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1. 1--Hydroxylase activity is increased in Hypocalcemia and 12. Are sexually abused Yes, by three to four times. Having
response to what two physiologic hypophosphatemia females more likely to multiple sexual partners, being
states? (hint: think of vitamin D activity) have learning overweight, and pelvic pain and/or
2. Abs to what hepatitis B Ag provide Abs to HBsAg disabilities than the inflammatory disorders are also
immunity? general population? likely to be seen in sexually abused
3. According to Freud, what facet of the Superego
psyche represents the internalized 13. Are the following Negative
ideals and values of one's parents? conditions associated
with a negative or
4. After a longstanding left-to-right shunt Eisenmenger's positive nitrogen
reverses, causing cyanosis, and syndrome balance? AA
becomes a right-to-left shunt, what is it deficiency
14. Are the following Positive
5. After fertilization, what cells of the Theca cells conditions associated
corpus luteum Secrete estrogen? secrete estrogen. with a negative or
After fertilization positive nitrogen
the theca cells balance? Growth
form from the
theca interna. 15. Are the following Negative
conditions associated
6. After fertilization, what cells of the Granulose cells with a negative or
corpus luteum Secrete progesterone? secrete positive nitrogen
progesterone. balance? Infection
After fertilization
the granulose cells 16. Are the following Negative
form from conditions associated
follicular cells. with a negative or
positive nitrogen
7. All AAs have titration plateaus at what pH of 2 and 9 balance?
pH values? Kwashiorkor
8. All primary oocytes in females are They are all 17. Are the following Positive
formed by what age? formed by the fifth conditions associated
month of fetal life. with a negative or
9. Anhedonia, lack of motivation, feelings Unipolar disorder positive nitrogen
of worthlessness, decreased sex drive, (major depression) balance? Pregnancy
insomnia, and recurrent thoughts for at 18. Are the following Positive
least 2 weeks, representing a change conditions associated
from previous level of function, with a negative or
describes what disorder? positive nitrogen
10. Are antibiotics helpful in treating a No. Prions are balance? Recovery
disease caused by a prion? infectious proteins, from injury
so antibiotics are 19. Are the following Negative
useless. conditions associated
11. Are more Abs produced in a primary or More Ab is with a negative or
a secondary immune response? produced in less positive nitrogen
time in a balance? Starvation
secondary immune 20. Are the following Negative
response (shorter conditions associated
lag period). with a negative or
positive nitrogen
Uncontrolled DM
21. Are the JG cells of the Afferent arteriole 31. At what age do children begin to At 8 to 9 years of age.
nephron a part of the understand the irreversibility of Prior to this age they
afferent or efferent death? view death as a form
arteriole? of punishment.
22. Are the quadrate and Functionally they are part of the 32. At what age does a child develop At birth (reflex)
caudate lobes of the left lobe of the liver because they Endogenous smile?
liver functionally part receive their blood supply from 33. At what age does a child develop 8 weeks (response to
of the left or right the left hepatic artery. Exogenous smile? a face)
lobe? Anatomically they are considered
part of the right lobe of the liver. 34. At what age does a child develop 12 to 16 weeks (in
Preferential smile? response to mother's
23. Are white rami White rami are preganglionic face)
preganglionic or fibers, whereas grey rami are
postganglionic fibers? postganglionic fibers. 35. At what age does IQ stabilize? From age 5 onward IQ
24. Aroused EEG pattern REM sleep. Remember, awake
36. At what point does the axillary When it crosses the
(fast low voltage and brain in a sleeping body.
desynchronization), artery become the brachial artery? teres major
saccadic eye 37. At what stage of B-cell Mature B cell; the
movements, ability to development can IgM or IgD be memory B cell can
dream, and sexual expressed on the cell surface? have IgG, IgA, or IgE
arousal are all on its surface.
associated with what 38. At what stage of cognitive Formal operations (> 12
general pattern of development (according to Piaget) years)
sleep? do children Have abstract
25. Arrange the following During a lumbar puncture the thinking?
layers in the correct needle passes through the 39. At what stage of cognitive Preoperational (2-6
sequence through interlaminar space in the midline development (according to Piaget) years)
which a needle must of L3-L4, with the tip of the iliac do children Lack law of
pass in a lumbar crest in the flexed position as the conservation and be egocentric?
puncture. Skin landmark. Order of puncture: 1.
40. At what stage of cognitive Concrete operations
Subarachnoid space Skin 2. Superficial fascia 3. Deep
development (according to Piaget) (6-12 years)
Interspinous ligament fascia 4. Supraspinous ligament 5.
do children See death as
Dura mater Deep Interspinous ligament 6.
fascia Epidural space Interlaminar space 7. Epidural
Superficial fascia space 8. Dura mater 9. Arachnoid 41. At what stage of psychosexual Phallic stage (4-6
Interlaminar space mater 10. Subarachnoid space. development (according to Freud) years)
Supraspinous ligament (They ask this in some variation do children fear castration?
Arachnoid mater every year, so know it.) 42. At what stage of sleep is GH output Stage 4
26. As what AAs do Alanine and glutamine elevated?
muscles send nitrogen 43. At what three sites can the HMP 1. Fructose-6-
to the liver? shunt enter into glycolysis? phosphate 2. Glucose-
27. As what compound do Citrate, via the citrate shuttle 6-phosphate 3.
the carbons for fatty Glyceraldehyde-3-
acid synthesis leave the phosphate
mitochondria? 44. At what vertebral level does the C4 (the upper border
28. At ovulation, in what Metaphase II common carotid artery bifurcate? of the thyroid
stage of meiosis II is the cartilage)
secondary oocyte 45. At what vertebral level does the T4 vertebral level
arrested? trachea bifurcate? posteriorly and
29. At the end of each Acetyl CoA, FADH2, and NADH anteriorly at the
round of -oxidation, sternal angle (angle of
what is released? Louis).
30. At the level of rib 6, the Musculophrenic and superior 46. At what vertebral levels does the It both begins and
internal thoracic artery epigastric arteries aortic arch begin and end? ends at T4 (sternal
divides into what two angle [of Louis]).
47. Based on operant conditioning, Positive reinforcement 54. By asking a When a patient closes the eyes while
what type of reinforcement is patient to close standing with feet together, the visual and
described when Adding a the eyes while cerebellar components of proprioception
stimulus reinforces a behavior? standing with are removed, so you are testing the dorsal
48. Based on operant conditioning, Punishment feet together, columns. Swaying with eyes closed is a
what type of reinforcement is what two positive Romberg's sign indicating a lesion
described when Adding a pathways are in the dorsal columns. The cold water
stimulus stops a behavior? you eliminating caloric test mimics a brainstem lesion by
from inhibiting the normal reflex response.
49. Based on operant conditioning, Negative reinforcement proprioception? (COWS: Cold Opposite Warm Same)
what type of reinforcement is
described when Removing a 55. By what age 3 years old
stimulus reinforces a behavior? should children
be able to draw
50. Based on operant conditioning, Extinction the following
what type of reinforcement is figures? Circle
described when Removing a
stimulus stops a behavior? 56. By what age 4 years old
should children
51. Based on the onset of the The onset of symptoms be able to draw
symptoms, how are bacterial for Neisseria gonorrhea the following
conjunctivitis from Neisseria conjunctivitis is 2 to 5 days, figures? Cross
and Chlamydia differentiated? whereas onset of
symptoms for Chlamydia 57. By what age 7 years old
trachomatis is 5 to 10 days. should children
be able to draw
52. Blood and its vessels form Third week; they are the following
during what embryonic week? derived from the wall of figures?
the yolk sac. Diamond
53. Both submandibular and Submandibular gland 58. By what age 4.5 years old (Alphabetic order except
sublingual glands are produces mainly serous should children with a diamond last: circle, cross,
innervated by CN VII (facial) and the sublingual gland be able to draw rectangle, square, triangle)
and produce mucous and produces mainly mucous the following
serous secretions. Which one secretions. figures?
mainly produces serous Rectangle
59. By what age 5 years old
should children
be able to draw
the following
60. By what age 6 years old
should children
be able to draw
the following
61. By which Opsonization
process do Abs
more easily
ingested via
62. Can advance Yes
directives be
63. Can a patient refuse life-saving Yes. (Remember, 74. Craniopharyngiomas are Rathke's pouch; they can
treatment for religious reasons? Jehovah's witnesses remnants of what? result in compression of the
refuse blood optic chiasm.
transfusions.) 75. Cri-du-chat syndrome results Chromosome 5
64. Can a physician commit a patient? NO!! Remember, only in a terminal deletion of the
a judge can commit a short arm of what
patient. A physician chromosome?
can detain a patient 76. Damage to what nerve will Long thoracic nerve. To
(maximum is for 48 give you winged scapula? avoid confusing long
hours). thoracic nerve and lateral
65. Can committed mentally ill Yes. The only civil thoracic artery: long has an n
patients refuse medical treatment? liberty they lose is the for nerve; lateral has an a
freedom to come and for artery.
go as they please. 77. Deficiencies in what enzyme -1, 6 transferase
66. Can incidence, prevalence, and Case control studies result in insoluble glycogen
cause and effect be assessed in cannot assess synthesis formation?
Case control studies? incidence or 78. Describe the loss for each of Ipsilateral loss below the
prevalence, but they the following in a level of the lesion
can determine causal hemisection of the spinal
relationships. cord. (Brown-Sequard
67. Can incidence, prevalence, and Cohort studies syndrome) Corticospinal
cause and effect be assessed in determine incidence tract?
Cohort studies? and causality, not 79. Describe the loss for each of Ipsilateral loss at and below
prevalence. the following in a the level of the lesion
68. Can incidence, prevalence, and Cross-sectional studies hemisection of the spinal
cause and effect be assessed in determine prevalence, cord. (Brown-Sequard
Cross-sectional studies? not incidence or cause syndrome) Dorsal column
and effect. tract?
69. Can parents withhold treatment Yes, as long the illness 80. Describe the loss for each of Ipsilateral flaccid paralysis
from their children? does not threaten limb the following in a
or life. If illness is hemisection of the spinal
critical or an cord. (Brown-Sequard
emergency, treat the syndrome) LMN?
child. 81. Describe the loss for each of Contralateral loss below and
70. Clarke's nucleus is the second Dorsal spinocerebellar the following in a bilateral loss at the level of
ascending sensory neuron of which tract; the accessory hemisection of the spinal the lesion
spinocerebellar tract? cuneate nucleus is the cord. (Brown-Sequard
second nucleus for the syndrome) Spinothalamic
cuneocerebellar tract. tract?
71. Clue cells are associated with Gardnerella vaginalis 82. Describe the organism based Pneumococcus
which organism that causes on the following information: (Streptococcus pneumoniae)
vaginal discharge? Alpha-Hemolytic
72. A complete opposite expression of Reaction formation Streptococcus; lysed by bile;
your inward feeling (e.g., arguing sensitive to Optochin
all the time with someone you are 83. Describe the organism based Streptococcus viridans
attracted to when your feelings on the following information:
are not known) Alpha-hemolytic
73. Contracting both medial rectus Convergence Streptococcus; not lysed by
muscles simultaneously makes the bile; not sensitive to
images of near objects remain on Optochin
the same part of the retina. What
term describes this process?
84. Describe the organism Streptococcus agalactiae 96. Do genomic or cDNA Genomic libraries are made
based on the following libraries contain introns, from nuclear DNA, are
information: Beta- exons, promoters, fragmented, and contain all
Hemolytic Streptococcus; enhancers, and are they sequences found in the
positive cAMP test; fragmented? particular genome copied.
hydrolyzes hippurate 97. Do newborns have a Moving objects, along with
85. Describe the organism Streptococcus pyogenes preference for still or large bright objects with
based on the following moving objects? curves and complex designs.
information: Beta- 98. Do the duct or the acini Duct cells secrete HCO3-,
hemolytic Streptococcus cells of the pancreas electrolytes, and water. The
sensitive to bacitracin secrete HCO3-? acini secrete the enzymes
86. Development of what T cell CD4+T cells necessary for carbohydrate,
line follows low affinity for nucleic acid, protein cleavage,
self-MHC class II Ags in the and emulsification of fats.
thymus? 99. The DSM-IV-TR is scored Axis I
87. DNA replication occurs S phase on the basis of five axes of
during what phase of the diagnosis. In what axis
cell cycle? would you place Clinical
88. Do alpha-or gamma-motor alpha-Motor neurons disorders (e.g.,
neurons innervate innervate extrafusal muscle schizophrenia)?
extrafusal muscle fibers? fibers (a motor unit), whereas 100. The DSM-IV-TR is scored Axis V
gamma-motor neurons on the basis of five axes of
innervate intrafusal muscle diagnosis. In what axis
fibers. would you place Global
89. Does alcoholism increase Yes. It increases the rate of assessment of function?
the rate of suicide? suicide to nearly 50 times that 101. The DSM-IV-TR is scored Axis III
of the general population. on the basis of five axes of
90. Does a saturated fatty acid No, unsaturated fatty acids diagnosis. In what axis
have double bonds? have double bonds. would you place Medical
or physical ailments?
91. Does being a female Being a female physician
physician increase or increases the risk of suicide 102. The DSM-IV-TR is scored Axis II
decrease the risk of nearly four times the general on the basis of five axes of
suicide? population. diagnosis. In what axis
would you place
92. Does light or darkness Light regulates the activity of Personality and mental
regulate the pineal gland? the pineal gland via the disorders?
retinal-suprachiasmatic- pineal
pathway. 103. The DSM-IV-TR is scored Axis IV
on the basis of five axes of
93. Does REM deprivation No, but it does interfere with diagnosis. In what axis
interfere with performance performing complex tasks and would you place
on simple tasks? decreases attention to detail. Psychosocial and
(Be careful post call!) environmental problems
94. Does the direct or indirect Although both pathways are (stressors)?
basal ganglia pathway associated with disinhibition, 104. The duodenal-jejunal Ligament of Treitz
result in a decreased level the indirect basal ganglia flexure is suspended from
of cortical excitation? pathway is associated with a the posterior abdominal
decreased level of cortical wall by what?
105. During a prolonged fast, Fatty acids cannot cross the
95. Does the zygote divide The zygote divides mitotically; why is the brain unable to blood-brain barrier;
mitotically or meiotically? only germ cells divide use fatty acids? therefore, they cannot be
meiotically. used as an energy source.
106. During what embryonic Third week
week does the
intraembryonic coelom
107. During what embryonic week do Third week 121. From what embryonic structure are the Bulbus cordis
somites begin to form? following structures derived? The aortic
108. During what stage of B-cell Immature B cells vestibule and the conus arteriosus
development is IgM first seen on the 122. From what embryonic structure are the Truncus
surface? following structures derived? The arteriosus
109. Fact without feeling (la belle Isolation of affect ascending aorta and the pulmonary trunk
indiffrence) 123. From what embryonic structure are the Primitive atrium
110. Failure to accurately recall the past Recall bias. These following structures derived? The right
leads to what form of bias? problems arise in and left atria
retrospective 124. From what embryonic structure are the Primitive
studies. following structures derived? The right ventricle
111. The fibers of nucleus gracilis and VPL nucleus sends and left ventricles
nucleus cuneatus cross at the its fibers to synapse 125. From what embryonic structure are the Sinus venosus
medullary decussation and ascend in the postcentral following structures derived? The sinus
contralateral to what thalamic relay gyrus of the parietal venarum, coronary sinus, and the oblique
nucleus? lobe. vein of the left atrium
112. Fixing impulses by acting out the Undoing 126. From what pharyngeal groove is the First
opposite of an unacceptable external auditory meatus derived? pharyngeal
behavior groove; all
113. Fracture of the fibular neck, resulting Common peroneal others
in foot drop, is an injury of what nerve degenerate.
nerve? 127. From what pharyngeal pouch is the Third M PITS
114. From what aortic arch are the Fourth MS CARD is following structure derived? Inferior for pharyngeal
following structures derived? Arch my mnemonic for parathyroid gland and thymus pouch
of the aorta and right subclavian the aortic arch derivatives
artery derivatives 128. From what pharyngeal pouch is the First M PITS for
115. From what aortic arch are the Third aortic arch MS following structure derived? Middle ear pharyngeal
following structures derived? CARD is my pouch
Common and internal carotid arteries mnemonic for the derivatives
aortic arch 129. From what pharyngeal pouch is the Second M PITS
derivatives following structure derived? Palatine for pharyngeal
116. From what aortic arch are the Fifth MS CARD is my tonsil pouch
following structures derived? mnemonic for the derivatives
Degenerates aortic arch 130. From what pharyngeal pouch is the Fourth M PITS
derivatives following structure derived? Superior for pharyngeal
117. From what aortic arch are the First MS CARD is my parathyroid gland and ultimobranchial pouch
following structures derived? mnemonic for the body of the thyroid derivatives
Maxillary artery aortic arch 131. From where is the energy for -Oxidation of
derivatives gluconeogenesis derived? fatty acids
118. From what aortic arch are the Sixth MS CARD is 132. From which two substances are Diacylglycerols
following structures derived? Right my mnemonic for phospholipids made? and
and left pulmonary arteries and the the aortic arch phosphatidic
ductus arteriosus derivatives acid
119. From what aortic arch are the Second MS CARD is 133. Gas gangrene is associated with which Clostridium
following structures derived? my mnemonic for Clostridium species? perfrigens
Stapes artery the aortic arch 134. HIV's capsid, core nucleocapsid, and gag gene
derivatives matrix proteins are products of what
120. From what do catalase, superoxide Production of structural gene?
dismutase, and glutathione oxygen free radicals
peroxidase defend the cell?
135. How can a genetic Uracil and orotic acid levels increase 144. How is sleep affected Decreased REM sleep and REM
deficiency of with ornithine transcarbamoylase in a person with alcohol rebound during withdrawal
carbamoyl deficiency and are normal in intoxication?
phosphate carbamoyl phosphate synthetase 145. How many acetyl CoAs 2 acetyl CoA per glucose,
synthetase be deficiency. per glucose enter into producing 12 ATPs per acetyl
differentiated from the TCA cycle? CoA, resulting in a total of 24
an ornithine ATPs produced from glucose (via
transcarbamoylase acetyl CoA) enter the TCA cycle
146. How many ATPs are 12 ATPs per acetyl CoA that enter
136. How can you Long-term memory is impaired in generated per acetyl the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle
differentiate hippocampal lesions; it is spared in coenzyme A (CoA)? (Krebs cycle)
between a medial medial temporal lobe lesions.
temporal lobe and 147. How many ATPs are 2 ATPs by oxidative
a hippocampal produced from phosphorylation
lesion based on cytoplasmic NADH
memory oxidation using the
impairment? glycerol phosphate
137. How can you Vitamin K deficiency has normal
differentiate bleeding time and increased PT, and 148. How many ATPs are 3 ATPs by oxidative
vitamin K from vitamin C deficiency has increased produced from phosphorylation
vitamin C bleeding time and normal PT. cytoplasmic NADH
deficiency by oxidation using the
bleeding time and malate shuttle?
PT levels? 149. How many ATPs per 2 ATPs, because RBCs use only
138. How do delusions, Hallucinations are sensory impressions glucose are generated anaerobic metabolism.
illusions, and (without a stimulus); illusions are from glycolysis in
hallucinations misperceptions of real stimuli; and RBCs?
differ? delusions are false beliefs that are not 150. How many ATPs per 38 ATPs if aerobic, 2 ATPs if
shared by the culture. glucose are generated anaerobic (36 ATPs[malate
139. How does By causing rebound insomnia and in glycolysis? shuttle] + 4 ATPs[Glycolysis] - 2
ceasation of decrease in REM sleep ATPs[phosphorylate glucose] = 38
barbiturate use ATPs)
affect sleep? 151. How many ATPs per 6 ATPs (remember 2 pyruvates
140. How does L- It increases REM and total sleep time. glucose are produced per glucose are produced, and 2
tryptophan affect by pyruvate NADHs result from production of
sleep? dehydrogenase? acetyl CoA, so 6 ATPs)

141. How do the Normally corticobulbar fiber 152. How many attacks are Need 3 panic attacks over 3
corticobulbar innervation of the CNs is bilateral (the needed over how much weeks (remember, they come out
fibres of CN VII LMN receives information from both time before panic of the blue.)
differ from the rest the left and right cerebral cortex), but disorder is diagnosed?
of the CNs? with CN VII the LMN of the upper face 153. How many base pairs There are two bacterial promoter
receives bilateral input but the lower upstream is the regions upstream. The TATA box
facial LMNs receive only contralateral prokaryotic TATA box is - 10 base pairs upstream, and
input. ------------------------------------ promoter? the -35 promoter site is self-
------------------------------------------- explanatory.
- 154. How many bases There are two eukaryotic
142. How early can a hCG can be detected in the blood by upstream is the upstream promoters. The TATA
pregnancy be day 8 and in the urine by day 10. eukaryotic TATA box box is -25 base pairs upstream; the
detected by hCG promoter? CAAT box is -75 bases upstream.
assays in the 155. How many There are 10 bronchopulmonary
blood? In urine? bronchopulmonary segments on the right and 8 on
143. How far below At least 15% segments are on the the left.
ideal body weight right lung? Left lung?
are patients with
anorexia nervosa?
156. How many codons code for 61 codons code for AAs 172. How many strains of The vaccine contains 23 capsular
AAs? How many for and 3 codons (UAA, UGA, Pneumococcus capsular polysaccharides.
termination of translation? UAG) code for the polysaccharides are
termination of translation. present in the vaccine?
157. How many covalent bonds per None. Denaturation of 173. If a lesion occurs before Preoptic area of the
purine-pyrimidine base pairing dsDNA breaks hydrogen the onset of puberty and hypothalamus; if the lesion
are broken during bonds, not covalent bonds. arrests sexual occurs after puberty,
denaturation of dsDNA? development, what area amenorrhea or impotence will
158. How many days after the LH One day after the LH of the hypothalamus is be seen.
surge is ovulation? surge and 2 days after the affected?
estrogen peak. 174. If a patient asks you a Absolutely not! Answer any
159. How many high-energy bonds 2 ATPs, via the amino acyl question and you do not question you are asked.
are used to activate an AA? tRNA synthase enzyme know the answer, do you
tell a white lie or simply
160. How many high-energy bonds Four high energy bonds, not respond?
does the cycle of elongation two from ATP in AA
cost? activation and two from 175. If a patient cannot pay, No, you never refuse to treat a
GTP can you refuse services? patient simply because he or she
can't pay. You are a patient
161. How many hydrogen bonds A-T are linked by 2 advocate.
link A-T? C-G? hydrogen bonds, C-G by 3
hydrogen bonds. 176. If a patient with a The fast component is directed
cerebellar lesion has toward the affected side of a
162. How many kilocalories per 9 kcal/g from fat nystagmus, which way is cerebellar lesion.
gram are produced from the metabolism; 4 kcal/g from the fast component
degradation of fat? CHO? both CHO and protein directed, toward or
Protein? metabolism away from the lesion?
163. How many mature sperm are Four 177. If a sample of DNA has Solved as 30% T + 30% A = 60%;
produced by one type B 30% T, what is the therefore, C + G = 40%; then C =
spermatogonium? percent of C? 20% and G = 20% (example of
164. How many NADPHs are used 2 NADPHs per acetyl CoA Chargaff's rule)
per addition of acetyl CoA into 178. If a virus has positive Positive sense RNA can be used
a fatty acid chain? sense RNA, can it be as mRNA. Negative sense RNA
165. How many oogonia are None; they are not formed used as mRNA or is a cannot be used as mRNA; it
present at birth? until a girl reaches puberty. template needed? requires special RNA-dependent
166. How many pairs of spinal Eight pairs through seven RNA polymerases.
nerves are associated with cervical vertebrae. 179. If inserting a needle to The superior border of the
Cervical vertebrae? Totaling 31 pairs of spinal perform a pleural tap or inferior intercostal rib is your
nerves. insertion of a chest tube, landmark for a pleural tap
167. How many pairs of spinal One pair with three to five do you use the inferior because along the inferior
nerves are associated with coccygeal vertebrae. or the superior border of border of each rib is the
Coccygeal vertebrae? Totaling 31 pairs of spinal a rib as your landmark? neurovascular bundle, and you
nerves. Why? would risk injury if you went
below the rib.
168. How many pairs of spinal Five pairs through five
nerves are associated with lumbar vertebrae. Totaling 180. If no fertilization occurs, 12 days after ovulation
Lumbar vertebrae? 31 pairs of spinal nerves. how many days after
ovulation does the
169. How many pairs of spinal Five pairs through five
corpus luteum begin to
nerves are associated with sacral vertebrae. Totaling
Sacral vertebrae? 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
181. If one event precludes Addition (They are mutually
170. How many pairs of spinal Twelve pairs through
another event, their exclusive.)
nerves are associated with twelve thoracic vertebrae.
probabilities are
Thoracic vertebrae? Totaling 31 pairs of spinal
combined by what
171. How many pairs of spinal 31 pairs
nerves exit from the spinal
182. If the family member of a For the USMLE Step 1 the 193. In a topographical arrangement Lateral part of the
patient asked you to answer is no, but if the of the cerebellar homunculus hemispheres
withhold information, would information would do more map, what area or lobe Is
you? harm than good, withhold. involved in motor planning?
This is very rare but it does 194. In biostatistics, what are the three 1. Large sample size 2.
occur. criteria required to increase Large effect size 3.
183. If the occurrence of one Since they are independent power? Type I error is greater
event had nothing to do events, their probabilities 195. Increased levels of what Increased GABA levels
with the occurrence of would be multiplied. neurotransmitter, in the decrease the likelihood
another event, how do you hippocampus, decrease the of learned
combine their likelihood of learned helplessness.
probabilities? helplessness?
184. If the pH is more acidic than When the pH is more acidic 196. Increased self-esteem, flight of Bipolar disorder
the pI, does the protein than the pI, it has a net ideas, decreased sleep, increased (manic-depressive
carry a net positive or net positive charge, and when the libido, weight loss, and erratic disorder)
negative charge? pH is more basic than the pI, it behavior are all symptoms of
has a net negative charge. what disorder?
185. If the P value is less than or Reject it 197. In eukaryotes, what transcription Transcription factor IID
equal to .05, what do you factor binds to the TATA box
do to the null hypothesis? before RNA polymerase II can
186. If you report a suspected Yes. This is done to help bind?
case of child abuse and are prevent underreporting out of 198. The inferior mesenteric artery The splenic vein
wrong, are you protected fear of lawsuit. Remember drains into it.
from legal liability? that it is your duty to protect
the child first, not worry about 199. In men, at what embryonic week Week four, and they
legal responsibility. do the primordial germ cells remain dormant there
migrate to the indifferent gonad? until puberty.
187. In a diabetic patient, to Sorbitol (resulting in
what does aldose cataracts) 200. In MHC class II molecules, what Invariant chain. This is
reductase convert glucose? chain blocks access to the essential because the
peptide-binding groove during CD4 T cells have
188. In an adult, where does the The conus medullaris transportation within the cell, antigen receptors only
spinal cord terminate and terminates at the level of the ensuring that the MHC class II- for peptides bound to
what is it called? second lumbar vertebra. peptide complex is transported the MHC II molecule.
189. In a negatively skewed Yes. In a negatively skewed to the surface? (MHC restriction)
curve is the mean greater distribution the mean is 201. In Parkinson's disease, what area Substantia nigra
than the mode? greater than the median is of the basal ganglia has a
greater than the mode. decreased amount of dopamine?
190. In a topographical Flocculonodular lobe (one of 202. In prokaryotes, what is the name Shine-Dalgarno
arrangement of the my favorite words in all of of the RNA sequence that sequence
cerebellar homunculus medicine!) ribosomes bind to so translation
map, what area or lobe can occur?
Controls balance and eye
movements? 203. In prokaryotes, what is the term Operon
for a set of structural genes that
191. In a topographical Intermediate part of the code for a select group of
arrangement of the hemispheres proteins and the regulatory
cerebellar homunculus elements required for the
map, what area or lobe expression of such gene?
Controls distal
musculature? 204. In regard to motor development Palms-up before
during infancy, choose the motor palms-down maneuvers
192. In a topographical The vermis response that happens first.
arrangement of the Palms up or down
cerebellar homunculus
map, what area or lobe 205. In regard to motor development Proximal to distal
Controls the axial and during infancy, choose the motor progression
proximal musculature of response that happens first.
the limbs? Proximal or distal progression
206. In regard to motor Ulnar to radial progression 219. In what form is excess folate N-5-methyl THF
development during infancy, stored in the body?
choose the motor response 220. In what layer of the epidermis is Stratum spinosum
that happens first. Radial melanin transferred from
or ulnar progression melanocytes to keratinocytes?
207. In regard to motor Grasp proceeds release 221. In what organelle does the TCA Mitochondria
development during infancy, cycle occur?
choose the motor response
that happens first. Release 222. In what organ system would you Look for broken blood
or grasp attempt to localize a sign for vessels in the baby's
shaken baby syndrome"? What eyes.
208. In the alveoli, what cell type Type I pneumocytes do you look for?
is for gas exchange?
223. In what pathway of the basal Direct pathway; a good
209. In the alveoli, what cell type Alveolar macrophages (dust ganglia do lesions result in an example is Parkinson's
is part of the mononuclear cells) underactive cortex with disease.
phagocytic system? hypokinetic, slow, or absent
210. In the alveoli, what cell type Type II pneumocytes spontaneous movement?
is responsible for 224. In what pathway of the basal Indirect pathway
producing surfactant? ganglia do lesions result in (Tourette syndrome for
211. In the classical conditioning Stimulus generalization must hyperactive cortex with example)
model, when a behavior is stop. (Pairing of the hyperkinetic, chorea, athetosis,
learned, what must occur to unconditioned stimulus and tics, and dystonia?
break the probability that a the conditioned stimulus 225. In what stage of psychosexual Latency stage (6-12
response will happen? must cease.) development, according to years)
212. In the elderly, what happens Total and NREM sleep Freud, do children resolve the
to total sleep time, decrease considerably as we Oedipus complex?
percentage of REM sleep, age, but REM sleep remains 226. In what stage of sleep is it During REM sleep
and percentage of NREM relatively constant (20%) up easiest to arouse a sleeping
sleep? to age 80, then begins to individual?
227. In what stage of sleep is it During stage 3 and 4
213. In the mitochondria, what Biotin, ATP, and CO2 hardest to arouse a sleeping (remember, it is called
complex is needed for individual? deep sleep.)
pyruvate carboxylase to
catalyze the reaction from 228. In what study, for ethical Crossover study
pyruvate to OAA? reasons, is no group left out of
214. In the window phase of a HBcAb and HBeAb. You see
hepatitis B infection, which the antibodies c and e. 229. In what tract does pain, Spinothalamic tract
Abs do you see? temperature, and crude touch (anterolateral system)
sensory information ascend to
215. In what compartment of the Anterior compartment (it's the postcentral gyrus of the
thigh is the profundus the blood supply to the parietal lobe?
femoris artery found? posterior compartment)
230. In what trimester is the fetus The first trimester
216. In what cycle does glucose Alanine cycle most vulnerable to congenital
go to the muscle, where it is rubella syndrome?
converted to pyruvate and
then into alanine before 231. In which syndrome does a Mnchhausen's
being taken back to the person present with syndrome (factitious
liver? intentionally produced physical disorder)
ailments with the intent to
217. In what disease is there a Crigler-Najjar syndrome assume the sick role?
genetic absence of UDP-
glucuronate transferase, 232. Is a membranous septal defect Membranous septal
resulting in an increase in more commonly interventricular defects are
free unconjugated bilirubin? or interatrial? interventricular; a
persistent patent ovale
218. In what form are VLDLs results in an interatrial
triglycerides sent to adipose septal defect.
tissue from the liver?
233. Is an afferent or efferent Afferent pupillary defect (CN 245. Is the Lac operon activated or Inactivated; glucose
pupillary defect described II lesion); in an efferent inactivated in the presence of both results in decreased
as B/L pupillary constriction pupillary defect (CN III), B/L glucose and lactose? cAMP levels and
when light is shined in the constrict when light is shined therefore blocks
unaffected eye and B/L in the unaffected eye and protein binding
paradoxical dilation when consentual pupil constriction between cAMP and
light is shined in the occurs when light is shined in CAP.
affected eye? the affected eye. 246. Is the pH of CSF acidotic, alkalotic, The pH of CSF is
234. Is a subdural hematoma an Subdural hematoma is a or neutral? 7.33, acidotic.
arterial or venous bleed? rupture of the cerebral veins 247. Is the Salk polio vaccine Yes
where they enter the superior inactivated?
sagittal sinus.
248. Kaiser-Fleischer rings, abnormal Wilson's disease
235. Is it acceptable to lie, even No, it is never acceptable to copper metabolism, and (Remember
if it protects a colleague lie. ceruloplasmin deficiency chromosome 13 and
from malpractice? characterize what disease, which hepatolenticular
236. Is linolenic acid an omega-3 Omega-3; linoleic is omega-6 may include symptoms of dementia degeneration)
or omega-6 fatty acid? when severe?
237. Is marital satisfaction Without children (but don't 249. The left subclavian artery is a The left is a branch
higher for couples with or think about this one for too branch of what artery? of the aortic arch,
without children? long) while the right is a
238. Is masturbation considered No. It is abnormal only if it branch of the
an abnormal sexual interferes with normal sexual brachiocephalic
practice? or occupational function. trunk.

239. Is nystagmus defined by Nystagmus is named by the 250. Mandibular hypoplasia, down- Treacher Collins
the fast or slow fast component, which is the slanted palpebral fissures, syndrome
component? corrective attempt made by colobomas, malformed ears, and
the cerebral cortex in zygomatic hypoplasia are
response to the initial slow commonly seen in what pharyngeal
phase. arch 1 abnormality?

240. Is spousal abuse a No, it is not a mandatory 251. Match the chromosome and haploid Spermatid
mandatory reportable reportable offense (if you can number with the stage of sperm
offense? believe it). Child and elderly development, spermatid,
abuse are mandatory spermatocyte (primary or
reportable offenses. secondary), spermatogonia (type A
or B): 23/1n
241. Is suicidal ideation a It is rare with normal grief;
component of normal however, it is relatively 252. Match the chromosome and haploid Secondary
grief? common in depression number with the stage of sperm spermatocyte
development, spermatid,
242. Is the carotid sinus sensitive The carotid sinus is a spermatocyte (primary or
to pressure or oxygen? pressure-sensitive (low) secondary), spermatogonia (type A
receptor, while the carotid or B): 23/2n
body is an oxygen-sensitive
(low) receptor. (Remember 253. Match the chromosome and haploid Spermatogonia (type
"Sinus Pressure"). number with the stage of sperm A)
development, spermatid,
243. Is the coding or the The coding strand is identical spermatocyte (primary or
template strand of DNA to mRNA, and the template secondary), spermatogonia (type A
identical to mRNA strand is complementary and or B): 46/2n (divide meiotically)
(excluding the T/U antiparallel.
difference)? 254. Match the chromosome and haploid Spermatogonia (type
number with the stage of sperm B)
244. Is the hydroxyl (-OH) end 3' end. Phosphate (PO4) is at development, spermatid,
of DNA and RNA at the the 5' end. spermatocyte (primary or
3' or the 5' secondary), spermatogonia (type A
end? or B): 46/2n (divide mitotically)
255. Match the chromosome Primary spermatocyte 265. Name the aphasia based on these Wernicke's
and haploid number with characteristics: Lesion in Brodmann area aphasia
the stage of sperm 22; impaired comprehension; incoherent
development, spermatid, rapid, fluent speech; verbal paraphrasias;
spermatocyte (primary or trouble repeating statements
secondary), spermatogonia 266. Name the aphasia based on these Transcortical
(type A or B): 46/4n characteristics: Lesion in the prefrontal aphasia
256. Methylating uracil Thymine cortex; inability to speak spontaneously;
produces what pyrimidine unimpaired ability to repeat
base? 267. Name the aphasia based on these Conduction
257. The most frequent number Mode characteristics: Lesion is in the parietal aphasia
occurring in a population is lobe or arcuate fibers because the
what? connection between Broca's and Wernicke's
258. Most sleep time is spent in Stage 2, which accounts for area is severed; word comprehension
what stage of sleep? approximately 45% of total preserved; inability to write or speak the
sleep time, with REM statement (can't tell you what you said)
occupying 20%. 268. Name the aphasia based on these Broca's
259. A motor lesion to the right A right CN V lesion results in characteristics: Nonfluent speech, aphasia
CN V results in deviation of weakened muscles of telegraphic and ungrammatical; lesion in
the jaw to which side? mastication, and the jaw Brodmann's area 44; unimpaired
deviates to the right. comprehension

260. Movement disorders are Nigrostriatal pathways (basal 269. Name the area of the cerebral cortex Dominant
associated with what ganglia) affected by the description of the effects, parietal lobe
dopamine pathway (what symptoms, and results of the lesion. (Gerstmann's
part of the brain)? Agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia, right- syndrome)
left disorientation
261. Myelin is produced by In the PNS, myelin is produced
which cells in the PNS? In by Schwann cells, in the CNS 270. Name the area of the cerebral cortex Limbic
the CNS? by oligodendrocytes. affected by the description of the effects, system
symptoms, and results of the lesion.
262. Name at least three Streptococcus pneumoniae, Apathy, aggression, inability to learn new
bacteria that use capsules Klebsiella pneumoniae, material, and memory problems
to prevent immediate Haemophilus influenzae,
destruction from the host's Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and 271. Name the area of the cerebral cortex Dorsal
defense system. Neisseria meningitidis; also affected by the description of the effects, prefrontal
Cryptococcus neoformans, a symptoms, and results of the lesion. cortex
fungus Apathy, poor grooming, poor ability to
think abstractly, decreased drive, poor
263. Name the 10 1. Duodenum (all but the first attention span (Hint: if the lesion is in the
retroperitoneal organs. part) 2. Ascending Colon 3. dominant hemisphere, the patient will
Ureters 4. Pancreas 5. Supra develop Broca's aphasia)
renal glands (adrenals) 6.
Descending colon 7. Aorta 8. 272. Name the area of the cerebral cortex Nondominant
Kidneys 9. Rectum 10. IVC D affected by the description of the effects, parietal lobe
CUPS DAKRI is the mnemonic, symptoms, and results of the lesion.
everything else is covered Denial of illness, hemineglect, construction
with peritoneum apraxia (can't arrange matchsticks)

264. Name the aphasia based Global aphasia 273. Name the area of the cerebral cortex Occipital
on these characteristics: affected by the description of the effects, lobe (Anton's
Both Broca's and symptoms, and results of the lesion. syndrome if it
Wernicke's areas damaged Denies being blind, cortical blindness is due to
by lesion in the presylvian bilateral
speech area; trouble posterior
repeating statements; poor cerebral
comprehension with artery
telegraphic speech occlusions)
274. Name the area of the cerebral cortex Nondominant 285. Name the B-cell CD marker: CD21; it is a
affected by the description of the effects, temporal Receptor for EBV complement receptor
symptoms, and results of the lesion. lobe for cleaved C3
Dysphoria, irritability, musical and visual 286. Name the B-cell CD marker: CD40
abilities decreased Required for class switching
275. Name the area of the cerebral cortex Dominant signals from T cells
affected by the description of the effects, temporal 287. Name the B-cell CD marker: CD19
symptoms, and results of the lesion. lobe Used clinically to count B cells in
Euphoria, delusions, thought disorders, blood
Wernicke's aphasia, auditory hallucinations
(Hint: the lesion is in the left hemisphere) 288. Name the bony articulations of Humerus with ulna
the following sites. Be specific. (major) and radius
276. Name the area of the cerebral cortex Orbitomedial Elbow (minor)
affected by the description of the effects, frontal lobe
symptoms, and results of the lesion. 289. Name the bony articulations of Clavicle, acromion, and
Withdrawn, fearful, explosive moods, the following sites. Be specific. glenoid fossa of the
violent outbursts, and loss of inhibitions Shoulder scapula and the
277. Name the area of the cerebral cortex with Pons
the function described: Important for REM 290. Name the bony articulations of Radius with scaphoid
sleep; origin of NE pathway the following sites. Be specific. and lunate and ulna
Wrist with triquetrum and
278. Name the area of the cerebral cortex with Basal ganglia pisiform (Remember,
the function described: Initiation and for major articulations,
control of movements wrist/radius and
279. Name the area of the cerebral cortex with Parietal lobe humerus/ulna = elbow)
the function described: Intellectual 291. Name the cluster B personality Histrionic
processing of sensory information, with the disorder: Colorful, dramatic,
left (dominant) processing verbal extroverted, seductive, and
information, the right processing visual- unable to hold long-term
spatial orientation relationships
280. Name the area of the cerebral cortex with Temporal 292. Name the cluster B personality Antisocial
the function described: Language, lobe disorder: Criminal behavior;
memory, and emotion (Hint: herpesvirus lacking friends, reckless, and
infects here commonly) unable to conform to social
281. Name the area of the cerebral cortex with Limbic norms
the function described: Motivation, system 293. Name the cluster B personality Narcissistic
memory, emotions, violent behaviors, disorder: Grandiose sense of
sociosexual behaviors, conditioned self-importance; demands
responses constant attention; fragile self-
282. Name the area of the cerebral cortex with Occipital esteem; can be charismatic
the function described: Recall of objects, lobe 294. Name the cluster B personality Borderline
distances, and scenes; visual input disorder: In a constant state of
processed here crisis, promiscuous, unable to
283. Name the area of the cerebral cortex with Cerebellum tolerate anxiety-causing
the function described: Skill-based situations, afraid of being alone,
memory, verbal recall, balance, refined and having intense but brief
voluntary movements relationships
284. Name the area of the cerebral cortex with Frontal lobe 295. Name the cluster C personality Dependent
the function described: Speech; critical for disorder: Gets others to assume
personality, concentration, initiating and responsibility, is subordinate, and
stopping tasks (do one thing and begin a is fearful of being alone and
new without completion of the first), caring for self
abstract thought, and memory and higher-
order mental functions
296. Name the cluster C personality disorder: Obsessive- 309. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Superior
Orderly, inflexible, perfectionist; makes compulsive associated with the following thoracic and
rules, lists, order; doesn't like change, has a structures: Esophagus posterior
poor sense of humor, and needs to keep a 310. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Middle
routine associated with the following thoracic
297. Name the cluster C personality disorder: Avoidant structures: Heart and pericardium
Sensitive to criticism, shy, anxious; socially 311. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Middle
isolated but yearns to be in the crowd associated with the following thoracic
298. Name the compartment of the lower Medial structures: IVC
extremity and the nerve based on its compartment 312. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Superior
movements. Adduct the thigh and flex the of the thigh, associated with the following thoracic
hip obturator structures: Left common carotid artery
313. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Superior
299. Name the compartment of the lower Anterior associated with the following thoracic
extremity and the nerve based on its compartment structures: Left subclavian artery
movements. Dorsiflex the foot, extend the of the leg,
toes, and invert the foot deep 314. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Superior
peroneal associated with the following thoracic and
nerve structures: Phrenic nerve middle

300. Name the compartment of the lower Posterior 315. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Middle
extremity and the nerve based on its compartment associated with the following thoracic
movements. Extend the hip and flex the of the thigh, structures: Pulmonary artery and veins
knee tibial nerve 316. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Posterior
301. Name the compartment of the lower Anterior associated with the following thoracic
extremity and the nerve based on its compartment structures: Splanchnic nerves
movements. Flex the hip and extend the of the thigh, 317. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Superior
knee femoral associated with the following thoracic and
nerve structures: SVC middle
302. Name the compartment of the lower Lateral 318. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Superior
extremity and the nerve based on its compartment associated with the following thoracic and
movements. Plantar flex the foot and of the leg, structures: Thoracic duct posterior
evert the foot superficial 319. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Superior
peroneal associated with the following thoracic and
nerve structures: Thymus anterior
303. Name the compartment of the lower Posterior 320. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Superior
extremity and the nerve based on its compartment associated with the following thoracic
movements. Plantar flex the foot, flex the of the leg, structures: Trachea
toes, and invert the foot tibial nerve
321. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Posterior
304. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Superior associated with the following thoracic
associated with the following thoracic structures: Vagus nerve
structures: Aortic arch
305. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Middle
associated with the following thoracic
structures: Ascending aorta
306. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Superior and
associated with the following thoracic posterior
structures: Azygos vein
307. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Superior
associated with the following thoracic
structures: Brachiocephalic vein
308. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Posterior
associated with the following thoracic
structures: Descending aorta
322. Name the components of the NAVEL: Femoral 336. Name the RNA polymerase I
femoral canal, working laterally to Nerve, Artery, Vein, eukaryotic RNA
medially. Empty space, and polymerase
Lymphatics/Lacunar based on the
ligament following:
323. Name the correct artery. The left Arch of the aorta Synthesizes 28S,
recurrent laryngeal nerve passes 18S and 5.8S
around it. rRNAs

324. Name the correct artery. The right Right 337. Name the RNA polymerase II
recurrent laryngeal nerve passes brachiocephalic eukaryotic RNA
around it. artery polymerase
based on the
325. Name the DNA virus: Circular Papovavirus following:
dsDNA; naked; icosahedral; Synthesizes
replicates in the nucleus hnRNA, mRNA,
326. Name the DNA virus Linear Poxvirus and snRNA
dsDNA; enveloped; virion- 338. Name the RNA polymerase III
associated polymerases; replicates eukaryotic RNA
in the cytoplasm : polymerase
327. Name the DNA virus: Linear Adenovirus based on the
dsDNA; naked; replicates in the following:
nucleus Synthesizes tRNA,
328. Name the DNA virus Linear Herpes virus snRNA, and the 5S
dsDNA; nuclear envelope; rRNA
icosahedral; replicates in the 339. Name the form of Myeloschisis All except occulta cause
nucleus spina bifida. An elevated-fetoprotein levels.
329. Name the DNA virus: Partially Hepadnavirus open neural tube
dsDNA circular; enveloped; virion- lying on the
associated polymerases; has RNA surface of the
intermediate; replicates in the back
nucleus 340. Name the form of Occulta All except occulta cause
330. Name the DNA virus: ssDNA; Parvovirus spina bifida. elevated-fetoprotein levels.
naked; icosahedral; replicates in the Defect in the
nucleus vertebral arch

331. Name the end product or products: Acetyl CoA and 341. Name the form of Meningomyelocele All except occulta
Fatty acid oxidation propionyl CoA (in spina bifida. cause elevated-fetoprotein levels.
odd chain fatty acids) Meninges and
spinal cord
332. Name the end product or products: Palmitate
project through a
Fatty acid synthesis
vertebral defect
333. Name the eukaryotic DNA DNA polymerase-
342. Name the form of Meningocele All except occulta cause
polymerase based on the following
spina bifida. elevated-fetoprotein levels.
information: Replicates
Meninges project
mitochondrial DNA
through a
334. Name the eukaryotic DNA DNA polymerase- vertebral defect
polymerase based on the following
343. Name the four 1. Sleep paralysis 2. Hypnagogic
information: Synthesizes the
components of hallucinations (while falling asleep) 3.
lagging strand during replication
the narcoleptic Sleep attacks with excessive daytime
335. Name the eukaryotic DNA DNA polymerase- tetrad. sleepiness 4. Cataplexy
polymerase based on the following (pathognomonic) Narcolepsy is a
information: Synthesizes the disorder of REM sleep, with REM
leading strand during replication occurring within 10 minutes of sleep.
344. Name the four ventral 1. The lesser omentum (consisting 352. Name the lipoprotein based on the HDL
mesentery derivatives. of the hepatoduodenal and following characteristics. apo A-1, apo E,
hepatogastric ligaments) 2. apo C-II
Falciform ligament 3. Coronary 353. Name the lipoprotein based on the LDL
ligament of the liver 4. Triangular following characteristics. apo B-100
ligament of the liver Liver is
ventral; all other ligaments are 354. Name the lipoprotein based on the IDL
dorsal mesentery derivatives. following characteristics. apo E

345. Name the GLUT GLUT 2 355. Name the lipoprotein based on the VLDL
transporter based on following characteristics. apo E, apo B-
the following: Found in 100, apo C-II
liver and pancreatic - 356. Name the lipoprotein based on the Chylomicrons
cells following characteristics. apo E, apo C-II,
346. Name the GLUT GLUT 3 and 4 apoB-48
transporter based on 357. Name the macrophages by location: CNS Microglial
the following: Found in cells
most tissues, including 358. Name the macrophages by location: Mesangial
brain and RBCs Kidney macrophages
347. Name the GLUT GLUT 4 359. Name the macrophages by location: Liver Kupffer cells
transporter based on
the following: Found in 360. Name the macrophages by location: Alveolar
skeletal muscle and Lungs macrophages
adipose tissues 361. Name the muscle type based on these Cardiac
348. Name the laryngeal Lateral cricoarytenoid muscles descriptions: Continuous involuntary muscle
muscle described by contraction, uninuclear striated branched
the following: Adducts fibers, actin and myosin overlapping for
the vocal ligaments, banding pattern, dyadic T tubules,
closes the air intercalated discs, troponin and desmin as
passageway during a Z disc intermediate filament.
swallowing, and allows 362. Name the muscle type based on these Skeletal
phonation descriptions: Discontinuous voluntary muscles
349. Name the laryngeal Posterior cricoarytenoid muscles contraction, multinuclear striated
muscle described by unbranched fibers, actin and myosin
the following: Only overlapping for banding pattern, triadic T
muscle to abduct the tubules, troponin and desmin as Z disc
vocal cords intermediate filament.

350. Name the laryngeal Thyroarytenoid muscles 363. Name the muscle type based on these Smooth
muscle described by descriptions: Involuntary contraction, muscle
the following: Pulls the uninuclear nonstriated fibers, actin and
arytenoids cartilages myosin not forming banding pattern; lack
closer to the thyroid, of T tubules, gap junctions, and calmodulin.
relaxing the vocal 364. Name the neurotransmitter at the ACh; think
ligaments and thereby neuromuscular junctions for all of the about the
decreasing the pitch voluntary muscles in the body. ANS.
351. Name the laryngeal Cricothyroid muscles 365. Name the ocular lesion; be specific. A Right nasal
muscle described by right lateral compression of the optic hemianopsia
the following: Tenses chiasm (as in aneurysms in the internal
the vocal ligaments, carotid artery)
increasing the distance 366. Name the ocular lesion; be specific. A Left
between the cartilages, right LGB lesion (in the thalamus) homonymous
thereby increasing the hemianopsia
367. Name the ocular lesion; be specific. Left Left
Meyer's loop lesion of the optic radiations. homonymous
368. Name the ocular lesion; be specific. Left Left eye 379. Name the Plasmodium species based Plasmodium
optic nerve lesion anopsia (left on the following information:No malariae
nasal and persistent liver stage or relapse;
temporal blood smear shows rosette schizonts;
hemianopsia) 72-hour fever spike pattern
369. Name the ocular lesion; be specific. Optic Bitemporal 380. Name the Plasmodium species based Plasmodium vivax
chiasm lesion heteronymous on the following information:
hemianopsia Persistent hypnozoite liver stage with
370. Name the ocular lesion; be specific. Right Left relapses; blood smear shows
calcarine cortex lesion homonymous amoeboid trophozoites; 48-hour fever
hemianopsia spike pattern; the most prevalent form
371. Name the pattern of genetic transmission: Autosomal
both M and F are affected; M-to-M recessive 381. Name the Plasmodium species based Plasmodium ovale
transmission may be present; both parents on the following information:Persistent
must be carriers; the trait skips hypnozoite liver stage with relapses;
generations; two mutant alleles are blood smear shows amoeboid
needed for disease; and affected children trophozoites with oval, jagged
may be born of unaffected adults? infected RBCs; 48-hour fever spike
372. Name the pattern of genetic transmission X-linked
characterized thus: both M and F affected; dominant 382. Name the primary vesicle the Rhombencephalon
no M-to-M transmission; affected M passes following structures are derived from
trait to all daughters, every generation; (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
affected F passes trait to both sons and rhombencephalon). Cerebellum
daughters; a single mutant allele can 383. Name the primary vesicle the Mesencephalon
produce the disease. following structures are derived from
373. Name the pattern of genetic transmission Autosomal (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
characterized thus: both M and F are dominant rhombencephalon). Cerebral
affected; M may transmit to M; each aqueduct
generation has at least one affected 384. Name the primary vesicle the Proencephalon
parent; and one mutant allele may following structures are derived from
produce the disease. (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
374. Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell G0 phase rhombencephalon). Cerebral
cycle: Cells cease replicating (i.e., nerve hemispheres
cell) 385. Name the primary vesicle the Proencephalon
375. Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell G2 phase following structures are derived from
cycle: Period of cellular growth (gap 2) (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
(translation and transcription) after DNA rhombencephalon). Diencephalon
synthesis 386. Name the primary vesicle the Proencephalon
376. Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell G1 phase (gap following structures are derived from diencephalon
cycle: Period of cellular growth 1) (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or derivative
(translation and transcription) before DNA rhombencephalon). Eye
synthesis 387. Name the primary vesicle the Proencephalon
377. Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell S phase following structures are derived from diencephalon
cycle: Period of DNA replication (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or derivative
(preparing for mitosis) rhombencephalon). Hypothalamus

378. Name the Plasmodium species based on Plasmodium 388. Name the primary vesicle the Proencephalon
the following information: No persistent falciparum following structures are derived from
liver stage or relapse; blood smear shows (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
multiple ring forms and crescent-shaped rhombencephalon). Lateral
gametes; irregular febrile pattern; ventricles
associated with cerebral malaria 389. Name the primary vesicle the Rhombencephalon
following structures are derived from
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
rhombencephalon). Medulla
390. Name the primary vesicle the Rhombencephalon 403. Name the RNA subtype based on the mRNA
following structures are derived from following: Only type of RNA that is
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or translated
rhombencephalon). Metencephalon 404. Name the RNA subtype based on the Ribozymes
391. Name the primary vesicle the Mesencephalon following: RNA molecules with enzymatic
following structures are derived from activity
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or 405. Name the RNA subtype based on the rRNA
rhombencephalon). Midbrain following: The most abundant form of
392. Name the primary vesicle the Rhombencephalon RNA in the cell
following structures are derived from 406. Name these anxiety defense mechanisms: Dissociation
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or Separating oneself from the experience.
rhombencephalon). Myelencephalon The facts are accepted but the form is
393. Name the primary vesicle the Proencephalon changed for protection.
following structures are derived from diencephalon 407. Name these anxiety defense mechanisms: Rationalization
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or derivative Use of explanations to justify
rhombencephalon). unacceptable behaviors.
408. Name these cluster A personality Paranoid
394. Name the primary vesicle the Proencephalon disorders: Baseline mistrust; carries
following structures are derived from diencephalon grudges; afraid to open up; uses
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or derivative projection as defense mechanism; lacks
rhombencephalon). Pineal gland hallucinations or delusions
395. Name the primary vesicle the Rhombencephalon 409. Name these cluster A personality Schizotypal
following structures are derived from disorders: Odd, strange; has magical
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or thinking; socially isolated, paranoid, lacks
rhombencephalon). Pons close friends; has incongruous affect
396. Name the primary vesicle the Proencephalon 410. Name these cluster A personality Schizoid
following structures are derived from disorders: Socially withdrawn, seen as
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or eccentric but happy to be alone
rhombencephalon). Telencephalon
411. Name these immature defense Blocking
397. Name the primary vesicle the Proencephalon mechanisms: Inability to remember a
following structures are derived from known fact (aware of forgetting)
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
rhombencephalon). Thalamus 412. Name these immature defense Somatization
mechanisms: Psychic feelings converted
398. Name the primary vesicle the Proencephalon to physical symptoms
following structures are derived from
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or 413. Name these immature defense Regression
rhombencephalon). Third ventricle mechanisms: Returning to an earlier
stage of development (e.g., enuresis)
399. Name the reaction that appears in Separation anxiety
babies who are temporarily deprived 414. Name these immature defense Introjection (a
of their usual caretaker. (This reaction mechanisms: Taking others' beliefs, sports fan is a
usually begins around 6 months of thoughts, and external stimuli and making good
age, peaks around 8 months, and them part of the self. (Hint: if it's done example)
decreases at 12 months.) consciously, it is called imitation.)

400. Name the RNA subtype based on the tRNA 415. Name these mature defense mechanisms: Sublimation
following: Carries AA to the Converting an unacceptable impulse to a
ribosome for protein synthesis socially acceptable form (Hint: it is the
most mature of all defense mechanisms)
401. Name the RNA subtype based on the snRNA
following: Found only in the nucleus 416. Name these mature defense mechanisms: Humor
of eukaryotes and functions to Easing anxiety with laughter
remove introns from mRNA 417. Name these mature defense mechanisms: Suppression
402. Name the RNA subtype based on the hnRNA Forgetting on purpose (so you can
following: Found only in the nucleus actually remember it)
of eukaryotic cells and are precursors
of mRNA
418. Name these mature defense mechanisms: Altruism 435. Name the structure that enters or exits the CN VII and
Helping others without expecting any return following foramina: Internal auditory VIII
419. Name these mature defense mechanisms: Anticipation meatus
Preparing for an upcoming event 436. Name the structure that enters or exits the CN IX, X, and
420. Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms: Splitting following foramina: Jugular foramen XI; sigmoid
Everything in the world is perceived as sinus
either good or bad . No middle ground; it is 437. Name the structure that enters or exits the CN II and
all extremes. following foramina: Optic canal ophthalmic
421. Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms: Denial artery
Not allowing reality to penetrate because 438. Name the structure that enters or exits the CN VII
afraid of becoming aware of painful aspect following foramina: Stylomastoid
of reality. foramen
422. Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms: Projection 439. Name the T-cell CD marker: Essential for CD40 ligand
Person takes his or her own feelings, Ab isotype switching (for B cell binding)
beliefs, wishes, and so on and thinks they are 440. Name the T-cell CD marker: Expressed CD3
someone else's. (e.g., a cheating man thinks on all T cells and is needed as a signal
his wife is unfaithful) transducer for the T cell receptor
423. Name the stages of sleep with these EEG Being 441. Name the T-cell CD marker: Interacts with CD4
patterns: Alpha waves awake MHC class II molecules
424. Name the stages of sleep with these EEG Stage 3 and 442. Name the T-cell CD marker: Interacts with CD8
patterns: Delta waves 4 MHC class I molecules
425. Name the stages of sleep with these EEG Stage 1 443. Name the T-cell CD marker: Is a CD28
patterns: Disappearance of alpha waves, costimulatory molecule in T cell activation
appearance of theta waves
444. Name the thalamic nucleus based on its Ventral
426. Name the stages of sleep with these EEG REM input and output. Input from globus anterior
patterns: Sawtooth waves, random low pallidus and substantia nigra; output to nucleus
voltage pattern primary motor cortex
427. Name the stages of sleep with these EEG Stage 2 445. Name the thalamic nucleus based on its Ventral
patterns: Sleep spindles, K-complexes input and output. Input from globus lateral
428. Name the structure that enters or exits the Internal pallidus and the cerebellum; output to the nucleus
following foramina: Carotid canal carotid primary motor cortex
artery and 446. Name the thalamic nucleus based on its MGB (think
sympathetic input and output. Input from inferior EARS)
plexus colliculus; output to primary auditory
429. Name the structure that enters or exits the CN I cortex
following foramina: Cribriform plate 447. Name the thalamic nucleus based on its Ventral
430. Name the structure that enters or exits the CN XI, input and output. Input from medial posterolateral
following foramina: Foramen magnum vertebral lemniscus and the spinocerebellar tracts; nucleus
arteries output to the primary somatosensory
431. Name the structure that enters or exits the CN V3 and cortex
following foramina: Foramen ovale the lesser 448. Name the thalamic nucleus based on its Medial
petrosal input and output. Input from the nuclear group
nerve amygdala, prefrontal cortex, and temporal (limbic
432. Name the structure that enters or exits the CN V2 lobe; output to the prefrontal lobe and the system)
following foramina: Foramen rotundum cingulated gyrus

433. Name the structure that enters or exits the Middle 449. Name the thalamic nucleus based on its Anterior
following foramina: Foramen spinosum meningeal input and output. Input from the nuclear group
artery mammillary bodies via the (Papez circuit
mammillothalamic tract and the cingulated of the limbic
434. Name the structure that enters or exits the CN XII gyrus; output to the cingulated gyrus via system)
following foramina: Hypoglossal canal the anterior limb of the internal capsule
450. Name the thalamic nucleus LGB (think EYES) 462. Name the type of mutation: New Silent
based on its input and codon specifies for the same AA
output. Input from the 463. Name the type of mutation: The Frameshift
optic tract; output projects deletion or addition of a base
to the primary visual
cortex of the occipital 464. Name the type of mutation: Unequal Large segment
lobe crossover in meiosis with loss of deletions
protein function
451. Name the thalamic nucleus Ventral posteromedial nucleus
based on its input and 465. Name three products of HIV's pol Protease,
output. Input from the gene. integrase, and
trigeminal pathways; reverse
output to primary transcriptase
somatosensory cortex of 466. Name three purine bases that are not Xanthine,
the parietal lobe found in nucleic acids. hypoxanthine,
452. Name the three hormones Melatonin, serotonin, and CCK theophylline,
produced by pinealocytes. theobromine,
caffeine, and uric
453. Name the three ketone Acetoacetate, acetone, and - acid are all
bodies. hydroxybutyrate purines.
454. Name the three Celiac, aorticorenal, and 467. Objective tests that base the result of Criterion-
postganglionic superior mesenteric ganglias. the examination on a preset standard referenced tests.
sympathetic ganglia that (Remember all " Splanchnics" use what form of reference? You need a
receive input from are Sympathetic except for certain number
thoracic splanchnics. the Pelvic splanchnics, which correct to pass
are Preganglionic (e.g., the USMLE).
Parasympathetic fibers.)
468. On what layer of the epidermis does all Malpighian layer
455. Name the two purine Adenine and guanine mitosis occur? (made up of the
bases found in both DNA stratum basale
and RNA. and stratum
456. Name the type of graft Isograft spinosum)
described by these 469. Ophthalmic artery is a branch of what Internal carotid
transplants: Between artery? artery
genetically identical
individuals 470. The ophthalmic artery is a branch of Internal carotid
what vessel? artery
457. Name the type of graft Allograft
described by these 471. Outburst to cover up true feelings Acting out
transplants: From one (emotion is covered, not redirected).
person to the next (the 472. A patient goes to the ER with Staphylococcus
same species) abdominal cramps, vomiting, diarrhea, aureus
458. Name the type of graft Autograft and sweating less than 24 hours after
described by these eating potato salad at a picnic; what is
transplants: From one the most likely responsible organism?
site to another on the 473. Per Freud, with what part of the Id
same person unconscious are sex and aggression
459. Name the type of graft Xenograft (instincts) associated?
described by these 474. Preeclampsia in the first trimester, hCG Hydatidiform
transplants: From one levels above 100, 00 mIU/mL, and an mole
species to another enlarged bleeding uterus are clinical
460. Name the type of Missense signs of what?
mutation: New codon 475. The probability that a person with a Negative
specifies a different AA negative test result is truly disease predictive value
461. Name the type of Nonsense free refers to what value?
mutation: New codon 476. The probability that a person with a Positive
specifies for a stop codon positive test result is truly positive predictive value
refers to what value?
477. Projectile nonbilious vomiting Hypertrophic pyloric 490. Should you refer a Actually, yes. You should
and a small knot at the right stenosis due to patient to a form of encourage your patient to try
costal margin (olive sign) are hypertrophy of the folk medicine even if other forms of medicine as long
hallmarks of what embryonic muscularis externa, you don't believe in it? as they are not contraindicated
disorder? resulting in a narrowed with the patient's preexisting
pyloric outlet illness. You must be able to
478. The proportion of truly Sensitivity (it deals with accept the health beliefs of your
diseased persons in the the sick) patients, even if you don't agree.
screened population who are 491. Shuffling gait, Parkinson's disease
identified as diseased refers cogwheel rigidity,
to? masklike facies, pill-
479. Regarding neuroleptics, what Inversely proportional: rolling tremor, and
is the relationship between the higher the potency, bradykinesia describe
potency and anticholinergic the lower the what form of
side effects? anticholinergic side dementia?
effects. 492. A single mRNA strand Polysome. Ribosomes read from
480. Regarding the Lac operon, for Thiogalactoside translated by a the 5' to the 3' end of the mRNA.
what do the following genes transacetylase ribosome is termed
code? A gene what?

481. Regarding the Lac operon, for Lac repressor protein 493. A suspected Arthroconidia with hyphae
what do the following genes dermatophyte
code? I gene infection is stained with
KOH. What spore type
482. Regarding the Lac operon, for Galactoside permease do you expect to see?
what do the following genes
code? Y gene 494. To what does aldose Galactitol
reductase convert
483. Regarding the Lac operon, for -Galactosidase galactose?
what do the following genes
code? Z gene 495. To what does failure to School phobia
resolve separation
484. Regarding the viral growth After the latent period anxiety lead?
curve, is the external virus
present before or after the 496. To what host cell ACh receptor
latent period? receptor does the
rabies virus attach?
485. Regarding the viral growth After the eclipse period
curve, is the internal virus 497. To what viral family Picornaviridae
present before or after the does the polio virus
eclipse period? belong?

486. Replacing normal affect with Intellectualization 498. A tropical fish Mycobacterium marinum
"brain power" enthusiast has
granulomatous lesions
487. The separation of 46 Meiosis I; disjunction with and cellulitis; what is
homologous chromosomes centromere splitting the most likely
without splitting of the occurs during meiosis II. offending organism?
centromeres occurs during
what phase of meiosis? 499. True or false? False. These beliefs are
According to social characteristic of people with an
488. Setting up to be let down (it is Passive-aggressive learning theory, people external locus of control.
unconscious; if conscious, who believe that luck,
you're just rude) chance, or the actions
489. Should information flow from Your duty is to tell the of others control their
the patient to the family or patient, not the family. The fate have an internal
vice versa? patient decides who gets locus of control.
to know and who doesn't, 500. True or false? Adipose True. Adipose depends on
not you. tissue lacks glycerol glucose uptake for
kinase. dihydroxyacetone phosphate
(DHAP) production for
triglyceride synthesis.
501. True or false? Ag-Ab binding False. It is reversible 514. True or false? TRUE
is irreversible because the Ags and Abs Below the arcuate
are not linked covalently. line, all the
502. True or false? All negative True. They all have helical aponeurotic fibers
sense RNA viruses are nucleocapsids and virion- run anterior to the
enveloped. associated polymerases rectus abdominis.
too. 515. True or false? both True. on the right lung the oblique
503. True or false? All of the False. Adenovirus vaccine the left and right fissure divides the middle from the
following are inactivated is a live pathogenic virus in lungs have an inferior lobe and the horizontal fissure
vaccines available in the an enteric coated capsule. oblique fissure? further divides the middle from the
United States: influenza, All of the others are upper lobe. On the left the oblique
Vibrio cholera, hepatitis A, inactivated vaccines. divides the superior from the inferior
rabies, and adenovirus. lobe.

504. True or false? All of the True. So are rubeola, 516. True or false? True. They absorb nutrients from the
following are live attenuated smallpox, yellow fever, and Cestodes have no host's GI tract.
vaccines available in the the Sabin polio vaccine. GI tract.
United States: measles, 517. True or false? CSF False. CSF is a clear isotonic solution
mumps, varicella zoster, and is a clear, with lower concentrations of K+ and
Francisella tularensis. hypertonic solution HCO3-. It does have higher
505. True or false? All Proteus TRUE with higher concentrations of Cl- and Mg2+.
species are urease positive. concentrations of
K + and HCO3-,
506. True or false? All spore TRUE than the serum.
formers are gram positive.
518. True or false? True. Hyperpolarization inhibits the
507. True or false? All TRUE Depolarization of postsynaptic membrane.
streptococci are catalase- the postsynaptic
negative membrane excites
508. True or false? A patient can True. It is considered the neuron.
refuse a feeding tube. medical treatment, so it can 519. True or false? False. Direct tests detect Ags; indirect
be withdrawn or refused. Direct fluorescent tests detect Abs.
(Remember the Cruzan Ab test is used to
case.) detect Abs in a
509. True or false? A patient has False. You need clear patient?
to prove his or her evidence the patient is not 520. True or false? DNA True. DNA polymerases have 3'-5'
competency. competent; if you are polymerases can exonuclease activity for proofreading.
unsure, assume the patient correct mistakes,
is competent. whereas RNA
510. True or false? A positive PPD False. The PPD tests polymerases lack
skin test indicates the patient exposure to TB. this ability.
has active pulmonary disease. 521. True or false? For True. Remember, it degenerates 4 to 5
511. True or false? B-cell Ag True. B cell antigen implantation to days post fertilization, and
receptors can be secreted. receptors are Abs. occur the zona implantation occurs 7 days post
512. True or false? Being college True; also, stressful pellucida must fertilization!
educated increases a man's marriage, early sexual degenerate.
risk of having premature experiences in the back of 522. True or false? True; 80% have visited a doctor in the
ejaculation. a car, and sex with a Four-fifths of those previous 6 months. And 50% within the
prostitute all increase the who attempt last month!
risk of premature suicide first give a
ejaculation. warning.
513. True or false? Being single False. Separation, divorce, 523. True or false? False. Water readily diffuses across
increases your risk of suicide. being widowed, and Glucose readily the blood-brain barrier, but glucose
unemployment increase diffuses across the requires carrier-mediated transport.
your risk, but being single blood-brain
does not. barrier.
524. True or false? False. Meningococcus is encapsulated; 534. True or false? More Ag False. Fewer Ags are needed to
Gonococcus is Gonococcus is not. is needed to produce a trigger a secondary response.
encapsulated. secondary immune
525. True or false? True. High-frequency sound waves response than a first
High-frequency stimulate the hair cells at the base of immune response.
sound waves the cochlea, whereas low-frequency 535. True or false? Neurons True. They are the sensory
stimulate hair cells sound waves stimulate hair cells at the in the dorsal horn component of a spinal reflex.
at the base of the apex of the cochlea. participate in reflexes.
cochlea. 536. True or false? Only Sad but true. Some women can
526. True or false? False. Histidine operon is activated men have refractory have multiple successive orgasms.
Histidine activates when there are low intracellular levels sexual periods.
the histidine of histidine. 537. True or false? Panic True. Yohimbine, sodium lactate,
operon. attacks can be induced and epinephrine can also induce
527. True or false? In a True. In positively skewed distributions by hyperventilation or panic attacks; they are considered
positively skewed the mode is less than the median is less carbon dioxide. panicogens.
curve the mean is than the mean.(Remember to name a 538. True or false? Paranoid True. Being female, having positive
greater than the skewed distribution: the tail points in and catatonic symptoms, quick onset, and family
mode. the direction of its name. positive skew schizophrenia are history of mood disorders are all
tails point to the positive end of a good prognostic good prognostic predictors of
scale.) predictors. schizophrenia.
528. True or false? In True. The elimination of the 539. True or false? Patients True. Common variable
females, meiosis II unfertilized egg is menses. with common variable hypogammaglobinemia first
is incomplete hypogammaglobinemia appears by the time patients
unless fertilization have B cells in the reach their 20s and is associated
takes place. peripheral blood. with a gradual decrease in Ig
529. True or false? False. Interferons are produced by levels over time.
Interferons are virally infected cells to inhibit viral 540. True or false? FALSE
eukaryotic replication via RNA endonucleases. Pregnancy ensures
proteins that They do not act directly on the virus, emancipation.
inhibit viral nor are they virus specific.
replication by 541. True or false? Prolactin True. PIF is dopamine in the
being virus levels can serve as a tuberoinfundibular system.
specific. rough indicator of
overall dopamine
530. True or false? True. Muscle spindles are modified activity.
Intrafusal fibers skeletal muscle fibers. They are the
form muscle sensory component of the stretch 542. True or false? RBCs True. Remember, RBCs do not
spindles. reflexes. anaerobically use contain mitochondria, so they
glucose in both the cannot metabolize aerobically.
531. True or false? False. Females are more likely to well-fed and fasting
Males are more develop femoral hernias then males states.
likely to develop (remember Female's Femoral).
femoral hernias 543. True or false? RBCs do True. Remember, all nucleated
than females. not have MHC class I cells (and platelets) have MHC
Ags on their surface. class I Ags, and RBCs are not
532. True or false? True; military service and independent nucleated.
Marriage self-care by a child over 13 years old
emancipates a also emancipate. 544. True or false? Serious False. Childbirth carries five times
child less than 17 psychiatric illness is as much risk of serious psychiatric
years old. more common after illness as abortion.
abortion than
533. True or false? True. Restriction endonucleases cut childbirth.
Methylation of only unmethylated DNA.
bacterial DNA 545. True or false? False. Staphylococci have
prevents Streptococci have catalase; streptococci do not.
restriction catalase.
endonuclease from
cutting its own
546. True or false? T cells can False. B cells recognize 557. True or false? There True. They lyse the host cell
recognize, bind, and unprocessed Ags, but T are no persistent
internalize unprocessed Ags. cells can recognize only infections with
processed Ags. naked viruses?
547. True or false? The central True. Blood flows from the 558. True or false? There True. IQ correlates well with
vein of the liver lobule is the portal tracts (distal) to the is a strong positive education and academic
first area affected during central vein (proximal), so it correlation between achievement but is not a predictor of
hypoxia. is the first area affected IQ and academic success.
during hypoxia. achievement.
548. True or false? The epithelial TRUE 559. True or false? There True. The energy status of the cell
lining of the urinary bladder is no hormonal dictates if the cycle is running or
and the urethra are control to the TCA relaxing.
embryologic hindgut cycle.
derivatives. 560. True or false? The True. The laryngotracheal
549. True or false? The first True. The odontoid process respiratory system is (respiratory) diverticulum is divided
cervical vertebra has no of C2 acts as the vertebral derived from the from the foregut by the
vertebral body. body of C1 allowing lateral ventral wall of the tracheoesophageal septum. ---------
rotation of the head. foregut. ----------------------------------------
550. True or false? The following True. (They are quite a busy -------------------------------
are functions of hepatocytes: bunch of cells!) 561. True or false? The True. The thyroid gland, the lungs,
protein production, bile thyroid gland is an and the pharyngeal pouches are
secretion, detoxification, embryologic foregut foregut derivatives that are not a
conjugation, and lipid derivative. component of the gastrointestinal
storage. system.
551. True or false? The foramen False. It closes just after 562. True or false? The True. Remember, carbamoyl
ovale closes just prior to birth because the change in urea cycle takes phosphate synthetase and ornithine
birth. pulmonary circulation place in both the transcarbamoylase are mitochondrial
causes increased left atrial cytoplasm and the enzymes.
pressure. mitochondria.
552. True or false? The False. The gallbladder does 563. True or false? Vibrio True. Staphylococcus aureus and
gallbladder functions to not produce bile, but it parahaemolyticus group D enterococci also grow in
produce bile. concentrates bile via active require NaCl in its high-salt media.
sodium transport; water growth medium.
follows the sodium. 564. Unconsciously Repression
553. True or false? The increased False; it is for the forgetting(forgetting
oxygen consumption after production of toxic that you forgot
phagocytosis is for ATP metabolites. something!)
production. 565. A unilateral lesion in Nucleus ambiguus, resulting in the
554. True or false? The nucleus is True. Transcription what nucleus will uvula deviating away from the side
the site of transcription. (conversion of DNA to produce ipsilateral of the lesion.
RNA), as well as replication, paralysis of the soft
occurs in the nucleus. palate?
555. True or false? The portal True. (Remember, blood 566. A urethral swab of a Neisseria gonorrhoeae
tract of the liver lobule is the flows from the portal tracts patient shows gram-
first area to be oxygenated in to the central vein, so it is negative diplococci
the liver. the first area to receive in PMNs; what
blood and therefore organism do you
oxygen.) diagnose?
556. True or false? The presence True. Although the CSF 567. Use of an outlet for Displacement
of PMNs in the CSF is always normally contains 0 to 4 emotions (stuff flows
abnormal. lymphocytes or monocytes, downhill).
the presence of PMNs is
always considered

568. Ventral rami of what cervical nerves C3, C4, and C5

constitute the phrenic nerve? keep the
diaphragm alive!
569. The vertebral artery is a branch of what The subclavian 587. What abdominal muscle runs in a Internal abdominal
artery? artery posteroinferior direction, splits to oblique
570. Via what cell surface receptor does HDL Scavenger contribute to the rectus sheath,
cholesterol from the periphery enter receptor (SR-B1) contributes to the formation of the
hepatoceles? conjoint tendon, and in men gives rise
to the middle spermatic fascia and the
571. Via what pathway is glycolysis increased HMP shunt cremasteric muscle of the spermatic
after phagocytosis? cord?
572. What 11-amino acid peptide is the Substance P. 588. What Ab is an indication of low HBeAb
neurotransmitter of sensory neurons (Opioids relieve transmissibility for hepatitis?
that conveys pain from the periphery to pain in part by
the spinal cord? blocking 589. What Ab is an indication of recurrent HBc Ab
substance P.) disease for hepatitis?

573. What AA has a pKa of 13? Arginine 590. What AD dementia has a defect in Huntington's
chromosome 4, onset between the chorea. (Death in
574. What AA is a phenol? Tyrosine ages of 30 and 40, choreoathetosis, 15-20 years, often
575. What AA is a precursor of the following Glycine/arginine and progressive deterioration to an via suicide.)
substances? Creatine infantile state?
576. What AA is a precursor of the following Glutamate 591. What adult structures are derived Muscles of the
substances? GABA from preotic somites? internal eye
577. What AA is a precursor of the following Histidine 592. What aerobic branching rod that is Nocardia
substances? Histamine gram positive and partially acid-fast is asteroides
associated with cavitary
578. What AA is a precursor of the following Arginine
bronchopulmonary disease in
substances? N2O
immunosuppressed patients?
579. What AA is a precursor of the following Tryptophan
593. What Ag is needed to diagnose an HBeAg
substances? NAD
infectious patient with hepatitis B?
580. What AA is a precursor of the following Tryptophan
594. What antidepressant, which recently Venlafaxine. (It
substances? Serotonin
was approved for general anxiety also has a mild
581. What AA is broken down into N2O, Arginine disorder, inhibits the reuptake of NE dopaminergic
causing an increase in cyclic guanosine and 5-HT? effect.)
monophosphate (cGMP) of smooth
595. What antipsychotic movement Akathisia
muscle, hence vasodilation?
disorder can occur at any time and is
582. What AA is classified as basic even Histidine, characterized by a subjective sense
though its pK is 6.5 to 7? because of the of discomfort that brings on
imidazole ring restlessness, pacing, sitting down, and
found in the R getting up?
group, is basic.
596. What aphasia is seen as an inability to Receptive aphasia
583. What AA is the major carrier of nitrogen Glutamine comprehend spoken language and is due to a lesion
byproducts from most tissues in the speaking in a word salad? in Brodmann areas
body? 22, 39, and 40;
584. What AA undergoes N-glycosylation? Asparagine generally the
patient is unaware
585. What abdominal muscle contributes to External
of the deficit.
the anterior layer of the rectus sheath, abdominal
forms the inguinal ligament, and in men oblique 597. What aphasia produces a nonfluent Expressive aphasia
gives rise to the external spermatic pattern of speech with the abilty to
fascia of the spermatic cord? understand written and spoken
language seen in lesions in the
586. What abdominal muscle runs Transverse
dominant hemisphere?
horizontally, contributes to the posterior abdominis
rectus sheath, and contributes to form 598. What apoprotein is required for the apo B-48
the conjoint tendon? release of chylomicrons from the
epithelial cells into the lymphatics?
599. What apoprotein on HDL activates apo A-1
lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase
600. What AR disorder is seen by Ataxia-telangiectasia 611. What area of the lymph The inner cortex (paracortex)
age 1 to 2 with recurrent node is considered the contains the T cells, so it is
sinopulmonary infections, thymic-dependent area? considered the thymic-
uncoordinated muscle dependent area.
movements, and dilation of 612. What area of the nephron Collecting ducts, which make
the blood vessels? is sensitive to the effects of them readily permeable to
601. What area of the brain acts as Frontal eye field ADH? water reabsorption.
the center for contralateral (Brodmann area 8) 613. What area of the posterior The optic disk is the blind
horizontal gaze? aspect of the eye has no spot.
602. What area of the brain acts as PPRF photoreceptors?
the center for ipsilateral 614. What area of the retina Fovea
horizontal gaze? consists of only cones and
603. What area of the brain is The limbic system has the greatest visual
responsible for emotion, acuity?
feeding, mating, attention, and 615. What area of the small Ileum
memory? intestine is characterized
604. What area of the brain serves The thalamus (I like to think by Peyer's patches?
as the major sensory relay of the thalamus as the 616. What area of the spleen Red pulp (Remember, Red
center for visual, auditory, executive secretary for the consists of splenic cords of pulp and RBCs begin with R.)
gustatory, and tactile cerebral cortex. All Billroth and phagocytoses
information destined for the information destined for RBCs?
cerebral cortex, cerebellum, the cortex has to go
or basal ganglia? through the thalamus.) 617. What are defined by Ag- Idiotypes
binding specificity?
605. What area of the female The vagina
reproductive tract is lined by 618. What are five clinical signs Caput medusa, internal
stratified squamous of portal HTN? hemorrhoids, esophageal
epithelium rich in |glycogen? varices, retroperitoneal
varices, and splenomegaly
606. What area of the Posterior hypothalamic
hypothalamus is responsible zones; lesions here result 619. What are the adult Ligamentum arteriosum
for recognizing a decrease in in poikilothermy remnants of the following
body temperature and (environmental control of structures? Ductus
mediates the response to one's body temperature). arteriosus
conserve heat? 620. What are the adult Ligamentum venosum
607. What area of the Anterior hypothalamic remnants of the following
hypothalamus is responsible zone; lesions here result in structures? Ductus
for recognizing an increase in hyperthermia. venosus
body temperature and 621. What are the adult Fossa ovale
mediates the response to remnants of the following
dissipate heat? structures? Foramen
608. What area of the Lateral hypothalamic zone; ovale
hypothalamus is the feeding lesions here result in 622. What are the adult Ligament teres
center? aphagia. (Notice the remnants of the following
difference between the structures? Left umbilical
feeding center and the vein
satiety center; they are in 623. What are the adult Medial umbilical ligaments
different zones.) remnants of the following
609. What area of the limbic Amygdala; it helps imprint structures? Right and left
system is responsible for an emotional response in umbilical arteries
attaching emotional memory.
significance to a stimulus?
610. What area of the lymph node The outer cortex contains
contains germinal centers? most of the germinal
centers and therefore also
most B cells.
624. What are the CAGE Cut down (ever tried and failed?) 634. What are the 1. Benefits of the procedure 2. Purpose of
questions? Annoyed (criticism makes angry?) five pieces of the procedure 3. Risks of the procedure
Guilty (about drinking behavior?) information 4. The nature of the procedure (what you
Eye opener (drinking to shake out considered are doing) 5. The alternative to this
the cobwebs?) necessary for procedure and its availability (Don't
625. What are the cells of Chief cells fully informed forget the last one; this is where
the parathyroid consent? physicians get in trouble.)
gland that produce 635. What are the 1. Temporal 2. Zygomatic 3. Buccal 4.
PTH? five terminal Mandibular 5. Cervical (Two Zebras Bit
626. What are the eight 1. Fructokinase 2. Glucokinase 3. branches of the My Clavicle.)
liver-specific Glycerol kinase 4. PEPCK 5. facial nerve?
enzymes? Pyruvate carboxylase 6. 636. What are the Y, W-135, and C and A capsular
Galactokinase 7. Fructose-1, 6- four capsular polysaccharides
bisphosphatase 8. Glucose-6- polysaccharides
phosphatase used in the
627. What are the first Snails Neisseria
intermediate hosts meningitides
for trematodes? vaccine?

628. What are the five Isoleucine, threonine, tryptophan, 637. What are the 1. C5a 2. Leukotriene B4 3. IL-8 4.
AAs that are both tyrosine, and phenylalanine four Bacterial peptides
ketogenic and chemotactic
glucogenic? agents?

629. What are the five Four Ms and a U 1. Median 2. Medial 638. What are the 1. Laminin 2. Heparan sulfate (heparitin
branches of the antebrachial 3. Medial pectoral 4. four sulfate) 3. Fibronectin 4. Type IV
median cord of the Medial brachial cutaneus 5. Ulnar components of collagen
brachial plexus? the basement
630. What are the five STARS 1. Upper Subscapularis 2.
branches of the Thoracodorsal 3. Axillary 4. Radial 639. What are the 1. Incompetent patient (determined by
posterior cord of the 5. Lower Subscapularis four exceptions the courts) 2. Therapeutic privilege (in
brachial plexus? to requirements the best interest of the patient when he
for informed or she is unable to answer) 3. Waiver
631. What are the five Inferior pancreaticoduodenal, consent? signed by the patient 4. Emergency
branches of the middle colic,
superior mesenteric right colic, 640. What are the Steroid synthesis, drug detoxification,
artery? ileocolic, and 10 to 15 intestinal four functions of triglyceride resynthesis, and
arteries SER? Ca2+handling

632. What are the five Ig IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM 641. What are the 1. Recognize self from nonself 2. Amplify
isotypes? four major via cell division or complementation 3.
functions of the Control the level of the response 4.
633. What are the five Denial Anger Bargaining Depression acquired Remove foreign material
Kbler-Ross stages Acceptance No, they can be immune system?
of death and dying? skipped, repeated, and completed
Must they be out of sequence. 642. What are the 1. Masseter 2. Temporalis 3. Medial
completed in order? four muscles of pterygoid 4. Lateral pterygoid
643. What are the 1. Phosphorylation of mannose
four (lysosomes only) 2. Removal of mannose
posttranslational residues 3. Formation of glycosylate
modifications proteins 4. Phosphorylation of sulfate
done by the amino acids
644. What are the 1. Bunyavirus 2. Orthomyxovirus 3.
four segmented Arenavirus 4. Reovirus Remember BOAR
RNA viruses?

657. What are the Chondroitin sulfate and keratan

proteoglycans of sulfate
cartilage and bone?
645. What are the four 1. Decrease concentrations of Ag 658. What are the strongest Parental assignment and culture
ways to down- levels 2. Administer IgG in high determinants of gender (not biology)
regulate the immune concentrations 3. Inhibit B cells identity?
system? with Ag bound to IgG (complexes) 659. What are the three 1. Tinea coli 2. Haustra 3. Epiploic
4. Turn off the original T or B cell anatomic characteristics appendages
with anti-Ab that differentiate the
646. What are the functions To provide attachment between large bowel from the
of the zonula contiguous cells and to maintain a small bowel and the
occludens and the semipermeable barrier rectum?
zonula adherens 660. What are the three Oxazepam, temazepam, and
647. What are the genetic Allotypes benzodiazepines that do lorazepam (OTL) (mnemonic:
variants of a molecule not undergo microsomal Outside The Liver). They
within members of the oxidation? undergo glucuronide
same species? conjugation, not via the
648. What are the long Stereocilia cytochrome p450 system.
microvilli in the inner 661. What are the three The left gastric, splenic, and
ear and male branches of the celiac common hepatic arteries
reproductive tract trunk?
called? 662. What are the three Left colic, superior rectal, and
649. What are the Transketolase and transaldolase. branches of the inferior sigmoidal arteries
nonoxidative enzymes The reactions they catalyze are mesenteric artery?
of the HMP shunt? Are reversible. 663. What are the three 1. Lateral pectoral
the reactions they branches of the lateral 2. Lateral head of the median
catalyze reversible or cord of the brachial 3. Musculocutaneus
irreversible? plexus?
650. What are the only two Rhinovirus and hepatitis A virus 664. What are the three 1. Short attention span 2.
picornaviruses that do characteristics of Impulsivity 3. Hyperactivity
not lead to aseptic ADHD?
665. What are the three C's of 1. Cough 2. Coryza 3.
651. What are the Increased erection and libido measles? Conjunctivitis
pharmacologic effects
seen sexually with 666. What are the three 1. Nails 2. Hair 3. Sweat glands
Dopamine agonists? epidermal derivatives? (both apocrine and sebaceous)

652. What are the Erectile dysfunction 667. What are the three Barr bodies in females, T-cell
pharmacologic effects exceptions to the rule of receptor loci, and
seen sexually with codominant gene immunoglobulin light and heavy
Neuroleptics? expression? chain loci

653. What are the Inhibited orgasm 668. What are the three major 1. IgA receptor 2. Transport of
pharmacologic effects functions of secretory IgA across epithelial barriers 3.
seen sexually with IgA? Protection of IgA from
Serotonin? degradative proteases

654. What are the Priapism 669. What are the three Senile plaques, neurofibrillary
pharmacologic effects microscopic pathologic tangles, and granulovascular
seen sexually with changes seen in changes in neurons
Trazodone? Alzheimer's disease?

655. What are the Impaired ejaculation 670. What are the three 1. Picornavirus 2. Calicivirus 3.
pharmacologic effects naked RNA viruses? Reovirus (Remember PCR)
seen sexually with 671. What are the three Neutrophils, eosinophils, and
1-Blockers? polymorphonuclear basophils
656. What are the Impotence leukocytes? Be specific.
pharmacologic effects
seen sexually with -

672. What are the three 1. 7-methyl guanine cap on 684. What are the two exceptions Both Neisseria and
posttranscriptional the 5' end 2. Addition of to the rule "all cocci are gram Moraxella are gram-
modifications? the poly(A) tail to the 3' positive"? negative cocci.
end 3. Removal of introns
673. What are the three reasons 1. Tight junctions 2. 685. What are the two functions of Hormone secretion for T-
for the effectiveness of the Capillaries that lack the thymus in T-cell cell differentiation and T-
blood-brain barrier? fenestration 3. Very differentiation? cell education to
selective pinocytosis by recognize self from
the capillaries nonself
674. What are the three rules 1. Covalent bonding 686. What are the two hepatitis Hepatitis B and hepatitis C
governing a secondary between the hapten and viruses that can be chronic and
immune response? carrier 2. B-cell exposure can lead eventually to
to hapten twice 3. T-cell hepatocellular carcinoma?
exposure to carrier twice 687. What are the two ketogenic Leucine and lysine
675. What are the three rules of 1. One cell type 2. One Ab AAs?
clonal selection? type 3. Random selection 688. What are the two most Lysine and arginine
of hypervariable regions, common AAs found in
and only cells with bound histones?
Ag undergo clonal
expansion 689. What are the two opsonizing The Fc region of IgG and
factors? C3b
676. What are the three sites Two Lateral foramina of
where CSF can leave the Luschka and 1 Medial 690. What are the two precursors of Glycine and succinyl-CoA
ventricles and enter the foramen of Monroe (L for heme?
subarachnoid space? (Name Lateral and M for Medial) 691. What are the two ways that Aspartate and carbomoyl
the lateral and the medial nitrogen can enter into the PO4-
foramina.) urea cycle?
677. What are the three stages that 1. Protest 2. Despair 3. 692. What are the two ways to Recovery and death
children aged 7 months to 5 Detachment leave the prevalence pot?
years go through when they 693. What are the vitamin K- Factors II, VII, IX, X, and
are separated from a primary dependent coagulation proteins C and S
caregiver for a long time? factors?
678. What are the three surrogate 1. What did the patient 694. What artery is formed by the The basilar artery is
criteria? want? 2. What would the union of the two vertebral formed at the
patient say? 3. What is in arteries? pontomedullary junction.
the patient's best interests?
695. What artery supplies most of Middle cerebral artery
679. What are the three tissues 1. Liver 2. Muscle 3. the lateral surfaces of the
where triacylglycerols are Adipose tissue cerebral hemispheres?
696. What artery supplies the left Left coronary artery
680. What are the top three causes Birth defects, low birth ventricle, left atrium, and
of infant mortality? weight (< 1500 g) with interventricular septum?
neonatal respiratory
697. What artery supplies the right Right coronary artery
distress syndrome (NRDS),
atrium, right ventricle,
and SIDS
sinoatrial and atrioventricular
681. What are the two actions of It increases Ca2+ excretion nodes?
calcitonin? from the kidney and
698. What artery travels with the Left anterior descending
increases bone
following veins? Great artery
cardiac vein
682. What are the two chains of the gamma and delta chains
699. What artery travels with the Posterior interventricular
TCR that are mainly found on
following veins? Middle artery
the skin and mucosal
cardiac vein
700. What artery travels with the Right coronary artery
683. What are the two essential Linoleic acid and linolenic
following veins? Small
fatty acids? acid
cardiac vein

701. What artery turns into the dorsalis pedis Anterior tibial 715. What basic reflex regulates The myotatic reflex is
when it crosses the extensor retinaculum? artery muscle tone by contracting responsible for the tension
702. What artificial sweetener must patients Aspartame muscles in response to present in all resting
with PKU avoid? stretch of that muscle? muscle.
703. What ascending sensory system carries The DCML 716. What B cell disorder is Bruton X-linked
joint position, vibratory and pressure system. characterized by pre-B cells hypogammaglobinemia.
sensation, and discriminative touch from (Remember, in the bone marrow, no Tyrosine kinase deficiency
the trunk and limbs? everything but circulating B cells in plasma, leads to inadequate B cell
pain and normal cell-mediated maturation.
temperature.) immunity, low Igs, and
704. What aspects of sleep are affected during REM and stage appearance by 6 months of
benzodiazepine use? 4 sleep; they age?
decrease. 717. What bedside test is used to The Romberg sign is
705. What assay is used to identify MHC class I Microcytotoxic differentiate a dorsal column present if the patient sways
molecules? assay lesion from a lesion in the or loses balance when
vermis of the cerebral standing with eyes open. In
706. What attaches the cusps of the valves to Chordae cortex? a dorsal column lesion,
the papillary muscles in the heart? tendineae patients sway with eyes
707. What attaches to protons and allows them 2, 4- closed. (Don't forget this
to enter into the mitochondria without Dinitrophenol one.)
going through the ATP-generating 718. What blotting technique uses Southern blot
system? the following for analysis?
708. What axis I disorder is characterized by a Adjustment DNA
clinically significant syndrome that affects disorder. It is a 719. What blotting technique uses Western blot
social, occupational, and/or academic diagnosis of the following for analysis?
achievement; occurs less than 3 months exclusion Protein
after a stressor; and abates less than 6 (used if no
months after the stressor is removed? other choice). 720. What blotting technique uses Northern blot
the following for analysis?
709. What axis I disorder is characterized by Autism. Head- RNA
pronoun reversal, preference for banging,
inanimate objects, obliviousness to the rocking, and 721. What bonds are broken by Internal 3', 5' PDE bonds
external environment, lack of separation self-injurious endonucleases?
anxiety, and abnormalities in language behaviors are 722. What bonds are broken by External 3', 5' PDE bonds
development? also common exonucleases?
in autism. 723. What bone houses the ulnar Humerus (between the
710. What bacterium found in poorly Clostridium groove? medial epicondyle and the
preserved canned food causes flaccid botulinum trochlea)
paralysis? 724. What bones make up the Pubis, ilium, and ischium
711. What bacterium is a gram-negative, Pseudomonas acetabulum?
oxidase-positive aerobic rod that aeruginosa 725. What branches of CN X are The sensory component is
produces a grapelike odor and pyocyanin the sensory and motor through the superior
pigmentation? components of the cough laryngeal nerve, and the
712. What bacterium is characterized by large Bacillus reflex? Be specific. motor limb is via the
boxcar-shaped gram-positive rods and is anthracis recurrent laryngeal nerve.
spore-forming, aerobic, and associated 726. What branch off the PICA
with cutaneous infections and woolsorter's vertebral artery supplies
disease? The cerebellum and the
713. What bacterium is diagnosed using the Legionella dorsolateral part of the
Dieterle silver stain? medulla?
714. What bacterium is responsible for Bacillus 727. What branch off the Anterior spinal artery
woolsorter's disease? anthracis vertebral artery supplies
The ventrolateral two-thirds
of the cervical spinal cord
and the ventrolateral part of
the medulla?

728. What branch of the Adaptive branch. The adaptive

immune system is branch of the immune system has
acquired in response to a slow initiation with rapid
an Ag? responses thereafter.
729. What Brodmann area is Areas 44 and 45 741. What case is best Brother Fox (Eichner vs. Dillon).
associated with known for use of the The substituted standard could not
Broca's area? "best interest apply because the patient had
730. What Brodmann area is Area 8 standard"? never been competent, so no one
associated with knew what the patient would have
Frontal eye fields? wanted. Therefore, the decision
was based on what a "reasonable"
731. What Brodmann area is Area 6 person would have wanted.
associated with
Premotor cortex? 742. What case is known as Infant Doe. Generally, parents
"let nature take its cannot forego lifesaving treatment,
732. What Brodmann area is Areas 41 and 42 course"? but this case states that there are
associated with exceptions to the rule.
Primary auditory
cortex? 743. What causes an Vitamin D
increase in bone
733. What Brodmann area is Area 4 mineralization and
associated with Ca2+ along with PO4-
Primary motor cortex? absorption from the
734. What Brodmann area is Areas 1, 2, and 3 GI tract and kidney
associated with tubules?
Primary somatosensory 744. What causes slow Hypermyelination of the corpus
cortex? writhing movements striatum and the thalamus (seen in
735. What Brodmann area is Area 17 (athetosis)? cerebral palsy)
associated with 745. What causes the lysis The lack of glutathione peroxidase
Primary visual cortex? of RBCs by oxidizing activity results in a decrease in
736. What Brodmann area is Areas 5 and 7 agents in a G-6-PD NADPH production, leaving
associated with deficiency? glutathione in the reduced state.
Somatosensory 746. What causes The poly(A) site on the DNA
association cortex? transcription to stop
737. What Brodmann area is Areas 18 and 19 in eukaryotes?
associated with Visual 747. What cell in bone is a Osteoclasts
association cortex? part of the
738. What Brodmann area is Area 22 and occasionally 39 and mononuclear
associated with 40 phagocytic system?
Wernicke's area? 748. What cell is under Sertoli cell
739. What bursa is inflamed Infrapatellar bursa control of FSH and
in clergyman's knee? testosterone; secretes
740. What capsular serotype K1 capsule inhibin, MIF, and
is associated with androgen-binding
Escherichia coli- protein; and
induced meningitis? phagocytizes the
excess cytoplasm of
the spermatid?
749. What cell membrane Microvillus
structure increases
the surface area of a
cell and has actin
randomly assorted
within its structure?
750. What cell of the Paneth cells
duodenum contains
high concentrations of
lysozymes and has
phagocytic activity?

751. What cell of the duodenum Enteroendocrine (EE) cells; 767. What cell surface marker is found CD19
secretes CCK? they also secrete secretin. on blood B cells?
752. What cell of the male Leydig cells produce 768. What cell surface modification of Cilia
reproductive system testosterone. LH stimulates ependymal cells and respiratory
produces testosterone? Leydig cells. (Both start with epithelium has a 9 + 2
L.) microtubular configuration and
753. What cell of the nephron is Juxtaglomerular (JG) cell movement as its function?
responsible for renin 769. What cell transports IgA, is M-cells
production and secretion? secreted by plasma cells, and is in
754. What cells are atypical on a T cells, not B cells Peyer's patches to the
peripheral blood smear in gastrointestinal lumen?
heterophil-positive 770. What cell type is found in the B cells are mainly
mononucleosis? peripheral white pulp of the found in the peripheral
755. What cell's axons are the The Purkinje cell spleen? white pulp and
only ones that leave the germinal centers in the
cerebellar cortex? spleen.

756. What cells contribute to the Astrocytes 771. What cell type of the body or Parietal cells
blood-brain barrier and fundus of the stomach secretes IF? (Remember, they
proliferate in response to secrete HCl, too.)
CNS injury? 772. What cell type of the body or Chief cells
757. What cells lining the Ependymal cells fundus of the stomach secretes
ventricles have cilia on their pepsinogen?
luminal surface to move 773. What cell type of the epidermis Langerhans cells
CSF? functions as antigen-presenting (found in the stratum
758. What cells of the adrenal Chromaffin cells (adrenal cells? spinosum)
gland are neural crest medulla) 774. What cell type of the epidermis Melanocytes
derivatives? originates from the neural crest?
759. What cells of the epidermis Keratinocytes, the most 775. What cerebral vessel size is Small to medium-sized
carry the pigment melanin? numerous cells in the affected in patients with vascular cerebral vessels
epidermis, carry melanin dementia?
and produce keratin. 776. What cestode causes Taenia solium
760. What cells of the epidermis, Merkel cells (Merkel's tactile cysticercosis?
derived from the neural cells) 777. What chamber of the eye lies Posterior chamber
crest, act as between the iris and the lens?
778. What chromosome 4, AD disorder Huntington's chorea;
761. What cells of the nephron Macula densa is a degeneration of GABA patients have chorea,
function as sodium neurons in the striatum of the athetoid movements,
concentration sensors of the indirect pathway of the basal progressive dementia,
tubular fluid? ganglia? and behavioral
762. What cells of the retina see Rods problems.
in black and white and are 779. What chromosome codes for HLA The short arm of
used for night vision? gene products? chromosome 6
763. What cells of the retina sees Cones (C for color and 780. What chromosome is autism Chromosome 15
in color and needs bright cones) linked to?
light to be activated?
781. What classical conditioning Exposure
764. What cells of the thyroid Parafollicular C cells therapy or modification is
gland secrete calcitonin? described as Forcing patients to
765. What cell surface marker do CD3 confront their fears by being
all T cells have? exposed to them until they are
766. What cell surface marker is CD40 extinguished?
found on activated helper T

782. What classical conditioning therapy Aversive

or modification is described as conditioning
Pairing noxious stimuli to an
inappropriate behavior?
783. What classical conditioning therapy Systematic 799. What CNs are responsible for the CN II is the sensory
or modification is described as desensitization sensor and motor components of limb and CN III is the
Triage of a hierarchy of fears (from the light reflex? motor component
least to most), then teaching muscle through
relaxation techniques in the parasympathetic
presence of those fears until the stimulation.
subject is not afraid anymore? 800. What CNs arise from The CN IX, X, and XII CN XI
784. What CN carries preganglionic CN X (Remember, medulla? arises from the cervical
parasympathetic fibers that the vagus nerve spinal cord.
innervate the viscera of the neck, supplies the 801. What CNs arise from The CN III and IV
thorax, foregut, and midgut? parasympathetic midbrain?
information from the
802. What CNs arise from The pons? CN V, VI, VII, and VIII
tip of the pharynx to
the end of the midgut 803. What CNS demyelinating disease Multiple sclerosis
and all between.) is characterized by diplopia,
785. What CN is associated with the None; it degenerates. ataxia, paresthesias, monocular
Fifth pharyngeal arch? blindness and weakness, or
spastic paresis?
786. What CN is associated with the CN V
First pharyngeal arch? 804. What CN transmits sensory CN V1, the occulomotor
information from the cornea? division of the
787. What CN is associated with the CN X trigeminal nerve, is the
Fourth pharyngeal arch? sensory component of
788. What CN is associated with the CN VII the corneal reflex.
Second pharyngeal arch? 805. What color do fungi stain with Hot pink with PAS and
789. What CN is associated with the Vagus nerve PAS? Silver stain? grey to black with silver
sensory innervation of stain
Laryngopharynx? 806. What complement factor C1 inhibitor (C1-INH)
790. What CN is associated with the Maxillary division of deficiency leads to Hereditary
sensory innervation of CN V and angioedema?
Nasopharynx? glossopharyngeal 807. What complement factor C3 deficiency
nerves deficiency leads to Increased
791. What CN is associated with the Glossopharyngeal susceptibility to pyogenic
sensory innervation of nerve infections?
Oropharynx? 808. What complement factor C1, C2, or C4 deficiency
792. What CN is associated with the CN X deficiency leads to Leukocyte
Sixth pharyngeal arch? adhesion deficiency with poor
793. What CN is associated with the CN IX opsonization?
Third pharyngeal arch? 809. What complement factor C5-C8 deficiency
794. What CN nucleus receives auditory Superior olivary deficiency leads to Recurrent
information from both ears via the nucleus gonococcal infections?
cochlear nuclei? 810. What complement factor or C3a, C4a, C5a
795. What CNs are affected if there is a CN VI, VII, and VIII factors are associated with
lesion in Pontomedullary junction? Anaphylaxis?

796. What CNs are affected if there is a CN III and IV 811. What complement factor or C5a
lesion in The midbrain? factors are associated with
797. What CNs are affected if there is a CN IX, X, and XII
lesion in The upper medulla? 812. What complement factor or C5-C9
factors are associated with
798. What CNs are affected if there is a CN V Membrane attack complex
lesion in The upper pons? (MAC)?
813. What complement factor or C3b
factors are associated with

814. What complex is needed for Biotin, ATP, and CO2 829. What component of the Puborectalis
propionyl CoA carboxylase? pelvic diaphragm forms the
815. What complex of the ETC Complex 4 rectal sling (muscle of
contains Cu2+? continence)?
816. What component of the ANS, Parasympathetic 830. What component of the Mesencephalic nucleus
when stimulated, results in stimulation, via the vagus trigeminal nuclei Forms the
bronchoconstriction? nerve, results in sensory component of the
bronchoconstriction, jaw jerk reflex?
whereas sympathetic 831. What component of the Spinal trigeminal nucleus
stimulation results in trigeminal nuclei Receives
bronchodilation. sensory input (all but pain
817. What component of the corneal Motor aspect and temperature) from the
reflex is lost in a CN VII deficit? face, scalp, dura, and the
818. What component of the ETC is Cytochrome b/c1 oral and nasal cavities?
inhibited by the following? 832. What component of the Motor nucleus of CN V
Antimycin A trigeminal nuclei Supplies
819. What component of the ETC is ATP/ADP Translocase the muscles of mastication?
inhibited by the following? 833. What connects the lateral Foramen of Monro
Atractyloside ventricles to the third
820. What component of the ETC is Cytochrome a/a3 ventricle?
inhibited by the following? 834. What connects the third and Cerebral aqueduct
Azide the fourth ventricles?
821. What component of the ETC is Complex I 835. What cycle is responsible Cori cycle
inhibited by the following? for converting to glucose in
Barbiturates the liver the lactate
822. What component of the ETC is Cytochrome a/a3 produced in the RBCs?
inhibited by the following? CO 836. What cytokine do CD4 T IL-4 is secreted to activate B
823. What component of the ETC is Cytochrome a/a3 cells secrete to activate B cells. This begins the second
inhibited by the following? cells when the specific step in the immune response,
Cyanide peptide in the groove of the known as Activation. CD4 T
MHC II molecule interacts cells secrete INF-alpha to
824. What component of the ETC is Fo/F1 complex with the TCR? activate macrophages
inhibited by the following?
Oligomycin 837. What cytokine do Th1 cells INF-gamma
secrete to inhibit Th2 cell
825. What component of the ETC is Complex I function?
inhibited by the following?
Rotenone 838. What cytokines do Th2 cells IL-4, IL-10, and IL-13
secrete to inhibit Th1 cell
826. What component of the inner Utricle and saccule function?
ear Contains endolymph and
gravity receptors monitoring 839. What cytoplasmic organelle SER
linear acceleration and carries the enzymes for
deceleration of the head, noting elongation and desaturation
changes in head position? of fatty acyl CoA?

827. What component of the inner Semicircular duct 840. What cytoplasmic pathway HMP shunt
ear Contains endolymph and produces NADPH and is a
responds to head turning and source of ribose 5-
movement? phosphate?

828. What component of the inner Semicircular canal 841. What deep cerebellar nuclei The lateral vestibular nucleus
ear Contains perilymph and receive Purkinje cell
responds to angular projections in The
acceleration and deceleration of flocculonodular lobe?
the head? 842. What deep cerebellar nuclei The dentate nucleus
receive Purkinje cell
projections in The
intermediate hemispheres?

843. What deep cerebellar nuclei The interposed nucleus 855. What disease is associated with the Primary
receive Purkinje cell projections HLA-A3 allele Hemochromatosis
in The lateral cerebellar 856. What disease is associated with the Systemic lupus
hemispheres? HLA-DR2 and HLA-DR3 alleles erythematosus
844. What deep cerebellar nuclei The fastigial nucleus 857. What disease is described by Amyotrophic lateral
receive Purkinje cell projections bilateral flaccid weakness of the sclerosis (Lou
in The vermis? upper limbs (LMN) and bilateral Gehrig's disease) is
845. What dementia is associated with These are the gross spastic weakness of the lower limbs a LMN lesion at the
dilated ventricles with diffuse pathologic changes (UMN) beginning at the cervical level level of the lesion
cortical atrophy, decreased associated with of the spinal cord and progressing and UMN lesion
parietal lobe blood flow, and a Alzheimer's disease. up or down the cord? below the level of
decrease in choline acetyl the lesion.
transferase activity? 858. What disease is described by the Tourette's
846. What determines the rate of a The energy of activation following characteristics: multiple syndrome; it is
reaction? (Ea) motor and vocal tics, average age of usually first
onset 7, a M:F ratio of 3:1, and reported by
847. What determines the rate of The energy of activation association with increased levels of teachers as ADHD
reaction? dopamine? with symptoms of
848. What direction does RNA 3'-5' direction, obsessive-
polymerase move along the synthesizing RNA in the compulsive
template strand of DNA during 5'-3' direction disorder and
transcription? learning disabilities.
849. What direction does the The gut rotates 859. What disease is produced by a Albinism. Tyrosine is
primitive gut rotate? What is its clockwise around the deficiency in the enzyme tyrosinase? converted to
axis of rotation? superior mesenteric melanin by the
artery. enzyme tyrosinase.
850. What direction would the tongue Left CN XII lesion would 860. What disease results in a failure of Hirschsprung's
protrude in a left CN XII lesion? result in the tongue neural crest cells to migrate to the disease (colonic
pointing to the left myenteric plexus of the sigmoid gangliosus)
(points at the affected colon and rectum?
side). 861. What diseases are associated with Rheumatoid arthritis
851. What direct-pathway basal Parkinson's disease (I HLA-DR4 and type 1 diabetes
ganglia disease is described by can't underestimate all (with HLA-DR3)
masklike facies, stooped of the buzzwords in this 862. What diseases are associated with Psoriasis, ankylosing
posture, cogwheel rigidity, pill- question. Remember it.) the HLA-B27 allele spondylitis,
rolling tremor at rest, and a gait inflammatory bowel
characterized by shuffling and disease, and Reiter's
chasing the center of gravity? syndrome
852. What disconnect syndrome Transcortical apraxia; 863. What diseases are associated with Sjogren's syndrome,
results from a lesion in the Wernicke's area of the the HLA-DR3 allele active hepatitis,
corpus callosum secondary to left hemisphere cannot systemic lupus
an infarct in the anterior cerebral communicate with the erythematosus (with
artery, so that the person can right primary motor HLA-DR2) and type
comprehend the command but cortex because of the 1 diabetes (with
not execute it? lesion in the corpus HLA-DR4)
864. What disorder, experienced more Generalized anxiety
853. What disease has a genetically Gilbert's syndrome than half of the time for a 6-month disorder
low level of UDPglucuronate period, is described as being fearful,
transferase, resulting in elevated worrisome, or impatient and having
free unconjugated bilirubin? sleep disturbances, poor
854. What disease is a cavitation of Syringomyelia concentration, hyperactivity, and an
the spinal cord causing bilateral overall sense of autonomic
loss of pain and temperature at hyperactivity?
the level of the lesion?

865. What disorder is associated with Extrahepatic biliary 880. What does the tunica intima of An internal elastic
jaundice, white stools, and dark atresia arteries have that veins do not? lamina
urine due to biliary duct 881. What do LMNs innervate? They innervate
occlusion secondary to skeletal muscle.
incomplete recanalization?
882. What do UMNs innervate? They innervate LMNs.
866. What disorder is characterized Dysthymia, which is also 883. What drug is being given to HIV- Nevirapine; it cuts
by a depressed mood and a loss known as nonpsychotic positive mothers during labor and the rate from 20% to
of interest or pleasure for more depression. (Think of it to the children after birth to 10%. AZT is also used,
than 2 years? as the car running but decrease the risk of mother-to-child cutting the rate from
not well.) HIV transmission? 20% to 10%.
867. What disorder is characterized Cyclothymia 884. What drug is used to prevent Disulfiram
by an alternating pattern of (nonpsychotic bipolar). alcohol consumption by blocking
depressed mood with periods of Patients are ego aldehyde dehydrogenase?
hypomania for more than 2 syntonic. 885. What element is needed for the Copper (Cu+)
years? proper alignment of tropocollagen
868. What disorder is characterized Pernicious anemia molecules?
by autoantibodies to IF? 886. What elongation factor is eEF-2 is the site
869. What disorder is described as Malingering inactivated by ADP ribosylation, where Pseudomonas
having Conscious symptoms preventing translation? and Diphtheria toxins
with conscious motivation? work.
870. What disorder is described as Factitious disorder 887. What embryonic structure, around The notochord
having Conscious symptoms day 19, tells the ectoderm above it
with unconscious motivation? to differentiate into neural tissue?
871. What disorder is described as Somatoform disorder 888. What embryonic structure forms Mesonephric duct
having Unconscious symptoms the adult female structures?
with unconscious motivation? Gartner's duct
872. What disorder is due to a 5-- Male pseudo- 889. What embryonic structure forms Phallus
reductase deficiency, resulting in intersexuality the adult female structures? Glans
testicular tissue and stunted male (hermaphrodite); these clitoris, corpus cavernosus, and
external genitalia? individuals are 46XY. spongiosum
873. What DNA excision and repair Excision endonuclease, 890. What embryonic structure forms Labioscrotal swelling
enzyme is deficient in patients which removes thiamine the adult female structures? Labia
with xeroderma pigmentosum? dimers from DNA majora
874. What DNA replication enzyme Helicase (requires ATP 891. What embryonic structure forms Urogenital folds
breaks the hydrogen bond of for energy) the adult female structures? Labia
base pairing, forming two minora
replication forks? 892. What embryonic structure forms Gubernaculum
875. What DNA viral disease is Parvovirus B-19 the adult female structures?
associated with aplastic crisis in Ovarian and round ligaments
patients with sickle cell anemia? 893. What embryonic structure forms Gonads
876. What DNA virus is associated HHV 6 the adult female structures?
with exanthem subitum (roseola)? Ovary, follicles, rete ovarii
877. What DNA virus is associated CMV; remember, EBV is 894. What embryonic structure forms Urogenital sinus
with heterophile-negative associated with the adult female structures?
mononucleosis? heterophile-positive Urinary bladder, urethra, greater
mononucleosis. vestibular glands, vagina
878. What does Candida albicans do It forms a germinal tube 895. What embryonic structure forms Paramesonephric
that distinguishes it from other at 37C. the adult female structures? ducts
fungi? Uterine tube, uterus, cervix, and
879. What does hepatitis D virus need HBsAg as its envelope upper third of the vagina
from hepatitis B virus to be

896. What embryonic structure forms the adult Phallus

male structure? Corpus cavernosus,
corpus spongiosum, and glans and body
of the penis
897. What embryonic structure forms the adult Mesonephric 910. What encapsulated group of Golgi tendon organs are
male structure? Epididymis, ductus duct nerve endings seen at the stimulated by Ib afferent
deferens, seminal vesicle, and ejaculatory muscle-tendon junction neurons in response to an
duct responds to an increase in increase in force or tension.
898. What embryonic structure forms the adult Gubernaculum tension generated in that The inverse muscle reflex
male structure? Gubernaculum testes muscle? (This is dropping a protects muscle from being
box that is too heavy to torn; it limits the tension on
899. What embryonic structure forms the adult Labioscrotal carry.) the muscle.
male structure? Scrotum swelling
911. What encapsulated Thymus gland. (Thymus
900. What embryonic structure forms the adult Gonads lymphoid organ is gland is essential for T cell
male structure? Testes, seminiferous characterized by presence maturation.)
tubules, and rete testes of Hassall's corpuscles, and
901. What embryonic structure forms the adult Urogenital absence of germinal centers
male structure? Urinary bladder, urethra, sinus and B cells?
prostate gland, bulbourethral gland 912. What encephalopathy Wernicke's encephalopathy
902. What embryonic structure forms the adult Urogenital causes ocular palsies,
male structure? Ventral part of the penis folds confusion, and gait
903. What embryonic structure forms the Mesonephric abnormalities related to a
following adult structures? Collecting duct (ureteric lesion in the mammillary
ducts, calyces, renal pelvis, and ureter bud) bodies and/or the
dorsomedial nuclei of the
904. What embryonic structure forms the Phallus, thalamus?
following adult structures? External urogenital
genitalia folds, and 913. What endotoxin receptor is CD14
labioscrotal the best marker for
swellings macrophages?

905. What embryonic structure forms the Urachus 914. What Enterobacteriaceae Salmonella
following adult structures? Median are prone to produce
umbilical ligament osteomyelitis in sickle cell
906. What embryonic structure forms the Metanephros
following adult structures? Nephrons, 915. What enzyme catalyzes the Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase,
kidney covalent bonding of the which uses 2 ATPs for this
AA's carboxyl group to the reaction.
907. What embryonic structure forms the Urogenital 3' end of tRNA?
following adult structures? Urinary sinus
bladder and urethra 916. What enzyme catalyzes the HMG-CoA reductase
rate-limiting step in
908. What embryonic week sees the formation Third week cholesterol metabolism?
of the notochord and the neural tube?
917. What enzyme catalyzes the Carnitine acyltransferase-I
909. What encapsulated gram-negative, Klebsiella rate-limiting step in fatty
lactose-fermenting rod is associated with pneumoniae acid oxidation?
pneumonia in patients with alcoholism,
diabetes, and chronic lung disease? 918. What enzyme catalyzes the Acetyl CoA carboxylase
rate-limiting step in fatty
acid synthesis?
919. What enzyme catalyzes the Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphatase
rate-limiting step in
920. What enzyme catalyzes the Glycogen phosphorylase
rate-limiting step in
921. What enzyme catalyzes the -ALA synthase
rate-limiting step in heme
922. What enzyme catalyzes the PRPP aminotransferase
rate-limiting step in purine

923. What enzyme catalyzes the rate- Aspartate 941. What enzyme is Hepatic glycogen
limiting step in pyrimidine transcarbamylase deficient in the following phosphorylase
synthesis? glycogen storage
924. What enzyme catalyzes the rate- Isocitrate disease? Hers' disease
limiting step in the TCA cycle? dehydrogenase
925. What enzyme catalyzes the rate- Carbamoyl 942. What enzyme is Muscle glycogen phosphorylase
limiting step of the urea cycle? phosphate deficient in the following
synthetase I glycogen storage
926. What enzyme catalyzes the Glutamate disease? McArdle's
reversible oxidative deamination of dehydrogenase disease
glutamate and produces the TCA 943. What enzyme is Lysosomal -1, 4-glucosidase
cycle intermediate -ketoglutarate? deficient in the following
927. What enzyme deficiency results in Homogentisate glycogen storage
darkening of the urine when oxidase deficiency is disease? Pompe's
exposed to air? seen in patients with disease
alcaptonuria. 944. What enzyme is Glucose-6-phosphatase
928. What enzyme does HIV use to Integrase deficient in the following
integrate the proviral dsDNA into glycogen storage
the host? disease? von Gierke's
929. What enzyme has a 5' to 3' synthesis DNA polymerase I
of the Okazaki fragments, 3' 945. What enzyme is inhibited Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase.
exonuclease activity, and 5' by disulfiram? When this enzyme is blocked,
exonuclease activity? acetaldehyde builds up, and its
presence in excess results in
930. What enzyme, induced by insulin Lipoprotein lipase nausea and hypotension.
and activated by apo C-II, is
required for chylomicron and VLDL 946. What enzyme is used to S1 nuclease
metabolism? remove the hairpin loop
during production of
931. What enzyme is blocked by 5-FU? Thymidylate cDNA from mRNA?
947. What enzyme of heme Uroporphyrinogen-I synthase
932. What enzyme is blocked by Aldehyde synthesis is deficient in
disulfiram? dehydrogenase the autosomal dominant
933. What enzyme is blocked by Ribonucleotide disorder acute
hydroxyurea? reductase intermittent porphyria?
934. What enzyme is blocked by Dihydrofolate 948. What enzyme of purine PRPP aminotransferase
methotrexate/ trimethoprim? reductase synthesis is inhibited by
935. What enzyme is deficient in acute Uroporphyrinogen I allopurinol and 6-
intermittent porphyria? synthetase mercaptopurine?

936. What enzyme is deficient in Uroporphyrinogen 949. What enzyme of Thymidylate synthase
congenital erythropoietic III cosynthase pyrimidine synthesis is
porphyria? inhibited by the
following? 5-FU
937. What enzyme is deficient in Ferrochelatase
hereditary protoporphyria? 950. What enzyme of Ribonucleotide reductase
pyrimidine synthesis is
938. What enzyme is deficient in patients NADPH oxidase is
inhibited by the
with CGD? deficient, resulting in
an inability to
produce toxic
metabolites. 951. What enzyme of Dihydrofolate reductase
pyrimidine synthesis is
939. What enzyme is deficient in patients Phenylalanine
inhibited by the
with PKU? hydroxylase
940. What enzyme is deficient in Purine nucleoside Methotrexate
selective T cell immunodeficiency? phosphorylase

952. What enzyme of the purine salvage HGPRT 967. What excitatory fibers Climbing fibers;, they are
pathway is deficient in the following? arise from the inferior monosynaptic input on Purkinje
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome olivary nuclei on the cells. Mossy fibers, also excitatory,
953. What enzyme of the purine salvage Adenosine contralateral side of are axons of all other sources and
pathway is deficient in the following? deaminase the body? synapse on granule cells.
954. What enzyme of the purine salvage Purine nucleoside 968. What factors are EF-1 and GTP
pathway is deficient in the following? phosphorylase needed for elongation
Selective T-cell immunodeficiency in eukaryotes?
955. What enzyme of the TCA cycle also Succinate 969. What factors are EF-Tu or EF-ts and GTP
acts as complex II of the ETC? dehydrogenase needed for elongation
956. What enzyme of the TCA cycle Succinate in prokaryotes?
catalyzes the production of the dehydrogenase 970. What factors are Elongation factor-G and GTP
following: FADH2 needed for translation
957. What enzyme of the TCA cycle Succinyl CoA in prokaryotes?
catalyzes the production of the synthetase 971. What factors are EF-2 and GTP
following: GTP needed for
958. What enzyme of the TCA cycle Isocitrate translocation in
catalyzes the production of the dehydrogenase, eukaryotes?
following: NADH (hint: 3 enzymes) -ketoglutarate 972. What facultative Escherichia coli
dehydrogenase, gram-negative
and malate anaerobic rod is
dehydrogenase motile, ferments
959. What enzyme of the TCA cycle Succinyl CoA lactose, and is the
catalyzes the substrate level synthetase MCC of UTIs?
phosphorylation? 973. What facultative Histoplasma capsulatum infects
960. What enzyme produces an RNA Primase intracellular fungus is the cells of the RES and can result
primer in the 5'-3' direction and is associated with in hepatosplenomegaly.
essential to DNA replication because hepatosplenomegaly?
DNA polymerases are unable to 974. What family do the Bunyavirus
synthesize DNA without an RNA following viruses
primer? belong to? California
961. What enzyme requires molybdenum Xanthine oxidase encephalitis
as a cofactor? 975. What family do the Filovirus
962. What epidermal layer's function is to Stratum following viruses
release lipids to act as a sealant? granulosum belong to? Ebola

963. What ethnic group has the highest Native Americans 976. What family do the Bunyavirus
adolescent suicide rate? following viruses
belong to?
964. What eukaryotic translation enzyme is eEF-1 Hantavirus
associated with the following:
Elongation 977. What family do the Paramyxovirus
following viruses
965. What eukaryotic translation enzyme is eIF-2 in the P site belong to? Measles
associated with the following:
Initiation 978. What family do the Rhabdovirus
following viruses
966. What eukaryotic translation enzyme is No enzymes are belong to? Rabies
associated with the following: needed. When the
Termination stop codon 979. What family do the Paramyxovirus
reaches the A site, following viruses
it results in belong to? RSV
termination. 980. What fat-soluble Vitamin E
vitamin is connected
to selenium

981. What fissure of the cerebral Central sulcus (sulcus of 993. What form of bilirubin can Unconjugated free bilirubin
cortex runs perpendicular to the Rolando) cross the blood-brain
lateral fissure and separates the barrier?
frontal and the parietal lobes? 994. What form of bilirubin is Unconjugated (indirect)
carried on albumin?
982. What fissure of the cerebral Lateral fissure (fissure of 995. What form of conditioning Operant conditioning
cortex separates the frontal and Sylvius) is defined as a new (reinforcement is after a
temporal lobes rostrally and response to an old response)
partially separates the parietal stimulus resulting in a
and temporal lobes? consequence?
983. What five cofactors and 1. TTP 2. Lipoic acid 3. 996. What form of continuous cDNA, when it is made from
coenzymes are required by Coenzyme A from DNA, used in cloning, has mRNA
pyruvate dehydrogenase? pantothenate 4. NAD(H) no introns or regulatory
(from niacin or elements?
tryptophan) 5. FADH2 997. What form of dementia is Creutzfeldt-Jakob's disease.
(from riboflavin) characterized by onset at Patients first develop vague
984. What five main oxidizing 1. H2O2 2. Superoxide 3. age 40 to 50, rapid somatic complaints and
reactions are used to kill Hydroxyl radical 4. progression, infection by anxiety, rapidly followed by
ingested organisms? Myeloperoxidase 5. a prion, and death within dysarthria, myoclonus, ataxia,
Hypochlorous acid 2 years? and choreoathetosis.
985. What five pathways use SAM (S- 1. Epinephrine synthesis 998. What form of depression Seasonal affective disorder
adenosylmethionine) as the 2. Phosphatidyl choline is due to abnormal (treat with bright light therapy)
methyl donor? 3. Creatine 4. metabolism of melatonin?
Methylation of cytosine 999. What form of immunity is Cell-mediated immunity
5. N-methyl cap of responsible for removal
mRNA of intracellular
986. What five things are checked in 1. Skin color 2. Heart rate infections?
the APGAR test? 3. Reflexes 4. Muscle 1000. What form of Plasmodium Hypnozoite
tone 5. Respiratory rate species affects the liver?
APGAR, Appearance,
Pulse, Grimace, Activity, 1001. What form of the Sporozoites
Respiration Plasmodium species are
injected into humans by
987. What foramen must be Foramen of Winslow mosquitoes?
traversed for entry into the
lesser peritoneal sac? 1002. What form of the Gametocytes
Plasmodium species is
988. What form of AA is found only Hydroxyproline ingested by mosquitoes?
in collagen?
1003. What four branches of the 1. Dorsal scapular 2.
989. What form of alcohol causes Methanol (wood brachial plexus arise prior Suprascapular 3. Long thoracic
blindness? alcohol) to the first rib? 4. Nerve to subclavius
990. What form of anxiety, appearing Stranger anxiety 1004. What four CN carry CN III, VII, IX, and X
at 6 months, peaking at 8 preganglionic
months, and disappearing by 1 parasympathetic fibers?
year of age, is seen in the
presence of unfamiliar people? 1005. What four substances 1. Glucagon 2. NADH 3. Acetyl
increase the rate of CoA 4. ATP
991. What form of bias is due to false Lead-time bias gluconeogenesis?
estimates of survival rates? (remember, patients
don't live longer with 1006. What Freudian psyche Ego
the disease; they are component is described
diagnosed sooner.) as Reality, rationality,
language basis?
992. What form of bias occurs when Pygmalion effect
the experimenter's expectation (experimenter
inadvertently is expressed to expectancy). This can be
the subjects, producing the eliminated with double-
desired effects? How can it be blind studies.

1007. What Freudian psyche component is Superego 1020. What genus of bacteria is described by Staphylococcus
described as The conscience, morals, catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci in
beliefs (middle of the road)? clusters?
1008. What Freudian psyche component is Id (pleasure 1021. What gland is found in the muscular Thyroid gland
described as The urges, sex principle) triangle of the neck?
aggression, and "primitive" processes?
1009. What frontal lobe cortex is associated Prefrontal 1022. What glial cell is derived from Microglia
with organizing and planning the cortex; it is in mesoderm and acts as a scavenger, (Microglia and
intellectual and emotional aspect of front of the cleaning up cellular debris after injury? mesoderm both
behavior? premotor area. begin with M)
1010. What fructose metabolism enzyme is Aldolase B 1023. What gluconeogenic enzyme is absent in Glucose-6-
deficient in patients with vomiting, deficiencies are muscle, accounting for its inability to use phosphatase
apathy, diarrhea, jaundice, proximal treated by glycogen as a source for blood glucose?
renal tubular acidosis, hypoglycemia, eliminating 1024. What gluconeogenic mitochondrial Pyruvate
and hyperuricemia? fructose from enzyme requires biotin? carboxylase
the diet.
1025. What glycolytic enzyme has a high Glucokinase
1011. What fungus is characterized by India Cryptococcus Vmax, high Km, and low affinity for
ink staining of the CSF that produces neoformans glucose?
colorless cells with a halo on a black
background? 1026. What glycoprotein in the HIV virus GP120
attaches to CD4?
1012. What fungus is seen as colored Chromomycosis
cauliflower lesions? 1027. What glycoprotein in the HIV virus is GP41
used for fusion?
1013. What fungus is urease positive? Cryptococcus
1028. What gram-positive anaerobic rod with Actinomyces
1014. What ganglion receives preganglionic Sympathetic branching filaments is a component of israelii
sympathetic fibers from T1 to L1-2 and chain ganglion the normal flora of the mouth and female
innervates smooth muscle, cardiac genital tract and is responsible for
muscle, glands, head, thoracic viscera, draining abscesses with sulfur granules
and blood vessels of the body wall and in the exudates?
1029. What gram-positive rod is distinguished Listeria
1015. What ganglion supplies the Ciliary ganglion by its tumbling motility?
postganglionic parasympathetic fibers
1030. What gram-positive spore-forming Clostridium
to the ciliary muscles of the eye?
anaerobic rod blocks the release of ACh botulinum
1016. What general pattern of sleep is NREM sleep. at the NMJ, resulting in reversible flaccid
described by slowing of EEG rhythms Remember paralysis?
(high voltage and slower awake body,
1031. What group of eukaryotic regulatory Homeodomain
synchronization), muscle contractions, sleeping brain
proteins has a major factor in controlling proteins
and lack of eye movement or mental
the gene expression embryonically?
1032. What happens to affinity if you increase Affinity
1017. What generate anterograde transport of Kinesins. Dynein
Km? decreases; they
information in a neuron? generates
are inversely
of information. 1033. What happens to cortisol levels in sleep- Cortisol levels
deprived individuals? increase.
1018. What genetic defect is characterized by I-cell disease is
coarse facial features, gingival a result of a
levels decrease
hyperplasia, macroglossia, psychomotor genetic defect
in sleep-
and growth retardation, club foot, claw affecting the
hand, cardiorespiratory failure, and phosphorylation
death in the first decade of life? of mannose
residues. 1034. What happens to dopamine levels when Dopamine
we awaken? levels rise with
1019. What genus is known as the smallest Mycoplasma
free living bacteria? (hint: has no cell
dopamine is
wall and has sterols in the membrane)
associated with

1035. What happens The hallmarks of LMN lesion injury are 1045. What histone binds two H1 histones
to muscle tone absent or decreased reflexes, muscle nucleosomes together?
and stretch fasciculations, decreased muscle tone, 1046. What HIV enzyme produces a Reverse transcriptase
reflexes when and muscle atrophy What two areas of the dsDNA provirus?
there is a LMN skin do flaccid paralysis). Don't forget,
lesion? LMN lesions are ipsilateral at the level of 1047. What HIV structural gene env structural protein
the lesion! produces GP120 and GP41?
1036. What happens Increase (5-HT and dopamine levels do 1048. What hormone causes milk Oxytocin
to NE levels in the same) letdown?
Bipolar 1049. What hormone is activated in Hormone-sensitive
disorder? adipose tissue when blood lipase
1037. What happens Decrease (5-HT and dopamine levels do glucose levels decrease?
to NE levels in the same) 1050. What hormone level increases in Prolactin
Major the first 3 hours of sleep?
1051. What hormone, produced by the Estrogen; the first 14
1038. What happens Prevalence increases. (Note: Incidence granulose cell, stimulates the days of the female
to prevalence does not change.) endometrium to enter the reproductive cycle
as duration proliferative phase? mark the proliferative
increases? phase.
1039. What happens Prevalence increases. 1052. What hormone, produced by the hCG
to prevalence syncytiotrophoblast, stimulates
as incidence the production of progesterone
increases? by the corpus luteum?
1040. What happens Prevalence increases. (Remember, 1053. What hormone's release is GH. The largest output
to prevalence prevalence can decrease in only two strongly associated with stage 4 of GH in a 24-hour
as the number ways, recovery and death.) sleep? period is during stage
of long-term 4 sleep.
increases? 1054. What hypothalamic nucleus is Supraoptic nuclei;
responsible for the production of lesions here result in
1041. What happens Increased REM sleep, decreased REM ADH? diabetes insipidus.
to REM, REM latency, and decreased stage 4 sleep,
latency, and leading to early morning awakening 1055. What hypothesis states that the Null hypothesis (what
stage 4 sleep findings of a test are a result of you hope to disprove)
during major chance?
depression? 1056. What Ig activates the alternate IgA
1042. What happens As the isotype is switched, the Ab pathway, neutralizes bacterial
to the Ab specificity does not change because it endotoxins and viruses, and
specificity does not affect the variable chains. prevents bacterial adherence?
when class 1057. What Ig activates the IgM
switching complement cascade most
occurs in efficiently?
mature B 1058. What Ig is associated with ADCC IgE
cells? for parasites?
1043. What has Bell pad 1059. What Ig is associated with Ag IgD; IgM is also
proved to be recognition receptor on the correct.
the best way surface of mature B cells?
to extinguish
1060. What Ig is associated with mast IgE. It attaches via
cell and basophil binding? receptor for the Fc
1044. What Trypanosoma cruzi region of the heavy
hemoflagellate epsilon chain
species is the
1061. What Ig is associated with IgA
cause of
mucosal surfaces and external

1062. What Ig is responsible for activation of IgG 1078. What is backward When showing two pictures in rapid
complement, opsonization, and ADCC masking, and is there succession, you split the pictures
and is actively transported across the a positive half a second apart, resulting in the
placenta? correlation with second picture masking the first
schizophrenic (indicating poor short-term
patients? memory). This is seen in nearly 33%
of schizophrenic patients.
1063. What Ig is responsible for Antibody- IgE 1079. What is defined as a IQ
Dependent Cell-mediated Cytotoxicity general estimate of
of parasites, has a high-affinity Fc the functional
receptor on mast cells and basophils, capacities of a
and is responsible for the allergic human?
response? 1080. What is determined The folding of an AA chain
1064. What Ig is the major protective factor in IgA by the secondary
colostrum? structure of an AA?
1065. What Ig mediates ADCC via K cells, IgG 1081. What is found in the If a carboxyl group is the R group, it
opsonizes, and is the Ig of the secondary R group if the AA is is acidic; if an amino group is the R
immune response? acidic? Basic? group, it is said to be basic.
1066. What Ig prevents bacterial adherence to IgA 1082. What is given to Rho (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM),
mucosal surfaces? pregnant women an anti-RhD IgG antibody, prevents
1067. What IL do T cells secrete to induce T- IL-2. T cells within 24 hours after generation of RhD-specific memory
and B-cell division? express IL-2 birth to eliminate B cells in the mother.
receptors on Rh+ fetal blood cells
their surface to from their
induce self- circulation?
expression. 1083. What is needed to IF and GTP (eIF for eukaryotes)
1068. What IL down-regulates cell mediated IL-10 initiate translation?
immunity? 1084. What is the anatomic LARP: Left goes Anterior and Right
1069. What IL is essential for lymphoid cell IL-7 (A 7 upside positioning of the goes Posterior (because of the
development? down is an L; L right and left gastric rotation of the gut; remember your
is for Lymphoid) nerve plexus of the embryology!)
esophagus as they
1070. What IL is important in myeloid cell IL-3 (3 face pass through the
development? down is an M) diaphragm?
1071. What IL, produced by macrophages, is IL-8. It not only 1085. What is the binding The promoter indicates where
chemotactic for neutrophils? is chemotactic, site for RNA transcription will begin.
it also acts as an polymerase?
adhesive for
neutrophils. 1086. What is the Increased ACh to decreased NE
biochemical trigger levels. (NE pathway begins in the
1072. What immunologic syndrome is due to a DiGeorge's for REM sleep? pons and regulates REM sleep.)
pharyngeal pouch 3 and 4 failure? syndrome
1087. What is the bone 14 days
1073. What immunologic test checks for a Agglutination marrow maturation
reaction between Abs and a particular test time for a
Ag? (hint: ABO typing) phagocytic cell?
1074. What intermediate enables propionyl Succinyl CoA 1088. What is the central The patient decides about the health
CoA to enter into the TCA cycle? issue regarding the care she does or does not get even
1075. What intermediate of cholesterol Farnesyl Roe vs. Wade if it harms the fetus. This also means
synthesis anchors proteins in the pyrophosphate decision she can refuse blood transfusions
membranes and forms CoA? (FPP) (legalization of even if it harms the fetus.
1076. What is a plasma cell's life expectancy? 7 to 14 days abortion)?

1077. What is associated with prolonged Hypothyroidism. 1089. What is the Western blot
lithium use? (TSH levels confirmatory test for
must be HIV?

1090. What is the degree to Correlation. No, correlation 1105. What is the first Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency
which two measures are does not imply causation. human disease
related? Does it imply successfully
causation? treated with
1091. What is the direction of The primitive streak grows gene therapy?
growth for the primitive caudal to rostral.
streak, caudal to rostral or
rostral to caudal?
1092. What is the drug of choice Methylphenidate (Ritalin) 1106. What is the first IgM; IgD follows shortly thereafter.
for treating ADHD? membrane-
1093. What is the drug of choice Allopurinol bound Ig on B
for treating a patient with cell
hyperuricemia due to membranes?
overproduction of uric 1107. What is the fluid Vitreous humor
acid? of the posterior
1094. What is the drug of choice Probenecid, a uricosuric compartment of
in treating a patient with agent the eye?
hyperuricemia due to 1108. What is the (MA/CA) x 100 = IQ score, where MA =
underexcretion of uric formula to mental age and CA = chronological age
acid? calculate IQ?
1095. What is the end product of Uric acid 1109. What is the Resorb CSF into the blood
purine catabolism? function of the
1096. What is the enzyme for the Glyceraldehyde arachnoid
oxidative reaction in dehydrogenase granulations?
glycolysis? 1110. What is the Initiate and manage gross skeletal
1097. What is the epithelial cell Stratified squamous function of the muscle movement control
lining the nasopharynx? nonkeratinized epithelium, basal ganglia?
which has cilia that beat 1111. What is the Planning and fine-tuning of voluntary
toward the oropharynx. function of the skeletal muscle contractions. (Think
1098. What is the epithelial lining Transitional epithelium. The cerebellum? coordination.) Remember, the function of
of the prostatic portion of distal portion of the penile the basal ganglia is to initiate gross
the urethra? urethra is composed of voluntary skeletal muscle control.
stratified epithelium. 1112. What is the They are preganglionic sympathetic
1099. What is the essential The cat function of white axons. They are white because they are
reservoir host for rami myelinated.
Toxoplasma gondii? communicantes?

1100. What is the first Ab a baby IgM 1113. What is the Ig IgM
makes? associated with
the primary
1101. What is the first Ag seen in HBsAg (incubation period) immune
an individual with response?
1114. What is the key Formation of an identity through issues
1102. What is the first branch of Inferior phrenic artery issue of independence and rebellion; they
the abdominal artery? surrounding define who they are.
1103. What is the first epidermal Stratum lucidum teenagers'
layer without organelles maturation?
and nuclei 1115. What is the label Borderline
1104. What is the first formal IQ Stanford-Binet Scale, given to an
test used today for developed in 1905, is useful in individual whose
children aged 2 to 18? the very bright, the impaired, IQ is 70 to 79
and children less than 6 years 1116. What is the label Low average
old. given to an
individual whose
IQ is 80 to 89

1117. What is the label given to an Average 1136. What is the major Hydroxyapatite
individual whose IQ is 90 to 109 inorganic component
1118. What is the label given to an High average of bone?
individual whose IQ is 110 to 119 1137. What is the major -Hydroxybutyrate
1119. What is the label given to an Superior ketone body
individual whose IQ is 120 to 129 produced during
1120. What is the label given to an Very superior (<2.5% of ketoacidosis?
individual whose IQ is 130 the population)
1121. What is the label given to an Mentally disabled 1138. What is the male-to- M:F 4:1 committing, but M:F ratio of
individual whose IQ is Below 69 female ratio for attempts is 1:3 (males commit more
1122. What is the largest muscle in the Gluteus maximus committing suicide? but females try it more)
body? 1139. What is the maximum Vmax
1123. What is the largest nucleus in the The substantia nigra is rate possible with a
midbrain? the largest nucleus in given amount of
the midbrain. It contains enzyme?
melanin and uses GABA 1140. What is the most The granule cell. Its neurotransmitter
and dopamine as its abundant neuron in is glutamic acid, which is also the
neurotransmitters. the cerebellum? principal neurotransmitter of the
1124. What is the largest organ in the Integument (skin and its visual pathways.
body? derivatives) 1141. What is the most Isoniazid treatment
1125. What is the leading cause of Pregnancy common cause of
school dropout? vitamin B6
1126. What is the legal age to be 18 years old (except if
deemed competent to make emancipated) 1142. What is the most Alzheimer's (dementia of
decisions? common form of Alzheimer's type, DAT). (Remember,
dementia? Alzheimer's constitutes 65% of
1127. What is the limited portion of a Antigenic determinant dementias seen in patients 65 years
large Ag that will actually be (epitope). (Idiotypes old.)
recognized and bound to an Ab bind to epitopes.)
and that contains approximately 1143. What is the most G-6-PD deficiency; pyruvate kinase
five to six amino acids or four to common genetic deficiency is second.
five hexose units? deficiency resulting
in hemolytic anemia?
1128. What is the longest and most PCT
convoluted segment of the 1144. What is the most IgA deficiency; patients commonly
nephron? common Ig present with recurrent
deficiency? sinopulmonary infections and GI
1129. What is the lymphatic drainage of Internal iliac nodes disturbances.
the pelvic organs?
1145. What is the most Radial Immuno Diffusion (RID) for Ig
1130. What is the main inhibitor of Acetyl CoA (pyruvate common precipitin levels.
pyruvate dehydrogenase? to acetyl CoA) test used in clinical
1131. What is the major Ab of the IgM medicine?
primary immune response?
1132. What is the major cell membrane Ergosterol
sterol found in fungi?
1133. What is the major difference There are no valves and
between the veins in the face and no smooth muscle in
the veins in the rest of the body? the walls of the veins in
the face.
1134. What is the major Ig of the IgG
secondary immune response?
1135. What is the major Ig of the IgA
secondary immune response in
the mucosal barriers?

1146. What is the most The junction where the anterior 1156. What is the name for the most Vertebra prominens
common site for an communicating and anterior prominent spinous process? (C7 in 70% of cases,
aneurysm in cerebral cerebral arteries join. As the C6 in 20%, T1 in 10%)
circulation? aneurysm expands, it compresses 1157. What is the name of a thin brown Kayser-Fleischer ring
the fibers from the upper temporal ring around the outer edge of the
fields of the optic chiasm, cornea, seen in Wilson's disease?
producing bitemporal inferior
1147. What is the most Pseudomonas aeruginosa 1158. What is the name of bilateral Poliomyelitis; it is a
likely causative flaccid paralysis, hyporeflexia, and bilateral LMN lesion.
organism for a patient hypotonia due to a viral infection of
with folliculitis after the ventral horn of the spinal cord?
spending time in a hot 1159. What is the name of demyelination Subacute combined
tub? of the corticospinal tract and the degeneration, which
1148. What is the most Vibrio vulnificus dorsal column in the spinal cord is bilateral below the
likely organism due most commonly to a vitamin level of the lesion.
causing cellulitis in a B12 deficiency?
patient who was cut 1160. What is the name of depression and Rapid cycling bipolar
by an oyster shell? mania alternating within a 48-to 72- disorder
1149. What is the most Tinea favosa (favus) hour period?
serious form of tinea 1161. What is the name of hydrophilic Gap junctions
capitis, which results pores that allow the direct passage
in permanent hair of ions and particles between two
loss and is highly adjacent cells?
1162. What is the name of inflammation Housemaid's knee
1150. What is the most The death of a spouse. The higher of the prepatellar bursa?
stressful event as the score, the greater the risk of
determined by the developing an illness in the next 6 1163. What is the name of RER in Nissl substances;
Holmes and Rahe months. neurons? there is a great deal
scale? of RER in neuron cell
bodies, indicating
1151. What is the most Stratum corneum (keratinized) high protein
superficial layer of synthesis.
the epidermis?
1164. What is the name of the 12-step Alcoholics
1152. What is the most SSRIs program believed to be the most Anonymous
widely used class of successful for the treatment of
antidepressants? alcohol abuse?
1153. What is the name for Duodenal atresia 1165. What is the name of the B cell-rich Primary follicle of the
failed recanalization area in the lymph node? cortex
of the duodenum
resulting in 1166. What is the name of the B cell-rich Primary follicle (in
polyhydramnios, bile- area of the spleen? the white pulp)
containing vomitus, 1167. What is the name of the B cell that Plasma cell (mature
and a distended secretes Ig? B lymphocyte)
stomach? 1168. What is the name of the Flumazenil
1154. What is the name for Patent urachus benzodiazepine antagonist used in
failure of the allantois the treatment of an overdose?
to close, resulting in a 1169. What is the name of the bullet- Rhabdovirus
urachal fistula or shaped virus?
1170. What is the name of the exotoxin Shiga toxin
1155. What is the name for Dysmetria; this is seen in a finger- Shigella dysenteriae produces, (enterohemorrhagic
inability to stop a to-nose test. which interferes with the 60S Escherichia coli
movement at the ribosomal subunit and results in produces Vero toxin,
intended target? eukaryotic protein synthesis which is quite similar
inhibition? to shiga toxin)

1171. What is the name of the Alternative hypothesis 1183. What is the name of the program Al-Anon
hypothesis you are trying to (what is left after the null that deals with codependency
prove? has been defined) and enabling behaviors for
1172. What is the name of the major F-Met-Peptides family members of alcohol
chemotactic agent released abusers?
from Bacteria? 1184. What is the name of the protein Vimentin
1173. What is the name of the major IL-8 (IL-1 and TNF-gamma coat that surrounds the nuclear
chemotactic agent released also) envelope?
from Macrophages?
1174. What is the name of the major Leukotriene B4 (LTB4) 1185. What is the name of the SER of Sarcoplasmic reticulum
chemotactic agent released striated muscle?
from Neutrophils? 1186. What is the name of the spinal Cauda equina
1175. What is the name of the major C5a cord passing within the
chemotactic agent released subarachnoid space and forming
from The blood serum? the spinal nerves that exit the
(Hint: it is a complement lumbar and sacral foramina?
factor.) 1187. What is the name of the Camper's fascia;
1176. What is the name of the Lipoxygenase pathway, superficial subcutaneous fascia Scarpa's fascia is devoid
pathway that produces from arachidonic acid of the abdomen containing fat? of fat. (Remember
leukotrienes? campers are fat.)
1177. What is the name of the Pterygopalatine ganglion 1188. What is the name of the T cell- Paracortex
postganglionic (I remember this as the rich area of the lymph node?
parasympathetic ganglion that only ganglion left.) 1189. What is the name of the T cell- PALS (Parietolateral
innervates The lacrimal rich area of the spleen? lymphocytic sheath)
gland and oral and nasal
mucosa? 1190. What is the name of the tremor Intention tremor; it is a
that occurs during movements sign of cerebellar
1178. What is the name of the Ciliary ganglion. (These and is absent while the person is lesions. A tremor at rest
postganglionic fibers are carried in CN III. at rest? (i.e., pill rolling) is seen
parasympathetic ganglion that Remember it like this:-ili-in in basal ganglia lesions.
innervates The papillary ciliary ganglion looks like
sphincter and ciliary muscle of the III of CN III.) 1191. What is the name of the urinary Urinary trigone
the eye? bladder where the ureters enter
and the urethra exits?
1179. What is the name of the The otic ganglion. (These
postganglionic fibers are carried in CN IX. 1192. What is the name of violent Hemiballismus
parasympathetic ganglion that Remember it like this: the - projectile movements of a limb
innervates The parotid oti-is in both otic ganglion resulting from a lesion in the
gland? and parotid gland.) subthalamic nuclei of the basal
1180. What is the name of the The submandibular
postganglionic ganglion. (Submandibular 1193. What is the only CN nucleus Accessory nucleus
parasympathetic ganglion that ganglion innervates the found in the cervical spinal cord?
innervates The submandibular gland; easy 1194. What is the only CN to arise from CN IV
submandibular and sublingual enough.) the dorsal surface of the
glands? midbrain?
1181. What is the name of the Chemotaxis 1195. What is the only DNA virus that Poxvirus replicates its
process in which cells migrate does not replicate its DNA in the DNA in the cytoplasm.
toward an attractant along a nucleus of the host cell?
concentration gradient? 1196. What is the only DNA virus that Hepadnavirus
1182. What is the name of the Allelic exclusion. It is to has the reverse transcriptase
process that ensures that each ensure that one B cell enzyme?
B cell produces only one produces only one Ab. 1197. What is the only DNA virus that Poxvirus
heavy-chain variable domain is not icosahedral?
and one light chain?
1198. What is the only drug that does Nicotine (but it sure has
not have an intoxication? a nasty withdrawal!)
1199. What is the only dsRNA virus? Reovirus

1200. What is the only Cryptococcus 1212. What is the only organ in The liver (in the mitochondria)
encapsulated the body that can
fungal pathogen? produce ketone bodies?
1201. What is the only Homocysteine methyl transferase 1213. What is the only organ Spleen
enzyme in the supplied by the foregut
body that uses N- artery that is of
5-methyl folate? mesodermal origin?
1202. What is the only The granule cell is the only excitatory 1214. What is the only Stylopharyngeus muscle is
excitatory neuron neuron in the cerebellar cortex, and it pharyngeal muscle not innervated by CN IX; all other
in the cerebellar uses glutamate as its neurotransmitter. innervated by CN X? pharyngeal muscles are
cortex, and what is All the other cells in the cerebellum innervated by CN X.
its are inhibitory neurons, and they use 1215. What is the only Plasmodium malariae; the
neurotransmitter? GABA as their neurotransmitter. Plasmodium that is others are tertian.
1203. What is the only Ea (activation energy) quartan?
factor of enzyme 1216. What is the only Coxiella burnetii
kinetics that the Rickettsia that is stable in
enzyme affects? the environment?
1204. What is the only Propionic acid 1217. What is the only specific B cells; macrophages and
fatty acid that is Ag-presenting cell? dendritic cells are nonspecific.
1218. What is the only Sphingomyelin (lecithin also,
1205. What is the only Hyaluronic acid (all sulfates bind to sphingolipid that contains but it is not a sphingolipid)
glycosaminoglycan the core protein) choline and PO4?
(GAG) that binds to
the linker portion 1219. What is the only tongue Palatoglossus muscle is
of the muscle innervated by CN innervated by CN X; all other
proteoglycan? X? tongue muscles are innervated
by CN XII.
1206. What is the only Ig IgG "Go to Vegas to win big"
that crosses the
placenta? 1220. What is the only Schistosoma have separate
trematode that is not males and females.
1207. What is the only Cricothyroid muscle; all other hermaphroditic?
laryngeal muscle laryngeal muscles are innervated by
innervated by the the recurrent laryngeal nerve. 1221. What is the only valve in Mitral (bicuspid) valve
external laryngeal the heart with two cusps?
nerve? 1222. What is the only vein in The pulmonary vein, which
1208. What is the only The tensor veli palatine is innervated the body with a high O2 carries oxygenated blood from
muscle of the soft by the mandibular division of the content? the lung to the left atrium.
palate that is trigeminal nerve; all others are 1223. What is the only way to Increase enzyme
innervated by CN innervated by CN X. increase maximum concentrations
V3? velocity (Vmax)?
1209. What is the only Microglia. All others are 1224. What is the only way to Increase the concentration of
neuroglial cell of neuroectodermal derivatives. increase the Vmax of a enzymes
mesodermal reaction?
origin? 1225. What is the order of fuel 1. Glucose from liver glycogen
1210. What is the only Clostridium perfringens use in a prolonged fast? 2. Glucose from
nonmotile gluconeogenesis 3. Body
pathogenic protein 4. Body fat
Clostridium 1226. What is the period REM latency; normally it is
species? between falling asleep about 90 minutes.
1211. What is the only Adrenal medulla and REM sleep called?
organ in the body 1227. What is the period Sleep latency
supplied by between going to bed
preganglionic and falling asleep called?

1228. What is the polarity Positive sense RNA means it can 1242. What is the rate-limiting step of HMG CoA synthase
(i.e., 5'-3' or 3'-5') of a serve as mRNA and therefore has the following? Ketogenolysis
positive sense RNA? 5'-3' polarity 1243. What is the rate-limiting step of Carnitine acyltransferase
1229. What is the precursor Ceramide the following? -Oxidation I
of all sphingolipids? 1244. What is the region of the Ampulla
1230. What is the primary UMP fallopian tube where
end product of fertilization most commonly
pyrimidine synthesis? occurs?
1231. What is the primary Facial expression (the second is 1245. What is the relationship As sample size increases,
method of nonverbal vocal intonation) between chance of error and the lower the chance of
communication of Sample size? error.
emotional states? 1246. What is the relationship As the standard
1232. What is the primary Hypertension between chance of error and deviation increases, the
predisposing factor Standard deviation? greater the chance of
for vascular error.
dementia? 1247. What is the reservoir for the Birds
1233. What is the primary Previous suicide attempt togavirus?
risk factor for 1248. What is the rule of one-third Upper third skeletal
suicide? regarding muscle type of the muscle, middle third
1234. What is the primary ELISA is used as a screening test esophagus? both skeletal and
screening test used because it is very sensitive; Western smooth muscle, and
to detect HIV- blot is used as a confirmatory test lower third smooth
infected individuals? because it detects antibodies muscle
Confirmatory test? (protein) to the HIV virus. 1249. What is the second arrested Metaphase of meiosis II
1235. What is the primer The hairpin loop made by reverse stage of development in the (in the oocyte of the
for the synthesis of transcriptase at the 3' end of the female reproductive cycle? graafian follicle)
the second strand in first strand is the primer. 1250. What is the second cell The CD4 T cell; the APC
production of cDNA involved in the immune is the first cell in the
from mRNA? response? immune response.
1236. What is the Orotic acid (purine metabolism) 1251. What is the size of a positive >15 mm
pyrimidine PPD test for the following?
intermediate that (Reactive) Healthy suburban
joins PRPP (5- male without any medical
Phosphoribosyl-1- illnesses
1252. What is the size of a positive >10 mm
1237. What is the rate- Glycogen synthase PPD test for the following?
limiting enzyme of (Reactive) IV drug abuser
glycogen synthesis?
1253. What is the size of a positive >5 mm
1238. What is the rate- G-6-PD PPD test for the following?
limiting enzyme of (Reactive) Patient with AIDS
the HMP shunt?
1254. What is the size of a positive >5 mm
1239. What is the rate- Phosphofructokinase-1 and costs 1 PPD test for the following?
limiting enzyme on ATP (Reactive) Posttransplantation
glycolysis? patient taking
1240. What is the rate- HMG CoA reductase immunosuppressive agents
limiting step of the 1255. What is the size of a positive >10 mm
following? PPD test for the following?
Cholesterol synthesis (Reactive) Recent immigrant
1241. What is the rate- Acetyl CoA carboxylase from India
limiting step of the 1256. What is the size of the 70S ribosomes in
following? Fatty prokaryotic ribosome? prokaryotes and 80S
acid synthesis ribosomes in eukaryotes

1257. What is the start codon, and what The one start codon, 1271. What is the term for a single Hapten (not
does it code for in eukaryotes? AUG, in eukaryotes isolated antigenic determinant? immunogenic)
Prokaryotes? codes for methionine 1272. What is the term for a substance Cytokine. If a cytokine
and in prokaryotes secreted by a leukocyte in affects another class of
formylmethionine. response to a stimulus? leukocytes, it is called
1258. What is the statistical term for the Specificity (it deals with an interleukin.
proportion of truly nondiseased the healthy) 1273. What is the term for a unit of A gene (a rather simple
persons in the screened DNA that encodes a particular definition but accurate)
population who are identified as protein or RNA molecule?
1259. What is the stimulus for the Ag-Ab complexes. The 1274. What is the term for Candida Thrush
classical pathway activation? alternative pathway infection of the oral mucosa?
protects without use of 1275. What is the term for chemicals Buffers (remember that
Abs; the pathogen is that keep the pH constant buffers are best when
the stimulus. despite the formation of acids they are used in a pH
1260. What is the T-cell area of the PALS and bases during metabolism? range near its pK)
spleen? 1276. What is the term for conversion Transcription (C comes
1261. What is the teratogenic effect Epstein-cardiac of a dsDNA molecule to the before L in the
associated with lithium? anomaly of the base sequence of an ssRNA alphabet, and
tricuspid valve molecule? transCription comes
1262. What is the term for a complete Sexual aversion before transLation)
aversion to all sexual contact? disorder 1277. What is the term for different Isotypes
1263. What is the term for a deficiency Hypoactive sexual classes and subclasses of the
or absence of sexual fantasies or desire disorder same gene products?
desires? 1278. What is the term for ejaculation Premature ejaculation
1264. What is the term for a delay in Transient before or immediately after
the onset of normal IgG synthesis hypogammaglobinemia vaginal penetration on a regular
seen in the fifth to sixth month of of infancy; it usually basis?
life? resolves by age 16 to 1279. What is the term for failure of Cryptorchidism;
30 months. the testes to descend into the normally the testes
1265. What is the term for a direct Vitelline fistula scrotum? descend into the
connection between the intestine scrotum within 3 months
and the external environment of birth.
through the umbilicus because 1280. What is the term for failure to Fixation (arrested
the vitelline duct persists? give up infantile patterns of development)
1266. What is the term for Ags that Thymus-independent behavior for mature ones?
activate B cells without T-cell Ags 1281. What is the term for fungi that Dimorphic
signaling? can convert from hyphal to
1267. What is the term for an Hapten; if it is coupled yeast forms?
immunogenic agent that is too with a carrier, it may 1282. What is the term for having Transvestite fetishism
small to elicit an immune become immunogenic. fantasies or dressing in female
response? clothes for sexual arousal by
1268. What is the term for an inhibited Anorgasmia. (The heterosexual men?
female orgasm? overall prevalence is
1269. What is the term for any stimulus Reinforcement
that increases the probability of a
response happening?
1270. What is the term for a Brief psychotic
schizophrenic episode lasting disorder. (In
longer than 30 days with full schizophreniform
return to former functioning disorder the symptoms
capacity? last longer than 6

1283. What is the term for headaches, Posttraumatic 1294. What is the term for taking an Translation
inability to concentrate, sleep stress disorder. mRNA molecule and arranging
disturbances; avoidance of (Important: the AA sequence forming a
associated stimuli; reliving events as symptoms must be protein?
dreams or flashbacks following a exhibited for 1295. What is the term for the ability Reliability (think of it as
psychologically stressful event longer than 1 of a test to measure something "nice grouping" or
beyond the normal range of month.) consistently? "precise")
1284. What is the term for hyphae with Pseudohyphae
constrictions at each septum that are
commonly seen in Candida albicans?
1285. What is the term for involuntary Vaginismus; it is the 1296. What is the term for the degree Validity (remember,
constriction of the outer third of the female to which a test measures what it reliability is necessary
vagina to prevent penile counterpart of is intended to measure? but not the only thing
penetration? premature needed for validity)
ejaculation. 1297. What is the term for the Vascular dementia. It is
1286. What is the term for making up Confabulation; it is dementia characterized by characterized as a
stories regarding past experiences commonly seen in decremental or patchy stepwise deterioration in
because of an inability to retrieve Korsakoff's deterioration in cognitive cognitive function.
them? syndrome. function due to a
1287. What is the term for new made-up Neologisms. cerebrovascular accident?
words? Thomas Jefferson 1298. What is the term for the Range
noted, "Necessity difference between the highest
obliges us to and the lowest score in a
neologize." population?
(Abnormal use of 1299. What is the term for the Epispadia
neologisms is external urethra opening onto
known as the dorsal surface of the penis?
1300. What is the term for the Hypospadia
1288. What is the term for processing an Ag processing; it is external urethra opening onto
APC's pinocytosed material by fusing needed for class I the ventral surface of the
with a lysosomal granule and molecules. Class II penis?
cleaving the Ag into peptide molecules have an
fragments? invariant chain that 1301. What is the term for the first 3 Menses. (Ovulation
protects them from to 5 days of the female occurs 14 days before
breakdown. reproductive cycle? the beginning of
1289. What is the term for production of a Reverse
DNA copy from an RNA molecule? transcription 1302. What is the term for the Immunogenicity;
inherent ability to induce a antigenicity refers to
1290. What is the term for pupils that react Argyll Robertson specific immune response? Ab/lymphocyte reaction
normally to accommodation but have pupils to a specific substance.
bilateral loss of constriction in
response to light? 1303. What is the term for the number Valence
of Ag-binding sites on an Ig?
1291. What is the term for recurrent and Dyspareunia. It is a
persistent pain before, after, or common complaint 1304. What is the term for the number Prevalence rate
during sexual intercourse? in women who of individuals who have an
have been raped attribute or disease at a
or sexually abused. particular point in time?

1292. What is the term for repetitive Compulsions. They 1305. What is the term for the number Incidence rate
actions blocking recurring bad are actions done of new events occurring in a
thoughts? to fix the bad population divided by the
thoughts. population at risk?
Obsessions are the 1306. What is the term for the number Anticipation, associated
thoughts. of trinucleotide repeats with fragile X syndrome;
1293. What is the term for RNA-dependent Reverse increasing with successive Huntington's disease is
DNA polymerase? transcriptase generations and correlating also associated with a
with increased severity of decrease in onset of
disease? age.

1307. What is the term for pI (isoelectric point) 1317. What is the term for thymic Negative selection.
the pH at which the induction of T cells with high- This helps to prevent
structure carries no affinity Ag receptors for self that autoimmune diseases.
charge? are programmed to undergo
1308. What is the term for pK (think of it as where half is base apoptosis?
the pH range where and half is acid) 1318. What is the term for vitamin D Rickets prior to
the dissociation of deficiency prior to epiphyseal fusion, osteomalacia
H+ occurs? fusion? if the deficiency
occurs after
epiphyseal fusion.
1309. What is the term for Median (think of it as the halfway 1319. What is the term given to Arboviruses
the point on a scale point) arthropod-borne viruses? (bunyavirus, flavivirus,
that divides the and togavirus)
population into two 1320. What is the term of the viral growth Eclipse period
equal parts? period when no viruses can be
1310. What is the term for Specific rate (e.g., men aged 55-60) found intracellularly?
the rate measured 1321. What is the term to describe a man Primary erectile
for a subgroup of a who has Never been able to disorder
population? achieve an erection?
1311. What is the term for Test-retest reliability 1322. What is the term to describe a man Selective erectile
the same results who has The ability to have an disorder
achieved again on erection sometimes and other
testing a subject a times not?
second or third
time? 1323. What is the term to describe a man Secondary erectile
who has Used to be able to disorder (Male
1312. What is the term for Avidity (more than one binding site) achieve an erection but now erectile disorder is
the strength of cannot? the same as
association between impotence.)
multiple Abbinding
sites and multiple 1324. What is the term to describe Mast cells
antigenic basophils that have left the
determinants? bloodstream and entered a tissue?

1313. What is the term for Affinity (one of each) 1325. What is the term to describe Ego syntonic
the strength of the homosexuals who Are
association between comfortable with their own person
Ag and an Ab? and agree with their sense of self?

1314. What is the term for Avidity. There is a positive 1326. What is the term to describe Ego dystonic
the strength of the correlation between valence homosexuals who Are
association between numbers and avidity. uncomfortable with their own
Ags and Abs? person and disagree with their
sense of self?
1315. What is the term for Accuracy (think of it as all the trues,
the total percentage because they are the ones correctly 1327. What is the term to describe Dissociative fugue.
of correct answers identified) inability to recall the past and (Patients are unaware
selected on a possible assumption of a of memory loss.)
screening test? completely new identity?

1316. What is the term for Argyll Robertson pupils accompany 1328. What is the term to describe Loose association
the type of pupil a loss of both direct and consensual jumping from one topic to the next
seen in light reflexes, but the without any connection?
neurosyphilis, and accommodation-convergence 1329. What is the term to describe the 5'- Palindrome
what ocular reaction remains intact. It can also be 3' sequence of one strand being
reflexes are lost? seen in patients with pineal tumors the same as the opposite 5'-3'
or multiple sclerosis. strand?
1330. What is the term to describe the Mean

1331. What is the term to Anhedonia 1345. What judgment states that the Substituted
describe the inability to decision, by rights of autonomy and judgment. It is
feel any pleasant privacy, belongs to the patient, but if made by the
emotions? the patient is incompetent to decide, person who best
1332. What is the term to Antigenic determinant the medical decision is based on knows the patient,
describe the limited (epitope) subjective wishes? not the closest
portion of an Ag that is relative.
recognized by an Ab? 1346. What large, spore-forming, gram- Clostridium tetani
positive anaerobic rod is associated
with infections due to puncture
wounds and trauma?
1333. What is the term to Hypotonia (rag doll 1347. What law was adopted to shield Good Samaritan
describe the soft, flabby appearance) physicians from liability when helping Law. (Physicians
feel and diminished at the scene of an accident? are not required
reflexes seen in patients to stop and help.)
with acute cerebellar injury 1348. What level of mental retardation is Mild (50-70)
to the deep cerebellar characterized by Being self-
nuclei? supportive with minimal guidance and
1334. What is the term when the Volkmann's contracture able to be gainfully employed
brachial artery is (includes 85% of the mentally
compressed, resulting in retarded)?
ischemic contracture of the 1349. What level of mental retardation is Moderate (35-49)
hand? characterized by Can work in
1335. What is the tetrad of Rigors, leukopenia, decrease sheltered workshops and learn simple
Jarisch-Herxheimer in blood pressure, and tasks but need supervision?
reaction? increase in temperature 1350. What level of mental retardation is Severe (range 20-
1336. What is the tetrad of SHIP: Shifting of the aorta, characterized by Having the ability 34)
tetralogy of Fallot? Hypertrophy of the right to communicate and learn basic habits
ventricle, Interventricular but training is usually not helpful?
septal defect, Pulmonary 1351. What level of mental retardation is Profound (I.Q.
stenosis characterized by Needing a highly range < 20)
1337. What is the triad of Ptosis (eyelid drooping), structured environment with constant
Horner's syndrome? miosis (pupillary constriction), supervision?
and anhydrosis (lack of 1352. What limb of the internal capsule is Anterior limb of
sweating) occur when the not supplied by the middle cerebral the internal
preganglionic sympathetic artery? capsule is
fibers from T1-to T4 are supplied by the
obstructed. anterior cerebral
1338. What is the triad of NPH? Dementia Urinary artery.
incontinence Gait apraxia 1353. What lipoprotein is formed if an IDL LDL
(NPH wet, wacky, wobbly) particle acquires cholesterol from a
1339. What is the triad of Thrombocytopenia, eczema, HDL particle?
Wiskott-Aldrich and immunodeficiency is the 1354. What liver enzyme, for triglyceride Glycerol kinase
syndrome? triad of this X-linked recessive synthesis, converts glycerol to
disorder. glycerol-3-phosphate?
1340. What is the valence of an The number of Ags that the 1355. What lower extremity nerve is Superior gluteal
Ig molecule equal to? Ab can bind described by the following motor nerve
1341. What is the vector for The reduviid bug loss? Loss of abduction of the hip
Chagas disease? resulting in Trendelenburg gait
1342. What is the vector for The sandfly 1356. What lower extremity nerve is Obturator nerve
Leishmania infections? described by the following motor
1343. What is the vector for Aedes mosquito loss? Loss of adduction of the thigh
yellow fever?
1344. What is the vector of The tsetse fly
African sleeping sickness?

1357. What lower extremity nerve is Common peroneal nerve 1368. What malignant tumor of the Gestational trophoblastic
described by the following trophoblast causes high neoplasia (GTN or
motor loss? Loss of eversion; levels of hCG and may choriocarcinoma)
inversion, dorsiflexion, and occur after a hydatidiform
plantarflexion of the foot mole, abortion, or normal
1358. What lower extremity nerve is Sciatic nerve pregnancy?
described by the following 1369. What mast cell mediator is a Eosinophil chemotactic
motor loss? Loss of flexion of chemotactic agent? factor A
the knee and all function
below the knee, weakened
extension of the thigh
1359. What lower extremity nerve is Tibial nerve 1370. What medication is used to Acamprosate (the number
described by the following help alcoholics avoid of glutamate receptors
motor loss? Loss of flexion of relapse by decreasing increases with chronic
the knees and toes, glutamate receptor activity? alcohol abuse)
plantarflexion, and weakened 1371. What MHC class acts to MHC class II Ags. This is
inversion remove foreign Ags from accomplished via CD4 T
1360. What lower extremity nerve is Femoral nerve the body? cells.
described by the following 1372. What MHC class functions MHC class I Ags (the
motor loss? Loss of knee as a target for elimination of endogenous pathway). This
extension, weakened hip abnormal host cells? allows the body to eliminate
flexion tumor cells, virus-infected
1361. What lymphoid organ has the Lymph nodes cellsanything the body
following characteristics: outer recognizes as nonself via
and inner cortical areas, CD8+ T cells.
encapsulation, germinal 1373. What MHC class of antigens MHC class I antigens; they
centers, and high endothelial do all nucleated cells carry are also found on the
venules? on their surface surface of platelets.
1362. What lymphoid organ is Peyer's patch membranes?
characterized by germinal 1374. What microaerophile is a Campylobacter jejuni
centers, plasma cells that motile gram-negative
secrete IgA, and no curved rod with polar
encapsulation? flagella that causes
1363. What lysosomal enzyme is Glucocerebrosidase infectious diarrhea at low
deficient in Gaucher's doses (<500)?
disease? 1375. What mineral is required for The enzyme lysyl oxidase
1364. What lysosomal enzyme is Sphingomyelinase cross-linking of collagen requires Cu2+and O2 to
deficient in Niemann-Pick molecules into fibrils? function properly.
disease? 1376. What molecule The Beta-2-microglobin. It is
1365. What lysosomal enzyme is Hexosaminidase A differentiates the MHC class the separately encoded
deficient in Tay-Sachs I from II Ag? (Hint: it's in the Beta-chain for class I Ags.
disease? light chain.)
1366. What maintains the osmotic The venae recta maintain 1377. What molecule that is CD3 molecule. It transmits
gradient that is critical to the the gradient via needed to trigger T cell signals to the inside of the T
concentrating ability of the countercurrent flow. activation is noncovalently cell to trigger activation
kidney? linked to TCR?
1367. What major side effect of Tardive dyskinesia. It 1378. What mosquito is the vector Aedes (the same for yellow
neuroleptics is characterized persists even after for dengue fever? fever)
by pill rolling, shuffling gait, treatment is discontinued 1379. What motile, gram-negative Helicobacter pylori
and tremors that abate during and has no treatment. spiral bacillus with flagella
sleep? Focus is on monitoring for is oxidase positive, urease
side effects and positive, and associated with
prevention. gastritis, peptic ulcer
disease, and stomach

1380. What muscle acts in all ranges Deltoid 1397. What negative sense RNA virus is Rabies
of motion of the arm? associated with intracytoplasmic
1381. What muscle is most superior Levator palpebrae inclusion bodies called Negri bodies?
in the orbit? superioris 1398. What negative sense RNA virus is Mumps
1382. What muscle is the chief flexor Psoas major associated with parotitis, pancreatitis,
of the hip? and orchitis?

1383. What muscle keeps the stapes Stapedius muscle 1399. What nematode is known as Necator
taut against the oval window? hookworms? What is the treatment? americanus is
treated with
1384. What muscle laterally rotates Popliteus mebendazole and
the femur to unlock the knee? iron therapy.
1385. What muscle of the middle ear The stapedius muscle 1400. What nematode is known as Enterobius
is innervated by CN VII? pinworms? What is the treatment? vermicularis; the
1386. What muscle of the middle ear Tensor tympani treatment is
is innervated by the albendazole.
mandibular division of CN V? 1401. What nematode is known as Trichuris trichiura
1387. What muscle or muscles are Serratus anterior whipworms? What is the treatment? is treated with
innervated by the following albendazole.
nerves? Long thoracic nerve 1402. What nerve and artery could be Axillary nerve and
1388. What muscle or muscles are Supraspinatus and affected in a humeral neck fracture? posterior humeral
innervated by the following infraspinatus artery
nerves? Suprascapular nerve 1403. What nerve and artery could be Radial nerve and
1389. What muscle or muscles are Latissimus dorsi affected in a midshaft humeral the profunda
innervated by the following fracture? brachii artery
nerves? Thoracodorsal nerve 1404. What nerve is associated with the Musculocutaneous
1390. What muscle or muscles are Subscapularis following functions? Flex the nerve
innervated by the following shoulder, flex the elbow, and supinate
nerves? Upper subscapularis the elbow
nerve 1405. What nerve is associated with the Median nerve
1391. What muscles insert in or on "Lady between two following functions? Flex the wrist
the intertubercular groove of Majors": latissimus dorsi, and digits, pronate the wrist and the
the humerus? pectoralis major, and LOAF (Lumbricales, Opponens
teres major pollicis, Abductor pollicis brevis,
Flexor pollicis brevis) muscles of the
1392. What muscles in the hand The Palmar interosseus hand
adduct the fingers? ADducts, whereas the
Dorsal interosseus 1406. What nerve is associated with the Ulnar nerve
ABducts (PAD and DAB) following functions? Innervation of
the flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digiti
1393. What muscles make up the SITSSubscapularis, profundus (pinky and ring fingers),
rotator cuff? Infraspinatus, Teres minor, and the intrinsic muscles of the hand
1407. What nerve is associated with the Radial nerve
1394. What must be supplemented in Short-chain fatty acids following functions? Supinate the
patients with medium-chain wrist, extend the wrist and digits,
acyl CoA dehydrogenase extend the shoulder and elbow
(MCAD) deficiency?
1408. What nerve is compromised in carpal Median nerve
1395. What naturally occurring Enkephalins tunnel syndrome?
substances mimic the effects of
opioids? 1409. What nerve lesion presents with ape Median nerve
or simian hand as its sign? lesion
1396. What negative sense RNA virus Measles (rubeola)
is associated with cough, 1410. What nerve or nerves supply general CN IX and X
coryza, and conjunctivitis with sensation and taste to the posterior
photophobia? third of the tongue?
1411. What nerve roots constitute the C1 through C4
cervical plexus?

1412. What nerves carry the CN V1 carries the sensory 1423. What nucleus, found in the intermediate Clarke's nucleus
sensory and motor and CN VII carries the zone of the spinal cord, sends
components of the blink motor component of the unconscious proprioception to the
reflex? blink reflex. cerebellum?
1413. What nerves provide sensory The internal laryngeal 1424. What nucleus of the hypothalamus is the Ventromedial
innervation above the vocal nerve supplies sensory satiety center, regulating food intake? nucleus; lesions
cords? Below the vocal information from above the here result in
cords? vocal cords while the obesity.
recurrent laryngeal nerve 1425. What nucleus of the hypothalamus Suprachiasmatic
supplies sensory receives visual input from the retina and nucleus
information below. helps set the circadian rhythm?
1414. What nerve supplies general Lingual nerve of CN V3 1426. What nucleus supplies the preganglionic Edinger-
sensation to the anterior two- parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary Westphal
thirds of the tongue? ganglion? nucleus (via CN
1415. What nerve supplies taste Chorda tympani of CN VII III)
sensation to the anterior two- 1427. What obligate extracellular fungus is Pneumocystis
thirds of the tongue? silver stain-positive and is associated carinii
1416. What neuronal cell bodies Preganglionic sympathetic with pneumonia in patients with AIDS?
are contained in the neurons 1428. What ocular ganglion is affected if the Ciliary ganglion
intermediate zone of the pupil on the affected side sluggishly producing a
spinal cord? (T1-L2) responds to light with normal tonic pupil
1417. What neuropsychologic test The Halsted-Reitan battery. accommodation?
has five basic scales testing It consists of finger 1429. What ocular muscle Abducts the Lateral rectus
for the presence and oscillation, speech sound eyeball and is involved in horizontal (CN VI) (LR6
localization of brain perception, rhythm, tactual, conjugate gaze? SO4)3
dysfunction? and category testing. 1430. What ocular muscle Adducts the Medial rectus
1418. What neuropsychologic test Bender Visual Motor eyeball and is involved in horizontal (CN III) (LR6
shows nine designs to the Gestalt Test conjugate gaze? SO4)3
patient, then asks for recall of 1431. What ocular muscle Depresses and Superior
as many as possible? abducts the eyeball? Oblique (CN IV)
1419. What neurotransmitter Glutamate (LR6 SO4)3
inhibits the optic nerve 1432. What ocular muscle Depresses and Inferior rectus
bipolar cell and shuts off in adducts the eyeball? (CN III) (LR6
response to light? SO4)3
1420. What neurotransmitter is Histamine 1433. What ocular muscle Elevates and Inferior Oblique
associated with sedation and abducts the eyeball? (CN III) (LR6
weight gain? SO4)3
1421. What nonmotile gram- Shigella 1434. What ocular muscle Elevates and Superior rectus
negative, non-lactose- adducts the eyeball? (CN III) (LR6
fermenting facultative SO4)3
anaerobic rod uses the
human colon as its only 1435. What operant conditioning therapy or Stimulus control
reservoir and is transmitted modification is described as Having a
by fecal-oral spread? stimulus take over the control of the
behavior (unintentionally)?
1422. What non-spore-forming Corynebacterium
gram-positive aerobic rod diphtheriae 1436. What operant conditioning therapy or Biofeedback
produces bull neck, sore modification is described as Providing
throat with the person with information regarding
pseudomembranes, his or her internal responses to stimuli
myocarditis, and sometimes with methods of controlling them?
respiratory obstructions?

1437. What operant conditioning therapy Shaping (successive 1450. What organism is associated with the Clostridium
or modification is described as approximation) following types of diarrhea? Watery perfringens
Reinforcing successive attempts diarrhea from beef, poultry, or gravies
that lead to the desired goal 1451. What organism is commonly associated Pasteurella
(gradual improvement)? with a cellulitis from an animal bite? multocida
1438. What operant conditioning therapy Fading 1452. What organism would you suspect in a Bacillus cereus
or modification is described as patient with diarrhea after eating rice?
Removing a reinforcement (without
the patient knowing) gradually 1453. What organ is responsible for the The kidneys
over time to stop a condition? elimination of excess nitrogen from the excrete the
body? excess nitrogen
from the body as
urea in the urine.
1439. What operant conditioning therapy Extinction 1454. What papillae are responsible for Circumvallate
or modification is described as sweet taste? papillae
Stopping the reinforcement that is 1455. What papillae are touch receptors on Filiform papillae
leading to an undesired behavior? the tongue and send their sensations
1440. What organelle is responsible for Nucleolus. Ribosomal via CN V3 (mandibular division)?
ribosomal RNA synthesis? assembly also takes 1456. What papillae send their senses via Fungiform
place in the chorda tympani of CN VII? papillae
1457. What paraphilia is defined as A male Frotteurism
1441. What organelles make ATP, have Mitochondria rubbing his genitals on a fully clothed
their own dsDNA, and can female to achieve orgasm?
synthesize protein?
1458. What paraphilia is defined as Coprophilia
1442. What organelle synthesizes Free polysomes. Combining sex with defecation?
proteins that are intended to stay Membrane-
within the cell? associated 1459. What paraphilia is defined as Urophilia
polysomes are the Combining sex with urination?
site of protein 1460. What paraphilia is defined as Deriving Masochism
synthesis destined to sexual pleasure from being abused or
leave the cell. in pain?
1443. What organ functions to keep Liver 1461. What paraphilia is defined as Deriving Sadism
blood glucose levels normal sexual pleasure from other peoples'
through both well-fed and fasting pain?
states and produces ketones in 1462. What paraphilia is defined as Deriving Voyeurism
response to increased fatty acid sexual pleasure from watching others
oxidation? having sex, grooming, or undressing?
1444. What organism causes Q fever? Coxiella burnetii 1463. What paraphilia is defined as Having Exhibitionism
1445. What organism is associated with Diphyllobothrium a recurrent desire to expose the
megaloblastic anemia? latum genitals to strangers?
1446. What organism is associated with Enterohemorhagic 1464. What paraphilia is defined as Having Necrophilia
the following types of diarrhea? Escherichia coli sex with cadavers?
Bloody diarrhea associated with 1465. What paraphilia is defined as Sexual Zoophilia
hamburger ingestion fantasies or practices with animals?
1447. What organism is associated with Rotavirus 1466. What paraphilia is defined as Sexual Pedophilia
the following types of diarrhea? urges toward children?
Day care-associated diarrhea in
1467. What parasite found in raw fish can Diphyllobothrium
produce vitamin B12 deficiency? latum
1448. What organism is associated with Vibrio
1468. What parasympathetic nucleus is found Dorsal motor
the following types of diarrhea? parahaemolyticus
on the floor of the fourth ventricle and nucleus of CN X
Diarrhea associated with raw or
supplies preganglionic fibers
undercooked shellfish
innervating the terminal ganglias of the
1449. What organism is associated with Vibrio cholera thorax, foregut, and midgut?
the following types of diarrhea?
Rice water stools

1469. What part of a neuron receives Dendrites 1485. What pattern of inheritance X-linked recessive
information? receive does G-6-PD deficiency
information, follow?
whereas axons 1486. What percentage of children 100%, with about 20%
send born to HIV-positive mothers remaining positive after 1
information. will test positive for HIV at year
1470. What part of the 30S ribosome binds to 16S subunit birth?
the Shine-Dalgarno sequence? 1487. What percent of sexual abuse 50%. The uncles and
1471. What part of the ANS (i.e., PNS or CNS) Parasympathetic cases are committed by family older siblings are the
controls the constriction of the pupil in members? most likely perpetrators,
response to light? although stepfathers also
have a high rate.
1472. What part of the ANS is affected in the The 1488. What percent of unwed 50%, with 50% of them
biofeedback model of operant biofeedback mothers are teenagers? having the child
conditioning? model is based 1489. What personality disorder Antisocial personality
on the affects 75% of the prison
parasympathetic population?
nervous system.
1490. What pharyngeal pouch and The second pharyngeal
1473. What part of the heart forms Anterior Right ventricle groove persist when a pouch and groove
wall? pharyngeal fistula is formed?
1474. What part of the heart forms Apex? Tip of the left 1491. What phase of Food and Drug Phase III. It is considered
ventricle Administration approval tests the definitive test.
1475. What part of the heart forms Base? Left atrium and The efficacy and occurrence of
tip of the right side effects in large group of
atrium patient volunteers?
1476. What part of the heart forms Left ventricle 1492. What phase of Food and Drug Phase II
Diaphragmatic wall? and tip of right Administration approval tests
ventricle The protocol and dose levels in
1477. What part of the heart forms Left Left ventricle a small group of patient
border? and auricle of volunteers?
left atrium 1493. What phase of Food and Drug Phase I
1478. What part of the heart forms Posterior Left atrium Administration approval tests
wall? The safety in healthy
1479. What part of the heart forms Superior Conus
border? arteriosus of the 1494. What phase of Interphase is G1 phase; G2 and S
right ventricle haploid (N)? phase are diploid (2N).
and right and 1495. What phase of the female The secretory phase is
left auricles reproductive cycle is 14 days progesterone-
1480. What part of the heart forms The right Right atrium long? dependent and 14 days
border? long, whereas the length
of the proliferative phase
1481. What part of the inner ear contains the Saccule and varies
gravity receptors for changes in the utricle
position of the head? 1496. What phobia is described as Agoraphobia. It also
the fear of open spaces? means having a sense of
1482. What pathway uses HMG CoA Cholesterol humiliation or
synthetase in the cytoplasm? biosynthesis hopelessness.
1483. What pattern of genetic transmission X-linked 1497. What picornavirus is associated Coxsackie A
affects only M and has no M-to-M recessive with hand-foot-and-mouth
transmission, and mother is usually an disease?
unaffected carrier?
1498. What pineal hormone's release Melatonin. It is a light-
1484. What pattern of genetic transmission is Mitochondrial is inhibited by daylight and sensitive hormone that is
characterized by no transmission from inheritance increased dramatically during associated with
M, maternal inheritance, and the sleep? sleepiness.
potential for the disease to affect both
sons and daughters of affected F?

1499. What pituitary hormone is inhibited TSH. 5-HT and 1514. What protein of the HIV virus does ELISA P24
during sleep? prolactin increase detect to determine whether a patient is
during sleep, and HIV positive?
dopamine levels 1515. What protein prevents ssDNA from Single-strand
decrease during reannealing during DNA replication? DNA binding
sleep. protein
1500. What portion of the intervertebral Nucleus pulposus 1516. What protozoal parasite forms flasked- Giardia lamblia
disk is a remnant of the notochord? shaped lesions in the duodenum, is (treat with
1501. What portion of the pericardium Fibrous pericardium transmitted via fecal-oral route, and is metronidazole)
adheres to the tunica adventitia of commonly seen in campers who drank
the great vessels? stream water?
1502. What potentially lethal side effect Agranulocytosis; 1517. What protozoal parasite results in Entamoeba
of clozapine should be monitored approximately 2% dysentery with blood and pus in the stool, histolytica
with frequent blood drawing? develop this side is transmitted via fecal-oral route, is (treat with
effect. diagnosed by cysts or trophozoites in the metronidazole)
1503. What preganglionic sympathetic Thoracic splanchnic stool, and forms liver abscesses and
fibers are responsible for fibers inverted flask-shaped lesions in the large
innervating the foregut and the intestine?
midgut? 1518. What purine base is contained in inosine Hypoxanthine
1504. What preganglionic sympathetic Lumbar splanchnics monophosphate? (remember,
fibers are responsible for IMP is a
innervating the smooth muscle and precursor for
glands of the pelvis and the AMP and GMP)
hindgut? 1519. What P value defines whether the hull P = .05; P < .05
1505. What projective test asks the patient TAT (Thematic hypothesis should or should not be rejects the null
to tell a story about what is going apperception test) rejected? hypothesis
on in the pictures, evaluating the 1520. What pyrimidine base is found In both Cytosine
conflicts, drives, and emotions of DNA and RNA?
the individual? 1521. What pyrimidine base is found Only in Thymine
1506. What prokaryotic positioning EF-G of the 50S DNA?
enzyme in translation is blocked by subunit 1522. What pyrimidine base is found Only in Uracil
the following? Erythromycin RNA?
1507. What prokaryotic positioning IF-2 of the 30S 1523. What pyrimidine base is produced by Uracil
enzyme in translation is blocked by subunit deaminating cytosine?
the following? Streptomycin
1524. What rare form of dementia is associated Pick's disease
1508. What prokaryotic positioning EF-Tu and EF-Ts of with personality changes and affects the
enzyme in translation is blocked by the 30S ribosomal frontal and temporal lobes?
the following? Tetracycline subunit
1525. What rate is indicated by 1- sensitivity? False-negative
1509. What protective covering adheres Pia mater rate
to the spinal cord and CNS tissue?
1526. What rate is indicated by 1-specificity? False-positive
1510. What protein allows Mycoplasma to P1 protein rate
attach to the respiratory epithelium?
1527. What rate removes any difference Standardized
1511. What protein carries free fatty acids Albumin between two populations, based on a rate
to the liver? variable, to makes groups equal?
1512. What protein catalyzes the DNA ligase 1528. What receptors are the best markers for CD16 and
formation of the last PDE bond NK cells? CD56
between the Okazaki fragments to
produce a continuous strand? 1529. What reflex enables the eyes to remain The vestibulo-
focused on a target while the head is ocular reflex
1513. What protein is required by Sigma factor turning?
prokaryotic RNA polymerases to
initiate transcription at the promoter
region of DNA?

1530. What reflex, seen in The Babinski reflex is present in 1542. What right-to-left shunt occurs Persistent truncus
lesions of the UMN lesions. Muscle atrophy due when only one vessel receives arteriosus
corticospinal tract, is to disuse, hyperreflexia, spastic blood from both the right and
an extension of the paralysis, increased muscle tone, left ventricles?
great toe with fanning and weakness are commonly seen 1543. What right-to-left shunt occurs Transposition of the
the of remaining toes? in UMN lesions. when the aorta opens into the great vessels arises from
1531. What region of the Ig Hypervariable region right ventricle and the a failure of the
does not change with pulmonary trunk opens into the aorticopulmonary
class switching? left ventricle? septum to grow in a
1532. What region of the Nasopharynx spiral.
pharynx does the
eustachian tube enter?
1533. What regulates the The rate of -oxidation 1544. What scale assesses a rank Ordinal scale (e.g.,
rate of ketone body order classification but does not faster/slower,
formation? tell the difference between the taller/shorter)
1534. What remains patent in A patent processus vaginalis two groups?
a hydrocele of the 1545. What scale has a true zero Ratio scale
testis, allowing point, graded into equal
peritoneal fluid to increments, and also orders
form into a cyst? them?
1535. What renal side effect Nearly 25% of patients taking 1546. What scale separates things Nominal scale
is commonly seen in lithium develop polyuria and into groups without defining the (categorical, e.g., male
patients taking lithium? polydipsia. relationship between them? or female)
1536. What restriction MstII; changing codon 6 (from A 1547. What segment of the Large intestine. Water is
endonuclease site is to T) destroys the restriction site. gastrointestinal tract lacks villi, passively removed from
destroyed in sickle - has crypts, and actively the lumen.
globin allele? transports sodium out of its
1537. What results when the Cleft lip lumen?
maxillary prominence 1548. What segment of the small Duodenum
fails to fuse with the intestine is associated with
medial nasal Brunner's glands?
prominence? 1549. What segments of the L4 to S3 (L2 to L4, thigh;
1538. What results when the Cleft palate lumbosacral plexus form the L4 to S3, leg)
palatine prominences following nerves? Common
fail to fuse with the peroneal nerve
other side? 1550. What segments of the L2 to L4 (L2 to L4, thigh;
1539. What reticular nuclei The raphe nuclei lumbosacral plexus form the L4 to S3, leg)
synthesize serotonin following nerves? Femoral
from L-tryptophan and nerve
plays a role in mood, 1551. What segments of the L2 to L4 (L2 to L4, thigh;
aggression, and lumbosacral plexus form the L4 to S3, leg)
inducing sleep? following nerves? Obturator
1540. What ribosomal The small subunit (40S) binds first. nerve
subunit binds first to 1552. What segments of the L4 to S3 (L2 to L4, thigh;
the mRNA strand? lumbosacral plexus form the L4 to S3, leg)
1541. What ribosomal 60S and 40S. The large subunits following nerves? Tibial nerve
subunit sizes do (60S) are made in the nucleolus
eukaryotic cells have? and the small subunits (40S) are
made in the nucleus.

1553. What sensory system Bilateral degeneration of the 1562. What small gram-negative facultative Francisella
is affected in the late dorsal columns in the spinal cord intracellular rod is transmitted to tularensis
spinal cord secondary to syphilis is known as human host by Dermacentor tick bite?
manifestation of tabes dorsalis. A high-step gait is 1563. What small gram-positive, non-spore- Listeria
syphilis? seen in patients with tabes dorsalis forming rod is a facultative intracellular monocytogenes
because of the inability to feel the parasite that grows in the cold and is
ground beneath their feet. associated with unpasteurized milk
1554. What serotonin Trazodone products?
reuptake inhibitor's 1564. What somatoform disorder is described Somatization
major sexual side as Having a F:M ratio of 20:1, onset disorder
effect is priapism? before age 30, and having 4 pains (2
gastrointestinal, 1 sexual, 1 neurologic)?
1555. What seven Esophagus, SVC, vagus nerve, 1565. What somatoform disorder is described Conversion
structures are found azygos vein, thoracic duct, thymus, as La belle indiffrence, suggestive of disorder
in more than one and phrenic nerve true physical ailment because of
mediastinum? alteration of function?
1556. What sided muscle Contralateral muscle weakness 1566. What somatoform disorder is described Hypochondriasis
weakness is seen in when above the decussation, as Preoccupied with illness or death, (they will begin
an UMN corticospinal whereas an UMN injury below the persisting despite reassurance, lasting with "I think I
tract injury above the pyramidal decussation results in longer than 6 months? have...")
pyramidal ipsilateral muscle weakness. 1567. What somatoform disorder is described Somatoform
decussation? as Severe, prolonged pain that pain disorder
1557. What signals are used Phosphorylation of mannose persists with no cause being found,
to direct an enzyme residues disrupts activities of daily living?
to a lysosome? 1568. What somatoform disorder is described Body
1558. What skin type on the Thick skin as Unrealistic negative opinion of dysmorphic
palms and soles is personal appearance, seeing self as disorder
characterized by the ugly?
absence of hair 1569. What specifies how accurately the Confidence
follicles and presence sample values and the true values of interval. It is a
of stratum lucidum? the population lie within a given range? way of admitting
1559. What small Yersinia pestis estimation for
coagulase-positive, the population.
gram-negative rod 1570. What sphingolipid cannot be produced Ganglioside
with bipolar staining without sialic acid and amino sugars?
is a facultative
intracellular parasite 1571. What sphingolipid is formed by the Sphingosine
resulting in buboes? union of serine and palmitoyl CoA?

1560. What small, Brucella 1572. What spinal nerves contribute to the S2, S3, S4
facultative gram- pelvic splanchnic (parasympathetic) keeps the pee-
negative intracellular nerves that innervate the detrusor pee off the
rod's transmission is muscle of the urinary bladder? floor!
associated with 1573. What splanchnic carries preganglionic Pelvic
unpasteurized dairy parasympathetic fibers that innervate splanchnics
products and the hindgut and the pelvic viscera? (They all begin
undulant fever? with P.)
1561. What small gram- Bordetella pertussis 1574. What ssDNA virus must make dsDNA Parvovirus (it is
negative aerobic rod before it makes mRNA? the only ssDNA
requires Regan-Lowe virus)
or Bordet- Gengou
medium for growth?

1575. What stage of sleep is associated Sleepwalking is 1589. What structure of the knee is ACL
with somnambulism? associated with described thus? Prevents
stage 4 and occurs anterior displacement and has
most often in the lateral-to-medial attachment on
first third of sleep. the tibia
1576. What staphylococcal species is Staphylococcus 1590. What structure of the knee is Posterior cruciate
positive for Beta-hemolysis and aureus described thus? Prevents ligament
coagulase? posterior displacement and has
1577. What statistical method do you use Odds ratio. (Case medial-to-lateral attachment on
when analyzing Case control control studies deal the tibia
studies? with prevalence.) 1591. What structure or structures IVC Remember: 1 at T8,
cross the diaphragm at T8 level? 2 at T10, and 3 at T12
1578. What statistical method do you use Relative risk and/or 1592. What structure or structures Esophagus and
when analyzing Cohort studies? attributable risk. cross the diaphragm at T10 esophageal nerve
(Cohort studies level? plexus (CN X)
deal with Remember: 1 at T8, 2 at
incidence.) T10, and 3 at T12
1579. What statistical method do you use Chi-square. 1593. What structure or structures Aorta, azygos vein,
when analyzing Cross-sectional cross the diaphragm at T12 and thoracic duct
studies? level? Remember: 1 at T8, 2 at
1580. What statistical test checks to see The T-test (used T10, and 3 at T12
whether the groups are different by when comparing 1594. What subset of CD4 helper T-cell Th1; they are also
comparing the means of two groups two groups) function is helping the responsible for
from a single nominal variable? development of CD8 T cells? delayed-type
1581. What statistical test compares the Two-way ANOVA. hypersensitivity (type
means of groups generated by two It allows the test to IV)
nominal variables by using an check several 1595. What subset of CD4 helper T Th2
interval variable? variables at the cells stimulate B-cell division and
same time. differentiation?
1582. What statistical test compares the One-way ANOVA 1596. What subset of CD4 T cells is Th2 cells
means of many groups (>2) of a responsible for mast cell and
single nominal variable by using an eosinophil precursor
interval variable? proliferation?
1583. What statistical test, using nominal Chi-square (when 1597. What subset of T cells recognizes CD8+ T cells
data only, checks whether two you are in doubt the MHC class I Ags? (cytotoxic) Remember,
variables are independent events? and have nominal 81=8 (CD8MHC class
data, use chi- I=8); 42=8 (CD4 MHC
square) class II 8)
1584. What structure is derived from the The mouth 1598. What subset of T cells recognizes CD4+ T cells (helper)
prochordal plate? the MHC class II Ags?
1585. What structure of a protein Quaternary 1599. What substance do the JG cells of Renin
describes the interaction among structure the kidney secrete in response to
subunits? low blood pressure?
1586. What structure of the knee is Medial meniscus 1600. What substance found in Major basic protein
described thus? C-shaped shock eosinophils is toxic to parasitic
absorber; aids in attachment of the worms?
tibia to the femur via the medial 1601. What substrate builds up in Tay- GM2 ganglioside
collateral ligament Sachs disease? Caused by a deficiency
1587. What structure of the knee is Medial collateral of -hexosaminidase A
described thus? Prevents ligament 1602. What substrate gets built up in Glucosyl cerebroside
abduction Gaucher's disease?
1588. What structure of the knee is Lateral collateral 1603. What substrate is built up in Sphingomyelin
described thus? Prevents ligament Niemann-Pick disease?

1604. What subtype of IgG does not IgG4 1613. What syndrome is associated with the Medial pontine
activate complement cascade? following brainstem lesions? syndrome
1605. What subtype of IgG does not IgG3 Contralateral corticospinal and medial
bind to staphylococcal A lemniscus tract deficits and an ipsilatera
protein? medial strabismus secondary to a lesion
in CN VI
1606. What subtype of schizophrenia Disorganized
is characterized by Childlike schizophrenia
behaviors, unorganized speech
and behaviors, poor grooming,
incongruous smiling and
laughter, and the worst
1607. What subtype of schizophrenia Paranoid schizophrenia 1614. What syndrome is associated with the Lateral
is characterized by Delusions following brainstem lesions? Occlusion medullary
of persecution and/or grandeur, of the PICA, resulting in ipsilateral limb (Wallenberg's)
auditory hallucinations, late ataxia, ipsilateral facial pain and syndrome
onset, and the best prognosis? temperature loss, contralateral pain and
1608. What subtype of schizophrenia Catatonic schizophrenia body temperature loss, ipsilateral
is characterized by Stuporous Horner's syndrome, and ipsilateral
mute echopraxia and automatic paralysis of the vocal cords, palate
obedience, waxy flexibility with droop, dysphagia, nystagmus, vomiting,
rigidity of posture? and vertigo

1609. What sulcus divides the occipital Calcarine sulcus 1615. What syndrome is associated with the Medial midbrain
lobe horizontally into a superior following brainstem lesions? Posterior (Weber's)
cuneus and inferior lingual cerebral artery occlusion resulting in a syndrome
gyrus? contralateral corticospinal tract signs,
contralateral corticobulbar signs to the
1610. What sweat gland type is APocrinE glands (APES lower face, and ipsilateral CN III palsy
associated with odor production is my memory aid)
and hair follicles and is found in Axilla, Areola, and Anus 1616. What syndrome is associated with the Pontocerebellar
the axilla? all begin with A. APES following brainstem lesions? Slow- angle syndrome
are hairy (associated growing acoustic neuroma producing CN
with hair follicles). They VII deficiencies
smell (odor production), 1617. What syndrome is associated with the Medial
and if confronted by an following brainstem lesions? Vertebral medullary
APE, your Adrenergic artery or anterior spinal artery syndrome
nervous system would occlusion, resulting in contralateral
be firing (innervation). corticospinal tract and medial lemniscus
1611. What syndrome causes inability Frontal lobe syndrome tract deficits and an ipsilateral CN XII
to concentrate, easy (lesion in the prefrontal lesion
distractibility, apathy, and cortex) 1618. What syndrome is characterized by Klver-Bucy
regression to an infantile bilateral medial temporal lobe lesion, syndrome
suckling or grasping reflex? placidity, hyperorality, hypersexuality,
1612. What syndrome is associated Lateral pontine hyperreactivity to visual stimuli, and
with the following brainstem syndrome visual agnosia?
lesions? AICA or superior 1619. What syndrome is characterized by Kartagener's
cerebellar artery occlusion, dynein arm abnormality resulting in syndrome (also
resulting in ipsilateral limb chronic sinusitis, recurrent pulmonary known as
ataxia, ipsilateral facial pain and infections, and infertility? immotile cilia
temperature loss, contralateral syndrome) -----
loss of pain and temperature to ------------------
the body, ipsilateral Horner's ------------------
syndrome, ipsilateral facial ------------------
paralysis, and hearing loss ------------------

1620. What syndrome is Serotonin syndrome. It is also 1629. What term describes Verbigeration
characterized by associated with high doses senseless repetition of words
sweating, insomnia, and MAOI and synthetic or phrases?
nausea, diarrhea, cramps, narcotic combinations 1630. What term describes the Amnesia. (The person is
delirium, and general (Ecstasy). Treatment consists inability to recall personal aware of the memory loss.)
restlessness secondary to of decreasing SSRI dosage, information, commonly
MAOI and SSRI in removing the causative agent, associated with trauma?
combination? and giving cyproheptadine.
1631. What term describes the Accommodation
reflex that increases the
curvature of the lens,
allowing near vision?
1621. What syndrome is Klver-Bucy syndrome 1632. What term is defined as a Transference. When it is
described as bilateral patient unconsciously placing from the physician to the
lesions of the amygdala his or her thoughts and patient it is called
and the hippocampus feelings on the physician in a countertransference.
resulting in placidity, caregiver or parent role?
anterograde amnesia, oral 1633. What test, by using specific Flow cytometric analysis
exploratory behavior, Abs to different receptors,
hypersexuality, and allows for rapid analysis of
psychic blindness? cell types in a blood sample?
1622. What syndrome is Gerstmann's syndrome; 1634. What test is done to diagnose Nitroblue tetrazolium
described by a lesion in spoken language is usually CGD? reduction test (NBT). It is
the angular gyrus (area understood. negative in patients with
39) resulting in alexia, CGD because there is no
agraphia, acalculia, finger production of oxygen
agnosia, and right-left radicals.
1635. What test is used to detect Coombs test
1623. What syndrome is due to Respiratory distress syndrome; anti-RBC Abs seen in
a deficiency of surfactant? treatment with cortisol and hemolytic anemia?
thyroxine can increase
production of surfactant. 1636. What test is used to screen ELISA. It detects anti-p24
for HIV? IgG.
1624. What syndrome occurs Testicular feminization
when a 46XY fetus syndrome (Dude looks like a 1637. What test uses very small PCR
develops testes and lady!) amounts of DNA that can be
female external genitalia? amplified and analyzed
without the use of Southern
1625. What T cell deficiency DiGeorge syndrome, which is blotting or cloning?
syndrome is associated due to a failure of the third
with facial anomalies, and fourth pharyngeal pouch 1638. What thalamic relay nucleus The anterior nucleus of the
hypoparathyroidism, development. Remember, B do the mammillary bodies thalamus
thymic hypoplasia, and cell deficiencies are project to?
recurrent viral and fungal associated with extracellular 1639. What three AAs are used to 1. Glycine 2. Aspartate 3.
infections? infection. T cell deficiencies synthesize the purine ring? Glutamine
are associated with 1640. What three AAs must patients Isoleucine, leucine, and
intracellular infections with maple syrup urine valine
1626. What T cell line arises CD8+ T cells disease not eat?
from low affinity for self- 1641. What three actions should 1. Notify police. 2. Try to
MHC class I Ags in the take place when one person detain the person making
thymus? threatens the life of another? the threat. 3. Notify the
1627. What T-cell surface TCR (Hint: think of the Tarasoff threatened victim.
projection recognizes and decision.)
reacts to foreign Ags 1642. What three bacteria are 1. Neisseria meningitidis 2.
(presented by APCs)? positive to quellung reactive Haemophilus influenzae 3.
1628. What term describes how Saltatory conduction test? Streptococcus pneumoniae
an action potential is
propagated along an

1643. What three 1. Cytosine 2. Uracil (only in RNA) 3. 1654. What three muscles constitute 1. Sartorius 2. Gracilis 3.
bases are Thymidine the pes anserinus? Semitendinous
pyrimidines? 1655. What three organs can be Heart, esophagus, and
1644. What three 1. Burkitt's lymphoma 2. Nasopharyngeal affected by Trypanosoma cruzi? colon. Remember, you
carcinomas are carcinoma 3. Thymic carcinoma get megas:
associated with cardiomegaly,
EBV? megaesophagus, and
1645. What three cells Dendritic cells, macrophages, and thymic megacolon.
are essential for epithelial cells 1656. What three organs participate in 1. Skin 2. Liver 3. Kidney
T-cell production of vitamin D?
in the thymus?
1646. What three cells Thymic epithelial cells, dendritic cells, 1657. What three steps of the TCA 1. Malate
are essential for and macrophages cycle generate NADH? dehydrogenase 2.
T-cell Isocitrate
maturation? dehydrogenase 3. -
1647. What three 1. The child poses an imminent danger to Ketoglutarate
circumstances self or others. 2. The child is unable to dehydrogenase
allow a child to self-care daily at the appropriate 1658. What three structures are in Left: stomach, spleen,
be committed developmental level. 3. The parents or contact with the left colic and left kidney; right:
to institutional guardians have no control over the child flexure? With the right colic liver, duodenum, and
care? or will not promise to ensure the child's flexure? right kidney
safety even though they refuse 1659. What three substances stimulate 1. Ca2+ : calmodulin
hospitalization. glycogenolysis? ratio 2. Epinephrine 3.
1648. What three CNs CN III, IV, and VI Glucagon
are associated 1660. What three substrates control 1. Cortisol (stimulates
with conjugate the enzyme PEPCK for the PEPCK) 2. Glucagon 3.
eye conversion of oxaloacetate GTP
movements? (OAA) to pyruvate in the
1649. What three C3a, C4a, and C5a cytoplasm?
complement 1661. What three things are needed to NADPH, O2, and
fragments are produce a double bond in a fatty cytochrome b5
also acid chain in the endoplasmic
anaphylatoxins? reticulum?
1650. What three 1. Cytotrophoblast 2. Syncytiotrophoblast 1662. What three vitamin deficiencies Folate, vitamin B12, and
embryonic cell 3. Extraembryonic mesoderm are associated with vitamin B6
layers form the homocystinemia?
1663. What tick is the vector for Ixodes (also the vector
1651. What three Inhibin, mllerian-inhibiting factor, and babesiosis? for Lyme disease)
factors do androgen binding protein
Sertoli cells 1664. What topoisomerase makes Topoisomerase I
produce for ssDNA cuts, requires no ATP, (Relaxase)
normal male relaxes supercoils, and acts as
development? the swivel in front of the
replication fork?
1652. What three T cells, B cells, and macrophages
major cell lines 1665. What toxin ADP-ribosylates via Pertussis toxin
participate in Gi to increase cAMP?
the acquired 1666. What toxin ADP-ribosylates via Cholera toxin
immune Gs protein to increase cAMP?
system? 1667. What toxin, produced by Tetanospasmin (also
1653. What three 1. Iliocostalis 2. Longissimus 3. Spinalis ("I Clostridium tetani, binds to called tetanus toxin)
muscles Love Science" muscles) ganglioside receptors and blocks
constitute the the release of glycine and GABA
erector spinae? at the spinal synapse?

1668. What tract carries the The fasciculus gracilis (Graceful), 1681. What two cell lines of T and B-cells belong to the
ipsilateral dorsal column which lies closest to the midline the immune system do adaptive branch, whereas PMNs,
fibers from the lower of the spinal cord. not belong to the innate NK cells, eosinophils,
limbs in the spinal cord? branch? macrophages, and monocytes
1669. What tract carries the The fasciculus cuneatus belong to the innate branch.
ipsilateral dorsal column 1682. What two CNs are CN IX and X
fibers from the upper responsible for the
limbs in the spinal cord? carotid body and sinus
1683. What two enzymes are Homocysteine methyl
vitamin B12-dependent transferase and methylmalonyl
CoA transferase
1684. What two enzymes of ALA dehydrogenase and
heme synthesis are ferrochelatase
inhibited by lead?
1670. What tract carries Lower extremity and lower trunk 1685. What two factors cause A decrease in Ca2+ and an
unconscious information travels in the dorsal PTH to be secreted? increase in PO4-
proprioceptive spinocerebellar tract. The upper 1686. What two glycolytic 3-Phosphoglycerate kinase and
information from the trunk and extremity information enzymes catalyze the pyruvate kinase; this produces
Golgi tendon organs and travels in the cuneocerebellar substrate-level two ATPs per enzyme (total four
muscle spindles to the tract. (Cuneocerebellar and phosphorylations? ATPs)
cerebellum, helping fasciculus cuneatus both apply
monitor and modulate to upper extremities.) 1687. What two ligaments of Round and ovarian ligaments
muscle movements? the uterus are remnants
of the gubernaculum?
1671. What tract is Corticospinal tract
responsible for 1688. What two Galactose and glucose
voluntary refined monosaccharides are
movements of distal produced when lactose
extremities? is hydrolyzed?

1672. What tumor is derived Sacrococcygeal teratoma 1689. What two muscles do Trapezius and
from primitive streak you test to see whether sternocleidomastoid
remnants and often CN XI is intact?
contains bone, hair, or 1690. What two pathologic Omphalocele and gastroschisis
other tissue types? conditions occur when
1673. What two AAs do not Methionine (start) and the gut does not return
have more than one tryptophan are the only two AAs to the embryo?
codon? with only one codon. 1691. What two post- Prolyl and lysyl hydroxylases
1674. What two AAs have a Aspartic acid and glutamic acid transcriptional enzymes
pKa of 4? in collagen synthesis
require ascorbic acid to
1675. What two AAs have a Lysine and tyrosine function properly?
pKa of 10?
1692. What two regions of the Thoracic and sacral
1676. What two AAs require Proline and lysine vertebral column are
vitamin C for considered primary
hydroxylation? curvatures?
1677. What two Ags must be HBsAg and HBeAg 1693. What two requirements Lactose must be present and
positive for a patient to must be met for the Lac glucose must be absent
have chronic active operon to be activated?
1694. What two sugars can be Glucose and galactose
1678. What two areas of the Palms and soles of the feet. used to produce
skin do not contain Sebaceous glands are cerebrosides?
sebaceous glands? associated with hair follicles,
which are lacking on the palms
and soles of the feet.
1679. What two arteries join to Ulnar and radial arteries (ulnar is
form the superficial and the main supplier)
deep palmar arches of
the hand?
1680. What two bacteria are Brucella and Listeria (has
associated with drinking tumbling motility)
unpasteurized milk?

1695. What two veins form the portal The superior mesenteric 1709. What type of bilirubin is found in Indirect or
vein? vein and the splenic vein neonatal jaundice? unconjugated
(after it receives the 1710. What type of binding occurs with Affinity
inferior mesenteric vein) one Fab or one idiotype of IgG?
join to form the portal
vein. 1711. What type of cell can never leave Plasma cell
the lymph node?
1696. What two vessels come 1. Posterior auricular vein
together to form the external 2. Posterior division of 1712. What type of cell surface Zonula occludens
jugular vein? the retromandibular vein projection lies on the lateral (tight junctions)
surface of cells closest to the apex
1697. What two viruses are associated Varicella virus and and acts to seal off the outside
with Reye's syndrome? influenza virus environment from the rest of the
1698. What two viruses get their HIV and poxvirus body?
envelope not from budding but 1713. What type of cerebral bleed is due Subarachnoid
from coding? to a rupture of a berry aneurysm in hematoma
the circle of Willis?
1699. What two vitamins are Thiamine and folate 1714. What type of chromatin is Euchromatin, the
inactivated when they come in transcriptionally active? dark stuff in the
contact with acetaldehyde? nucleus on an
1700. What type II hypersensitivity Goodpasture syndrome electron microscope
disorder is defined as image.
Autoantibodies against the type 1715. What type of chromatin is Heterochromatin, the
IV collagen in the basement transcriptionally inactive? light stuff in the
membrane of the kidneys and nucleus on an
lungs? electron microscope
1701. What type II hypersensitivity Myasthenia gravis image.
disorder is defined as 1716. What type of collagen is associated Type IV collagen
Autoantibodies directed against with the basement membrane?
ACh receptors? 1717. What type of correlation compares Pearson correlation
1702. What type II hypersensitivity Autoimmune two interval variables?
disorder is defined as thrombocytopenia 1718. What type of correlation compares Spearman
Autoantibodies directed against purpura two ordinal variables? correlation
platelet integrin?
1719. What type of correlation is defined Negative correlation
1703. What type II hypersensitivity Autoimmune hemolytic as One variable that diminishes in
disorder is defined as anemia the presence of the other?
Autoantibodies directed against
RBC Ag I? 1720. What type of correlation is defined Positive correlation
as Two variables that go together
1704. What type II hypersensitivity Graves disease in the same direction?
disorder is defined as
Autoantibodies directed against 1721. What type of correlation is defined Zero correlation
the TSH receptor? as Two variables with no linear
relation to one another?
1705. What type of Ag do B cells Free, unprocessed Ag
recognize? 1722. What type of damage to the Nephrotoxic oxylate
kidneys is caused by drinking stones
1706. What type of Ag do T cells Processed antigenic ethylene glycol (antifreeze)?
recognize? peptides bound in the
groove of the MHC 1723. What type of DNA library is made cDNA libraries are
molecule from the mRNA from a tissue derived from mRNA,
expressing a particular gene? are continuous, and
1707. What type of bias is it when the Measurement bias contain no introns or
information is distorted because regulatory elements.
of the way it is gathered?
1724. What type of error is made if you Type II error (beta
1708. What type of bias is it when the Selection bias accept the null hypothesis when it error). (Remember it
sample population is not a true is false? as saying something
representative of the doesn't work when it
population? does.)

1725. What type of error is Type I error (alpha error). 1735. What type of hepatitis has the Hepatitis E
made if you reject (Remember it as saying something highest mortality rate among
the null hypothesis works when it doesn't.) The chance pregnant women?
when it is true? of a type I error occurring is the P 1736. What type of hernia is Indirect hernia passes in
value. described as passing through the inguinal canal; a
1726. What type of fatty Omega-3 fatty acids the deep lateral ring of the direct hernia passes
acid is associated inguinal canal? directly through
with a decrease in Hesselbach's triangle.
serum triglycerides 1737. What type of hypersensitivity is Type II hypersensitivity
and cardiovascular an Ab-mediated response reaction
disease? against our own cells,
1727. What type of fiber or Both receptors, or membranes via
fibers are carried in IgG or IgM?
(answer motor,
sensory, or both)
Dorsal rami?
1728. What type of fiber or Sensory 1738. What type of hypersensitivity is Type III hypersensitivity
fibers are carried in a result of high circulating reaction
(answer motor, levels of soluble immune
sensory, or both) complexes made up of IgG or
Dorsal root? IgM Abs?
1729. What type of fiber or Sensory 1739. What type of hypersensitivity is Type IV hypersensitivity
fibers are carried in a T cell-mediated response to reaction (delayed type
(answer motor, Ags that are not activated by because of the 48-96
sensory, or both) Ab or complement? hour latency)
Dorsal root 1740. What type of jaundice is seen in Conjugated (direct)
ganglion? Dubin-Johnson syndrome? hyperbilirubinemia, a
1730. What type of fiber or Both transport defect
fibers are carried in 1741. What type of jaundice is seen in Conjugated (direct)
(answer motor, Rotor's syndrome? hyperbilirubinemia
sensory, or both)
Spinal nerve? 1742. What type of lysosome is Secondary lysosome
formed when lysosome fuses (think of the primary as
1731. What type of fiber or Both with a substrate for inactive and secondary
fibers are carried in breakdown? as active)
(answer motor,
sensory, or both) 1743. What type of mortality rate is Proportionate mortality
Ventral rami? defined as the number of rate
deaths From a specific cause
1732. What type of fiber or Motor per all deaths?
fibers are carried in
(answer motor, 1744. What type of mortality rate is Case fatality rate
sensory, or both) defined as the number of
Ventral root? deaths From a specific cause
per number of persons with the
1733. What type of foods Foods rich in tyramine (e.g., cheese, disease?
should patients dried fish, sauerkraut, chocolate,
taking MAOIs avoid? avocados, and red wine) should be 1745. What type of mortality rate is Cause-specific mortality
Why? avoided. Hypertensive crisis occurs defined as the number of rate
when tyramine and MAOIs are deaths From a specific cause
mixed. per population?

1734. What type of Hypnopompic hallucinations occur 1746. What type of mortality rate is Crude mortality rate
hallucination occurs during awakening, whereas defined as the number of
during awakening? hypnagogic hallucinations occur deaths In the population?
while one is falling asleep. 1747. What type of personality test is Projective test. Most
the Rorschach inkblot test, tests with a wide range
objective or projective? of possibilities for the
answers are projective.
1748. What type of Plasmodium Plasmodium malariae
affects Only mature RBCs?

1749. What type of Plasmodium vivax 1760. What type of spore is defined Blastoconidia
Plasmodium affects as an asexual budding
Only reticulocytes? daughter yeast cell?
1750. What type of Plasmodium falciparum 1761. What type of symptoms in Type I symptoms
Plasmodium affects schizophrenia are associated (positive); schizophrenics
RBCs of all ages? with Dopamine receptors? have them, but otherwise
1751. What type of pleura is Visceral pleura healthy persons do not.
adherent to the surface 1762. What type of symptoms in Type II symptoms
of the organ? schizophrenia are associated (negative); otherwise
1752. What type of questions It is best to begin with open- with Muscarinic receptors healthy persons have
should you begin with ended questions, allowing (ACh)? them, but schizophrenics
when a patient seeks patients to describe in their own do not.
your medical opinion? words what troubles them. You
can then move to closed-ended
questions when narrowing the
1753. What type of random Double-blind study. It is the 1763. What type of test asks a Projective drawing. The
controlled test is least most scientifically rigorous study patient to draw a scene, artistic form is irrelevant,
subjective to bias? known. attempting to find out the but the size, placement,
1754. What type of scale is Interval scale (a ruler, for individual's unconscious erasures, and distortions
graded into equal example) perceptions in his or her life? are relevant.
increments, showing not 1764. What urease-positive non- Proteus
only any difference but lactose-fermenting gram-
how much? negative rod with swarming-
1755. What type of scheduled Fixed ratio (rewards set type motility is associated with
reinforcement states behaviors) staghorn renal calculi?
that after a desired 1765. What vascular injury may The popliteal artery, the
response, the result from a supracondylar deepest structure in the
reinforcement is given fracture of the femur? popliteal fossa, risks injury
After a set number of in a supracondylar
responses? fracture of the femur.
1756. What type of scheduled Fixed interval 1766. What vector is associated with Anopheles mosquito
reinforcement states malaria?
that after a desired 1767. What vein drains the lower Hemiazygous vein
response, the third of the thoracic wall?
reinforcement is given
On a set time schedule? 1768. What vein is formed by the Superior vena cava
union of the right and left
1757. What type of scheduled Variable ratio If it is based on brachiocephalic veins?
reinforcement states time, it is an interval, and if it is
that after a desired based on the number of 1769. What vertebral level is marked T9
response, the responses, it is a ratio. by the xiphoid process?
reinforcement is given 1770. What vessel can be found Subclavian vein
Varying in the number atop the scalene anterior?
of responses? 1771. What vessel does the right The right gonadal vein
1758. What type of scheduled Variable interval gonadal vein drain into? drains into the inferior
reinforcement states vena cava directly, and
that after a desired the left gonadal vein
response, the drains into the left renal
reinforcement is given vein.
Varying in time? 1772. What vessel is lacerated in an Middle meningeal artery
1759. What type of spore is Conidia epidural hematoma?
asexual and formed of 1773. What vessels carry The right and left
hyphae? deoxygenated blood into the pulmonary arteries, the
lungs from the right ventricle? only arteries that carry
deoxygenated blood

1774. What Vi-encapsulated gram- Salmonella typhi 1790. What water-soluble-vitamin Riboflavin (B2)
negative motile anaerobic rod deficiency is associated with
that produces H2S is cheilosis and magenta
associated with enteric fever, tongue?
gastroenteritis, and 1791. What water-soluble-vitamin Folic acid
septicemia? deficiency is associated with
1775. What viral infection is Yellow fever (flavivirus) neural tube defects in the
associated with black vomit? fetus?
1776. What viral infection is known CMV; Toxoplasma also 1792. What water-soluble-vitamin Vitamin C
to cause intracerebral causes intracerebral deficiency is associated with
calcifications? calcifications but it is a poor wound healing, easy
parasite. bruising, bleeding gums,
1777. What virus causes hoof-and- Vesicular stomatitis virus anemia, and painful glossitis?
mouth disease? 1793. What water-soluble-vitamin Biotin (only if eaten in large
deficiency may result from quantities)
eating raw eggs?
1778. What virus causes small pink Molluscum contagiosum 1794. What water-soluble vitamin Niacin (B3)
benign wartlike tumors and is deficiency results in
associated with HIV-positive pellagra?
patients? 1795. What would be the result if There would be two Fab
1779. What viruses are associated HPVs 16 and 18 an Ab were cleaved with and Fc regions.
with cervical carcinoma? papain?
1780. What virus is associated with Variola virus (Smallpox) 1796. What would be the result if There would be a Fab'
Guarnieri bodies? an Ab were cleaved with region; thus, it would still
1781. What virus is associated with JC virus pepsin? be able to participate in
progressive multifocal precipitation and
leukoencephalopathy? agglutination.

1782. What virus is associated with Calicivirus 1797. What X-linked recessive Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
the Norwalk agent? disorder is characterized by
hyperuricemia, spastic
1783. What virus lies dormant in the Varicella cerebral palsy, mental
Dorsal root ganglia? retardation, and self-
1784. What virus lies dormant in the Herpes II mutilation?
Sensory ganglia of S2 and 1798. When attempting to make up About 80% of stage 4 sleep
S3? sleep, what stage of sleep is is recovered,
1785. What virus lies dormant in the Herpes I recovered? approximately half of REM
Trigeminal ganglia? is recovered, and only one-
1786. What vitamin is an important Vitamin A third of total sleep is ever
component of rhodopsin? made up.

1787. What vitamin is necessary for Vitamin A is responsible 1799. When does most of the The deepest sleep levels
epithelial health? for vision and epithelial NREM sleep (stage 3 and 4) (stage 3 and 4) occur
health. occur, in the first or second mostly in the first half of
half of sleep? sleep.
1788. What vitamin is necessary for Pyridoxal phosphate is
the transfer of one amino derived from vitamin B6 1800. When does most REM sleep REM sleep occurs more
group from a carbon skeleton and is needed to transfer occur, in the first or second often in the second half of
to another? the amino groups of one half of sleep? sleep. The amount of REM
carbon skeleton to sleep increases as the night
another. goes on.

1789. What water-associated Legionella (think air 1801. When does the primitive gut 6 weeks 10 weeks
organism is a weakly stained conditioners) herniate out of the embryo?
gram-negative rod that When does it go back into the
requires cysteine and iron for embryo?

1802. When is the first Prophase of meiosis I (between 12th and 1810. Where are the tonsillar Waldeyer's ring
arrested stage 22nd week in utero) tissues?
of development 1811. Where do adult tapeworms Adult tapeworms develop
in the female develop, in the intermediate in the definitive host,
reproductive or definitive host? whereas cysticerci or
cycle? larvae develop in the
1803. When more Confounding bias intermediate host.
than one 1812. Where does Beta-oxidation of In the peroxisome until it
explanation can very long chain fatty acids is 10 carbons long; the rest
account for the begin? is completed in the
end result, what mitochondria.
form of bias
occurs? 1813. Where does the parotid Opposite the second
(Stensen's) duct enter the oral upper molar tooth
1804. When the Norm reference (i.e., 75% of the students 1814. Where do sperm go for Ductus epididymis, which
results of a test in the class will pass) maturation? is lined by
are compared pseudostratified
to findings for a epithelium with stereocilia.
normative 1815. Where do the primordial germ From the wall of the yolk
group, what cells arise? sac
form of
reference does 1816. Where in the body is heme RES(Reticular endothelial
the objective converted to bilirubin? system)
test use? 1817. Where is lithium metabolized 95% in the kidneys; that's
1805. Where are the The first sensory neuron is in the dorsal and excreted? why adequate Na+ and
cell bodies for root ganglia. It carries ascending sensory fluid intake is essential.
the DCML and information in the dorsal root of a spinal 1818. Where is the cupola of the The cupola of the lung is
spinothalamic nerve, eventually synapsing with second lung in relation to the posterior to the
sensory sensory neuron. In the brainstem (DCML) subclavian artery and vein? subclavian artery and vein.
systems? and the spinal cord (spinothalamic) the It is the reason one must
second neuron cell body sends its axons be cautious when
to synapse in the thalamus. The third performing subclavian
sensory neuron cell body is a thalamic venipuncture.
nuclei that sends its fibers to the primary 1819. Where is the lesion that Left abducens nerve
somatosensory cortex. produces these symptoms
1806. Where are the The inner membrane of the mitochondria when a patient is asked to
enzymes for the (cristae) look to the left? Left eye
ETC and can't look to the left
oxidative 1820. Where is the lesion that Left abducens nucleus or
phosphorylation produces these symptoms right cerebral cortex
found? when a patient is asked to
1807. Where are the In the ventral horn of the spinal cord. look to the left? Neither eye
LMN cell bodies UMN cell bodies are in the precentral can look left with a slow drift
of the gyrus of the frontal lobe. to the right
corticospinal 1821. Where is the lesion that Right medial longitudinal
tract? produces these symptoms fasciculus
1808. Where are the They are in ganglia in the PNS. when a patient is asked to
postganglionic look to the left? Right eye
neuron cell can't look left, left eye
bodies, the CNS nystagmus, and convergence
or the PNS? is intact
1809. Where are the They are in the grey matter of the CNS. 1822. Where is tropocollagen Outside the cell
preganglionic aggregated to form a collagen
neuron cell fibril?
bodies, the CNS
or the PNS?

1823. Where on the codon and 3'end of the codon 1838. Which dimorphic fungus is found as Blastomyces
anticodon does the wobble (third position) on hyphae with nondescript conidia in dermatitidis
hypothesis take place? mRNA and 5' end of rotting wood in the Upper Great
the anticodon (first Lakes, Ohio, Mississippi, eastern
position) on tRNA. seaboard of the United States, and
1824. Which acid-fast rod is an obligate Mycobacterium southern Canada?
intracellular parasite? leprae 1839. Which direction does the uvula A left CN X lesion
1825. Which bacteria are associated with Corynebacterium deviate in a left vagus nerve lesion? results in the uvula
the following pigment production? diphtheriae deviating to the
Black-gray pigmentation right. (Uvula points
away from the
1826. Which bacteria are associated with Pseudomonas affected side.)
the following pigment production? aeruginosa
Pyocyanin (blue-green) 1840. Which dopamine receptor excites the D1 receptor;
direct pathway of the basal ganglia? inhibition of the
1827. Which bacteria are associated with Serratia direct pathway
the following pigment production? occurs through the
Red pigmentation D2 receptors.
1828. Which bacteria are associated with Staphylococcus 1841. Which drug is used to treat opioid Clonidine
the following pigment production? aureus withdrawal, ADHD, and sometimes
Yellow pigmentation Tourette's syndrome?
1829. Which benzodiazepine has the Flurazepam 1842. Which drug is used to treat Naloxone or
longest half-life? respiratory depression associated naltrexone
1830. Which benzodiazepine has the Triazolam with an overdose of opioids?
shortest half-life? 1843. Which encapsulated fungus is found Cryptococcus
1831. Which carcinomaBurkitt's Hepatocellular in soil enriched with pigeon neoformans
lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma is droppings?
carcinoma, hepatocellular associated with 1844. Which fungus is found worldwide on Sporothrix
carcinoma, or thymic carcinoma hepatitis B and C plants, is a cigar-shaped yeast in schenckii
is not associated with EBV? infections, not with tissue form, and results in rose
EBV. gardener's disease?
1832. Which cestode infection results in Echinococcus 1845. Which genus of dermatophytes is Microsporum
alveolar hydatid cyst disease? multilocularis associated with the following sites of
1833. Which cestode in raw or rare beef Taenia saginata infection? Hair and skin only
containing cysticerci results in 1846. Which genus of dermatophytes is Epidermophyton
intestinal tapeworms? associated with the following sites of
1834. Which chromosome is associated Chromosome 6 infection? Nails and skin only
with MHC genes? 1847. Which genus of dermatophytes is Trichophyton
1835. Which CNs act as the sensory and The sensory limb is via associated with the following sites of
motor components of the gag CN IX, and the motor infection? Skin, hair, and nails
reflex? limb is from CN X. 1848. Which gram-negative diplococcus Meningococcus
1836. Which CNs are found in the CN I, II, III, VI, and XII ferments maltose? (Gonococcus does
midline of the brainstem? Add 1 + 1 = 2, 1 + 2 = 3, 1 not)
+ 2 + 3 = 6, 1 + 2 + 3 + 6 1849. Which gram-negative diplococcus Meningococcus
= 12 grows on chocolate agar? Thayer- grows on
1837. Which dimorphic fungus is found Coccidioides immitis Martin medium? chocolate agar,
as Arthroconidia in desert sand of and Gonococcus
the southwestern United States grows on Thayer-
(e.g., San Joaquin Valley)? Martin medium.
1850. Which gram-positive bacteria Clostridium
infection of infancy is associated with botulinum
ingestion of honey?

1851. Which hemoflagellate Leishmania donovani (kala azar 1865. Which muscle of the eye is under Dilator pupillae
species causes kala azar? is also known as visceral sympathetic control? muscle
leishmaniasis) 1866. Which muscles of the eye are under Constrictor
1852. Which hepatitis virus is in Hepatitis C parasympathetic control? pupillae and
the Flaviviridae family? ciliary muscles
1853. Which hepatitis virus is in Hepatitis A 1867. Which mycoplasma species is Ureaplasma
the Picornaviridae family? associated with urethritis, prostatitis, urealyticum
1854. Which IgG cannot activate IgG4 and renal calculi?
complement? 1868. Which of the colliculi help direct the Superior colliculus
1855. Which IL increases IgA IL-5. It also stimulates movement of both eyes in a gaze? (Remember S for
synthesis? eosinophil proliferation. Superior and
Sight). The inferior
1856. Which IL is associated with IL-4 colliculus
increases of IgG and IgE? processes
information from
both ears.
1857. Which immunoglobulin is IgA 1869. Which of the following characteristics Viruses
secreted by the plasma accurately describe fungi, bacteria,
cells in the viruses, or parasites? Acellular;
gastrointestinal tract? some are enveloped; replicate within
1858. Which integrin mediates Beta2-integrins the host cell; no cell walls
the adhesion to 1870. Which of the following characteristics Fungi
endothelial cells for accurately describe fungi, bacteria,
migration in and out of the viruses, or parasites? Eukaryotic
blood during an immune cell; 3 to 10 microns; 80S ribosomes;
response? chitinous cell wall; ergosterol in cell
1859. Which is the conditioned The blood withdrawn is the membrane; replicate via cytokinesis
response, the conditioned unconditioned stimulus, with mitosis and meiosis
stimulus, the inducing the unconditioned 1871. Which of the following characteristics Parasites
unconditioned response, response (fainting). The needle accurately describe fungi, bacteria,
the unconditioned is part of the blood-drawing viruses, or parasites? Eukaryotic
stimulus in this case? A procedure and is the cell, 15 to 25 microns, 80S ribosomes,
patient has blood conditioned stimulus no cell walls, replicates via
withdrawn and faints. The (unconditioned and cytokinesis with mitosis and meiosis
next time she goes to conditioned stimuli are paired) 1872. Which of the following characteristics Bacteria
have blood taken, she resulting in the conditioned accurately describe fungi, bacteria,
faints at the sight of the response (fainting at the sight viruses, or parasites? Small
needle. of the needle). prokaryotic cells; no histones; 70S
1860. Which kidney is lower? The right kidney is lower in the ribosomes; no sterols in cell
Why? abdominal cavity because of membrane; peptidoglycans in cell
the amount of space the liver wall; replicate by binary fission
occupies. 1873. Which of the followingDNA Histone acetylases
1861. Which leukotriene is LTB4 methylating enzymes, scaffolding is a regulator
chemotactic for proteins, histone acetylases, or favoring gene
neutrophils? deacetylasesis a regulator of expression. All of
1862. Which leukotrienes are LTC4 and LTD4 eukaryotic gene expression? the others favor
associated with the late- inactivation.
phase inflammatory 1874. Which of the following is not part of Alveoli; they are
response? the conducting portion of the part of the
1863. Which major cell type is RBCs. That is why it is called respiratory system: trachea, bronchi, respiratory
found in the red pulp of red pulp. alveoli, or larynx? portion.
the spleen?
1864. Which M-protein strain of M12 strains
Streptococcus pyogenes
is associated with acute

1875. Which one of the cerebellar Superior cerebellar 1889. Which streptococcal species is Enterococcus
peduncles is mainly peduncle; the inferior and characterized by being catalase (Streptococcus
responsible for outgoing the middle consist mainly of negative, turning bile esculin agar faecalis)
(efferent) information? incoming (afferent) tracts black, producing a positive PYR
and fibers. test, and resulting in biliary and
1876. Which organism causes Borrelia recurrentis urinary tract infections?
multiple infections by 1890. Which Streptococcus pyogenes Streptolysin O
antigen switching? toxin is immunogenic?
1877. Which organism causes Rochalimaea quintana (now 1891. Which thalamic nucleus receives MGB
trench fever? called Bartonella quintana) auditory input from the inferior
1878. Which organism causes Fusobacterium colliculus?
trench mouth? 1892. Which three CNs send sensory CN VII, IX, and X;
1879. Which organism causes Leptospira information to the solitary nucleus? taste and general
Weil's disease? sensation for the
tongue is sent to the
1880. Which organism releases Neisseria meningitidis solitary nucleus.
endotoxins prior to cell
1881. Which organisms have Prokaryotes. Polycistronic 1893. Which three organisms cause CMV, Toxoplasma
polycistronic mRNA? and prokaryotes both start heterophilic negative gondii, and Listeria
with P. mononucleosis?
1882. Which parasitic organism, Toxoplasma gondii 1894. Which trematode is associated with Schistosoma
when it crosses the bladder carcinoma in Egypt and haematobium
placenta, results in Africa?
intracerebral calcifications, 1895. Which trophoblast layer of the Syncytiotrophoblast.
chorioretinitis, placenta remains until the end of (The cytotrophoblast
microcephaly, pregnancy? gets incorporated
hydrocephaly, and into the
convulsions? syncytiotrophoblast.)
1883. Which PG is associated with PGE and intrauterine or 1896. Which type of hepatitis can cause Hepatitis B
maintaining a PDA? neonatal asphyxia maintain hepatocellular carcinoma?
patency of the ductus
arteriosus. Indomethacin, 1897. Which type of hepatitis is a Hepatitis E (enteric)
ACh, and catecholamines calicivirus?
promote closure of the 1898. Which type of hepatitis is a Hepatitis A
ductus arteriosus. picornavirus? (infectious)
1884. Which protein prevents Invariant chain 1899. Which way will the O2 dissociation Shifts it to the right
internal binding of self curve shift with the addition of 2, 3-
proteins within an MHC bisphosphoglycerate (2, 3-BPG) to
class II cell? adult hemoglobin (Hgb)?
1885. Which protozoal parasitic Trichomonas vaginalis (treat 1900. Who decides competency and The courts. These are
vaginal infection produces with metronidazole) sanity? legal, not medical
a positive whiff test with terms.
KOH staining? 1901. Who is responsible for passing on Mitochondria-linked
1886. Which region of the Hypervariable region (three mitochondrial DNA genetic disorders are always
variable domain comprises per light chain; three per disorders? inherited from the
the Ag-binding site of the heavy chain) mother.
Ab? 1902. Why are eukaryotes unable to In eukaryotes
1887. Which serotypes of HPV HPV serotypes 1 and 4 perform transcription and transcription occurs
are associated with plantar translation at the same time like in the nucleus and
warts? prokaryotes? translation in the
1888. Which shuttle is used to Carnitine acyl CoA cytoplasm.
bring fatty acyl CoA from transferase II
the cytoplasm for

1903. Why are patients Catalase-negative bacteria secrete 1913. With what three 1. -Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase 2.
with Chronic H2O2 as a byproduct (remember, enzymes is Pyruvate dehydrogenase 3.
Granulomatous catalase breaks down H2O2), allowing thiamin Transketolase Thiamine pyrophosphate
Disease not prone the neutrophils to use it as the pyrophosphate (TPP) functions as a coenzyme vital to
to develop substrate for the other toxic (TPP) tissue respiration. It is required for the
infections from metabolites. Patients with CGD are associated? oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate to
catalase-negative prone to catalase-positive bacterial form acetyl-coenzyme A, providing
bacteria? infections. entry of oxidizable substrate into the
1904. Why isn't the Because incidence is defined as new Krebs cycle for the generation of energy
incidence of a events; treatment does not decrease 1914. With what virus EBV
disease decreased the number of new events. It does are Downey
when a new decrease the number of individuals type II cells
treatment is with the event (prevalence would associated?
initiated? decrease).
1905. Why is the liver Hepatocytes lack the enzyme succinyl
unable to CoA acetoacetyl CoA transferase
metabolize ketone (thiophorase).
1906. Will a patient with Patients with unilateral cerebellar 1915. With which CN CN III
a unilateral lesion lesions fall toward the side of the are
in the cerebellum lesion. preganglionic
fall toward or parasympathetic
away from the axons arising
affected side? from the
1907. Will a unilateral Contralateral. The spinothalamic tract Edinger-
lesion in the enters the spinal cord and immediately Westphal
spinothalamic synapses in the dorsal horn, crosses nucleus
tract result in a over, and ascends contralateral in the associated?
contralateral or spinal cord, brainstem, thalamus, and 1916. With which DNA Variola (smallpox)
ipsilateral loss of postcentral gyrus. virus are
pain and Guarnieri bodies
temperature? associated?
1908. With what stage of Teeth grinding is associated with stage 1917. Would a G-C or G-C rich sequences, because they have 3
sleep are bruxisms 2 sleep. an A-T rich hydrogen bonds, where A-T has 2
associated? dsDNA hydrogen bonds, resulting in higher
1909. With what stage of REM sleep. Nightmares are frightening sequence have a melting points.
sleep are dreams that we recall. higher melting
nightmares point? Why?
1910. With what stage of NREM sleep. Night terrors are dreams
sleep are night that we are unable to recall.
1911. With what stage of Stage 3 and 4 most commonly. It can
sleep is enuresis occur at any stage in the sleep cycle
associated? and is usually associated with a major
stressor being introduced into the
1912. With what thoracic Rib 7 articulates with T7 and T8. Each
vertebra or rib articulates with the corresponding
vertebrae does rib numerical vertebral body and the
7 articulate? vertebral body below it.