MAJOR TEST

PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 08012013

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
1. If switch is open then null point is 4 m away from 1. tc dqath [kqyh gS rks 'kwU; fo{ksi fcanq dh A fljs ls nwjh
A end. What will be distance of null point from 4 m gAS ;fn dqath can dj ns rks 'kwU; fo{ksi fcanq dh A
A end, if switch is closed ? fljs ls nwjh gksxh\
3W (10V, 2 W) 3W (10V, 2 W)

4m 4m
A B A B
5W, 5m 5W, 5m

G G
E E
(1) 2.8 V (2) 4V (3) 1.6 V (4) 3 V (1) 2.8 V (2) 4V (3) 1.6 V (4) 3 V
2. The ratio of power gain and resistance gain in case 2. CB izo/kZd esa 'kfDr ykHk rFkk izfrjks/k ykHk ds vuqikr
of common-base amplifier is :- dk eku gksxk :-
(1) a (2) a2 (3) a3 (4) a 4
(1) a (2) a2 (3) a3 (4) a4
3. Find value of I : 3. I dk eku gS :
6W 6W
I 3W I 3W
1.5W 1.5W

3W 3W

4V 2W 4V 2W

(1) 0.67 A (2) 0.33 A (3) 1 A (4) 0.5 A (1) 0.67 A (2) 0.33 A (3) 1 A (4) 0.5 A
4. The correct relation for a, b for a transistor is:- 4. VkalfLVj esa a o b ds e/; laca/k gksrk gS :-
1-a a 1-a a
(1) b = (2) b = (1) b = (2) b =
a 1- a a 1- a

b -1 b -1
(3) a = (4) ab = 1 (3) a = (4) ab = 1
b b

5. Resistance of a galvanometer 50W and its current 5. ,d xsYosuksehVj dk izfrjks/k 50W gS rFkk bldh /kkjk dh
4 4
range is 10 A. We want to measure maximum ijkl 10 A. ge bl ehVj ls vf/kdre 4 oksYV foHko
4V with this meter. Find value of series resistance ukiuk pkgrs gAS dq.Myh ds Js.kh e esa tksM+s tkus okys
to be connected :- izfrjks/k dk ekuk gksxk :-
(1) 9999 W (2) 19950 W (1) 9999 W (2) 19950 W
(3) 39950 W (4) 29950 W (3) 39950 W (4) 29950 W
6. The light emitting diode (LED) :- 6. Light Emitting Diode (LED) :-
(1) Emits light when reverse biased (1) i'p ck;l esa izdk'k mRlftZr djrk gS
(2) Emits light when forward biased (2) vxz ck;l esa izdk'k mRlftZr djrk gS
(3) Is made from semiconducting compound
(3) GaAsP tl
S s v/kZpkyd ls curk gS
gallium arsenide phosphide
(4) Both (2) & (3) (4) (2) o (3) nksuksa

iz R;s d iz ' u dks vtqZ u cudj djks A

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 MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2013 (NEET-UG) 08012013
7. Two concentric metallic shells are given in fig. 7. nks ladsfUnz; /kkfRod dks'k fp= esa fn[kk;s x;s gAS vkUrfjd
Inner shell is given 2Q charge and outer thick dks'k dks 2Q vkos'k o ck eksVs dks'k dks 3Q vkos'k fn;k
shell is given 3Q charge. Potential on the centre
is :- x;k gAS dsUnz ij o|
S qr foHko gS :-

a a
3a 3a
2a 2a

8KQ KQ 7KQ KQ 8KQ KQ 7KQ KQ

(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
3a 5a 4a a 3a 5a 4a a
8. The electrical conductivity of pure germanium 8. 'kq Ge dh o|S qr pkydrk fuEu rjhdksa ls c<+kbZ tk ldrh
can be increased by :- gS :-
(1) increasing the temperature (1) rkieku c<+k dj
(2) doping acceptor impurities (2) xzkgh v'kqf Mksi dj ds
(3) doping donor impurities (3) nkrk vk'kqf Mksi dj ds
(4) All of above (4) mijksDr lHkh
9. A half-ring of radius r has linear charge density 9. ,d r f=T;k dks vZ oy; dk js[kh; vkos'k ?kuRo l gAS
l. The electric potential at the centre of the half- vZ oy; ds dsU ij foHko gksxk
ring is :-
l l l l l l l l
(1) 4e (2) 4p 2 e r (3) 4pe r (4) 4e r (1) 4e (2) 4p 2 e r (3) 4pe r (4) 4e r
0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0

10. Identify the part X in following block diagram 10. AM ds Reciever unit ds Blockdiagram esa X D;k
of a reciever in AM. :- n'kkZrk gS :-
Recieving Antenna Recieving Antenna
Amplifier X Detector Amplifier X Detector

Amplifier Amplifier

Output Output
(1) Square law device (1) Square law device
(2) Envelope detector (2) Envelope detector
(3) IF Stage (3) IF Stage
(4) Rectifier (4) Rectifier
11. Two identical metal balls with charges + 2Q and 11. nks loZ le /kkfRo; xs a n ks a ij vkos' k + 2Q rFkk Q
Q are separated by some distance, and exert a gS rFkk muds e/; dq N nw j h g S vk Sj ;s ,d nw l js ij
force F on each other. They are joined by a F cy vkjks f ir djrh g SA budks ,d pkyd rkj ls
conducting wire, which is then removed. The tks M + ns a rFkk fQj vyx dj ns a rks ] vc xs a n ks ds e;
force between balls will be :- cy gks tk;s x k
F F F F F F
(1) F (2) (3) (4) (1) F (2) (3) (4)
2 4 8 2 4 8

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 MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 08012013
12. By what percentage will the transmission range 12. ;fn TV Tower dh pkbZ 21% c<+k nh tk, rks TV tower
of a TV tower be affected when height of tower dh izsf{kr ijkl (Transmission Range) esa fdruk
is increased by 21% :- izfr'kr ifjorZu gksxk :-
(1) 5% (2) 10% (3) 15% (4) 20% (1) 5% (2) 10% (3) 15% (4) 20%
13. In the given circuit R 13. fn;s x;s fp= esa oksYVehVj dk R
voltmeter reads 100 V. ikB~;kad 100 V gAS vc ;fn R
A V A V
Now R is connected iz f rjks /k dks oks YVehVj ds
parallel to voltmeter lekukUrj yxk fn;k tk, rks A
then A reads 2A and
120V dk ikB~;kad 2A rFkk V dk 120V

V reads 60 V. Find initial reading of ammeter:- ikB~;kad 60 V gAS vehVj dh izkjafHkd ikB~;kad gksxk :-
(1) 2/3 Amp (2) 1 Amp (1) 2/3 ,Eih;j (2) 1 ,Eih;j
(3) 3 Amp (4) 1.5 Amp (3) 3 ,Eih;j (4) 1.5 ,Eih;j
14. In following radioactive reaction which element 14. fuEufyf[kr ukfHkdh; vfHkf;k esa mRiUu rRo gS &
is formed- N14 +2He4 1H1+ ?
7

7
N14 +2He4 1H1+ ? (1) 8O17 (2) 6C14
(1) 8O17 (2) 6C14 (3) 7N14 (4) 9Ne18 (3) 7N14 (4) 9Ne18
15. Two condensers 1mF & 2mF in a circuit are joined 15. nks la/kkfj= 1mF rFkk 2mF fp=kuqlkj tqM+s gq, gAS fcUnq P
as shown in figure. The potential of point P & Q o Q ds foHko e'k% 3 kV o 1 kV gAS R fcUnq ij
are 3 kV & 1 kV respectively. The potential of foHko gksxk :-
point R will be :-

3 5 3 5
(1) kV (2) kV (1) kV (2) kV
5 3 5 3
(3) 2 kV (4) None of them (3) 2 kV (4) None of them
16. If binding energies per nucleon of X, B and A are 16. vfHkf;k X A
200 110
+ B + tkZ esa ;fn X, B rFkk
90

7.4 MeV, 8.2 MeV and 8.2 MeV respectively, A dh izfr U;wfDyvkWu cU/ku tkZ e'k% 7.4 MeV, 8.2
then the energy released in the reaction : X200
MeV rFkk 8.2 MeV gks rks vfHkf;k ls mRiUu tkZ g&
S
A110 + B90 + energy will be-
(1) 200 MeV (2) 160 MeV (1) 200 MeV (2) 160 MeV
(3) 110 MeV (4) 90 MeV (3) 110 MeV (4) 90 MeV
17. As shown in figure two K 17. fp=kuqlkj nks ,d leku K

identical capacitors are la/kkfj= V oksYV dh cVS jh

V C C V C C
connected to a battery ls lekUrj e esa tqM+s gaSA
of V volts in parallel. la / kkfj= iw . kZ :i ls
When capacitors are fully charged then sum of vkosf'kr gks tkus ij muesa
their stored energy is U1. If the key K is opened laxzfgr dqy tkZ dk ;ksx U1 gAS ;fn dqath K [kksy nh
and a material of dielectric constant r = 2 is tk;s rFkk izR;sd la/kkfj= esa r = 2 ijko|
S qrkad dk inkFkZ
inserted in each capacitors then sum of their stored
U1
U1 Hkjus ij dqy tkZ dk ;ksx U2 gks rks dk eku gksxk:
energy is U2. Then will be : U2
U2
3 5 4 5 3 5 4 5
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
5 3 5 4 5 3 5 4

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 MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2013 (NEET-UG) 08012013
18. What is the power output of 92Y235 reactor if it takes 18. Y235 fj,DVj dh fuxZr 'kfDr D;k gksxh ;fn ;g 30 fnu
92

30 days to use up 2 kg of fuel and if each fission esa 2 fdxzk bZ/ku dk mi;ksx djrk g]S rFkk izR;sd fo[k.Mu
gives 188 MeV of usable energy - esa eqDr tkZ 188 MeV g&S
(1) 59 MW (2) 51 104 MW (1) 59 MW (2) 51 104 MW
(3) 188 MW (4) None of the above (3) 188 MW (4) mDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
19. A point charge Q is placed at origin if electric field 19. ,d fcUnq vkos'k Q ewy fcUnq ij fp=kuqlkj fLFkr gS ;fn
r r r r r r r r
at A and B is E1 and E 2 then E1 - E 2 fcUnq A rFkk B ij fo|qr {ks= E1 o E 2 gks rks E1 - E 2
is :- dk eku gksxk :-

Q r A Q r A
O O
r r

B B

2Q 2Q
(1) Zero (2) (1) Zero (2)
2 p0 r 2 2 p0 r 2

Q Q Q Q
(3) 2 2p r 2 (4) 2p r 2 (3) 2 2p r 2 (4) 2p r 2
0 0 0 0

20. The nucleus 92X234 decays by emitting 3a and 1b 20. 92

X234 ukfHkd 3a o 1b d.k mRlftZr dj fo?kfVr gksrk
particle. Final product is- gAS vafre mRikn g&S
(1) 87Y228 (2) 84Z228 (1) 87Y228 (2) 84Z228
(3) 87Y222 (4) 84Z222 (3) 87Y222 (4) 84Z222
21. A circuit is arranged as shown. Then, the current 21. fn;s x;s ifjiFk esa A ls B dh vksj /kkjk gS :
from A to B is :
A
A
10W 15W
10W 15W 10V 5V
5V 10W
10V
10W

B
B

(1) +500 mA (2) +250 mA (1) +500 mA (2) +250 mA

(3) 500 mA (4) 250 mA
22. Two elements P and Q each of mass 102 kg are
present in a given sample. The ratio of their atomic
weights is 1 : 2 and the half lives are 4s and 8s
respectively. The masses of P and Q present after
16s will be respectively-
(3) 500 mA (4) 250 mA
22. fdlh izfrn'kZ esa nks inkFkksZ P rFkk Q izR;sd dk 102 fdxzk
nzO;eku mifLFkr gAS buds ijekf.od Hkkjksa dk vuqikr
1 : 2 rFkk vZ vk;q e'k% 4 ls- rFkk 8 ls- gaSA 16 ls
i'pkr~ P o Q ds mifLFkr nzO;eku e'k% gksxsa&
(1) 6.25 10 fdxzk o 2.5 10 fdxzk
4 3

(1) 6.25 104 kg and 2.5 103 kg. (2) 2.5 10 fdxzk o 6.25 10 fdxzk
3 4

(2) 2.5 103 kg and 6.25 104 kg.

(3) 6.25 10 fdxzk o 12.5 10 fdxzk
4 4

(3) 6.25 104 kg and 12.5 104 kg.

(4) None of the above (4) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

dksbZ Hkh iz'u Key Filling ls xyr ugha gks uk pkfg,A

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 MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 08012013
23. A man's near point is 0.5 m and far point is 3m. 23. ,d O;fDr dk fudV fcUnq 0.5 m vkSj nwj fcUnq 3m
Power of spectacles lenses required for - gSA p'esa ds ysa Ulksa dh {kerk gksxh e'k% -
(i) reading purposes (i) i<+usa ds fy;s
(ii) seeing distant objects, respectively, are :- (ii) nwjLFk oLrqvksa dks ns[kus ds fy;s :-
(1) 2D and + 3D (1) 2D vkSj + 3D
(2) + 2D and 3D (2) + 2D vkSj 3D
(3) + 2D and 0.33 D (3) + 2D vkSj 0.33 D
(4) 2D and + 0.33D (4) 2D vkSj + 0.33D
24. The radioactive rays can be detected by their 24. jsfM;ks&,sfDVo fdj.kksa dks mudh QksVksxzkfQd fQYe ds ij
action on photographic film. A radioactive vuq f ;k ds }kjk la l w f pr fd;k tk ldrk g SA ,d
sample enclosed in an enclosure produces a spot jsfM;ks&,sfDVo uewuk tks ,d vkoj.k esa cUn g]S QksVksxkz fQd
on a photographic film. When a perpendicular fQYe ij ,d fcUnq mRiUu djrk gAS tc vkoj.k ij ,d
magnetic field is applied to the enclosure, how yEcor~ pqEcdh; {ks= yxk;k tkrk g]S rks fdrus fcUnq
many spots are observed on the photographic QksVksxzkfQd IysV ij voyksfdr gksaxs g&S
film- (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3 (4) 4
25. A light ray is incident perpendicular to one face 25. 90 fiz T e ds ,d i` " B ij iz d k'k fdj.k yEcor~
of a 90 prism and it totally internally reflected vkifrr gksrh gS vkjS dkp & ok;q dh lhek ij iw.kZr%
at the glass - air interface. If the angle of vkUrfjd ijkofrZr gksrh gSA ;fn ijkorZu dks.k 45
reflection is 45, we conclude that the refractive g S ] rc ge fu"d"kZ fudkyrs g S ] fd viorZ u
index n is :- xq.kkad n gS :-

1 1
(1) n < (2) n > 2 (1) n < (2) n > 2
2 45
2 45

45 45
1 1
(3) n > (4) n < 2 (3) n > (4) n < 2
2 2

26. The inductive time constant is - 26. izjs f.kd le; fu;rkad (inductive time constant) gksrk g&S
(1) LR (2) L/R (1) LR (2) L/R

(3) (L R) (4) R/L (3) (L R) (4) R/L

27. The plane faces of two identical plano - convex
lenses each having a forcal length of 50 cm are
placed against each other to form a usual
bioconvex lens. The distance from this lens
combination at which an object must be placed
to obtain a real, inverted image which has the
same size as the object, is :-
(1) 50 cm (2) 25 cm
(3) 100 cm (4) 125 cm
27. 50 cm Qks d l nw j h okys nks leryks ky ys U lks a dh
lery lrgs a ,d & nw l js dh vks j j[kdj ,d
lkekU; mHk;ks ky ys U l cuk;k x;k g SA bl ys U l
ds la ; ks t u ls fdl nw j h ij oLrq dks j[kk tkuk
pkfg;s A ftlls oLrq ds vkdkj dk gh okLrfod
rFkk mYVk iz f rfcEc iz k Ir gks r k g S :-
(1) 50 cm (2) 25 cm
(3) 100 cm (4) 125 cm

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 MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2013 (NEET-UG) 08012013
28. The power in ac circuit is given by P = ErmsIrms cos 28. ,d ,-lh- ifjiFk] esa 'kfDr dk O;atd gS P = ErmsIrms cos
f. The value of power factor cos f in LCR circuit f fdlh LCR ifjiFk esa vuqukn ds le; cos f dk eku
at resonance is - gS&
(1) zero (2) 1 (3) 1/2 (4) 1 2 (1) 'kwU; (2) 1 (3) 1/2 (4) 1 2
29. The focal lengh of field achromatic combination 29. ,d nwjn'khZ ds vo.kZd {ks= la;kst u dh Qksdl nwjh
of telescope is 90 cm. The dispresive powers of 90 cm g S A ys U lks a dh fo{ks i .k {kerk, e'k%
lenses are 0.024 and 0.036 respectively. Their 0.024 rFkk 0.036 g S A mudh Qks d l nw f j;k
focal length will be:- gksaxh :-
(1) 30 cm and 60 cm (1) 30 cm rFkk 60 cm
(2) 45 cm and 90 cm (2) 45 cm rFkk 90 cm
(3) 15 cm and 45 cm (3) 15 cm rFkk 45 cm
(4) 30 cm and 45 cm (4) 30 cm rFkk 45 cm
30. A conductor rod AB moves parallel to X-axis in 30. ,d pkyd NM+ AB, X-v{k ds lekUrj V osx ls xfr
a uniform magnetic field, popinting in the posi- dj jgh gAS bl LFkku ij Z-v{k dh fn'kk esa ,d ,dleku
tive Z-direction. The end A of the rod gets pqEcdh; {ks= mifLFkr gAS bl NM+ dk fljk A gks tk;sxk&
Y B Y B

V V
A A
X X

(1) positively charged (1) /kukRed vkosf'kr

(2) negatively charged (2) .kkRed vkosf'kr
(3) neutral
(3) mnklhu
(4) first positively charged and then negatively
charged (4) igys /kukRed] fQj .kkRed
31. In Young's double slit experiment carried out 31. rjaxnS/;Z l = 5000 okys izdk'k }kjk fd;s x;s ;ax
with light of wavelength l = 5000, the f}fLyLV iz;ksx esa fLyVksa ds chp nwjh 0.2 mm vkjS fLyVksa
distance between the slits is 0.2 mm and the ds ry ls ijnk 200 cm ij g S A ds U nz h ; mfPp"B
screen is at 200 cm from the plane of slits. The x = 0 ij gSA rc r`rh; vf/kdre x ij gksxk] tks cjkcj
central maximum is at x = 0. The third
maximum will be at x equal to :-
gS :-
(1) 1.67 cm (2) 1.5 cm (1) 1.67 cm (2) 1.5 cm
(3) 0.5 cm (4) 5.0 cm (3) 0.5 cm (4) 5.0 cm
32. The hardness of a magnetic material is stated on 32. fdlh pqEcdh; inkFkZ dh pqEcdh; dBksjrk (hardness)
the basis of the following property of the mate- inkFkZ ds fuEu xq.k ls vkadh tkrh g&S
rial-
(1) vo'ks"k pqEcdh; (2) pqEcdh; izo`fk
(1) retentivity (2) susceptibility
(3) permeability (4) coercivity (3) pqEcdh; ikjxE;rk (4) pqEcdh; fuxzkfgrk
33. When the angle of incidence on a material is 60, 33. tc ,d inkFkZ ij vkiru dks.k 60 gksrk gS] rc ijkfrZr
the reflected light is completely polarised. The izdk'k iw.kZr% /kqzfor gksrk gSA inkFkZ ds vUnj viofrZr
velocity of the refracted ray inside the material inkFkZ dk osx gS (ms esa):-
1

is (in ms1):-
3
10
8
3 (1) 3 108 (2)
(1) 3 108 (2) 10
8 2
2
(3) 3 108 (4) 0.5 108
(3) 3 10 8
(4) 0.5 108

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 MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 08012013
34. In the figure A, B and C, are current carrying 34. fp= esa ist ds ry esa A, B rFkk C, /kkjkokgh] yEcs lhks
wires. The direction of resultant force on the wire pkyd rkj gAS rkj B ij yxus okys ifj.kkeh cy dh fn'kk
B will be - gS&
A B C A B C

r r r r
1A 2A 3A 1A 2A 3A
(1) in the plane of paper and towards the right (1) i`"B ds ry esa nk;ha vksj
(2) perpendicular to plane, out of paper (2) i`"B ry ds yEcor~ ckgj dh vksj
(3) in the plane of paper and towards the left (3) i`"B ds ry esa ck;ha vksj
(4) along the direction of current (4) /kkjk dh gh fn'kk esa
35. The main difference in the phenomenon of 35. O;frdj.k vkSj foorZu dh ifj?kVukvksa esa eq [; ifjorZu
interference and diffraction is that :- ;g gS fd :-
(1) diffraction is due to interaction of light from
(1) foorZu] leku rjaxkxz okys izdk'k ds O;frdj.k ls
the same wavefront whereas interference is
the interaction of (light) waves from two gksrk gS] tcfd O;frdj.k nks Lora = izdk'k L=ksrksa
isolated sources. dh rjax ksa dh ijLij f;k }kjk gksrk gSA
(2) diffraction is due to interaction of light from (2) foorZu] leku rjxkxz okys izdk'k ds O;frdj.k ls
same wavefront, whereas the interference is gksrk gS] tcfd O;frdj.k] leku L=ksr ls izk Ir rjax ksa
the interaction of two waves derived from the
same source.
dh ijLij f;k }kjk gksrk gSA
(3) diffraction is due to interaction of waves (3) foorZ u] ,d gh L=ksr ls iz kIr rja xksa ds O;frdj.k
derived from the same source, whereas the ds dkj.k gksr k gS] tcfd O;frdj.k mlh rjaxkxz
interference is the bending of light from the izdk'k ds eq M+ us ls gksrk gSA
same wavefront.
(4) ,d L=ksr ls ijkofrZ r rja xksa ds }kjk foorZ u gksrk
(4) diffaction is caused by the reflected waves from
a source whereas interference is caused due to gS] tcfd O;frdj.k ,d L=ksr ls izkIr rjaxks a ds
refraction of waves from a source. viorZu ds dkj.k gksrk gSA
36. The magnetic field at point O due to current 36. ,d /kkjkokgh pkyd rkj dks ,d v/kZo`kkdkj Hkkx vkSj
carrying wire bent in the shape shown in figure nks yEcs lh/ks Hkkxksa esa fp= ds vuqlkj eksM+k x;k gAS rc
is- fcUnq O ij pqEcdh; {ks= dk eku g&S
m0 i m0 i
(1) (1)
4 pr 4 pr
m0 i r O m0 i r O
(2) ( p + 2) (2) ( p + 2)
4 pr 4 pr
m0 i i m0 i i
(3) (p + 1) (3) (p + 1)
4 pr 4 pr
(4) zero (4) zero
37. For the isolated charged conductor shown in Fig. 37. ,d foyfxr] vkosf'kr pkyd] ftls fp= esa fn[kk;k x;k
the potentials at points A, B, C and D are VA, VB, g]S ds fcUnqvksa A, B, C vkjS D ij fo|qr~ foHko e'k%
VC and VD respectively. Then- V , V , V vkjS V gS rc-
A B C D

+ + + D + + + D
+ + + + + + + + + +
+ A ++ + A B ++
B C + C +
+ + + +
+ + + + + + + + + +
(1) VA = VB > VC > VD (2) VD > VC > VB = VA (1) VA = VB > VC > VD (2) VD > VC > VB = VA
(3) VD > VC > VB > VA (4) VD = VC = VB = VA (3) VD > VC > VB > VA (4) VD = VC = VB = VA

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 MAJOR TEST
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38. According to the figure shown, a current 38. fp=kuqlkj ,d /kkjkokgh rkj vkSj ,d /kkjkokgh vk;rkdkj
carrying wire and a rectangular loop are placed ywi ,d nwljs ds fudV j[ks gq;s gaS] rc&
close to each other, then-
B A P
B A P

C D
Q
(1) wire will be attracted towards rectangular loop
(2) rectangular loop will repel the wire
(3) position of wire PQ will remain unchanged
(4) wire PQ will be displaced along its length
39. An electric dipole consisting of two opposite
charges of 2 106 C each separated by a distance
C D
Q
(1) rkj] vk;rkdkj yw i dh vksj vkdf"kZr gksxk]
(2) vk;rkdkj ywi] rkj dks izfrdf"kZr djsxk]
(3) rkj PQ dh fLFkfr vifjofrZr jgsxh
(4) rkj PQ yEckbZ dh fn'kk esa foLFkkfir gks tk;sxk]
39. ,d fo|qr~ f}/kzqo] nks cjkcj fdUrq foijhr izfr ds
2 10 C eku ds vkos'kksa tks ,d nwljs ls 3 lseh- nwjh
6

of 3 cm is placed in an electric field of 2 105 ij gaS] ls cuk gqvk gAS ;g f}/kzqo 2 10 U;wVu izfr dwykWe
5

newton per coulomb. The maximum torque on the ds fo|qr~ {ks= esa j[kk gqvk gAS bl f}/kzqo ij yxus okys
dipole will be - cy vk?kw.kZ dk vf/kdre eku gks ldrk g]S
(1) 12 101 newton metre (1) 12 10 U;wVu ehVj
1

(2) 12 103 newton metre (2) 12 10 U;wVu ehVj

3

(3) 24 101 newton metre (3) 24 10 U;wVu ehVj

1

(4) 24 103 newton metre (4) 24 10 U;wVu ehVj

3

40. For the circuit shown in fig VC VE is- 40. ;gk fp= esa ,d fo|qr~ ifjiFk fn[kk;k x;k gSA blds fy;s
foHkokUrj V V gS&
C E

A 6W B E 8W F
A 6W B E 8W F
10V
20V 5W 5W 40V 10V
20V 5W 5W 40V

D 9W C H 7W G
D 9W C H 7W G

(1) 20V (2) 5V (3) 5V (4) 10V (1) 20V (2) 5V (3) 5V (4) 10V
41. For a uniformly charged sphere of radius R which 41. ,d leku vkosf'kr R f=T;k ds xksys ds fy;s fuEu esa ls
of following shows a correct graph between the dkSulk xzkQ fo|qr {ks= rhozrk vkSj xksys ds dsUnz ls nwjh
electric field intensity and the distance from the
ds e/; lgh lEcU/k n'kkZrk g&S
centre of sphere -
E E
E E

(1) (2)
(1) (2) r r
r r 0 R 0 R
0 R 0 R

E E
E E

(3) (4)
(3) (4) r r
r r 0 R 0 R
0 R 0 R

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question

8/31 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2013 H

 MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 08012013
42. The effective resistance (in W) between B and C 42. v{kj A dh vkfr esa tqM+s gq;s izfrjks/kksa dk fcUnqvksa B
of letter A containing resistances as shown in fig vkjS C ds e/; izHkkoh izfrjks/k (W ek=d esa) gS&
is -
A
A

10 W 10 W
10 W 10 W

10 W
10 W 10 W 10 W
10 W 10 W
B C
B C
(1) 60 (2) 40 (3) 80/3 (4) 160/9 (1) 60 (2) 40 (3) 80/3 (4) 160/9
43. A parallel plate capacitor with A 43. ,d lekUrj IysV la/kkfj=] ftldh A
plate area A and separation K1 d/2
izR;sd IysV dk {ks=Qy A vkjS IysVksa K1 d/2
dielectric slabs of equal K2 d/2 ds e/; nwjh d g]S esa nks ijkoS|qr inkFkZ K2 d/2
thickness as shown in fig. The dh if;k fp= ds vuqlkj Hkjh gqbZ gaSA
dielectric constants are K1 and bu if;ksa dk ijkoS|qrkad e'k% K 1

K2. The capacitance of this arrangement is vkjS K gAS bl foU;kl dh izHkkoh /kkfjrk
2

(1) 2o A(K1 + K2)/d gS&

(1) 2o A(K1 + K2)/d
(2) 2o AK1K2/(K1+K2)d
(2) 2o AK1K2/(K1+K2)d
(3) o AK1K2/d (3) o AK1K2/d
(4) None of the above (4) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
44. When a piece of aluminium wire of finite length 44. tc ,d ,Y;qfefu;e ds rkj dks dbZ lkpksa esa ls [khap dj
is drawn through a series of dies to reduce its blds O;kl dks ewy O;kl dk vk/kk dj fn;k tkrk gS rc
diameter to half its original value, its resistance
igys dh rqyuk esa bldk izfrjks/k gks tkrk g]S
will become-
(1) nks xquk (2) pkj xquk
(1) two times (2) four times
(3) eight times (4) sixteen times (3) vkB xquk (4) lksyg xquk
45. A full-wave rectifier circuit along with the output 45. iw.kZ rjax fn"Vdkjh rFkk mlls izkIr fuxZr fp= esa n'kkZ;k
is shown in figure. The contribution(s) from the x;k gAS Mk;ksM 1 ls dkSulh rjax:i izkIr gksxk :-
diode 1 is(are) :-

1 Output
1 Output +
+ y y
Input
y y Output
Input
Output A B C D
x t
A B C D
x t

(1) C (2) A, C (1) C (2) A, C

(3) B, D (4) A, B, C, D (3) B, D (4) A, B, C, D

H Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2013 9/31

 MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2013 (NEET-UG) 08012013
46. Which is most reactive towards reaction with 46. dkSulk ;kSfxd NaOH ls vfHkf;k ds izfr vf/kdre
NaOH :- f;k'khy gS :-
Cl Cl Cl Cl

NO2 NO2
(1) (2) (1) (2)

Cl Cl Cl Cl
NO2 O2N NO2 NO2 O2N NO2
(3) (4) (3) (4)

NO2 NO2 NO2 NO2

47. A metal forms a volatile carbonyl compound and 47. ,d /kkrq ok"i'khy dkcksZfuy ;kSfxd cukrk gS rFkk /kkrq
this property is taken advantage for its extraction. fu"d"kZ.k esa bl ;kSfxd dk ykHk fy;k tkrk gS /kkrq gksxk%&
The metal is :
(1) iron (2) nickel (3) cobalt (4) titanium (1) iron (2) nickel (3) cobalt (4) titanium

CH2Cl CH2Cl

48. NaCN
product will be :- 48. NaCN
mRikn gksxk %&

Br Br

CH2CN CH2Cl CH2CN CH2Cl

(1) (2) (1) (2)

Br CN Br CN

CH2CN CH2Cl CH2CN CH2Cl

CN CN
(3) (4) (3) (4)

CN Br CN Br

49. The chloride that turns black on addition of 49. DyksjkbM NH4OH feykus ij dkyk dj nsrh gAS
NH4OH is : (1) AgCl (2) PbCl2
(1) AgCl (2) PbCl2
(3) Hg2Cl2 (4) both 2 and 3 (3) Hg2Cl2 (4) both 2 and 3
HNO2
50. HNO2
CH3CHCH3 Oxidation
A B 50. CH3CHCH3 A
vkWDlhdj.k
B
NH2 NH2
(i) CH3MgI (i) CH3MgI
C C (ii) H2O
(ii) H2O
C is :- C gS :-
(1) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH (2) CH3CH2CHCH3 (1) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH (2) CH3CH2CHCH3
OH OH

CH3 CH3
(3) CH3CHCH2OH (4) CH3COH (3) CH3CHCH2OH (4) CH3COH
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

Take it Easy and Make it Easy

10/31 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2013 H
 MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 08012013
51. Which is colourless complex ion ? 51. dkuS lk ld
a qy jaxghu gAS
(1) Cu2(CH3COO)4.H2O (2) [Sc(H2O)6]3+ (1) Cu2(CH3COO)4.H2O (2) [Sc(H2O)6]3+
(3) CuSO4.5H2O (4) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (3) CuSO4.5H2O (4) [Ni(H2O)6]2+
52. Which of the following does not give iodoform 52. fuEu esa ls dkSu vk;ksMksQkWeZ ijh{k.k ugha nsrk :-
test :-
(1) CH3CH2OH (2) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
(1) CH3CH2OH (2) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
(3) (CH3)2CHOH (4) CH3COCH3 (3) (CH3)2CHOH (4) CH3COCH3
53. Which complex is likely to show optical activity? 53. dkuS lk ladqy izdkf'kd lf; gAS
(1) Trans-[Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ (1) Trans-[Co(NH3)4Cl2]+
(2) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
(3) Cis-[Co(NH3)2(en)2]3+ (3) Cis-[Co(NH3)2(en)2]3+
(4) Trans-[Co(NH3)2(en)2]3+ (4) Trans-[Co(NH3)2(en)2]3+
54. Cannizzaro reaction is not given by :- 54. dkSu dSfutkjks vfHkf;k ugha nsrk :-
(1) CH3CHO (2) HCHO (1) CH3CHO (2) HCHO
(3) C6H5CHO (4) (CH3)3CCHO (3) C6H5CHO (4) (CH3)3CCHO
55. The number of geometrical isomers of 55. [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] ds T;kferh leko;oh dh la[;k gksxhA
[Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] are :
(1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
(1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
56. The cyanohydrin of a compound X on hydrolysis 56. ,d ;kSfxd X ds lk;uksgkbMhu ds tyvi?kVu ls ysfDVd
gives lactic acid. The X is :- vEy curk g]S rks X gksxk :-
(1) HCHO (2) CH3CHO (1) HCHO (2) CH3CHO
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) C6H5CH2CHO (3) CH3COCH3 (4) C6H5CH2CHO
57. Hydrolysis of one mole of peroxydisulphuric acid 57. ,d eksy ij vkWDlhMkbZlY;wfjd vEy ds ty;kstu ij
produces : izkIr gksrk gaS&
(1) two moles of sulphuric acid (1) nks eksy lY;wfjd vEy
(2) two moles of peroxymonosulphuric acid (2) nks eksy ijvkWDlheksukslY;wfjd vEy
(3) one mole of sulphuric acid, one mole of (3) ,d eks y lY;w f jd vEy] ,d eks y
peroxy-monosulphuric acid and one mole of ijvkWDlheksukslY;wfjd vEy] ,d eksy gkbMkst ij
hydrogen peroxide vkWDlkbM
(4) one mole of sulphuric acid and one mole of (4) ,d eksy lY;wfjd vEy vkjS ,d eksy ijvkWDlheksuks
peroxymonosulphuric acid lY;wfjd vEy
H2
R C Cl
58. Pd - BaSO 4
product will be :- 58.
H2
R C Cl
Pd - BaSO 4
mRikn gksxk %&
O O
(1) RCH2OH (2) RCOOH (1) RCH2OH (2) RCOOH
(3) RCHO (4) RCH3 (3) RCHO (4) RCH3
59. A molecule of type AB5L0 is square pyramidal. 59. AB5L0 v.kq esa oxZ fijsfefM; T;kferh gS blesa ladj.k esa
The d orbitals used for hybridisation must be. d d{kd gksuk pkfg,A
(1) dxy (2) dyz (3) dxz (4) dx2y2 (1) dxy (2) dyz (3) dxz (4) dx2y2
Cl
60. CH3CH2COOH
red P
A
Alc. KOH
2
B 60.
Cl
CH3CH2COOH A
Alc. KOH
2
B
red P

B is :- B gS :-
(1) CH3CH2COCl (2) CH3CH2CHO (1) CH3CH2COCl (2) CH3CH2CHO
(3) CH2=CHCOOH (4) ClCH2CH2COOH (3) CH2=CHCOOH (4) ClCH2CH2COOH
61. Back bonding is possible in : 61. i'p vkcU/kr laHko gS &
(1) (CH3)3 N O (2) (CH3)3 P O (1) (CH3)3 N O (2) (CH3)3 P O
(3) SiH3CH2OH (4) None (3) SiH3CH2OH (4) None

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 MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2013 (NEET-UG) 08012013
62. Which of the following does not react with 62. fuEu esa ls dk Su ^fgal cxZ * vfHkdeZ d ls f;k ugha
'Hinsberg's reagent djrk gS
(1) Dimethyl amine (2) Ethyl amine (1) MkbZefs Fky ,sehu (2) ,sfFky ,sehu
(3) Propan2amine (4) Trimethyl amine (3) ksius 2,sehu (4) VkbZefs Fky ,sehu
63. Silver can be obtained from silver glance by 63. flYoj izkIr fd;k tk ldrk gS flYoj Xykal gS &
(1) from floatation followed by polling (1) >kxIykou ds ckn polling
(2) leaching by NaCN followed by thermal
reduction (2) fu{kkyu ds ckn rki vip;u
(3) leaching by (NaCN + O 2 ) followed by (3) NaCN + O2 }kjk fu{kkyu ds ckn [kjiZj.k
cupellation
(4) none (4) dksbZ ugha
64. In the reaction : 64. nh xbZ vfHkf;k esa :
NH2 NH2
NaNO + HCl H O / H NaNO + HCl CuCN H O / H
HCN B
0 - 5 C A C
CuCN
HCN B
0 - 5 C A C
2 2 2 2

The end product (C) is vfUre mRikn (C) gS

CH2NH2 COOH OH CN CH2NH2 COOH OH CN

(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)

65. Which pair is incorrectly matched. 65. dkSulk ;qXe xyr g&S
(1) Conc. NaOH : Used in leaching process to get (1) lkUnz NaOH : ckWDlkbM ls Al izkIr djus ds fy,
Al from bauxite. fu{kkyu ize esa dke vkrh gS
(2) Reduction of PbS : hydro metallurgical
(2) PbS dk vip;u : gkbMks /kkrqe vip;u
reduction
(3) Reduction of ZnO : C reduction (3) ZnO dk vip;u: C vip;u
(4) Purification of Tin : polling (4) Tin dk 'kqfdj.k : polling
66. Which is a chain growth polymer 66. dkuS lk J`a[kyk o`f cgqyd gS
(1) Starch (2) Protein (1) LVkpZ (2) ksVhu
(3) Nucleic acid (4) Polystyrene (3) U;wfDyd ,flM (4) ikWyhLVkbZjhu
67. Identify the correct statement (s) 67. lgh dFku gksxk &
(a) Considering thermodynamics of metallurgical (a) /kkrqdeZ esa "ek xfrdh; ize esa tlS s /kkrqvkWDlkbM
process like reduction of metal oxides, partial dk vip;u] vkWDlhtu dk vkaf'kd nkc ,d dkjd
pressure of oxygen can be one of the factors gSA
(b) For a process metal O2 (g) MO(s) : the (b) M O2 (g) MO(s) : iz e ds lkis{k ,UVkWi h
entropy change can be considered independent ifjorZu dk eku T ls Lora= gksxkA
of T. (c) ZnO ls Zn izkIr djus ds fy, vkWDlkbM dk vklou
(c) To obtain Zn from ZnO, distillation of the ls 'kq Zn izkIr gksxkA
oxide will give pure Zn (d) ,afyxe o esa M MO o dh <ky rki ds lkFk
(d) Slope of M MO curve in ellingham diagram c<+rh gS
increase with increase in temperature. Correct code is-
Correct code is-
(1) a, d (2) b, c
(1) a, d (2) b, c
(3) a,b,d (4) a, b (3) a,b,d (4) a, b
fdlh iz' u ij ns j rd :dks ugha A
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 MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 08012013
68. Methyl orange is the example of which type of dye:- 68. esfFky vkWjsUt fdl dkj ds jatd dk mnkgj.k gS &
(1) Acidic (2) Mordant (1) vEyh; (2) LFkkid
(3) Azo (4) (1) and (3) both (3) ,stks (4) (1) rFkk (3) nksuksa
69. Give the correct statement (s) 69. lgh dFku gksxk %&
(1) When heated in range 130C and above S show (1) tc 130C vkSj mlds ij xeZ djrs gS rks ';kurk
increase in viscosity because of change from
c<+rh gS D;ksfa d b-s ls a-s rd ifjofrZ r gksrk gS
b-s to a-s
(2) P4O10 can't disproportionate upon hydrolysis (2) ty;kstu ij P4O10 fo"kekuqikr ugh dj ldrkA
(3) Thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrate (3) veksfu;e ukbVVs ds rkih; vi?kVu ls N2 xl
S izkIr gksxh
produce nitrogen gas
(4) Total C-C links in fullerine C60 is 96 (4) Qqyjhu C60 esa dqy C-C fyad 96 gS
70. Aspirin is an acetylated product of 70. ,fLijhu fdldk ,lhfVyhr mRikn gS
CHO OH CHO OH
OH OH OH OH
(1) (2) (1) (2)

NH2 OH NH2 OH
OH COOH OH COOH
(3) (4) (3) (4)

71. Which compounds are correctly matched with
their names.
(1) HNO4 : dinitrous acid
(2) Ca(HPO2)2 : calcium hydrogen phosphate
(3) Na6P6O18 : Sodium hexaphosphite
(4) Na2S2O4 : Sodium dithionite
72. A compound which gives a coloured solid on
adding to an alcoholic solution of 2,4-dinitrophenyl
hydrazine but does not reduce Fehling's solution
and ammonical silver nitrate solution is
71. dkSuls ;kSfxd muds uke ds vuqlkj gS%&
(1) HNO4 : dinitrous acid
(2) Ca(HPO2)2 : calcium hydrogen phosphate
(3) Na6P6O18 : Sodium hexaphosphite
(4) Na2S2O4 : Sodium dithionite
72. dkSulk ;kSfxd 2,4-MkbZukbVks Qsfuy gkbMsthu ls f;k
djds ,d jaxhu Bksl cukrk gS ijUrq Qsgfyax foy;u vkSj
veksfu;kr flYoj ukbV sV foy;u dk vip;u ugha
djrk gS

(1) CH3CHCH3 (2) CH3CCH3 (1) CH3CHCH3 (2) CH3CCH3

OH O OH O

(3) CH3COOH (4) CH3CHO (3) CH3COOH (4) CH3CHO

73. Consider the following reaction : 73. fuEu vfHkf;k esa &
H H
O OH O OH
P P=O P P=O
O OH HO O OH HO
H H
H H
(1) (2) (1) (2)
Correct statement is :
lgh dFku gksxk %&
(1) at equilibrium, conc. of both form are equal
(2) 1 and 2 are isomeric compounds (1) lkE;voLFkk esa nksuksa lkUrk,sa cjkcj gksxh
(3) Resonance hybrid of 1 and 2 can be drawn as (2) 1 o 2 le;ko;h ;kSfxd gS
they are resonating structures of phosphorus (3) QkW LQksjl vEy ds vuquknh lajpuk,sa lEHko gS
acid
(4) Both represent tribasic acid (4) nksuksa f={kkjh; vEy iznf'kZr djrs gaS

H Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2013 13/31

 MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2013 (NEET-UG) 08012013
74. Which of the following compound does not show 74. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ;kSfxd ukbVkstu ds fy;s fd;k tkus okyk
'Lassaignes' test for nitrogen ^ySlkus* ijh{k.k ugha n'kkZrk gS
(1) Urea (2) Hydrazine (1) ;wfj;k (2) gkbMt
s hu
(3) Aniline (4) Phenyl hydrazine (3) ,fuyhu (4) Qsfuy gkbMsthu
75. How many unit cells are present in a cube shaped 75. ,d xzke vkn'kZ NaCl ds fLVy esa fdruh bZdkbZ lsy
ideal crystal of NaCl of mass 1.00 g :- mifLFkr gksxh :-
(1) 2.57 1021 (2) 5.14 1021 (1) 2.57 1021 (2) 5.14 1021
(3) 1.28 1021 (4) 1.71 1021 (3) 1.28 1021 (4) 1.71 1021
76. The rusting of iron takes place as : 76. yksgs dk la{kkj.k (Rusting)fuEukuqlkj gksrk gSa :-
1 1
2H+ + 2e + O H2O(l); E = 1.23 V 2H+ + 2e + O H2O(l); E = 1.23 V
2 2 2 2

Fe+2 + 2e Fe(s); E = 0.44 V Fe+2 + 2e Fe(s); E = 0.44 V

Thus DG for the net process is :-

usV ize ds fy, DG gksxk :-

(1) 322 kJ/mol (2) 161 kJ/mol (1) 322 kJ/mol (2) 161 kJ/mol
(3) 1522 kJ/mol (4) 76 kJ/mol (3) 1522 kJ/mol (4) 76 kJ/mol
77. What type of crystal defects is indicated in the 77. fups fn;s x;s fp= esa fdl iz d kj dk fLVy nks " k
diagram given below :- gks x k :-
Na+ Cl Na+ Cl Na+ Cl Na+ Cl Na+ Cl Na+ Cl
Cl Cl Na+ Na+ Cl
Cl
Na+ Na+
Na+ Cl Cl Na+ Cl Na+ Cl Cl Na+ Cl
Cl Na+ Cl Na+ Na+ Cl Na+ Cl Na+ Na+
(1) Frenkel and Schottky defects (1) Frenkel vkjS Schottky nks"k
(2) Schottky defect (2) Schottky nks"k
(3) Interstitial defect (3) Interstitial nks"k
(4) Frenkel defect (4) Frenkel nks"k
78. During the charging of lead storage battery, the 78. lhlk lapk;d ly S esa vkos'ku ds nkjS ku ,suksM ij gksus
reaction at anode in represented by :- okyh vfHkf;k gksxh :-
(1) Pb2 + SO24- PbSO4 (1) Pb2 + SO24- PbSO4

(2) PbSO4 + H2O PbO2 + SO24- + 2H+ (2) PbSO4 + H2O PbO2 + SO24- + 2H+
(3) Pb Pb2+ +2e (3) Pb Pb2+ +2e
(4) Pb2+ + 2e Pb (4) Pb2+ + 2e Pb
79. For a solid with the following structure, the co- 79. ,d Bksl ds fy, fuEufyf[kr lajpuk nh gqbZ gaS Ablesa fcUnw
ordination number of the point B is :- B dh leUo; la[;k gksxh :-

A B A B

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6

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 MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 08012013
80. The thermodynamic efficiency of cell is 80. fdlh ly S dh "ekxfrdh; n{krk fuEu lq= }kjk nh tk
given by :- ldrh gaS :-
(1) DH / DG (2) nFE / DG (1) DH / DG (2) nFE / DG
(3) nFE / DH (4) nFE (3) nFE / DH (4) nFE
81. The rate law for a reaction between the substances A 81. ,d vfHkf;k ds fy, nj fu;e r = K[A] n[B]m g Sa A
and B is given by rate = K[A]n[B]m. On doubling
;fn A dh lkan z r k nq x q u h dj ns rFkk B dh lkan z rk
the concentration of A and halving the concen-
tration of B, the ratio of the new rate to the earlier
vk/kh dj ns rks vfHkf;k dh ubZ nj iz k jEHkhd nj
rate of the reaction will be as:- dh fdrus xq u k gks tk;s x h :-
(1) 1/2m+n (2) (m +n) (1) 1/2m+n (2) (m +n)
(3) (nm) (4) 2(n-m) (3) (nm) (4) 2(n-m)
82. Nernst equation can be written as 82. uUlZVV lehdj.k fuEu gksrk gaS :-
RT
E = E - ln Q E = E -
RT
ln Q
nF nF
If Q = KC then according to Nernst equation
;fn Q = KC gksrks fuEu fyf[kr esa ls dkuS lk lgh ugh gaS :-
which one is not correct :-
RT
RT (1) E = E (2) In K c = E
(1) E = E (2) ln K c = E nF
nF
nE F

(3) E = zero (4) K = e

nE F
RT
(3) E = 'kwU; (4) K = e RT
c
c

83. Which curve represents zero order reaction for 83. 'kq U ; dks V h dh vfHkf;k ds fy, lgh o gks x k
A Product ? A mRikn :-

(1) (A) (2) (A) (1) (A) (2) (A)

t t t t

(A) (A)
(3) (A) (4) (3) (A) (4)
t t t t

84. Two solutions of KNO 3 and CH3 COOH are 84. nks foy;u KNO3 o CH3COOH }kjk vyx&vyx
prepared separately. Molarity of both is 0.1M cuk;s x;s gaAS ;fn nksuks foy;uksa dh eksyjrk 0.1M
and osmotic pressures are P1 and P2 respectively.
gaS rFkk ijklj.k nkc e'k % P1 o P2 gaAS rks lgh
The correct relationship between the osmotic
lEca/k gksxk :-
pressures is :-
(1) P2 > P1 (2) P1 = P2
(1) P2 > P1 (2) P1 = P2
P1 P2 P1 P2
(3) P1 > P2 (4) P + P = P + P (3) P1 > P2 (4) P + P = P + P
1 2 1 2
1 2 1 2

LoLFk jgks] eLr jgks rFkk i<+kbZ esa O;Lr jgks A

H Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2013 15/31
 MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2013 (NEET-UG) 08012013
85. The chemical reaction, 2O3 3O2 proceeds 85. jklk;fud vfHkf;k, 2O3 3O2 fuEukuqlkj gksrh gaS :-
as follows :- O2 + O
O3 .........(rst)
O2 + O
O3 .........(Fast)
O + O3 2O2 .........(/kheh)
O + O3 2O2 .........(Slow)
nj fu;e dk lgh izn'kZu gksxk :-
The rate law expression should be :-
(1) r = K[O3]2
(1) r = K[O3]2
(2) r = K [O3]2[O2]1 (2) r = K [O3]2[O2]1

(3) r = K[O3][O2] (3) r = K[O3][O2]

(4) Unpredictable (4) Kkr ugha fd;k tk ldrk
86. Each pair forms ideal solution except :- 86. fuEu ls fdldks NksM+dj 'ks"k lHkh vkn'kZ foy;u gaS :-
(1) C2H5Br and C2H5I (1) C2H5Br and C2H5I
(2) C6H5Cl and C6H5Br (2) C6H5Cl and C6H5Br
(3) C6H6 and C6H5 .CH3 (3) C6H6 and C6H5 .CH3
(4) C2H5I and C2H5OH (4) C2H5I and C2H5OH
87. The arsenious sulphide sol has negative charge. 87. vklsZfud lYQkbZM dk y{k.k .kkosf'kr gksrk gSA fuEu esa
The maximum coagulating power for ls fdldh Ldanu {kerk vo{ksi.k ds fy, lokZf/kd gksxh:-
precipitating it is of :-
(1) 0.1 N Zn (NO3)2 (2) 0.1 N Na3PO4
(1) 0.1 N Zn (NO3)2 (2) 0.1 N Na3PO4
(3) 0.1 N ZnSO4 (4) 0.1 N AlCl3 (3) 0.1 N ZnSO4 (4) 0.1 N AlCl3

88. A substance is completely trimerised on 88. ,d inkFkZ dks foyk;d esa feykus ij bldk iw.kZ :i ls
dissolution in a solvent. The van't Hoff's factor f=ydhdj.k gks tkrk gaS] rks inkFkZ ds fy, okUV gkQ xq.kkad
(i) for such change is :- gksxk :-
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 1/3 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 1/3
89. On adding few drops of dil. HCl or FeCl3 to 89. tc ruq HCl ;k FeCl3 dh dqN cwans rktk vo{ksihr
freshly precipitated ferric hydroxide, a red Fe(OH)3 foy;u esa feykus ij ,d yky jax dk dksykbMh
coloured colloidal solution is obtained. This phe- foy;u curk gSA bl ?kVuk dks dgrs gSa :-
nomenon is known as :-
(1) isIVhdj.k (2) viksgu
(1) Peptization (2) Dialysis
(3) j{khdj.k (4) foy;hdj.k
(3) Protection (4) Dissolution
90. Which statement is not correct :- 90. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk dFku lgh ughsa gaS :-
(1) Physical adsorption is due to van der Waal's (1) HkkSfrd vf/k'kks"k.k okUMjoky vkd"kZ.k ds dkj.k
forces gksrk gSA
(2) Physical adsorption decreases at high (2) HkkfS rd vf/k'kks"k.k nkc de djus o rki c<+kus ls de
temperature and low pressure gks tkrk gSaA
(3) Physical adsorption is reversible
(3) HkkfS rd vf/k'kks"k.k Re.kh; gksrk gSA
(4) Adsorption energy for a chemical adsorption is
(4) jklk;fud vf/k'kks"k.k dh tkZ HkkSfrd vf/k'kks"k.k ls
generally lesser than that of physical
de gksrh gAS
adsorption.
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 MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 08012013
91. During evolution, some mammal go back in water 91. mf}dkl ds nkjS ku dqN Lru/kkjh tehu ls ikuh esa okil
from land, like :- pys x;s tl S s :-
(1) Whale (2) Dolphin (1) Ogsy (2) MkWYQhu
(3) Seal (4) All of the above (3) lhy (4) mijksDr lHkh
92. Joints between skull bones are :- 92. diky vfLFk;ksa ds e/; mifLFkr laf/k;k gS :-
(1) Synovial (2) Fibrous (1) lkbuksfo;y (2) Qkbczl
(3) Cartilaginous (4) Both 1 and (3) mikfLFky (4) 1 o 3 nksuksa
93. Before two million years ago Australopithecus 93. yxHkx nks fefy;u o"kZ iwoZ vkLVsyksfiFksdl laHkor% dgk
probably lived in which place :- jgrs Fks :-
(1) Ethiopia (1) bFkh;ksfi;k
(2) North african grasslands (2) mkjh vhdk ds ?kklh; LFkyksa esa
(3) East African grasslands (3) iwohZ vhdk ds ?kklh; LFkyksa esa
(4) West african grasslands (4) if'peh vhdk ds ?kklh; LFkyksa esa
94. ATPase of the muscles is located in :- 94. isf'k;ksa dk ATPase fdlesa gksrk gS :-
(1) Actinin (2) Troponin (1) ,fDVfuu (2) Vki
s ksfuu
(3) Myosin (4) Actin (3) ek;ksflu (4) ,fDVu
95. Which ancestor of man firstly hunted with stone 95. euq"; ds dkuS ls iwoZt us loZizFke iRFkj ds gFkh;kjksa ls f'kdkj
weapons but essentially ate fruit :- fd;k ijUrq os Qy Hkh vfuok;Z :i ls [kkrs Fks :-
(1) Ramapithecus (2) Dryopithecus (1) jkekfiFksdl (2) Mk;ksfiFksdl
(3) Homo habilis (4) Australopithecus (3) gkseks gsfcfyl (4) vkLVsyksfiFksdl
OH OH

96. 96.
OH OH

Incorrect about diagram is :- fn;s x;s fp= gsrq xyr gS :-

(a) chemical structure of morphine (a) ekQhZu dh jklk;fud lajpuk
(b) opioid (b) vkWfivksbM
(c) receptor present in GIT (c) vkgkjuky esa xzkgh mifLFkr
(d) Extracted from latex of poppy plant (d) ikWih ikni ds ysVsDl ls izkIr
(1) a, c (2) a, d (1) a, c (2) a, d
(3) all are correct (4) all are incorrect (3) lHkh lgh gS (4) lHkh xyr gS
97. During evolution, the animal which evolved into 97. mf}dkl ds nk Sj ku] la tho tks iz F ke mHk;pj iz k .kh ds
the first amphibian that lived on both land and :i es a fodflr gq ; s vkSj tks ty o Fky nks uks ij jgs ]
water were :- Fks :-
(1) Souropsids (2) Synapsids (1) lkWjksIlhM (2) flusIlhM
(3) Lobefins (4) Therapsids (3) ikyhia[k (4) FksjsIlhM
98. Smoking is related with :- 98. /kqzeiku fdlls lEcaf/kr gS :-
(A) Lung cancer (B) CADs (A) QqQql daSlj (B) CADs
(C) Gastric ulcer (D) Bronchitis (C) vkek'k;h vYlj (D) czksadkbfVl
(E) Emphysema (E) ,EQkblsek
(F) Urinary bladder cancer (F) eq=k'k; daSlj
(1) A, D, E (2) A, B, D, E (1) A, D, E (2) A, B, D, E
(3) B, C, F (4) A, B, C, D, E, F (3) B, C, F (4) A, B, C, D, E, F
J ges'kk eqLdjkrs jgsa A
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 MAJOR TEST
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99. Select the incorrect statements :- 99. vlR; dFku dk p;u dhft, :-
(A) The essence of Darwinian theory of evolution (A) MkfoZu ds mf}dkl ds flkUr dk ewy rRo izkfrd
is natural selection. oj.k gS A
(B) Evolution is a directed process in the sense of (B) mf}dkl fu'p;okn ds lanHkZ esa ,d izR;{k izf;k
determinism gS A
(C) The geological history of earth is not related (C) i`Foh dk HkkxS ksfyd bfrgkl] i`Foh ds tfS ofd; bfrgkl
with the biological history of earth ls lacaf/kr ugha gS
(D) During evolution the rate of appearance of (D) mf}dkl ds nkjS ku u;s Lo:iksa ds mRikh dh nj thou
new forms is linked to the life cycle p ls lac af/kr gksrh gS
(1) A and B (2) B and C (1) A vkjS B (2) B vkjS C
(3) A and D (4) B and D (3) A vkjS D (4) B vkjS D
100. (a) also called 'Dhanustamba' 100. (a) '/kuqLraHk' Hkh dgrs gS
(b) incurable (b) mipkj ugha gS
(c) caused by clostridium tetani (c) DyksLVhfM;e fVVSuh }kjk mRiUu
(d) bacterium resides in horse intestine, (d) thok.kq ?kksM+s dh vkar esa jgrk gS rFkk chtk.kqvksa ds :i
pass out as spores (viability 60 yrs) in esa ey inkFkZ }kjk ckgj fudyrk gS tks fd 60 o"kZ rd
excreta mkj&thfor jgrs gAS
(e) bacteria release tetanospasmin toxin (e) thok.kqvksa }kjk fVVSuksLikfTeu fo"k dk L=ko
(f) ATS gives passive immunity (f) ATS fuf"; izfrj{kk iznku djrk gS
(g) TT gives active immunity (g) TT lf; izfrj{kk iznku djrk gS
above informations are correct for :- mijksDr lqpuk;sa fdlds fy, lgh gS :-
(1) Hansen disease (2) Lock Jaw (1) gUS lu jksx (2) ykWd tk
(3) Chora (4) Leprosy (3) gt S k (4) dq"B jksx
101. Centre of origin of rice is :- 101. pkoy dk mRifk dsUnz gS :-
(1) China (2) India (1) phu (2) Hkkjr
(3) Brazil (4) USA (3) czkthy (4) USA
102. Malignant malaria is caused by :- 102. efS yXusaV eysfj;k dk dkj.k gS :-
(1) female Anopheles (2) male Anopheles (1) eknk ,suksQsyht (2) uj ,suksQsyht
(3) female Culex (4) none of these (3) eknk D;qyDs l (4) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
103. Improved variety of wheat Sonalika is developed 103. xsagw dh mUur fdLe lksukfydk fdl fof/k }kjk fodflr
by which method :- dh x;h gS :-
(1) Introduction (2) Mutation breeding (1) iqj%LFkkiu (2) mRifjorZu iztuu
(3) Hybridisation (4) Tissue culture (3) ladj.k (4) kd lao/kZu
104. Which of following is not bacterial disease ? 104. fuEu esa ls dkSulk@dkSuls thok.kq jksx ugha gS ?
(a) Dysentery (b) Common-cold (a) isf p'k (b) lkekU; tqdke
(c) Pneumonia (d) Malaria (c) U;qeksfu;k (d) eysfj;k
(1) b,d (2) c,d (1) b,d (2) c,d
(3) b,c,d (4) a,b,c,d (3) b,c,d (4) a,b,c,d
105. Saccharum barberi is the variety of sugarcane 105. lSdsje ckjcsjh xUus dh fdLe gS ftlesa 'kdZ j k ?kVd
with low sugar content and low yield. It is mainly fuEu gksrk gS o mRiknu Hkh de gSA ;g eq[;r% mxk;k
grown in :- tkrk gS: -
(1) South India (2) North India (1) nf{k.k Hkkjr (2) mkj Hkkjr
(3) East India (4) West India (3) iwohZ Hkkjr (4) if'peh Hkkjr

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 MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 08012013
106. Ringworm is .......... disease :- 106. fjaxoeZ.......... gS :-
(1) helminth (2) fungal (1) gfS YeUFk (2) dodh;
(3) bacterial (4) viral (3) thokf.od (4) fo"kk.kq
107. Himgiri variety of wheat, which is resistance for 107. xsgw dh ghexhjh fdLe tks leaf rust ,oe hill
leaf rust and hill bunt diseases, is developed by bunt jksx ds fy;s izfrjks/kh g]S oks fdl fof/k }kjk fodflr
which method :- dh x;h gS :-
(1) Mutation and selection (1) mRifjorZ u o p;u
(2) Mutation and hybridisation (2) mRifjorZu o ladj.k
(3) Introduction and selection (3) iqj%LFkkiu o p;u
(4) Hybridisation and selection (4) ladj.k o p;u
108. Enters via contaminated food + water 108. lanqf"kr Hkkstu + ty }kjk izo's k

cytotoxins, Slough villus cells dksf'kdkfo"k] lq{ekadqj dksf'kdkvksa dks rksMr+ k gS

enterotoxin stimulates Adenylate cyclase ,aVsjksVkWfDlUl }kjk ,fMukbysV lkbDyst dk mhiu

Induction of diarrhoea due ty o Cl + gkfu ds dkj.k Mk;fj;k

to loss of Cl + water

Sustain high fever diagnosed by yxkrkj mPp Toj foMky ijh{k.k

widal test }kjk funku
above chart is related with :- mijksDr pkVZ fdlls lEcfU/kr gS :-
(1) Common cold (1) lkekU; tqdke
(2) Typhoid (2) VkbQkbM
(3) Haemophilus influenzae (3) gheksfQyl bUyq,th
(4) Trichophyton (4) VkbdksQkbVksu
109. In mutation breeding, Mostly mutation in plants 109. mRifjorZu iztuu esa] ikniks esa] vf/kdrj mRifjorZu fdlds
are developed by :- }kjk fodflr fd;s tkrs gaS :-
(1) x-ray (2) Gamma-rays (1) x-fdj.ksa (2) xkek-fdj.ksa
(3) U.V. rays (4) b-rays (3) U.V. fdj.ksa (4) b-fdj.kas
110. Sebaceous glands secrete oily substance to :- 110. flcsf'k;l xzfUFk;ksa }kjk L=kfor ry S h; inkFkZ :-
(1) Help in temperature regulation (1) rki fu;U=.k esa lgk;rk djrk gAS
(2) Make body surface smooth and water proof (2) 'kjhj lrg dks fpduk ,a o tyjks/kh cukuk
(3) Keep body warm (3) 'kjhj dks xeZ cukuk
(4) None of these (4) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
111. Most rapid method for crop improvement is :- 111. Qly lq/kkj dh lcls rhoz fo/kh gS :-
(1) Hybridisation (2) Selection (1) ladj.k (2) oj.k
(3) Polyploidy (4) None (3) cgwxq.khrk (4) dksbZ ugha
112. Which of the following layers of epidermis in 112. euq"; esa mijksDr esa ls vf/kpeZ dk dkuS lk Lrj 'kjhj ls
human provides protection to body against water ty dh gkfu vkSj jksx mRiUu djus okys dhVk.kqvksa ds izos'k
loss and entry of disease - causing organisms ? dks jksdrk gS ?
(1) Stratum spongiosum (1) LVsVe Liksuft;ksle
(2) Stratum corneum (2) LVsVe dksjfu;e
(3) Stratum lucidum (3) LVVs e Y;wflM+e
(4) Stratum germinativum (4) LVsVe tfeZusV~;we
viuh {kerk dks iwjk olwyus dk iz;kl djs a A
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113. Hybrid vigour is developed by :- 113. ladj vkst fuEu ds }kjk fodflr gksrh gS :-
(1) Heterozygosity (1) fo"ke;qXetrk
(2) Superiority of all the genes (2) lHkh thUl dh mkerk }kjk
(3) Homozygosity of pure character (3) 'kq yo.kksa dh le;qXetrk }kjk
(4) Mixing UP of cytoplasm of the male gamete (4) uj ;qXed ds dksf'kdk nzO; dks eknk ;qXed ds dksf'kdk
to female gamete nzO; ds la;qXeu }kjk
114. Centechroman is : 114. Centechroman :
(1) A synthetic non - steroidal contraceptive (1) ,d la'ysf"kr LVhjkWbZM+ jfgr xHkZfujks/k
(2) Prevents implantion (2) v.MksRlZx dks jksdrh gAS
(3) Available with trade name of 'SAHELI' (3) 'SAHELI' ds uke ls miyC/k gAS
(4) All of the above (4) mijksDr lHkh
115. In high yielding hybrid crop varieties,to exploit 115. T;knk iSnkokj okyh Qlyh fdLeksa es]a ladj vkst dk mi;ksx
hybrid vigour, the farmers need to purchase fresh djus ds fy;s fdlkuksa dks fro"kZ u;s ladj [kjhnus dh
hybrid seed every year because :- vko';drk gksrh gS D;ksafd :-
(1) They are not allowed to grow their own seed (1) mUgsa vius cht mxkus dh vkKk ugha gksrhA
(2) Hybrid vigour is lost due to inbreeding (2) var%tuu mnklhurk }kjk ladj vkst esa deh vk tkrh
depression gSA
(3) It is cheaper to purchase fresh seed (3) u;s cht [kjhnuk lLrk iM+rk gAS
(4) None (4) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
116. Natural method of contraception include the 116. mijksDr esa ls dkSulk mik; xHkZfujks/k ds izkd`frd mik;ksa
following ? esa lfEefyr gS ?
(1) Coitus interruptus (1) varfjr eFS kqu
(2) Lactational amenorrhea (2) Lruiku vukrZo
(3) Periodic abstinece (3) vkof/kd la;e
(4) All of these (4) mijksDr lHkh
117. Adaptation of a species is its 117. fdlh tkfr dk vuqdqyu mldk .................. gS
(1) Ecdysis (2) Metamorphosis (1) ,DMk;lhl (2) dk;karj.k
(3) Acquired character (4) Hereditary character (3) miktr y{k.k (4) oa'kkxr y{k.k
118. Inability to conceive or produce children 118. vlqjf{kr lgokl ds ckotwn xHkZ/kkj.k u gks ikus dh fLFkfr
unprotected sexual cohabitation is called ? dgykrh gS ?
(1) Impotancy (2) Infertility (1) uiqaldrk (2) ca/;rk
(3) Female sterility (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) ck>iu (4) nksuksa (1) rFkk (2)
119. Two types of pigeons were found in an Alpine 119. fdlh /kzqoh; {ks= (Alpine region) esa 1997 esa nks dkj ds
region in 1997 short feathered & long feathered, dcwrj ns[ks x;s NksVs ia[k okys o yacs ia[k okysA ysfdu
but it was observed that long feathered pigeons ,slk ns[kk x;k dh cQhZys rwQku esa yacs ia[k okys dcwrj T;knk
survived in cold storms. It was found in 2004 that ftank jgrs FksA 2004 esa ml /kwzoh; {ks= (Alpine region)
only long feathered pigeons survived. Which type esa dsoy yacs ia[k okys dcwrj gh ik;s x;sA ;g ?kVuk fdl
of natural selection this event exhibits dkj ds kfrd oj.k dks fu:fir djrh gS
(1) Stabilising selection (1) LFkk;hdkjh oj.k
(2) Directional selection (2) fn'kkRed oj.k
(3) Disruptive selection (3) fopyhr oj.k
(4) None (4) dksbZ ugha
120. After implantation of blastocyst finger like 120. dksjdiqVh ds vkjksi.k ds ckn iks"kdksjd ij mRiUu gksus okys
projections appear on the trophoblast are called: vaxqyh ds leku izo/kZ dgykrs gS :
(1) Fimbriae (2) Umblical cord (1) >kyj (2) ukfHk jTtq
(3) Chorionic villi (4) Placenta (3) tjk;q vadqjd (4) vijk
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PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE
121. In human-evolution the first man who started
agriculture :-
(1) Cromagnon man
(2) Neanderthal man
(3) Homo sapiens sapiens
(4) Peking man
122. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(1) In mammals whole sperm enters in the egg.
(2) Oocyte completes its second maturation
division on coming in contact with the sperm.
(3) If we place human egg in KCl solution, then
egg show parthenogenesis.
(4) The chorion of egg's insect is secondary egg
membrane.
123. In wheat plant chromosome numbers is 6n=42.
What will be the chromosome number in
haploid and monoploid
(1) 21, 21 (2) 21, 42 (3) 21, 14 (4) 21, 7
124. Why the chances of pregnency are very low in a
women till six months after delivery ?
(1) High levels of HCG in women kill sperms.
(2) High levels of estrogen and progesterone,
secreted by the corpus luteum, that inhibit the
secretion of gonadotropins.
(3) High levels of prolactin, inhibit the secretion
of gonadotropins.
(4) All of these
125. Coloured rock paintings was first done by
(1) Cromagnon man (2) Java man
(3) Peking man (4) Neanderthal man
126. Read the following statements (A - D) ?
(A) The male germ cells undergo meiotic
divisions finally leading to sperm formation.
(B) ICSH acts on the sertoli cells and stimulates
secretion of some factors which help in the
process of spermiogenesis.
(C) The secondary follicle soon transforms into
a tertiary follicle which is characterised by a
fluid cavity called antrum.
(D) Lack of menstruation may be indicative of
pregnency however, It may also be caused due
to stress, poor health.
How many statements are correct ?
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One
Time Management is Life Management
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08012013
121. ekuo ds mf}dkl esa mRiUu iwoZt ftlus izFke ckj f"k
izkjEHk dh :-
(1) kWesXukWu ekuo
(2) uh,UMjFky ekuo
(3) gkseks lsfi;Ul lsfi;Ul
(4) isdhax ekuo
122. mijksDr esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gS ?
(1) Lru/kkfj;ksa esa iw.kZ 'kqk.kq v.Ms esa izo's k djrk gAS
(2) lkbZV viuk f}rh;d ifjiDou foHkktu 'kqk.kq ds
lEidZ ds lkFk vkus ij iw.kZ djrk gAS
(3) ;fn ge euq"; ds v.Ms+ dks KCl ds foy;u esa j[krs
gS rc og vfu"ksd tuu iznf'kZr djrk gAS
(4) dhVksa ds v.M+ksa esa dkWfj;ksu f}rh;d v.M f>Yyh gksrh
gSA
123. xsgw esa 6n=42 xw.klw= gksrs gSa] blesa xw.klw=ksa dh gsIyksbM
o eksuksIyksbM voLFkk gksxh %&
(1) 21, 21 (2) 21, 42
(3) 21, 14 (4) 21, 7
124. izlo ds 6 ekg ckn rd fdlh vkjS r esa xHkZ/kkj.k dh laHkkouk
cgqr de D;ksa jgrh gS ?
(1) HCG dh mPp lkUnzrk vkjS rksa esa 'kqk.kqvksa dks ekjrh gAS
(2) bZLVkstu ,ao izkstsLVsjkWu dh mPp lkUnz rk tks dkWiZl
Y;wfV;e ls L=kfor gksrh g]S tks xksusM+ksVksihu gkeksZu ds
L=ko.k dks lanfer djrk gAS
(3) izksysDVhu dh mPp lkUnzrk tks xksusM+ksVksihu gkeksZu ds
L=o.k dks lanfer djrh gAS
(4) mijksDr lHkh
125. pkuksa ij jaxhu fp=dkjh loZizFke fdlus izkjEHk dh Fkh
(1) ksesXuku ekuo (2) tkok ekuo
(3) isfdax ekuo (4) fu,UMjFky ekuo
126. mijksD r dFkuksa dks /;ku ls if<+;s (A - D) ?
(A) uj teZ dksf'kdk,sa vZlw=h foHkktu ds QyLo:i
'kqk.kqvksa dk fuekZ.k djrh gAS
(B) ICSH lVksZyh dksf'kdkvksa ij dk;Z djrk gS vkjS dqN
?kVdksa ds L=o.k dks mn~nhfir djrk g]S tks 'kqk.kqtuu
dh izf;k esa lgk;rk djrs gAS
(C) f}rh;d iqVd tYn gh ,d r`rh; iqVd esa ifjofrZr
gks tkrk gS ftldh rjy ls Hkjh xqgk dks xg~oj (,aVe)
dgk tkrk gAS
(D) jtks/keZ dh vuqifLFkfr xHkZ/kkj.k dk ladsr gAS ;|fi
;g ruko] fucZy LokLF; vkfn ds dkj.k Hkh gks ldrk
gSA
mijksDr esa ls fdrus dFku lR; gS ?
(1) pkj (2) rhu (3) nks (4) ,d
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127. A dihybrid plant with genotype GgTt. In this plant 127. ,d f}ladj ikni dk thu izk:i GgTt gAS bl ik/S ks esa
first gene pair is codominant and another is igyk thu ;qXe lgizHkkoh ,oa nwljk vnZ izHkkoh gAS bl
semidominant on selfing of this plant, what will ikS/ks esa Lofu"kspu djkus ij y{k.k izk:i dk vuqikr D;k
be phenotypic ratio ? gksxk ?
(1) 2 : 1 (1) 2 : 1
(2) 3 : 1 (2) 3 : 1
(3) 3 : 6 : 3 : 1 : 2 : 1 (3) 3 : 6:3:1:2:1
(4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 2 : 2 : 2 : 2 : 4 (4) 1 : 1:1:1:2:2:2:2:4
128. Which of the following process will be effected 128. mijksDr esa ls dkSulk ize izHkkfor gksxk] ;fn bZLVkstu dh
if the concentration of estrogen low at the terminal lkUnzrk iwoZ v.M+ksRlxZ izkoLFkk dh vfUre voLFkk esa de
stage of preovulatory phase ? gks tkrh gS ?
(1) Implantation (2) Oogenesis (1) vkjksi.k (2) v.M+tuu
(3) Ovulation (4) Both (2) and (3) (3) v.M+kRs lxZ (4) (2) rFkk (3) nksuksa
129. Bateson used the terms coupling & repulsion, while 129. csVlu us ysFkkbjl esa fyUdst dh [kkst djrs ;qXeu o
discovering linkage in 'Lathyrus'. If A and B are izfrd"kZ.k 'kCn mi;ksx esa fy;kA ;fn nks thu ds fy, A
dominant alleles and a and b are recessive alleles o B izHkkoh ,yhy gS vkjS a rFkk b vizHkkoh ,yhy g]S rks
of two genes, then parental crosses in coupling & irS `d kWl esa ;qXeu o izfrd"kZ.k voLFkkvksa dks fuEu esa
repulsion phases can be written as follows :- ls fdl izdkj fy[k ldrs gaS :-
(1) aaBB, aabb, & AAbb, aabb (1) aaBB, aabb, vkjS AAbb, aabb
(2) AAbb, aaBB & AaBb, aabb (2) AAbb, aaBB vkjS AaBb, aabb
(3) AABB, aabb & AAbb, aaBB (3) AABB, aabb vkjS AAbb, aaBB
(4) AABB, aabb & AABB, AAbb (4) AABB, aabb vkjS AABB, AAbb
130. Which one is used in automobiles :- 130. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk okguksa esa mi;ksx gksrk gS :-
(1) E.S.P. (2) Cyclon (1) E.S.P. (2) lk;Dyksu
(3) Catalytic ammeter (4) Arresters (3) dsVkyk;fVd dUoVZj (4) ,sjsLVj
131. Assume that gene a and b are linked and show 131. eku fyft, a o b lgyXu thu ga S rFkk 40% iquZ;ksZtu
40% recombination. If ++ / ++ individual is n'kkZrs gaSA ;fn ++ / ++ tho o ab / ab tho ds
crossed with ab / ab, then types and proportions e/; kWl djk;k tk;s] rks F1 esa ;qXedks dk vuqikr
of gametes in F1 will be :- gksxk :-
(1) ++ 20% : ab 20% : +b 20% : a + 40% (1) ++ 20% : ab
20% : +b 20% : a + 40%
(2) ++ 50% : ab 50% (2) ++ 50% :50%ab
(3) ++ 25% : ab 25% : + b 25% : a + 25% (3) ++ 25% : ab
25% : + b 25% : a + 25%
(4) ++ 30% : ab 30% : + b 20% : a + 20% (4) ++ 30% : ab
30% : + b 20% : a + 20%
132. Term biodiversity was used by :- 132. 'kCn tfS od fofo/krk dk mi;ksx fd;k :-
(1) E. wilson (2) Chapmann (1) E. wilson (2) Chapmann
(3) Girinnel (4) Norman Mayer (3) Girinnel (4) Norman Mayer
133. In birds, the females are :- 133. if{k;ksa esa eknk gksrh gS :-
(1) XX (2) XY (3) XO (4) YY (1) XX (2) XY (3) XO (4) YY
134. Read swamp stage present between :- 134. jhM&LosEi voLFkk vkrh gS :-
(1) Plankton stage and marsh meadow stage (1) Plankton stage and marsh meadowstage
(2) Rooted sub merged stage and marsh medow (2) Roated sub merged stage and marsh medow
stage stage
(3) Floating rooted and marsh medow (3) Floating rooted and marsh medow
(4) Marsh meadow and scrub stage (4) Marsh meadow and screub stage

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 MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 08012013
135. A holandric gene is known for hypertrichosis 135. ,d gksy Sa M hd thu gkbZ ijV kbdksf ll (dku ij yEcs
(long hairs on ears). When a man with hairy ears ckyksa ds fy,) ekuk tkrk gS tc ,d vkneh dku ij
marries a normal woman, what percentage of their cky okyk] ,d lkekU; efgyk ls fookg djrk gS] rks
son would be expected to have hairy ears ? iq=ksa ds dku ij cky gksus dh izfr'krrk gksxh ?
(1) 100% (2) 0% (1) 100% (2) 0%
(3) 50% (4) 25% (3) 50% (4) 25%
136. Less seasonal variation, undisturbed environment, 136. de ekSleh ifjorZu] vckf/kr i;kZoj.kh yEck mn~fodklh;
long evolutionary time promotes le;] izksRlkfgr djrk gS :-
(1) High species diversity in an area (1) {ks= esa mPp tkfr fofo/krk dks
(2) High niche density in an area (2) mPp fudsr ?kuRo dks
(3) Complex and stable ecosystem (3) tfVy rFkk LFkk;h bdksflLVe dks
(4) All of the above (4) mijksDr lHkh dks
137. Lactose is first converted to which substance in 137. fjizl
s j izkVs hu ls tqM+us ls igys] ysDVksl] thok.kq ds
bacterial cytoplasm, before it binds to repressor lkbVksIykTe esa fdl inkFkZ esa cnyrk gS ?
protein ?
(1) Xywdkst (2) xysDVkl
(1) Glucose (2) Galactose
(3) Allolactose (4) All the above (3) ,yksyDs Vksl (4) mijksDr lHkh
138. COD and BOD are used to messured :- 138. COD rFkk BOD dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS :-
(1) Amount of dissolved oxygen in water (1) ty esa pfyr vkWDlhtu dh ek=k Kkr djus ds fy,
(2) Amount of organic waste in water (2) ty esa dkcZfud vif'k"V dh ek=k Kkr djus ds fy,
(3) Amount of organic and inorganic waste in (3) ty esa dkcZfud rFkk vdkcZfud vif'k"Vksa dh ek=k
water Kkr djus ds fy,
(4) Biodegradeable organic and inorganic waste (4) ty esa tSovi?kVuh; dkcZ fud rFkk vdkcZf ud
in water vif'k"Vksa dh ek=k Kkr djus ds fy,
139. Neurospora is normally pink, though an albino 139. U;w j ks L iks j k lk/kkj.kr;k xq y kch (+) gks r h g S ] ijUrq
strain is also known. If a pink (+) strain is crossed ,fYcuksa Hkh ns[ksa x;s gAS ;fn ,d xqykch o ,fYcuks ds e;
with an ablino (a) strain, what would be the kW l djkus ij] ifj.kkeh ;q X eut dk thu iz k :i
genotype (s) of the resulting zygote ? gksxk ?
(1) + + (2) aa (1) + + (2) aa
(3) +a (4) +a +a (3) +a (4) +a +a
140. Match the columnI with columnII :- 140. lkj.khI dks lkj.khII ls feykb;s :-
ColumnI ColumnII lkj.khI lkj.khII
(a) Kyoto protocol (i) Biodiversity (a) Kyoto protocol (i)
Biodiversity
conservation conservation
(b) Montreal protocol (ii) Climate change (b) Montreal protocol (ii) Climate change
(c) Rio earth summit (iii) Sustainable (c) Rio earth summit (iii) Sustainable
development development
(d) World summil (iv) Ozone protection (d) World summil (iv) Ozone protection
(v) Wetland conservation (v) Wetland conservation
(1) (a)(ii), (b)(iv), (c)(iii), (d)(i) (1) (a)(ii), (b)(iv), (c)(iii), (d)(i)
(2) (a)(iv), (b)(ii), (c)(v), (d)(iii) (2) (a)(iv), (b)(ii), (c)(v), (d)(iii)
(3) (a)(iv), (b)(ii), (c)(v), (d)(i) (3) (a)(iv), (b)(ii), (c)(v), (d)(i)
(4) (a)(ii), (b)(iv), (c)(i), (d)(iii) (4) (a)(ii), (b)(iv), (c)(i), (d)(iii)

H Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2013 23/31

 MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2013 (NEET-UG) 08012013
141. Who observed that the behaviour of chromosomes 141. fdlus ik;k dh vZlw=h foHkktu ds nkjS ku xq.klw=ksa dk
at meiosis can serve as the cellular basis of both O;ogkj i`Fkdj.k o Lora= viO;wgu dks dksf'kdh; vkkkj
segregation and independent assortment ? nsrk gS ?
(1) Sutton and Boveri (2) Banden and Boveri (1) lV~u ,oa cksojs h (2) csMau ,oa cksojs h
(3) Flemming (4) Boveri and Brauer (3) ysfeax (4) cksojs h ,oa czkv
s j
142. Match the following columns. Which type of 142. dkWye dks lgh esy dfj;s ?
diversity bound in what type of place ? dkWyeI dkWyeII
ColumnI ColumnII
(a) vYQk fofo/krk (i) o`gn HkkSxksfyd {ks= esa
(a) Alpha diversity (i) In long geographical
area (b) xkek fofo/krk (ii) gkWV LikWV
(b) Gamma diversity (ii) Hot spot (c) mPp fofo/krk (iii) ,d leqnk; ds vUnj
(c) Maximum diversity (iii) with in community (d) chVk fofo/krk (iv) nks leqnk;ksa ds chp
(d) Beta diversity (iv) between two
(1) (a)(iv), (b)(i), (c)(iii), (d)(ii)
communities
(1) (a)(iv), (b)(i), (c)(iii), (d)(ii) (2) (a)(iii), (b)(i), (c)(ii), (d)(iv)
(2) (a)(iii), (b)(i), (c)(ii), (d)(iv)
(3) (a)(iii), (b)(ii), (c)(i), (d)(iv)
(3) (a)(iii), (b)(ii), (c)(i), (d)(iv)
(4) (a)(iv), (b)(i), (c)(ii), (d)(iii) (4) (a)(iv), (b)(i), (c)(ii), (d)(iii)
143. Which of the following inheritance is not possible 143. nh xbZ oa'kkoyh esa fuEu esa ls dkuS lh oa'kkuqxfr laHko ugha
in the given pedigree- gksxh %&

(1) Autosomal recessive vksVkslksey vizHkkoh

(1)
(2) Autosomal dominant vksVkslksey izHkkoh
(2)
(3) x-linked dominant x-lgyXu izHkkoh
(3)
(4) x-linked recessive x-lgyXu vizHkkoh
(4)
144. Match columnI to columnII :- 144. lkj.khI dks lkj.khII ls feykb;s :-
ColumnI ColumnII lkj.khI lkj.khII
(a) Tropical rain forest (i) Shorea robusta (a) m".kdfVca/kh; o"kkZ ou (i) 'kksjh;k jkscqLVk
(b) Tropical deciduous (ii) Quercus
forest (b) m".kdfVca/kh; i.kZikrh ou (ii) DokdZl
(c) Temperate broad leaf (iii) Cedrus (c) le'khrks".k pkM
S +h ikh okys (iii) lhMl
forest
ou
(d) Temperate coniferous (iv) Dipterocarpus
forest (d) le'khrks".k 'kadq/kkjh ou (iv) fMIFksjksdkiZl
(1) (a)(iv), (b)(i), (c)(ii), (d)(iii) (1) (a)(iv), (b)(i), (c)(ii), (d)(iii)

(2) (a)(i), (b)(ii), (c)(iii), (d)(iv) (2) (a)(i), (b)(ii), (c)(iii), (d)(iv)

(3) (a)(ii), (b)(iii), (c)(i), (d)(iv) (3) (a)(ii), (b)(iii), (c)(i), (d)(iv)

(4) (a)(i), (b)(iii), (c)(iv), (d)(ii) (4) (a)(i), (b)(iii), (c)(iv), (d)(ii)

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 MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 08012013
145. In genetic engineering, Agrobacterium and retro 145. vkuqokaf'kd vfHk;kafU=dh esa ,xzkscDS Vhfj;e rFkk fjVksokbjl
virus are used as a vector for cloning genes in dk mi;ksx ikniksa rFkk tUrqvksa esa thu dh Dyksfuax ds fy,
plants and animals, because :- fd;k tkrk gS D;ksafd %&
(1) They have ability to transform normal cell (1) buesa lkekU; dksf'kdk dks V~;wej esa rFkk dSUlj
into a tumour and cancerous cells dksf'kdkvksa esa :ikUrfjr djus dh {kerk gksrh gAS
(2) They are easily available (2) ;s vklkuh ls miyC/k gksrs gaSA
(3) They infect all plant and animal cells (3) ;s lHkh ikni rFkk tUrq dksf'kdkvksa dks lafer djrs gaAS

(4) They are pathogen (4) ;g jksx dkjd gAS

146. The world conservation union is :- 146. fo'o laj{k.k laxBu gS :-
(1) WWF (2) IUCN (1) WWF (2) IUCN
(3) UNO (4) UNESCO (3) UNO (4) UNESCO
147. In a population an autosomal recessive disorder 147. ,d tula[;k esa ,d vkWVkslksey vizHkkoh jksx 6000 lnL;ksa
is present in 60 individual out of 6000. What is esa ls dsoy 60 lnL;ksa esa mifLFkr g]S rks bl tula[;k esa
the number of homozygous normal (BB)
offsprings in population ? le;qXeth lkekU; (BB) lUrfr;ksa dh la[;k D;k gksxh\
(1) 4860 (2) 5460 (1) 4860 (2) 5460
(3) 1000 (4) 2000 (3) 1000 (4) 2000
148. Match the columnI with ColumnII :- 148. lkj.khI dks lkj.khII ls feykb;s :-
ColumnI ColumnII lkj.khI lkj.khII
(a) Accumulation of dark (i) Fragmentation (a) xgjs jax ds fLVy jfgr rRo (i) fo[k.Mu
coloured amorphous
dk fuekZ.k
substance
(b) Water soluble nutrients (ii) Humification
(b) ty foys; iks"kdksa dk Hkwfe (ii) g;welhdj.k
go down into the soil e`nklaLrj esa izfo"V djuk
horizon (c) thok.koh; f;k }kjk (iii) [kfuthdj.k
(c) Release of inorganic (iii) Mineralisation vdkcZfud iks"kd rRoksa dk
nutrient by microbial eqDr gksuk
activities
(d) vijn dk NksVs&NksVs d.kksa esa (iv) fu{kkyu
(d) Break down detritus (iv) Leaching
[kafMr djuk
into smaller particles
A B C D
A B C D
(1) ii iii iv i
(1) ii iii iv i
(2) ii iv iii i
(2) ii iv iii i
(3) i iii iv ii
(3) i iii iv ii
(4) iv i ii iii (4) iv i ii iii
149. In a medico-legal case of accidental interchange 149. ,d vLirky esa nks cPpksa ds xyrh ls vnyk&cnyh gks
between two babies in a hospital, the baby of tkus okys dkuwuh ekeysa esa ,d A jDr lewg okys cPps
blood group A could not be rightly given to a
couple with :- dks fdl nEifk dks nsuk mfpr ugh gksxk&
(1) Husband of group O and wife of group A (1) O lewg okys ifr o A lewg okyh iRuh dks
(2) Husband of group AB and wife of
group O (2) AB lewg okys ifr o O lewg okyh iRuh dks
(3) Husband of group AB and wife of (3) AB lewg okys ifr o B lewg okyh iRuh dks
group B
(4) Husband of group O and wife of group B (4) O lewg okys ifr o B lewg okyh iRuh dks

H Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2013 25/31


TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2013 (NEET-UG)
150. In domestic sewage colloidal material includes
(1) Sand silt clay
(2) Fecal matter, bacteria, cloth and paper fiber
(3) Nutrients (nitrate, ammonia, Phosphate
sodium, calcium)
(4) All of the above
151. Which is not always true for genes in diploid
organisms ?
(1) They occur in pairs
(2) They segregate at the time of gamete
formation
(3) Only one of each pair is transmitted to a
gamete
(4) One pair segregates independently of
another pair
152. Match the columnI and ColumnII :-
ColumnI ColumnII
(a) Global animal diversity (%) (i) 1,200
(b) Global plant diversity (%) (ii) 8.1
(c) Species diversity in India (%) (iii) 22
(d) Bird species in India (iv) 70
(1) (a) iii, (b) iv, (c) i, (d) ii
(2) (a) iv, (b) ii, (c) iii, (d) i
(3) (a) iv, (b) iii, (c) ii, (d) i
(4) (a) iii, (b) ii, (c) i, (d) iv
153. RFLP is the main basis of DNA fingerprinting.
It is due to
(1) Variable number of minisatellite in coding
region.
(2) Variable sequence of minisatellite in non-
coding region.
(3) Variable number of minisatellite in non-
coding region
(4) Variable sequence of minisatellite in
coding region.
154. Choose the correct for decomposition :-
(1) Fragmentation, Catabolism, Leaching
(2) Catabolism, Leaching, Fragmentation
(3) Leaching, Catabolism, Fragmentation
(4) Above steps operate simultaneously
26/31 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2013
MAJOR TEST
08012013
150. ?kjsyw vif'k"V esa] dksykWbMh inkFkZ esa lfEefyr gksaxs :-
(1) ckyw xkn fpduh feh
(2) ey inkFkZ] thok.kq] oLrq rFkk dkxt ds js'ks
(3) iks"kd inkFkZ] tl
S s ukbVsV] veksfu;k QkWLQsV] lksfM;e]
dSfY'k;e
(4) mijksDr lHkh
151. f}xq f.kr thoksa esa dkSulk dFku ges'kk lR; ugha gksxk&
(1) ;s tksM+s esa ik, tkrs gAS
(2) ;s ;qXed fuekZ.k ds le; i`Fkd gks tkrs gaAS
(3) izR;sd tksM+s esa ls dksbZ ,d gh ;qXed esa gkrk gAS
(4) ,d tksM+k nwljs tksMs ls LorU= :i ls i`Fkd@oa'kkuqxr
gksrk gSA
152. lkj.khI dks lkj.khII ls feykb;s :-
lkj.khI lkj.khII
(a) o'S fod tUrq fofo/krk (%) (i) 1,200
(b) o'S fod ikni fofo/krk (%) (ii) 8.1
(c) Hkkjr esa tkfr fofo/krk (%) (iii) 22
(d) Hkkjr esa i{kh fofo/krk (iv) 70
(1) (a) iii, (b) iv, (c) i, (d) ii
(2) (a) iv, (b) ii, (c) iii, (d) i
(3) (a) iv, (b) iii, (c) ii, (d) i
(4) (a) iii, (b) ii, (c) i, (d) iv
153. RFLP DNA vaxqyhNkiu dk eq[; vk/kkj gAS ;g fdl
dkj.k ls gksrk g&S
(1) Coding {ks= esa minisatellite dh fHkUu&fHkUu la[;k
(2) Non-coding {ks= esa minisatellite dh fHkUu&fHkUu
ka[` kykA
(3) Non-coding {ks= esa minisatellite dh fHkUu&fHkU
la[;kA
(4) Coding {ks= esa minisatellite dh fHkUu&fHkUu ka[
` kykA
154. vi?kVu ds fy, lgh dks pqfu;s :-
(1) fo[k.Mu] vip;u] fu'PNkyu
(2) vip;u] fu'PNkyu] fo[k.Mu
(3) fu'PNkyu] vip;u] fo[k.Mu
(4) lHkh izf;k lekukUrj gksrh gS
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 MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 08012013
155. In HGP, the blind approach of simply sequencing 155. HGP esa thukes ds lEiw.kZ lsV] ftlesa lkjh dksfMax ukWu
the whole set of genome that contained all the dksfMax ka`[kyk, lfEefyr g]S dh sequence djuk D;k
coding and non-coding sequences, is known as dgykrk g&S
(1) Expressed Sequence Tags (1) Expressed Sequence Tags
(2) ELSI (2) ELSI
(3) SNP (3) SNP
(4) Sequence Annotation (4) Sequence Annotation
156. Mammals from colder climates generally have 156. B.Mh tyok;q okys Lru/kkfj;ksa ds dku vkSj ikn vkerkSj
shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss, this ij NksVs gksrs gaS rkfd m"ek dh gkfu U;wure gks ;g gS :-
is called as :-
(1) cxZeku dk fu;e (2) ,sy u dk fu;e
(1) Bergmann rule (2) Allens rule
(3) Gause rule (4) Ranchs rule (3) xkml dk fu;e (4) jsUp dk fu;e
157. The given segment of DNA has restriction sites 157. DNA ds fn, x, [kaM esa izfrca/ku LFky I o II gS tks a,
I and II, which create restriction fragments a, b b o c izfrca/ku [kaM mRiUu djrs gAS fuEu esa ls dkuS lk
and c. Which of the following gel produced by tsy (tks fd electrophoresis ls mRiUu fd;k x;k) bu
electrophoresis would represent the separation &
[kaMks ds lgh i`FkDdj.k dks n'kkZrk g&S
identity of these fragments?
a b c a b c
I II I II
a b c a b c
(1) (1)
a c b a c b
(2) (2)

b a c b a c
(3) (3)
c a b c a b
(4) (4)
158. Generally, archesporium in ovule is :- 158. lkekU;r;k chtk.M esa vkdhZLiksfj;e gksrh gS :-
(1) Unicellular and present in middle (1) ,ddksf'kdh; rFkk e/; esa mifLFkr
(2) Unicellular and terminal (2) ,d dksf'kdh; rFkk 'kh"kZLFk
(3) Unicellular and hypodermal (3) ,ddksf'kdh; rFkk v/k'pehZ;
(4) Unicellular and endodermal (4) ,ddksf'kdh; rFkk ,.MksMeZy
159. Which fungal extract was extensively used in 159. dkSulk dod mRikn f}rh; fo'o;q esa ?kk;y vejhdu
treating wounded American soldiers in world flikfg;ksa ds mipkj esa O;kid :i ls fd;k x;k Fkk&
war-II ?
(1) Streptomycin (2) Cyclosporin-A
(1) Streptomycin (2) Cyclosporin-A
(3) Statins (4) Penicillin (3) Statins (4) Penicillin
160. A typical angiosperm embryosac at maturity 160. ,d izk:fid vko`rchth ik/S ks ds ifjiDo Hkzw.kdks'k esa gksrs
have :- gS :-
(1) 7 celled 8 nucleate (1) 7 dksf'kdk 8 dsUd
(2) 8 celled 7 nucleate (2) 8 dksf'kdk 7 dsUd
(3) 3 celled 3 nucleate (3) 3 dksf'kdk 3 dsUd
(4) 2 celled 2 nucleate (4) 2 dksf'kdk 2 dsUd

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 MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2013 (NEET-UG) 08012013
161. RNA interference (RNAi) technique has been 161. RNA vraj{ksi (RNAi) rduhd ik/S kksa dks fuesVksM ls cpkus
devised to protect the plants from nematode. In d fy, fodflr dh xbZ gAS bl rduhd esa fuesVksM ds
this technique mRNA of nematode is silenced by mRNA dks ijiks"kh ikS/ks }kjk mRiUu ______ }kjk lnafer
____ , produced by the host plant dj fn;k tkrk gAS
(1) dsDNA (2) RISC (1) dsDNA (2) RISC
(3) ssRNA (4) Target Proteins (3) ssRNA (4) Target Proteins
162. Which type of pollination is more common 162. vthfo; ijkx.k es dk Su lk ijkx.k lokZ f /kd lkekU;
amongst abiotic pollination ? gS ?
(1) Wind (2) Water (1) ok;q (2) ty
(3) Insects (4) None of these (3) dhV (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
163. Propionibacterium sharmanii is used in the 163. Propionibacterium sharmanii dk Su ls pht ds
ripening of which cheese ? ifjiDou ds fy, mi;ksx fn;k tkrk gAS
(1) Camembert cheese (2) Swiss cheese (1) Camembert cheese (2) Swiss cheese

(3) Roquefort cheese (4) Limburger cheese (3) Roquefort cheese (4) Limburger cheese
164. Type of endosperm present in Polypetalae? 164. i`Fkdnyh; esa fdl izdkj dk Hkzw.kiks"k gksrk gS ?
(1) Nuclear (2) Cellular (1) dsUdh; (Nuclear) (2) Cellular (dksf'kdh;)
(3) Helobial (4) None of these (3) gsyksfc;y (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
165. An eleven membered cyclic oligopeptide, which 165. ,d X;kjg lnL;h phd oligopeptide, ftldk mi;ksx
is used as immnosupressive agent in organ vax izR;kjksi.k esa immunospressive agent ds :i esa
transplantation, can also be used as :- fd;k tkrk gS mldk vkSj fdl izdkj ls mi;ksx fd;k tk
ldrk gAS
(1) Antifungal agent
(1) Antifungal agent
(2) Anti inflammatory agent (2) Anti inflammatory agent
(3) Clot buster (3) Clot buster
(4) More than one options are correct (4) ,d ls vf/kd fodYi lgh gAS
166. It is possible to store pollen grains of a large 166. cgqr ls iztkfr ds ijkxd.kks dks o ukbVkstu esa dbZ o"kksZ
number of species for years in liquid nitrogen at :- rd Hk.Mkfjr djuk lEHko gS%&
(1) 196C (2) 196C (1) 196C ij (2) 196C ij
(3) 100C (4) 230C (3) 100C ij (4) 230C ij
167. Cohesive ends of DNA are produced by restriction 167. Mh- ,u- ,- ds iz ? kkou fljs curs gSa tc js L V h D'ku
endonuclease when :- ,UMksU;wfDy,st%&
(1) They cleave both strands of DNA so as to never (1) Mh- ,u- ,- ds nksuksa J`a[kykvksa dks dkVrk gAS ftlls Mh-
leave no unpaired bases on either end ,u- ,- ds nksuksa fljs ij v;qfXer {kkjd dHkh ugha feyrs gaS
(2) Make staggered cuts on the two DNA strands (2) Mh- ,u- ,- dh nksuksa J`a[kykvksa dks vleku dkVrk gAS
leaving two to four nucleotides of one strand ftlls ifjek.kLo:i izdUnksa esa nks ls pkj U;wDyh;ksVkbM
unpaired at each resulting end v;qfXer jg tkrs gaS
(3) They cut the methylated strand of host DNA (3) xzkgh Mh- ,u- ,- dh feFkkby J`a[ kyk dks xyrh ls
by error dkVrk gS
(4) Enzymatic digestion of strand follows from (4) ,UMksU;wfDy,t ds dk;Z ds ckn J`a[kyk ds ,UtkbesVhd
one end after action of endonuclease ikpu ls curk gS
168. What is the fuction of germ pore ? 168. tuu fN dk D;k dk;Z gS \
(1) It helps in dehiscence (1) ;g LQqVu esa enn djrh gS
(2) It provide path for pollen tube development (2) ijkx ufydk ds fodkl ds fy;s iFk iznku djrh gS
(3) Both (3) mijksDr nksuksa
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
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PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 08012013
169. Which of the following genetically engineered 169. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk vkuqokaf'kd vfHk;kaf=d lw{etho bUlqfyu
microbes used for production of insulin :- ds mRiknu ds fy, mi;ksxh gS %&
(1) E. coli (1) bZ- dksykbZ
(2) Bacillus thuringinesis (2) csflyl Fkw jhuftusfll
(3) Trichoderma (3) VkbdksMek
(4) Pseudomonas (4) L;wMkseksukl
170. Which of following is correct about wall layers 170. ijkxdks'k dk fHkfkirksZ ds ckjs esa D;k lR; gS ?
of anther ? (1) ,aM ksFksf l;e] e/; irZ ds Bhd ij gksrh gS
(1) Endothecium is present just above middle layer
(2) VsihVe] e/; irZ ds Bhd uhps mifLFkr gksrh gS
(2) Tapetum is present just below the middle layer
(3) ,aMksFksfl;e] ckg;Ropk ds Bhd uhps mifLFkr gksrh
(3) Endcothecium is present just below the
epidermis gS
(4) All the above (4) mijksDr lHkh
171. DNA probe is used for :- 171. DNA izks c fuEu ds fy, mi;ksxh gksrh gS %&
(1) Detection of pathogenic bacteria (1) jksxtud thok.kq dk irk yxkus esa
(2) Medical genetics to find particular gene (2) fpfdRlk vkuqokaf'kdh esa fo'ks"k thu dh [kkst esa
(3) DNA finger printing (3) DNA vaxqyhNkiu
(4) All the above (4) mijks lHkh
172. The agricultural practice of breeding and raising 172. i'kqiztuu rFkk i'kq/ku o`f dh ifr D;k gS
livestock is termed as. (1) i'kqikyu
(1) Animal husbandry
(2) Msjh QkeZ izca/ku
(2) Dairy farm Management
(3) Dairying (3) Msjh&m|ksx
(4) Fishery (4) ekfRLFkdh
173. How many fishes in the list given below are 173. uhps nh xbZ lwph esa fdruh eNfy;k leqnzh gS ?
marine ?
dryk] iksesV] dkeu dkiZ] flYoj dkiZ] fgylk] jksgw]
Catla, Pomfret, Common carp, Silver carp, Hilsa,
esfdjy] lkYeu] fe`xy
Rohu, Mackerel, Salmon, Mrigal
(1) Six (2) Three (1) Six (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Five (3) Four (4) Five
174. Read the following four statement (A-D) and 174. fuEufyf[kr pkj dFkuksa (A-D) dks if<+ , &
answer as asked next in them. (A) fdlh tkfr ds fy, lef"V dh lkbt LFk Sf rd
(A) The size of a population for any species is not izkpy ugha gS
a static parameter. (B) tUenj nh xbZ vof/k lef"V esa gksus okyh ekrS ksa dh
(B) Natality is the number of deaths in the la[;k gAS
population during a given period. (C) fdlh lef"V dh vckf/kr o`f ds fy, Li"Vr%
(C) Resource availability is essential for the lalk/ku miyC/k gksuk vR;ko';d gAS
unimpeded growth of a population. (D) izd`fr esa] fn, x, vkokl ds ikl vf/kdre laHko
(D) In nature, a given habitat has enough resources la[;k ds ikyu & iks"k.k ds fy, i;kZIr lalk/ku gksrs
to support a maximum possible number gSA
How many of the above statements are correct ? mijksDr dFkuksa esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gS \
(1) Four (2) Two (3) Three (4) One (1) pkj (2) nks (3) rhu (4) ,d

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 MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2013 (NEET-UG) 08012013
175. Read the following four statement is (a d) : 175. fuEufyf[kr pkj dFkuksa (a d) dks if<+,\
(a) Fisheries include rearing, catching and (a) ekfRL;dh esa dsoy eRL;ks dk ikyu iks"k.k mudks idM+uk
selling of only fishes. cspuk vkfn 'kkfey gAS
(b) More then 70 percent of the world livestock (b) fo'o dh 70 izfr'kr ls Hkh vf/kd i'kq/ku Hkkjr
population is in India. esa gAS
(c) Milk yield is primarily dependent on the (c) nqX/k mRiknu ewy :i ls QkeZ eas jgus okys i'kqvksa dh
quality of breeds in the farm. uLy dh xq.kokk ij fuHkZj djrk gAS
(d) The feeding of cattle should be carried out (d) i'kq vksa dks Hkkstu iznku djus dk <a x oSKkfud gksuk
in scientific manner. pkfg;sA
How many of the above statements are right ? mijksDr dFkuksa esa fdrus dFku lgh g\ S
(1) Four (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (1) pkj (2) ,d (3) nks (4) rhu
176. How many of honey bees in the list given below 176. uhps nh xbZ lwph esa fdruh e/kqeD[kh;k diploid gS%&
are deploid ? jkuh] lfS ud] uj] QuS j] ulZ] LdkmV
Queen, Soldier, Drone, Fanner, Nurse, Scout (1) ikp (2) pkj
(1) Five (2) Four (3) Two (4) One (3) nks (4) ,d
177. Which of the following statement is incorrect with 177. MOET ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk okD; xyr
regards to MOET? gS\
(1) MOET has been demonstrated for cattle, (1) MOET xksi'kq] HksM+] [kjxks'k] HkSal] ?kksM+h] vkfn esa
sheep, rabbits, buffaloes, mares etc. iznf'kZr dh tk pqdh gAS
(2) MOET is used to increase herd size in short (2) MOET rduhd ls vYi dky esa gh cM+h la[;k esa
time xkSi'kq izkIr fd;s tk ldrs gAS
(3) The fertilised eggs are recovered and (3) fu"ksfpr v.Mks dks vkuqoaf'kd eknk esa LFkkukarfjr dj
transferred in genetic mother. fn;k tkrk gAS
(4) None of these (4) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
178. Which of the following is the best breeding 178. ftu i'kqvksa dh mRiknu {kerk nj vkSlr ls de gksrh gS
method for animals that are below average in muds fy, (iztuu dh dkSulh fof/k fuEufyf[kr esa ls
productivity? loZJs"B ekuh tkrh gS)?
(1) Cross-breeding (2) Out-crossing (1) ladj.k (2) cfg% ladj.k
(3) Inbreeding (4) All the above (3) var%iztuu (4) mijksDr lHkh
179. By which breeding method many new animals 179. fdl fof/k }kjk i'kqvksa dh vusd u;h uLyksa dk fodkl
breeds have been develop ? gqv k gS ?
(1) Interspecific hybridisation (1) vUrj fof'k"V ladj.k
(2) Out-crossing (2) cfg%ladj.k
(3) Inbreeding (3) var%iztuu
(4) Cross-breeding (4) ladj.k
180. Which of the following statements is correct with 180. d`f=e oh;Zlspu ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkuS lk okD;
regards to Artificial insemination? lgh g\ S
(1) The semen is collected from male and (1) uj ls oh;Z ,df=r djds p;fur eknk ds tuu iFk
injected into the reproductive tract of the
esa var{ksi dj fn;k tkrk gAS
selected female.
(2) The semen can be used immediately or can (2) oh;Z dk iz;ksx rqjar fd;k tkuk pkfg;s ;k bls fgehd`r
be frozen and used at later date. dj ckn esa iz;ksx esa ykuk pkfg;sA
(3) Semen can be transported in frozen form. (3) oh;Z fgehd`r :i ls vfHkxefur Hkh fd;k tk ldrk gAS
(4) All the above (4) mijksDr lHkh

Your moral duty

is that to prove ALLEN is ALLEN
30/31 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2013 H
 MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 08012013
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / jQ dk;Z ds fy;s txg

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