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ABBREVIATIONS

ACP Audio Control Panel


ACM Air Cycle Machine
AEVC Avionics Equipment Ventilation Computer
ASCS Air-conditioning System Controller
BCL Battery Charging Limiter
BMC Bleed Monitoring Computer
BITE Built in Test Equipment
CBMS Circuit Breaker Monitoring Unit
CSCU Cargo smoke control unit
CPC Cabin Pressure Controller
CRC Continuous repetitive chime
CFDS Centralized Fault Display System
CDLS Cockpit Door Locking System
CIDS Cabin Intercommunication Data System
DDRMI Digital display Radio Magnetic Indicator
DEU Decoding Encoding Unit
ECAM Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring
ECB Electronic Control Box (APU)
ECP ECAM control Panel
EFIS Electronic Flight Instrument System
ELAC Elevator and Aileron Computer
EIS Electronic Instrument system
FADEC Full Authority Digital Engine Control
FAP Forward Attendant Panel
FDU Fire Detection Unit
FOB Fuel on Board
FQI Fuel Quantity Indicator
FDU Fire Detection Unit
FWC Fire Warning Computer
IDG Integrated drive Generator
ISIS Integrated Standby Instrument System
LGCIU Landing gear Control Interface Unit
PHC Probe Heat Computer
PTP Program & Testing Panel
RMP Radio Magnetic Panel
SRS : Speed Reference System
SFCC Slat and Flap Control Computer
SDCU Smoke Detection Control Unit
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SDAC System Data -------------


TAT Total Air Temperature
TAD Terrain awareness Display
TCF Terrain Clearance Floor
TPIS Tyre pressure indicating system
VSC Vacuum System Controller
WHC Window Heat Controller

QUESTIONS

ELECTRIC
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Q1 Which aircraft AC Generator has priority over the Gen 1 and Gen 2
Ans a APU
b External Power
c Gen 1 & Gen 2 has priority on all of the above
Q2 Which system controls the charging of the Battery
Ans a LGCIU
b ELAC
c BCL
d BSCU
Q3 What is the AC Power rating of A-320
Ans a 115/220 Volts 300 Hz two phase
b 115/400 Volts 200 Hz Three Phase
c 115/400 Volts 400 Hz Three Phase
Q4 Why is the IDG push button guarded red
Ans a Because it is used in Emergency
b Easy to Locate
c It is an irreversible item
d None of the above
Q5 In the normal configuration which Bus powers the AC ESS Shed Bus
Ans a AC Bus 2
b AC Ess Feed Bus
c AC Bus 1
Q6 Which of the following statements regarding the emergency electrical configuration is
true?
Ans a The emergency generator provides only emergency DC power
b The RAT automatically extends and the emergency generator connects if AC bUs
1 and AC Bus 2 are un powered in flight
c The RAT must be manually extended using the RAT Man Pbif AC Bus 1 and AC
Bus 2 are unpowered in flight
Q7 During Emergency Elec Config only ------ would be available
Ans a VHF 3
b VHF 2
c VHF 1
d HF Only

Q8 The Emerg Generator automatically supplies emergency AC bus fail. This emergency
generator runs by au
Ans a Green Hyd Sys
b Blue Hyd system
c Yellow Hyd Sys
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d Accumulator Pressure
Q9 While reviewing the Elect page on ECAM you see a message galley Shed you will
assume that
Ans a Someone has put the galley to off on the overhead Elect panel
b APU is not providing enough Electrical output
c External power connected to the aircraft has low voltage
d One of the engine Generators is off
Q 10 IDG stands for Integrated Drive Generator to disconnect the IDG Pb has to be pushed
while engine is running to avoid damage to the disconnection mechanism do not do not
push this button for more then 3 seconds

Q 11 After disconnection of IDG the same can be connected back by


Ans a Pressing the IDG Pbto On position
b Selecting the Bus tie to off
c Can be connected only on ground by the Engg
d Putting AC Ess Feed to ALTN
Q 12 You are on ground and the APU is supplying the electrical power to the aircraft
Maintenance connects the External GPU. The aircraft will now be connected to
Ans a Immediately by GPU
b GPU if the External power Pb on the Elect PWR Pb on the Elect panel is pushed
c By GPU only if the APU is shut down
d AC Bus 1 by GPU and AC Bus 2 by APU
Q 13 Minimum Battery voltage required during Preliminary cockpit preparation is 25.5 V
Q 14 If the voltage is below the minimum value a charging cycle ---------- required
Q 54 What busses are powered by the Emergency Generator
Ans a AC ESS & AC AC ESS Shed
b AC ESS only
c DC ESS and DC ESS SHED
d a & c are correct
Q 15 Draw the diagram of Electric System

Q 16 Battery voltage above required minimum acceptable limits ensures a charge of


Ans a 80%
b 70%
c 60%
d 50%
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Q 17 A monitored Circuit Breaker if out for more then ___________ Seconds will trigger
an ECAM warning
Ans a 30 Sec
b 45 Sec
c 60 Sec
d Less then 10 Sec
Q 18 The aircraft is on ground and powered by APU electrical power. The ground
mechanic connects the external GPU. The electrical syatem will transfer to the
external GPU
Ans a Immediately
b When External Power Pb in the cockpit is pushed
c When the Ext PWR Pb on the GRd electrical panel is pushed
d None of the above
Q 19 On ground when only ground services are required, external power can supply AC
& DC GND/FLT Busses directly without supplying the entire aircraft network. This
can be done through MAINT BUS switch located
Ans a On Overhead Elect Panel in the cockpit
b On the MAINT Panel in the cockpit
c From the ground mechanic panel in the nose wheel bay
d Forward entrance Galley Area Overhead
Q 20 A Battery cut of logic prevents batteries from discharging completely when the
aircraft is on ground (Parking)
Ans a True b False
Q 21 IDG Switches are normally spring loaded out
Ans a True b False
Q 22 Maximum continuous load per T/R (Continuous) is
Ans a 200 Amp
b 180 Amp
c 160 Amp
d 115 Amp
Q 23 In case of simultaneous engine generator failure the probability of a successful APU
Gen coupling is low. Therefore, APU start should be avoided as this will
consequently reduce the flight time on batteries by about __________ minutes for
one start attempt

Ans a 10 Min
b 7.5 Min
c 5 Min
d 3.5 Min
Q 24 Static inverter can transform DC Power in to AC power form
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Ans a Batt No 1
b Batt No 2
c Both Batt 1 & 2
d None of the above
Q 25 Static Inverter can supply
Ans a 2 KVA
b 1 Kva
c 5 Kva
d 3 Kva
Q 26 In case battery is the only source of electrical power to the aircraft, the flight crew
seat can be operated through
Ans a Static Inverter
b Essential AC bus
c Essential DC bus
d Manually only
Q 27 How many electrical power A/C generation system are there in A-320
Ans a GPU, APU, Gen
b RAT, Main Gen, Wing Turbines
c APU, Main Gen, RAT
d Main Gen, Emg Gen, APU and Static Invertors
Q 28 What buses are powered by the emergency generator
Ans a AC ESS and AC ESS SHED
b AC ESS only
c DC ESS and DC ESS SHED
d A and C are correct
FUEL & APU

Q 29 The ECB ( Electronic Control Box) controls the fuel flow


Ans a True b False
b The APU Master Switch fault light will illuminate when APU goes into Over
speed or aborted
c APU page appears on Lower ECAM automatically except for --------------
Q 30 An amber half box on fuel quantity indicator on the E/WD means

Ans a Fuel quantity is low


b Outer tank will not feed the inner tanks
c Half of the fuel is unusable
d All the fuel cannot be used due to failure/loss of central fuel pumps or the
transfer valve failure
Q 31 How many fuel tanks are there in A 320
Ans a 7
7

b 4
c 3
d 5
Q 32 If the centre tank fails in flight
Ans a Fuel can be transferred to inner tanks
b Fuel can be used through gravity feed
c Fuel can no longer be used
d Cross feed can be used to use the fuel
Q 33 At what Low level will the inner fuel tank be fed by the X feed transfer valve from outer
tank
Ans a 1500 Kg
b 1000 Kg
c 3500 Kg
d 750 Kg
Q 34 On ECAM E/WD page Memo display Refuelling message means
Ans a Fuelling in process
b Engineer working on fuel syatem
c Fuel Pumps are running
d Refueling control door panel is open
Q 35 If the slats are extended
Ans a Centre fuel tank will feed engines only
b Outer fuel tank will feed engines
c Centre fuel tank cannot feed engines
Q 36 On takeoff which fuel tanks feed the engine
Ans a All the tanks feed the engine
b Only centre tank feeds the engine
c Only inner tank feed the engine
d Outer tank feed the engine
Q 37 Fuel is supplied to the APU from
Ans a The right fuel feed line
b The centre fuel feed line
c The left fuel feed line
d b&c

Q 38 When will the low level sensor for fuel trigger Lo LVL Warning on ECAM
Ans a 900 Kg
b 700 Kg
c 950 Kg
d 750 Kg
Q 39 Fuel in the outer wing tank help in
Ans a Wing bending and flutter relief
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b Load alleviation factor (LAF)


c Maintain lateral stability
d All are correct
Q 40 In Airbus 320 utilization of fuel from fuel tanks is in sequence as under :-
Ans a Wing tank, Inner tank, Centre Tank
b Inner tank, Centre tank, Outer Tank
c Centre Tank, Inner Tank, Outer Tank
Q 41 On ground during cockpit preparation with the APU connected to the aircraft if APU fire
is detected by the system
Ans a APU will Auto shut down
b You will have to shutdown the the APU yourself
c Auto shut dow of the APU & automatic discharge of fire agent
d APU will auto shutdown but no automatic extinction of fire
Q 42 ECB (Electronic control box) controls the fuel flow
Ans 1 True 2 False
Q 43 The APU Master switch fault light will illuminate when APU goes into Overspeed or
aborted start
Q 44 APU page appears on the Lower ECAM automatically except for _____________

Q 45 At what low level will the inner fuel tank be fed by the transfer valve from outer
tank
Ans a 1500 Kg
b 1000 Kg
c 3500 Kg
d 750 Kg
Q 46 An amber half box on the fuel quantity indicator on the E/WD means
Ans a Fuel quantity is low
b Outer tank will not feed the inner tank
c Half of the fuel is unusable
d All the fuel cannot be used due to failure of central tank fuel pumps or transfer
valve failure

Q 47 When APU fire Pb is released out the


Ans (a) APU Gen is de-energized (b) APU Gen is disconnected (c) APU Gen
Energized
Q 48 A Half Amber Box on the FOB means Not All Fuel is Useable
Q49 During Flt you see the last two digits of the FOB 9000=. This means
Ans a Fuel temp in some tanks is outside the limits
b One of the pump giving lesser output
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c FQI in degraded mode


d Fuel Mode selector is in MAN position
Q 50 Fill in the following data for APU
Ans a Max Altitude with both PACKS Operating ____________ Ft
b Max Altitude with One PACK operating _____________ Ft
c Max Alt for starting APU on Battery ________________ Ft
d Max Alt using the APU Elect _______________ Ft

Q 51 With a 20 Deg rise in fuel temp it can expand by


Ans (a) 5% (b) 4% (c) 10% (d) 2%

VENTILATION / PNEUMATIC

Q 52 The avionics ventilation system cools the


Ans a Electrical and Avionics equipment in the avionics compartment
b Electrical and avionics equipment on the flight deck
c Circuit breaker panel
d All of the above
e A and b above
Q 53 With blower and extract pushbuttons in override
Ans a Inlet valve opens and Extract valve opens
b Air flow from the Air Cond system and then overboard
c Extract fan continues to run
d A and B above
e B and C above
Q 54 At low engine speeds, when the pressure and temp of the IP (Intermediate Pressure
Stage) air is to low, the system bleeds air from HP stage and maintains it at :-
Ans a 30 +/- 4 Psi
b 32 +/- 4 Psi
c 34 +/- 4 Psi
d 367 +/- 4 Psi
Q 55 The Pneumatic system is monitored and controlled by

Ans a 3 BMC
b 01 BMC
c 2 BMC
d 4 BMC
Q 56 When DITCHING Pb is pushed the outflow valve will not close if the outflow valve
is under manual control
Ans a True B False
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Q 57 During Pre-Flt you notice that the Avionics Ventilation, inlet and extract valve doors
are closed
Ans a This is abnormal report to Maint
b The OAT is too high and the system is in close config
c The OAT is < 9 Deg Cent and the system is in close configuration
d The Avionics system is in smoke config
Q 58 The water waste control panel is located at
Ans a Aft fuselage right
b In the cockpit
c Forward attendants panel
d Aft attendant panel
Q 59 Potable water is stored in a tank which has a capacity of
Ans a 100 litres
b 150 Litres
c 200 Litres
d 300 Litres
Q 60 Potable water tank located
Ans a Behind the forward cargo compartment
b In the bulk cargo compartment
c In the aft galley
d In the forward cargo compartment below forward galley
Q 61 Flying at FL 300 when the toilet flush is used ___________ syatem forces the waste
into wastage storage tank
Ans a A vacuum generator pump
b Differential pressure
c A combination of vacuum pump and differential pressure
d Gravity feed
Q 62 Waste water tank has a capacity of
Ans a 200 Litres
b 170 Litres
c 150 Litres
d 100 Litres
Q 63 On ground and below _____________ when the toilet flush system is used forces the
waste into a waste storage tank
Ans a A vacuum generator pump
b Differential pressure
c A combination of vacuum pump and differential pressure
d Gravity system
AIRCOND

Q 64 What Temperature corresponds to cold normal hot on the zone temperature in degrees
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Ans a 18, 24,35 b 10,20,30 c 18,24,30 d 18,26,36


Q 65 Temperature of each zone of the aircraft is optimized by :-
Ans a Hot air valve
b Zone control Valve
c Pack flow valve
d Trim Air Valve
Q 66 During cockpit preparation PACK Flow should be selected to LOW if the number of
passengers is below
Ans a 140 Pax
b 130 Pax
c 120 Pax
d None of the Above

PRESSURIZATION

Q 67 Under what conditions the pack flow controller be set to Lo


Ans a With low passenger load to reduce bleed air demand and to improve fuel
efficiency
b With Low passenger load to increase cabin temperature
c With high passenger load to reduce cabin temperature
d In cold conditions to achieve a higher cabin temperature
Q 68 Safety valve in the pressurization system protects the aircraft against
Ans a Excessive cabin V/S in manual mode
b Excessive cabin differential pressure
c Excessive cabin altitude
d Water ingress in case of ditching
Q 69 You have manually selected the landing elevation on the cabin altitude controller
Ans a Manually through the MAN V/S control
b Automatic through the outflow valve
c Through the safety valve
d Manually through the LDG ELEV selector
Q 70 In the pressurization system there are __________ Outflow valve and _____ Safety
valve
Q 71 The Cabin Pressure controller (CPC) system can be manually switched from SYS-1
to SYS-2 by switching the mode Sel to Man for ________ Seconds and then back to
Auto
Ans a 10 Seconds
b 5 Seconds
c 3 Seconds
d Momentarily
Q 72 In the pressurization system there are 01 Outflow valves and 02 Safety Valve
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HYDRAULIC & LANDING GEARS


Q 73 Which Hydraulic system drives the Emergency Generator
Ans a Blue
b Green
c Yellow
d Yellow and Green
Q 74 If the blue Electric pump malfunctions and the Blue Elect pump Pb is selected off then
Ans a The PTU pressurizes the blue system
b RAT deploys automatically and powers the blue system
c The Blue Sys shuts down (Unpressurized)
Q 75 The crew performs landing with auto brake selected to MED what triggers the application
of the auto brake by
Ans a Application of the brake pedals by the pilot
b The signal to extend spoilers
c Reverse thrust is selected
Q 76 What is the normal pressure in each hydraulic system
Ans a 2000 Psi
b 3000 Psi
c 1500 Psi
d 2500 Psi
Q 77 Which two hydraulic systems are connected to PTU (Power Transfer Unit)
Ans a Green & Yellow
b Green & Blue
c Yellow and Blue
d Blue & Green
Q 78 Can you transfer hydraulic fluid from one system to another
Ans a Yes by PTU automatically
b No
d Only from Blue system to yellow system
Q 79 Which hydraulic system are driven by engine driven pump
Ans a Green
b Yellow
c Blue
d a&b
Q 80 Which hydraulic system can be pressurized by Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
Ans a Yellow & Green
b Green & Blue
c Blue
d Yellow & Blue
Q 81 Name any 5 services powered by Green system
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Ans a Normal Brakes


b Landing Gear
c Rudder
d Spoiler 1 + 5
e Slats & Flaps
Q 82 Blue Hyd system controls the following :-
Ans a Slats & Flaps
b Slats only
c Flaps and Rudder
Q 83 RAT Ram Air Turbine can be deployed by following means
Ans a Automatically if AC 1 & 2 buses unpowered
b By RAT Manually on the O/Head Hyd Panel
c By RAT Manually on the Emerg Elect Panel
Q 83 During RAT extension the emergency generator coupling may take upto _______
seconds. During this time batteries power the Emg Gen network.
Ans a 10 Sec
b 8 Sec
c 5 Sec
d 3 Sec
Q 85 A safety valve in the landing gear system cuts off all hydraulic supply to the system
when aircraft speed is more then
Ans a 220 Kts b 230 Kts c 250 Kts d 260 Kts
Q 86 To lower the landing by Emg extension crank the handle
Ans a In the clockwise direction 5 turns
b In the anticlockwise direction 5 turns
c In the clockwise direction 3 turns
d In the anticlockwise direction 3 turns
Q 87 The rudder trim rotary switch and rudder trim Pb is effective when the autopilot is
engaged
Ans a True b False
Q 88 At what pressure difference does the PTU comes on
Ans a 700 Psi
b 2000 Psi
c 500 Psi
d 300 Psi
Q 89 How many channels are there in LGCIU
Ans (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
Q 90 What is the tolerance / pressure difference of 3 Hyd systems
Ans (a) 300 Psi (b) 400 Psi (c) 200 Psi
Q 91 Yellow Hyd Pressure can be obtained from
Ans a No 2 Eng driven pump
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b Elect Pump
c PTU
d Manually operated Hand Pump
Q 92 What does an Amber Fault light in the PTU Pb indicate
Ans a Pump Pressure Low
b Over Temp in Reservoir
c Low air pressure in Reservoir
d All of the Above
BRAKES

Q 93 The crew performs a landing with auto brake selected to medium. What triggers the
application of auto brake by
Ans a The application of brake pedal by the pilot
b The signal to extend the spoilers
c Reverse thrust is selected
Q 94 Which auto brake mode is not used for landing
Ans a Max
b Med
c Low
d None of the above
Q 95 What is the Maximum brake temperature for takeoff
Ans a 300 Deg
b 350 Deg
c 250 Deg
d 200 Deg
Q 96 The accumulator in the braking system can maintain parking brake pressure for at
least
Ans a 12 Hrs b 10 Hrs c 18 Hrs
Q 97 The accumulator in the braking syatem can supply at least
Ans a 10 Brake applications
b 8 Brake applications
c 7 Brake applications
d 5 Brake applications
Q 98 By pushing the reset push button for rudders the zero trim position is ordered at
Ans a 2.5 Deg/Sec b 3 Deg/Sec c 2 Deg/Sec d 1.5 Deg/Sec
Q 99 The antiskid deactivates when ground speed is less then
Ans a 50 Kts b 40 Kts c 30 Kts d 20 Kts
Q 100 If an aircraft rejects takeoff below ___________ speed the auto braking will not
activate because the ground spoilers will not extend
Ans a 100 Kts
b 92 Kts
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c 82 Kts
d 72 Kts
Q 100 Auto brake is operated through
Ans a Blue Hyd system
b Yellow Hyd system
c Green in normal condition and Yellow if Green Hyd lost
d Green Hyd System
Q 101 Auto brake is available only when the Green Hyd System is available
Ans a True b False
Q 102 What does BSCU stand for
Ans a Bleed system control unit
b Brake System control Unit
c Brake & Steering Control Unit
d Brake and spoiler control unit

OXYGEN
Q 102 After Emg descent the microphone of the mask must be de-activated by
a There is no requirement of deactivating the mask microphoine
b The microphone deactivates as soon as you take off the mask
c Recycle the INT switch on the ACP panel
d You must press the RESET slide switch

FIRE
Q 103 How many detector loops are there in each Engine & APU
Ans a Loop A and B
b Loop A & C
c Loop A,B,C,D
Q 104 In the event of an engine fire the respective engine fire Pb light illuminates red until
Ans a The respective Eng Fire Pb is pushed and released
b The fire is out
c The respective Eng Fire Master switch is switched off
Q 104 Which is not the function of fire Pb (Red Guarded) on over haed panel when pushed and
released
Ans a Close the Hyd fire shut off valve, close the low pressure fuel shut off valve
b Close the Eng bleed valve and pack flow valve
c Cut off the FADEC supply, Deactivate the IDG, Silence the aural warning and
arms the extinguishing squib
d None of the above

AUTO FLIGHT
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Q 105 The Alpha Lock feature of the slat & flap control computer SFCC prevents
Ans a The extension of flaps at a speed greater then the maximum flap extension speed
b The retraction of flaps during a high angle of attack / low speed situation
c The retraction of slats during a high angle of attack / low speed situation

Q 106 When engines are running what indicates Normal Flight Control Law on PFD
Ans a Amber crosses on roll scale
b Amber message (Use Manual Pitch Trim)
c Green marks on roll scale near 67 Deg bank
Q 107 When RED MANUAL PITCH TRIM ONLY is displayed on the PFD it means that the :-
Ans a Auto Pilot is Off
b Alternate Law is in Manual function
c Pitch trim is in Manual function
d Mechanical backup is in force
Q 108 As a general rule flight control law will be degraded
Ans a When SFCC one system failure occurs
b When auto thrust is of
c When two system failure occurs
Q 109 What happens when the V/S knob on the FCU is pushed
Ans a The aircraft will accelerate to retract the flaps
b It keeps the last V/S from the climb mode
c This commands an immediate level off
Q 110 With the auto pilot engaged what happens when the aircraft overflies the last way point
on the flight plan prior to route discontinuity

Ans a The autopilot will continue to next assigned way point


b The Auto Pilot F/D reverts to Heading Mode
c The auto pilot will be disengaged because of the mode reversion
Q 112 FMGC has three modes of operations
Ans a Dual
b Single
c Independent
Q 113 How many Display Units DU does the Electronic Instrument System comprise
Ans a 4 DUs
b 6 DUs
c 8 DUs
d DUs
Q 114 On PFD Bank angle protection is marked as :-
Ans a Green = Sign at 67 bank angle
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b Amber X sign at 67 bank angle


c Amber = sign at 67 bank angle
d Green X sign at 67 bank angle
Q 115 The speed trend arrow on the speed tape denotes
a Speed is increasing or decreasing
b Indicates speed only
c Speed will reach tip of the arrow in 10 sec
Q 116 The lowest selectable speed on the speed tape on PFD is
Ans a VLs
b S
c F ????????
Q 117 Under Normal Control Law you see the VLs at 140 Kts specify against each speed below
where you are likely to see V Alpha Max & V Alpha Prot
Ans a 140 Kts VLs
b 136 Kts Alpha Prot
c 124 Kts Alpha Max
d 130 Kts Alpha Floor ???????
Q 118 The green letter F on the speed tape denotes
Ans a Flaps at position 1
b Flaps at position 2 & 3
c Flaps are full
Q 119 Radio altimeter reading appears on the PFD when the aircraft is
Ans a More then 3000 Ft
b Less then 3000 Ft
c Less then 2500 Ft
Q 120 Green dot will appear on the speed tape during flight
Ans a When ever the aircraft is flying approach phase
b Whenever flaps are extended
c Whenever the aircraft is in clean configuration
Q 121 How is the crew made aware of the mode change on the FMA
Ans a Amber box around the new change
b Blue colour for the changed item
c A white box around the new change
Q 122 On the ND which EFIS control selection will have no radar image
Ans a Rose VOR
b ARC mode
c Nav Mode
d Plan Mode
Q 123 What would be preventing Weather display on ND
Ans a Range selector knob to 160
b Mode selector in Plan, Terrain selected On
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c Terrain selected On
d A& C
Q 124 Tuning of VOR/ILS is provided by
Ans a Automatic tuning, backup tuning and Manual tuning
b Automatic tuning & manual tuning
c Automatic tuning back up tuning
Q 125 FMGC consists of the following main components:-
Ans a 2FMGC. 2MCDU, 2FCU
b 2 FMGC, 2 MCDU, 2FAC, 1FCU
c 2FMGC, 2MCDU, 2 FAC, 2ECAMS
d 2FMGC, 2 MCDU, 2 ECAM, 1 FCU
Q 126 Tick mark the items which work through Flight augmentation Computer
Ans a GS Mini
b Alpha Protection
c Windeshear Wx
d Speed trend arrow
e VFE Next
f VLs
g Green dot speed
Q 127 While Ldg with config flaps 3 selected which push button u should push off on the
GPWS panel to avoid warning
Ans a Terr
b G/S Mode
c LDG Flap 3
d Flap Mode
Q 128 You get an ECAM warning due C/B tripped . This is most probably a
Ans a Green Circuit breaker
b Blue Circuit breaker
c Black Circuit breaker
d Red circuit breaker
Q 129 Please name the rows of FMAas given below
Ans
Q 130 Takeoff from Khi Runway 25 L (ILS Equipped), Flex takeoff write down the FMA
indications:-Q During Managed mode climb the PNF actuates a knob on the FCU you will have
the following indications on the FMA. What knob was operated by the PNF
Before actuation

R CLB CLB NAV -------- ----------

After Actuation

CLB OP CLB HDG ----------- ---------------


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Ans a PNF had pulled the Alt Knob


b PNF had pushed the ALT Knob
c PNF had Pushed the HDG Knob
d Had pulled the HDG knob
Q 131 If the APFD is engaged the A/Thr is controlled by
Ans a A/Thr cannot be engaged with AP/FD disengaged
b FMGC 2
c FMGC 1
d FADEC
Q 132 Flying as FO from the right seat you see a message on your SCRATCH PAD FMGC In
Progress. Moreover on your ND you see the message Off Side Range in Amber. You
will assume that
Ans a FMGCX are working in dual mode
b FMGC is working in independent mode
c FMGC is working in OFF SIDE Mode
d FMGC is working in Single mode
Q 133 You want to enter a height constraint at a waypoint in the flight plan using the ------- on
the MCDU
Ans a Right Line Select key b Left Line Select key
Q 134 A normal alignment of IRS takes
Ans a 5 Min
b 10 Min
c 01 Min
d None of the above
Q 135 An Off Set can be inserted in a Flight Plan using the
Ans a Any right LSK on thew MCDU
b 1R LSK on the MCDU
c Any Left LSK on the MCDU
d 1L LSK on the MCDU
Q 136 Please name the column of the FMA as given below

Ans 1st Column 2nd Column 3rd Column 4th Column

THR Mode Vertical Mode Lateral Mode APP Capt/FO

DH

Q 137 Alpha Floor is a safety feature incorporated in the A-320. Once activated due angle of
attack below Alpha Prot so TOGA thrust is ordered automatically despite the fact that the thrust
lever are are CL position. FMA will show
a THR LK flashing in Amber in the first column of the FMA
20

b THR LVR flashing in Amber in the first column of the FMA


c TOGA LK flashing in green with Amber box in the first column of FMA
d S LOCKED flashing in Amber if the A/THR was in SPEED Mode
Q 138 During normal ILS approach AP 1 + 2 can only be engaged after
Ans a APP PHASE has been activated on the MCDU
b LOC Pb has been pushed on the FCU
c LOC* has engaged
d APPR Pb has been pushed on the FCU
Q 139 During Managed climb you see this on the FMA(MAN T^HR)Most Likely
MAN THR CLB NAV
Ans a Both Channels of FADEC have failed
b Channel 2 of FADEC has failed (AP 2 is engaged)
c Thrust lever is above the CL detent
d Thrust Lever is below the CL detent
Q 140 During Managed Descent, if the EXPED Pb on the FCU is pushed speed for descend is
340 Kts / .80 Mach
Q 141 When engines are running what indicates normal flight control law on PFD
Ans a Amber crosses on roll Roll scale
b Amber message (Use Manual Pitch trim)
c Green = mark on roll scale near 67 Bank
Q 142 As a general rule normal flight control law will be degraded

Ans a When SFCC one system failure occurs


b When auto thrust is off
c When two system failure occurs
d When green hyd system fails
Q 143 On the overhead ADIRU panel 3 IR lights are steady ON what does it indicate
Ans a The respective IR is in align mode
b The IR is ready for navigation
c The IR alignment has been completed
d The respective IR is lost
Q 144 A quick realignment is performed by selecting the IR rotry switch to Off and then back to
Nav. The time required for switching back to Nav is
a 7 Sec
b 10 Sec
c 3 Sec
d 5 Sec
Q 145 The engaged mode on the FMA is colored
21

Ans a White
b Green & White
c Amber
d Blue
Q 145 What would be missing on the Capt PFD if IR-1 failed
Ans a Attitude
b Altitude
c Speed
d Attitude and Navigation
Q 146 If when aircraft on ground at least one ADIRU is supplied by aircraft batteries
Ans a The Master caution light comes on with single chime
b The ADIRU & AVNCS light on the external power panel comes on
c The external horn sounds
d B & C are correct
Q 147 Above _______ degrees North and ________ degrees South, the ADIRU gives True
heading instead of Magnetic heading
Q 148 During a Non Precision approach the Brick as indicated on the PFD altitude tape displays
________ feet up or down from the calculated vertical profile
Ans a +/- 500 Ft
b +/- 400 Ft
c +/- 300 Ft
d +/- 200 Ft
Q 149 Altitude alert is inhibited when

Ans a Slats are extended


b Landing gears are down and locked
c In approach after the aircraft captures glide slope
d All of the above
e B and C Above
Q 149 The speed trend arrow as displayed on the PFD vanishes the most probable cause is
failure of
Ans a ELAC
b SEC
c FAC
d ADIRS
Q 150 VLS indication on the PFD speed tape is displayed _________ seconds after lift off
Ans a 20 Sec
b 15 Sec
c 10 Sec
d 5 Sec
22

Q 151 VDEV (YO YO) indication on the PFD altitude tape displays ________ Ft up or
down from the calculated vertical profile
Ans a +/- 500 Ft
b +/- 400 Ft
c +/- 300 Ft
d +/- 200 Ft
Q 152 If a DMC has failed ___________________ will be displayed in the respective
PFD/ND ECAM display unit.

Q 153 If the upper ECAM display knob is switched off what would happen
Ans a The E/WD display would automatically transfer to lower ECAM
b E/WD display would transfer onto Capt side ND
c E/WD display would transfer onto FO side ND
d None of the above
Q 154 When the TCAS is selcetd to THRT, proximate and other intruders are displayed
only if a TA or RA is present and they are within +/- 3000 Ft
Ans a True b False
Q 155 Display on ND of TCAS traffic is limited to a maximum of _________ most
threatening intruders
Ans a 10 b 8 c 6 d 4
Q 156 You see a filed circle on the ND. This is TCAS
Ans a Proximity traffic
b Traffic advisory TA
c Resolution advisory RA
d Other intruder
Q 157 A vertical arrow on the right side of the diamond ( ) of a TCAS traffic is generated
only when the ROC/ROD is more then ___________
Ans a 200 Ft/min
b 300 Ft/min
c 400 Ft/min
d 500 Ft/min
Q 158 If the ECAM control panel fails the following Pb remain operative because their
contacts are wired directly FWC and DMCs
Ans a
b
c
d
e
Q 159 On ground during Hdg check the maximum difference in HDG between ND-1 and
ND 2 can be
23

Ans a +/- 5 Deg


b +/- 4 Deg
c +/- 3 Deg
d +/- 2 Deg
Q 160 With a QNH selected a message on both PFD CHECK ALT means that there is a
discrepancy of greater then ________ feet between values on PFDs
Ans a 500 Ft
b 400 Ft
c 300 Ft
d 250 Ft
Q 161 With STD selected a message on both PFD CHECK ALT means that there is a
discrepancy of greater then ________ feet between values on PFDs
Ans a 500 Ft
b 400 Ft
c 300 Ft d 250 Ft

Q 162 Gross Weight (GW) is displayed on the permanent data area of lower ECAM
display
Ans a As soon as the first engine is started
b 10 Sec after 2nd engine start
c Engine mode selector is selected to IGN
d As soon as you commence Taxi
Q 163 A message on both PFDs CHECK ATT means that there is a discrepancy of at least
________ degrees between attitude values pitch/roll
Ans a 5 Deg
b 4 Deg
c 3 Deg
d 2 Deg
Q 164 A message on both PFDs CHECK HDG means that there is a discrepancy of at least
________ degrees between the heading values
Ans a 5 Deg
b 4 Deg
c 3 Deg
d 2 Deg
Q 165 DMC 1 supplies data to Capt
Ans a
b
c
Q 166 DMC 2 supplies data to FO
Ans a
b
24

c
Q 167 On ground if a message DU NOT MONITORED in amber is displayed it means
Ans a There is only one DMC instead of two
b DMC test in progress
c There is an EIS failure
d All of the above
e B and C are correct
Q 168 In taxi normally the WHEEL page is displayed on lower ECAM display however, if
either side stick is moved more then ___________ degrees in pitch or roll the F/CTL
page replaces the wheel page for 20 sec
Ans a 15 Deg c 5 Deg
b 10 Deg d 3 Deg
Q 169 Radio altitude and decision height callouts are generated by
Ans a SDAC
b FWC
c DMC
d FMGC
Q 170 In case ILS-1 is unserviceable Mode _______ of GPWS is inhibited
Ans a Mode -1 (Excessive rate of descent)
b Mode -3 (Excessive terrain closure)
c Mode -4 (Unsafe Terrain clearance)
d Mode 5 (Too far below glide slope)
Q 171 Attention getters i.e. Master Wx and Master Caution are generated by
Ans a SDAC
b DMC
c FWC
d FMGC
Q 172 To improve operational efficiency computer inhibits some cautions and warnings for
Takeoff and landing phase of flight. Takeoff inhibit is applicable from
Ans a From 80 Kts till 1500 Ft
b 2 Min after lift off
c Till SRS mode engaged
d A and B
Q 173 To improve operational efficiency computer inhibits some cautions and warnings for
Takeoff and landing phase of flight. Landing inhibit is applicable from
Ans a From 80 Kts till 1500 Ft
b 2 Min after lift off
c Till SRS mode engaged
d A and B
Q 174 An ADV is triggered when
Ans a Takeoff inhibit is applicable
25

b Landing inhibit is applicable


c ECAM is in single display configuration
d C above along with associated key on ECP flashing
Q 175 The speed window on the FCU can display a speed range of
Ans a 80 to 400 Kts
b 100 to 400 Kts
c 100 to 399 Kts
d 80 to 399 Kts

Q 175 The V/S window on the FCU can display a vertical speed of
Ans a +/- 3000 Ft/min
b +/- 4000 Ft/min
c +/- 5000 Ft/min
d +/- 6000 Ft/min
Q 176 The FPA window on the FCU can display range of
Ans a +/- 10.5 Deg
b +/- 9.9 Deg
c +/- 9.5 Deg
d +/- 9.0 Deg
Q 177 The FAC automatically sets the rudder deflection limit at low speed setting (max
authorized deflection) when
Ans a Radio Alt becomes alive
b Approach phase activated
c Flaps move out of zero position
d Slats move out of zero position
Q 178 Auto Pilot will disengage if the pilot moves the rudder ___________ out of trim
Ans a 15 Deg b 10 Deg c 5 Deg d 3 Deg
Q 179 A message CHECK GW is displayed on the MCDU if the GW is calculated by
FMGC and FAC differ by
Ans a 10 Ton b 8 Ton c 7 Ton d 5 Ton
Q 180 The Alpha Speed Lock function of the Flt Controls inhibits flap retraction at high
angle of attack and low speeds
Ans a True b False
Q 181 The Alpha Speed Lock function becomes effective when the Alpha exceeds
__8.5_____ degrees or the airspeed drops below ____148______ Kts
Q 182 When Red MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY is displayed on PFD it means that the
Ans a Auto Pilot Off
b Alternate Law in force
c Pitch trim is in manual function
26

d Mechanical Back up is in force


Q 183 As a general rule normal law will be degraded
Ans a When one system failure occurs
b When Auto Thrust is off
c When 2 system failure occurs
d When Auto Pilot is off
Q 184 Econ speed range on the speed tape is available

Ans a During Climb


b During Cruise
c In open descend phase (Selected)
d In descend phase only (Managed)
Q 185 The armed mode on the FMA is colored
Ans (a) White (b) Green & White (c) Amber (d) Blue
Q 186 Which computer processes Red Warning
Ans (a) SDAC (b) FWC (c) DMC (d) FMA
Q 187 In normal operation RMP is dedicated to
Ans (a) HF 1 and HF 2 (b) VHF 1 (c) VHF 2 (d) All

Q 188 Tuning of VOR / ILS is provided by


Ans a Automatic tuning, Manual Tuning, Back Up Tuning
b Automatic tuning, Manual Tuning
c Automatic tuning, Backup Tuning
Q 189 For aircraft position determination aircraft uses data from
Ans a DME, VOR or ILS
b Clocks & Ground speed computation
c Three ADIRS
d A and C
Q 191 FMGC consists of following main components
Ans a 2 FMGC, 2 MCDU, 2 FAC, 2 FCU control panels
b 2 FMGC, 2 MCDU, 2 FAC, 1 FCU
c 2 FMGC, 2 MCDU, 2 FAC, 2 ECAMs
d 2 FMGC, 2 MCDU, 2 ECAM, 01 FCU
Q 192 AP 1 + 2 can only be engaged after
Ans a APP PHASE has been activated on MCDU
b LOC Pb has been pushed on the FCU
c LOC* has engaged
d APRR Pb has been pushed on the FCU
Q 193 You look on the ND lower left corner and see that a VOR is tuned and R is shown besides
it. This means
Ans a FMGC has rejected the tuned nav aid (VOR)
27

b The Nav signal of tuned VOR not reliable


c The nav aid is automatically tuned by FMGC and is reliable
d The Nav aid has been tuned from RMP
Q 194 What would be missing on the Capts PFD is IR 1 is failed
Ans a Attitude
b Altitude
c Speed d Attitude and Navigation
FLIGHT CONTROL
Q 195 How many flight control computers are there in A 320
Ans a 9
b 5
c 4
d 7
Q 196 Name 2 flight control surfaces which can also be mechanically be controlled
Ans a Elevator & Stablizer
b Rudder & Spoilers
c Rudder & Stablizer
d None of the above
Q 197 How many systems activate the rudder
Ans a One
b Two
c Three
Q 198 What is the function of FACs
Ans a Rudder and Yaw damping inputs
b Rudder and Yaw damping inputs , flight envelope and speed computation
c Rudder and Yaw damping inputs, flight envelope and speed computation with
Wind shear protection
d Rudder and Yaw damping inputs and wind shear protection
Q 199 Flight control surfaces controlled _____________ and actuated ______________
Q 200 In A-320 speed brakes extension is inhibited if flaps are in
Ans a Full position
b Config 3
c Config Full or Config 3
d Config 2 or above
Q 201 Each wing has _________ flap surfaces and _______________ slat surfaces
Q 202 The maximum deflection of aileron is
Ans a 25 Deg b 20 Deg c 15 Deg d 30 deg
Q 203 Maximum deflection of rudder trim is
Ans a +/- 25 Deg b +/- 20 Deg c +/- 15 Deg d +/- 30 Deg
Q 204 Aileron droop function is performed by
Ans a FAC b ELAC c SEC d None of the above
28

Q 205 If wing tip brakes are ON slats can still be operated


Ans a True b False
Q 206 What happens to the THS after landing
Ans a The trim is set to 2 Deg up
b The trim is automatically reset to zero
c The trim is set to 2 Deg down
d Stays at the last trim position
Q 207 When ever the flaps are extended the ailerons droop by
Ans a 2 Deg
b 4 Deg
c 5 Deg
d 7 Deg
Q 208 The PTU operates with Pb in Auto with a differential pressure of > 500 Psi between
Yellow and Green
Q 209 The green letter F on the speed tape denotes
Ans a Flaps are at position 1
b Flaps are at position 2/3
c Flaps are full
ANTI ICE
Q 210 Is probe Window heat available prior to engine start
Ans a No as the engines are off
b Yes the probe window heat Pb on the Anti Ice panel must b selected to Auto
c Yes the probe widow heat Pb on the Anti Ice panel must be selected to ON
Q 211 Which control surface are heated by Wing Anti Ice
Ans a Ailerons leading edge
b Aileron & Rudder
c All Slats
d Slats 3,4,5 on both sides
Q 212 What is the maximum speed for landing gear extension
a 320 Kts
b 180 Kts
c 280 Kts
d 250 Kts
Q 213 Engine Anti Ice should be used with visible moisture present and OAT (Ground) and TAT
(Flight) is
Ans a 15 Deg & above
b 12 Deg and below
c 18 deg and below
d 10 deg and below
29

Q 214 AOA, TAT, Pitot and Static Ports are heated


Ans a By Bleed Air
b Electrically
c A& C
d All of the above
Q 215 In air Anti Icing operations is conducted through
Ans a Electrical heating
b Hot air use
c Hot water spray
d All of the above
e A and B above
Q 216 On ground after Eng start, when the Wing Anti Ice Pb is used the Wing Anti Ice
system
Ans a Will not come ON, it will do so only after getting airborne
b The system will perform self test cycle of 60 sec
c Test cycle will only work if the PACK are put off
d The system will perform a test cycle of 30 Sec
Q 216 When the Wing Anti Ice is selected on
Ans a EPR limit is automatically reduced
b The idle EPR is automatically increased
c a & b above
d b and the EPR limit is automatically increased
Q 217 Wing Anti Ice was being used and the electrical supply to the system fails the valves
will automatically go into closed position
Ans a True b False
Q 218 The engine wing anti ice is controlled through
Ans a BMC-1
b BMC-2
c A & B above
d None of the above
Q 219 There are 2 Window Heat Computers (WHC). WHC-1 controls
Ans a Capt side wind shield and slide window
b Capt side windshield and FO side windows
c If WHC-1 fails, WHC-2 will control Capt side windshield & side window
d None of the above
Q 220 There are ______ probe heat computers
Ans a One c Three
b Two d Four
Q 221 Which control surfaces are heated by Wing Anti Ice Function
30

Ans a Ailerons
b Ailerons and Flaps
c All slats
d Slats 3,4 & 5
Q 222 Bleed air is used for Anti Icing of
Ans a Wing slats 3,4,5
b Engine Nacelle

PRESSURIZATION

Q 223 With both BELOW and Extract Pb in Override what are the position of the inlet and
Extract valves
Ans a Inlet valve opens and extract valve closes
b Inlet valve opens and Extract valve Opens
c Inlet valve closes and extract valve Opens
Q 224 APU Bleed may be used for all of the following except
Ans a Engine Starting
b PACK Operation
c Wing Anti Ice
Q 225 With PACK Controller Primary & Secondary Failure
Ana a Packoutlet temp is controlled beween 5 Deg and 30 Deg by the Anti Ice valve
b Pack closes automatically
c Both Pack deliver fixed temp 20 Deg for Pack 1 and 10 Deg for Pack 2
Q 226 Ram air should be used for fresh air
Ans a Any Time
b Only when the differential Press is < the 1PSI
c When the Pressure is less < the 1 PSI
d Only after outflow valve is fully open
Q 227 What is the maximum normal cabin pressure altitude
Ans a 8000 Ft
b 9550 Ft
c 14000 Ft
Q 228 Ram Air Turbine (RAT) can be deployed in following ways
Ans a
b
c

Q 229 In auto position the cabin differential pressure is normally controlled by


31

Ans a The safety valve


b The inlet valve
c The extract valve
d The outflow valve
Q 229 The safety valve is
a Controlled with MAN V/S CTL switch
b Controlled with the Mode selector Pb
c Is fully automatic and cannot be controlled manually
d Controlled by the ditching Pb
Q 230 The maximum normal cabin altitude is
Ans a 7000 Ft
b 8000 Ft
c 8500 Ft
d 9000 Ft
Q 231 By moving the manual V/S CTL to the up position
Ans a The cabin altitude is increased due to opening of of outflow valve
b The cabin altitude is decreased due to opening of outflow valve
c The cabin altitude is increased due to closing of the outflow valve
d The cabin altitude is decreased due to closing of outflow valve
Q 232 Pack will automatically close in case of PACK overheating
Ans a True b False
Q 233 On ground using APU Bleed for the operation of Packs you select the Pack to Lo
Ans a The system will deliver lo flow of air in the cockpit and cabin
b The system will deliver Normal flow of air in the cockpit and cabin
c The system will deliver High Flow of air in the cockpit and cabin
d None of the above
Q 234 In the pressurization system there are/is One Outflow valve and one safety valve
Q 234 One of the ways to close the outflow valve is to
Ans a Push the ram air Pb on the Air Cond panel
b Push the ditching Pb on the cabin Press panel
c Put No 2 Eng bleed Pb on the Air Cond panel to on
d Move the Cross bleed selector to shut on the Air Cond panel
Q 235 In A 320 aircraft only the fwd cargo compartment is --------
Ans a True b False
b The maximum positive differential pressure is
a + 7.5 psi
b + 8.0 psi
c + 8.5 psi
d 8.6 psi
Q 236 The maximum negative pressure differential is
Ans a - 1.0 psi
32

b - 0.1 psi
c - 0.5 psi
d - 1.6 psi
Q 237 What temp corresponds to cold, normal and hot on the zone temp in degrees
Ans a 18,24,35
b 10,20,30
c 18,24,30
d 18,26,36
Q 238 Temp of each zone of the aircraft is optimized by
Ans a Hot air valve
b Zone control valve
c Pack flow valve
d Trim air valve
Q 239 Under what conditions should the pack flow controller be set to low
Ans a With low passenger load , to reduce bleed air demand and to improve fuel
efficiency
b With low passenger load to increase cabin temp
c With high passenger load to reduce cabin temperature
d In cold conditions to achieve a higher cabin temperature range
Q 240 Safety valve in the pressurization syatem protects the aircraft against
Ans a Excessive cabin V/S in manual mode
b Excessive cabin differential pressure
c Excessive cabin altitude
d Water ingress in case of ditching
Q 241 You have manually selected the landing elevation , the cabin altitude is controlled by
Ans a Manually through the MAN V/S control
b Automatically through the outflow valve
c Through the safety valve
d Manually through the LDG ELEV selector
Q 242 The aft cargo hold of 320 is not pressurized
Ans a True b False
Q 243 In case of failure of Primary and Secondary channel Pack controller
Ans a Pack outlet temp is controlled to between 5 and 30 deg ------- anti ice valve ???
b Pack is closed
c Pack delivers a fixed temp of 20 degrees

ENGINE
Q 244 FADEC will abort a start when
Ans a Hot Start
33

b Stalled Star
c No Ignition
d All of the above
Q 245 Each engine has 2 number of fire extinguishing bottles 1 Fire extinguishing button
Q 246 During start the FADEC controls
Ans a The start valve igniter and fuel flow
b The start valve HP and LP fuel valves
c The igniter and fuel flow
d The start valves , igniter, HP & LP fuel valves and fuel flow
Q 247 The FADEC will abort a start when
Ans a Hung start / Low air pressure / No N1 rotation / EGT overlimit
b Stalled start
c No ignition / A+ B
Q 248 During takeoff roll SRS mode does not engage the most likely reason for this is
Ans a Flex temperature was not entered in the Perf page of MCDU
b V 2 was not entered in the Perf page of MCDU
c VR was not entered in the Perf page of MCDU
d b & c above
Q 249 What is the active range of the A/THR
Ans a Just above IDLE to CL detent (2 Eng)
b Just above IDLE to the MCT detent (Single Eng)
c Above Idle to TOGA
d A & B are correct
Q 250 When manual Engine start is recommended
Ans a Degraded bleed performance
b High start air pressure
c Engine stall, Engine EGT over limit, Low Start Air Pressure
d All of the above
Q 251 For starter limitation a maximum of ______ consecutive starts cycle are allowed. Thatr is
______ cycle of ______ min and 3rd cycle of _______ Min. The pause between two cycles must
be ______ Secs. After these cycles a cooling period of _______ minutes is required

Q 252 The minimum oil quantity for dispatch is


Ans a 9 Quartz
b 10 Quartz
c 11 Qauartz
d 13 Quartz
Q 253 What are the functions of FADEC control
Ans a Fuel metering
b Eng limits based on Thrust lever angle
34

c Start sequencing and provides engine indications and thrust limit display on
E/WD
d All of the above
Q 254 FADEC will abort start when
Ans a Hot start
b Stalled Start
c No Ignition
d All of the above
Q 255 During single engine after takeoff once in clean configuration the climb is to be initiated
at
Ans a Green Dot
b 250 Kts
c 200 Kts
d 300 Kts
Q 256 During SE after Takeoff Pb to level off is to be initiated at
Ans a 1000 AGL
b 1500 Ft AGL
c 2500 Ft AGL
d 500 Ft AGL
FIRE PROTECTION
Q 257 Smoke given below will not be detected by the ECAM
Ans a Lavatory Smoke
b Cargo Smoke
c Cabin Smoke
d Avionics smoke
Q 258 Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation duct can be confirmed by Emerg Elect Panel
Pb switch
Q 259 There are two smoke detectors in the aft cargo compartment and ------- smoke detectors
in the forward cargo compartment
Q 260 By pushing system protects the FWD & Aft cargo compartment -------- fire bottles
Q 261 Fire bottles for both the forawd and aft compartment ----- bottles for FWD and one for
AFT compartment ------ bottles for FWD and two bottles for AFT compartment ---- each
FWD and AFT compartment

LIMITATIONS
Q 262 What is the Maximum demonstrated Cross Wind component for Takeoff and Landing
with gust included
Ans a 45 Kts
35

b 29 Kts
c 38 Kts
d 30 Kts
Q 263 What is the maximum speed for landing gear extension
a 320 Kts
b 180 Kts
c 280 Kts
d 250 Kts
Q 264 What is the Max time limit for TOGA Power setting when used
Ans a 5 Min (Both Eng), 10 Min (SE)
b 10 Min for both & SE
c 5 Min SE & Both Eng
d Between 5 & 15 Min
Q 265 What are the load factor limitations
Ans a. +2.5 gs & -1 G in clean +2 and Zero g with slats/flaps
b +2.0 Gs & -1.5 Gs in clean +1.0 gs with slats/flaps
c + 2.0 g & - 1.0 gs in clean + 2.0 gs and zero gs with slats/flaps
d a & c are correct
Q 266 Following stand for
Ans a ISIS
b EFIS
c ELAC
d SFCC
e FWC
Q 267 Which system controls landing gear unit
Ans a BSCU
b LGCIU
c BCL
d ELAC
Q268 Wing lights when selected on lights up
Ans a Wing Leading edge
b Engine air intake
c Wing upper surface to check icing
d All of the above
e Only A and B
Q 269 Nav Logo switch when selected On lights up company logo on the vertical stabilizer
only when
Ans a Main gear strut are compressed
b Beacon is ON
c Flaps are extended by at least 15 Deg
36

d All of the above


e A or C above
Q 270 The proximity Emergency escape path marking on the cabinf floor are powered by
internal batteries which can remain lit for at least
Ans a 15 Min b 13 Min c 12 Min d 10 Min

Q 271 With the strobe light switch in Auto the strobe light will come automatically when
Ans a Landing gears are fully retracted
b Slats and flaps are fully retracted
c Main gears are fully retracted
d Main strut is not compressed
e A and C above
Q 272 What is the maximum speed for opening of cockpit window
Ans a 200 Kts
b 230 Kts
c 180 Kts
d 150 Kts
Q 273 Max altitude for APU Bleed
Ans (a) 20,000 Ft (b) 25,000 Ft (c) 39,000 Ft
Q 274 A vertical arrow on the right side of white diamond of a TCAS traffic is generated only
when the ROC is more then
Ans a 200 Ft/min b 300 Ft/min (c) 400 Ft/min (d) 500 Ft/min