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HEMATOLOGY

1. Variation in shapes of RBC: Poikilocytosis 27. Cooper Cruick Shank method is for: Absolute
2. Variation in sizes of RBC: Anisocytosis Basophil Count
3. Leukoerythroblastosis is not associated with 28. Result of PT & PTT mixing studies: mixed plasma
______: Erythroblastosis fetalis (HDN) is normal, after 1-2 hrs it is prolonged, suggestive
4. Procedure employs blood w/ EDTA diluted with of : Presence of FVIII inhibitor
0.105 M NaCitrate or NSS: Modified Westergren 29. Lab findings of DIC: (increase D-dimer,
5. What is the T-cell growth factor and mast cell increase PT/PTT, decrease platelet count)
activating factor effect in stimulating erythroid 30. Conjugated protein serves as a vehicle of oxygen
and myeloid proliferation: Interleukin-9 or IL-9 and carbon dioxide: Hemoglobin
6. Largest of all hematopoietic stem cells: Polyploid 31. Absorbance of spectrophotometer for
megakaryocyte determining Hgb using HCN: 540nm
7. Which among RBC has figure of 8, loop shaped: 32. Quantitative measure of Carboxy Hgb: Either
Cabot rings (Differential spectrophotometer, gas
8. Which among cells is the earliest erythroid chromatography)
recognizable precursor: pronormoblast 33. Problem solving: memorize corrected WBC count
9. Which of the ff mononuclear cells are w/o specific 34. Young cells w/ residual RNA polychromatophilic
cytoplasmic granules: Lymphocytes RBC in air dried film stained with __?: Brilliant
10. Which ff cell is larger than monocyte w/ irregular Cresyl Blue and New Methylene Blue
cell membrane with blunts and pseudopods: 35. Bilobed structure which recognized by size and
Megakaryoblasts bright red granules: Eosinophil
11. Common precursor for granulocytes, monocytes, 36. Abundant blue cytoplasm, eccentric round
erythrocytes and megakaryocytes: Myeloid stem nucleus w/ light vacuoles w/ well defined golgi
cells zone adjacent to nucleus: Plasma Cell
12. Rbc thinner than normal, peripheral rim of 37. 1 g of Hgb carries ___ mg of Iron: 3.47
hemoglobin w/ dark Hgb containing area: 38. Reveals pancytopenia, decrease hematopoietic
Leptocytes cell lines resulting to low all blood levels:
13. Disintegrating RBC: Schistocytes Aplastic Anemia
14. Cell that has deep purple and paler nucleus which 39. Genetically impairment of globin synthesis:
often nearly hidden by granules: Basophils Thallasemia
15. Last nucleated cell: Orthochromic Normoblast 40. Which of the ff also called CSF-1: Monocyte
16. Hematopoietic stem cells also known as CFU-GEM macrophage CSF
expresses: CD34/CD33 41. Fastest Hgb at pH 8.4 in alkaline medium: HbH
17. Promotes differentiation and maturation of 42. Hgb not denatured by alkaline solution: HbF
megakaryocytes: Thrombopoietin 43. Variety of Acute leukemia predominant blasts
18. Large cell w/ single eccentric nucleus has reticular cannot classify using morphologic, cytochemical,
chromatin and prominent nucleolus: Osteoblast ultrastructural and immunologic or DNA analysis:
19. Nutritional deficiency of Cobalamine, due to Acute undifferentiated Leukemia
failure of gastric mucosa produce intrinsic factors: 44. Normal value of reticulated platelet count: 3-20%
Pernicious Anemia 45. Term used if RBC is hypochromic and
20. During fetal life, all Rbc produce HbF, in adults, normochromic: Anisochromia
0.2-7% are HbF: TRUE 46. This are the Pro-Tcell markers except? CD3, CD 7,
21. Reticulocytopenia and ABN RBC are primary CD2, CD17
findings, ABN granulocyte are rare and less than 47. Which of the ff refers to total red cell mass:
1% blast cells: Refractory Anemia absolute polycythemia vera
22. Acute Myelocytic Leukemia seen in: M4 48. Normal Retic count at birth? 3-7%
23. Earliest Thrombopoiesis w/ overlapping lobe and 49. Not required for RBC production: Folic Acid, Iron,
small amount of basophilic cytoplasm: Protein or Vitamin E
Megakaryoblast 50. Rare autosomal dominant shows pale blue
24. Degrades fibrin clot and retract fibrinogen forms inclusion resembling Dohle bodies: May Hegglin
FDP: Plasmin Anomaly
25. Content of eosinophilic specific granules toxic to 51. Autosomal dominant that failure normal
parasite that neutralize heparin and release segmentation of neutrophils: Pelger Huet
histamine: Major Basic Protein Anomaly
26. Pathway using 2,3-BPG: Rapaport-Luebering 52. AML w/ minimal differentiation: M0
Shunt
53. A molecule of Hgb is consist of ___ polypeptide 74. Use to connote the appearance of neoplastic cell
chain: 2 w/ non-hodgkins lymphoma: lymphosarcoma
54. A mixture of oxidized denatured Hgb during cell leukemia
oxidative hemolysis: SulfHgb 75. This altered of immune response against host
55. Principle involved in automated counting: own immune system that produce Antibody
Electric Impedance against itself: AutoImmune Hemolytic Anemia
56. Measures fibrin clot from activation of F7 to fibrin 76. Useful in identifying w/ Beta-Thalassemia trait
stabilizing clot: PT that elevated upto 7%: HbA2
57. Lymphoreticular neoplasm involved in skin: 77. Chronic progressive panmyelosis characterized
mycosis fungoides by triad findings vary in fibrosis in the marrow,
58. Global test adequacy of primary hemostasis: splenomegaly and leukoerythroblastic anemia:
template BT Myelofibrosis w/ myeloid metaplasia
59. Activator that initiates the fibrinolysis and convert 78. Sensitive test in folate or cobalamine deficiency.
plasminogen to plasmin: t-PA Measures ability of marrow cells in vitro to utilize
60. Primary test in diagnosis of hairy cell leukemia:
deoxyuridine in DNA synthesis: deoxyuridine
ACP
suppression test
61. Decrease function of F2, 7, 10 (Protein C, Protein
79. Life span of basophil in bone marrow: 7 days
S): warfarin 80. Hematopoiesis begins at the 6th week of fetal life:
62. Prolonged pt and normal ptt seen in patients with
Liver
deficiencies in which factor in intrinsic factor: 81. Majority of iron bound to _____ which has capacity
F8,9, 11, 12 to bind 331 mg of iron/dl: Transferrin
63. Prolonged pt and normal ptt seen in patients with 82. Abnormal RBC due to abnormal radium potassium
deficiencies in which factor in extrinsic factor: F7 ratio in the RBC: Stomatocytes
64. Cofactor of required in activation of F2 by 83. F8 deficiency: Hemophilia A
activated F8: F5 84. Average concentration HgB in a given RBC:
65. Diluting fluid in platelet count in phase contrast: MCHC
1%NH4Oxalate 85. Not considered myeloproliferative disorder: AML
66. In phase contrast microscope, how many squares 86. Cytokines produced by macrophages and kupffer
in platelets in improved neubauer: 25 small cell: IL-18
squares 87. HgB constituent that may degraded and return to
67. Light angle scatter in laser-based cell counting amino acid pool: Globin
chamber is used to measure: cytoplasmic 88. Last stage of granulocytic that capable of mitosis:
granularity Myelocyte
68. Patients with infectious mononucleosis, this blood 89. Production of azurophilic granules:
cell is infected: B-lymphocyte Promyelocyte
69. Inhibits factor 2,9,7,11,10, enhances the activity 90. Water soluble complex of ferric salt and protein:
of anti-thrombin as natural anticoagulant: Ferritin
Heparin 91. Platelet survival: 8-11 days(in vivo) 3-5
70. Which of the ff not function of spleen as days(in vitro)
hematopoietic origin: secretion of mitogen 92. Provides initial hemostasis due to injury: platelet
71. Immature non-nucleated RBC with RNA granules: plug
Reticulocytes 93. Condition of panmyelosis with increase
72. Not associated with sickle cell: promotes spleen megakaryocytes, granulocytes, erythrocytes:
destruction Polycythemia vera
73. Tissue extract with phospholipid and tissue factor 94. General measure in intrinsic and common
that activates F7 in extrinsic pathway: pathway: PTT
thromboplastin 95. General measure in extrinsic and common
pathway: PT
96. An 18- Kda produce by activated T-cell and mast
cell: IL-4
MICROBIOLOGY

1. Cell wall that has large amount lipids: 24. Which of the ff cause Lyme Disease: Borrelia
Mycobacterium burgdorferi
2. Characteristic of lactose (-) citrate (-) urease (-), 25. Using Loefflers methylene blue, it shows various
non motile, lysine decarboxylase (-): Shigella letter shapes and metachromatic granules, it is
dysenteriae most likely: Corynebacterium sp.
3. Primary test to differentiate S. aureus and S. 26. Which Clostridium sp. Can cause
epidermidis: Coagulase Test pseudomembranous colitis: C. difficile
4. Helicobacter pylori is associated with: ulcer of 27. Antimicrobial susceptibility test for anaerobes:
gastric mucosa Microtube broth dilution
5. Campylobacter is associated with: 28. Mycobacterium that can grown in MacConkey
gastroenteritis Agar: M. chelonae-fortuitum complex
6. Pulmonary form of anthrax is known as: 29. Bacitracin test is susceptible which group of
Woolsorters Disease streptococcus: Group A
7. Eatons Agent is another name of what genus: 30. Mycobacterial catalase test differs from catalase
Mycoplasma pneumonia test from S. aureus as it uses the reagent: 30%
8. Organism loss of ability to synthesize H2O2
peptidoglycan cell wall: L-form 31. Which of the ff is best rapid non cultural test for
9. Freis Test is for: Lymphogranuloma venereum G. vaginalis with vaginosis: 10% KOH
10. Method of typing Klebsiella is use in clinical lab: 32. Sulfone-Dapsone Test used to treat: Leprosy
K antigen 33. Concentration of Ca and Mg in susceptibility
11. Susceptible in ethylhydrocupreine HCl is test for: medium is significant when testing the
Streptococcus pneumoniae susceptibility of P. aeruginosa to: Gentamicin
12. Species that is soluble to Na-Desoxycholate: 34. Which antibiotic has cell wall inhibition:
Streptococcus pneumonia Vancomycin
13. Positive to gelatin reaction: Serratia 35. Which antibiotic act inhibit protein synthesis:
liquefaciens Gentamicin
14. Positive to malonate reaction: Enterobacter 36. Heat shocking of an original culture may be
aerogenes needed for the recovery of : Anaerobic
15. Species that have buff(light brown) colony: sporeforming G(+) bacilli
Flavobacterium meningosepticum 37. Corynebacterium diphtheriae is: either
16. Strains of Mycoplasma that produce small toxigenic or non-toxigenic
colonies required urea and cholesterol for 38. Listeria monocytogenes is: catalase +, motile,
growth: T-strain VP +, dont produce acid from mannitol
17. Selective medium in recovery of Vibrio cholera 39. Confirmation of diagnosis of diphtheria, it is
from stool: TCBS and alkaline peptone water essential to: demonstrate toxin production
18. Voges-Proskauer test detects which end product 40. Pasteurization is process of in which: total
of glucose fermentation: acetoin bacterial count is lowered by heating at 62
19. pH where methyl red test is +: pH 4.5 degree Celsius for 30 mins.
20. Genera that is positive to Phenylalanine 41. Paper strip for H2S producer is impregnated with:
Deaminase: Morganella, Proteus, Lead acetate
Providencia 42. Flagellar staining technique: Leifson
21. Media used to isolate Brucella for blood and bone 43. Porphyrin test is for identification of:
marrow as specimen: Biphasic-Castaneda Haemophilus sp.
with Brucella broth 44. Selective Enrichment broth: Selenite broth
22. Agent for conjunctivitis or known as pink eye: 45. Positive result of Arylsulfatase: Red
Hemophilus influenzae biotype III 46. Infectious jaundice is one symptoms of Weil
23. Majority of H. influenza infection are caused by Disease : leptospirosis
capsular serotype: b 47. Infectious body of Chlamydia: Elementary body
48. Which of the ff grow in artificial medium: 74. UTI in old women: Staph. Saprophyticus
Rickettsia typhi, Chlamydia trachomata, R. 75. Differentiate of Thayer martin medium and
rickettsii, Rochalimaea Quintana Modified Thayer: Nystatin
49. Chlamydospore structures seen in: Coccidiodes, 76. Propionibacteria is: Aerobes gram + rods
Mucor, Microspores, Candida albicans 77. Viruses contain: either DNA or RNA
50. Fungi where mycelium lacks septaceous portion 78. German measles: Rubeola
79. The ff specimen is acceptable for microbiology
is: Coccidiodes, Trichophyton, Phizopus, Candida
culture: with swab and specimen with
sp.
51. Fungi of dermataceous can be obtain from skin catheter
80. Grape-like microconidia: Trichophyton
by what method: scrap tissue from the
mentagrophytes
infected area
81. Media for pigment development for T. rubrum:
52. Germ tube test +: Candida albicans
53. Fungi grows into 2 different forms: Dimorphic Cornmeal agar
82. Transport medium for Neisseria gonorrhea
fungi
83. Most important cause of respiratory viral infection
54. All genera are dermatophytes except:
in children: Influenza, Parainfluenza, human
Sporothrix
55. Presence of encapsulated fungi in CSF: papilloma virus, respiratory syncitial virus
84. Among this bacteria, which is least biochemically
Cryptococcus neoformans
56. Common is Gardeners or Rose Fever: Sporothrix reactive of Enterobacteriacea: Shigella
57. Tissue phase of Paracoccidiodes braziliense is: 85. ff specimen accepted for anaerobic: gastric
yeast cell with multipolar budding around washings, midstream urine, stool, aspiration
the periphery biopsy
58. Chickenpox: Varicella Zoster virus 86. each of the ff antibiotic is use to isolate
59. Human herpes Type6: Roseola pathologic fungi from contaminants: penicillin-
60. When should pregnant women concern in Rubella streptomycin, vancomycin-nystatin,
infection: 1st trimester cycloheximide-chloramphenicol, nystatin-
61. Steps involved in replication of virus except: streptomycin
Mitosis 87. quality control in monitor reagent in antibiotic
62. Kopliks spot: Measles disk is: container first open, once a week, once a
63. Quellung Reaction: Capsule month
64. In bacterial growth, growth ceases, while toxic 88. gram () anaerococcus seen as red fluorescence
products accumulated in: stationary phase under UV light: veilonella, neisseria,
65. Which of the ff Quality control for dry heat oven:
fusobacterium, peptococcus
B. subtilis v. niger 89. tubular cells of human kidney shed this virus:
66. Iodophores compose of iodine and: detergents
EBV, CMV, adenovirus, rubella
67. Ordinary NH4disinfectants are easily inactivated
90. intracellular inclusion of epithelial cells of urine of
by: organic material
infants w/ symptoms jaundice, neurologic defects,
68. Which of the ff is not G(-): Peptococcus,
low birth rate: EBV infection, CMV infection,
Salmonella, Branhamella, Aeromonas
69. Which of the ff is not anaerobe: Veilonella, Variola virus, Rubella virus
91. HBV and HIV are similar in: nucleic acid
Fusobacterium, actinomyces, Campylobacter
70. Most abundant normal flora in throat cultures: composition, mode of transmission, cross-reacting
Alpha hemolytic Streptococcus ag, reqd of reverse transcriptase
71. Most common pathogen in throat cultures: 92. Scalp infection in children are from this epidemic
Group A streptococcus ringworm: trichophyton, dermaphitus,
72. Staphylococcal protein A coated with Antiserum microsporum gypseum, microsporum aldonei
is used which of ff sero test in CSF: 93. Concentration methods for AFBS: digestion of
Coagglutination bleach, centrifugation, digestive of mucus alkali,
73. Using sheep blood agar, it eliminates beta AOTA
hemolytic: Hemophilus 94. + toxic subs for niacin test: Cyanogen bromide