit
o (d) Flash type unit

126. Which of the freshwater generators listed below requires a source of heat and
evaporates sea water at a location other than a heat exchanger surface?

o (a) Submerged tube type


o (b) Reverse-osmosis type
o (c) Titanium plate type
(d) Flash type

127. Other than taking a scale thickness through a zinc plug opening of the water box of a
feed water heater of a flash evaporator, what would be the BEST indication for a need to remove
scale build-up?

o (a) A drop in the feed water heater shell temperature and a rise in the feed water heater shell
absolute pressure (decrease in vacuum).
o (b) A rise in the feed water heater shell temperature and a drop in the feed water heater shell
absolute pressure (increase in vacuum).
o (c) A drop in the feed water heater shell temperature and a drop in the feed water heater shell
absolute pressure (increase in vacuum).
(d) A rise in the feed water heater shell temperature and a rise in the feed water heater shell
absolute pressure (decrease in vacuum).

128. While circulating heated sulfuric acid through a feed water heater of a flash
evaporator for the purposes of scale removal, what would be the indication of the continued
presence of scale?

o (a) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
o (b) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
o (c) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
(d) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide
gas.

129. When should mechanical cleaning of feed water heater tubes be accomplished?

o (a) Any time when increased steam flow to the feed water heater shell is required to maintain
distillate production capacity.
(b) Only when chemical cleaning fails to restore distillate production capacity to normal.
o (c) During regularly scheduled maintenance.
o (d) Any time there is a drop-off on distillate production capacity.

130. What procedure can be used to reduce the rate of scale formation on the heating
surfaces of a flash evaporator while still maintaining the desired rate of distillate production?

o (a) Decreasing the feed water heater shell absolute pressure (increase in vacuum).
o (b) Increasing the feed water heater shell absolute pressure (decrease in vacuum).
(c) Chemically treating the incoming feed water.
o (d) Chemically treating the outgoing brine.

131. While circulating heated sulfuric acid through a feed water heater of a flash
evaporator for the purposes of scale removal, what would be the indication of successful removal of
the scale?

o (a) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
(b) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
o (c) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
o (d) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
137. What is used to prevent contamination of a potable water system supplying a plumbing
fixture such as a galley sink from a backup of sewage sanitary drains?

o (a) Check valves in the potable water supply lines delivering water to the galley sink.
(b) Location of the potable water spigots above the rim of the galley sink.
o (c) A "P" trap in the drain line draining sewage waste from the galley sink.
o (d) Location of the potable water spigots below the rim of the galley sink.

138. What type of disinfection system has the disadvantage that it would fail to provide
residual disinfectant in the potable water?

o (a) A chlorinator located at the desalinator discharge piping to the potable water storage tank.
o (b) A chlorinator located at the potable water storage tank recirculation line.
(c) An ultraviolet irradiator at the desalinator discharge to the potable water storage tank.
o (d) A brominator located at the desalinator discharge piping to the potable water storage tank.

139. Which of the following desalination plants will always require a sterilizer when providing
water to a potable water system?

o (a) Titanium plate type unit


o (b) Multi-stage flash type unit
o (c) Submerged tube type unit
(d) Reverse-osmosis type unit
.

140. Which of the following statements concerning the arrangements of a potable water
system is true?

(a) Potable water pumps of the non-positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system
if located above the potable water storage tanks.
o (b) Potable water pumps of the positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if
located above the potable water storage tanks.
o (c) Potable water pumps of the non-positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system
if located below the potable water storage tanks.
o (d) Potable water pumps of the positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if
located below the potable water storage tanks.

141. On most commercial cargo vessels with a relatively small crew size and few users of the
potable water system, how is the potable water system pressure maintained?

o (a) Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of potable water storage tank level
switches in response to system demand changes.
o (b) Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously while recirculating during periods of zero
demand for potable water.
o (c) Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously against a shut-off head during periods of
zero demand for potable water.
(d) Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of the potable water hydro pneumatic
tank pressure switch in response to system demand changes.

142. What is the primary purpose of the lead-lag arrangement of the two potable water
pumps supporting a typical potable water system?

(a) Enabling the lead pump to cycle on and off during periods of relatively low demand and the
lag pump to assist the lead pump only when the demand is high.
o (b) Enabling the lead pump to pump against a shut-off head during periods of relatively low
demand and the lag pump to recirculate when the demand is high.
o (c) Enabling the lag pump to cycle on and off during periods of relatively low demand and the lead
pump to assist the lag pump only when the demand is high.
o (d) Enabling both potable water pumps to cycle on and off together in response to system
demand changes.
143. What design feature is used to minimize potable water wastage associated with hot
water distribution piping for a potable water system?

(a) Use of hot water recirculation loops.


o (b) Use of instantaneous type hot water heaters only.
o (c) Use of storage type hot water heaters only.
o (d) Use of hot water heaters with multiple heat sources.

144. Hot water heaters used in potable water systems may have multiple heat sources, such
as an electric heating element and a jacket water heated tube bundle. What is the primary purpose
of such an arrangement?

o (a) Allow the designated backup heat source to be used in the event of failure of the designated
primary heat source, whether in port or underway.
o (b) Allow jacket water to be used in port and electricity to be used while underway.
o (c) Allow both the heat sources to be used when the demand for hot water is high, whether in port
or underway.
(d) Allow electricity to be used in port and jacket water to be used while underway.

145. What are the operating characteristics of a "waterlogged" potable water system hydro
pneumatic header tank that needs to be recharged with compressed air?

o (a) Failure of the potable water pump to start with demand on the system.
o (b) Extremely long running and idle periods for the potable water pump.
(c) Very short and frequent running and idle periods for the potable water pump.
o (d) Failure of the potable water pump to stop with zero demand on the system.

146. Suppose the pressure switch used to control the "lead" potable water pump is set at 45
psig cut-in for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop. What would be an appropriate setting
for the "lag" potable water pump?

(a) 40 psig cut-in for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop.
o (b) 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 50 psig cut-out for pump stop.
o (c) 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 60 psig cut-out for pump stop.
o (d) 50 psig cut-in for pump start and 60 psig cut-out for pump stop.

147. Which of the following speed control devices is used strictly as a safety device to
prevent prime mover damage and acts by shutting down the prime mover?

o (a) Over speed governor


o (b) Speed-limiting governor
(c) Over speed trip
o (d) Under speed trip

149. Which of the following statements is true concerning the application for an isochronous
governor?

o (a) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's geared propulsion drive driving
through a fixed pitch propeller.
o (b) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a pump drive associated with maintaining a
constant pump discharge pressure.
o (c) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's direct-reversible propulsion drive driving
through a fixed pitch propeller.
(d) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's service alternator drive associated with
maintaining a constant system frequency.

150. Concerning governor speed-droop, what statement is true?

o (a) If speed droop is temporary, the prime mover's final speed is different for each amount of
loading.
(b) If speed droop is permanent, the prime mover's final speed is different for each amount of
loading.
o (c) If speed droop is temporary, there will be no transient speed changes associated with load
changes.
o (d) If speed droop is permanent, the prime mover's final speed is constant regardless of the load.

151. Which term represents the ability of a speed control governor to maintain prime mover
speed without hunting?

o (a) Dead band


(b) Stability
o (c) Promptness
o (d) Sensitivity

152. Which term represents the how rapidly a speed control governor will complete a
corrective action as the result of a load change?

o (a) Sensitivity
o (b) Power
(c) Promptness
o (d) Dead band

153. What is meant by the term "hunting" as it applies to prime mover speed control
governors?

(a) Hunting is the repeated and sometimes rhythmic variation of speed due to over control by the
governor.
o (b) Hunting is the result of the transient speed changes of a prime mover as the governor
responds to load changes.
o (c) Hunting is the change in speed required before the governor will initiate a corrective action as
the result of a load change.
o (d) Hunting is the repeated variation of speed due to under control by the governor and a lack of
governor power.

154. What is meant by the term "dead band" as it applies to prime mover speed control governors?

o (a) Dead band is the repeated variation of speed due to under control by the governor and a lack
of governor power.
(b) Dead band is the change in speed required before the governor will initiate a corrective action
as the result of a load change.
o (c) Dead band is the repeated and sometimes rhythmic variation of speed to over control by the
governor.
o (d) Dead band is the result of transient speed changes of a prime mover as the governor
responds to load changes.

155. What is statement is true concerning the term "isochronous" as it applies to prime
mover speed control governors?

o (a) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by
employing temporary speed droop.
o (b) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by
employing permanent speed droop.
(c) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by
employing temporary speed droop.
o (d) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by
employing permanent speed droop.

156. The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to __________.

o (a) reduce the engine room temperature in tropical climates


(b) heat, or cool one fluid by means of another fluid
o (c) maintain steady pressure in a system
o (d) eliminate hot air from the condenser
157. With regard to the relative flow patterns through the tubes and the shell of shell-and-
tube heat exchangers, what statement is true?

(a) In a counter-flow heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell are
in opposite directions.
o (b) In a counter-flow heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell are
in the same direction.
o (c) In a parallel-flow heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell are
in opposite directions.
o (d) In a cross-flow heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell are
in opposite directions.

158. With regard to the number of passes through the tubes of shell-and-tube heat
exchangers, what statement is true?

o (a) In two-pass and four-pass heat exchangers, the inlet and outlet tube-side fluid connections
are at opposite ends.
o (b) In single-pass and two-pass heat exchangers, the inlet and outlet tube-side fluid connections
are at opposite ends.
o (c) In single-pass and two-pass heat exchangers, the inlet and outlet tube-side fluid connections
are at the same end.
(d) In two-pass and four-pass heat exchangers, the inlet and outlet tube-side fluid connections
are at the same end.

159. If a heat exchanger is designed to cool lubricating oil using sea water as a cooling
medium, what statement is true?

o (a) The lubricating oil loses sensible heat, and the sea water loses sensible heat.
(b) The lubricating oil loses sensible heat, and the sea water gains sensible heat.
o (c) The lubricating oil loses latent heat, and the sea water gains latent heat.
o (d) The lubricating oil gains sensible heat, and the sea water loses sensible heat.

160. If a heat exchanger is designed to heat heavy fuel oil using steam as a heating
medium, what statement is true?

(a) The heavy fuel oil gains sensible heat, and the steam loses latent heat.
o (b) The heavy fuel oil loses sensible heat, and the steam gains latent heat.
o (c) The heavy fuel oil gains latent heat, and the steam loses sensible heat.
o (d) The heavy fuel oil gains sensible heat, and the steam loses sensible heat.

161. If a heat exchanger is designed to evaporate sea water using diesel engine jacket
water as an evaporating medium, what statement is true?

o (a) The sea water gains latent heat, and the diesel engine jacket water loses latent heat.
o (b) The sea water loses latent heat, and the diesel engine jacket water gains sensible heat.
o (c) The sea water gains sensible heat, and the diesel engine jacket water loses latent heat.
(d) The sea water gains latent heat, and the diesel engine jacket water loses sensible heat.

162. If a heat exchanger is designed to condense refrigerant vapor using central cooling
fresh water as a condensing medium, what statement is true?

o (a) The refrigerant vapor loses latent heat, the central cooling fresh water loses latent heat.
(b) The refrigerant vapor loses latent heat, the central cooling fresh water gains sensible heat.
o (c) The refrigerant vapor loses sensible heat, the central cooling fresh water gains latent heat.
o (d) The refrigerant vapor gains latent heat, the central cooling fresh water loses sensible heat.

163. What type of flow pattern would be associated with a forced-convection finned-coil
heat exchanger such as an air-cooled hydraulic oil cooler?

o (a) Parallel flow


o (b) Series flow
o (c) Counter flow
(d) Cross flow
164. If a seawater-cooled shell-and-tube lubricating oil cooler has the seawater inlet and
outlet connections on the opposite end water boxes, in terms of the number of passes, what
statement is true?

o (a) The number of fluid passes cannot be determined.


(b) The tube-side fluid flow pattern is single-pass.
o (c) The tube-side fluid flow pattern is four-pass.
o (d) The tube-side fluid flow pattern is two-pass.

165. If both the shell-and-tube lube oil cooler and shell-and-tube jacket water cooler of a
diesel engine are seawater cooled, what statement is true?

o (a) Seawater flows through the shells of both the lube-oil and jacket-water coolers.
o (b) Seawater flows through the tubes of the lube-oil cooler and through the shell of the jacket-
water cooler.
(c) Seawater flows through the tubes of both the lube-oil and jacket-water coolers.
o (d) Seawater flows through the tubes of the jacket-water cooler and through the shell of the lube-
oil cooler.

166. Which of the following provisions for thermal expansion for shell-and-tube heat
exchangers only requires a single tube sheet located at one end?

o (a) A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring a floating tube sheet.


(b) A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring U-tube type tubes.
o (c) A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring a packed tube sheet.
o (d) A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring bayonet type tubes.

167. Which of the following provisions for thermal expansion for shell-and-tube heat
exchangers has a tube arrangement featuring a "tube-within-a-tube"?

o (a) A shell-and tube heat exchanger featuring a packed tube sheet.


o (b) A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring a floating tube sheet.
(c) A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring bayonet type tubes.
o (d) A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring U-tube type tubes.

168. In a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, which of the following tube types would be LEAST
susceptible to tube-side fouling?

o (a) Coated-surface tubes


o (b) Corrugated tubes
(c) Plain tubes
o (d) Finned tubes

169. For a given shell diameter and tube sizes for a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, which
tube pitch pattern would be the most compact design allowing for the most tubes?

o (a) Rotated triangular tube pitch


o (b) Rotated square tube pitch
(c) Triangular tube pitch
o (d) Square tube pitch

170. For a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, which tube pitch pattern would feature "see-
through" lanes and would most easily allow external mechanical cleaning of the tubes?

o (a) Rotated triangular tube pitch


(b) Square tube pitch
o (c) Triangular tube pitch
o (d) Rotated square tube pitch
171. Concerning the baffles of a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, what statement is true?

o (a) The baffles are used to support the tubes, guide flow, and decrease the velocity of the fluid
flowing through the shell.
o (b) The baffles are used to support the tubes, guide flow, and increase the velocity of the fluid
flowing through the tubes.
(c) The baffles are used to support the tubes, guide flow, and increase the velocity of the fluid
flowing through the shell.
o (d) The baffles are used to support the tubes, guide flow, and decrease the velocity of the fluid
flowing through the tubes.
.

172. For marine-type shell-and-tube heat exchangers, what is the most common
arrangement for baffles?

(a) Segmental
o (b) Disc
o (c) Doughnut
o (d) Solid

173. What prevents the two fluids in a plate type heat exchanger from coming into direct
contact with each other and mixing?

o (a) The chevrons and corrugations between the individual heat transfer plates.
o (b) The metal-to-metal seal between the individual heat transfer plates.
o (c) The metal-to-metal seal between the covers (pressure plates).
(d) The gasket to groove seals between the individual heat transfer plates.

174. With regard to the flow patterns associated with plate type heat exchangers, which
flow pattern is able to achieve counter-flow on opposite sides of each heat exchange plate?

o (a) The flow pattern where one fluid makes a single pass and the other makes multiple passes
through the heat exchanger.
o (b) The flow pattern where each fluid makes multiple passes through the heat exchanger.
(c) The flow pattern where each fluid makes a single pass through the heat exchanger.
o (d) It is not possible for each heat exchanger plate to achieve counter flow on opposite sides.

175. What is the most common arrangement for a compact heat exchanger such as that
used on an air conditioning cooling coil located in a ventilation supply duct?

o (a) Plate-fin set up as a serpentine plate.


(b) Finned-tube set up as a serpentine coil.
o (c) Finned-tube set up as a spiral coil.
o (d) Finned-tube set up as a helical coil.

176. When placing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as
a bayonet-tube heavy fuel oil service heater into service, to avoid thermal shock what statement
represents the correct operating procedure?

o (a) Introduce the heavy fuel oil and steam simultaneously establishing full flow of both fluids
immediately to avoid thermal shock.
o (b) Introduce both the heavy fuel oil and steam simultaneously and gradually to avoid thermal
shock.
o (c) Introduce the steam first, then gradually introduce the heavy fuel oil until full flow is
established to avoid thermal shock.
(d) Introduce the heavy fuel oil first, then gradually introduce the steam until full flow is
established to avoid thermal shock.

177. When placing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as
a bayonet-tube heavy fuel oil service heater into service, to prevent water hammer what statement
represents the correct operating procedure?
o (a) Crack open the condensate drains first. Gradually introduce the steam, then close the
condensate drains when no longer draining condensate and issuing dry steam. Finally, introduce
the heavy fuel oil.
o (b) Introduce the heavy fuel oil first, then crack open the condensate drains. Gradually introduce
the steam, then close the condensate drains when no longer issuing dry steam and draining
condensate.
o (c) Crack open the condensate drains first. Gradually introduce the steam, then close the
condensate drains when no longer issuing dry steam and draining condensate. Finally, introduce
the heavy fuel oil.
(d) Introduce the heavy fuel oil first, then crack open the condensate drains. Gradually introduce
the steam, then close the condensate drains when no longer draining condensate and issuing dry
steam.

178. When taking a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as a
bayonet-tube type heavy fuel oil service heater out of service, to avoid thermal shock what statement
represents the correct operating procedure?

o (a) Secure both the steam and heavy fuel oil simultaneously and immediately to avoid thermal
shock.
o (b) Secure the heavy fuel oil first, then gradually secure the steam to avoid thermal shock.
o (c) Secure the steam and heavy fuel oil simultaneously and gradually to avoid thermal shock.
(d) Gradually secure the steam first, then secure the heavy fuel oil to avoid thermal shock.

179. When taking a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as a
bayonet-tube heavy fuel oil service heater out of service, to prevent water hammer what statement
represents the correct operating procedure?

o (a) Open wide the condensate drains first. Gradually close down and secure the steam, then
close the condensate drains when no longer issuing dry steam. Finally, secure the heavy fuel oil.
o (b) Secure the heavy fuel oil first, then crack open the condensate drains. Gradually close down
and secure the steam, then close the condensate drains when no longer issuing dry steam.
(c) Crack open the condensate drains first. Gradually close down and secure the steam, then
close the condensate drains when no longer draining condensate. Finally, secure the heavy fuel
oil.
o (d) Secure the heavy fuel oil first, then crack open the condensate drains. Gradually close down
and secure the steam, then close the condensate drains when no longer draining condensate.

180. When placing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a non-removable tube bundle
such as a lube oil cooler with fixed tube sheets into service, to avoid thermal shock what statement
represents the correct operating procedure?

o (a) Introduce the cooling water first, then gradually introduce the lube oil until full flow is
established to avoid thermal shock.
o (b) Introduce the lubricating oil first, then gradually introduce the cooling water until full flow is
established to avoid thermal shock.
(c) Introduce both the cooling water and the lubricating oil simultaneously and gradually to avoid
thermal shock.
o (d) Introduce both the cooling water and the lubricating oil simultaneously establishing full flow of
both fluids immediately to avoid thermal shock.

181. When placing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger such as a jacket water cooler into
service, to insure optimal heat transfer what statement represents the correct operating procedure?

(a) Both the water box and shell vent valves should be opened to expel any entrapped air and
then reclosed.
o (b) Both the water box and shell drain valves should be opened to expel any entrapped air and
then reclosed.
o (c) Both the water box and shell vent valves should be opened to expel any entrapped sediment
and then reclosed.
o (d) Both the water box and shell drain valves should be opened to expel any entrapped sediment
and then reclosed.
182. When securing a seawater-cooled shell-and-tube heat exchanger for an extended
period of time, what statement represents the recommended operating procedure?

o (a) The seawater side of the heat exchanger should be drained, then flushed with freshwater and
left completely filled with freshwater.
o (b) The seawater side of the heat exchanger should be drained by opening the drain valves, while
insuring that the vent valves remain closed while draining.
o (c) The seawater side of the heat exchanger should be left completely filled with seawater.
(d) The seawater side of the heat exchanger should be drained by opening the drain valves, while
insuring that the vent valves remain open while draining.

183. When shifting heat exchangers such as main engine lube-oil coolers, what statement
represents the recommended operating procedure if the shift is to occur during engine operation?

o (a) First, secure cooling water to the off-going cooler, then secure lube oil to the off-going cooler.
Next, introduce lube oil to the on-coming cooler, then introduce cooling water to the on-coming
cooler.
o (b) First, introduce lube oil to the on-coming cooler, then introduce cooling water to the on-coming
cooler. Next, secure cooling water to the off-going cooler, then secure lube oil to the off-going
cooler.
(c) First, introduce cooling water to the on-coming cooler, then introduce lube oil to the on-coming
cooler. Next, secure lube oil to the off-going cooler, then secure cooling water to the off-going
cooler.
o (d) First, secure lube oil to the off-going cooler, then secure cooling water to the off-going cooler.
Next, introduce cooling water to the on-coming cooler, then introduce lube oil to the on-coming
cooler.

184. Suppose a diesel engine is fitted with seawater-cooled lube oil and jacket water
coolers. What statement is true concerning the system operating pressures?

o (a) The jacket water pressure is maintained lower than the sea water pressure in the jacket water
cooler, and the lube oil pressure is maintained higher than the sea water pressure in the lube oil
cooler.
o (b) The jacket water pressure is maintained lower than the sea water pressure in the jacket water
cooler, and the lube oil pressure is maintained lower than the sea water pressure in the lube oil
cooler.
o (c) The jacket water pressure is maintained higher than the sea water pressure in the jacket water
cooler, and the lube oil pressure is maintained lower than the sea water pressure in the lube oil
cooler.
(d) The jacket water pressure is maintained higher than the sea water pressure in the jacket
water cooler, and the lube oil pressure is maintained higher than the sea water pressure in the
lube oil cooler.

185. What is the primary indication of fouling of a heat exchanger?

o (a) A decreased pressure drop associated with the side where the fouling exists and a decreased
temperature differential between the two fluids exchanging heat.
o (b) A decreased pressure drop associated with the side where the fouling exists and an increased
temperature differential between the two fluids exchanging heat.
o (c) An increased pressure drop associated with the side where the fouling exists and a decreased
temperature differential between the two fluids exchanging heat.
(d) An increased pressure drop associated with the side where the fouling exists and an
increased temperature differential between the two fluids exchanging heat.

186. For soft scale deposits on the inside of the tubes of a seawater-cooled shell-and-tube
heat exchanger, what is typically the preferred method of cleaning?

o (a) Blowing out with compressed air or a steam lance.


(b) Mechanical cleaning with specially designed brushes and/or flushing with hot freshwater.
o (c) Chemical cleaning with descaling compounds
o (d) Mechanical cleaning with specially designed reamers or cutting tools.
187. For stubborn, hard scale deposits on the inside of the tubes of a seawater-cooled
shell-and-tube heat exchanger, what is typically the preferred method of cleaning?

o (a) Mechanical cleaning with specially designed brushes.


o (b) Flushing with hot fresh-water.
o (c) Mechanical cleaning with specially designed reamers.
(d) Chemically cleaning with descaling compounds.

188. For removal of sludge from in the inside of the shell of a fuel oil heater or lube oil
cooler, what is typically the preferred method of cleaning?

(a) Circulating hot distillate oil.


o (b) Blowing out with compressed air or a steam lance.
o (c) Chemical cleaning with descaling compounds.
o (d) Mechanical cleaning with specially designed brushes.

189. What would be the most likely indication that a plate type jacket water cooler had an
internal leak permitting mixing of the two fluids?

o (a) Rising level and overflowing of the jacket water expansion tank.
o (b) Drop in concentration of corrosion inhibitor package of jacket water.
o (c) Excessive scale build-up on the various cylinder jacket surfaces.
(d) Dropping level and frequent need to top off jacket water expansion tank.

190. Which saltwater-cooled heat exchanger arrangement and location would be


MOST problematic in terms of keeping the seawater side filled?

o (a) Vertically arranged cooler located below the water line.


(b) Horizontally arranged cooler located above the water line.
o (c) Horizontally arranged cooler located below the water line.
o (d) Vertically arranged cooler located above the water line.

191. Which saltwater-cooled heat exchanger arrangement and location would be the
LEAST likely to become air-bound on the seawater side?

(a) Vertically arranged cooler located below the water line.


o (b) Horizontally arranged cooler located above the water line.
o (c) Vertically arranged cooler located above the water line.
o (d) Horizontally arranged cooler located below the water line.

192. How may a suspected tube leak on a shell-and-tube jacket water cooler most easily be
located?

(a) Isolate, drain, and dry the salt water side of the heat exchanger. Remove the water box
inspection plates. Visually inspect the tube sheets for signs of seepage at each of the tube ends.
o (b) Isolate, drain, and dry the salt water side of the heat exchanger. Pressurize the seawater side
with compressed air. Visually inspect the jacket water expansion tank for bubbles.
o (c) Isolate, drain, and dry both the salt water and jacket water sides of the heat exchanger.
Remove the water box inspection plates. Visually inspect the tube sheets for signs of seepage at
each of the tube ends.
o (d) Isolate, drain, and dry the jacket water side of the heat exchanger. Remove the shell
inspection plates. Visually inspect the tubes along the tube lengths for seepage.

193. What would be the most likely indication that a shell-and-tube lube oil cooler had in
internal leak permitting mixing of the two fluids?

(a) Dropping level and frequent need to add make-up oil to engine sump.
o (b) Corrosion of engine internal parts in contact with lube oil.
o (c) Rising level in engine lube oil sump.
o (d) Drop in viscosity of engine lube oil.
194. Besides a visual inspection upon disassembly, what method can be used to check for
suspected leakage through a heat transfer plate of a plate type heat exchanger?

o (a) One side of the plate is cleaned and coated with a water-seeking paste, and the other side is
sprayed with water.
o (b) One side of the plate is cleaned and sprayed with a fluorescent dye penetrant, and the other
side is viewed with an infra-red heat source.
(c) One side of the plate is cleaned and sprayed with a fluorescent dye penetrant, and the other
side is viewed with an ultra-violet light.
o (d) One side of the plate is cleaned and sprayed with a fluorescent dye penetrant, and the other
side is viewed with an ordinary flashlight.

195. If a fluorescent dye penetrant and ultra-violet light are used for leak detection on a
heat exchanger, what would be the indication of a confirmed leak?

(a) A bright green glow at the site of leakage.


o (b) A bright orange glow at the site of leakage.
o (c) A bright purple glow at the site of leakage.
o (d) A bright red glow at the site of leakage.

196. The pressure of an operating hydraulic system, as indicated by a pressure gauge, is a


result of the fluid flow overcoming __________.

o (a) the load applied to the system


o (b) resistance of the internal components
o (c) internal resistance to flow
(d) all of the above

197. Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing a hydraulic
oil's viscosity?

o (a) Vacuum
(b) Pressure
o (c) Cloud point
o (d) Pour point

198. With an increase in temperature, the volume of hydraulic fluid __________.

(a) increases
o (b) contracts
o (c) remains constant if pressure decreases
o (d) remains the same

199. Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the __________.

o (a) reservoir expansion chamber


(b) atmosphere as heat
o (c) hydraulic piping flexibility
o (d) fluid as friction

204. For the various sizes of tubing and wall thickness used in a hydraulic system, the
inside diameter can be determined if it is remembered that the inside diameter equals the outside
diameter less __________.

o (a) the wall thickness


o (b) 1.5 times the wall thickness
(c) 2 times the wall thickness
o (d) 2.5 times the wall thickness
206. The determining factor for the strength of a flexible rubber hydraulic hose is the
__________.

o (a) Teflon sleeve


(b) braided layer
o (c) synthetic rubber inner tube
o (d) external cover

208. A flare-type tubing connector is used in the hydraulic hatch-cover system and has
developed a slight leak. To stop the leak you should __________.

(a) shut down the power unit and use two wrenches to avoid damaging the tubing when
tightening
o (b) replace both the tubing sections and the fitting
o (c) keep the system in operation and tighten the flare nut
o (d) stop the system and use only one wrench to tighten the flare nut

210. Strainers are commonly used in hydraulic systems to __________.

o (a) prevent solid particles from entering the filter


o (b) protect the pump from fine soluble contaminants
o (c) protect the directional control valves
(d) prevent solid particles from entering the pump
.

211. An internal bypass is provided on some hydraulic system suction strainers to help
reduce the possibility of __________.

o (a) spongy actuator movements


o (b) aeration of the oil
(c) pump cavitation
o (d) contamination of the oil

212. An improperly maintained filter used in a hydraulic system can __________.

o (a) rupture the pump discharge piping


(b) reduce or stop the output action of the actuator
o (c) cause leaking of the flexible line connections
o (d) all of the above

214. In application, which of the listed sealing devices is most similar to an O-ring?

o (a) V-ring
o (b) U-ring
(c) Quad ring
o (d) Cup seal

217. A two stage hydraulic pump unit is used to __________.

o (a) produce twice the flow rate than if only one element were to be used
o (b) supply two individual flows to the same segments of the system if one of the pump elements
were to fail
(c) develop the same flow rate across both pump elements with the discharge pressure of the
second pump element being substantially higher than that of the first stage
o (d) establish two individual flows to segregated segments of one system

218. Both the direction of flow and fluid flow rate of a variable displacement radial piston
pump are determined by the relative positions of the __________.
o (a) pump shaft and central valve
(b) floating ring and cylinder body
o (c) floating ring and pump shaft
o (d) pump shaft and horizontal ports

219. To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following
would have to be done?

(a) Provide small springs between the vanes and the base of the vane slots.
o (b) Provide one additional slot and vane.
o (c) Double the casing thickness.
o (d) Install an enlarged control ring around the rotor.

220. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed during extension,
with the pump operating at system pressure, is known as a __________.

o (a) metered-out circuit


(b) metered-in circuit
o (c) bleed-in circuit
o (d) bleed-off circuit

222. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, used to control linear actuator speed during
retraction, with the pump operating at above maximum pressure, is known as a __________.

o (a) bleed-off circuit


o (b) metered-in circuit
o (c) bleed-in circuit
(d) metered-out circuit

226. One function of a replenishing pump installed in many pressure-closed hydraulic


systems, is to supply fluid flow to __________.

o (a) the main system accumulators under all operating conditions


(b) a servo control circuit
o (c) position a manually controlled valve
o (d) the reservoir

227. Compensated flow control, or constant flow valves are used in hydraulic systems to __________.

o (a) assure constant fluid temperature


(b) allow for changes in pressure and temperature within the system
o (c) compensate for major leaks in the system
o (d) maintain the original fluid viscosity

228. Which of the valves listed is NOT considered to be a hydraulic system directional
control valve?

(a) Counterbalance valve


o (b) Two-position valve
o (c) Three-position valve
o (d) Detented-position valve

230. Plug valves installed in hydraulic systems are most suitable for use as __________.

(a) two position flow control valves


o (b) main supply line throttle valves
o (c) variable flow control valves
o (d) check and choke valves

231. The purpose of a restrictor valve, as it is used in a hydraulic hatch cover system, is to __________.

o (a) prevent oil backflow to the actuators


o (b) prevent the hydraulic pump from overheating
o (c) restrict the oil supply to the hatch covers not in use
(d) control the speed of the hatch cover movement while closing

232. Which of the listed pressure-control valves would be used in a hydraulic system to
temporarily divert some, or all of the pump discharge until the additional flow was required?

o (a) compound, pressure-relief valve


(b) unloading valve
o (c) counterbalance valve
o (d) sequence valve

233. Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to permit the completion of
one action of a hydraulic system before a second action would be permitted?

o (a) Unloading valve


(b) Sequence valve
o (c) Counterbalance valve
o (d) Pressure-reducing valve

236. For which of the following reasons is a linear actuator fitted with a cushioning device?

o (a) To allow the pump to temporarily operate at a pressure 10% above the relief valve setting
without lifting the relief valve.
(b) To slow the action of the piston preventing shock and damage due to hammering effects.
o (c) To regulate actuator speed through the entire stroke length.
o (d) All of the above.

237. Which of the following statements concerning the operation of a single-acting hydraulic
ram is correct?

o (a) Hydraulic force is applied simultaneously in two directions against the ram by directional ports.
(b) The single-acting ram is not retracted by means of hydraulic force.
o (c) The single-acting ram is both extended and retracted by means of hydraulic force.
o (d) Hydraulic force applied to a single-acting ram results in a pulling motion.

238. The component used in a hydraulic system to store potential energy in the form of
hydraulic fluid under pressure, is the __________.

o (a) ram
o (b) pump
(c) accumulator
o (d) piping

239. Which of the listed components of a hydraulic system would enable the pump to be
temporarily shutdown, and yet still provide an instantaneous source of hydraulic force?

(a) Accumulator
o (b) Modulator
o (c) Pressure compensator valve
o (d) Sump actuator

240. A precharged bladder-type accumulator used in a hydraulic system, can be


potentially dangerous if __________.

o (a) the bladder contacts the top of the poppet


o (b) the inert gas is exposed to hydraulic oil
o (c) it is precharged with dry nitrogen
(d) the charging valve stem breaks while at normal working pressure

241. Which of the following statements describes the functions of a reservoir used in a
hydraulic system?

o (a) Separate air from the oil


o (b) Trap foreign matter
o (c) Dissipate heat
(d) All of the above

242. The baffle plate used in the reservoir of a hydraulic system serves to __________.

o (a) minimize the amount of contamination deposited from return lines entering the system
o (b) reduce fluid turbulence at the pump suction
o (c) minimize the entrance of entrained air through the pump inlet line
(d) all of the above

243. A reservoir, as used in hydraulic systems aboard ship, is used to store hydraulic oil.
Another function is to __________.

o (a) eliminate pressure surges in the system


o (b) maintain the stored oil under pressure
o (c) act as a shock absorber
(d) act as a base or foundation for the power unit

245. In a shell-and-tube type hydraulic fluid cooler, the amount of heat transferred from
the hydraulic fluid to the cooling water depends upon __________.

o (a) the temperature of the hydraulic fluid


o (b) the flow rate of both the cooling water and the hydraulic fluid
o (c) the temperature of the cooling water
(d) all of the above

246. If a hydraulic system is in continuous operation, and is equipped with an air cooled
heat exchanger, the fan should __________.

(a) be in continuous operation as long as the main pump prime mover is in operation
o (b) come on only after the main pump prime mover is secured
o (c) be controlled by a thermostat to maintain the oil temperature at less than 190F (87.8C)
o (d) never be needed, except when the ambient temperature exceeds 90F (32.2C)

247. In which of the listed hydraulic systems will the installation of an oil cooler be
necessary?

o (a) Hatch cover system


o (b) Watertight door system
o (c) Internal combustion engine hydraulic starter system
(d) Constant tension mooring winch system

248. If you attempt to tighten a leaking hydraulic fitting with pressure on the system, you
will __________.

o (a) dislodge any scale in the tubing, and it will damage the system
o (b) cause the system to vibrate
(c) find that the pressure will prevent the components from being tightened
o (d) be successful every time

249. To charge a bladder type hydraulic accumulator __________.

o (a) remove all hydraulic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the system's
design pressure
o (b) increase the pneumatic pressure until the hydraulic system reaches its design pressure
(c) remove all hydraulic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the accumulator
preload pressure
o (d) allow the accumulator to completely fill with gas charge at atmospheric pressure, shut off the
air chamber, and add hydraulic fluid until proper pressure is reached

250. How can the chance of contaminating hydraulic fluid be decreased when working on
hydraulic systems?
o (a) Place drip pans under leaky fittings.
o (b) Coat all threads with graphite oil.
(c) Clean the fittings before they are disconnected.
o (d) Seal any cracks in lines with Permatex.

251. When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a high-pressure
system, the oil __________.

(a) viscosity will increase


o (b) viscosity will decrease
o (c) volume will increase
o (d) floc point will increase

252. Purging air from a hydraulic system is necessary when __________.

o (a) the system has been idle for a long period of time
o (b) adding small amounts of oil to the system
o (c) the system has been overheated
(d) the system has been drained and then filled with new oil

253. New piping and tubing to be installed in a hydraulic system can be safely degreased
by using __________.

o (a) alcohol
o (b) carbon tetrachloride
o (c) a water-based detergent
(d) a special petroleum solvent

254. In which lubrication application is a detergent type oil most likely to be used?

o (a) Air compressor lubricating oil.


(b) Trunk type diesel engine lubricating oil.
o (c) Steam turbine lubricating oil.
o (d) Crosshead diesel engine bearing lubricating oil.

255. What is the operating principle of detergent type lubricating oil that provides the oil
with its unique properties?

(a) Detergent and dispersant additives are able to hold solids in suspension.
o (b) Detergent and dispersant additives chemically dissolve the solids.
o (c) Detergent and dispersant additives convert the solids into a soap-like substance.
o (d) Detergent and dispersant additives cause the solids to settle out.

256. With respect to lubricating oils, what statement is true concerning viscosity and
viscosity index?

(a) Viscosity is a measure of an oil's internal resistance to flow and viscosity index is a measure
of an oil's ability to resist change in viscosity as the temperature changes.
o (b) Viscosity is a measure of an oil's resistance to emulsification and viscosity is a measure of an
oil's ability to resist change in viscosity as the temperature changes.
o (c) Viscosity is a measure of an oil's lubricity and viscosity index is a measure of an oil's ability to
resist change in lubricity as the pressure changes.
o (d) Viscosity is a measure of an oil's ability to resist oxidation and viscosity index is a measure of
an oil's ability to resist change in viscosity as the temperature changes.

257. Which statement is true concerning alkaline reserve as it applies to a lubricating oil?

o (a) Alkaline reserve represents the ability of an oil to maintain the oil in an alkaline condition.
o (b) Alkaline reserve represents the ability of an oil to neutralize bases as they are formed.
o (c) Alkaline reserve represents the ability of an oil to maintain the oil in an acidic condition.
(d) Alkaline reserve represents the ability of an oil to neutralize acids as they are formed.
258. In which lubrication application is a lubricating oil with an alkaline reserve most likely
to be used?

(a) Trunk type diesel engine lubricating oil.


o (b) Stern tube bearing lubricating oil.
o (c) Steam turbine lubricating oil.
o (d) Crosshead diesel engine bearing lubricating oil.

259. A bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed must occasionally be
serviced by removing the wear particles, grit, and moisture. How is this accomplished?

(a) Draining the bottom of the bearing lube oil sump.


o (b) Rotating the handle of the lube oil strainer.
o (c) Draining the bottom of the strainer housing.
o (d) Changing the filter element.

260. On a bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed, at what oil level is the
bearing maintained?

o (a) The bearing is maintained at a level where the shaft is half-submerged in oil.
o (b) The bearing is maintained at any level that guarantees that the shaft is partially submerged in
oil.
o (c) The bearing is maintained in a flooded state where the shaft is completely submerged in oil.
(d) The bearing is maintained at a level below the shaft, but high enough so that the ring dips into
the oil.

261. On a bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed, how often should the
bottom of the bearing sump be drained of impurities?

o (a) Annually
o (b) Every round
o (c) Daily
(d) Bimonthly

262. If the bearings of a piece of machinery are fed by a gravity feed lubricating oil
system, what statement is true?

o (a) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil gravity tank and discharges directly to the
bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity tank.
o (b) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to
the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity tank which overflows to the
lube oil reservoir/sump.
o (c) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to
the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil reservoir/sump.
(d) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges to the lube
oil gravity tank. The oil then gravity feeds the bearings and the return oil drains to the lube oil
reservoir/sump.

263. If the bearings of a piece of machinery are force-fed by a pressure feed lubricating oil
system, which statement is true?

o (a) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to
the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity tank which overflows to the
lube oil reservoir/sump.
o (b) The lube oil sump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges to the lube
oil gravity tank. The oil then gravity feeds the bearings and the return oil drains to the lube oil
reservoir/sump.
(c) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to
the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil reservoir/sump.
o (d) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil gravity tank and discharges directly to the
bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity tank.
264. If the bearings of a piece of machinery are fed by a gravity feed lubricating oil
system, what statement is true concerning the vertical arrangement of the lube oil tanks?

o (a) The lube oil gravity tank and the lube oil reservoir/sump are both below the points of
lubrication.
o (b) The lube oil gravity tank is below the points of lubrication and the lube oil reservoir/sump
is above the points of lubrication.
(c) The lube oil gravity tank is above the points of lubrication and the lube oil reservoir/sump is
below the points of lubrication.
o (d) The lube oil gravity tank and the lube oil reservoir/sump are both above the points of
lubrication.

265. On a bearing using an oiling ring as means of static oil feed, unless adverse
conditions would indicate otherwise, how often should the oil be completely changed at a minimum?

o (a) Weekly
o (b) Monthly
(c) Annually
o (d) Quarterly

266. Which type of lubricating oil method is LEAST likely to have a lube oil strainer or filter?

o (a) Gravity-feed
o (b) Pressure-feed
(c) Static-feed
o (d) Force-feed

267. In a forced-feed lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil
reservoir/sump residence time?

o (a) The higher the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.
(b) The higher the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.
o (c) The higher the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.
o (d) The higher the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.

268. In a forced-feed lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil
reservoir/sump residence time?

o (a) The lower the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be delivered by
the pump.
(b) The lower the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.
o (c) The lower the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as delivered
by the pump.
o (d) The lower the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.

269. Adsorption filters are not commonly used in steam turbine or diesel engine lubricating
systems because they __________.

o (a) are only effective at temperatures below 100F


(b) remove additives from the lube oil
o (c) can adsorb no more than five times their weight in water
o (d) utilize exotic and expensive filtering media making them too costly for use.

270. The greatest difference between absorbent and adsorbent filters is that absorbent
filters __________.

(a) soak up liquid contaminants directly into the filter media


o (b) will remove additives from the lube oil
o (c) do not create pressure drops in the lube oil system
o (d) attract or have liquid contaminants stick to the surface of the filter media

271. Which of the following statements best describes the straining ability of a fine mesh
metal lube oil strainer?

o (a) A 100 wire mesh screen will prevent passage of smaller particles than 200 wire mesh screen.
(b) A 200 wire mesh screen will prevent passage of smaller particles than a 100 wire mesh
screen.
o (c) A 200 wire mesh screen and a 100 wire mesh screen both prevent passage of the same size
particles, but each allows a different number of particles to pass through.
o (d) A 200 mesh screen has larger wires than a 100 mesh screen.

272. Which of the following lube oil filters would be considered acceptable for use with
today's high detergent additive type oils?

(a) Cotton waste packed in perforated metal containers or cylindrical cartridges.


o (b) Foamed polyurethane of the impingement type supported on perforated metal rings.
o (c) Cylindrical elements containing fullers earth combined with cellulose.
o (d) Chemically treated paper and waste in cartridges.

273. Which of the filter/strainer units listed permits you to replace or clean the element
while leaving the system on the line?

o (a) Simplex
o (b) Bypass
o (c) Canister
(d) Duplex

274. Which of the following types of diesel engine lubricating oil filtration schemes must be
equipped with a bypass relief valve to insure that the engine bearings are not starved of oil if the
filter element should become severely restricted or blocked?

o (a) Batch filter


o (b) Shunt filter
(c) Full-flow filter
o (d) Bypass filter

275. Which of the following types of lubricating oil filters is not fitted with a replaceable
filter element and is serviced by cleaning?

o (a) Cartridge filter


(b) Centrifugal filter
o (c) Spin-on filter
o (d) Canister filter

276. What type of diesel engine lubricating oil filtration scheme filters the entire output of
the lubricating oil pump prior to delivery to the lubricating oil supply manifold of the engine?

o (a) Bypass filter


(b) Full-flow filter
o (c) Shunt filter
o (d) Batch filter

277. What type of diesel engine lubricating oil filtration scheme filters a small portion of the
output of the lubricating oil pump prior to delivery back to the sump via a fine filter?

(a) Bypass filter


o (b) Batch filter
o (c) Full-flow filter
o (d) Shunt filter
.

278. What is the BEST indication that a diesel engine full-flow lubricating oil filter must be
serviced?

o (a) Abnormally high lubricating oil pump discharge pressure.


o (b) Insufficient pressure drop across the filter.
(c) Excessive pressure drop across the filter.
o (d) Abnormally low lubricating oil supply manifold pressure.

279. The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its __________.

o (a) elasticity
o (b) ductility
o (c) fusibility
(d) malleability

280. Reheating a hardened component to a temperature lower than the hardening


temperature and then cooling it is known as __________.

o (a) case hardening


o (b) low temperature hardening
o (c) annealing
(d) tempering

281. When hardened metal is heat-treated by a process known as tempering, what


metallurgical properties are achieved?

(a) decrease in brittleness


o (b) increase in hardening
o (c) increase in brittleness
o (d) increase in corrosion resistance

282. When metal is tempered, it becomes __________.

(a) less brittle


o (b) more brittle
o (c) less tough
o (d) harder

283. What is the purpose of heat treating steel?

o (a) Develop ductility


o (b) Improve machining qualities
o (c) Relieve stresses
(d) All of the above

284. (2.2.12.1-6) Monel metal is an alloy composed mainly of __________.

(a) nickel and copper


o (b) zinc and copper
o (c) bronze and tin
o (d) copper and tin

285. When a metal is undergoing heat treatment, what happens when the metal is heated
above its critical temperature?

o (a) The metal changes from the solid state to the molten state.
o (b) The metal changes from a molten state to a vapor state.
(c) The metal undergoes a change in crystalline structure.
o (d) The metal undergoes thermal contraction.
286. When a metal is undergoing heat treatment for the purposes of annealing, besides
refining the grain structure, what is the determining characteristic of the metal?

o (a) Change in chemical composition


(b) Softened condition
o (c) High tensile strength
o (d) Induction of toughness

287. When a low carbon steel is undergoing heat treatment for the purposes of
casehardening, what is the process that distinguishes this procedure from other hardening methods?

(a) After the steel is heated above its critical temperature, it is quenched in a carbon bath.
o (b) After the steel is heated above its critical temperature, it is quenched in cold water.
o (c) After the steel is heated above its critical temperature, it is allowed to cool slowly in air.
o (d) After the steel is heated above its melting temperature, it is quenched in a carbon bath.

288. What effect does preheating, concurrent heating, or post heating have on a welding
a joint?

(a) Decreasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and relieving internal stresses.
o (b) Increasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and relieving internal stresses.
o (c) Decreasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and intensifying internal stresses.
o (d) Increasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and intensifying internal stresses.

289. What is meant by the term tensile strength of a material?

o (a) The ability to resist shearing stresses.


o (b) The ability to resist bending stresses.
o (c) The ability to resist compression stresses.
(d) The ability to resist stretching stresses.

290. What is meant by the term toughness as it applies to a material?

o (a) The ability to resist penetration.


(b) The ability to resist repeated application and release of force.
o (c) The ability to resist continuous tension.
o (d) The ability to resist continuous compression.

295. What type of fuel oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to have a density
approaching that of water?

(a) Heavy residual fuel oil.


o (b) Marine diesel oil.
o (c) Distillate/residual fuel oil blends.
o (d) Light distillate oil.

296. What statement is true concerning the effect of elevating the temperature of the oily-
water mixture associated with an oily-water separator?

o (a) Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
o (b) Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
o (c) Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
(d) Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
297. What is an engine room bilge oily-water separator designed to do?

o (a) Remove small amounts of water from large amounts of oil.


o (b) Remove small amounts of oil from small amounts of water.
o (c) Remove small amounts of oil from small amounts of water.
(d) Remove small amounts of oil from large amounts of water.

298. What statement is true concerning the polishing coalescer filter of an oily-water
separator?

(a) The coalescing filter is typically an oleophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained oil
of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of oil that rise to the top of
the filter housing.
o (b) The coalescing filter is typically an oleophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained oil
of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of oil that sink to the
bottom of the filter housing.
o (c) The coalescing filter is typically a hydrophilic filter meaning that small droplets of
entrained water of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of water that
sink to the bottom of the filter housing.
o (d) The coalescing filter is typically a hydrophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained
water of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of water that rise to
the top of the filter housing.

299. In order to facilitate separation of oil from an oily-water mixture in an oily-water


separator, what statement is true concerning the flow pattern of the oily-water?

o (a) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be low in flow rate and high in turbulence.
o (b) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be high in flow rate and high in turbulence.
(c) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be low in flow rate and low in turbulence.
o (d) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be high in flow rate and low in turbulence.

300. What type of oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to require heating to
facilitate separation in an oily-water separator?

(a) Heavy residual fuel oil.


o (b) Diesel engine lubricating oil.
o (c) Marine diesel oil.
o (d) Steam turbine lubricating oil.

301. What statement is true with regard to the basic operating principle of gravity
associated with an oily-water separator?

(a) The density of oil is less than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water
mixture will tend to rise.
o (b) The density of oil is greater than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water
mixture will tend to sink.
o (c) The density of oil is greater than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water
mixture will tend to rise.
o (d) The density of oil is less than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water
mixture will tend to sink.

302. If an oily-water separator uses an inclined plate pack to facilitate separation, what
statement concerning the plate pack is true?

(a) The oil droplets collect on the underside of the plates and rise when they have reached the
outer edge of the plate pack. Solid particles collect on the upper side of the plates and sink when
they have reached the inner edge of the plate pack.
o (b) The oil droplets collect on the upper side of the plates and sink when they have reached the
outer edge of the plate pack. Solid particles collect on the underside of the plates and rise when
they have reached the inner edge of the plate pack.
o (c) The oil droplets collect on the upper side of the plates and rise when they have reached the
outer edge of the plate pack. Solid particles collect on the underside of the plates and sink when
they have reached the inner edge of the plate pack.
o (d) The oil droplets collect on the underside of the plates and sink when they have reached the
outer edge of the plate pack. Solid particles collect on the upper side of the plates and rise when
they have reached the inner edge of the plate pack.

316. As it pertains to safety valves, what is the definition of blow down?

o (a) Blow down is the feature of a valve that allows drainage of condensate away from the disc to
prevent sticking.
o (b) Blow down is the difference between the maximum allowable working pressure and the valve
popping pressure.
(c) Blow down is the difference between the valve popping pressure and the valve reseating
pressure.
o (d) Blow down is the difference between the maximum allowable working pressure and the valve
reseating pressure.

318. Concerning safety valves, what statement is true?

(a) Safety valves are designed to open wide when lifted by excessive pressure and only reseat
when the pressure has dropped significantly.
o (b) Safety valves are always set to relieve at a pressure exceeding the maximum allowable
working pressure of the system.
o (c) Safety valves are designed to throttle and adjust the flow rate to just keep up with the capacity
of the pressure source.
o (d) Safety valves are designed to open wide when lifted by excessive pressure and immediately
reseat when the pressure has dropped by a very small amount.

320. Which of the following listed valves would require "blow down" to insure proper
operation and prevent damage due to repeated and rapid opening and closing?

o (a) Pressure-reducing valve


o (b) Pressure-relief valve
(c) Safety valve
o (d) Pressure-regulating relief valve

321. Concerning pressure-relief valves, what statement is true?

(a) No stop isolation valve may be installed between the relief valve and its source of pressure,
and no stop isolation valve may be installed in the relief valve discharge piping.
o (b) It is permissible to install a stop isolation valve between the relief valve and its source of
pressure, but no stop isolation valve may be installed in the relief valve discharge piping.
o (c) It is permissible for a stop isolation valve to be installed between the relief valve and its source
of pressure, and it is permissible for a stop isolation valve to be installed in the relief valve
discharge piping.
o (d) No stop isolation valve may be installed between the relief valve and its source of pressure,
but it is permissible for a stop isolation valve to be installed in the relief valve discharge piping.

322. Concerning sentinel valves, what statement is true?

o (a) The set point of the sentinel valve is usually above the maximum allowable working pressure
of the system.
o (b) The capacity of a sentinel valve must exceed the capacity of the pressure source.
(c) The sentinel valve's sole purpose is to warn personnel of excessive system pressure.
o (d) The set point of a sentinel valve is normally set below the normal working pressure of the
system.

329. Suppose a steam trap's primary purpose is to insure good heat transfer of a steam-
heated heat exchanger. What statement is true concerning the outcome of a steam trap failure?

o (a) Steam trap failure in a fully open position would result in exceptionally good heat transfer, and
steam trap failure in a full closed position would result in exceptionally poor heat transfer.
(b) Steam trap failure in either a fully open or fully closed position would both result in
exceptionally poor heat transfer.
o (c) Steam trap failure in a fully open position would result in exceptionally poor heat transfer, and
steam trap failure in a full closed position would result in exceptionally good heat transfer.
o (d) Steam trap failure in either a fully open or fully closed position would both result in
exceptionally good heat transfer.

330. What statement representing the primary purpose of a steam trap is true?

(a) By draining the low point of a horizontal run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to
keep the steam line dry and eliminate water hammer.
o (b) By draining the high point of a horizontal run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to
keep the steam line dry and eliminate water hammer.
o (c) By draining the high point of a vertical run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to
keep the steam line dry and eliminate water hammer.
o (d) By draining the low point of a horizontal run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to
insure good heat transfer efficiency.

331. What type of steam trap is most susceptible to damage if allowed to come into
contact with superheated steam?

o (a) Mechanical traps relying on the principle of buoyancy.


o (b) Thermodynamic traps relying on the principle of condensate undergoing a pressure drop and
flashing.
o (c) Thermostatic traps relying on the principle of differing expansion rates for dissimilar metals.
(d) Thermostatic traps relying on the principle of expansion/contraction of a volatile fluid.

334. In order for a steam trap to be effective in accomplishing its intended purpose, what
statement is true regarding its installation?

o (a) The steam trap should never be painted, but should be covered with insulation.
o (b) The steam trap should be painted to reduce corrosion and should be covered with insulation.
o (c) The steam trap should be painted to reduce corrosion but should never be covered with
insulation.
(d) The steam trap should never be painted and should never be covered with insulation.

365. In order for heat transfer to take place between two substances, what essential
condition must exist?

o (a) The two substances must be of different state of matter.


o (b) The two substances must be of different specific gravity.
o (c) The two substances must be of different pressure.
(d) The two substances must be of different temperature.

366. What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy from
one location to another by fluid in motion?

o (a) Sublimation
(b) Convection
o (c) Radiation
o (d) Conduction

367. What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy within
a body or between two bodies in direct contact?

o (a) Radiation
(b) Conduction
o (c) Sublimation
o (d) Convection

368. What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy
through a transparent medium by means of electro-magnetic energy in the infrared spectrum?

o (a) Conduction
o (b) Sublimation
(c) Radiation
o (d) Convection

369. Overall heat transfer processes often involve two or more modes of heat transfer.
Specifically, when heat is being transferred from one side of an air compressor cylinder wall to the
opposite side, what mode of heat transfer is associated with that particular part of the
overall process?

o (a) Radiation
o (b) Natural convection
o (c) Forced convection
(d) Conduction

370. What statement is true concerning the heat transfer rates through a heat exchanger
boundary wall by conduction?

o (a) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall, and
directly proportional to the area of the wall and the wall thickness.
o (b) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall and
the area of the wall, and directly proportional to the wall thickness.
o (c) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall, and
inversely proportional to the area of the wall and the wall thickness.
(d) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall and
the area of the wall, and inversely proportional to the wall thickness.

371. What statement is true concerning heat transfer rates by the heat transfer mode of
natural convection?

(a) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in turn, is
directly proportional to the temperature gradient.
o (b) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in
turn, is directly proportional to the temperature gradient.
o (c) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in turn, is
inversely proportional to the temperature gradient.
o (d) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in
turn, is inversely proportional to the temperature gradient.

372. What statement represents the first law of thermodynamics?

o (a) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the internal energy given up by the first
body must be exceed the internal energy taken up by the second body.
o (b) When heat is transferred from one body to another, there is no mathematical relationship
between the internal energy given up by the first body and the internal energy taken up by the
second body.
o (c) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the internal energy given up by the first
body must be less than the internal energy taken up by the second body.
(d) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the internal energy given up by the first
body must be equal to the internal energy taken up by the second body.

373. What statement represents the second law of thermodynamics?

o (a) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the direction of heat flow is uni-directional
from the relatively cold body to the relatively hot body.
o (b) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the direction of heat flow between the two
bodies is unpredictable.
(c) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the direction of heat flow is uni-directional
from the relatively hot body to the relatively cold body.
o (d) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the direction of heat flow is bi-directional
from the relatively hot body to the relatively cold body and from the relatively cold body to the
relatively hot body.
374. If Boyles' law describes the relationship between the pressure and volume of ideal
gases, what statement is true?

o (a) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional
to its pressure.
(b) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely
proportional to its pressure.
o (c) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to
its temperature.
o (d) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional
to its temperature.

375. If Charles' law describes the relationship between the temperature and volume of
ideal gases, what statement is true?

o (a) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional
to its temperature.
o (b) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely
proportional to its pressure.
(c) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to
its temperature.
o (d) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional
to its pressure.

376. What term is defined as the quantity of heat necessary to raise the temperature of a
unit mass of a substance one degree?

o (a) Specific volume


o (b) Specific gravity
o (c) Latent heat
(d) Specific heat

377. What statement represents the ideal gas law?

o (a) For a given mass of a gas, the volume is inversely proportional to its pressure and inversely
proportional to its temperature.
o (b) For a given mass of a gas, the volume is directly proportional to its pressure and directly
proportional to its temperature.
(c) For a given mass of a gas, the volume is inversely proportional to its pressure and directly
proportional to its temperature.
o (d) For a given mass of a gas, the volume is directly proportional to its pressure and inversely
proportional to its temperature.

378. What term is defined as the amount of heat required to convert a unit mass of a
substance from a liquid to a vapor at constant temperature and pressure?

o (a) Latent heat of fusion


o (b) Specific heat of vaporization
o (c) Sensible heat of vaporization
(d) Latent heat of vaporization

379. What term is defined as the rate of doing work?

(a) Power
o (b) Kinetic energy
o (c) Mechanical work
o (d) Potential energy

380. What statement is true concerning thermal energy in transition?

o (a) Thermal energy in transition is called heat which is the result of a temperature difference. The
resulting heat flow may produce two possible outcomes. Sensible heat transfer results in a
change of state of the substance. Latent heat transfer results in a change of temperature of the
substance.
(b) Thermal energy in transition is called heat which is the result of a temperature difference. The
resulting heat flow may produce two possible outcomes. Sensible heat transfer results in a
change of temperature of the substance. Latent heat transfer results in a change of state of the
substance.
o (c) Thermal energy in transition is called heat which is the result of differences in state. The
resulting heat flow may produce two possible outcomes. Sensible heat transfer results in a
change of temperature of the substance. Latent heat transfer results in a change of state of the
substance.
o (d) Thermal energy in transition is called heat which is the result of differences in state. The
resulting heat flow may produce two possible outcomes. Sensible heat transfer results in a
change of state of the substance. Latent heat transfer results in a change of temperature of the
substance.

381. What statement is true concerning the internal energy of a substance?

o (a) The internal potential and kinetic molecular energies of a substance is a function of the state
of matter of the substance, whereas the internal potential and kinetic molecular energies of a
substance are in no way related to the temperature of a substance.
o (b) The internal potential and kinetic molecular energies of a substance is a function of
the temperature of the substance, whereas the internal potential and kinetic molecular energies of a
substance are in no way related to the state of matter of a substance.
(c) The internal potential molecular energy of a substance is a function of the state of matter of
the substance, whereas the internal kinetic molecular energy of a substance is a function of the
temperature of the substance.
o (d) The internal potential molecular energy of a substance is a function of the temperature of the
substance, whereas the internal kinetic molecular energy of a substance is a function of the state
of matter of the substance.

382. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Kort
nozzle?

(a) Ducted propeller


o (b) Vane wheel
o (c) Cycloidal propeller
o (d) Tandem propellers

383. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Voith-
Schneider drive?

o (a) Ducted propeller


o (b) Tandem propellers
o (c) Vane wheel
(d) Cycloidal propeller

384. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a screw
propeller of the conventional design?

(a) Fixed pitch propeller


o (b) Cycloidal propeller
o (c) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller
o (d) Controllable-pitch propeller

385. When an electricity generating plant features shaft-driven generators, what type of
propulsor is generally used for main propulsion?

o (a) Tandem propellers


o (b) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller
(c) Controllable-pitch propeller
o (d) Fixed-pitch propeller

386. Which of the following propulsor types would be used with unidirectional propulsion
shafting rotation?
o (a) Fixed-pitch propeller
(b) Controllable-pitch propeller
o (c) Tandem propellers
o (d) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller

387. What type of propeller consists of a flat disc set flush with the under surface of the
vessel's hull with a number of vertical, rudder like blades projecting from it?

o (a) Contra-rotating propeller


o (b) Tandem propeller
o (c) Helicoidal propeller
(d) Cycloidal propeller

388. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Z-
drive?

(a) Azimuthing propulsor


o (b) Jet drive
o (c) Cycloidal propeller
o (d) Azipod propulsor

389. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for electric
propulsion where the drive motors are outside the ship's hull?

o (a) Jet drive


o (b) Azimuthing propulsor
(c) Azipod propulsor
o (d) Cycloidal propeller

390. Concerning the operating mechanism of a controllable-pitch propeller, what


statement is true?

o (a) If the hydraulic actuator is outboard, a mechanical pull-push rod is located within the propeller
shaft. If the hydraulic actuator is inboard, hydraulic oil pipes are located within the propeller shaft.
o (b) If the hydraulic actuator is inboard or outboard, the blade rotating mechanism is actuated by a
mechanical pull-push rod located within the propeller shaft.
o (c) If the hydraulic actuator is inboard or outboard, hydraulic oil pipes are located within the
propeller shaft in either case.
(d) If the hydraulic actuator is inboard, a mechanical pull-push rod is located within the propeller
shaft. If the hydraulic actuator is outboard, hydraulic oil pipes are located within the propeller
shaft.

391. Which of the following propulsor types does not require the use of a separate rudder
for steerage?

(a) Cycloidal propellers.


o (b) Contra-rotating propellers.
o (c) Tandem propellers.
o (d) Conventional fixed-pitch propeller.

392. If a main propulsion shafting arrangement is such that no strut or strut bearing is
required, what is an alternative name given to the propeller shaft, which is the section of shafting that
the propeller is attached to?

o (a) Line shaft


(b) Tail shaft
o (c) Thrust shaft
o (d) Head shaft

393. What statement is true concerning the lubrication of line shaft bearings?

o (a) Line shaft bearings are generally lubricated by wick lubrication.


o (b) Line shaft bearing are generally lubricated by force-feed lubrication.
o (c) Line shaft bearings are generally lubricated by gravity feed lubrication.
(d) Line shaft bearings are generally lubricated by oiling rings or discs

394. What statement is true concerning the ability of a line shaft bearing to adapt to shaft
misalignment as the ship's hull flexes?

(a) Some line shaft bearings may have only a bottom half bearing shell, which allows for
deflection upwards only. Other line shaft bearings may be spherically-seated self-aligning
bearings or conventional non-aligning type bearings.
o (b) All line shaft bearings have only a top half bearing shell, which allows for deflection
downwards only. As such no provision is made for allowing for deflection in other directions. o (c)
All line shaft bearings have only a bottom half bearing shell, which allows for deflection
upwards only. As such no provision is made for allowing for deflection in other directions.
o (d) Some line shaft bearings may have only a top half bearing shell, which allows for deflection
downwards only. Other line shaft bearings may be spherically-seated self-aligning bearings or
conventional non-aligning type bearings.

395. Which line shaft bearing is most likely to have both upper and lower half bearing
shells on merchant ships?

o (a) The intermediate line shaft bearing.


o (b) The forward most line shaft bearing.
o (c) All line shaft bearings have only a lower bearing shell.
(d) The aftermost line shaft bearing.

396. Concerning the arrangements of a disk-oiled line shaft bearing, what statement is true?

o (a) The disk is clamped to the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution
of the oil to the bearing is by the action of an oil wick.
o (b) The disk fits loosely on the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution
of the oil to the bearing is by wick action
(c) The disk is clamped to the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution of
the oil to the bearing is by the action of an oil scraper.
o (d) The disk fits loosely on the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution
of the oil to the bearing is similar to the action of oiling rings.

397. What statement is true with respect to the back of a propeller blade?

o (a) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces upstream during ahead
motion and is the side of the blade known as the pressure side.
o (b) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces downstream during ahead
motion and is the side of the blade known as the pressure side.
o (c) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces downstream during ahead
motion and is the side of the blade known as the suction side.
(d) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces upstream during ahead
motion and is the side of the blade known as the suction side.

398. What is meant by the term "left-handed" propeller?

o (a) A "left-handed" propeller is a propeller located on the starboard side and which can rotate in
either direction.
o (b) A "left-handed" propeller is a propeller located on the port side and which can rotate in either
direction.
o (c) A "left-handed" propeller is a propeller which rotates in the counter-clockwise direction when
viewed from ahead.
(d) A "left-handed" propeller is a propeller which rotates in the counter-clockwise direction when
viewed from astern.

399. What is meant by the term "right-handed" propeller?

o (a) A "right-handed" propeller is a propeller located on the port side and which can rotate in either
direction.
(b) A "right-handed" propeller is a propeller which rotates in the clockwise direction when viewed
from astern.
o (c) A "right-handed" propeller is a propeller located on the starboard side and which can rotate in
either direction.
o (d) A "right-handed" propeller is a propeller which rotates in the clockwise direction when viewed
from ahead.

400. Concerning transverse fixed tunnel thrusters, what statement is true?

o (a) Transverse fixed tunnel thrusters are oriented fore-to-aft, usually located at the stern of a
vessel, and used for docking, undocking, and low-speed maneuvering.
o (b) Transverse fixed tunnel thrusters are oriented athwartships, usually located at the bow of a
vessel, and used to supplement main propulsion for higher sustained speeds.
(c) Transverse fixed tunnel thrusters are oriented athwartships, usually located at the bow of a
vessel, and used for docking, undocking, and low-speed maneuvering.
o (d) Transverse fixed tunnel thrusters are oriented fore-to-aft, usually located at the stern of a
vessel, and used to supplement main propulsion for higher sustained speeds.

401. Concerning steerable internal duct thrusters, what statement is true?

o (a) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by the direction of
rotation of the pump.
o (b) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by reversing the pitch
angle of the pump impeller.
o (c) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by the orientation of
the pump inlet guide vanes.
(d) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by the orientation of
the water discharge vectoring ring.

402. With respect to the vectoring ring of a steerable internal duct thruster, what statement
represents the operating principle of the vectoring ring?

o (a) The vectoring ring is used to control the orientation of the inlet guide vanes to the pump inlet.
(b) The vectoring ring is used to control the orientation of the deflector vanes of the pump
discharge.
o (c) The vectoring ring is used to control the speed and direction of rotation of the pump.
o (d) The vectoring ring is used to control the orientation of the vanes on the pump impeller.

403. What statement represents the fundamental difference between an azimuthing


thruster and a podded propulsor?

(a) With an azimuthing thruster the prime mover is located inside the hull, and with a podded
propulsor the prime mover is located outside the hull.
o (b) With an azimuthing thruster the prime mover is located outside the hull, and with a podded
propulsor the prime mover is located inside the hull.
o (c) With an azimuthing thruster the thruster is not steerable, and with a podded propulsor the
propulsor is steerable.
o (d) With an azimuthing thruster the thruster is steerable, and with a podded propulsor the
propulsor is not steerable.

404. With respect to a "pusher" type azimuthing thruster, what statement is true?

o (a) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of the gear
unit, but the gear unit is in the wake of the azimuthing thruster's propeller.
o (b) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the gear unit is directly abaft of and in the wake of the
azimuthing thruster's propeller.
o (c) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the gear unit is directly abaft of the azimuthing thruster's
propeller, but the azimuthing thruster's propeller is in the wake of the gear unit.
(d) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of and in
the wake of the gear unit.

405. With respect to a "tractor" type azimuthing thruster, what statement is true?

(a) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the gear unit is directly abaft of and in the wake of the
azimuthing thruster's propeller.
o (b) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of and in
the wake of the gear unit.
o (c) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the gear unit is directly abaft of the azimuthing thruster's
propeller, but the azimuthing thruster's propeller is in the wake of the gear unit.
o (d) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of the gear
unit, but the gear unit is in the wake of the azimuthing thruster's propeller.

406. By what means is electric current conveyed to the electric drive motor of a podded
propulsor?

o (a) Current is conveyed from the source to a set of stationary brushes, then through a single
rotating slip ring and then on to the motor windings.
o (b) Current is conveyed from the source to a set of stationary slip rings, then through a set of
rotating brushes and then on to the motor windings.
(c) Current is conveyed from the source to a set of stationary brushes, then through a set of
rotating slip rings and then on to the motor windings.
o (d) Current is conveyed from the source to the stator of a synchronous transmitter, and by
synchro action to the rotor of a synchronous receiver.

407. What type of propulsor is typically used in electric motor driven, transverse, tunnel
bow thrusters to limit the starting current of the single speed drive motor?

o (a) Fixed-pitch propeller


o (b) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller
o (c) Cycloidal propeller
(d) Controllable-pitch propeller

408. What is the primary advantage of transverse bow and stern tunnel thrusters when
installed on ships?

o (a) They provide increased overall propulsive reverse thrust.


(b) They provide increased maneuverability at low ship speeds.
o (c) They provide increased overall propulsive forward thrust.
o (d) They provide increased maneuverability at high ship speeds.

409. Which set of operating conditions would be most problematic in terms of the
deterioration of the insulation resistance of the drive motor of an electric motor driven transverse
tunnel bow thruster?

o (a) Frequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly cold.
o (b) Frequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly
warm.
(c) Infrequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly
cold.
o (d) Infrequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly
warm.

410. The gears used for virtually all marine propulsion reduction gear sets are of what type?

o (a) Single spur gears


o (b) Single helical gears
(c) Double helical gears
o (d) Double bevel gears

411. Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive
featuring a single reduction?

o (a) Slow speed diesel


(b) Medium speed diesel
o (c) Steam turbine
o (d) Gas turbine

.
412. What is an example of an epicyclic gear?

(a) Planetary gear


o (b) Articulated gear
o (c) Nested gear
o (d) Locked train gear

413. For a parallel axis single reduction gear, what statement is true?

(a) The drive pinion is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high speed. The
driven gear is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low speed.
o (b) The drive pinion is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low speed. The
driven gear is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high speed.
o (c) The drive pinion is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high speed. The
driven gear is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low speed.
o (d) The drive pinion is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low speed. The driven
gear is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high speed.

414. Which of the listed reduction gear sets has the input and output shafts in-line with
one another?

o (a) Parallel axis gearing


o (b) Bevel gearing
o (c) Worm gearing
(d) Epicyclic gearing

415. 6) Which of the following couplings or clutches would be able to prevent the
transmission of torsional vibrations from an engine to a reduction gear?

o (a) Inflatable tire-type pneumatic clutch


(b) Hydraulic fluid-type clutch
o (c) Multiple disk friction clutch
o (d) Solid coupling

416. Which of the following couplings or clutches allows, within limits, a certain degree of slip?

o (a) Inflatable tire type clutch


o (b) Flexible coupling
o (c) Multiple disk friction clutch
(d) Electro-magnetic clutch

417. Concerning main propulsion reduction gears, what statement is true?

(a) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively high speed and low
torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively low speed and high torque.
o (b) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively high speed
and high torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively low speed and low
torque.
o (c) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively low speed and low
torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively high speed and high torque.
o (d) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively low speed and high
torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively high speed and low torque.

418. What is a shipboard application for a worm gear drive?

o (a) Main propulsion reduction gear.


o (b) Turbo-generator reduction gear.
(c) Main engine turning gear.
o (d) Auxiliary power take-off gear.
419. Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive
featuring a double reduction?

o (a) Slow speed diesel


o (b) Medium speed diesel
o (c) High speed diesel
(d) Gas turbine

420. The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to __________.

o (a) separate air from the liquid being pumped


o (b) convert the potential energy of the liquid to kinetic energy
(c) directly increase the velocity of the liquid being pumped
o (d) directly increase the pressure of the liquid being pumped

421. The primary function of a centrifugal pump volute is to __________.

o (a) develop a high velocity liquid


o (b) limit hydraulic end thrust
o (c) initiate flow
(d) convert velocity to pressure
.

422. Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?

o (a) They are always mounted in a horizontal position.


o (b) They are started with the discharge valve opened.
(c) The flow of liquid is developed by imparting energy due to the rotation of an impeller.
o (d) They are particularly suited for pumping high viscosity fluids.

423. Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?

(a) A flow is developed by imparting kinetic energy to the fluid by the rotation of an impeller.
o (b) They operate best under negative suction pressure conditions.
o (c) They are particularly well suited for pumping high viscosity fluids.
o (d) They operate more efficiently when mounted in a horizontal position.

424. Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic or
highly flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the atmosphere?

o (a) Rubber bellows mechanical seal


(b) Double mechanical seal
o (c) External mechanical seal
o (d) Conventional stuffing box

425. Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump to allow for wear on the
lobe edges?

(a) Replaceable gib inserts


o (b) Casing gear thrust bearings
o (c) Spur gear adjusters
o (d) Replaceable liner plates

426. One disadvantage of using a mechanical shaft seal instead of mechanical packing
is that __________.

(a) seal failure usually requires the immediate removal of the pump from service
o (b) it is unsuitable for high pressure applications
o (c) it requires periodic disassembly and adjustment
o (d) it is unsuitable for high temperature applications
.

431. The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed only by
__________.

o (a) moving the slide block and rotor


o (b) changing the angle of the tilting plate
o (c) moving the shaft trunnion block
(d) changing the speed of the pump

432. Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be
avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?

(a) Scoring may result.


o (b) Valve seat will be damaged.
o (c) Heat transfer is restricted.
o (d) Bonnet corrosion may result.

433. What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump shaft sleeve
during routine maintenance inspection?

o (a) Reassemble the pump and set the governor to obtain a slower speed.
o (b) Reassemble the pump and provide more water leak off for lubrication.
o (c) Check for parallel alignment of the sleeve radial face to the sleeve bore.
(d) Correct the cause of scoring and install a new shaft sleeve.

434. When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following
precautions should be observed?

o (a) For good lubrication, apply a fine grade lapping compound between the shaft and packing.
(b) Replace all of the packing rings.
o (c) Block off the sealing water connection.
o (d) Be certain that all packing is fitted loosely to the shaft.

435. When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a pump, it is important to ______.

(a) ensure that correct spring pressure is applied to the seating faces
o (b) polish the seating faces with emery cloth prior to assembly
o (c) run the pump "dry" for initial break-in of the shaft seal
o (d) make the final spring collar adjustments with the pump running

436. A centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient discharge pressure. What


corrective action is required?

o (a) Throttle in on the suction valve.


o (b) Replace the lantern rings.
(c) Replace the wearing rings.
o (d) Throttle in on the discharge valve.

437. A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally be __________.

(a) replaced with a satisfactory spare


o (b) straightened by applying heat and torsion
o (c) repaired by a suitable welding process
o (d) reconditioned by metalizing and machining

438. When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing
is firmly seated, the packing gland nuts should be __________.

(a) loosened, and then retightened with the pump running under normal conditions
o (b) loosened until the gland clears the stuffing box
o (c) left in that position
o (d) tightened an additional 10% to compress the packing
439. The capacity of a gear type rotary pump, when operated at a constant speed, will
decrease with an increase in the pump __________.

o (a) discharge volume


o (b) suction pressure
o (c) torque rating
(d) rotor clearances

440. Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier than the
discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump?

(a) One discharge phase begins before the previous discharge phase has been completed.
o (b) The gear teeth are smaller than those of the simple spur gear pump.
o (c) The herringbone gear pump has four spur gears instead of two.
o (d) Clearance between the gear teeth and casing is smaller.

441. How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur gear
pump?

o (a) The pump can only be used for light oils.


(b) The viscosity of the fluid is relatively unimportant in the pump operation.
o (c) The pump cannot handle fluids more viscous than lubricating oil.
o (d) The pump can only be used for fluids of high viscosity.

442. Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because __________.

o (a) it is not necessary to closely maintain design clearances with this pump
o (b) these pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles
o (c) stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated with other gear pumps
(d) they are essentially self-priming and capable of a high suction lift

443. The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the __________.

o (a) suction head


o (b) net positive suction head
(c) discharge head
o (d) total head

444. If the existing vapor pressure is subtracted from the indicated pressure at the pump
suction, the remainder is the __________.

(a) apparent net positive suction head


o (b) pump head
o (c) discharge head
o (d) total suction head

445. A pump is defined as a device that __________.

(a) imparts energy to a fluid to move it from point "A" to point "B"
o (b) creates a vacuum to move a liquid in all installations
o (c) produces pressure
o (d) is to develop a pressure differential

446. Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of a liquid entering a
centrifugal pump?

o (a) Discharge head


(b) Suction head
o (c) Pump head
o (d) Total head
447. Water leaking from a pump packing gland is kept away from the bearing housing by
the use of __________.

o (a) shaft sleeves


o (b) water seals
(c) water flingers
o (d) lantern rings

448. A recirculating, or bleed off line is installed on a centrifugal pump in order to __________.

o (a) equalize pressure on both sides of the suction valve disc


o (b) establish a back pressure at the labyrinth seal to eliminate leakage
(c) prevent the pump from overheating when operating at shutoff head
o (d) decrease the net positive suction head

449. Permanent centrifugal pump shaft damage due to erosion, corrosion, and wear at
the stuffing box is usually prevented by __________.

o (a) a hardened sprayed metal coating


o (b) internally flooded lantern rings
(c) renewable sleeves
o (d) wearing rings

450. Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a
stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal for sealing the shaft of a centrifugal pump?

o (a) Packed stuffing box glands are subject to wear, but mechanical seals are not.
o (b) Packed stuffing box glands must be cooled by the liquid being pumped, but mechanical seals
do not require cooling.
(c) If packing fails, the pump can be kept running temporarily by tightening the gland, but if a
mechanical seal fails it must be totally renewed to stop the leakage.
o (d) The sealing surface of a mechanical seal is parallel to the shaft, but the sealing surface of a
packed gland is perpendicular to the shaft.

452. Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on mechanical
seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in water service?

o (a) Bronze.
(b) Carbon.
o (c) Copper and carbon.
o (d) Copper.

454. Why are removable sleeves installed on centrifugal pump shafts?

o (a) They can be removed when it is necessary to lighten the weight of the pump.
(b) They can be economically replaced as they wear out.
o (c) They increase the strength of the shaft.
o (d) They make it easier to replace the pump shaft packing.

455. The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed in the centrifugal pump stuffing
boxes, is to __________.

o (a) cool the shaft


o (b) lubricate the packing
(c) distribute the sealing liquid within the stuffing box
o (d) seal air from entering along the shaft
456. Which type of pump would normally be used to transfer fairly large quantities of fluids
at relatively low pressures?

o (a) reciprocating type


o (b) screw type
o (c) gear type
(d) propeller type

457. Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most likely use a
propeller type pump?

o (a) Steering gear system


(b) Main circulating system
o (c) Fuel oil service booster system
o (d) Fluid power transmission system
.
458. One of the main differences between a propeller pump and a centrifugal pump is the
absence of a __________.

o (a) velocity nozzle in the centrifugal type pump


o (b) volute in the centrifugal type pump
(c) volute in the propeller type pump
o (d) reciprocating piston in the centrifugal type pump

459. The suction-force principle of operation is a typical characteristic of __________.

(a) reciprocating pumps


o (b) jet pumps
o (c) centrifugal pumps
o (d) propeller pumps

460. If you have a duplex, single acting, reciprocating pump making 140 strokes/minute
with a 3" diameter cylinder, and a 12" stroke with a 94% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of
this pump?

o (a) 58 gpm
(b) 48 gpm
o (c) 38 gpm
o (d) 28 gpm

461. To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of a reciprocating
pump, you should __________.

(a) use a packing hook


o (b) do nothing, as this type of pump utilizes O-rings in lieu of packing
o (c) open the throttle valve and 'blow' the old packing out
o (d) open the steam chest and pry the packing loose with a scraper

462. Which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating pump rod?

o (a) Oil mixed with kerosene.


(b) Graphite and oil.
o (c) Engine oil.
o (d) Vegetable oil.

463. The first step when resetting the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to
__________.

o (a) position the steam pistons on 3/4 stroke


o (b) measure the present port openings to ensure reassembly will be the same
o (c) ensure the balance piston is on the down stroke
(d) place the steam pistons in the mid stroke position

464. When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing, the
packing is cut square, installed with the ends abutted, and each succeeding ring staggered with the
butted ends __________.

o (a) 45 apart
(b) 90 apart
o (c) 120 apart
o (d) 180 apart

465. Which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be used in a
steam reciprocating pump?

(a) High pressure graphite packing


o (b) Wire impregnated high temperature packing
o (c) Low pressure braided asbestos packing
o (d) Reinforced rubber packing

466. A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves __________.

o (a) slightly opened


o (b) halfway opened
o (c) throttled
(d) fully opened

467. Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex reciprocating pump will
cause the __________.

o (a) cushioning valves to wear


(b) pump to operate sluggishly
o (c) pump to short stroke continuously at both ends of the stroke for both cylinders
o (d) pistons to stop in mid-stroke

468. When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating pumps and deck
equipment should be __________.

o (a) watched carefully while idled


(b) cycled at least once a day
o (c) cycled once every 4 days
o (d) cycled once every week

469. An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often caused by __________.

o (a) scarred cylinder walls


(b) clogged suction strainers
o (c) clogged drain valves
o (d) defective intake valves

470. Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam reciprocating pump from
delivering its rated capacity?

o (a) Air trapped in the discharge expansion chamber


o (b) A leaking snifter valve allowing air to enter the suction side of the pump
(c) Excessive suction lift
o (d) All of the above
471. A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam reciprocating general
service
pump could be caused by __________.

o (a) lower than normal supply steam temperature


o (b) loss of air charge in the pump discharge plenum chamber
(c) improper adjustment of steam cushion valves
o (d) lower than normal supply steam pressure

472. When piston rod packing persists in leaking on a reciprocating steam pump, the
cause may be __________.

o (a) a loose tappet collar


o (b) an open snifter valve
o (c) clogged suction strainers
(d) misalignment of the crosshead guide

473. When securing a steam reciprocating pump, which of the valves listed should
remain open?

o (a) Water cylinder drain valve


(b) Steam cylinder drain valve
o (c) Steam exhaust valve
o (d) Steam supply valve

474. You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, and begin to
slowly close the discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the __________.

o (a) suction valve is closed off, and the discharge pressure begins to decrease
o (b) discharge valve is 80% closed and the relief valve lifts
o (c) suction valve is closed off, yet the relief valve does not lift
(d) discharge valve is closed off and there is no change in the discharge pressure

475. A centrifugal bilge pump requires priming __________.

o (a) primarily to lubricate the shaft seals


(b) due to the inability of this type of pump to lift water to cover the suction (eye) of
the impeller
o (c) in order to overcome the potential energy of water in the discharge line
o (d) to initially unload the pump by having its head pressure equal to discharge
pressure

476. The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as
designed, is to __________.

o (a) use a clamp on ammeter and compare the readings to past records
(b) close off the discharge valve, and watch for a rise in pressure
o (c) closely observe the pump discharge temperature
o (d) momentarily close off the suction valve, and watch for a rise in pressure
477. Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump would be
indicated by which of the following operational problems?

o (a) The motor over current protective device continually shuts the pump down.
o (b) The pump packing gland overheats after short operating periods.
(c) The pump delivers full capacity when started, but gradually slackens off to an
abnormally low
flow.
o (d) Pounding noises can be heard at the pump suction chest.

478. A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the __________.

o (a) seal ring is improperly located


o (b) water seal pipe is plugged
o (c) impeller is flooded
(d) pump is not primed

479. Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings in a centrifugal
pump, is caused by __________.

o (a) failure to seat the packing rings


o (b) packing ring rotation
o (c) under tightening the packing
(d) insufficient lubrication of the packing

480. If a centrifugal pump were continually operated with the discharge valve closed,
the __________.

o (a) motor controller overload would open


(b) pump would eventually overheat
o (c) relief valve would continuously cycle open
o (d) motor would overheat

481. Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused
by __________.

(a) cavitation
o (b) abrasion
o (c) corrosion
o (d) electrolysis

482. The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be adjusted by
__________.

(a) changing the setting of the tappet collars on the pilot valve operating rod
o (b) variations in the throttle adjustment
o (c) twisting the stay rod in a clockwise direction
o (d) increasing or decreasing the number of packing rings around the piston rod

483. Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of the pilot slide
valve?

o (a) Adjusting of the tappet collars


(b) Movement of the main piston through the steam cylinder
o (c) Moving tappets
o (d) Stay rods

484. Which of the listed devices is used to control the admission of steam to the steam
cylinder of a reciprocating pump?

o (a) Pump rod


o (b) Valve operating differential
o (c) Crosshead arm
(d) Pilot valve and operating rod

485. Which of the following is NOT an identifiable characteristic of a steam


reciprocating pump?

o (a) Vertical
o (b) Direct-acting
o (c) High-pressure
(d) Diffuser

486. Which of the following valve arrangements permits the reciprocating pump liquid
piston to take suction from the suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge
through the
discharge chamber during the up and down strokes?

o (a) Two sets of suction and discharge valves in the liquid cylinder.
o (b) One set of valves in the water chest and another set in the liquid cylinder.
o (c) Two relief valves, one on each of the liquid cylinder.
(d) Two sets of valves, one set each for suction and discharge located in the water
chest.

487. The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction chamber, and the
__________.

o (a) injector
(b) diffuser
o (c) compressor
o (d) siphon

488. A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other pumps, is the


__________.

o (a) discharge end being smaller than the suction end


o (b) ease at which the wearing rings may be changed
o (c) small size of impeller
(d) lack of moving parts
489. Which of the following methods applies to how a vacuum is created by a jet pump
or
an eductor?

o (a) A propeller drawing a fluid through a Venturi nozzle.


o (b) A reciprocating plunger directly applying force to a fluid.
(c) A rapidly moving stream of fluid passing through a nozzle.
o (d) Centrifugal force converted into potential energy.

491. The flame screens installed on sewage system tank vents prevent explosions by
__________.

o (a) allowing the escape of flammable vapors


(b) dissipating the heat of a flame
o (c) absorbing any flammable vapors in the vicinity
o (d) preventing flammable vapors from entering the tank

493. Which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of
sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?

o (a) Type I
o (b) Type II
(c) Type III
o (d) Type IV

494. A constant pressure range is maintained in the potable water system of many
vessels
by using __________.

o (a) constant speed supply pumps


o (b) variable speed supply pumps
(c) an air cushion in the hydro-pneumatic tank
o (d) a pressure regulator in the pressure tank discharge piping

496. A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the discharge of


sewage
by __________.

o (a) holding all sewage onboard


o (b) treating sewage in an approved system
o (c) pumping the sewage ashore to an approved container
(d) all of the above

497. Expansion tanks when used in a ship's low temperature hot water heating system
may be of the open or closed type. In a closed type system, what
would be the normal temperature range of the water?

o (a) 180F to 200F


(b) 220F to 240F
o (c) 260F to 280F
o (d) 320F to 360F
500. (What type of pump is invariably used as a circulator in a hydronic heating
system?

o (a) Diaphragm pump


o (b) Reciprocating pump
(c) Centrifugal pump
o (d) Rotary pump

502. What statement is true concerning a one-pipe hydronic heating system?

o (a) Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as the hot water inlet
temperature to each
heating coil progressively rises as the water passes through each successive
series-connected
coil.
o (b) Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as the hot water inlet
temperature to each
heating coil progressively rises as the water passes through each successive
series-connected
coil.
o (c) Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as the hot water inlet
temperature to each
heating coil progressively drops as the water passes through each successive
series-connected
coil.
(d) Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as the hot water inlet
temperature to each
heating coil progressively drops as the water passes through each successive
series-connected
coil.

503. What statement is true concerning a two-pipe hydronic heating system?

o (a) Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as each series-connected


heating coil has its
own separate supply teeing off a supply main.
(b) Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as each parallel-connected
heating coil has its
own separate supply teeing off a supply main.
o (c) Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as each series-connected
heating coil has its
own separate supply teeing off a supply main.
o (d) Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as each parallel-connected
heating coil has its
own separate supply teeing off a supply main.

504. It is absolutely essential that hydronic heating system hot water piping be kept
free of
air. Assuming that a system is initially properly filled with water, what is the primary
source of air
contamination?
o (a) The introduction of air with the convector steam supply.
(b) The introduction of air via the makeup water.
o (c) The introduction of air via the expansion tank vent.
o (d) The introduction of air via the atmospheric drains tank vent.

505. What advantage does a 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling heating system have over
a
2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system?

o (a) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system can serve twice as many zones as a
2-pipe hydronic
heating/cooling system.
o (b) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system requires double the
amount of piping as compared
to a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system serving the same
number of zones.
(c) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system allows simultaneous
heating and cooling of different
zones, whereas a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system does not.
o (d) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system requires one-half the
amount of piping as compared
to a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system serving the same
number of zones.

506. Water hammer in a steam heating system can be caused by __________.

o (a) filling the auxiliary boiler with cold water


(b) steam admitted to a cold pipe
o (c) filling the auxiliary boiler with hot water
o (d) draining a soot blower line before cracking the steam supply valve

507. Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good design practices for
shipboard steam heating systems?

(a) Provide a dirt pocket and strainer ahead of the steam trap on a unit heater
return.
o (b) Provide all units with a dirt trap and gate valve in the supply and a check valve
on the return.
o (c) Wherever possible install vertical runs for condensate piping.
o (d) Provide orifice-type bypasses for all traps and automatic valves.

508. What type of fan is most commonly used in ducted air-conditioning systems?

o (a) Propeller fan


(b) Centrifugal fan
o (c) Vane-axial fan
o (d) Tube-axial fan

509. What type of centrifugal fan is characterized by the highest operating efficiency?

o (a) Forward-curved blade fans


(b) Backward-curved blade fans
o (c) Flat blade fans
o (d) Radial blade fans

510. What pressure drop across an air-conditioning filter is indicative of a need to


replace
or clean the filter as appropriate?

o (a) 0.1 inches of water column


(b) 0.5 inches of water column
o (c) 1.0 inches of water column
o (d) 5.0 inches of water column

511. Concerning air-conditioning system steam heating coils, what statement is true?

o (a) Steam heating coils are usually the serpentine type and, if possible, vertically
installed.
o (b) Steam heating coils are usually the header type and, if possible, horizontally
installed.
o (c) Steam heating coils are usually the serpentine type and, if possible,
horizontally installed.
(d) Steam heating coils are usually the header type and, if possible, vertically
installed.

512. Concerning air-conditioning system hot-water heating coils, what statement is


true?

o (a) Steam heating coils are usually the header type and vertically installed.
o (b) Steam heating coils are usually the header type and horizontally installed.
(c) Steam heating coils are usually the serpentine type and horizontally installed.
o (d) Steam heating coils are usually the serpentine type and vertically installed.

513. What type of heating coil is generally preferred in heating spaces with electronic
equipment?

o (a) Hot-water heating coil


o (b) Steam heating coil
(c) Electric-resistance heating coil
o (d) Thermal-oil heating coil

514. What statement is true concerning steam-heated, hot-water heated, or electric-


heated convectors?

o (a) Convectors draw in relatively cool air through an opening at


the top and discharge relatively
warm air through an outlet grille at the bottom and are located on
bulkheads near the deck.
o (b) Convectors draw in relatively cool air through an opening at the
top and discharge relatively
warm air through an outlet grille at the bottom and are located on
bulkheads near the overhead.
(c) Convectors draw in relatively cool air through an opening at the
bottom and discharge
relatively warm air through an outlet grille at the top and are located
on bulkheads near the deck.
o (d) Convectors draw in relatively cool air through an opening at the
bottom and discharge
relatively warm air through an outlet grille at the top and are located
on bulkheads near the
overhead.
.

515. Concerning air-conditioning system dry-expansion cooling coils, what statement is


true?

(a) Dry expansion cooling coils are usually the finned-coil type and horizontally
installed.
o (b) Dry expansion cooling coils are usually the finned-coil type and vertically
installed.
o (c) Dry expansion cooling coils are usually the bare-coil type and horizontally
installed.
o (d) Dry expansion cooling coils are usually the bare-coil type and vertically
installed.

516. Concerning cargo-hold dehumidification, what statement is true?

(a) Cargo hold moisture content is reduced by supplying relatively dry air from the
outside and
exhausting relatively humid air to the outside.
o (b) Cargo hold moisture content is reduced by supplying relatively humid air from
the outside and
exhausting relatively dry air to the outside.
o (c) Cargo hold moisture content is increased by supplying relatively dry air from
the outside and
exhausting relatively humid air to the outside.
o (d) Cargo hold moisture content is increased by supplying relatively humid air from
the outside
and exhausting relatively dry air to the outside.

517. Which statement is true concerning a liquid desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification


system?

o (a) Water from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is
evaporated and driven out of the liquid
desiccant by means of a heating coil located in the humidification
chamber.
o (b) Water from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is
evaporated and driven out of the liquid
desiccant by means of a cooling coil located in the humidification
chamber.
(c) Water vapor from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is
condensed and absorbed into the
liquid desiccant by means of a cooling coil located in the
humidification chamber.
o (d) Water vapor from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is
condensed and absorbed into the
liquid desiccant by means of a heating coil located in the
humidification chamber.

518. What statement is true concerning a liquid desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification


system?

(a) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is evaporated and


driven out of the desiccant by
means of a heating coil located in the regeneration chamber.
o (b) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is condensed and
absorbed into the desiccant by
means of a cooling coil located in the regeneration chamber.
o (c) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is condensed and
absorbed in to the desiccant by
means of a heating coil located in the regeneration chamber.
o (d) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is evaporated and
driven out of the desiccant by
means of a cooling coil located in the regeneration chamber.

519. With regard to the cooling and heating coils and humidification and regeneration
chambers of a liquid cargo-hold dehumidification system, which statement is true?

(a) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the
cooling coil and is known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air
contains the heating coil and
is known as the regeneration chamber.
o (b) The chamber that processes the outside air contains the cooling coil and is
known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the cargo-
hold air contains the heating coil and is known as the regeneration
chamber.
o (c) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the
heating coil and is known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air
contains the cooling coil and
is known as the regeneration chamber.
o (d) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the cooling coil and is
known as
the regeneration chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains
the heating coil
and is known as the humidification chamber.

520. To prevent damage to dry cargoes, the cargo hold ventilation and dehumidification
systems play a key role. In terms of the maintained dew point, what statement is
true?

o (a) The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained 10oF
above the surface
temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
o (b) The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained at a
constant temperature
regardless of the surface temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
(c) The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained 10oF
below the surface
temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
o (d) The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained at the
surface
temperature of the cargo or ship structure.

521. To determine the average cargo hold dew point temperature, at what location
would
the dew point be measured?

o (a) The dew point is taken near the bottom of the cargo hold.
(b) The dew point is taken at the ventilation exhaust trunk.
o (c) The dew point is taken at the ventilation supply trunk.
o (d) The dew point is taken near a central location of the cargo hold.

522. What common feature is found on both liquid-desiccant and solid-desiccant cargo-
hold dehumidification systems?

o (a) Both systems require a continuous source of cooling water to absorb moisture
into the
desiccant.
o (b) Both systems require a continuous source of heat to absorb moisture into the
desiccant.
(c) Both systems require a continuous source of heat to drive the moisture out of
the desiccant.
o (d) Both systems require a continuous source of cooling water to drive the
moisture out of the
desiccant.

523. What type of HVAC system is ideally designed to serve a large public space?

(a) A single zone system


o (b) A terminal reheat system
o (c) A dual duct system
o (d) A variable air volume system

524. What type of HVAC system is characterized by poor air distribution and ventilation
and low system heat loads?

(a) A variable air volume system


o (b) A single zone system
o (c) A dual duct system
o (d) A terminal reheat system

528. What type of HVAC system is characterized by a having a split supply air stream,
with one for cold air and the other for hot air?

(a) A dual duct system


o (b) A single zone system
o (c) A terminal reheat system
o (d) A variable air volume system

529. What type of HVAC system is characterized by having control dampers in


locations
other than the outside air supply, outside air exhaust, and recirculation damper
applications?

o (a) A terminal reheat system


o (b) A single zone system
o (c) A dual duct system
(d) A variable air volume system

538. What temperature associated with the psychrometric properties of air is measured
by
an ordinary thermometer?

o (a) The saturation temperature


(b) The dry-bulb temperature
o (c) The dew-point temperature
o (d) The wet-bulb temperature

539. What temperature associated with the psychrometric properties of air is measured
with a sling psychrometer?

(a) The wet-bulb temperature


o (b) The dew-point temperature
o (c) The saturation temperature
o (d) The dry-air temperature

548. You are unable to pump out the aft starboard engine room bilge well that is fouled,
with one foot
of water over the top of the bilge well, what action should be carried out?

o (a) Simultaneously operate all available bilge pumps.


o (b) It is only necessary to transfer half the contents of a drum of degreaser into the
bilge well.
o (c) Send the wiper into the well with only a scoop and pail.
(d) Remove the bilge manifold valve and attempt to back flush the line.

549. Probably the most useful troubleshooting tools used in a predictive maintenance
management program for shipboard machinery are vibration meters,
analyzers, and monitors. What is the term that represents the
distance a mass travels in a given direction as a result of a part
vibrating during its periodic or oscillatory motion?

o (a) Vibration frequency


o (b) Vibration velocity
(c) Vibration displacement
o (d) Vibration acceleration

550. Probably the most useful troubleshooting tools used in a predictive maintenance
management program for shipboard machinery are vibration meters,
analyzers, and monitors. What is the term that represents the rate of
change of the velocity as a result of a part vibrating during its periodic
or oscillatory motion?

o (a) Vibration frequency


o (b) Vibration displacement
(c) Vibration acceleration
o (d) Vibration velocity

551. What is the standard unit of measure for vibration displacement?

o (a) Ten thousandths of an inch (.0001), peak to peak


(b) Thousandths of an inch (.001), peak to peak.
o (c) Hundredths of an inch (.01), peak to peak
o (d) Tenths of an inch (.1), peak to peak

552. When performing a vibration analysis for rotating machinery, what is essential?

o (a) A baseline vibration signature should be established as a


reference, but no historical record of
periodic analyses need be maintained. Vibration amplitudes at
various frequencies are compared.
(b) A baseline vibration signature should be established as a reference,
and a historical record of
periodic analyses should be maintained. Vibration
amplitudes at various frequencies are compared.
o (c) A historical record of periodic analyses should be maintained, but no baseline
vibration
signature need be established as a reference. Vibration amplitudes at various
frequencies are
compared.
o (d) A baseline vibration signature should be established as a
reference, and a historical record of
periodic analyses should be maintained. Vibration amplitudes are
compared with no need to
examine frequencies.

553. What is meant by a critical speed for rotating machinery?

o (a) The critical speed of a shaft is the speed at which it will shear due to excessive
torque placed
upon it by the prime mover in driving the load.
o (b) The critical speed of a shaft is the speed of rotation that is out
of harmonic synchronism with
the shaft's natural vibration frequency which produces excessive
vibration.
(c) The critical speed of a shaft is the speed of rotation that is in
harmonic synchronism with the
shaft's natural vibration frequency which produces excessive
vibration.
o (d) The critical speed of a shaft is the speed at which it will fly apart due to
excessive centrifugal
forces associated with excessive speed.

554. If a micrometer were opened to a distance of 0.0001 inch, you would say the
reading is __________.

o (a) one millionth of an inch


(b) one ten thousandth of an inch
o (c) ten one thousandths of an inch
o (d) ten millionths of an inch

556. One turn of the micrometer barrel will linearly move the spindle __________.

o (a) 0.110 inch


(b) 0.025 inch
o (c) 0.250 inch
o (d) 0.205 inch

557. To determine the diameter of a small hole, which of the listed tools must be used
with inside calipers to get an accurate reading?

o (a) Wire gage


o (b) A Center gage
(c) Micrometer
o (d) None of the above

558. Many micrometers are equipped with a ratchet stop at the end of the thimble to
__________.

(a) prevent the user from closing the tool with too much force
o (b) stop the spindle from sliding out of the barrel
o (c) eliminate ratchet movement
o (d) click at each increment of measure
.

559. For greater accuracy, some micrometers have a vernier scale making it possible
to
read in increments of __________.

o (a) twenty five thousands of an inch


o (b) one fortieth of an inch
o (c) five thousands of an inch
(d) ten thousands of an inch

560. A reading of 0.625 inch on a micrometer with a 2 to 3 inch range would be equal
to
__________.
o (a) 3 1/8 inches
(b) 2 5/8 inches
o (c) 2 7/16 inches
o (d) 3 9/16 inches

561. To check the thickness of a piece of thin shim stock before using it to make a
bearing
shim, you should use a __________.

(a) micrometer
o (b) feeler gage
o (c) depth gage
o (d) machinists rule

562. The proper tool used for cutting new external threads is called a thread
__________.

o (a) tap
o (b) chaser
o (c) broach
(d) die

563. If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the listed actions
would probably be the best first step to begin the process of its removal?

(a) Drill a hole in the center of the broken stud.


o (b) Heat the bolt with an oxyacetylene torch.
o (c) Tap the bolt with a starting punch extractor.
o (d) Use a tapered screw extractor only.

564. With respect to machine shop "taps and dies", a plug tap is correctly used for
__________.

o (a) chasing the threads on a circular rod


o (b) reversing the threads in a hole
o (c) starting the threads on a circular rod
(d) the second cut when threading a blind hole

565. The names plug, bottom, and taper refer to __________.

o (a) pipe fittings


(b) machinist's hand taps
o (c) drill press parts
o (d) measuring instruments

566. The best tool to use to measure the number of threads per inch on a bolt is a
__________.
o (a) pair of outside calipers
(b) screw pitch gauge
o (c) micrometer
o (d) tap

567. A metal scribe commonly found on a Combination Square measuring tool should
only
be used to __________.

o (a) remove packing


(b) mark on metal
o (c) clean file teeth
o (d) punch gasket holes

568. The center head of a combination square set is used to __________.

o (a) check the angle of thread cutting tools


o (b) check degrees of angle
(c) locate the center on round stock
o (d) find right angles

570. To set the dividers to the proper radius, you should use a __________.

o (a) micrometer
o (b) calipers
o (c) scribing circle
(d) steel rule

571. Which of the instruments listed is used to measure the gauge of a piece of sheet
metal?

o (a) Gauge calibrator


(b) Wire gauge
o (c) Inside micrometer
o (d) Circular mil

572. To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a __________.

o (a) folding rule


o (b) hook rule
(c) flexible steel rule
o (d) machinist's steel rule

573. A dial indicator is used to measure __________.

o (a) positive readings only


(b) shaft eccentricity
o (c) torque of a shaft
o (d) scribed layout lines on vertical surfaces
574. To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch machinist's steel rule, you
should
measure __________.

o (a) on the unmarked edge of the rule


o (b) on the narrow edge of the rule
o (c) from the zero end on the scale
(d) from the one inch graduation mark

575. Which of the figures in illustration GS-0080 would be used in conjunction with
figure
"B" of the device shown in illustration GS-0124? GS-0080

(a) figure F
o (b) figure C
o (c) figure B
o (d) figure G

576. Which of the figures illustrated is not suitable for use as a hex head set screw?
GS-
0080

o (a) figure C
o (b) figure G
o (c) figure L
(d) figure D

577. With regards to the American National Screw Thread nomenclature, 'pitch' is the
__________.

o (a) number of threads divided by the length of the threaded portion of the screw
o (b) angle of taper formed by the centerline of the screw and the crests of the
thread
o (c) angle formed by adjacent flanks of a thread
(d) distance between corresponding points on adjacent threads

578. The number of screw threads per inch for a Standard National Coarse 1/2 inch
bolt is
__________.

o (a) 18
(b) 13
o (c) 20
o (d) 16

579. The designation '1/4-20' describes __________.

o (a) steel plate thickness


o (b) pipe thread die size
o (c) cutting torch tips size
(d) machine bolt size and threads per inch

583. Which of the following is true when comparing the different "class of fit" for
machine
threads on bolts and nuts?

o (a) A class 1 fit always has fewer threads per inch.


o (b) A class 1 fit is tighter than a class 2 fit.
o (c) A class 4 fit always has more threads per inch.
(d) A class 2 fit is looser than a class 4 fit.

584. As it pertains to the automatic hydraulic brake of a horizontal electro-hydraulic


anchor
windlass, what statement is true?

o (a) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the
brake automatically sets when the
pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power
hydraulic pressure.
(b) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake
automatically sets when the
pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power
hydraulic pressure.
o (c) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake
automatically releases when
the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power
hydraulic pressure.
o (d) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake
automatically releases when
the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power
hydraulic pressure.
.

585. As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a horizontal electro-mechanical


anchor windlass, what statement is true?

o (a) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically
releases when
power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(b) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the
brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
o (c) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake
automatically releases when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
o (d) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the
brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.

586. A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping


heads,
two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint
lever-
operated pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it
pertains to the operation of the windlass clutch control levers?

(a) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage the wildcats only.
They have no
control over the warping heads.
o (b) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage the warping
heads only. They
have no control over the wildcats.
o (c) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage both the warping
heads and the
wildcats.
o (d) The clutch control levers are used to either engage and disengage the warping
heads or the
wildcats, depending upon the windlass design.

587. A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping


heads,
two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint
lever-
operated pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it
pertains to the operation of the pedestal-mounted controller?

o (a) The pedestal-mounted controller allows the wildcats to rotate in


either direction of rotation, but
the warping heads in only one direction of rotation at discrete
speeds from zero to maximum.
(b) The pedestal-mounted controller allows both the warping heads
and the wildcats to rotate in
either direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to maximum.
o (c) The pedestal-mounted controller allows both the warping
heads and the wildcats to rotate in
only one direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to
maximum.
o (d) The pedestal-mounted controller allows the warping heads to rotate in either
direction of
rotation, but the wildcats in only one direction of rotation at discrete speeds from
zero to
maximum.

588. A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping


heads,
two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a
multipoint lever-
operated, pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it
pertains to the operation of the manual brake hand wheels?

o (a) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with
both the wildcats
and the warping heads.
o (b) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with
the warping
heads only.
(c) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with
the wildcats only.
o (d) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with
either the
wildcats or the warping heads, depending upon the windlass design.

589. A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping


heads,
two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a
multipoint lever-
operated, pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it
pertains to the operation of the warping heads and wildcats?

o (a) The warping heads can be rotated in either direction of rotation


without rotating the wildcats by
disengaging the wildcat clutches. As long as electric power is
applied to the electric drive motor,
the wildcats will rotate.
o (b) The wildcats can be rotated in either direction of rotation without
rotating the warping heads by
disengaging the warping head clutches. As long as electric power
is applied to the electric drive
motor, the wildcats will rotate.
(c) The warping heads can be rotated in either direction of rotation
without rotating the wildcats by
disengaging the wildcat clutches. As long as electric power is applied
to the electric drive motor,
the warping heads will rotate.
o (d) The wildcats can be rotated in either direction of rotation without
rotating the warping heads by
disengaging the warping head clutches. As long as electric power is
applied to the electric drive
motor, the warping heads will rotate.

590. In attempting to start the hydraulic pump drive motor of a horizontal electro-hydraulic
anchor windlass, what condition would prevent the electric motor from starting?

(a) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the
hydraulic pump
stroke control being in other than the neutral position.
o (b) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the
wildcat clutches
being disengaged.
o (c) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with
hand wheel
operated wildcat band brakes being set.
o (d) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the
hydraulic pump
stroke control being in the neutral position.

591. As it pertains to raising and lowering an anchor with a horizontal electro-hydraulic


or
electro-mechanical anchor windlass, what statement is true?

o (a) The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with
the windlass by disengaging the
wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling
the anchor chain payout with
the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch engaged.
o (b) The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the
windlass by
disengaging the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by
controlling the
anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch
engaged.
o (c) The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power
with the windlass by engaging
the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by
controlling the anchor chain
payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch
disengaged.
(d) The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the
windlass by engaging the
wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling
the anchor chain payout with
the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch disengaged.

592. As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a capstan, what statement is true?

o (a) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically
releases when
power is removed from the electric drive motor.
o (b) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake
automatically releases when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(c) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the
brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
o (d) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the
brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.

593. Which capstan drive arrangement requires a flexible coupling between the
reduction
gear output shaft and the capstan head input shaft?

o (a) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer, and
capstan head
are all located on the weather deck.
o (b) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear
reducer are hung from the
underside of the weather deck, and only the capstan head is located
on the weather deck.
(c) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear
reducer are mounted on the
deck below the weather deck, and only the capstan head is located
on the weather deck.
o (d) A flexible coupling is required on all three drive arrangements listed
above.

594. Concerning a conventional mooring winch, what statement is true?

(a) A high capacity brake is required to hold a load approaching the breaking
strength of the
mooring line, but it is required to slip at a lower tension to avoid mooring line
breakage.
o (b) A high capacity brake is required to hold a load equal to the
breaking strength of the mooring
line. For reasons of safety, no slippage of the brake is permitted.
o (c) A high capacity brake is required to hold a load exceeding the breaking
strength of the
mooring line. For reasons of safety, no slippage of the brake is permitted.
o (d) A low capacity brake is required to hold a load far below the
breaking strength of the mooring
line, but it is required to slip at a lower tension to avoid mooring
line breakage.
.
595. As it pertains to a "constant-tension" mooring winch, what statement is true?

o (a) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically


render, but not recover, mooring line
using the prime mover when the mooring line tension varies above
a certain preset tension.
o (b) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically recover,
but not render, mooring line
using the prime mover when the mooring line tension varies below
a certain preset tension.
o (c) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically render,
but not recover, mooring line
using the brake when the mooring line tension varies above
certain preset tension.
(d) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically render
and recover mooring line
using the prime mover when the mooring line tension varies outside
of narrow preset adjustable
tension limits.

596. As it pertains to the automatic hoist winch brake of an electro-hydraulic cargo-


handling pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true?

o (a) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake
automatically releases when
the hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo
power hydraulic pressure.
(b) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake
automatically sets when the
hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power
hydraulic pressure.
o (c) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake
automatically sets when the
hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power
hydraulic pressure.
o (d) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake
automatically releases when
the hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo
power hydraulic pressure.

597. As it pertains to the luffing motion limits associated with an electro-hydraulic


cargo-
handling pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true?

o (a) When the hoist block is raised to a maximum permissible


height with respect to the boom, the
luffing pump shall be placed on stroke and the luffing winch brake
released.
o (b) When the hoist block is raised to a maximum permissible height
with respect to the boom, the
luffing pump shall be stroked to zero and the luffing winch brake
set.
(c) When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a
minimum
permissible height, the luffing pump shall be stroked to zero
and the luffing winch brake set.
o (d) When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height
or lowered to a minimum
permissible height, the luffing pump shall be placed on stroke
and the luffing winch brake
released.

598. As it pertains to the hoist motion limits associated with an electro-hydraulic cargo-
handling pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true?

o (a) When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a


minimum
permissible height, the hoist pump shall be placed on stroke and the
hoist winch brake released.
o (b) When the hoist cable is payed out to a nearly empty drum
condition or when the hoist block is
raised to a maximum permissible height relative to the boom, the
hoist pump shall be placed on
stroke and the hoist winch brake released.
(c) When the hoist cable is payed out to a nearly empty drum
condition or when the hoist block is
raised to a maximum permissible height relative to the boom, the
hoist pump shall be stroked to
zero and the hoist winch brake set.
o (d) When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible
height or lowered to a minimum
permissible height, the hoist pump shall be stroked to zero
and the hoist winch brake set.

599. For an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what event


would
result in an immediate stop to all crane motions, including slewing, hoisting, and
luffing?

o (a) All motions are stopped by the action of the boom maximum outreach and
minimum
outreach limit switches.
o (b) All motions are stopped by the action of the slewing platform limit switches.
(c) All motions are stopped by the loss of electric power to the crane.
o (d) All motions are stopped by the action of the safe working load cutout switch or
the slack wire
limit switch.

600. What statement is true concerning the door interlock devices associated with a
winding drum or traction drive passenger elevator onboard ship?

(a) Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation if the doors are still
open and only allow
elevator operation if the doors are proved closed.
o (b) Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation if the doors are still
closed and only
allow elevator operation if the doors are proved open.
o (c) Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation in a shipboard
emergency when
elevators are not to be used.
o (d) Door interlocks are used to over-ride elevator emergency status in a shipboard
emergency
when elevators are required to be used.

601. What statement is true concerning the platform interlock devices associated with a
winding drum or traction drive cargo elevator onboard ship?

o (a) Platform interlocks are used to over-ride elevator emergency status in a


shipboard emergency
when elevators are required to be used.
o (b) Platform interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation in a shipboard
emergency when
elevators are not to be used.
(c) Platform interlocks are used to prevent door operation if the
platform is at other than a deck
level and only allow door operation when the platform is proved at a
deck level.
o (d) Platform interlocks are used to prevent door operation if the
platform is proved at a deck level
and only allow door operation when the platform is at a position
other than a deck level.

602. Which of the following filled thermal systems used as a temperature


transmitting/receiving system usually is associated with a display with a non-uniform
scale?

o (a) Mercury-filled systems


o (b) Liquid-filled systems
(c) Vapor-pressure systems
o (d) Gas-filled systems

603. If it is desired to determine the average temperature across a large duct, what
thermocouple wiring technique can be used to generate an
emf proportional to the average temperature?

(a) Multiple thermocouples can be used if they are wired in


parallel, where the sum of the
individual voltages is divided by the number of
thermocouples.
o (b) Multiple thermocouples can be used if they are wired series-
opposing, where the sum of the
individual voltages is divided by the number of thermocouples.
o (c) Multiple thermocouples can be used if they are wired
series-aiding, where the sum of the
individual voltages is divided by the number of thermocouples.
o (d) Only one thermocouple can be used, and the hot junction must be strategically
located to get
an effective average temperature.

604. Which of the listed temperature sensors consists of finely coiled wire, such as
platinum, where the resistance varies directly with temperature?

o (a) Thermistor
o (b) Bimetallic device
(c) Resistance temperature detector
o (d) Thermocouple

605. What is the application for a temperature measuring device known as a


pyrometer?

o (a) Moderate to high temperature applications such as engine cooling and


lubrication.
o (b) Extremely low temperature applications such as cryogenics.
o (c) Low to moderate temperature applications such as refrigeration and air
conditioning.
(d) Extremely high temperature applications such as boiler or engine exhaust
temperatures.

607. Which of the following direct pressure measuring instruments is most


appropriately
used for measuring pressures very close to atmospheric pressure such as boiler
furnace draft
pressure?

(a) Diaphragm type pressure gauge


o (b) Bellows type pressure gauge
o (c) Spiral or helical type pressure gauge
o (d) Bourdon tube pressure gauge

611. Which of the following pressure sensing mechanisms in a linear-scaled pneumatic


indicator is generally used to sense pneumatic pressure as received from a
pneumatic pressure
transmitter?

o (a) Diaphragm
o (b) Bourdon tube
(c) Bellows
o (d) Spiral or helical coil

612. In which of the following applications would a mechanical pressure seal be used
with
a pressure measuring instrument?

o (a) Isolation of high-temperature products from the measuring element.


o (b) Isolation of high-pressure products from the measuring element.
o (c) Isolation of non-viscous products from the measuring element.
(d) Isolation of corrosive products from the measuring element.

613. Which of the following direct pressure measuring instruments is most


appropriately
used for measuring extremely high pressures up to 80,000 psig?

o (a) Bellows type pressure gauge


o (b) Diaphragm type pressure gauge
(c) Helical type pressure gauge
o (d) Bourdon tube pressure gauge

614. Which of the following direct pressure measuring instruments is most


appropriately
used for measuring most pressures, typically above 10 psig and is by far the most
common type?

o (a) Diaphragm type pressure gauge


(b) Bourdon tube pressure gauge
o (c) Spiral or helical type pressure gauge
o (d) Bellows type pressure gauge

615. What is used to protect a direct sensing steam pressure gauge from damage from
contact with steam?

o (a) The installation of a damping needle valve in the entrance to the gauge.
o (b) The installation of a siphon tube (pig-tail) oriented horizontally in the entrance
to the gauge.
o (c) The installation of thermal insulation on the gauge.
(d) The installation of a siphon tube (pig-tail) oriented vertically in the entrance to
the gauge.

616. What statement is true concerning the operating principle of a liquid level sensing
and transmitting system of the capacitance type?

(a) The capacitance method is generally used with non-conductive liquids and
works on the
principle of the substantial difference between the dielectric constant of air and
that of the liquid in
the tank.
o (b) The capacitance method is generally used with conductive
liquids and works on the principle
of the substantial difference between the dielectric constant of air
and that of the liquid in the tank.
o (c) The capacitance method is generally used with conductive liquids
and works on the principle
of the substantial difference between the specific gravity of air
and that of the liquid in the tank.
o (d) The capacitance method is generally used with non-
conductive liquids and works on the
principle of the substantial difference between the specific
gravity of air and that of the liquid in
the tank.

618. What type of liquid level indicator which senses head or pressure requires a
supply of
compressed air?

o (a) Differential pressure transmitter


o (b) Float type
o (c) Diaphragm box
(d) Bubble tube system

619. Which of the following level indicating system sensor types is ideally suited for
discrete-level detection as opposed to continuous-level detection?

o (a) Capacitance probes


o (b) Float operated potentiometer
(c) Float actuated limit switches
o (d) Differential pressure transmitter

620. What type of flow measuring device would measure totalized flow volume as
opposed to an instantaneous flow rate?

o (a) Variable area type, such as a rotameter


o (b) Constriction type, differential head such as a venturi tube
(c) Positive displacement meter, such as nutating disk
o (d) Velocity flowmeter such as a turbine type

621. With a constriction type, differential head flow meter, which of the following would
be
an example of a primary device?

o (a) Pneumatic or electronic transmitter


o (b) Diaphragm or bellows meter
o (c) Mercury manometer
(d) Orifice plate or venturi tube
622. Which of the following flow meter primary devices works on the constriction type,
differential head principle?

o (a) Turbine
o (b) Vortex
(c) Venturi tube
o (d) Magnetic
.

623. What is the operating principle of a variable area flow meter, such as a rotameter?

o (a) The float or rotor is less dense than the fluid being
measured and is positioned so that the
gravitational force down is balanced by the upward motion of
the fluid flow.
o (b) The float or rotor is less dense than the fluid being measured
and is positioned so that the
gravitational force up is balanced by the downward motion of
the fluid flow.
o (c) The float or rotor is more dense than the fluid being measured
and is positioned so that the
gravitational force up is balanced by the downward motion of
the fluid flow.
(d) The float or rotor is more dense than the fluid being measured and is
positioned so that the
gravitational force down is balanced by the upward motion of the fluid flow.

626. What statement is true concerning the arrangement and operation of the viscosity
transmitter as used for indicating the viscosity of heavy fuel oil?

(a) The viscosity transmitter is a differential pressure transmitter


receiving both capillary tube inlet
and outlet pressures from the viscosity sensor and delivering a
single viscosity signal to the
viscosity indicator.
o (b) The viscosity transmitter is a differential temperature transmitter
receiving both capillary tube
inlet and outlet temperatures from the viscosity sensor and
delivering a single viscosity signal to
the viscosity indicator.
o (c) The viscosity transmitter is a single temperature transmitter
receiving capillary tube inlet
temperature from the viscosity sensor and delivering a single
viscosity signal to the viscosity
indicator.
o (d) The viscosity transmitter is a single pressure transmitter
receiving capillary tube inlet pressure
from the viscosity sensor and delivering a single viscosity signal to
the viscosity indicator.

627. What statement is true concerning the operation of a distilling plant or boiler feed
water salinometer?
o (a) The greater the salt content of water, the greater the conductivity of the water,
and
temperature correction is unnecessary because conductivity does not change with
changes in
temperature.
o (b) The greater the salt content of water, the lower the conductivity
of the water, and temperature
correction is necessary because conductivity decreases with a rise
in temperature.
o (c) The greater the salt content of water, the lower the conductivity
of the water, and temperature
correction is necessary because conductivity increases with a rise
in temperature.
(d) The greater the salt content of water, the greater the conductivity
of the water, and
temperature correction is necessary because conductivity increases
with a rise in temperature.

628. If an oil-in-water content monitor uses a lamp emitting light in the visible spectra in
conjunction with a reference photo-cell and a sampling photocell,
what is the operating principle upon which this oil-in-water content
monitor works?

o (a) The monitor works on the fluorescence principle where the


greater the oil content, the less the
amount of ultra-violet light detected by the sampling photo-electric
cell as compared to the
reference photo-electric cell.
(b) The monitor works on the absorption/scattering principle where
the greater the oil content, the
less the amount of visible light detected by the sampling photo-
electric cell as compared to the
reference photo-electric cell.
o (c) The monitor works on the fluorescence principle where the
greater the oil content, the greater
the amount of ultra-violet light detected by the sampling photo-
electric cell as compared to the
reference photo-electric cell.
o (d) The monitor works on the absorption/scattering principle where
the greater the oil content, the
greater the amount of visible light detected by the sampling photo-
electric cell as compared to the
reference photo-electric cell.

631. On a ship with a periodically unmanned engine room, the duty engineer is
responsible
for making machinery space rounds when the engine room is
unattended. How often should these machinery space rounds be
performed by the duty engineer?

o (a) Every two hours


(b) Every four hours
o (c) Every twelve hours
o (d) Every hour

632. On a ship with a periodically unmanned engine room, the duty engineer is
responsible
for making machinery space rounds when the engine room is
unattended. Between machinery space rounds, what is the
responsibility of the duty engineer?

o (a) The duty engineer is only required to make periodic machinery space rounds.
Acknowledgement and response to any machinery space
alarms are the responsibility of the junior engineering
officer onboard.
(b) The duty engineer is on call and should be prepared to acknowledge and
respond to any
machinery space alarms by remaining in range of the remote alarm
stations in his or her cabin or the various public spaces.
o (c) The duty engineer is only required to make periodic machinery space rounds.
Acknowledgement and response to any machinery space
alarms are the responsibility of the Chief Engineer.
o (d) The duty engineer is only required to make periodic machinery space rounds.
Acknowledgement and response to any machinery space alarms are the
responsibility of the First
Assistant Engineer.

633. On a ship with a periodically unmanned engine room, under what conditions must
the
propulsion console be continuously manned?

(a) Under standby conditions or while maneuvering


o (b) Under standby conditions only
o (c) While maneuvering only
o (d) During the day work period

634. Preferably when should the bridge be informed when engine room situations may
affect the speed, maneuverability, power supply, or other essentials for the safe
operation of the
ship?

o (a) The bridge should be informed after any changes are made, as soon as
practical.
o (b) The bridge need not be informed of any changes being made, as it will soon
be obvious.
(c) The bridge should be informed before any changes are made, if at all possible.
o (d) The bridge should be informed simultaneously as any changes are made, if at
all possible.

635. On deep-draft ships, what statement is true concerning high and low sea suctions
for
machinery space sea water cooling systems?

(a) A high sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is
used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water, and a low sea suction is located near
the bottom of the ship and is
used primarily while underway.
o (b) A low sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is
used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water, and a high sea suction is located near
the bottom of the ship and is
used primarily while underway.
o (c) A high sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is
used primarily while underway,
and a low sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is
used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water.
o (d) A low sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used
primarily while underway,
and a high sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is
used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water.

636. What operating condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a high sea
suction to a low sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system?

(a) Underway operations or encountering rough seas.


o (b) Increasing the number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
o (c) Reducing the total number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
o (d) Entering port or shallow water.

637. What operating condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a low sea
suction to a high sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system?

o (a) Reducing the total number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
o (b) Increasing the number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
o (c) Underway operations or encountering rough seas.
(d) Entering port or shallow water.

638. What provision is made for sea chests for removal of solid debris restricting the
entry
grating into the sea chest of a machinery space sea water cooling system?

o (a) The debris is continuously removed by blowing the sea chest


clear with either compressed air
or steam by cracking open the blow valve, as appropriate.
(b) The debris may be removed by blowing the sea chest clear with either
compressed air or
steam, as appropriate.
o (c) The debris may be removed by draining the sea chest clear by opening a drain
valve located
at the bottom of the sea chest.
o (d) The debris is continuously removed by draining the sea chest clear by cracking
open a drain
valve located at the bottom of the sea chest.

639. What provision is made for sea chests for removal of air ingested into the sea
chest
of a machinery space sea water cooling system?

o (a) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve


located in the vent line originating
from the top of the sea chest and terminating in the bilges.
(b) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve
located in the vent line originating
from the top of the sea chest and terminating above the deep-
draft load line.
o (c) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve
located in the drain line originating
from the bottom of the sea chest and terminating in the bilges.
o (d) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve
located in the drain line originating
from the bottom of the sea chest and terminating above the
deep-draft load line.

640. What provision is made for sea chests for removal of ice from within the sea chest
of
a machinery space sea water cooling system during operation in icy waters?

o (a) The ice may be removed by using the chemical de-icing anti-freeze
connection, if provided.
o (b) The ice may be removed by using the fire main flushing connection, if
provided.
(c) The ice may be removed by using the steaming out sea chest blow connection,
if provided.
o (d) The ice may be removed by using the compressed air sea chest blow
connection, if provided.

650. For a typical diesel engine jacket water cooling system, what location would be
generally used to introduce water treatment chemicals?

(a) Jacket water expansion tank.


o (b) Jacket water outlet header
o (c) Jacket water inlet header.
o (d) Jacket water pump vent.

656. What type of bottom construction is used on most commercial deep-draft vessels
with the exception of tankers?

o (a) Triple bottom construction


o (b) Single bottom construction
o (c) Double hull construction
(d) Double bottom construction

657. What is the name of an internal passage of watertight construction fitted along the
centerline between the double-bottoms of some ships, usually from the forepeak to
the forward
machinery space bulkhead, used to carry pipe work along the length
of the ship to the various holds or tanks?

(a) Duct keel


o (b) Vertical keel
o (c) Bar keel
o (d) Pipe keel

658. What statement is true concerning the keel arrangements of a double-bottomed


ship?

o (a) A ship with an "duct keel" has a single continuous


transverse girder positioned along the
centerline and perpendicular to the flat plate keel, and a ship
with a "I-section keel" has two
continuous transverse girders spaced apart and positioned on
either side of the centerline and
perpendicular to the flat plate keel.
o (b) A ship with an "I-section keel" has a single continuous
transverse girder positioned along the
centerline and perpendicular to the flat plate keel, and a ship with
a "duct keel" has two
continuous transverse girders spaced apart and positioned on
either side of the centerline and
perpendicular to the flat plate keel.
o (c) A ship with an "duct keel" has a single continuous longitudinal
girder positioned along the
centerline and perpendicular to the flat plate keel, and a ship
with a "I-section keel" has two
continuous longitudinal girders spaced apart and positioned on
either side of the centerline and
perpendicular to the flat plate keel.
(d) A ship with an "I-section keel" has a single continuous
longitudinal girder positioned along the
centerline and perpendicular to the flat plate keel, and a ship with a
"duct keel" has two
continuous longitudinal girders spaced apart and positioned on
either side of the centerline and
perpendicular to the flat plate keel.

659. For a transverse-framed ship of double-bottom construction, what structural


members supports the inner bottom shell (or tank-tops)?

o (a) Longitudinally arranged continuous vertical floors.


o (b) Transversely arranged continuous vertical girders.
o (c) Longitudinally arranged continuous vertical girders.
(d) Transversely arranged continuous vertical floors.

660. What is usually contained within the double-bottom tanks associated with the
machinery spaces?

o (a) Machinery space double-bottom tanks generally contain liquid cargo.


o (b) Machinery space double-bottom tanks generally are kept dry and function as
void spaces.
(c) Machinery space double-bottom tanks generally contain fuel oil, lubricating oil,
or fresh water.
o (d) Machinery space double-bottom tanks generally contain seawater ballast.
661. How is access to the double-bottom tanks usually provided for inspection,
cleaning,
maintenance, and repairs of tank interiors?

o (a) Gasketed and bolted manholes associated with vertical tank boundaries
(b) Gasketed and bolted manholes associated with the inner plating (tank tops).
o (c) Hinged hatches associated with the inner plating (tank tops).
o (d) Gasketed and bolted manholes associated with the outer plating.

662. While in dry-dock, what means are provided for completely draining the double
bottom tanks in preparation for inspection?

o (a) Sounding tubes.


o (b) Gasketed and bolted manholes.
o (c) Stripping eductor connections.
(d) Docking plugs.

663. As it applies to a transverse-framed ship with double-bottom construction, what


does
the term "floor" represent?

o (a) Floors are vertical longitudinal members supporting the inner-bottoms.


o (b) Floors are the actual inner-bottom tank tops.
o (c) Floors are the actual outer-bottom shell plating.
(d) Floors are vertical transverse members supporting the inner-bottoms.

664. What is the name of the opening in a bilge margin bracket that reduces the weight
of
the bracket without materially reducing its strength?

(a) Lightening holes


o (b) Manholes
o (c) Air holes
o (d) Drain holes

665. What statement concerning the orientation and welds of adjoining shell plates is
true?

(a) The shell plates (or strakes) run horizontally in a fore and
aft direction and any horizontal
welds are called "seams" and any vertical welds are called
"butts".
o (b) The shell plates (or strakes) run vertically in a gunwales to
keel direction and any horizontal
welds are called "butts" and any vertical welds are called "seams".
o (c) The shell plates (or strakes) run horizontally in a fore and
aft direction and any horizontal
welds are called "butts" and any vertical welds are called
"seams".
o (d) The shell plates (or strakes) run vertically in a gunwales to keel direction and any
horizontal
welds are called "seams" and any vertical welds are called "butts".

666. Even though bilge keels do provide some improvement in longitudinal strength at
the
bilge radius, what is the primary purpose of the bilge keels?

o (a) Dampen the tendency the ship has to heave.


o (b) Dampen the tendency the ship has to yaw.
(c) Dampen the tendency the ship has to roll.
o (d) Dampen the tendency the ship has to pitch.

667. In terms of ship construction framing methods, which statement is true concerning
the transverse framing system?

o (a) With transverse framing, transverse frames are horizontal and intercostal
between vertical
girders which are continuous.
o (b) With transverse framing, transverse frames are horizontal and continuous and
vertical
stiffeners are intercostal between frames.
o (c) With transverse framing, transverse frames are vertical and intercostal
between longitudinal
girders which are horizontal and continuous.
(d) With transverse framing, transverse frames are vertical and continuous and
longitudinal
stiffeners are horizontal and intercostal between frames.

668. In terms of ship construction framing methods, what statement is true concerning
the longitudinal framing system?

(a) With longitudinal framing, longitudinal frames are horizontal and continuous
and vertical
stiffeners are intercostal between frames.
o (b) With longitudinal framing, longitudinal frames are horizontal and intercostal
between vertical
girders which are continuous.
o (c) With longitudinal framing, longitudinal frames are vertical and continuous and
horizontal
stiffeners are intercostal between frames.
o (d) With longitudinal framing, longitudinal frames are vertical and intercostal
between horizontal girders which are continuous.

669. What statement is true concerning the plating meeting at the gunwales of a ship?

o (a) The strakes of deck plating nearest to the sides are termed
"sheerstrakes" and the side
plating nearest to the deck are termed "stringer plates". The
sheerstrakes and stringer plates
meet at the gunwales.
(b) The strakes of side plating nearest to the deck are termed
"sheerstrakes" and the deck plating
nearest to the side are termed "stringer plates". The sheerstrakes
and stringer plates meet at the
gunwales.
o (c) The strakes of side plating nearest to the deck and the deck
plating nearest to the side are
both termed "sheerstrakes". These sheerstrakes meet at the
gunwales.
o (d) The strakes of side plating nearest to the deck and the deck
plating nearest to the side are
both termed "stringer plates". These stringer plates meet at the
gunwales.

670. With a ship built with a transverse framing system, by what means are double-
bottom
floors and the transverse frames joined?

(a) By way of bilge margin brackets.


o (b) By way of bilge margin girders.
o (c) By way of bilge margin gussets.
o (d) By way of bilge margin stiffeners.

671. For a typical transverse-framed deep-draft commercial vessel, what is the normal
arrangement for the support of decks?

o (a) Deck beams are transversely arranged and deck girders are
longitudinally arranged and the
deck beams are continuous with the exception of hatches and
other openings. The deck girders
are intercostal.
(b) Deck beams are transversely arranged and deck girders are
longitudinally arranged and both
are continuous with the exception of hatches and other openings.
o (c) Deck beams are transversely arranged and deck girders are
longitudinally arranged and the
deck girders are continuous with the exception of hatches and
other openings. The deck beams
are intercostal.
o (d) Deck beams are longitudinally arranged and deck girders are
transversely arranged and both
are continuous with the exception of hatches and other openings.

672. What is another name for the "collision" bulkhead?

(a) Fore peak bulkhead


o (b) Forward engine room bulkhead
o (c) After engine room bulkhead
o (d) After peak bulkhead

673. What term is used to represent the bulkhead type used for tank boundary
bulkheads?
o (a) Watertight bulkheads
(b) Oil tight bulkheads
o (c) Airtight bulkheads
o (d) Non-watertight bulkheads

674. Which of the following listed bulkhead types has the most rigorous standard for
testing purposes?

o (a) Watertight bulkheads


(b) Oil tight bulkheads
o (c) Non-watertight bulkheads
o (d) Wash bulkheads

675. What statement is true concerning the construction of watertight bulkheads?

(a) The strakes of the bulkhead are horizontal and the stiffeners
are vertical and the bulkhead
must have increasingly greater strength towards the base.
o (b) The strakes of the bulkhead are horizontal and the stiffeners
are vertical and the bulkhead
must have increasingly greater strength towards the top.
o (c) The strakes of the bulkhead are vertical and the stiffeners
are horizontal and the bulkhead
must have increasingly greater strength towards the top.
o (d) The strakes of the bulkhead are vertical and the stiffeners
are horizontal and the bulkhead
must have increasingly greater strength towards the base.

676. What is the name of the structural member that is designed to transfer load from
one
deck to another?

o (a) Girders
o (b) Stiffeners
(c) Pillars
o (d) Beams

677. What statement is true concerning watertight doors fitted below the waterline of a
vessel?

o (a) Watertight doors below the waterline may be of the vertical or horizontal sliding
type or the
swinging hinged type.
(b) Watertight doors below the waterline may be either of the vertical or horizontal
sliding type.
o (c) Watertight doors below the waterline may be either of the vertical sliding type
or the swinging
hinged type.
o (d) Watertight doors below the waterline may be either of the horizontal sliding
type or the
swinging hinged type.
678. What means of emergency escape from a shaft tunnel are provided?

(a) Two means of escape are provided, one which is a sliding watertight door at
the forward end
of the tunnel and the other a ladder and watertight trunk at the aft end of the
tunnel.
o (b) Only one means of escape is provided which is a sliding watertight door at the
aft end of the
tunnel.
o (c) Only one means of escape is provided which is a sliding watertight door at the
forward end of
the tunnel.
o (d) Two means of escape are provided, one which is a sliding
watertight door at the aft end of the
tunnel and the other a ladder and watertight trunk at the forward
end of the tunnel.

679. What statement is true concerning the forward and after bulkheads of a shaft
tunnel?

o (a) The shaft tunnel aft bulkhead is the aft peak bulkhead which is
watertight, and the shaft tunnel
forward bulkhead is the machinery space aft bulkhead which is
non-watertight.
o (b) The shaft tunnel aft bulkhead is the aft peak bulkhead, the shaft
tunnel forward bulkhead is
the machinery space aft bulkhead, and both bulkheads are non-
watertight.
o (c) The shaft tunnel aft bulkhead is the aft peak bulkhead which is
non-watertight, and the shaft
tunnel forward bulkhead is the machinery space aft bulkhead
which is watertight.
(d) The shaft tunnel aft bulkhead is the aft peak bulkhead, the shaft tunnel forward
bulkhead is
the machinery space aft bulkhead, and both bulkheads are watertight.

680. What is the arrangement of a shaft tunnel as fitted on a single-screw vessel?

o (a) The shaft tunnel is situated on the centerline of the vessel with
walkways positioned on either
side of the shaft and any piping runs carried underneath the two
walkways.
o (b) The shaft tunnel is offset from centerline of the vessel with a
walkway positioned on one side
of the shaft any piping runs carried overhead above the shaft.
(c) The shaft tunnel is offset from centerline of the vessel with a
walkway positioned on one side
of the shaft any piping runs carried underneath the walkway.
o (d) The shaft tunnel is situated on the centerline of the vessel with
walkways positioned on either
side of the shaft and any piping runs carried overhead above the
shaft.
681. What is the general arrangement for bilge wells in the machinery spaces?

o (a) Generally a single bilge well is provided on the centerline forward since a
vessel is typically
trimmed by the bow.
o (b) Generally a single bilge well is provided on the centerline aft since a vessel is
typically
trimmed by the stern.
(c) Generally a bilge wells are provided in the port and starboard
aft corners since a vessel is
typically trimmed by the stern and to facilitate pump when the ship
has a list.
o (d) Generally a bilge wells are provided in the port and starboard
forward corners since a vessel
is typically trimmed by the bow and to facilitate pump when the
ship has a list.

682. What provisions are generally made to reduce the noise and vibration emanating
from the propulsion machinery installation, especially on passenger ships?

o (a) The propulsion machinery is resiliently mounted to machinery


beds integral to the double-
bottom structure, and power is transmitted without use of flexible
couplings.
o (b) The propulsion machinery is rigidly bolted to machinery beds
integral to the double-bottom
structure, and power is transmitted with use of flexible couplings.
o (c) The propulsion machinery is rigidly bolted to machinery beds
integral to the double-bottom
structure, and power is transmitted without use of flexible
couplings.
(d) The propulsion machinery is resiliently mounted to
machinery beds integral to the double-
bottom structure, and power is transmitted with use of flexible
couplings.

683. What is the name associated with the dividing bulkheads separating the
accommodation spaces from the engine room of a ship?

(a) Engine casing


o (b) Accommodation casing
o (c) Engine flat
o (d) Engine trunk

684. What is the name associated with the surround and support for the various
uptakes
to ensure the dispersion of exhaust gases to the atmosphere and away from the
ship?

o (a) Uptakes
o (b) Flue
(c) Funnel
o (d) Stack
685. What is the name associated with a minor section of interior deck within a
machinery
space serving as a seat or bed for a particular piece or set of machinery?

(a) Flat or platform


o (b) Floor
o (c) Tween deck
o (d) Bulwark

686. When making welding repairs to a ship's structural member, why is it important to
avoid weld faults?

o (a) The poor quality weld can lead to points of stress relief, which in addition to a
weak joint, may
form the starting points for cracks.
o (b) The poor quality weld can lead to points of stress concentration, which in
addition to a weak
joint, may cause plate distortion.
(c) The poor quality weld can lead to points of stress concentration, which in
addition to a weak
joint, may form the starting points for cracks.
o (d) The poor quality weld can lead to points of stress relief, which in addition to a
weak joint, may
cause plate distortion.

687. When accomplishing welding repairs with an electric arc welding process, what is
generally the cause of slag inclusion when welding a single-V butt joint?

o (a) The weld was performed with too high a current setting.
o (b) The weld was performed with an improper rod angle.
(c) The weld was performed with inadequate cleaning between passes.
o (d) The weld was performed with too low a current setting.

688. When accomplishing welding repairs using the electric arc welding process, what
statement is true concerning the characteristics of a good quality weld when welding
a single-V butt
joint?

o (a) There should be no overlap, but there should be undercut at the toe of the
weld.
o (b) There should be both overlap and undercut at the toe of the weld.
(c) There should be no overlap and no undercut at the toe of the weld.
o (d) There should be overlap, but there should be no undercut at the toe of the
weld.

689. When accomplishing welding repairs using the electric arc welding process, what
statement is true concerning the characteristics of a good quality weld when welding
a single-V butt
joint?

o (a) There should be no reinforcement or build-up of material on the top surface,


but there should
be root penetration along the bottom surface.
o (b) There should be a slight reinforcement or build-up of
material on the top surface, but there
should be no root penetration along the bottom surface.
o (c) There should be a no reinforcement or build-up of
material on the top surface, and there
should be no root penetration along the bottom surface.
(d) There should be a slight reinforcement or build-up of material
on the top surface, and there
should be root penetration along the bottom surface.

690. When accomplishing welding repairs using the electric arc welding process, what
statement is true concerning the characteristics of a good quality weld when welding
a single-V butt
joint?

o (a) There should be no penetration at the sides of the weld, and there should be
no penetration
between passes.
o (b) There should be no penetration at the sides of the weld, but there should be
penetration
between passes.
(c) There should be penetration at the sides of the weld, and there should be
penetration between
passes.
o (d) There should be penetration at the sides of the weld, but there should be no
penetration
between passes.

691. Before welding repairs are performed to repair a crack, what is the correct
procedure
for performing an emergency crack stopper?

o (a) A 3/8-inch hole should be drilled at one end of the crack only, making sure that
none of the
crack extends beyond the hole.
(b) A 3/8-inch hole should be drilled at each end of the crack, making sure that
none of the crack
extends beyond the two holes.
o (c) A 3/8-inch hole should be drilled at one end of the crack only, making sure that
approximately
1/2-inch of the crack extends beyond the hole.
o (d) A 3/8-inch hole should be drilled at each end of the crack, making sure that
1/2-inch of the
crack extends beyond the two holes.

692. Before welding repairs are performed to repair a crack, after drilling a 3/8-inch
hole at
each end of the crack, what is the correct procedure for welding overlays as an
emergency crack
stopper?

(a) A welded overlay of trapezoidal shape shall be deposited perpendicularly at


each end of the
crack no closer than 1/2-inch from each drilled hole.
o (b) A welded overlay of trapezoidal shape shall be deposited perpendicularly at
one end of the
crack only, no closer than 1/2-inch from the drilled hole.
o (c) A welded overlay of trapezoidal shape shall be deposited perpendicularly at
each end of the
crack right up against each drilled hole.
o (d) A welded overlay of trapezoidal shape shall be deposited perpendicularly at
one end of the
crack only, right up against the drilled hole.

693. In order to minimize distortion while performing the electric arc welding process
while
joining two plates with a butt weld, besides using restraint procedures, what
statement is true?

o (a) The greater the number of welding passes the less the
distortion, and welding on only one
side of a joint with a single-V will minimize distortion.
o (b) The greater the number the welding passes the less the
distortion, and symmetrical welding
on either side of a joint with a double-V will minimize distortion.
(c) The fewer the number of welding passes the less the
distortion, and symmetrical welding on
either side of a joint with a double-V will minimize distortion.
o (d) The fewer the number of welding passes the less the distortion, and welding
on only one side
of a joint with a single-V will minimize distortion.

694. For long welding runs, either the "back-step" or the "skip" welding technique is
often
used. For what purpose are these techniques utilized?

o (a) These techniques are used to minimize internal stresses.


(b) These techniques are used to help minimize distortion.
o (c) These techniques are used to increase weld strength.
o (d) These techniques are used to maximize distortion.

695. If a welding fabrication becomes unacceptably distorted, what means of distortion


correction should be avoided?

o (a) Complete splitting of the joint followed by rewelding.


o (b) Gouging or grooving of the joint followed by rewelding.
(c) Employing mechanical straightening techniques.
o (d) Strategic application of spot heating with an acetylene torch.

696. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and federal


regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, for vessels of 400 gross tons and above
which are all
required to carry an oily-water separator to process bilge slops, what is the design
criteria in terms of
maximum oil content of the overboard discharge?

o (a) 3 parts per million


(b) 15 parts per million
o (c) 100 parts per million
o (d) 150 parts per million

697. In accordance with federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, for U.S non-
oceangoing ships, what is the required means for preventing pollution
by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?

(a) The non-oceangoing ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either
in the bilges or
in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a
reception
facility.
o (b) The non-oceangoing ship is required to be equipped with an
approved 15 parts per million
oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have a high oil-
content bilge alarm or a means to
automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content
exceeds 15 ppm.
o (c) The non-oceangoing ship is required to retain onboard all oily
mixtures in a slops tank, and it
is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a
reception facility.
o (d) The non-oceangoing ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts
per million
oily-water separator, AND it is required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm and
a means to
automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.

698. In accordance with federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, for


oceangoing
ships of less than 400 gross tons, what is the required means for
preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?

o (a) The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is required to
be equipped with an approved
15 parts per million oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to
have a high oil-content bilge
alarm or a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge
when the oil content exceeds 15
ppm.
o (b) The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is required to
be equipped with an approved
15 parts per million oily-water separator, AND it is required to have
a high oil-content bilge
alarm and a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge
when the oil content exceeds
15 ppm.
(c) The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is EITHER
required to retain onboard all oily
mixtures either in the bilges or in a slops tank and required to be
equipped to discharge these
mixtures to a reception facility, OR the ship is required to be
equipped with an approved oily-
water separator.
o (d) The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is required to retain onboard
all oily mixtures
in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a
reception
facility.

699. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and federal


regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, for oceangoing ships of 400
gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons, what is the
required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling
bilge slops?

o (a) The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than
10,000 gross tons is required
to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank, and it is required
to be equipped to discharge
these mixtures to a reception facility.
o (b) The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than
10,000 gross tons is required
to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water
separator, AND it is required to
have a high oil-content bilge alarm and a means to automatically
stop the oily-water discharge
when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
o (c) The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than
10,000 gross tons is EITHER
required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges or in a
slops tank and required to
be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility, OR
the ship is required to be
equipped with an approved oily-water separator.
(d) The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than
10,000 gross tons is required
to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water
separator, but it is NOT required
to have a high oil-content bilge alarm or a means to automatically
stop the oily-water discharge
when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.

700. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and federal


regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, for oceangoing ships of
10,000 gross tons and above, what is the required means for
preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?

o (a) The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is required to be
equipped with an
approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have a
high oil-
content bilge alarm or a means to automatically stop the oily-water
discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
o (b) The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is
required to retain onboard all oily
mixtures in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to
discharge these mixtures to a
reception facility.
o (c) The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is
EITHER required to retain onboard all
oily mixtures either in the bilges or in a slops tank and required to
be equipped to discharge these
mixtures to a reception facility, OR the ship is required to be
equipped with an approved oily-
water separator.
(d) The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is required to be equipped
with an
approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, AND it is
required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm and a means to
automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content
exceeds 15 ppm.

701. In what part of 33CFR can be found the recordkeeping requirements for specific
machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or
above other than a tanker that must be entered into an Oil Record
Book?

o (a) 33CFR Part 151.15


(b) 33CFR Part 151.25
o (c) 33CFR Part 151.55
o (d) 33CFR Part 151.2070

702. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal
regulations in 33CFR Subchapter O, specific machinery space
operations onboard all ships of 400
gross tons or above other than a tanker must be documented in an Oil
Record Book. This includes
disposal of oil residues and overboard discharge of bilge water that has
accumulated in machinery
spaces, as well as other operations. Who is responsible for signing the
Oil Record Book entry for the specific operation?

o (a) The Master of the vessel


(b) The officer in charge of the operation
o (c) The Chief Engineer
o (d) The First Assistant Engineer

703. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal
regulations in 33CFR Subchapter O, specific machinery space
operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than
a tanker must be documented in an Oil Record Book. Which of the
listed machinery space operations must be documented in the Oil
Record Book?
o (a) Discharge overboard of bilge water that has accumulated in the dry cargo
holds.
o (b) Taking on ballast water into double-bottom sea water ballast tanks.
o (c) Discharge of ballast from double-bottom sea water ballast tanks.
(d) Discharge of waste oil or sludge to a reception facility.

704. In accordance with the federal regulations in 33CFR Subchapter O, continuing


violations of The Federal Water Pollution Control Act and international MARPOL
regulations may constitute separate violations subject to civil
penalties. Which of the following statements is true?

o (a) Each week of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation.


o (b) Each month of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation.
o (c) Each hour of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation.
(d) Each day of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation.

705. In accordance with the federal regulation in 33CFR Subchapter O, which


discharge of oil or oily mixture to sea is permissible?

(a) When the discharge is necessary to for the purpose of securing the safety of a
ship or saving
life at sea.
o (b) When the oil content of the effluent without dilution is less than 100 parts per
million.
o (c) When the oil or oily mixture originates from tanker cargo pump room bilges.
o (d) When the oil or oily mixture is mixed with tanker cargo residues.

706. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal


regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the discharge of what category of garbage
is prohibited in
any waters?

o (a) Ground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery.
o (b) Unground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery.
o (c) Floating dunnage, lining, or packing material.
(d) Plastic or garbage mixed with plastic.

707. (In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal
regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of all
garbage applies to a
vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land?

(a) 3 nautical miles


o (b) 12 nautical miles
o (c) 25 nautical miles
o (d) 200 nautical miles

708. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal


regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of dunnage,
lining, and
packing materials that float applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical
miles of the
nearest land?
o (a) 3 nautical miles
o (b) 12 nautical miles
(c) 25 nautical miles
o (d) 200 nautical miles

709. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal


regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of unground
paper
products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery applies to a vessel operating
within how many
nautical miles of the nearest land?

o (a) 3 nautical miles


(b) 12 nautical miles
o (c) 25 nautical miles
o (d) 200 nautical miles

710. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal


regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of ground
paper products,
rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery applies to a vessel operating within how
many nautical
miles of the nearest land?

(a) 3 nautical miles


o (b) 12 nautical miles
o (c) 25 nautical miles
o (d) 200 nautical miles

711. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal


regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the discharge or disposal of garbage on
vessels of 400
gross tons and above engaged in commerce requires recordkeeping. Which of the
following
discharge or disposal operations requires a detailed description of the contents of the
garbage?

o (a) Incineration on the ship.


(b) Discharge overboard to sea.
o (c) Discharge to a reception facility.
o (d) Discharge to another ship.

712. Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of the
term "sewage"?

o (a) Victual or food wastes collected from galley sinks.


o (b) Various deck drains situated within the vessel's superstructure.
(c) Human body wastes and the wastes from toilets and other receptacles
intended to receive or
retain body waste.
o (d) Drains collected from sinks and showers from the various heads onboard ship.
713. Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a
"Type I Marine Sanitation Device"?

o (a) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per
100 milliliters
and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter.
o (b) A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or
untreated sewage
or any waste derived from sewage.
(c) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000
per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
o (d) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per
100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.

714. Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a
"Type II Marine Sanitation Device"?

o (a) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000
per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
o (b) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per
100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
o (c) A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or
untreated sewage
or any waste derived from sewage.
(d) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per
100 milliliters
and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter.

715. Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a
"Type III Marine Sanitation Device"?

o (a) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per
100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
(b) A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or
untreated sewage
or any waste derived from sewage.
o (c) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per
100 milliliters
and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter.
o (d) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000
per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.

716. Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a
Type III Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the
discharge of untreated sewage is prohibited, which of the following
methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge of sewage is
UNACCEPTABLE?
o (a) Using a non-releasable wire-tire to hold each valve leading to an overboard
discharge in the
closed position.
o (b) Closing each valve leading to an overboard discharge and removing the
handle.
(c) Closing and tagging each valve leading to an overboard discharge.
o (d) Padlocking each valve leading to an overboard discharge in the closed
position.

717. Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a
Type II Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the
discharge of treated or untreated
sewage is prohibited, which of the following methods of securing the
device to prevent the discharge
of sewage is ACCEPTABLE if it is impractical to close the seacock
and prevent its opening?

o (a) Making an announcement over the public address system advising all
concerned that the
vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
o (b) Placing a warning sign on the door to the space enclosing the toilets advising
all concerned
that the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
(c) Locking the door to the space enclosing the toilets with a padlock or door
handle key lock to
prevent entry when the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
o (d) Placing of tape forming an "X" over toilet and urinal bowls to convey to all
concerned that the
vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".

718. Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is less
than 3 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?

o (a) The discharge of comminuted sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of


disinfected sewage is
permitted.
o (b) The discharge of comminuted and disinfected sewage is permitted.
o (c) The discharge of disinfected sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of
comminuted sewage is
permitted.
(d) The discharge of any sewage, treated or untreated, is prohibited.

719. Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is more
than 3, but less than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?

(a) The discharge of comminuted and disinfected sewage is permitted.


o (b) The discharge of disinfected sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of
comminuted sewage is
permitted.
o (c) The discharge of comminuted sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of
disinfected sewage is
permitted.
o (d) The discharge of any sewage, treated or untreated, is prohibited.
720. Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is more
than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?

o (a) The discharge of comminuted and disinfected sewage is prohibited.


(b) The discharge of any sewage, treated or untreated, is permitted.
o (c) The discharge of comminuted sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of
disinfected sewage is
permitted.
o (d) The discharge of disinfected sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of
comminuted sewage is
permitted.

721. Which of the following fire extinguishing agents which may be found aboard ship
is
designated as an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the
Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer and is
controlled as a result?

o (a) CO2
(b) Halon 1301
o (c) Cartridge-operated dry chemical
o (d) Cartridge-operated dry powder

722. Which of the following refrigerants which may be found aboard ship is designated
as an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances
that Deplete
the Ozone Layer and is controlled as a result?

(a) R-12
o (b) R-134a
o (c) R-404A
o (d) R-410A

723. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the nitrous
oxide (NOx) emissions associated with certain diesel engines are
required to operate under certain
acceptable limits. To which of the listed engine applications would
the NOx emission regulations
apply?

(a) Diesel engines with a power output of more than 130kW.


o (b) Diesel engines with a power output not greater than 130kW.
o (c) Diesel engines powering emergency diesel-generator sets.
o (d) Diesel engines powering lifeboats.

724. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the sulphur
content of any fuel oil used on board ships shall not exceed what percentage by
weight?

o (a) 1.5%
o (b) 3.0%
(c) 4.5%
o (d) 6.0%

725. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, in the absence
of an exhaust gas cleaning system, what is the maximum allowable
sulphur content for a fuel to be burned while the ship is operating in
an emissions control area?

(a) 1.5%
o (b) 3.0%
o (c) 4.5%
o (d) 6.0%

726. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, which of the
listed substances is prohibited from being burned in a shipboard incinerator?

(a) Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)


o (b) Oil residue sludges
o (c) Unground garbage
o (d) Sewage waste sludges

727. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, which of the
listed substances is prohibited from being burned in a shipboard incinerator?

o (a) Refined petroleum products containing detergent additives.


o (b) Garbage containing trace amounts of heavy metals.
o (c) Oil residue and sewage waste sludges.
(d) Refined petroleum products containing halogen compounds.

728. In accordance with the international MARPOL AnnexVI regulations, what is the
minimum allowable flue gas outlet temperature for a continuous-
fed shipboard incinerator while in operation?

o (a) 450oC
o (b) 650oF
(c) 850oF
o (d) 1050oF

729. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, what is a


permissible alternative to burning oil residue sludge in an appropriate incinerator?

(a) The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler OR engine,


and it AND may be burned only
in unrestricted waters (other than in port, in harbors, or estuaries).
o (b) The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler OR engine, AND it may be
burned without
restriction in terms of vessel location.
o (c) The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler only AND may be burned only
in unrestricted
waters (other than in port, in harbors, or estuaries).
o (d) The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler only AND may be burned
without restriction
in terms of vessel location.
730. The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety lathe dog is that
the latter __________.

o (a) is more easily centered


(b) has a headless set screw
o (c) has a spring loaded catch
o (d) allows for misaligned center holes

731. The taper produced by a lathe taper attachment is determined by setting the
__________.

o (a) automatic cross feed


o (b) compound rest angle
(c) guide (swivel) bar
o (d) tailstock off center

732. Which of the following definitions accurately describes 'tool feed' when referring to
lathe work?

o (a) The distance the work piece circumference moves past the cutting tool point in
one minute.
o (b) The chip length that will be removed from the work in one minute.
o (c) The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut surface of the work piece.
(d) The distance the tool advances with each revolution of the work.

733. If you are machining work held between lathe centers, and the lathe centers begin
to squeal, you should first __________.

o (a) change the cutting bit


o (b) run the lathe at a slower speed
(c) stop the lathe
o (d) lubricate the centers

734. For proper support when turning a long thin piece of work between lathe centers,
you should use a __________.

(a) steady rest


o (b) draw-in collet chuck
o (c) faceplate
o (d) compound rest

735. A follower rest should be used with a lathe to machine __________.

o (a) work mounted on the lathe carriage


o (b) large diameter stock between centers
(c) threads on long slender shafts
o (d) round stock to a finished dimension

736. Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathe centers is usually held in a
__________.

o (a) crotch center


(b) chuck
o (c) spindle
o (d) lathe dog

737. A work piece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined at each
end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If the test cut on the
tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on the headstock end, the
tailstock must be moved __________.

o (a) toward you to correct alignment


(b) away from you to correct alignment
o (c) closer to the headstock to reduce the amount of offset
o (d) away from the headstock to decrease the misalignment

738. Which of the lathe operations listed is best done with the carriage locked in
position?

(a) Facing work held in a chuck.


o (b) Threading internal threads.
o (c) Boring an angled hole.
o (d) Turning work held between centers.

739. When drilling holes larger than 1/2 inch, drilling a smaller hole first is a good
practice. This is called a pilot hole, and the pilot drill should have a diameter
__________.

(a) slightly larger than the web thickness of the larger drill
o (b) smaller than the dead center of chisel edge of the larger drill
o (c) small enough to ensure the maximum cut by the larger drill
o (d) equal to at least 1/2 the diameter of the larger drill

740. Which material can be drilled at the highest speed?

o (a) Copper
o (b) High carbon steel
(c) Aluminum
o (d) Medium cast iron

741. To drill a hole in round stock, perpendicular to the axis of the piece, the stock
should be mounted in a __________.

(a) V-block
o (b) morse sleeve
o (c) clamp
o (d) collet

742. When drilling blind holes with a standard drill press, the proper method of stopping
the progress of the drill boring through the work is by __________.
o (a) moving the working table
o (b) adjusting the spindle return spring
o (c) gaging chuck motion
(d) using a depth stop
.

743. One of the steps required to increase the drilling speed of a drill press is to
__________.

o (a) change the terminal connections of the drive motor


o (b) move the drive belt to a smaller diameter motor pulley
o (c) change to a larger diameter spindle
(d) move the drive belt to a smaller diameter spindle pulley

744. A tapered shank drill is removed from the drill press spindle with a __________.

o (a) vice grip


(b) drill drift
o (c) leather mallet
o (d) taper punch

745. Before drilling a hole in a piece of metal, the location of the hole center should be
__________.

o (a) marked with chalk


o (b) blued
o (c) scribed
(d) center punched

746. Which of the listed metals can usually be drilled without lubrication?

o (a) Tungsten
o (b) Steel
(c) Brass
o (d) Monel

747. If the speed of a drill is too great, the drill will __________.

o (a) cut faster


o (b) not cut
o (c) cut slower
(d) rapidly dull

748. Before boring a blind tapered hole, a good shop practice to follow is to
__________.

o (a) drill to the large diameter of the taper


o (b) use a tapered reamer
o (c) bore a straight hole
(d) drill to the small diameter of the taper

749. The action necessary to use the steering gear room trick wheel when transferring
the
steering control from the wheelhouse to local control, is to __________.

(a) align the trick wheel to the rudder angle position before engaging
o (b) set the six-way control valve in the trick wheel position
o (c) open the power transfer switch before engaging the trick wheel
o (d) always place the rudder in the midship position to engage the trick wheel

750. Rudder position is shown on the bridge by the __________.

(a) rudder angle indicator


o (b) follow-up gear
o (c) telemotor position
o (d) Rapson slide indicator

751. When the helm angle position is changed, the series of corresponding events of
the
steering gear will include __________. I. rate of steering gear ram
movement will be proportional to amount of helm angle input II.
degree of tilting plate (box) angle will be proportional to the amount of
helm angle input

o (a) I only
o (b) II only
(c) Both I and II
o (d) Neither I nor II

752. Hydraulically, servo-operated, automatic, change over valves, utilized in a two ram
hydraulic steering gear, serve to __________.

o (a) allow an alternate main pump to start in the fully loaded condition thus
developing immediate
full torque
o (b) prevent both units from operating simultaneously which could result in doubling
the flow of oil
and pressure leading to over pressurization of the system
(c) prevent either main pump from being hydraulically motored when idle by cross
pressure flow
o (d) all of the above

753. In an electro-hydraulic steering system, damage due to rudder shock is prevented


by
__________.

o (a) buffer springs


(b) relief valves
o (c) oil flowing through the pumps
o (d) dashpots