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Sri Chaitanya Educational Institutions., India.

A.P, TELANGANA, KARNATAKA, TAMILNADU, MAHARASHTRA, DELHI, RANCHI

A right Choice for the Real Aspirant

Zonal Office, Marathahalli Bangalore


58. Which of the following drugs are broad spectrum antibiotics

a) Chloramphenicol b) vancomycin

c) Ofloxacin d) all of these

59. Antiseptic drug from the following is

a) Boric acid b) SO2

c) 0.2 ppm Cl2 in aqueous solution d) All of these

60. Incorrect statement from the following

a) Drugs with common structural features may have similar pharmacological activity

b) Drugs with common structural features may have the same mechanism of action on targets.

c) Drugs interact with biomolecules.

d) Carrier proteins carry non-polar molecules across the cell membrane

73. Coordination compounds have great importance in biological system. In this context which of
the following statements is incorrect

a) Chlorophylls are green pigments in plants and contain calcium

b) Carboxypeptidase-A is an enzyme and contains zinc

c) Cyanocobalaminis B12 and contain cobalt

d) Haemoglobin is the red pigment of blood and contains iron

74. Chloramphenicol is an

a) antifertility drug b) antihistamine


c) antiseptic and disinfectant d) broad spectrum antibiotic

75. Functional groups in aspirin are

a) Carboxylic acid b) ester

c) alcohol d) a and b

76. Norethindrone is an example of

a) synthetic testosterone b) synthetic progestrone derivative

c) preservative d) dye

77. Morphine is used as an

a) Antipyritic b) antiseptic c) Analgesic d) Insecticide

78. Which of the following will not enhance nutritional value of food?

a) Minerals b) Artificial sweeteners

c) Vitamins d) Aminoacids

79. Microbes can be killed by using

a) Penicillin b) Tetracycline

c) Chloramphenicol d) Vancomycin

80. The drug that is effective in the treatment of typhoid is

a) novalgin b) quinine

c) chloramphenicol d) paracetamol

81. Phenol is used as

a) an antiseptic b) a disinfectant c) Both(a) and(b) d) a styptic

82. Which of the following doesnt provide any calories and stable even at cooking

temperature ?

a) Surcose b) Sucrolose c) Aspartame d) Sodium benzoate


83. Most commonly used salt type preservative

a) vegetable oil b) sodium benzoate

c) sorbic acid d) sugar

84. Which of the following statements is not correct.

a) Some antiseptics can be added to soaps.

b) Dilute solutions of some disinfectants can be used as antiseptic.

c) Disinfectants are antimicrobial drugs.

d) Antiseptic medicines can be ingested.

85. Salvarsan is arsenic containing drug which was first used for the treatment

a) syphilis b) typhoid c) meningitis d) dysentery

86. A narrow spectrum antibiotic is active against _______________.

a) gram positive or gram negative bacteria.

b) gram negative bacteria only.

c) single organism or one disease.

d) both a and c

87. Equanil is __________.

a) artificial sweetener b) tranquilizer

c)antihistamine d) antifertility drug

88. Which of the following enhances leathering property of soap?

a) Sodium carbonate b) Sodium rosinate

c) Sodium stearate d)Trisodium phosphate


89. Glycerol is added to soap. It functions ______________.

a) as a filler. b) to increase leathering.

c) to prevent rapid drying. d) to make soap granules.

90. Which of the following is not a target molecule for drug function in body?

a) Carbohydrates b) Lipids c) Vitamins d) Proteins

58) D 59) A 60) D

73) A 74) D 75) D

76) B 77) C 78) B 79) A 80) C 81) C 82) B 83) B 84) D 85) A

86) A 87) B 88) B 89) C 90) c


175. Carnallite is an example of

a) mixed salt b) complex salt c) basic salt d) double salt

176. Histamine causes

a) Allergic response to pollen

b) Secreation of acid in stomach

c) Nasal congestion

d) All the above

177. More sweeteners among the following

a) Aspartame b) Saccharin c) Sucralose d) Alitame

178. The following antibiotic is Bacteriostatic

a) Erythromycin b) Amoxycillin c) Boric acid d) Tincture of iodine

179. Shaving soaps give extensive lather due to

a) sodium rosinate b) Na2CO3

c) Borax d) Glycerol

180. Which of the following drugs is a tranquilizer and sedative?

a) Sulphadiazine b) Papaverine c) Equanil d) Mescaline


175) D 176) D 177) D 178) A 179) A 180) C
121. Which of the following reagents cannot distinguish between glucose and fructose?

1) Tollens reagent 2) Fehlings solution

3) Benedicts solution 4) all of these

122. Which of the following pairs form the same osazone?

1) Glucose and fructose 2) Glucose and galactose

3) Glucose and arabinose 4) Lactose and maltose

123. Glucose and galactose are

1) anomers 2) C2 -epimers 3) C3 -epimers 4) C4 -epimers

124. How many different dipeptides can be made from glycine and alanine?

1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 6

125. Which of the following sets consists only of essential amino acids?

1) Alanine , tyrosine , cysteine 2) Leucine, Lysine, tryptophan

3) Alanine, glutamine, lysine 4) Leucine, proline, glycine

126. Which of the following is an example of a non reducing sugar?

1) Sucrose 2) Lactose 3) galactose 4) cellobiose

127. Raffinose on hydrolysis gives

1) Glucose 2) fructose 3)galactose 4)all the above

128. Which of the following is not an oligosaccharide?

1) Xylose 2)Maltose 3) Raffinose 4)sucrose

129. Among the following achiral amino acid is


1) ethylalanine 2) methylglycine
3)2-hydroxymethylserine 4) tryptophan
130. Which base is found only in nucleotides of RNA
1) Adenine 2) Uracil 3) Guanine 4) cytosine
131. Which is correct statement.
1) Starch is a polymer of glucose
2) Amylose is a component of cellulose
3) Proteins are compounds of only one type of amino acids.
4) All of these
132. Which of the following monosaccharides is a pentose?
1) Glucose 2) Fructose 3) Arabionose 4) Galactose
133. Heterocyclic amino acid among the following is:
1) Lysine 2) Tyrosine 3) Proline 4) Serine
134. The sugar which is not a disaccharide in the following is:
1) Lactose 2) galactose 3) Sucrose 4) Maltose
135. Purine derivative in the following bases is:
1) guanine 2) Cytosine 3) Thymine 4) uracil
136. Which of the following is an example of ketohexose?
1) mannose 2) galactose 3) maltose 4) fructose
137. Methyl -D-glucoside and methyl- -D-glucoside are pairs of:

1) epimers 2) anomers 3)enantiomers 4) diastereomers.


138. Which of the following bases is not present in D.N.A?
1) Uracil 2) Adenine 3) Thymine 4) Guamine
139. Fructose reduces Tollens reagent due to
1) Asymmetric carbons
2) Primary alcoholic group
3) Secondary alcoholic group
4) Enolisation of fructose followed by conversion to aldehyde by base.
140. Which one of the following sets of monosaccharides forms sucrose?
1) D-galactopyranose and -D- glucopyranose
2) -D-glucopyranose and - D-fructofuranose

3) -D-glucopyranose and -D- fructofuranose

4) -D-glucopyranose and -D- fructofuranose

141. Which one of the following statements is correct?


1) All amino acids are optically active.
2) All amino acids except glycine are optically active.
3) All amino acids except glutamic acid are optically active.
4) All amino acids except lysine are optically active.
142. Which of the following compounds can be detected by Molischs test?
1) Sugars 2) Amines
3) Primary alcohols 4) Nitro compounds
143. Muta rotation does not occur in:
1) Sucrose 2) D-glucose 3) L-glucose 4) none of these
144. Which of the following represents a peptide chain?
H
N C N C NH C NH

O H O
1)
H H
N C C C C N C C C

2) O

H H H O
N C C N C C N C C

3) O O

H
N C C C N C C N C C C
O H H O
4)
145. The sequence in which the alpha amino acids are linked to one another in a protein molecule is
called its

1) primary structure 2) secondary structure

3) tertiary structure 4) quaternary structure

146. The helical structure of protein is stabilized by

1) dipeptide bonds 2) hydrogen bonds

3) ether bonds 4) peptide bonds

147. Secondary structure of proteins refers to


1) mainly denatured proteins and structure of prosthetic group

2) three dimensional structure, especially the bond between amino acid residue that are distant
from each other in the polypeptide chain

3) linear sequence of amino acid residues in the polypeptide chain

4) regular folding patterns of continuous portions of the polypeptide chain

148. The hormone which controls the processes of burning of fats, proteins and carbohydrates to
liberate energy in the body is

1) cortisone 2) adrenaline 3) thyroxine 4) insulin

149. The human body does not produce

1) enzymes 2) DNA 3) vitamins 4) hormones

150. In nucleic acids, the nucleotides are linked to one another through

1) hydrogen bond 2) peptide bond

3) glycosidic linkage 4) phosphate groups

151. In an amino acid, the carboxyl group ionizes at Pka 2.34 and ammonium ion at Pka 9.60 ,
1 2

The isoelectric point of the amino acid is at pH

1) 5.97 2) 2.34 3) 9.60 4) 6.97

152. How many different dipeptides can be made from glycine and alanine?

1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 6

153. Which of the following acids is a vitamin?

1) Aspartic acid 2) Ascorbic acid

3) Adipic acid 4)Saccharic acid

154. Which of the following B group vitamins can be stored in our body?

1) Vitamin B1 2) Vitamin B2 3) Vitamin B6 4) Vitamin D

155. Nucleic acids are called acids mainly because of the presence of

1) - COOH group 2) OH group of sugar unit

3) OH group of the heterocyclic base 4) OH group of phosphate unit


156. Mark the wrong statement about denaturation of proteins

1) The primary structure of protein does not change

2) Globular proteins are converted into fibrous proteins

3) Fibrou sproteins are converted into Globular proteins

4) Biological activity of the protein is not cancelled

157. Which of the following is used as transquillizer drug

1) Mifepristone 2) Promethazine

3) Valium 4) Naproxen

158. Bartituric acid and its derivatives are well known as

1) transquillizers 2) antiseptics

3) analgesics 4) antipyretics

159. An important mood booster drug is

1) iproniazid 2) morphine diacetate

3) sulphanilamide 4) pronotosil

160. Which of the following is not an artificial sweetener?


1) Sucrolose 2) Alitame 3) Saccharin 4) Sucrose
161. Terfenadine is commonly used as a/an
1) tranquilliser 2) antihistamine
3) antimicrobial 4) antifertility drug
162. Receptors are proteins which

1) carry polar molecules across the cell membranes

2) carry message between two neurons or between neurons and muscles

3) carry genetic information from one cell to the other

4) act as structural materials for the cell membrane

163. Which of the following is not a constituent of sleeping pills?

1) Equanil 2) Diphenylhydramine

3) Seconal 4) Luminal
164. The detergent used in hair conditioner is

1) CH 3 (CH 2 )15 N (CH 3 )3 Cl 2) CH3 (CH 2 )15 NH 2

3) CH 3 CH 2 15 NHCH 3 4) CH 3 CH 2 15 N CH 3 2

165. Which one of the following is not a surfactant?

CH3
+
CH3-(CH2)15-N-CH3Br-

CH3
1) 2) CH3 (CH 2 )14 CH 2 NH 2

3) CH3 CH 2 16 CH 2OSO2 Na 4) OHC CH 2 14 CH 2 COO Na

166. Polyethyleneglycols are used in the preparation of which type of detergents

1) cationic detergents 2) anionic detergents

3) non-ionic detergents 4) soaps

167. Sulpha drugs are derivatives of

1) benzenesulphonic acid 2) sulphanilic acid

3) sulphanilamide 4) p-Aminobenzonic acid

168. Among the following, narcotic analgesis is

1) ibuprofen 2) morphine 3) aspirin 4) naproxen

169. Which of the following is not metabolized in the body?

1) Sucrose 2) D-Glucose 3) L-Glucose 4) Aspartame

170. The artificial sweetener used in soft drinks is

1) glycylglycine methyl eter

2) phenylalanylaspartic acid methyl ester

3) aspartylphnylalanine methyl ester

4) phenylalanylphenyalanine methyl ester

171. Which of the following is broad spectriym bacteriostatic antibiotic?


1) Tetracycline 2) Pencillin

3) Streptomycin 4) Ofloxacin

172. Compound which is added to soap to impart antiseptic properties is

1) sodium lauryl sulphate 2) sodium dodecylbenzenesulphonate

3) rosin 4) bithional

173. Which of the following is/are neurologically active drug/s?

1) Aspirin 2) Phenelzine 3) Heroin 4) All the three

174. A codon has a sequence A and specifies a particular B that is to be incorporated into C.
What are A, B and C?

A B C

1) 3 bases amino acid carbohydrates

2) 3 acids carbohydrate protein

3) 3 bases protein amino acid

4) 3 bases amino acid protein

175. In DNA, the complimentary bases are:

1) Adenine and thymine; guanine and uracil

2) Adenine and guanine; thymine and cytosine

3) Uracil and adenine; cytosine and quinine

4) Adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine

176. Which of the following contains cobalt?

1) Vita min B12 2) Vitamin A 3) Vitamin C 4) Vitamin K

177. The deficiency of vitamin C causes

1) scurvy 2) rickets 3) pyrrohea 4) pernicious anaemia

178. The pH value of the solution in which a particular amino acid does not migrate under the
influence of an electric field is called the

1) eutectic point 2) flash point

3) neutralisastion point 4) isoelectric point


179. The pentose sugar in DNA and RNA has the

1) open chain structure 2) pyranose structure

3) furanose structure 4) none of the above

180. Which of the following compounds is responsible of the transimission of heredity characters?

1) RNA 2) DNA 3) Glucose 4) Haemoglobin

121) 4 122) 1 123) 4 124) 3 125) 2 126) 1 127) 4 128) 1 129) 3 130) 2

131) 1 132) 3 133) 3 134) 2 135) 1 136) 4 137) 2 138) 1 139) 4 140) 2

141) 2 142) 1 143) 1 144) 3 145) 1 146) 2 147) 4 148) 4 149) 3 150) 4

151) 1 152) 3 153) 2 154) 4 155) 4 156) 4 157) 3 158) 1 159) 1 160) 4

161) 2 162) 2 163) 2 164) 1 165) 2 166) 3 167) 3 168) 2 169) 4 170) 2

171) 1 172) 4 173) 4 174) 4 175) 4 176) 1 177) 1 178) 4 179) 3 180) 2
46. Select the incorrect statement from the following

a) Antidepressant drugs inhibit the enzymes which catalyse the degradation of noradrenaline

b) Iproniazid is a antidepressant drug.

c) Drugs that bind to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called agonists.

d) Terfenadine act as antihistamine

47. Valium and serotonin drugs belongs to

a) Analgesics and Tranquilizers b) Tranquilizers and Analgesics

c) both are tranquilizers d) both are analgesics.

48. Aspirin is used to prevent heart attack because

a) It stimulate inflammation in the tissue b) It is a antipyretic drug

c) It is a narcotic analgesic d) It acts as antiblood clotting agent

49. Select the correct statements from the following.

1) prontosil azodye and sulphapyridine are structurally similar.

2) prontosil resembles salvarsan in structure.

3) prontosil is converted to a compound called sulphanilamide.


a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All are correct.

50. Bactericidal drug from the following

a) Ofloxacin b) Aminoglycosides c) Tetracycline d) both a and b

51. Which of the following is not a broad spectrum antibiotic drug.

a) Penicillin G b) Ampicillin c) Chloramphenicol d) Vancomycin.

52. Identify the pair of antiseptic drugs from the following

a) Aspirin, Soframicine b) Iodoform, 1 % Phenol

c) Aspirin, Iodoform d) Iodoform, Soframicine.

53. Tincture of iodine is ___

a) 2 3 % I 2 solution in CCl4

b) 2 - 3 % I 2 solution in H 2O

c) 2 3 % I 2 solution in alcohol - H 2O mixture

d) Boric acid in dilute aqueous solution of I 2

54. Which of the following food additives are not having nutritive value___

a) Ortho sulphobenzimide b) Vitamin - B

c) Sucrose d) Amino acids

55. Select the correct statements from the following

1) Transparent soaps are made by dissolving soap in C2 H5OH .

2) In saponification reaction soap obtained in colloidal form.

3) Shaving soaps contain glycerol

4) Synthetic detergents give foam in ice cold water

a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1,2 and 3 d) All are correct.

56. Select the correct match from the following .

Detergent Its use


A. Anionic 1) Hair conditioners

B. Cationic 2) Liquid dishwashing detergents.

C. Neutral 3) Tooth paste.

a) A -1, B 2 , C 3 b) A 3, B 1 , C -2

c) A 3, B 2, C 1 d) A 1, B 3, C 2

57. The amino acid, that was first obtained from cheese

a) Glycine b) Alanine c) tyrosine d) proline.

58. non essential amino acid from the following

a) Threonine b) Tyrosine c) Tryptophan d) Methionine

59. Correct statement about amino acids

a) All amino acids are amphorpus solids. b) These are high melting solids

c) These are coloured substances d) Glycine is a L amino acid.

60. In the dipeptide glycylalanine

a) Carboxyl group of glycine combines with the amino group of alanine.

b) Carboxyl group of glycine combines with the amino group of phenylalanine.

c) Amino group of glycine combines with the carboxyl group of phenylalanine.

d) Amino group of glycine combines with the carboxyl group of alanine.

61. The number of amino acids present in insulin____

a) 31 b) 20 c) 41 d) 51

62. Correct about curdling of milk

1) It is denaturation process

2) Lactic acid is consumed during curdling of milk

3) Lactic acid is formed during curdling of milk.

a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 1,2 and 3

63. The correct statement from the following


a) The molecular formula of sucrose is C12 H 22O11

b) The molecular formula of rhamnose is C6 H12O5

c) maltose on hydrolysis gives glucose and galactose units.

d) Both a & b are correct.

64. Glucose does not give test with

a) 2, 4 DNP b) NaHSO3 c) Schiffs test d) All of these.

65. Glucose forms pyranose ring structure with

a) OH group at C 5 b) OH group at C 6

c) OH group at C 4 d) OH group at C -3

66. Incorrect statement about fructose is___

a) It is a ketohexose b) It belongs to D series

c) It is a dextro rotatory compound d) It is a lacvo rotatory compound.

67. Correct statement about sucrose is___

a) It gives laevorotatory mixture upon hydrolysis

b) Glycosidic linkage present in it between C1 of glucose and C5 of fructose.

c) The laevorotation of fructose is less than dextrorotation of glucose.

d) All of these.

68. Consider the following reaction C12 H 22O11


maltase
2C6 H12O6

( E1 activation energy in the presence of maltase)

( E2 = activation energy in the absence of maltase) correct statement about the above reaction

a) E1 E2 b) E2 E1 c) E1 E2
d) The rate of reaction is more in the absence of maltase

69. The vitamin can be stored in liver

a) C b) B6 c) B12 d) D

70. Which vitamin deficiency causes night blindness


a) D b) A c) C d) B12

71. Which of the following bases doesnt contain oxygen atom.

a) Guanine b) Cytosine c) Adenine d) Uracil

72 During the formation nucleoside

a) Base is attached to 11 position of sugar

b) Phosphoric acid is attached to 51 - position of sugar

c) Base is attached to 51 position of sugar

d) Phosphoric acid is attached to 11 - position of sugar.

73. Select the correct statements about nucleic acids.


1) Adenine forms hydrogen bonds with cytosine
2) Thymine forms hydrogen bonds with Adenine
3) Cytosine forms hydrogen bonds with guanine
a) Only '1' b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 4) All are correct.
74. Methyl D glucoside and methyl D glucoside are

a) Epimers b) Anomers
c) Enantiomers d) Conformational diastereomers
75. Number of chiral carbon atoms in D (+)glucose is

a) Five b) Six c) Three d) Four

76. Which one of the following statement is not true regarding (+) lactose?

a) (+) lactose is a glycoside formed by the union of molecule of D (+) galactose and a
molecule of D(+) glucose
b) (+) lactose is a reducing sugar and does not exhibit mutarotation
c) (+) lactose, contains 8OH groups
d) On hydrolysis,(+) lactose gives equal amount of D(+)galactose and D (+)glucose

77. Among Valine, Leucine, Isoleucine, Lysine and phenyl alanine, odd member is

a) Leucine since others are acidic


b) Valine since others are basic
c) Isoleucine since others are optically active
d) Lysine since others are neutral

78. D-Alanine differs from L-Alanine with respect to

a) Configuration b) Chemical formula


c) Number of -NH2 groups d) Number of -COOH groups

79. Nature of aqueous solutions of two different amino acids X and Y are acidic and basic. Now X
and Y are
a) Alanine and valine b) Aspartic acid and Asparagine
c) Glutamine and Glutamic acid d) Aspartic acid and Lysine
80. Purine derivatives among the following bases
1. Adenine 2.Uracil 3.Guanine 4.Thymine
Find correct one
a) 1 only b) 2,3 only c) 1, 3 only d) 1,3,4 only
81. In DNA one stand direction is 5' 3' the other stand is

a) 5' 3' b) 5' 5' c) 3' 3' d) 3' 5'

82. Cytosine, Thymine and Uracil are similar with respect to

a) C=O at 2nd position in pyrimidine ring


b) NH2 group at 4th carbon in pyrimidine ring
c) C=O at 4th position in pyrimidine ring
d) absence of C=O group at 2nd position in pyrimidine ring

83. The following group is absent in Adenine but present in Guanine

a) CN b) -NH2 c) C=O d) -CONH2

84. Phosphsate ester of X is called a nucleotide. X is

a) adenine b) guanine c) nucleoside d) thymine

85. If the amino group of glycine and carboxylic acid group of alanine undergo elimination of water
molecule, the name of the compound thus formed is

a) Alanylglycine(dipeptide) b) Glycyl alanine(tri peptide)


c) Glycyl alanine(dipeptide) d) Alanineglycine(dipeptide)

86. Number of peptide linkages in the artificial sweetner aspartame is

a) 2 b) 21 c) 1 d) 11

87. Adenine pairs with thymine through

a) two hydrogen bonds b) one hydrogen bond


c) three hydrogen bonds d) four hydrogen bonds

88. The structural feature which distinguishes proline from - amino acids is

a) It is optically inactive b) It contains aromatic group


c) It is a dicarboxylic acid d) It is a secondary amine

89. Which of the following amino acids possesses a non-polar side chain ?

a) isoleucine b) serine c) cysteine d) glutamic acid

90. Among the following the basic amino acid is

a) Glycine b) Argenine c) Proline d) Cysteine

46) C 47) C 48) D 49) B 50) D 51) A 52) D 53) C 54) A 55) D

56) B 57) C 58) B 59) B 60) A 61) D 62) C 63) D 64) D 65) A

66) C 67) A 68) B 69) D 70) B 71) C 72) A 73) B 74) B 75) A

76) B 77) D 78) A 79) D 80) C 81) D 82) A 83) C 84) C 85) A

86) C 87) A 88) D 89) A 90) B

121. Which one of the following is a pentose sugar?

1) Ribose 2) Arabinose 3) Lyxose 4) All the three

122. Which of the following is not an oligosaccharide

1) Xylose 2) Maltose 3) Raffinose 4) Sucrose

123. The reagent which forms crystalline osazone derivatives with glucose is

1) Fehling solution 2) Phenyl hydrazine

3) Benedicts solution 4) Hydroxylamine

124. Glucose and galactose are

1) Mirror images 2) Anomers

3) Functional isomers 4) C4 -epimers

125. According to CIP rules, the configuration of(+) glyceraldehyde can be designated as

1) R 2) S 3) D 4) L

126. According to CIP rules, the configuration of chiral carbon atoms in D-(+) glucose are

1) 2S, 3S, 4R, 5R 2) 2S, 3R, 4S, 5R


3) 2R, 3R, 4S, 5S 4) 2R, 3S, 4R, 5R

127. The glycosidic linkage in carbohydrates is

1) Link between two carbon atoms in a carbohydrate by a covalent bond

2) Link between a carbon atom and an oxygen atom

3) Link between carbon atoms in a carbohydrate through an oxygen atom formed by elimination
of water.

4) None of these

128. Amylose consists of

1) Branched chain of -D-glucose units

2) Unbranched chain of -D-glucose units

3) Units of sucrose

4) Unbranched chain of -D-glucose units

129. Direct conversion of starch into glucose may be carried out by

1) Fermentation with diastase 2) Fermentation with zymase

3) Heating it with dil HCl 4) Fermentation with maltase

130. Cellulose is rigid due to

1) Hydrogen bonding 2) (1,4) glycosidic linkage

3) Cell wall material 4) Vegetable matter

131. In an aquouse solution of D-glucose the percentage of and anomers at equilibrium condition
are respectively

1) 80 and 20 2) 20 and 80 3) 36 and 64 4) 64 and 36

132. Starch contains

1) 20% of amylose and 80% of amylopectin

2) 30% of amylose and 70% of amylopectin

3) 80% of amylose and 20% of amylopectin

4) 70% of amylose and 30% of amylopectin

133. Which of the following statements is/are not true about glucose?
1) It is an aldohexose 2) On heating with HI it forms n-hexane

3) It is present in furanose form 4) It is a reducing sugar

134. Mutarotation is a characteristic feature of

1) Epimers 2) Enantiomers

3) Anomers 4) Ring-chain isomers

135. Which form of mannose exists predominantly in aqueous solution?

1) -form 2) -form

3) Open chain form 4) None of these

136. The specific rotation of the solution, when sucrose solution has undergone complete hydrolysis
is

1) 19.850 2) 39.700 3) 25.150 4) 9.950

137. Which of the following structures represents D-threose?


CHO CHO
H OH OH H

H OH OH H

CH2OH CH2OH
1) 2)
CHO CHO
OH H H OH

H OH OH H

CH2OH CH2OH
3) 4)

138. Which of the following amino acids contains a thiol group in the side chain

1) Methionine 2) Cysteine 3) Valine 4) Serine

139. The amino acid which contain a hydroxy group in the side chain

1) Cysteine 2) Glutamine 3) Serine 4) Leusine

140. Maximum possible hydrogen bonds are present in

1) 3.613 Helix 2) Keratin 3) Silk fibroin 4) -D-fructose


141. The prosthetic group attached to the enzymes of vitamin B12 at the time of reaction is

1) Cellulose 2) 5-deoxy adenosyl

3) -methly aspartic acid 4) Glutamic acid

142. Which one of the following is not a protein

1) Wool 2) Nail 3) Hair 4) DNA

143 Regarding enzymes, incorrect statement is

1) An enzyme is generally a protein

2) An enzyme may be a conjugated protein

3) Enzyme gets deactivated during reactions

4) Enzyme gets activated during reactions

144. Sterol, the basic unit of vitamin D, consists of 4 rings they are

1) Three 6-carbon rings one five carbon ring

2) Three 5-carbon rings one six carbon ring

3) Four 6-carbon rings only

4) Four 5-carbon rings only

145. Which of the following vitamin is Naphtha-quinone derivative?

1) A 2) B 3) D 4) K

146. Deficiency of vitamin H ( B7 ) leads to

1) Dermatitis 2) Loss of hair

3) Increase of blood cholesterol 4) All of these

147. Tristearin and Triolein are . Lipids

1) Saturated, unsaturated, 2) Unsaturated, unsaturated

3) Saturated, saturated 4) Unsaturated, saturated

148. Glycerides are also called neutral lipids because they

1) Dissolve in water to give neutral solutions


2) Do not undergo hydrogenation

3) Do not carry any charge

4) Exist as zwitter ions in aqueous solution

149. Lecithin and cephalin are

1) Neutral fats 2) Glycolipids 3) Waxes 4) Phospholipids

150. In insulin molecule S-S linkage is in between

1) Cysteine-Glycine 2) Cysteine-Cysteine

3) Cysteine-Valanine 4) Proline-Cysteine

151. Which one of the following is obtained by step growth polymerization?

1) Nylon, 6, 6 2) Neoprene

3) Polyvinylchloride 4) Polythene

152. Dacron is an example of

1) Polyamide 2) Polyester

3) Polypropylene 4) Polyvinyl

153. PMMA is

1) Polymethyl metha acrylic acid

2) Polymethyl metha acrylate

3) Polymethyl metha adipic acid

4) Polymethyl metha adipate

154. Which of the following sets contain only addition homopolymer

1) Bakelite, natural rubber, cellulose

2) Starch, nylon-6,6 , polyster

3) Teflon, bakelite, orlon

4) Neoprene, PVC, polyethene

155. Which of not a natural polymer


1) Polyisoprene 2) Polysaccharide 3) Collagen 4) Buna-S

156. Which of the following used to coagulate the rubber latex?

1) CCl 2) H O 3) CH COOH 4) C H
4 2 3 6 6

157. GR-S rubber is a copolymer of

1) Butadiene & Acrylonitrile 2) Butadiene & Styrene

3) Ethylene & Styrene 4) Ethylene & Vinyl cyanide

158. Orlon is a polymer made by using the monomer/monomers

1) Adipic acid & glycol 2) Acrylic acid & glycol

3) Acrylonitrile 4) Acrylonitrile & Butadiene

Raney nickel CrO /H SO H NOH H SO and heat


Polymerisation Polymer. The
159. Phenol 3 2 4
2
2 4

polymer is:

1) Dacoron 2) Nylon-6 3) Nylon-6, 6 4) None of them

160. In the isoprene polymer all the isoprenes have

1) Trans 1, 4 configuration 2) Cis 1, 4 configuration

3) Both cis & trans 1, 4 configuration 4) Cis 1, 2 configuration

161. Which polymer is used in batteries

1) PVC 2) Polypyrrole

3) Polymethylacrylate 4) None

162. Thermosets can have

1) Branched structure

2) Linear structure

3) Three dimensional cross-linked network

4) All the above

163. Which of the following is a bio degradable polymer?

1) PHBV 2) Polythene 3) Nylon-6, 6 4) Nylon-6

164. Which of the following is a chain growth polymer


1) Nucleic acid 2) Polystyrene 3) Protein 4) Styrene

165. Natural polymer among the following is

1) Cellulose 2) PVC 3) Teflon 4) Polyethylene

166. Ebonite is

1) Natural rubber 2) Synthetic rubber

3) Highly vulcanized rubber 4) Poly propene

167. Which of the following is not a polymer

1) Silk 2) DNA 3) DDT 4) Dextrin

168. If M W is the weight-average molecular weight and M n is the number-average molecular weight
of apolymer, the poly dispersity index(PDI) of the polymer is given by

Mn Mw 1
1) 2) 3) Mw Mn 4)
Mw Mn Mw Mn

169. The synthetic polymer which resembles natural rubber is

1) Neoprene 2) PMMA 3) Glyptal 4) Nylon

170. Monomer of silicone polymer is

1) Si 2) SiO 3) H SiO 4) R Si OH 2
2 2 3 2

171. The catalyst used in polymerization of ethylene is

1 ) Pt 2) Ni

3) Benzoyl peroxide 4) Pd BaSO


4

172. Pyroxylin is

1) Low density polythylene 2) A type of rayon

3) A silicon polymer 4) A polyamide

173. When acetylene passed through red hot Fe tube hybridization of C changes from_to_

1) sp2sp3 2) sp,sp2 3) sp,sp3d 4) sp2 ,sp

174. Polyethylene is
1) Random copolymer 2) Homopolymer

3) Alternate copolymer 4) Cross linked copolymer

175. Gutta percha is

1) cis-1,4-polyisoprene 2) Trans-1,2-polyisoprene

3) Cis-1,2-polyisoprene 4) Trans-1,4-polyisoprene

176. The mass average molecular mass and number average molecular mass of a polymer are
respectively 40,000 and 30,000. The poly dispersity index of polymer will be

1) < 1 2) > 1 3) 1 4) 0

o o
O

O O
O
177. n is

1) Polyglycolic acid 2) Polylactic acid

3) PHBV 4) Nylon-2-nylon -6

178. Partial hydrolysis of starch gives

1) Dextrose 2) Dextrin 3) Sucrose 4) Raffinose

179. Quarternary structure of hemoglobin is

1) Squareplanar 2) Octahedral

3) Pentagonal bipyramidal 4) Tetrahedral

180. Polymer used in manufacture of bullet proof glass or plexi glass is

1) Polystyrene 2) Orlon 3) Teflon 4) Perspex

121) 4 122) 2 123) 2 124) 4 125) 1 126) 4 127) 3 128) 4 129) 3 130) 1
131) 3 132) 1 133) 3 134) 3 135) 1 136) 1 137) 3 138) 2 139) 3 140) 1
141) 2 142) 4 143) 4 144) 1 145) 4 146) 4 147) 1 148) 1 149) 4 150) 2
151) 1 152) 2 153) 2 154) 4 155) 4 156) 3 157) 2 158) 3 159) 2 160) 2
161) 2 162) 3 163) 1 164) 2 165) 1 166) 3 167) 3 168) 2 169) 1 170) 4
171) 3 172) 2 173) 2 174) 2 175) 4 176) 2 177) 1 178) 2 179) 4 180) 4
46. Condensation product of caprolactum is:
a) nylon-6, 6 b) nylon-6 c) nylon-6,0 d) nylon-6, 6

47. Which of the following fibres is not made up of polyamides?

a) Wool b) Nylon c) Natural silk d) Artificial silk

48. Which one of the following polymers is prepared by condensation polymerization?

a) Rubber b) Nylon-6,6 c) Styrene d) Teflon

49. Structures of some common polymers are given.Which one is not correctly presented?

a) Teflon [CF2 CF2 ]n

b) Terylene [CO COOCH 2 CH 2 O]n

c) Nylon 6,6 [ NH CH 2 6 NHCO CH 2 4 CO]n

d) Neoprene [CH 2 C CH CH 2 CH 2 ]n
Cl

[ NH CH 2 6 NHCO CH 2 4 CO]n is a:
50.

a) Thermosetting polymer b) Homopolymer

c) Copolymer d) Addition polymer

51. Glyptal polymer is obtained from glycol by reacting it with:

a) Malonic acid b) Phthalic acid

c) maleic acid d) acetic acid

52. Which one of the following is not a correct match?

Polymer Monomer/s

a) Teflon Tetrafluoroethylene

b) Plexi glass Methyl methacrylate

c) Orlon Glycerol, phthalic anhydride

d) Buna-S Styrene, 1, 3-Butadiene


53. Which one of the following statements is not true?

a) Buna-S is a copolymer of butadiene and styrene

b) Natural rubber is a 1, 4-polymer of isoprene

c) In vulcanization, the formation of sulphur bridges between different chains make rubber
harder and stronger

d) Natural rubber has the trans configuration at every double bond

54. Ziegler- Natta catalyst is:

a) ZnCl2 b) Et3 Al TiCl4 c) Cu / ZnO Cr2O3 d) pt e) V2O5

55. Which one of the following is not a condensation polymer?

a) Buna-S b) Nylon-6 c) Dacron d) Nylon-6, 6

56. Heating of rubber with sulphur is known as:

a) galvanization b) bessemerisation

c) vulcanization d) sulphonation

57. Polythene is a resin obtained by polymerization of:

a) butadiene b) ethylene c) isoprene d) propylene

58. Which one of the following sets forms the biodegradable polymer?
a) H 2C CHCN and H 2C CH CH CH 2

HOOC COOH

b) HO CH 2 CH 2 OH and

c) H 2 N CH 2 COOH and H 2 N CH 2 5 COOH

d) H 2C CH CH CH 2 and CH CH 2

59. Given the polymers, A=Nylon -6, 6; B=Buna-S; C=polythene Arrange these in decreasing
order of their intermolecular forces:
a) C < B < A b) B > C > A c) B < C < A d) C < A < B
60. Buna N synthetic rubber is a copolymer of:
Cl

a) H 2C CH C CH 2 and H 2C CH CH CH 2

b) H 2C CH CH CH 2 and H5C6 CH CH 2

c) H 2C CH CN and H 2C CH CH CH 2

Cl
d) H 2C CH CN and H 2C CH C CH 2

61. The number of chiral carbon atoms in D glucose molecule is:

a) 3 b) 5 c) 4 d) 6
62. The sweetest of all sugars is:
a) Glucose b) lactose c) sucrose d) fructose
63. Glucose when reduced with HI and red phosphorus gives:
a) n-hexane b) n-heptane c) n-pentane d) n-octane
64. Lactose is made of:
a) -D-glucose only b) D-galactose and D-glucose

c) D-glucose and D-glucose d) D-galactose and -D-glucose

65. Which one of the following is not correct?


a) D(-) fructose exists in furanose structure
b) D(+) glucose exists in pyranose structure
c) in sucrose the two monosaccharides are held together by peptide linkage
d) Maltose is a reducing sugar
66. Fructose reduces Tollens reagent due to:
a) enolisation of fructose followed by conversion to aldehyde by base
b) primary alcoholic group
c) secondary alcoholic group
d) asymmetric carbons
67. Which one of the following is laevorotatory?
a) Glucose b) Fructose c) Sucrose d) Lactose
68. Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives:
a) D fructose b) D ribose c) D glucose d) L glucose
69. Glucose and mannose are:3

a) keto-hexoses b) anomers c) epimers d) disaccharides

70. Which of the following does not show mutarotation?

a) (-) Fructose b) (+) Lactose c) (+) Maltose d) (+) Sucrose

71. Starch is used to test even the small amount of:

a) urea in blood b) iodine in aqueous solution

c) protein in blood d) glucose in aqueous solution

72. Glucose when heated with CH3OH in presence of dry HCl gas, - and methyl glucosides
are formed. This is because it contains:

a) an aldehydic group b) CH 2OH group

c) a ring structure d) five hydroxyl groups

73. Sucrose is made up of:

a) D- glucose + L- fructose b) D glucose + D fructose

c) D fructose + L glucose d) L- fructose + L- glucose

74. The number of asymmetric carbon atoms in fructose are :

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

75. (+)-D-glucose and (-)D-glucose differ from each other due to the difference in one of the
carbons with respect to its:

a) configuration b) number of OH groups

c) conformation d) size of hemiacetal ring

76. The presence or absence of hydroxyl group on which carbon atom of sugar differentiates RNA
and DNA ?

a) 2nd b) 3rd c) 4th d) 1st

77. RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, their chirality is due to

a) D-sugar component b) L-sugar component


c) Chiral bases d) Chiral phosphate ester unit

78. The sugar moiety present in RNA molecule is

a) D 2 deoxyribose b) D galactose

c) D fructofuranose d) D ribose

79. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) All amino acids are optically active

b) All amino acids except glycine are optically active

c) All amino acids except glutamic acid are optically active

d) All amino acids except lysine are optically active

80. The one letter code for the amino acid tryptophan is

a) G b) V c) W d) H

81. The number of tripeptides formed by three different amino acids are

a) Three b) Four c) Five d) Six

82. Secondary structure of proteins refers to

a) mainly denatured proteins and the structure of the prosthetic group

b) three dimensional structure, especially between amino acid residue that are distant
from each other in the polypeptide chain

c) linear structure of amino acid residues in the polypeptide chain

d) regular folding patterns of continuous portions of the polypeptide chain

83. Select the incorrect statement, among the following:

a) Haemoglobin is soluble in water

b) Keratin is soluble in water

c) Cellulose is a polymer of glucose

d) Chlorophyll is responsible for the synthesis of carbohydrates in plants

84. In DNA, the complimentary bases are


a) adenine and quinine ; thymine and cytosine

b) uracil and adenine ; cytosine and quinine

c) adenine and thymine ; quinine and cytosine

d) adenine and thymine ; guanine and uracil

85. Which of the following are purine bases?

a) Guanine b) Adenine c) both a & b d) none

86. Lysine,
H 2 N CH 2 4 CH COOH

is NH2

a) a min oacid b) basic amino acid

c) both a & b d) a min oacid

87. Which of the following is not an essential amino acid?

a) Lysine b) Phenylalanine c) Valine d) Glycine

88. Column I Column II

a) Keratin p) Constituents of genes

b) Gammaglobulins q) Protein hormone

c) Nucleoproteins r) Structural protein

d) Insulin s) Anibodies

a) A-r, B-q, C-p, D-s b) A-r, B-p, C-s, D-q

c) A-r, B-s, C-p,D-q d) A-s, B-r, C-p, D-q

89. A carbohydrate consists of:

a) carbon and oxygen b) carbon, hydrogen and oxygen

c) carbon, hydrogen and nitrogen d) carbon and hydrogen

90. Which of the following is a monosaccharide?


a) Sucrose b) Galactose c) Maltose d) Lactose

1) b 2) d 3) b 4) d 5) c 6) b 7) c 8) d 9) b 10) a
11) c 12) b 13) c 14) a 15) c 16) c 17) d 18) a 19) b 20) c
21) a 22) b 23) c 24) c 25) d 26) b 27) c 28) b 29) b 30) a
31) a 32) a 33) d 34) b 35) c 36) d 37) d 38) b 39) c 40) c
41) c 42) d 43) c 44) b 45) b
157. Which of the following hormone contains iodine?

1)Testosterone 2)Adrenaline 3)Thyroxine 4)Insulin

158. The segment of DNA which acts as the instruction manual for the synthesis of protein is
1)ribose 2)gene 3)nucleoside 4)nucleotide
159. Which of the following statements is incorrect for sucrose?
1)It is obtained from cane sugar
2)It is not a reducing sugar
3)On hydrolysis, it gives equal amounts of D glucose and D fructose
4)It gives aspartame when it is heated at 2100C
160. The number of disulphide linkages present in insulin are

1)3 2)4 3)1 4)2

161. D glucose and D glucose are

1)enantiomers 2)conformers 3)epimers 4)anomers

162. Which of the following sets consists only of essential amino acids?
1)Alanine, tyrosine, cysteine 2)Leucine, lysine, tryptophan

3)Alanine, glutamine, lysine 4)Leucine, proline, glycine

163. If one strand of DNA has the sequence ATGCTTGA, the sequence in the complementary
strand would be
1)TCCGAACT 2)TACGTAGT 3)TACGAACT 4)TAGCTAGT

164. Denaturation of protein


1)disrupts the primary or secondary or tertiary structure of protein

2)disrupts the secondary and tertiary structures only

3)disrupts all the primary, secondary and tertiary and even the quaternary structure of
protein

4)will not affect the original biological activity


165. The tripeptide is written as Glycine Alanine Glycine. The correct structure of the
tripeptide is

O CH 3 CH 3 O CH 3
H H
N N

H2 N N N
O H COOH
H2 N
CH 3 O H COOH
1) 2)
O O
H CH 3 H
N N

H2 N N H2 N N
O CH 3 H COOH O CH 3 H COOH
3) 4)

166. Which of the following is an amine hormone?


1)Oxypurine 2)Insulin 3)Progesterone 4)Thyroxine

167. Which of the following contains cobalt?

1)Vitamin B12 2)Vitamin A 3)Vitamin C 4)Vitamin K

168. Which of the following statement is true?


1)DNAs are nucleotides and RNAs are nucleosides

2)Nucleoside + phosphate ester bond = nucleotide


3)Nucleotide + phosphate ester bond = nucleoside

4)None of these

169. Which of the following polymer is prepared from caprolactam?


1)Nylon 6, 6 2)Nylon 6, 10 3)Nylon 6 4)Nylon 11
170. Which polymers occur naturally?

1)Starch and Nylon 2)Starch and Cellulose


3)Proteins and Nylon 4)Proteins and PVC

171. The monomer used to produce orlon is

1) CH 2 CHF 2) CH 2 CCl2 3) CH 2 CHCl 4) CH 2 CH CN

172. Structures of some common polymers are given. Which one is not correctly represented?

1)Neoprene

CH 2 C CH CH 2 CH 2 n
Cl

2)Terylene

OC COOCH 2CH 2 O n

3)Nylon 66

NH (CH 2 )6 NHCO(CH 2 ) 4 CO n

CF2 CF2 n
4)Teflon

173. Among cellulose, poly (vinyl chloride), nylon and natural rubber, the polymer in which
the intermolecular force of attraction is weakest is
1)Nylon 2)Poly(vinyl chloride)

3)Cellulose 4)Natural rubber


174. Which one of the following statements is not true?

1)Buna S is a copolymer of butadiene and styrene

2)Natural rubber is a 1, 4 polymer of isoprene

3)In vulcanization, the formation of Sulphur bridges between different chains makes
rubber harder and stronger

4)Natural rubber has the trans configuration at every double bond

175. Bakelite is obtained from phenol by reaction with

1) HCHO 2) CH 2OH 2 3) CH3CHO 4) CH3COCH3

176. Which percentage of Sulphur is used in the vulcanization of rubber?


1)5% 2)3% 3)30% 4)55%

177. Which of the following polymers is prepared by condensation polymerization?

1)styrene 2)Nylon 66 3)Teflon 4)Rubber

178. In a polymer sample, 30% of molecules have a molecular mass of 20,000, 40% have
30,000 and the rest 60,000. What is the weight average molecular mass of the polymer?
1)40,300 2)30,600 3)43,333 4)50,400

179. Which of the following is biodegradable polymer of polyamide class?


1)dextron 2)nylon 2 nylon 6

3)nylon 66 4)PHBV

180. Which of the following is used in paints?

1)Terylene 2)Nylon 3)Glyptal 4)Chloroprene

157) 3 158) 2 159) 4 160) 1


161) 4 162) 2 163) 3 164) 2 165) 3 166) 4 167) 1 168) 2 169) 3 170) 2
171) 4 172) 1 173) 4 174) 4 175) 1 176) 1 177) 2 178) 3 179) 4 180) 3