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B 1. The ratio of disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to kill a given strain of the bacterium Salmonella
typhi:
a. Phenol number b. Phenol coefficient c. Phenol value d. None of the above

C 2. The generic name of Nizoral:


a. Meconazole b. Clotrimazole c. Ketoconazole d. Potassium sorbate

C 3. Sulfonamides used for burn therapy:


a. Mafenide b. Silver sulfadiazine c. both a and b d. none of the preceeding

A 4. The following are preservatives except:


a. undecylenic acid b. Methyl paraben c. benzoic acid d. potassium sorbate

C 5. The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is also known as:


a. clotrimazole b. miconazole c. co-trimoxazole d. cotrimazine

B 6. A polyene anti-fungal antibiotic:


a. Griseofulvin b. Nystatin c. Salicylic acid d. Econazole

A 7. Benzyl penicillin is also known as:


a. Penicillin G b. Penicillin V c. Oxacillin d. Ampicillin

D 8. First generation urinary tract anti-infective:


a. salicylic acid b. Griseofulvin c. Norfloxacin d. Nalidixic acid

A 9. A fluoroquinolone:
a. Norfloxacin b. Pipemedic acid c. Methenamine d. none of the above

D 10. Combination therapy in the treatment of tuberculosis contain the following drugs, except:
a. Ethambutol b. Rifampin c. Isoniazid d. Streptomycin

B 11. These drugs are used in treatment of amoebic dysentery, except:


a. Tinidazole b. Chloroquine c. Etofamide d. Metronidazole

B 12. A fourth generation cephalosphorins:


a. Cefaloxin b. Cefepime c. Cefamandole d. Cefuroxime

C 13. This drug is used in the treatment of chicken pox:


a. Zidovudine b. Chloroquine c. Acyclovir d. Metronidazole

A 14. The drug of choice for typhoid fever:


a. Chloramphenicol b. Lincomycin c. Penicillin d. Cephalosporins

D 15. The generic name of Dalacin C which is often used to treat pimples:
a. Erythromycin b. Tetracycline c. Lincomycin d. Clindamycin

B 16. The study of chemical agents which are selectively more toxic to the invading organisms than the host:
a. therapeutics b. chemotherapy c. organic chemistry d. biochemistry

C 17. Compounds that kill or prevent the growth of microorganisms when applied to living tissues:
a. disinfectant b. fungicides c. antiseptics d. systemic anti-infectives

A 18. A combination of non-ionic and cationic surfactants with iodine:


a. Povidone-Ioduine b. Strong I2 solution c. Iodine Tincture d. I2 in KI solution

D 19. The generic name of new Merthiolate is:


a. Chorhexidine gluconate c. Mexachlorophene
b. Thimerosal d. Benzalkonium chloride
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B 20. Mechanism of action of quinolones:


a. injury to plasma membrane c. protein synthesis inhibition
b. inhibition of DNA gyrase d. production of toxic free radicals

B 21. Prodrugs of active anti-malarial metabolites, the dihydrotriazines:


a. quinolines b. biguanides c. beta-lactams d. quinolones

A 22. 7 chloro-7-deoxy lincomycin:


a. clindamycin b. roxithromycin c. spectinomycin d. ilotycin

D 23. The drug is effective against both exoerythrocytic and erythrocytic forms of malaria:
a. chloroquine b. quinine c. amodiaquine d. cycloguanil
B 24. Newest and most potent quinoline derivative for malaria:
a. amodiaquine b. mefloquine c. atabrine d. daraprim
B 25. An aromatic diamide derivative used for sleeping sickness:
a. suramin b. pentamidine c. efflornithine d. stibophen
A 26. Methylated erythromycin:
a. clarithromycin b. azithromycin c. lincomycin d. ilotycin

B 27. A semi-synthetic aminoglycoside whose structural prototype is kanamycin:


a. Kantrex b. Amikin c. Garamycin d. Nebcin

A 28. Structural congener of Symmetrel which is used for viral influenza:


a. ribavirin b. rimantadine c. gancyclovir d. foscarnet

A 29. More potent optical isomer of ofloxacin:


a. levo b. dextro c. cis isomer d. trans isomer

B 30. These group of drugs share the same mechanism of action as that of sulfanilamide but are less effective:
a. trimethoprim b. sulfones c. quinolones d. none of the above

B 31. Mechanism of action of thiabendazole:


a. paralysis due to GABA receptor occupation c. phagocytic attack on worms
b. inhibition of cell division d. decreased glucose uptake

B 32. This anti-burn therapy causes systemic acidosis:


a. silvadene b. sulfamylon c. whitfield d. vandol

C 33. Drug of choice for filarial infections:


a. ivermectin c. diethylcarbamazine
b. praziquantel d. Stibophen

B 34. Active form of the sulfonamide:


a. non-ionized b. ionized c. amphoteric d. oxo ring

B 35. Use of crotamiton:


a. pediculicide b. scabicide c.anthelmintic d. antibacterial

C 36. Mechanism of action of mebendazole:


a. paralysis due to excessive loss of calcium c. decreased glucose uptake
b. unknown mechanism of action d. phagocytic attack on worms

D 37. A sympathomimetic agent that bind to alpha receptors found centrally that cause suppression of appetite:
a. Xenical b. Gas-X c. Apokinon d. Adifax

B 38. An example of a glycine conjugation pathway:


a. phenol to phenolsulfate c. noradrenaline to epinephrine
b. benzoic acid to hippuric acid d. antabuse to dithiocarbamic acid
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B 39. The following are characteristics of active transport, except:


a. follow saturation kinetics c. carrier mediated
b. expenditure of energy d. higher to lower concentration gradient

B 40. These anti-diarrheals tend to decrease pore sizes of GIT epithelial to prevent formation of watery stools:
a. adsorbents b. astringents c. anti-motility d. oresols

C 41. This anti-histamine possesses the same indications as that of diphenhydramine:


a. meclizine b. hyoscine c. dimenhydrinate d. celestamine

A 42. The metabolism of warfarin is induced by the following except:


a. tolbutamide b. haloperidol c. nitroglycerine d. DDT

C 43. Fertility vitamins:


a. retinoic acid b. riboflavin c. alpha tocopherol d. biotin

C 44. Calcitriol, a hormone responsible for enhanced absorption of calcium from the intestines, is synthesized from:
a. calcitonin b. vitamin D2 c. vitamin D3 d. caltrate

A 45. A metabolite of chloral hydrate:


a. trichloroacetic acid b. acetaldehyde c. carbapenem ring d. phenacetone

A 46. A sample drug excreted via the saliva:


a. lidocaine b. sulfonamide c. sulfonamide d. thiamine

B 47. A vitamin A derivative used in the management of psoriasis:


a. Retin-A b. Tegison c. Accutane d. Oilatum

B 48. Structurally specific drugs are those whose activity depends on:
a. physical characteristics c. both a and c
b. ability to bind on a specific receptor d. none of the above

A 49. The most potent anti-bacterial alcohol:


a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary
A 50. Product of acid hydrolysis of penicillins:
a. penicillenic acid b. penicilloic acid c. penicilloate Cl d. pinecillic acid

B 51. Cidex:
a. gammabenzenehexachloride b. glutarol c. hexachlorophene d. carbamoyl phosphate

B 52. Presence of electron withdrawing groups attached to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins
render:
a. activity against Pseudomonas c. activity against Gram (-) bacteria
b. acid stability d. penicillinase resistance

D 53. Attachment of bulky groups to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins render:
a. activity against Pseudomonas c. activity against Gram (-) bacteria
b. acid stability d. penicillinase resistance

B 54. A glycopeptide antibiotic:


a. beta-lactam b. vancomycin c. polymyxin d. probenecid

C 55. A tumor is benign if:


a. metastasis is evident
b. cell originating from the tumor may invade other tissues and cause damage
c. tumor mass may be removed by surgery and regression of remaining cells occur
d. cause damage to surrounding structures
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B 56. 1 gram mass of tumor is equivalent to:
a. 100,000 cancer cells b. 1 billion cancer cells c. 1 million cancer cells d. none of the above

C 57. The following are mucolytics, except:


a. bromhexine b. acetylcysteine c. caramiphen d. none of the above

C 58. The side effects of steroids used for asthma are minimized when the drug is given:
a. orally b. intravenously c. via inhalation d. rectally

B 59. A progesterone derivative which is used for the treatment of endometrial cancer:
a. tamoxifen b. depo-provera c. flutamide d. goserelin

B 60. Drug of choice for absence seizures:


a. carbamazepine b. ethosuximide c. phenytoin d. primidone

C 61. An anti-oxidant added in food products which are potent carcinogens:


a. aspartame b. PCP c. BHT d. EDTA

A 62. Pentavalent antimony in the presence hydrochloric acid gives a violet precipitate with this pink dye:
a. rhodomine B b. aluminum reagent c. p-nitrobenzene azo-resorcinol d. dimethylglyoxime

C 63. Expectorant obtained from the phenol volatile oil of Fagus grandiflora:
a. potassium iodide b. tyloxapol c. guaiafenesin d. emetine

B 64. Mescaline is a _________ derivative:


a. indolethylamine b. phenylethylamine c. steroidal d. xanthine

D 65. Anesthetic of choice for labor:


a. halothane b. enflurance c. nitrous oxide d. methoxyflurane

B 66. The drug of choice for the acute attack of migraine:


a. Codeine b. Avamigran c. Litec d. Inderal

C 67. Anesthetic of choice for patients with asthma:


a. ketamine b. thiopental c. enflurane d. none of the above

D 68. Propionic acid derivative:


a. paracetamol b. dipyrone c. piroxicam d. naproxen

B 69. An example of iodophor:


a. iodine tincture b. povidone-iodine c. Lugols solution d. all of the above

B 70. Phenylmethanol:
a. chloretone b. benzyl alcohol c. phenylalcohol d. carvacrol

A 71. A characteristic of cancer cells:


a. lack of normal growth controls c. G0 phase is the resting phase for all cell types
b. synthesis of DNA occurs in the M phase d. None of the above

A 72. Carcinogenic substances obtained from paper products:


a. polychlorinated biphenyls c. butylatedhydroxyanisole
b. acesulfame d. none of the above
C 73. Prostaglandins are also known as:
a. saturated fats b. compound lipids c. eicosanoids d. all of the above

C 74. Which of the following functional groups is the most basic?


a. imide b. amide c. amine d. aniline

A 75. Derivatives of benzylsulfonylureas are:


a. oral hypoglycemics b. diuretics c. anti-inflammatory d. spasmolytic
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D 76. A necessary precursor of visual pigment is:
a. tocopherol b. retinal c. ergosterol d. retinal

C 77. Paracetamol is a/an:


a. salicylate b. pyrazolone c. aniline derivative d. azocine derivative

B 78. All of the following are progestins except:


a. norethindrone b. testosterone c. ethynodiol diacetate d. progesterone

C 79. Aspirin is to salicylic acid as morphine is to:


a. codeine b. methadone c. heroin d. pentazocine

A 80. The functional group in pyridoxine is:


a. alcohol b. amine c. carboxylic acid d. ketone

A 81. Ascorbic acid and tetracycline are:


a. enols b. esters c. ethers d. amines

C 82. MAO is classified as a/an:


a. protein inhibitor b. complexing agent c. enzyme d. hormone

C 83. When used in pharmaceutic preparations, the purpose of hydroquinone, lecithin and alpha tocopherol is:
a. humectant c. oil soluble antioxidant
b. demelanizing agent d. emulsifying agent

D 84. Naturally occurring alkaloids, derivatives of tropane are:


a. nasal decongestants b. analgesic c. vasoconstrictor d. bronchodilator

A 85. Local anesthetics that is not a derivative of benzoic acid is:


a. lidocaine b. procaine c. dibucaine d. bupivacaine

C 86. All of the following are macrolide antibiotics, except:


a. erythromycin b. oleandomycin c. vancomycin d. spiramycin

B 87. Ativan has this generic name:


a. triazolam b. lorazepam c. flurazepam d. tranexamic acid

B 88. Plasil is:


a. acyclovir b. metoclopramide c. diclofenac sodium d. tranexamic acid

C 89. The principal hydrolytic degradation product of aspirin is:


a. methyl salicylate b. acetyl chloride c. salicylic acid d. salicylamide

D 90. Barbiturates containing a sulfur atom are usually:


a. short acting b. intermediate acting c. long acting d. ultra short acting

D 91. Although the prostaglandins are hormone-like, they may closely resemble which of the following
chemically?
a. enzymes b. porphyrins c. proteins d. lipids

A 92. The onset and duration of barbiturate action is mainly a function of its:
a. lipid solubility c. plasma binding
b. renal excretion d. method of administration

B 93. The prototype narcotic antagonist is:


a. nalorphine b. naloxone c. levallorphan d. meperidine

D 94. Lysergic acid diethylamide is:


a. derived from mushroom c. histamine analog
b. a parasympathetic drug d. ergot derivative
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B 95. Orthohydroxybenzoic acid is:
a. acetic acid b. salicylic acid c. oxalic acid d. citric acid

B 96. Diamox has a generic name of:


a. allopurinol b. acetazolamide c. dimethylxanthine d. theophylline

C 97. Diphenoxylate is a structural analog of:


a. dilantin b. codeine c. meperidine d. naloxone

B 98. Cevitamic acid is:


a. folic acid b. ascorbic acid c. nicotinic acid d. glacial acetic acid

B 99. Chloroquine is the generic name of:


a. atabrine b. artane c. aralen d. akineton

D 100. Kantrex belongs to this type of antibiotics:


a. penicillins b. cephalosphorins c. macrolides d.. aminoglycosides

B 101. Epinephrine is also known as:


a. tocopherol b. adrenalin c. emetine d. levarterenol

C 102. 1,3-dimethylxanthine is:


a. caffeine b. theobromine c. theophylline d. aminophylline

C 103. Of the following penicillin congeners, the one with the broadest spectrum of action is:
a. pen V b. methicillin c. carbenicillin d. oxacillin

C 104. Zantac is:


a. cimetidine b. famotidine c. ranitidine d. nizatidine

B 105. Cytotec is:


a. sucralfate b. misoprostol c. omeprazole d. pirenzepine

B 106. Ma huang is a/an:


a. imidazole alkaloid b. alkaloidal amine c. purine d. steroidal alkaloid

B 107. Procaine is a/an:


a. amine b. ester c. alcohol d. ketone

D 108. The functional group found in codeine and scopolamine is a/an:


a. amine b. alcohol c. ester d. ether

C 109. Aureomycin is:


a. kanamycin b. erythromycin c. chlortetracycline d. oxytetracycline

A 110. Bonamine is:


a. meclizine b. dramamine c. scopolamine d. aspirin

C 111. Polyene antibiotics include:


I. nystatin II . amphotericin B III. Griseofulvin
a. I only b. III only c. I and II d. II and III

A 112. Among the three xanthines, it is drug of choice for obtaining a stimulating effect of the CNS.
a. caffeine b. theophylline c. theobromine d. all of the above

D 113. A polysaccharide that is used as plasma expander is:


a. starch b. insulin c. dextrose d. dextran

B 114. The combination type oral contraceptive pill contains:


a. an androgen and a progestin c. an androgen and an estrogen
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b. an estrogen and progestin d. FSH and LH

B 115. Simethicone is chemically classified as a/an:


a. wax b. silicone c. sulfur d. ketone

C 116. An acidifying agent employed in effervescent salts and refrigerant drinks:


a. acetic acid b. lactic acid c. tartaric acid d. citric acid

D 117. This is an analgesic agent that is used to lessen severity of labor pains in obstetrics:
a. colchicines b. codeine c. apomorphine d. Demerol

B 118. Benzaldehyde is synthetic:


a. cinnamon oil b. bitter almond oil c. corn oil d. rose oil

B 119. The ring common among penicillins and cephalosphorins:


a. benzene ring b. B-lactam ring c. thiazole ring d. phenothiazone

C 120. Retin-A is:


a. alltoin b. adapalene c. tretinoin d. benzoyl peroxide

A 121. Barbiturates with an intermediate duration of action:


a. amorbital b. Phenobarbital c. pentobarbital d. secobarbital
B 122. Vitamin C is extremely important in wound healing. Its principal effect is on the:
a. maturation of osteoblast c. reduction of inflammation
b. collagen formation d. epithelial proliferation

E 123. CNS depressants with skeletal muscular relaxant property, except:


a. Methacarbamol, USP c. Baclofen e. Meprobamate
b. Carisoprodol, USP d. Buspirone

C 124. The drug of choice for the treatment of genital herpes being potent against DNA formation:
a. Symmetrel b. Herplex c. Acyclovir d. Vidarabine

A 125. The drug most effective against malarial parasites in the liver but not effective against parasites within
erythrocytes:
a. primaquine b. pyrimethamine c. quinacrine d. chloroquine

B 126. Feldene is:


a. sulindac b. piroxicam c. indomethacin d. ketoprofen

C 127. Voltaren is:


a. acemetacin b. ibuprofen c. diclofenac d. naproxen

C 128. Depo-Provera is:


a. cyproterone acetate c. medroxyprogesterone acetate
b. nandrolene decanoate d. leuproreline acetate

B 129. Which of the following actions of histamine is not blocked by H1 antagonist:


a. increase in salivary excretion c. vasodilation
b. increase in gastric secretions d. itchiness

A 130. Opium is an example of:


a. narcotic analgesic c. antipyretic analgesic
b. non-steroidal analgesic d. anti-inflammatory analgesic

D 131. Which of the following penicillin derivatives is both acid-stable and resistant to penicillinase?
a. methicillin c. ampicillin e. phenoxymethyl penicillin
b. disodium carbenicillin d. oxacillin
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B 132. A diuretic that will manifest a competitive inhibition of the action of aldosterone:
a. Triamterene b. Spirinolactone c. Furosemide d. Chlorothiazide

A 133. Sulfonamides are metabolized by humans principally by:


a. acetylation c. oxidation e. methylation
c. deamination d. conjugation

A 134. Streptomycin and other aminoglycoside antibiotics are:


a. ototoxic c. hyperglycemic e. goiterogenic
b. carcinogenic d. hepatotoxic

D 135. Benzalkonium chloride is a germicidal surfactant which rendered inactive in the presence of:
a. organic acid c. cationic surfactants e. inorganic salts
b. gram-negative organisms d. soaps

B 136. Acetazolamide (Diamox) is rarely the drug of choice for diuretic therapy because it:
a. is too potent
b. causes systemic acidosis and alkaline urine
c. is habit forming
d. does not exhibit tachyphylaxis
e. induces enzymes, especially carbonic anhydrases

C 137. The antipsychotic drug loxapine succinate (Loxitane) is a _____ compound:


a. phenothiazine c. dibenzoxazepine e. butyrophenone
b. benzodiazepine d. thioxanthene

B 138. Diphenoxylate (Lomotil) is an agent useful in the treatment of diarrhea. It is structurally similar to:
a. kaolin c. diphenhydantoin e. oxalic acid
b. meperidine d. pectin

A 139. Which of the following is classified as a broad-spectrum antibiotic?


a. ampicillin c. sodium methicillin e. potassium phenethicillin
b. penicillin G d. sodium cloxacillin

B 140. An antimanic agent:


a. haloperidol b. lithium salts c. LSD d. phenol

A 141. Liquefied phenol, USP:


a. phenol containing 10% water c. carbol-fuchsin solution
b. phenol as surgical antiseptic d. treatment of tinea infection

B 142. Castellanis paint:


a. phenol containing 10% water c. phenol as surgical antiseptic
b. carbol-fuchsin solution d. antibacterial dye

A 143. This is an effective antidote for the treatment of poisoning by copper:


a. penicillamine b. dimercaprol c. lugols solution d. castellanis paint

B 144. Tetracycline is:


a. an intermediate spectrum, bactericidal c. a broad spectrum, bactericidal
b. a broad spectrum, bacteriostatic d. an intermediate spectrum, bacteriostatic

B 145. Which of the following is not soluble in or miscible with alcohol, USP?
a. ether b. acacia c. methanol d. Phenobarbital e. water

D 146. The drug used in all types of tuberculosis is:


a. ethambutol c. streptomycin e. p-aminosalicylic acid
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b. cycloserine d. isoniazid

B 147. Levarterenol (Levophed) is:


a. L-epinephrine c. Isoproterenol e. L-ephedrine
b. L-norepinephrine d. L-dopa

A 148. The most active aminoglycoside against Mycobacterium tuberculosis is:


a. streptomycin c. neomycin e. kanamycin
b. amikacin d. tobramycin

B 149. The most effective agent in the treatment of Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Chlamydia infection is:
a. penicillin G c. vancomycin e. bacitracin
b. tetracycline d. gentamicin

E 150. Aluminum and calcium salts inhibit the intestinal absorption of which of the following agents?
a. Isoniazid c. Phenoxymethyl penicillin e. Tetracycline
b. Chloramphenicol d. Erythromycin

C 151. Which of the following penicillins is resistant to penicillinase?


a. Polymyxin B c. Dicloxacillin e. Streptomycin
b. Penicillin G d. Carbenicillin

B 152. The quinolone derivative effective against P. Aeruginosa is:


a. norfloxacin c. ofloxacin e. lomefloxacin
b. ciprofloxacin d. enoxacin

B 153. Which of the following penicillins is resistant to penicillinase?


a. Ampicillin c. Carbenicillin e. Mezlocillin
b. Oxacillin d. Ticarticillin

C 154. Rancidity of fats may be due to:


a. reduction to alcohols c. oxidation of double bonds e. hydrogenation
b. impurities d. saponification

A 155. A thiazide diuretic can:


a a. enhance action of amphetamines d. enhance action of oral hypoglycemics
b. antagonize action of guanethidine e. antagonize action of tricyclic antidepressants
b c. antagonize action of digitalis drugs

E 156. Surfactants are characterized by:


a. the presence of water-solubilizing groups d. the presence of fat-solubilizing groups
c b. negative charges e. the presence of water-solubilizing and fat-solubilizing
c. positive charges groups in the same molecule
d
A 157. Piperazine citrate (Antepar), gentian violet, pyrivinium pamoate (Povan) and thiabendazole (Mintezol) are all:
a. anthelmintics c. antiseptics e. anticholinergics
b. dyes d. scabicides

B 158. AZT or Azidothymidine is used in the treatment of:


a. Kochs infection b. HIV or AIDS c. carbuncle d. ringworm

A 159. Is a folate-reductase inhibitor:


a. Trimethoprim b. Sulfonamides c. Penicillin d. Tetracycline
B 160. The structure of this class of antibiotic has a beta-lactam ring and a thiazolidine ring.
a. Tazobactam b. Penicillin c. Cephalosporins d. Monobactam

C 161. The generic name of Duracef:


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a. Cephradine b. Cephazoline c. Cephadroxil d. Cephalexin

D 162. The preparation is used as pediculicide:


a. Ultralan cream b. Trimycin ointment c. Betronavate ointment d. Kwell lotion

B 163. An antibiotic that is obtained from Streptomyces noursei:


a. Amphotericin B b. Nystatin c. Griseofulvin d. Clindamycin

B 164. The plant containing the anticancer drug, vincristine and vnblastine:
a. Mayapple b. Periwinkle c. European year d. Datura alba

A 165. A very common adverse reaction of alkylating agents used in the treatment of cancer:
a. alopecia b. miosis c. mydriasis d. ataxia

C 166. These are calcium channel blockers, except:


a. Verapamil b. Nifedipine c. Atenolol d. Diltiazem

A 167. The generic name of the brand Diabinese:


a. Chlorpropramide b. Glibenclamide c. Metformin d. Acetohexamide

A 168. A loop or high-ceiling diuretic:


a. Furosemide b. Sorbitol c. Spirinolactone d. Hydrochlorothiazide

A 169. This drug is used as an osmotic diuretic:


a. Mannitol b. Ethanol c. Isopropanol d. Glycitol

D 170. These drugs are narcotic analgesics, except:


a. morphine b. codeine c. nalbuphine d. mefenamic acid

C 171. This is used as an inhalation anesthetic:


a. droperidol b. thiopental c. halothane d. midazolam

B 172. Levodopa is used in the treatment of:


a. leukemia b. Parkinsons disease c. Alzheimers disease d. Tay Sachs disease

A 173. The generic name of Nubain:


a. Nalbuphine b. Naloxone c. Pentazocine d. Methadone

D 174. Methenamine is also called:


a. Uridine b. Uracil c. Uric acid d. Urothropin

B 175. Neurotoxicity caused by Isoniazid can be treated with:


a. thiamine b. pyridoxine c. menaquinone d. ergocalciferol

D 176. A broad-spectrum anthelmintic that is effective against a variety of nematode infestations and is the generic
name of Antiox:
a. Piperazine b. Thiabendazole c. Pyrantel pamoate d. Mebendazole

B 177. A common agent in smoking cessation programs providing patches:


a. lobeline b. nicotine c. emetine d. coal tar

C 178. Thiabendazole (Mintezol), a benzimidazole derivative, is an anthelmintic drug used primarily to treat
infections caused by:
a. Ascaris c. Strongyloides e. Taenia saginata (flatworm)
b. Necator americanus (hookworm)d. Enterobios vermicularis

B 179. One of the reasons why aminoglycosides are frequently combined with other antibiotics in treating certain
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infections is to:
a. prevent drug infections d. increase oral absorption
b. prevent drug emergence of resistant bacteria e. decrease systemic toxicities
c. increase renal excretion

D 180. Angiotensin-converting enzymes (ACE) inhibitors are associated with a high incidence of which of the
following adverse reactions?
a. hepatitis c. agranulocytosis e. hirsutism
b. hypokalemia d. proteinuria

D 181. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents has a good penetrability into the cerebrospinal fluid?
a. streptomycin c. tobramycin e. cephalexin
b. gentamicin d. chloramphenicol

C 182. The scientist who can lay claim to the title of Father of Chemotherapy:
a. Robert Koch c. Paul Ehrlich e. Giuseppe Brotzu
b. Joseph Lister d. Alexander Fleming

A 183. Effective administration routes of nitroglycerin for angina pectoris include all of the following, except:
a. oral b. inravenous c. transdermal d. sublingual

A 184. This group is responsible for the bone marrow toxicity of chloramphenicol:
a. NO2 group c. OH group e. benzene group
b. NH2 group d. COOH group

D 185. Diazepam is used in the treatment of all of the following, except:


a. anxiety c. skeletal muscle spasm e. preoperative sedation
b. status epilepticus d. analgesia

E 186. Which is not true regarding ceftriaxone:


a. a 3rd generation cephalosporin c. administered parenterally e. resistant to acid
b. resistant to B-lactamase d. once daily dosing

B 187. All of the following substances are present in opium, except:


a. thebaine c. codeine e. papaverine
b. methadone d. morphine

B 188. An antipyretic aniline derivative with weak anti-inflammatory activity:


a. acetylsalicylic acid c. mefenamic acid e. sulindac
b. acetaminophen d. indomethacin

A 189. The most potent of the inhalation anesthetic agents:


a. methoxyflurane c. enflurane e. isoflurane
b. halothane d. nitrous oxide

C 190. Which of the following antineoplastics is not considered an antimetabolite?


a. methotrexate c. etoposide e. cytarabine
b. thioguanine d. fluorouracil

E 191. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the aminoglycoside antibiotics?
a. they are highly ionized in solution d. they are ototoxic and nephrotoxic
b. they are bactericidal e. they are easily absorbed after oral administration
c. they are more effective in alkaline medium
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A 192. Baclofen, a derivative of GABA is used in:
a. spasticity in patients with multiple sclerosis c. management of spasticity in rheumatic disorders
b. parkinsonism d. spasticity of cerebral palsy

C 193. Long term use of tetracyclines in pregnant women should be avoided due to several reasons. Which of these
is not true?
a. they chelate calcium ions
b. they may predispose to discoloration of deciduous teeth in the infant
c. they are toxic to the fetus and may cause abortion
d. they can cause yellow atrophy of the liver in the mother
e e. they get deposited in growing bones

A 194. All of the following antibiotics produce neuromuscular blockade, except:


a. ampicillin c. streptomycin e. amikacin
b. kanamycin d. neomycin

B 195. For the treatment of systemic mycosis, which of the following antifungal agents can be administered by
intravenous route?
a. miconazole c. ketoconazole e. nystatin
b. amphotericin B d. clioquinol

C 196. Which of the following agents is not used for local candidiasis?
a. nystatin c. griseofulvin e. clotrimazole
b. gentian violet d. miconazole

B 197. All of the following are effective and clinically useful against worm infestation caused by Ascaris
Lumbricoides, except:
a. piperazine c. mebendazole e. thiabendazole
b. niridazole d. pyrantel pamoate

C 198. A good local anesthetic should have all of the following properties, except:
a. systemic toxicity should be low
b. effective at body fluid pH
c. onset of anesthesia should be gradual and short duration of action to avoid toxicity
d. must be effective regardless of the site of application
e. not irritant to the tissue and should not cause any permanent structural damage to nerves

D 199. From the list given below, identify the drug possessing triad of features which includes antiamebic.
antigiardiasis, and antitrichomonal:
a. iodoquinol c. emetine e. piperazine
b. chloroquine d. metronidazole

A 200. Heparin is a/an:


a. extract of animal tissue c. metal e. enzyme
b. extract of plant d. hormone

B 201. Amongst the following, the drug of choice for acute attack of Plasmodium vivax malaria is:
a. amodiaquine c. primaquine e. mefloquine
b. chloroquine d. quinine

B 202. Drugs which act on erythrocytic cycle of malarial parasite:


a. will be effective for radical cure c. will not be clinically effective
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b. will be effective for suppressive prophylaxis d. will both be effective for prophylaxis and radical use

B 203. All statements regarding antipyretic analgesics are false, except:


a. produce fall in blood pressure c. develop drug dependence e. produce general CNS depression
b. raise the pain threshold d. relieve visceral pain

C 204. Drug of choice for ringworm infection is:


a. nystatin c. griseofulvin e. amphotericin B
b. ketoconazole d. neomycin

A 205. Acetaminophen is preferred over aspirin in following conditions, except:


a. rheumatic disease d. children with influenza
b. patients with peptic ulcer e. children with chicken pox
c. patients with bronchial asthma

A 206. Oral neomycin and streptomycin are used for sterilization of bowel and for dysentery because:
a. they are at least absorbed from oral route
b. the peak concentration in blood is achieved quickly
c. they are least toxic to GIT
d. they are destroyed by the gastric juice

D 207. Which of the following is the most appropriate statement about indomethacin?
a. it is a powerful analgesic only
b. it is a power anti-inflammatory only
c. it is only analgesic and anti-inflammatory without antipyretic effect
d. it is a powerful analgesic and anti-inflammatory agent with antipyretic and uricosuric actions
e. it is powerful antipyretic only

B 208. Which of the following is a depot penicillin preparation?


a. phenoxymethylpenicillin c. benzyl penicillin e. methicillin
b. benzathine penicillin d. cloxacillin

B 209. All of the following drugs interfere with platelet activity, except:
a. aspirin c. protamine e. anisindione
b. dimercaprol d. warfarin

C 210. 6-aminopenicillanic acid is:


a. major metabolite of penicillin
b. responsible for development of penicillin resistance
c. the common nucleus of all penicillins
d. a long-acting penicillin
e. minor metabolite of penicillin

A 211. Diphenoxylate, an effective antidiarrheal drug is:


a. related to meperidine c. a narcotic antagonist e. anticholinergic action
b. atropine-like drug d. a ganglion-blocking drug

E 212. Class I antiarrhythmic drugs result in decrease in heart rate of the accelerated heart and usually reduce the
rate of conduction of cardiac impulse. They include the following, except:
a.quinidine c. disopyramide e. amiodarone
b. procainamide d. phenytoin

B 213. Which of the following drugs does not reduce blood cholesterol level?
a. clofibrate c. destrothyroxine e. colestipol
b. epinephrine d. cholestyramine

D 214. Which of the following is the longest-acting nitrate?


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a. glyceryl trinitrate c. erythritol tetranitrate e. isosorbide dinitrate
b. amyl nitrite d. pentaerythritol tetranitrate

A 215. Which of the following is considered a primary drug for the treatment of all seizure types except absence?
a. carbamazepine c. valproic acid e. phenobarbital
b. ethosuximide d. diazepam

C 216. Which of the following penicillins is acid stable and therefore orally effective:
a. benzathine penicillin c. cloxacillin e. piperacillin
b. procaine penicillin d. tricarcillin

D 217. A monoamine oxidase inhibitor used as an antidepressant drug:


a. amitryptiline c. clozapine e. fluoxetine
b. thioridazine d. tranylcypromine

D 218. Which of the following is not used for topical application on external surfaces?
a. mafenide c. sodium sulfacetamide e. resorcinol
b. silver sulfadiazine d. sulfisoxazole

B 219. All of the following benzodiazepines are commonly used in the treatment of anxiety, except:
a. chlordiazepoxide c. alprazolam e. diazepam
b. clonazepam d. lorazepam

D 220. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents is not bactericidal?


a. carbenicillin c. cefuroxime e. vancomycin
b. gentamicin d. erythromycin

D 221. All of the following statements are true concerning the penicillins, except:
a. this class of antibacterials acts by damaging the cell walls of bacteria
b. piperacillin and ticarcillin have activity against Pseudomonas species
c. use of any penicillin is contraindicated in a patient who has had an allergic reaction to any one penicillin
d. they are obtained from the genus of Streptomyces
e. the addition of clavulanic acid to amoxicillin preparations protects the drug from penicillinase

B 222. In choosing a specific benzodiazepine for the treatment of insomnia, all of the following are considerations,
except:
a. age of the patient c. the half life of the drug
b. mental status of the patient d. the absorption of the drug
c. the underlying sleep disorder being treated

D 223. An antibiotic most commonly used in topical preparations:


a. clotrimazole c. griseofulvin e. foscarnet
b. vidarabine d. bacitracin

D 224. The preferred agent for hypertensive emergencies:


a. propranolol c. captopril e. sodium nitroprusside
b. clonidine d. diazoxide

C 225. Superior to acyclovir in the treatment of herpes viruses in the CNS in neonates:
a. idoxuridine c. vidarabine e. zidovudine
b. ribavirin d. amantadine

D 226. Which of the following bases is most susceptible to alkylating agents?


a. adenosine c. thymidine e. uridine
b. cytosine d. guanine

A 227. Vincristine is used primarily in the treatment of which of the following?


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a. Hodgkins disease c. liver cancer e. prostate cancer
b. lung cancer d. melanoma

B 228. For the treatment of systemic mycoses, which of the following antifungal agents can be administered by
intravenous route?
a. miconazole c. ketoconazole e. nystatin
b. amphotericin B d. clioquinol

E 229. Penicillin is the drug of choice for the following infective conditions, except:
a. gonococcal infection d. streptococcal infection
b. pneumococcal infection e. pseudomonal infection
c. treponema pallidum infection

B 230. All of the following drugs act as prodrugs and need to be converted in the body to active compound, except:
a. levodopa c. prednisone e. cyclophosphamide
b. salbutamol d. bacampicillin

C 231. Amongst the following the drug of choice for scabies is:
a. sulfur c. benzyl benzoate e. tannic acid
b. crotamiton d. amodiaquine

D 232. Sensitivity of gram negative bacilli to amoxicillin is due to its:


a. carboxyl group c. hydroxyl group e. carbonyl group
b. nitro group d. amino group

A 233. Bone marrow depression resulting in pancytopenia is the characteristic toxic effect of all the following
drugs, except:
a. oxytetracycline c. methotrexate e. dactinomycin
b. chloramphenicol d. mitomycin

C 234. The following antibiotic possess clinically useful antimalignant property, except:
a. mitomycin c. streptomycin e. plicamycin
b. bleomycin d. daunorubicin

A 235. This is the process utilized by Florey and Chain in isolating penicillin:
a. freeze-drying c. chromatography e. distillation
b. extraction d. x-ray

C 236. The metabolite of the red dye, prontosil, responsible for its antimicrobial property:
a. sulfisoxazole c. sulfanilamide e. sulfapyridine
b. sulfamethoxazole d. sulfacetamide

B 237. Which of the following antiviral agents is not useful for the treatment of herpes virus infection?
a. vidarabine c. trifluridine e. idoxuridine
b. interferon d. acyclovir

B 238. All of the following chemotherapeutic agents are useful for prophylaxis against infections caused by
specific microorganisms, except:
a. amantadine against influenza A virus d. tetracycline against rickettsial infection b.
chloramphenicol against typhoid fever e. pyrimethamine against malaria in endemic areas
c. isoniazid against tubercular infection

E 239. The therapeutic uses of amphetamines does not include which of the following:
a. in hyperkinetic children c. obesity e. hypertension
b. narcolepsy d. parkinsonism

B 240. Nitrous oxide, a general anesthetic agent, is characterized by all of the features of which of the following
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groups?
a. high potency, good analgesia, good skeletal muscle relaxation
b. low potency, good analgesia, poor skeletal muscle relaxation
c. high potency, poor analgesia, good skeletal muscle relaxation
d. high potency, good analgesia, poor skeletal muscle relaxation
e. low potency, good analgesia, good skeletal muscle relaxation

D 241. A drug receptor may be all of the following, except:


a. isolable enzyme c. protein or a nucleic acid
b. functional component of a cell membrane d. chelates

B 242. Mechanism of action of trimethoprim:


a. competitive inhibitor for the incorporation of PABA c. inhibits protein synthesis
b. folate reductase inhibitor d. destruction of bacterial cell wall

A 243. A drug molecule which possesses both intrinsic activity and affinity:
a. agonist b. antagonist c. poison d. none of the above

C 244. Chelating agent that is an effective antidote foe copper poisoning and used in the treatment of Wilsons
disease:
a. deferoxamine mesylate b. dimercaprol c. penicillamine d. EDTA

A 245. Which is not a chelating agent?


a. 8-Methoxyquinoline b. 8-Mercaptoquinoline c. 8-Hydroxyquinoline d. 4-AZA-Oxime

C 246. Dimercaprol is also known as:


a. BAL b. Dithioglycerol c. both a & b d. none of the above

A 247. Synthesized from dry hydrogen chloride and carbon monoxide at 300 degrees and 200 atm pressure:
a. tetrachloroethylene b. piperazine c. both d. none

B 248. Passive diffusion includes what drug?


a. Lipid soluble b. Lipid insoluble c. Amphoteric d. Hydrophilic

D 249. It is the tendency of the drug to combine with the receptor:


a. Efficacy b. Intrinsic activity c. Bonding d. Affinity

B 250. Brand name of Bisacodyl:


a. Gelusin MPX b. Dulcolax c. Haloperidol d. Fleet

B 251. Penicillin G
a. Methicillin b. Benzyl penicillin c. both d. none

A 252. Organo-Silicon polymers containing O and Si atoms with a substituent organic groups:
a. silicons b. alkynes c. esters d. ethers

D 253. A phenol primarily obtained from clove oil:


a. resorcinol b. cresol c. hexylresorcinol d. eugenol

D 254. Which of the following is used in the treatment of pernicious anemia?


a. thiamine b. niacin c. riboflavin d. cyanocobalamin

A 255. Classified as a macrolide antibiotic, except:


a. Bacitracin b. Erythromycin c. Spiramycin d. Oleandomycin
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C 256. A macrolide antibiotic which was found in the soil of Iloilo:
a. Achromycin b. Albamycin c. Erythromycin d. Viomycin

D 257. The following antimalarials are synthetic drugs, except:


a. Atabrine b. Aralen c. Camoquin d. Quinine

A 258. Polyene antibiotics for fungi:


a. amphotericin B c. ketoconazole e. both b & c
b. miconazole d. both a & b

C 259. Also known as solvent shift:


a. facilitated transport c. bulk transport e. none of the above
b. ion-pair transport d. passive diffusion

D 260. Externally, ethyl alcohol is employed as:


a. refrigerant b. rubefacient c. astringent d. all of the above

C 261. Carbonic acid gas:


a. oxygen c. carbon dioxide e. helium
b. nitrogen d. ammonia

A 262. For patients allergic to penicillins, this drug is used as alternative:


a. erythromycin c. aureomycin e. none of the above
b. spectinomycin d. lincomycin

A 263. These anti-diarrheals trap the toxins and flushes them out of your system:
a. adsorbents b. anti-motility agents c. astringents d. oral rehydration salts

A 264. Drug of choice for urinary tract infections:


a. co-trimoxazole b. gentamicin c. naprofen d. all of the above

C 265. Voltaren:
a. tolmetin b. sulindac c. diclofenac d. piroxicam

C 266. The chemical name of Phenethicillin:


a. Benzyl penicillin c. Phenoxyethyl penicillin
b. Phenoxymethyl penicillin d. Phenoxypropyl penicillin

C 267. The following are the uses of methylene blue, except:


a. antidote for cyanide poisoning c. antidote for barbiturate poisoning
b. antidote for nitrate poisoning d. none of the above

B 268. Mechanism of action of this anti-tubercular agent is to inhibit protein synthesis:


a. PZA b. Streptomycin c. INH d. Ethambutol

A 269. Compounds that result from a combination of electron donors with a metal ion to form a ring structure:
a. chelates b. ligands c. both d. none

A 270. Transport of drug molecules from the site of administration to the systemic circulation:
a. absorption c. metabolism e. toxicology
b. adsorption d. excretion

D 271. Methylsalicylate is also known as :


a. toothache drop b. oil of Jasmine c. oil of rose d. oil of wintergreen

B 272. Agents that facilitate the evacuation of bowels:


a. anti-motility agents c. astringents e. none of the above
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b. cathartics d. antacids

C 273. Absolute alcohol is commercially prepared by:


a. direct distillation b. fermentation c. azeotropic distillations d. none

B 274. Nubain:
a. meperidine c. methadone e. pentazocine
b. nalbuphine d. fentanyl

D 275. Kaopectate:
a. activated charcoal c. Oresol e. atropine sulfate
b. attaulgite d. kaolin + pectin

A 276. The least stable of all vitamins:


a. ascorbic acid c. thiamine e. menadione
b. folic acid d. retinoic acid

C 277. A change in structure of isoniazid causes:


a. an increase in the potency of the drug c. decrease in the potency of the drug
b. an increase in the duration of drug action d. none of the above

C 278. The most toxic vitamin:


a. folic acid c. retinoic acid e. pyridoxine
b. pantothenic acid d. thiamine

B 279. Major organ for excretion:


a. liver c. skin e. none of the above
b. kidney d. small intestines

B 280. Generic name of Benadryl AH:


a. guaiafenesin b. diphenhydramine c. apomorphine d. benzonatate
a
A 281. A bright red dye that was found to create remarkable cures of streptococcal infections:
a. prontosil b. methyl red c. both d. none

C 282. Halazone is a/an:


a. iodophor d. oxidizing agent
b. mercury containing anti-infective e. none of the above
c. chlorine containing anti-infective
E 283. Drug of choice for leprosy:
a. rifampicin c. prothionamide e. dapsone
b. ethonamide d. clofazimine

B 284. The metabolic function of niacin:


a. decarboxylation c. differentiation of epithelial tissues
b. redox reactions d. maturation of erythrocytes

B 285. Sunshine vitamin:


a. A b. D c. E d. K

B 286. The following are fat-soluble vitamins, except:


a. A b. B2 c. D d. E e. K

C 287. In terms of pH, aspirin is absorbed in the:


a. mouth c. stomach e. rectum
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b. small intestines d. large intestines

B 288. Therapeutic gas used as a gas diluent/carrier:


a. oxygen b. helium c. nitrogen d. carbon dioxide

D 289. The following drugs are extensively metabolized in the liver, except:
a. Isoproterenol b. Propranolol c. Lidocaine d. Paracetamol

C 290. A dye used in vital nerve staining:


a. malachite green b. gentian violet c. methylene blue d. basic fuchsin

D 291. The excretion of weakly basic drug will be more rapid in acidic urine than in basic urine because:
a. all drugs are excreted more rapidly in acidic urine
b. the drug will exist primarily in the unionized form, which cannot easily be reabsorbed
c. weak bases cannot be reabsorbed from the kidney tubules
d. the drug will exist primarily in the ionized form, which cannot be easily reabsorbed

A 292. Superinfection is common with:


a. antibiotics which are given parenterally c. those which suppress the normal bacterial flora
b. those which are used for prolonged period d. those which are given as a depot preparation

A 293. A potentially fatal aplastic anemia is a toxicity associated with:


a. chloramphenicol b. nitrofurantoin c. clindamycin d. cephalothin

C 294. Which is not true for cephalosporins?


a. broad spectrum b. bactericidal c. affected by penicillinases d. acid-stable

D 295. Bactrim and Septrim are trade names for a fixed-dose combination of:
a. sulfamethizole and trimethoxazole c. sulfamethoxazole and phenazopyridine
b. sulfisoxazole and methenamine d. sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim

C 296. Which of the following is most likely to cause tinnitus and hearing loss in high doses?
a. ibuprofen b. phenylbutazone c. acetylsalicylic acid d. indomethacin

B 297. Pharmacologic effects of the classic antihistamines include all of the following, except:
a. sedation with low doses c. an antipruritic effect
b. inhibition of gastric acid secretion d. drying of salivary and bronchial secretion

A 298. An example of a commercial product that is pro-drug:


a. Lasix b. Geocillin c. Morphine d. Valium

B 299. All of the following statements are correct, except:


a. sulfonamides increase the risk of neonatal kernicterus
b. ketoconazole penetrates into the CSF
c. metronidazole is effective against Enterobacter histolytica
d. mebendazole is the drug of choice in the treatment of whipworm infections

B 300. Large overdose of acetaminophen are likely to cause:


a. tinnitus b. hepatic necrosis c. agranulocytosis d. renal tubular acidosis